Scattering of α-particles by a thin gold foil suggests the presence of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom
Explanation
In the Rutherford α-particle scattering experiment, positively charged helium nuclei were directed at a thin gold foil. The observation that a small fraction of these particles was deflected at angles greater than 90° and some were even reflected back toward the source could only be explained by a massive, positively charged center within the atom. According to the law of electrostatic repulsion, the force F = (1)/(4πε₀) (q₁q₂)/(r²) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. For an α-particle to be deflected at such large angles, it must encounter a very high concentration of positive charge in a minute volume. This led to the discovery of the nucleus, proving that the atom positive charge and nearly all its mass are concentrated in a tiny, dense region at its center.
2Science and Technology
The elements of which of the following pairs are isobars?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) ⁴⁰₁₈Ar and ⁴⁰₂₀Ca
Explanation
Isobars are atoms of different chemical elements that have the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z). This means that while the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in their nuclei is identical, the number of protons is different, giving them distinct chemical identities. In the pair containing Argon (Ar) and Calcium (Ca), both atoms have a mass number of 40. Argon has an atomic number of 18 (Z = 18, consisting of 18 protons and 22 neutrons), whereas Calcium has an atomic number of 20 (Z = 20, consisting of 20 protons and 20 neutrons). Since their mass numbers are equal and their atomic numbers are different, they satisfy the definition of isobars.
3Science and Technology
Which one of the following chemical reactions is not feasible?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Cu + PbCl₂ → CuCl₂ + Pb
Explanation
The feasibility of a single displacement reaction is determined by the reactivity series of metals, where a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution. In the electrochemical or activity series, the relative positions of the metals involved are Mg > Zn > Fe > Pb > H > Cu. Since copper (Cu) is less reactive than lead (Pb), it cannot displace lead from its compound, lead(II) chloride (PbCl₂). Therefore, the chemical reaction Cu + PbCl₂ → CuCl₂ + Pb is not feasible under standard conditions as copper lacks the necessary oxidation potential to reduce lead ions.
4Science and Technology
A solution having pH equal to zero is known as
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) highly acidic solution
Explanation
The pH scale is used to specify the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution, defined by the formula pH = -log₁₀[H⁺], where [H⁺] is the molar concentration of hydrogen ions. On this scale, a value of 7 is considered neutral at 25 degrees Celsius. Solutions with a pH value less than 7 are acidic, and the acidity increases as the pH value decreases. A pH of 0 indicates a very high concentration of hydrogen ions (10⁰ or 1 mole per liter), which is characteristic of strong, concentrated acids such as 1M hydrochloric acid. Consequently, a solution with a pH equal to zero is a highly acidic solution.
5Science and Technology
Which one of the following acids is produced in human stomach?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Hydrochloric acid
Explanation
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted by the parietal cells, also known as oxyntic cells, which are located in the gastric glands of the stomach lining. The primary function of this acid is to maintain a highly acidic environment in the stomach, typically with a pH between 1.5 and 3.5. This acidic medium is essential for the activation of the enzyme pepsinogen into pepsin, which is the principal enzyme responsible for the digestion of proteins. Additionally, the presence of hydrochloric acid acts as a biological defense mechanism by killing many of the bacteria and other microorganisms that are ingested along with food, thereby preventing potential infections.
6Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I(Compound) List-II(Use)
A. Boric acid
1. Antiseptic
B. Citric acid
2. Food preservative
C. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Antacid
D. Acetic acid
4. Pickle
Code :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) A B C D
1 2 3 4
Explanation
Boric acid (H₃BO₃) is a weak acid commonly used as a mild antiseptic for minor burns or cuts and is a frequent ingredient in eyewashes. Citric acid (C₆H₈O₇) is a natural organic acid found in citrus fruits that serves as an effective food preservative and antioxidant in various processed products. Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂), popularly known as milk of magnesia, is a basic compound used as an antacid to neutralize excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach. Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is the principal component of vinegar and is traditionally used in the preparation of pickles to provide the necessary acidity for preservation and flavoring. Therefore, the correct matching sequence is A-1, B-2, C-3, and D-4.
7Science and Technology
The property of the sound waves that determines the pitch of the sound is its
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) frequency
Explanation
Pitch is the subjective perception of sound that allows a listener to distinguish between high and low tones. This property is directly determined by the frequency of the sound wave, which represents the number of vibrations or cycles of the wave that occur per unit of time, typically measured in Hertz (Hz). When an object vibrates rapidly, it produces sound waves with a high frequency, which the human ear interprets as a high-pitched sound. Conversely, a slower vibration results in a lower frequency, which is perceived as a low-pitched sound. Therefore, the frequency of the oscillation in the medium is the physical attribute responsible for the musical characteristic known as pitch.
8Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a property of the X-rays?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) They are deflected by electric fields.
Explanation
X-rays are a form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation consisting of photons. Unlike charged particles such as electrons or ions, X-rays are electrically neutral and carry no net charge. According to the laws of electromagnetism, only charged particles experience a force and subsequent deflection when passing through an external electric field (F = qE). Because X-rays lack charge (q = 0), they are not deflected by electric or magnetic fields and instead travel in straight lines through such regions.
9Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not true about the image formed by a plane mirror?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) It is real image.
Explanation
The image produced by a plane mirror is virtual, not real. In optics, a virtual image is formed when the reflected light rays diverge and only appear to originate from a point behind the mirror when traced backward. Because the rays do not actually meet at a physical location, a virtual image cannot be projected onto a screen. Real images, by contrast, are formed by the actual convergence of light rays at a point in space.
10Science and Technology
In a periscope, the two plane mirrors are kept
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) parallel to each other
Explanation
A periscope operates on the principle of reflection through a pair of plane mirrors. In a basic periscope, two plane mirrors are fixed at the ends of a tube, both oriented at a 45° angle to the path of the incoming light. These mirrors are positioned parallel to each other so that the light reflected by the first mirror travels down the tube and strikes the second mirror at the same angle. Because the mirrors are parallel, the second reflection directs the light rays in a path that is parallel to the original direction of the incident light. This specific arrangement allows an observer to see objects that are not in their direct line of sight while maintaining an upright image.
11Science and Technology
If the speed of light in air is 3 × 10⁸ m/s, then the speed of light in a medium of refractive index 3/2 is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 2 × 10⁸ m/s
Explanation
The refractive index n of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum or air c to the speed of light in that specific medium v. This relationship is expressed by the formula:
n = c/v
To find the speed of light in the medium, the formula is rearranged as:
v = c/n
Substituting the given values, where the speed of light in air c = 3 × 10⁸ m / s and the refractive index of the medium n = 3/2:
v = (3 × 10⁸)/(3/2)
By multiplying by the reciprocal of the fraction:
v = 3 × 10⁸ × 2/3
v = 2 × 10⁸ m / s
12Science and Technology
Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Ultraviolet (UV)
Explanation
The electromagnetic spectrum is classified based on wavelength, frequency, and energy. According to the wave equation c = νλ, wavelength λ is inversely proportional to frequency ν. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation occupies the portion of the spectrum between visible light and X-rays, with a wavelength range typically spanning from 10 nm to 400 nm. This range is significantly shorter than that of visible light (400 nm to 700 nm), infrared radiation (700 nm to 1 mm), and radio waves, which have the longest wavelengths in the spectrum exceeding 1 mm. Because ultraviolet radiation has the shortest wavelength among the provided options, it also carries the highest frequency and photon energy.
13Science and Technology
The unit of the force constant k of a spring is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) N/m
Explanation
The force constant k of a spring is defined by Hooke's Law, which states that the force F needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance x scales linearly with that distance. This relationship is expressed by the formula F = kx, where k represents the stiffness of the spring. To find the unit of k, the formula is rearranged as k = F/x. In the International System of Units (SI), the unit for force is the Newton (N) and the unit for displacement or length is the meter (m). By substituting these units into the equation, the unit for the force constant k is determined to be Newton per meter (N/m).
14Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an epidemic disease?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Elephantiasis
Explanation
Elephantiasis, also known as lymphatic filariasis, is categorized as a chronic endemic disease rather than an epidemic disease. An epidemic is defined by a sudden and rapid increase in the number of cases of a disease significantly above what is normally expected in a specific population or area. Elephantiasis is caused by parasitic filarial worms transmitted through mosquito bites and typically results in a slow, progressive infection that leads to long-term disability and disfigurement. It persists at a steady, predictable rate within specific geographic regions and does not exhibit the rapid, explosive transmission patterns or sudden outbreaks that characterize epidemic diseases.
15Science and Technology
Which one of the following animals has a three-chambered heart?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Salamander
Explanation
Salamanders belong to the class Amphibia, which is characterized by having a three-chambered heart. This heart structure consists of two atria and a single ventricle. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood returning from the body's systemic circulation, while the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs or skin. Both atria pump their respective blood into the common ventricle, where some mixing occurs before the blood is distributed back to the respiratory organs and the rest of the body. This three-chambered arrangement is a key physiological trait of most amphibians, providing a more efficient delivery of oxygen compared to the two-chambered hearts of fish.
16Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events during sexual reproduction in plants?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Pollination, fertilization, division of zygote, formation of embryo, seedling
Explanation
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants follows a specific chronological order starting with pollination, which is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma. Following pollination, fertilization occurs when the male gamete from the pollen tube fuses with the female gamete in the ovule to form a zygote. This zygote then undergoes a series of cell divisions to grow into a multicellular embryo. The embryo, protected within the seed coat, remains dormant until conditions are favorable for germination. Upon germination, the embryo utilizes stored nutrients to grow and emerge from the seed, eventually developing into a seedling. This sequence ensures the successful transition from the fusion of genetic material to the establishment of a new plant generation.
17Science and Technology
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing limewater, the limewater turns milky. This is due to the presence of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) carbon dioxide
Explanation
The milkiness of limewater is a standard chemical test for the presence of carbon dioxide (CO₂). When air is exhaled from the mouth, it contains a significant concentration of CO₂ produced during cellular respiration. Limewater is a solution of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)₂. When CO₂ is blown into this solution, it reacts to form calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) and water according to the following chemical equation: Ca(OH)₂(aq) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s) + H₂O(l). Calcium carbonate is an insoluble white precipitate that remains suspended in the liquid, giving the solution its characteristic milky or cloudy appearance.
18Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the 'energy currency' for cellular processes?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) ATP
Explanation
ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) serves as the primary energy carrier for cellular processes in all living organisms, acting as a universal energy currency. It stores chemical energy within its high-energy phosphate bonds, specifically the terminal phosphoanhydride bonds. When a cell performs biological work—such as active transport across membranes, muscle contraction, or chemical synthesis—it hydrolyzes the terminal phosphate group of ATP, converting it into ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate. This reaction releases approximately 30.5 kJ/mol of energy, which is then directly coupled to drive necessary endergonic reactions. This rapid and efficient cycle of ATP synthesis and breakdown ensures that energy is readily available for the cell's immediate metabolic needs.
19Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Amylase
Explanation
The process of digestion begins in the mouth, also known as the buccal cavity. As soon as food is ingested, it is mechanically broken down by the teeth and mixed with saliva secreted by the salivary glands. Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase, also known as ptyalin. This is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract. Salivary amylase initiates the chemical digestion of carbohydrates by catalyzing the hydrolysis of starch into simpler sugars such as maltose and dextrin. This enzymatic action starts immediately during mastication before the food is swallowed and moved further down the alimentary canal to the stomach and intestines.
20History
Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March, a great event in Indian freedom struggle, was associated with
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) sodium chloride
Explanation
The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, was a major non-violent protest action led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 against the British salt monopoly in India. Gandhi chose sodium chloride (NaCl), or common salt, as the symbol of resistance because the British government had imposed a salt tax and prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt, affecting every citizen regardless of their economic status. By marching 240 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi and picking up a handful of salt from the shores, Gandhi symbolically broke the Salt Act of 1882. This act of defiance using a universal necessity triggered the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement and drew international attention to the Indian independence struggle.
21Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Name) List-II (Formula)
A. Bleaching powder 1. NaHCO₃
B. Baking soda 2. Na₂CO₃ · 10H₂O
C. Washing soda 3. Ca(OH)₂
D. Slaked lime 4. CaOCl₂
Code :
A B C D
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride with the chemical formula CaOCl₂, which is produced by the reaction of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime. Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate, represented by the chemical formula NaHCO₃, and is used primarily in baking and as an antacid. Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate, Na₂CO₃ · 10H₂O, which is essential for the manufacturing of soap and glass and for removing the permanent hardness of water. Slaked lime is calcium hydroxide with the formula Ca(OH)₂, formed by the vigorous reaction between calcium oxide and water.
22Science and Technology
The number of water molecules associated with copper sulphate molecule to form crystals is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 5
Explanation
The chemical formula for crystalline copper sulphate is CuSO₄ · 5H₂O, commonly known as copper(II) sulphate pentahydrate or blue vitriol. The number of water molecules associated with each formula unit of copper sulphate to form these crystals is five, which is referred to as the water of crystallization. In the crystal structure, four of these water molecules are directly coordinated to the copper cation (Cu²⁺) in a square planar arrangement. The fifth water molecule is held within the lattice by hydrogen bonding between the sulphate anion (SO₄²⁻) and the coordinated water molecules. This specific degree of hydration is responsible for the characteristic bright blue color of the crystals; when this water is removed by heating, the substance becomes a white anhydrous powder.
23Science and Technology
Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air because
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide
Explanation
Silver articles undergo a chemical reaction known as tarnishing when exposed to the atmosphere. Although silver is a relatively unreactive metal, it reacts with trace amounts of sulfur compounds present in the air, primarily hydrogen sulfide (H₂S). This reaction results in the formation of a thin coating of silver sulfide (Ag₂S) on the surface of the metal. The chemical process can be represented by the equation: 4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O. Silver sulfide is a black-colored solid, and its accumulation on the surface is what causes the silver to lose its shine and turn black over time. This layer is very stable and adheres strongly to the metal surface.
24Science and Technology
If x is the temperature of a system in Kelvin and y is the temperature of the system in °C , then the correct relation between them is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) x = 273 + y
Explanation
The Kelvin scale is an absolute thermodynamic temperature scale where 0 K represents absolute zero, the point at which all thermal motion ceases. The Celsius scale is defined such that the freezing point of water is 0°C. The magnitude of one unit of temperature increment is identical on both scales, meaning a change of 1 K is equal to a change of 1°C. The two scales are offset by a constant value of 273.15. In most general science and competitive exam contexts, this value is rounded to 273. The standard conversion formula is:
T(K) = T(°C) + 273.15
By substituting x for the temperature in Kelvin and y for the temperature in degrees Celsius as specified in the question, the relationship is expressed as:
x = y + 273
This can be written as x = 273 + y.
25Science and Technology
The resistivity ρ of a material may be expressed in units of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) ohm-cm
Explanation
The resistance R of a conductor is directly proportional to its length L and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area A. This relationship is expressed as R = ρ L/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material. Rearranging this formula to solve for resistivity gives ρ = R · A/L.
Substituting the standard units into this equation, resistance R is measured in ohms (Ω), area A is measured in square centimeters (cm²), and length L is measured in centimeters (cm). Therefore, the unit of resistivity is Ω · cm²/cm = Ω · cm, commonly written as ohm-cm.
26Science and Technology
The electromagnetic waves, which are used for satellite communication, are
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) radio waves
Explanation
Satellite communication utilizes radio waves, specifically the high-frequency microwave portion of the radio spectrum, because these waves possess the ability to penetrate the Earth's atmosphere and ionosphere without being reflected back or significantly attenuated. These waves typically operate in frequency bands such as the C-band, Ku-band, and Ka-band, allowing for the efficient transmission of large volumes of data, including television signals, internet traffic, and telephonic communication, between ground stations and orbiting satellites. The high frequency of these waves ensures wide bandwidth and a line-of-sight propagation path necessary for space-based relay systems.
27Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of organs that occur in the path of urine flow in human body?
The human urinary system follows a specific anatomical sequence to filter, transport, store, and excrete liquid waste. The process begins in the kidneys, where blood is filtered by nephrons to produce urine. Once formed, urine flows from the collecting ducts into the renal pelvis and then enters the ureters. The ureters are bilateral muscular tubes that use peristaltic movements to carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder acts as a distensible storage reservoir that holds urine until it reaches a volume that triggers the urge to urinate. Finally, urine is expelled from the bladder and leaves the body through the urethra, which is the terminal conduit of the urinary tract. This unidirectional flow is essential for maintaining fluid balance and preventing the buildup of metabolic toxins.
28Science and Technology
Which of the following endocrine glands is not found in pair in humans?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Pituitary
Explanation
The pituitary gland is a single, unpaired endocrine gland located at the base of the brain in a bony structure called the sella turcica. It serves as the master gland of the endocrine system, secreting hormones that regulate various physiological processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Although it is functionally divided into the anterior lobe and the posterior lobe, it is anatomically a singular midline structure in the human body.
29Science and Technology
Which one of the following cell organelles contains DNA?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Mitochondrion
Explanation
Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles that possess their own genetic material in the form of small, circular DNA molecules known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). This DNA allows mitochondria to replicate independently of the cell cycle and encode for some of the proteins and enzymes required for their specific functions, such as oxidative phosphorylation. The presence of DNA and ribosomes within mitochondria is a key piece of evidence for the endosymbiotic theory, which posits that these organelles originated from ancestral aerobic prokaryotes that entered into a symbiotic relationship with early eukaryotic cells. While the majority of a cell's DNA is housed within the nucleus, the mitochondrion is one of the few organelles outside the nucleus to contain its own genome.
30Science and Technology
Who among the following scientists introduced the concept of immunization to the medical world?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Edward Jenner
Explanation
Edward Jenner is widely regarded as the father of immunology for his pioneering work in the late 18th century. In 1796, he observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox, a relatively mild disease, appeared to be immune to the much more devastating smallpox. To test this hypothesis, Jenner inoculated a young boy with matter from a cowpox lesion and subsequently exposed him to smallpox, discovering that the boy did not develop the disease. This groundbreaking experiment provided the first scientific evidence for the principle of vaccination and artificial immunity, effectively introducing the concept of immunization to the medical world and laying the foundation for modern preventive medicine.
31History
On 31st December, 1929, in which one of the following Congress Sessions was proclamation of Purna Swaraj made?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Lahore
Explanation
The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress, held in December 1929 under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, was a landmark event where the resolution for Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence was officially adopted. On the midnight of 31st December 1929, Nehru hoisted the tricolour flag on the banks of the river Ravi, declaring that it was a crime against man and God to submit any longer to British rule. This session marked a fundamental shift in the nationalist strategy, leading to the decision to observe 26th January 1930 as Independence Day and authorizing the Working Committee to launch a program of Civil Disobedience including non-payment of taxes.
32Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Acts reserved seats for women in Legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats for different communities?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1935, further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women, and labor (workers). While previous acts like the Indian Councils Act of 1909 and the Government of India Act of 1919 had introduced and expanded separate electorates for various religious and ethnic communities, the 1935 Act was the first to specifically reserve seats for women in the legislatures. This allocation was done in accordance with the broader framework of communal representation, ensuring that women had designated seats within the legislative bodies at both the federal and provincial levels.
33Polity and Governance
Which one among the following was demanded by the All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference at Bombay in 1931?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Separate electorates for untouchables
Explanation
The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference was held at Bombay in April 1931, under the presidency of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This conference served as a platform to consolidate the political demands of the Depressed Classes before the Second Round Table Conference. The primary demand formulated at this gathering was the provision of separate electorates for the untouchables.
The leadership argued that the Depressed Classes should be recognized as a distinct minority, separate from the Hindu community for electoral purposes. Ambedkar contended that separate electorates were the only effective mechanism to ensure that the community could elect its own representatives without being overshadowed or influenced by the caste Hindu majority. This stance was predicated on the belief that joint electorates, even with reserved seats, would result in the election of candidates who were subservient to the majority community's interests rather than true advocates for the rights of the Depressed Classes.
34Art and Culture
Who among the following was one of the founders of the Indian Society of Oriental Art?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Abanindranath Tagore
Explanation
Abanindranath Tagore was a pioneering figure who co-founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art in 1907 in Calcutta. The society was established to promote and revive traditional Indian art forms and to create a distinct Indian style of painting that moved away from the Western academic realism prevalent at the time. Under his leadership, the society became the heart of the Bengal School of Art, encouraging artists to draw inspiration from Indian history, mythology, and classical heritage, such as the frescoes of Ajanta and Mughal miniatures. Through exhibitions and the publication of the journal Rupam, the society successfully projected Indian art on an international stage and fostered a sense of national identity through aesthetics.
35History
Who among the following Sultans succeeded in finally breaking and destroying the power of Turkan-i-Chihalgani?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Balban
Explanation
Ghiyasuddin Balban, who was himself a member of the Turkan-i-Chihalgani during the reign of Iltutmish and his successors, realized that this elite corps of forty Turkish nobles had become a threat to the stability and authority of the Sultanate. Upon ascending the throne, Balban sought to establish an absolute monarchy and restore the prestige of the Crown. He recognized that the Chihalgani acted as a king-making clique that limited the Sultan's power. To eliminate this influence, he adopted a ruthless policy of Blood and Iron, systematically destroying the group through executions, poisoning, and public humiliations for minor offenses. By breaking the power of these nobles, Balban successfully centralized authority and ensured that the nobility remained subordinate to the sovereign.
36History
Who among the following Mongol leaders/commanders did not cross Indus to attack India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Chenghiz Khan
Explanation
In 1221, Genghis Khan reached the banks of the Indus River while pursuing the Khwarezmian prince Jalaluddin Mingburnu. Following the Battle of the Indus, where the Mongol forces defeated the prince, Genghis Khan halted his campaign. He decided against crossing the Indus to launch an invasion of the Delhi Sultanate, then ruled by Iltutmish. Historical accounts suggest that he was deterred by the oppressive heat of the Indian plains, the geographical barriers, and unfavorable omens. After staying in the vicinity for a short period, he withdrew his forces toward Central Asia, making him the only leader among the choices who did not cross the river to attack the Indian heartland.
37Geography
In the region of eastern shore of Adriatic Sea, a cold and dry wind blowing down from the mountain is known as
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Bora
Explanation
The Bora is a cold, dry, northeasterly wind that flows from the interior of the Balkan Peninsula toward the eastern coast of the Adriatic Sea. It is classified as a katabatic wind, occurring when high-density cold air over the highlands and plateaus of the Dinaric Alps descends under the influence of gravity toward the warmer coastal regions. This wind is most prevalent during the winter months and is known for its sudden onset and violent gusts, often causing a significant drop in temperature and creating hazardous conditions for maritime activities in the Adriatic region.
38Geography
Nyishi tribe is found mainly in
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Nyishi tribe is the most populous ethnic group in Arunachal Pradesh, primarily residing in the central parts of the state including districts such as Papum Pare, East Kameng, Lower Subansiri, and Kurung Kumey. They belong to the Tani group and speak the Nyishi language, which is classified under the Tibeto-Burman language family. Culturally, they are renowned for the Nyokum festival, an agricultural celebration held to pray for a bountiful harvest and the welfare of the community. Historically, the Nyishi men were distinguished by their traditional wickerwork hats called bopa, which were famously decorated with the beak of the Great Indian Hornbill, although artificial beaks are now commonly used for wildlife conservation purposes.
39Geography
In the field of tourism, which one of the following Indian States is described as 'One State Many Worlds'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Karnataka
Explanation
The tagline One State Many Worlds is the official tourism slogan of Karnataka. It was adopted by the Karnataka Department of Tourism to showcase the state's vast topographical and cultural diversity. Within its borders, Karnataka encompasses a wide variety of attractions that appeal to different types of travelers, including the UNESCO World Heritage Sites of Hampi and Pattadakal, the lush forests and biodiversity of the Western Ghats, the coffee-growing regions of Coorg and Chikmagalur, and the extensive coastline along the Arabian Sea. The slogan reflects the state's ability to offer experiences ranging from ancient cave temples and royal palaces to modern cosmopolitan cities and wildlife sanctuaries, effectively providing a world's worth of travel experiences within a single Indian state.
40Geography
The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed as
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) physiological density
Explanation
Physiological density, also known as real density, is a demographic measure used to understand the pressure a population exerts on its food-producing land. It is calculated by dividing the total population of a country or region by its total area of arable land, which is the land suitable for agriculture. The formula is expressed as:
Physiological Density = Total Population/Total Arable Land Area
This metric is considered more meaningful than simple arithmetic density because it excludes non-productive land such as deserts, mountains, and urban areas, focusing instead on the relationship between the number of people and the actual resources available to sustain them through food production. A high physiological density indicates that a large number of people are dependent on a relatively small amount of cultivable land.
41Geography
Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Son
Explanation
The Son river is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganga that originates from the Amarkantak plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows in a north-northeasterly direction through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Bihar. After traversing a distance of approximately 784 kilometers, it joins the Ganga directly at Maner, located near Patna in Bihar. It is one of the largest southern tributaries of the Ganga and is geologically significant for its path through the Kaimur Range.
42Economy
Which one of the following is not a type of commercial agriculture?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Intensive subsistence agriculture
Explanation
Intensive subsistence agriculture is a farming system practiced in densely populated regions where the primary goal is to produce enough food for the farmer's own family or local consumption rather than for sale in the market. It is characterized by small landholdings, high labor intensity, and the use of manual tools and animals rather than large-scale machinery. Since the production is consumed locally and is not driven by profit or large-scale trade, it is classified as a subsistence activity rather than a commercial one.
43Geography
Which one of the following is not a land use category?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Marginal land
Explanation
Marginal land is not a recognized administrative or statistical land use category within the standard classification system used by the Land Revenue Department or the Ministry of Agriculture in India. Although the term is frequently used in economic and environmental contexts to describe land that is barely productive or yields returns that just cover the cost of production, it does not form part of the official nine-fold land use classification. In official records, land is categorized based on its functional status, such as being under forest cover, used for grazing, or left fallow, whereas marginality refers to the quality or economic viability of the land rather than a specific use.
44Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an objective of the MGNREGA?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial year
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) specifically provides a legal guarantee for at least 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do unskilled manual work. The core mandate of the scheme is to provide a safety net for the rural poor by offering work that does not require specialized training or professional skills. While the program allows for a certain ratio of expenditure on semi-skilled and skilled labour related to project implementation, the 100-day employment guarantee itself applies only to unskilled manual labour. Therefore, providing skilled labour is not a primary objective or a legal guarantee under this Act.
45Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the functioning of the Panchayats is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) A person who has attained the age of 25 years will be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat.
Explanation
Under Article 243F of the Constitution of India, the minimum age for a person to be eligible for election as a member of a Panchayat is 21 years. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act specifically provides that no person shall be disqualified from membership on the grounds of age if he or she has attained the age of 21 years. This distinguishes the eligibility criteria for local bodies from those of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, where the minimum age requirement is 25 years. Consequently, the statement requiring an individual to be 25 years of age for Panchayat membership is factually incorrect.
46Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme of the Government of India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on December 25, 2000, under the administration of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It was introduced as a centrally sponsored scheme with the primary objective of providing all-weather road connectivity to eligible unconnected habitations in rural areas. By connecting rural populations to urban markets, health centers, and educational institutions, the scheme aims to promote socio-economic development and poverty reduction. In contrast to the other schemes listed, which were launched or extensively rebranded around 2014, PMGSY is the oldest initiative among the provided choices.
47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme.
Explanation
Under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) guidelines, the role of a Member of Parliament is restricted to recommending developmental works to the District Authority based on locally felt needs. The MP does not have the authority to sanction, execute, or complete the works directly. Instead, the District Authority, typically the District Collector, District Magistrate, or Deputy Commissioner, is responsible for examining the technical and administrative feasibility of the recommended works, sanctioning the funds, identifying the implementing agency, and ensuring the timely execution and quality of the projects. The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme where funds are released directly to the District Authorities, and the implementation process follows the established procedures of the state government or the central government as applicable.
48Polity and Governance
Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which of the following areas?
The Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, popularly known as the Saubhagya scheme, was launched by the Government of India in September 2017 with the specific objective of achieving universal household electrification. The scheme aims to provide last-mile connectivity and electricity connections to all un-electrified households in both rural and urban areas across the country to ensure energy access for all. It was designed to improve the quality of life, education, and health services by providing a reliable power supply. Under Saubhagya, electricity connections are provided free of charge to households identified as poor using the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data, while other households can obtain a connection by paying a nominal charge in installments.
49Geography
The 'Basel Convention' is aimed at protecting human health and environment against adverse effects of which of the following?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Hazardous wastes
Explanation
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992. It is a comprehensive global environmental agreement that addresses hazardous and other wastes. The convention's primary objectives are to minimize the generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness, to dispose of them as close to the source of generation as possible, and to reduce the international movement of hazardous wastes. It establishes a regulatory system based on the principle of Prior Informed Consent (PIC), ensuring that transboundary movements of hazardous wastes only occur with the formal notification and consent of the authorities in the importing and transit countries.
50Geography
Which one of the following is the biggest cause of incidence of migration of female persons in India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Marriage
Explanation
Marriage is the predominant driver of female migration in India, primarily due to the socio-cultural practice of patrilocality, where women move to their husband's household after marriage. According to data from the 2011 Census, marriage accounts for approximately 66 percent of total female migration in the country. This pattern is deeply structural and remains the leading cause across both rural and urban sectors, far outweighing economic or educational factors. In the rural context, marriage-related migration is particularly dominant, often involving movement between villages within the same district or state. Statistics consistently show that while male migration is frequently driven by work and employment, female mobility in the Indian demographic landscape is overwhelmingly governed by marital unions and the subsequent change in residence.
51Economy
Which one of the following is not correct about Repo rate?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) It is the cost of collateral security.
Explanation
The repo rate is the fixed interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities. It represents the cost of borrowing funds for commercial banks to meet short-term requirements. It is not the cost of the collateral security itself, as the collateral consists of pre-existing securities like government bonds that have their own market pricing and yields. The repo rate is a price for the use of money over a specific duration, whereas the cost of collateral refers to the valuation or acquisition price of the underlying assets used to secure the transaction.
52Economy
The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as balances with the RBI
Explanation
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a mandatory percentage of a bank's total Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that it must maintain as a cash balance with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Under Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934, all scheduled commercial banks are required to keep these reserves with the central bank to ensure they have sufficient liquid cash to meet the demands of their depositors and to serve as a tool for the RBI to regulate liquidity in the economy. Unlike the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which banks maintain with themselves in the form of liquid assets, CRR must be deposited specifically with the RBI and does not earn any interest for the banks. By increasing the CRR, the RBI can drain excess liquidity from the banking system, while decreasing it helps in injecting liquidity to spur economic growth.
53Economy
In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y , what is tacitly assumed?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both variables are in the same unit.
Explanation
The slope of a line in a Cartesian coordinate system is defined as m = tan(θ), where θ is the angle the line makes with the positive x-axis. For a line passing through the origin at a 45° angle, the slope is m = tan(45°) = 1. The equation of this line is Y = mX, which simplifies to Y = X.
In economic modeling, such as the Keynesian Cross or the Lorenz Curve, this line of identity represents points where the values on both axes are equal. For the mathematical identity X = Y to have any functional economic meaning, both variables must be measured in the same unit. For example, in the Keynesian model, the 45° line shows equilibrium where Planned Expenditure equals National Income; since both are measured in the same currency units, every point on the line represents a state where 1 unit of income corresponds to 1 unit of expenditure. If the variables were measured in different units or scales, a 1:1 numerical relationship would not represent equivalence, and the 45° line would lose its significance as a reference for identity.
54Art and Culture
Who among the following won the Best Men's Player Award of FIFA Football Awards, 2019?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Lionel Messi
Explanation
Lionel Messi was named the Best FIFA Men's Player for 2019 at the awards ceremony held at the Teatro alla Scala in Milan. He won the award after an exceptional 2018-19 season where he led Barcelona to the La Liga title and reached the semi-finals of the UEFA Champions League. Messi was the top scorer in both La Liga, winning his sixth Pichichi Trophy, and the Champions League, finishing with twelve goals. This victory marked the sixth time he received FIFA's top individual honor, highlighting his continued dominance in world football through his scoring prowess and playmaking abilities.
55Economy
In September 2019, which one of the following travel giants declared itself bankrupt?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Thomas Cook
Explanation
Thomas Cook, the 178-year-old British global travel icon, declared bankruptcy and entered compulsory liquidation on September 23, 2019. The collapse occurred after the company failed to secure a £200 million rescue deal from its lenders and shareholders to stabilize its finances. This failure triggered the UK's largest-ever peacetime repatriation effort, known as Operation Matterhorn, to bring home more than 150,000 stranded holidaymakers. The company had been struggling with a massive £1.7 billion debt burden, shifting consumer habits toward online booking, and significant financial losses reported earlier that year.
56Geography
Greta Thunberg, a teenaged environment activist who was in news recently, hails from
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sweden
Explanation
Greta Thunberg is a Swedish environmental activist who gained international recognition for her efforts to combat climate change. Born in Stockholm, Sweden, she initiated the School Strike for Climate movement in August 2018 by protesting outside the Swedish Parliament. Her activism led to the global Fridays for Future movement and earned her numerous accolades, including being named Time magazine Person of the Year in 2019 for her impact on environmental policy discussions worldwide.
57Economy
Recently the Reserve Bank of India has imposed limitations, initially for a period of six months, on the withdrawal of amount by account holders of which one of the following banks?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed Directions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative (PMC) Bank Limited, Mumbai, under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, effective from the close of business on September 24, 2019. These restrictions were initially scheduled for a period of six months and included a strict limit on the withdrawal of funds by account holders to protect the bank's liquidity and depositor interests. The action followed the discovery of severe financial irregularities, including the systematic under-reporting of bad loans and a massive, undisclosed loan exposure to the Housing Development and Infrastructure Ltd (HDIL) group. By invoking these emergency powers, the RBI took control of the bank's management to address the collapse of internal controls and the failure of the bank’s board to provide accurate financial disclosures.
58Art and Culture
Amitabh Bachchan was recently conferred with the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Who among the following was the first recipient of the award?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Devika Rani
Explanation
Devika Rani, often celebrated as the First Lady of Indian Cinema, was the inaugural recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1969. The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate the contribution of Dadasaheb Phalke, the father of Indian cinema. Devika Rani was recognized for her extraordinary career as an actress and her visionary leadership in co-founding Bombay Talkies, one of India's first professional film studios, which played a pivotal role in the technical and artistic development of the early Indian film industry.
59Art and Culture
The famous Mughal painting, depicting Jahangir embracing the Safavid king Shah Abbas, was painted by which one of the following Mughal painters?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Abul Hasan
Explanation
Abul Hasan was the preeminent court painter during the reign of Emperor Jahangir, who bestowed upon him the title Nadir-uz-Zaman (Wonder of the Age). He was responsible for creating the iconic allegorical portrait of Jahangir embracing the Safavid King Shah Abbas I. This painting, executed around 1618, was not a depiction of a real event but a symbolic representation of Mughal power and diplomatic dominance. It portrays Jahangir as a superior figure standing on a lion, while Shah Abbas stands on a lamb, with both animals resting on a terrestrial globe. The work reflects the high level of naturalism and sophisticated political messaging characteristic of Abul Hasan's style.
60History
Which of the following statements about 'Mughal Mansab' system are correct?
1. 'Zat' rank was an indicator of a Mansabdar's position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the Mansabdar.
2. 'Sawar' rank indicated the number of horsemen the Mansabdar was required to maintain.
3. In the seventeenth century, Mansabdars holding 1000 or above 'Sawar' rank were designated as nobles (Umarar).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Zat rank in the Mughal Mansabdari system defined the personal status and position of an official in the imperial hierarchy and was the basis for determining their salary. The Sawar rank indicated the specific number of horsemen (cavalry) that the Mansabdar was obligated to maintain and present for service. In the 17th century, the designation of 'Umara' (nobles) was applied to those holding a Zat rank of 1000 or above; the classification into the nobility was based on the Zat rank rather than the Sawar rank.
61Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Kuddapah-kar : Rocky wastelands
Explanation
In the historical land revenue systems of South India, specifically within the Tamil-speaking regions and the Madras Presidency, land was categorized based on its water source and crop productivity. Nancai refers to wet lands irrigated by permanent sources like rivers, canals, or tanks, primarily used for paddy. Puncai refers to dry lands that are rain-fed and used for cultivating hardy crops like millets and pulses. Tottakal refers to garden lands or intensive plantations, typically irrigated by wells, used for high-value crops. The term Kuddapah-kar is not a standard revenue classification for rocky wastelands; uncultivable or stony lands were generally classified as Poramboke, Tharisu, or locally as Kallangadu.
62History
Which of the following rulers were identified through matronymics (names derived from that of the mother)?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Satavahanas
Explanation
The Satavahana dynasty, which ruled parts of southern and central India between the 2nd century BCE and the 2nd century CE, is well-known for the use of matronymics in identifying its rulers. Major kings like Gautamiputra Satakarni and Vashishtiputra Pulumavi adopted titles based on their mothers names, Gautami and Vashisthi. This practice, documented in various inscriptions and coins, indicates the high social and political status of women within the royal household, even though the actual succession to the throne remained patrilineal. This distinctive naming convention is a hallmark of Satavahana history and distinguishes them from other contemporary Indian dynasties.
63History
Which one of the following statements about the famous text of Panchatantra is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) It is a text showing through illustration what should and should not be done.
Explanation
The Panchatantra, traditionally attributed to Pandit Vishnu Sharma, is an ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables composed in Sanskrit verse and prose. It is primarily a work of Nitishastra, which translates to the science of wise conduct or statesmanship. The text was compiled to educate young princes in the art of governance and worldly wisdom through allegorical stories. By utilizing anthropomorphic animals to represent human traits and social scenarios, the Panchatantra provides practical guidance on ethics, strategy, and human nature. Each fable serves as an illustrative lesson on the consequences of different choices, effectively demonstrating the principles of what should and should not be done in various life situations.
64Geography
Geomorphic factors influencing plant and animal distributions are
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) slope angle, slope aspect and relief
Explanation
Geomorphic or topographic factors play a significant role in determining the distribution and diversity of plants and animals by modifying local environmental conditions. Slope angle influences the stability of the land surface and the process of pedogenesis; steeper slopes experience higher runoff and erosion, leading to thinner soils and less moisture, whereas gentler slopes allow for deeper soil development and higher water retention.
Slope aspect refers to the orientation of a slope toward the sun. This determines the intensity of solar radiation (insolation) received, creating distinct microclimates; for example, in the Northern Hemisphere, south-facing slopes are generally warmer and drier, supporting different biological communities than the cooler, more humid north-facing slopes. Relief (or altitude) is a fundamental factor that creates vertical zonation in ecosystems. As elevation increases, temperature decreases according to the environmental lapse rate, and precipitation patterns change, leading to a stratified distribution of flora and fauna across different altitudinal belts.
65Geography
Which one of the following groups of cities does not have Sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Las Vegas and Queensland
Explanation
Sclerophyll vegetation consists of woody plants with evergreen, hard, and thick leaves, which are characteristic of the Mediterranean climate regions. This biome is found in areas with hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters, such as the Mediterranean Basin, coastal California (Los Angeles), central Chile (Valparaiso), the Western Cape of South Africa (Cape Town), and the southern and southwestern coasts of Australia (Perth and Adelaide). Las Vegas is located in the Mojave Desert and possesses an arid desert climate with xerophytic vegetation rather than sclerophyllous forests. Queensland is a large Australian state dominated by tropical, subtropical, and semi-arid climates, featuring rainforests, savannas, and acacia scrubs, but it does not fall within the Mediterranean climatic zone where sclerophyll is the primary natural cover.
66Geography
Which of the following are warm ocean currents?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current
Explanation
The North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current that serves as the northeastward extension of the Gulf Stream. It carries warm tropical waters from the Caribbean and the Gulf of Mexico across the Atlantic Ocean toward the shores of Western Europe. This current plays a critical role in moderating the climate of countries like the United Kingdom, Norway, and France, keeping their ports ice-free and temperatures significantly higher than other regions at the same latitude.
The Brazil Current is also a warm water current that flows southward along the South American coast, specifically from the equator toward the mouth of the Rio de la Plata. As the western boundary current of the South Atlantic subtropical gyre, it transports warm, high-salinity tropical waters into the higher latitudes of the South Atlantic Ocean, influencing the marine environment and regional climate of the Brazilian coastline.
67Geography
In India, how many States/Union Territories have more than two international boundaries?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 4
Explanation
In India, there are four administrative units (States and Union Territories) that share international borders with more than two countries. Sikkim shares its boundaries with three countries: Nepal to the west, China to the north and east, and Bhutan to the southeast. West Bengal also shares borders with three nations: Bangladesh to the east, Bhutan to the north, and Nepal to the northwest. Arunachal Pradesh maintains international frontiers with Bhutan to the west, China to the north and northeast, and Myanmar to the east. Finally, according to official Indian maps, the Union Territory of Ladakh (established in 2019) shares international borders with Pakistan to the west, Afghanistan to the north, and China to the north and east. These four entities are the only ones in the country that interface with three distinct foreign nations.
68Geography
In the Hadley cell thermal circulation, air rises up and finally descends at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) subtropical high-pressure cells
Explanation
The Hadley cell is the primary atmospheric circulation loop in the tropical regions. It begins with the rising of warm, moist air near the equator due to intense solar heating, creating a low-pressure zone. As this air ascends to the upper troposphere, it moves poleward toward both the North and South Poles. Around 30 degrees latitude in both hemispheres, the air cools and becomes dense enough to sink back toward the Earth's surface. This massive descent of air results in the formation of the subtropical high-pressure cells, characterized by calm winds and dry conditions. From these high-pressure zones, the air completes the cycle by flowing back toward the equator along the surface as the trade winds.
69Geography
Which one of the following soils is characterized by very high content of organic matter?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Histosol
Explanation
Histosols are soil orders defined by their exceptionally high content of organic matter, typically comprising at least 20 to 30 percent organic material by weight throughout a significant portion of the soil profile. These soils consist primarily of organic materials such as peat or muck, which accumulate in settings where the rate of plant matter deposition exceeds the rate of decomposition. This phenomenon is most common in poorly drained, waterlogged areas like bogs, marshes, and swamps, where anaerobic conditions prevent microorganisms from fully breaking down organic tissues. Due to this high organic concentration, Histosols possess a very low bulk density and a high water-holding capacity compared to other soil orders.
70Polity and Governance
Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions?
1. They must be citizens of India.
2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
3. They must be present in India to vote.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Overseas Indians, specifically Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), are governed by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, which inserted Section 20A into the 1950 Act. Under this provision, an NRI is eligible to vote provided they remain a citizen of India and have not acquired the citizenship of any other country. To exercise this right, their name must be registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which their place of residence in India, as mentioned in their passport, is located. Furthermore, as per the legal framework existing in 2020, there was no provision for NRI voting through proxy, postal ballot, or electronic means for general elections. Consequently, overseas electors are required to be physically present at the designated polling station in their respective constituency in India to cast their vote after providing their original passport for identification.
71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a feature of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The scheme provides a benefit cover of ₹10 lakh per family.
Explanation
The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) provides a health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across public and private empanelled hospitals in India. The scheme is designed to provide financial protection to over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families, representing the bottom 40 percent of the Indian population as per the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data. Because the official coverage limit is strictly defined as ₹5 lakh per family, the provision of a ₹10 lakh benefit cover is not a feature of this scheme.
72Economy
Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars of human development?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Equity, productivity, empowerment and sustainability
Explanation
The concept of human development is built upon the four pillars of equity, sustainability, productivity, and empowerment. Equity involves ensuring equal access to opportunities for all individuals by removing barriers such as gender, race, or income level. Sustainability emphasizes the need for continuity in the availability of these opportunities so that the needs and choices of future generations are not compromised. Productivity focuses on human labor productivity through investments in education and health to enhance human capabilities and efficiency. Empowerment refers to the capacity of individuals to make their own choices, which is achieved through increasing their agency and freedoms. These four components together form the framework for enhancing the quality of human life and expanding choices as defined in the human development approach.
73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following was added as a fundamental duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) To provide opportunities for education to one's child between the age of 6 and 14 years
Explanation
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002, added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution. This amendment inserted clause (k), which states that it is the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This addition increased the total number of fundamental duties listed in the Constitution from ten to eleven. The amendment was part of a larger legislative effort to institutionalize the right to education, which also included the insertion of Article 21A to make education a fundamental right for children in the same age bracket.
74Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India protects a person against double jeopardy?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Article 20
Explanation
Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides fundamental protections to individuals in respect of conviction for offences. Specifically, Article 20(2) contains the provision against double jeopardy, stating that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. this principle, derived from the common law maxim nemo debet bis vexari, ensures that once a person has been tried and convicted or acquitted by a competent court for an offence, they cannot be subjected to a second trial for the same set of facts. The protection applies only to proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal and requires both prosecution and punishment to have occurred in the first instance.
75History
Consider the following statements about Stone Age in India:
1. Different periods are identified on the basis of the type and technology of stone tools.
2. There are no regional variations in the type and technology of tools in different periods.
3. Stone Age cultures of different periods evolved uniformly in a neat unilinear fashion all over the subcontinent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The classification of the Stone Age into Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic periods is primarily determined by the evolution of lithic technology and the specific typology of stone tools used by early humans. The Paleolithic is associated with large, rugged tools such as hand-axes and cleavers made through percussion. The Mesolithic is defined by the transition to microliths—tiny, sharp stone components often hafted onto bone or wood. The Neolithic marks the advent of grinding and polishing techniques to create more durable and specialized tools like celts.
Archaeological evidence across the Indian subcontinent reveals that these technological shifts did not occur simultaneously or uniformly. There were distinct regional variations, such as the pebble-based Sohanian industry in the north compared to the bifacial Acheulian tradition prevalent in peninsular India. Furthermore, different regions transitioned between these stages at different times; for instance, the Neolithic way of life emerged much earlier in the northwestern frontier at sites like Mehrgarh than in the southern or eastern parts of the subcontinent. This spatial and temporal overlap confirms that the Stone Age was a complex mosaic of cultures rather than a single, unilinear progression across the entire region.
76History
From which one of the following factory sites were limestone and chert blades mass produced and sent to various Harappan settlements in Sindh?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sukkur and Rohri Hills
Explanation
The Sukkur and Rohri Hills in Upper Sindh served as a major industrial source for the Harappan Civilization due to their extensive deposits of high-quality Eocene chert found within limestone formations. These hills were the site of massive stone tool manufacturing operations where standardized long, parallel-sided chert blades were produced in bulk. Archaeological evidence reveals numerous factory sites and specialized workshops littered with cores and debitage, indicating a systematic extraction and processing industry. These mass-produced blades were distributed through the Indus river network to various urban and rural Harappan settlements across the Sindh region and beyond, providing the primary material for their lithic tool kits.
77History
The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle of Plassey, 1757, was written by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Ghulam Husain
Explanation
Sayyid Ghulam Husain Tabatabai wrote the Siyar-ul-Mutakherin in 1781, a title that translates to Review of Modern Times. This Persian-language work provides an exhaustive historical account of the Mughal Empire from the death of Aurangzeb in 1707 up to 1781. It is particularly valued by historians for its detailed description of the political affairs in Bengal, the decline of the later Mughal rulers, and the establishment of British administrative and military power. His narrative of the Battle of Plassey in 1757 offers a critical contemporary perspective on the internal betrayals and tactical movements that led to the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah and the subsequent ascendancy of the East India Company.
78History
Who believed that the Russian designs were 'an imminent peril to the security and tranquility' of the Indian Empire in 1836?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Lord Auckland
Explanation
Lord Auckland assumed the office of Governor-General of India in 1836, a period characterized by the height of the Great Game—the geopolitical confrontation between the British and Russian Empires in Central Asia. Influenced by the prevailing Russophobia and the strategic necessity of protecting the North-West Frontier, Auckland viewed Russian diplomatic activities in Persia and Afghanistan as a significant threat. He expressed the view that Russian designs were an imminent peril to the security and tranquility of the British Indian Empire. This assessment formed the basis for his Forward Policy, which sought to create a buffer state in Afghanistan and eventually led to the First Anglo-Afghan War. His stance reflected a shift toward aggressive external diplomacy aimed at neutralizing perceived European threats to British hegemony in South Asia.
79History
The 'Tattvabodhini Sabha' was established by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Devendranath Tagore in 1839
Explanation
Devendranath Tagore established the Tattvabodhini Sabha on 6 October 1839 in Calcutta. Originally known as the Tattvaranjini Sabha, its primary objective was to propagate the vedantic monotheism and socio-religious reform ideas of Raja Ram Mohan Roy. The Sabha sought to provide a rationalist perspective on India's past and religious texts, specifically the Upanishads. It played a significant role in the Bengal Renaissance by encouraging intellectual discourse and promoting the Bengali language through its influential journal, the Tattvabodhini Patrika, which served as a platform for discussing the cultural and religious identity of India.
80Science and Technology
What was the code name given to the first ever tri-service military exercise between India and USA?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Tiger Triumph
Explanation
Tiger Triumph was the inaugural tri-service military exercise involving the Army, Navy, and Air Force of both India and the United States. Conducted in November 2019 off the coasts of Visakhapatnam and Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh, the exercise focused on strengthening counter-terrorism and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) capabilities. It represented a significant escalation in bilateral defense cooperation, moving beyond traditional single-service drills to complex, integrated operations involving multiple branches of the armed forces from both nations.
81Art and Culture
'Naropa' is an annual festival of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Ladakh
Explanation
The Naropa festival is a significant cultural and spiritual event celebrated in Ladakh, often referred to as the Kumbh Mela of the Himalayas. It is held at the Hemis Monastery, the seat of the Drukpa lineage, to honor the life and teachings of the 11th-century Indian scholar-saint Naropa. Although traditionally celebrated once every twelve years according to the Tibetan calendar, it has evolved into an annual event to preserve and promote the unique Buddhist heritage, traditional music, and dance of the Himalayan region. The festival attracts thousands of devotees and tourists who witness the unfurling of ancient silk thangkas and the display of the Six Bone Ornaments of Naropa.
82Art and Culture
Which one of the following is India's official entry for the Best International Feature Film category in the 92nd Academy Awards?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Gully Boy
Explanation
The Hindi film Gully Boy, directed by Zoya Akhtar and starring Ranveer Singh and Alia Bhatt, was chosen as India's official entry for the Best International Feature Film category at the 92nd Academy Awards. The Film Federation of India (FFI) appointed a jury led by filmmaker Aparna Sen, which selected the film from a pool of 27 entries. The movie was recognized for its authentic storytelling and its portrayal of the underground hip-hop culture in Mumbai's Dharavi. While it was India's official representative for the 2020 Oscars, it did not ultimately advance to the final nomination shortlist.
83Polity and Governance
The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
Explanation
The Global Goalkeeper Award is an initiative of the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. It is presented annually as part of the Goalkeepers event to recognize leaders and individuals who have demonstrated remarkable commitment to the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through their impactful work. The award highlights progress made toward global targets such as poverty reduction, health, and sanitation. It gained significant prominence in India when Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with the award in 2019 for the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, which significantly improved sanitation coverage and public health outcomes across the country.
84Geography
'Gandhi Solar Park' is located at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) New York
Explanation
The Gandhi Solar Park was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the United Nations Headquarters in New York on September 24, 2019. This initiative was launched during the 74th session of the United Nations General Assembly to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. The park features 193 solar panels, with each panel representing a member state of the United Nations, and has a total power generation capacity of 50 kilowatts. The project was a gift from India to the United Nations, symbolizing India's commitment to renewable energy, climate action, and the Gandhian philosophy of living in harmony with nature.
85History
Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa as traders that eventually led to European colonization of Africa?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Portuguese
Explanation
The Portuguese were the first Europeans to explore and establish trading links along the African coast during the 15th century. Driven by the desire to bypass trans-Saharan trade routes and find a direct sea route to the spice-rich East, Portuguese explorers under the patronage of Prince Henry the Navigator systematically pushed southward along the Atlantic coast. Significant milestones included the capture of Ceuta in 1415, the exploration of the Senegal and Gambia rivers by the mid-1440s, and the reaching of the Gold Coast in 1471. In 1482, they established Elmina Castle as a permanent trading hub. These early maritime expeditions and the establishment of fortified trading posts, known as feitorias, created the initial infrastructure for European commercial engagement with Africa, which eventually evolved into the era of formal colonization.
86Science and Technology
The College of Military Engineering affiliated to Jawaharlal Nehru University is situated at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Pune
Explanation
The College of Military Engineering (CME) is located in Dapodi, Pune. It serves as the premier technical and tactical training institution for the Corps of Engineers of the Indian Army, along with personnel from the Navy, Air Force, and various paramilitary forces. Although the college is situated in Pune, its engineering degree programs are affiliated with Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), New Delhi, which confers the Bachelor of Technology degrees to the officer cadets and student officers upon the successful completion of their technical training.
87Economy
Which of the following statements with regard to Coal India Limited (CIL) is/are true?
1. CIL has its headquarters at Kolkata.
2. CIL operates through 82 mining areas spread over twenty provincial States of India.
3. CIL is the single largest coal-producing company in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Coal India Limited (CIL) is a Maharatna Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Coal, established in 1975 with its corporate headquarters located in Kolkata, West Bengal. CIL is globally recognized as the single largest coal-producing company in the world, accounting for a vast majority of the total coal production in India. While CIL manages approximately 84 mining areas, these operations are spread across only 8 provincial states in India: West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Assam. Because the second statement erroneously claims that CIL operates across twenty provincial states, only the first and third statements are factually accurate.
88Geography
Which one of the following climatic types is found in Central Spain?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Mediterranean dry hot summer
Explanation
Central Spain is dominated by the Meseta Central, a high plateau that experiences a Mediterranean climate with hot, dry summers, classified as Csa under the Köppen climate system. This region is characterized by a significant seasonal temperature range and a pronounced summer drought, where the average temperature of the warmest month typically exceeds 22 degrees Celsius. During the summer, the area is influenced by subtropical high-pressure systems that inhibit rainfall, leading to arid conditions. While the interior location results in colder winters than the coastal Mediterranean areas, the lack of moisture during the peak heat of summer is the defining climatic feature of the central Spanish heartland.
89Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not among the principal languages of Jammu and Kashmir?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Monpa
Explanation
Monpa is a Tibeto-Burman language spoken by the Monpa people, who primarily inhabit the Tawang and West Kameng districts of Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also spoken in parts of Bhutan and the Tibet Autonomous Region. It has no historical, demographic, or cultural roots in the Jammu and Kashmir region, where the linguistic landscape is dominated by Indo-Aryan and Dardic languages. Consequently, it is not recognized as a principal or official language within the administrative framework of Jammu and Kashmir.
90Geography
The major part of Central Asia is dominated by which one of the following language families?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Altaic
Explanation
The Altaic language family dominates the majority of Central Asia because the region is primarily inhabited by Turkic-speaking peoples. This linguistic group includes the titular ethnic majorities of four out of the five core Central Asian republics: the Kazakhs in Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz in Kyrgyzstan, the Turkmens in Turkmenistan, and the Uzbeks in Uzbekistan. While the Altaic family is a broad classification that also encompasses Mongolic and Tungusic languages, its Turkic branch is the defining linguistic feature of the Central Asian landscape. These languages share common structural characteristics such as agglutination and vowel harmony, distinguishing them from the Indo-European languages found in Tajikistan or the Slavic influence introduced during the Soviet era.
91Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles was defended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as 'a matter of last resort'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Article 356
Explanation
Article 356 deals with the imposition of President's Rule in a state in the event of the failure of constitutional machinery. During the Constituent Assembly debates, several members expressed concerns that this provision could be misused by the Centre to interfere in the affairs of the states. Defending the Article, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar stated that he hoped such powers would remain a dead letter and would never be called into operation. He argued that it should be used only as a matter of last resort, after the President had issued a warning to the province that had erred and allowed it an opportunity to rectify the situation. Ambedkar justified its inclusion by highlighting the Union's ultimate responsibility to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
92Polity and Governance
What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under Article 32?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) That no fundamental right has been infringed
Explanation
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is a fundamental right that guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of other fundamental rights listed in Part III. The violation of a fundamental right is a jurisdictional fact and a condition precedent for the Supreme Court to grant relief under this provision. If the petitioner cannot demonstrate that a fundamental right has been infringed, the Supreme Court has no jurisdiction to provide a remedy under Article 32. This distinguishes Article 32 from Article 226, as the latter allows High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of both fundamental rights and ordinary legal rights. Since the power under Article 32 is specifically narrowed to the protection of Part III rights, the absence of such an infringement is the primary ground for refusal.
93Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises consists of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises
Explanation
As of the year 2020, the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises was comprised of two distinct departments: the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department of Public Enterprises. The Department of Heavy Industry was responsible for the promotion and development of the capital goods, automotive, and heavy electrical equipment sectors, as well as overseeing several central public sector undertakings. The Department of Public Enterprises acted as the nodal agency for all Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), formulating policy guidelines on matters such as performance improvement, autonomy, and financial delegation. Although the Department of Public Enterprises was later shifted to the Ministry of Finance in July 2021 to facilitate better coordination on disinvestment and capital management, it remained a constituent of the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises throughout 2020.
94Polity and Governance
The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1952
Explanation
The first Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in 1952 following the enactment of the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952. Under Article 82 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every census to establish a commission for redrawing the boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly constituencies. The 1952 Commission was responsible for adjusting the seats based on the 1951 census data to ensure that each constituency represented a comparable number of people, maintaining the principle of one vote, one value.
95Polity and Governance
Who among the following stated in the Constituent Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to enter a life of contradictions?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar made this observation during his final speech in the Constituent Assembly on November 25, 1949. He argued that the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, would mark India's entry into a life of contradictions because the country would possess political equality but continue to suffer from social and economic inequality. In the political sphere, the principle of one man, one vote and one vote, one value would be established. However, the prevailing social and economic structures would continue to deny the principle of one man, one value. He emphasized that if these contradictions were not removed at the earliest, the victims of inequality would eventually undermine the foundations of political democracy.
96Polity and Governance
The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of a dispute between two or more States is called
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) original jurisdiction
Explanation
Article 131 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction over disputes involving the Government of India and one or more States, or disputes between two or more States. This jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning that no other court in India has the authority to hear such cases. The nature of this power is to act as a federal court to decide legal disputes between the constituent units of the Indian federation. For a dispute to fall under this category, it must involve a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
97Economy
Who among the following is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Bibek Debroy
Explanation
Bibek Debroy was appointed as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) upon its reconstitution in September 2017. He continued to serve in this capacity through the council's subsequent terms, including the one established in 2019. The EAC-PM is an independent body tasked with advising the Prime Minister on key macroeconomic issues, fiscal policy, and structural reforms. In addition to his role as Chairman of the EAC-PM, Debroy is a well-known economist and has served as a full-time member of NITI Aayog, contributing extensively to policy formulation and academic research on the Indian economy.
98Art and Culture
Hilsa is the national fish of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Bangladesh
Explanation
The Hilsa, scientifically known as Tenualosa ilisha, is the national fish of Bangladesh. It holds immense cultural, economic, and social significance in the country, contributing significantly to the national GDP and providing a livelihood for millions of fishermen and traders. Bangladesh is the largest producer of Hilsa in the world, accounting for the vast majority of the global catch, with the country's major river systems like the Padma and Meghna serving as its primary habitat. The fish is a central element of Bengali cuisine and identity, and it was officially granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in Bangladesh in 2017, reflecting its status as a premier national symbol.
99Geography
The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground of the Indian Air Force, which was reopened recently, is located in
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh, situated in a remote valley surrounded on three sides by Myanmar. The Indian Air Force formally reopened the upgraded facility in September 2019 to enable the operation of fixed-wing transport aircraft like the An-32 and the C-130J Super Hercules. This reopening was strategically vital as Vijaynagar is one of the most isolated circles in India, lacking any motorable road connectivity to the rest of the country. The landing ground serves as a crucial link for military logistics and provides essential supplies and transport services to the local population in the easternmost tip of the state.
100Science and Technology
Rustom-2, which crashed in Karnataka recently, was a/an
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) unmanned aerial vehicle
Explanation
Rustom-2 is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), specifically by the Aeronautical Development Establishment. Designed for intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) missions, it features an endurance of approximately 24 hours and is intended for use by the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. The platform is capable of carrying a variety of payloads, including synthetic aperture radar and electronic intelligence systems. The specific incident mentioned occurred in September 2019, when a prototype of the Rustom-2 crashed in a farm in the Chitradurga district of Karnataka during a test flight from the nearby Challakere Aeronautical Test Range.
101Polity and Governance
The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India, Singapore and Thailand was held at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Port Blair
Explanation
The maiden Singapore-India-Thailand Maritime Exercise, abbreviated as SITMEX-19, was held in September 2019 at Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This inaugural edition was hosted by the Indian Navy and aimed at bolstering maritime security cooperation and interoperability among the Republic of Singapore Navy, the Royal Thai Navy, and the Indian Navy. The five-day exercise included a harbor phase at Port Blair and a sea phase in the Andaman Sea, featuring a variety of naval maneuvers, surface warfare drills, and force protection measures designed to enhance the shared commitment of these nations towards a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
102Polity and Governance
The creation of a Federal Court in India was advocated by which of the following Acts/Commissions?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for the establishment of a Federal Court in India to interpret the provisions of the Act and adjudicate disputes between the provinces and the federal government. This court was officially inaugurated on October 1, 1937, in Delhi, with Sir Maurice Gwyer serving as its first Chief Justice. It possessed three types of jurisdiction: original jurisdiction for disputes between the federation and its units, appellate jurisdiction for cases involving the interpretation of the Act or any Order in Council, and advisory jurisdiction where the Governor-General could seek the court's opinion on questions of law. The Federal Court functioned for twelve years until it was succeeded by the Supreme Court of India in 1950.
103History
Who founded the 'Seva Samiti' at Allahabad in 1914?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Hridayanath Kunzru
Explanation
Hridayanath Kunzru founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914 as an organization dedicated to social service and humanitarian relief. Kunzru, who was a prominent member of the Servants of India Society established by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, intended the Samiti to improve the status of the depressed classes and provide aid during natural disasters, famines, and religious fairs. The organization also played a significant role in the development of the scout movement in India and worked extensively in the fields of education and sanitation.
104History
The State of Hyderabad in the Deccan officially acceded to the Indian Union in the year
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1948
Explanation
Following India's independence in 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan, initially refused to join the Indian Union, opting instead for independence or an association with Pakistan. This led to a period of tension and internal unrest within the state. In response, the Indian government launched a military operation known as Operation Polo, or police action, on September 13, 1948. The operation concluded on September 17, 1948, when the Nizam’s forces surrendered to the Indian Army. This surrender marked the effective integration of the state into the Indian Union, and the Nizam subsequently accepted the authority of the Government of India, ending Hyderabad's status as a sovereign princely state.
105History
The Hunter Commission (1882) appointed to survey the state of education in India
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis on primary education
Explanation
The Hunter Education Commission of 1882, presided over by Sir William Wilson Hunter, was appointed by Lord Ripon to review the progress of education in India since Wood's Despatch of 1854. The commission endorsed the principles of the 1854 Despatch but emphasized that the state should make special efforts to extend and improve primary education. It recommended that the responsibility for primary education should be transferred to the newly created district and municipal boards. Additionally, the commission suggested that primary education should be provided in vernacular languages and focused on subjects useful for the local population, marking a significant shift in focus toward mass education.
106Polity and Governance
The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections to Panchayats lies with
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) the State Legislatures
Explanation
According to Article 243K (4) of the Constitution of India, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Panchayats. While the State Election Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections under Article 243K (1), the actual legislative authority to frame rules and regulations regarding the electoral process is specifically vested in the State Legislatures. This is consistent with the fact that Local Government is a subject listed in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
107Polity and Governance
The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes powers between
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) the State Legislatures and the Panchayat
Explanation
The 11th Schedule was added to the Constitution of India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. It contains 29 functional items that fall under the purview of Panchayati Raj Institutions. According to Article 243G, the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. This schedule essentially provides the framework for the devolution of powers and responsibilities from the State Government to the local rural bodies, covering matters such as agriculture, land improvement, minor irrigation, poverty alleviation programs, and education.
108Polity and Governance
The provisions of the Constitution of India pertaining to the institution of Panchayat do not apply to which one of the following States?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Meghalaya
Explanation
Under Article 243M(1) of the Constitution of India, the provisions of Part IX, which deal with the institution of Panchayats, do not apply to the states of Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram. This exemption exists because these states have traditional tribal institutions and local self-government systems already in place. In Meghalaya, local administration is primarily carried out through Autonomous District Councils established under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, which manage local affairs in accordance with tribal customs and traditions. Consequently, the uniform three-tier Panchayati Raj system mandated by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, is not implemented across the state of Meghalaya.
109Geography
Which one of the following rivers does not drain into Black Sea?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Volga
Explanation
The Volga River is the longest river in Europe and serves as the principal waterway of western Russia. It originates in the Valdai Hills northwest of Moscow and flows generally southward for approximately 3,530 kilometers until it reaches its delta at the Caspian Sea. The Caspian Sea is an endorheic basin, meaning it is a closed drainage system with no natural surface outlet to the world's oceans or adjacent seas like the Black Sea. Therefore, the Volga's entire discharge is contained within the Caspian depression rather than reaching the Black Sea.
110Geography
The National Water Academy (NWA) is located at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Khadakwasla
Explanation
The National Water Academy (NWA) is a premier training institute for water resources development and management in India. It is located at Khadakwasla, near Pune, Maharashtra. Established in 1988 as the Central Training Unit (CTU) and later renamed the National Water Academy, it functions under the administrative control of the Central Water Commission (CWC), Ministry of Jal Shakti. The academy serves as an apex centre for imparting training to water resources professionals, including engineers from central and state government departments, on various aspects of water resource planning, design, and conservation.
111Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of formation of the Commissions starting from the earliest?
The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, in accordance with Article 324 of the Constitution to conduct and supervise elections. The Planning Commission was subsequently set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India on March 15, 1950, to assess resources and formulate Five-Year Plans for national development. The first Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution on November 22, 1951, to define the financial relations between the Union and the States. The Investment Commission was a later addition, formed in December 2004 as a high-level body chaired by Ratan Tata to advise the government on attracting domestic and foreign investment.
112Polity and Governance
The formulation of policy in respect to Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) is the responsibility of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Explanation
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency for the formulation of policy regarding Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in India. While different aspects of IPR were previously handled by various ministries, the government consolidated these functions under DPIIT to ensure a unified and holistic approach to the IPR ecosystem. Following the adoption of the National IPR Policy in 2016, the administration of Copyrights was transferred from the Ministry of Human Resource Development, and the Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design was transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to DPIIT. Consequently, the department is now responsible for all major IPR categories, including Patents, Designs, Trademarks, Copyrights, and Geographical Indications, as well as the implementation of the National IPR Policy to foster innovation and creativity in the country.
113Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the latest addition to the AYUSH group of health care system?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Sowa-Rigpa
Explanation
The Sowa-Rigpa system of medicine was formally recognized by the Government of India and included in the AYUSH group through the Indian Medicine Central Council (Amendment) Act, 2010. Commonly known as the Amchi system, Sowa-Rigpa is one of the oldest and most well-documented medical traditions in the world, historically practiced in the Himalayan regions of India including Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Its inclusion in the AYUSH framework provided the necessary legal status and institutional support for its practice, research, and education, making it the most recent addition to the traditional healthcare systems officially recognized by the Ministry of AYUSH.
114Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the nodal agency in India for the United Nations Environment Programme?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal agency for the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in India. It serves as the primary interface between the Indian government and UNEP for coordinating environmental policies, international conventions, and sustainable development initiatives. The ministry's International Cooperation Division manages technical and financial assistance, participates in the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA), and oversees the implementation of various global environmental agreements within the country to address issues such as climate change, biodiversity, and pollution.
115Geography
According to the Census 2011, in India, what is the percentage of people (approximately) considered to be migrants (internal), i.e., now settled in a place different from their previous residence?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 35%
Explanation
According to the Census 2011, the total number of internal migrants in India, defined by the place of last residence, was approximately 453.6 million. With India's total population recorded at approximately 1.21 billion in 2011, the percentage of the population considered to be internal migrants is calculated as:
If the calculation is based on the place of birth, the census recorded approximately 398 million migrants, which constitutes about 32.9% of the total population. Since the official statistical values for internal migration range between approximately 33% and 37.5% based on these different definitions, 35% is the most accurate approximation among the provided choices. This demographic data captures various forms of migration, including intra-district, inter-district, and inter-state movements.
116Economy
Suppose an agricultural labourer earns ₹400 per day in her village. She gets a job to work as babysitter in a nearby town @ ₹700 per day. She chose to work as agricultural labourer. Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of the agricultural labourer?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) ₹700
Explanation
Opportunity cost is defined as the value of the next best alternative foregone when a choice is made between mutually exclusive options. In this scenario, the agricultural labourer has two distinct choices: working in her village for ₹400 per day or working as a babysitter in a nearby town for ₹700 per day. By choosing to stay in her village, she gives up the opportunity to earn the higher wage offered by the babysitting job. In economic terms, the cost of any decision is the value of the most preferred alternative that was sacrificed. Since the babysitting position is the alternative she rejected, its daily earnings of ₹700 constitute the opportunity cost of her decision to continue working as an agricultural labourer.
117Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Market structure) (Characteristic)
A. Perfect competition 1. Only one producer selling one commodity
B. Monopoly 2. Few producers selling similar or almost similar products
C. Monopolistic competition 3. Many producers selling differentiated products
D. Oligopoly 4. Many producers selling similar products
Code :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) A B C D 4 1 3 2
Explanation
A-4: Perfect competition is characterized by many producers selling similar or homogeneous products where price is determined by market demand and supply rather than individual firms.
B-1: Monopoly is a market structure where only one producer sells a specific commodity, giving that producer significant control over price and supply due to the absence of competition.
C-3: Monopolistic competition involves many producers selling differentiated products that are similar but not perfect substitutes, allowing for non-price competition through branding.
D-2: Oligopoly occurs when there are only a few producers selling similar or almost similar products, leading to a high degree of interdependence in their pricing and output decisions.
118Economy
Which one of the following was the host country for World Tourism Day, 2019?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) India
Explanation
India served as the official host country for World Tourism Day on September 27, 2019. This global event, organized annually by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), focused on the theme Tourism and Jobs: A better future for all during its 2019 edition. The main celebrations were held in New Delhi, marking the first time India was selected to host the international event since its inception. The choice of India reflected its significant cultural heritage and the rising contribution of its tourism industry to global travel and local employment.
119Polity and Governance
BRICS Summit, 2020 will be hosted by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation
The 12th BRICS Summit was hosted by Russia in 2020. Held on November 17, 2020, the summit took place via video conference due to the global COVID-19 pandemic. The event was chaired by Russian President Vladimir Putin, focusing on the theme BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Shared Security and Innovative Growth. The hosting follows the annual rotation of the presidency among member nations in the order of the acronym B-R-I-C-S, with Russia succeeding Brazil's 2019 chairmanship. During this summit, the member nations discussed cooperation in areas such as counter-terrorism, trade, health, and energy, while also adopting the Moscow Declaration.
120Polity and Governance
The Government of India has recently constituted a civilian award in the name of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the field of contribution to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) unity and integrity of India
Explanation
The Government of India instituted the Sardar Patel National Unity Award in 2019 as the highest civilian award for individuals or institutions contributing to the unity and integrity of the nation. The award was established to honor the legacy of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who played a pivotal role in the political integration of over 500 princely states into the Indian Union after independence. It aims to recognize outstanding and inspiring contributions to promote the cause of national unity and to reinforce the value of a strong and united India. The award is announced on the occasion of National Unity Day, celebrated on 31st October, which marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Patel.