Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban areas?
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Answer: (C) Methane
Explanation
Landfills in urban areas are major sources of methane emissions due to the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste. When biodegradable materials such as food scraps, paper, and wood are buried under layers of soil, the lack of oxygen promotes the growth of methanogenic bacteria. These microorganisms break down the organic matter and produce landfill gas, which typically consists of approximately 50 percent methane (CH₄) and 50 percent carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with trace amounts of other compounds. Methane is the primary hydrocarbon released during this process and is a significant greenhouse gas, making landfills one of the largest anthropogenic sources of methane emissions globally.
2Geography
Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change?
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Answer: (A) Amphibian
Explanation
Amphibians are widely recognized as biological indicators or sentinel species because they are exceptionally sensitive to environmental perturbations. This high level of sensitivity stems from their permeable skin, which facilitates cutaneous respiration and water absorption, making them directly vulnerable to water-borne toxins, soil pollutants, and atmospheric changes. Additionally, most amphibians possess a dual life cycle that spans both aquatic and terrestrial habitats, meaning they are impacted by habitat degradation or climate shifts in either environment. Their shell-less eggs are also highly susceptible to chemical fluctuations in water and increased ultraviolet radiation, often leading to observable population declines before impacts are noted in other vertebrate groups.
3Economy
Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India?
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Answer: (C) Thermal power plants
Explanation
Thermal power plants represent the dominant source of electricity in India, providing the majority of the countrys power through the combustion of fossil fuels such as coal, lignite, and gas. By 2016, thermal energy accounted for nearly 70 percent of Indias total installed power capacity. Coal-fired plants are the most significant contributors within this category, leveraging Indias extensive domestic coal reserves to meet the high base load demand of the national grid. The infrastructure for thermal power is highly developed, with large-scale projects managed by the National Thermal Power Corporation and various state electricity boards ensuring a consistent and large-scale supply of electricity for the nations growing industrial and domestic needs.
4Science and Technology
The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys
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Answer: (D) lymphocytes
Explanation
HIV primarily targets the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4+ T cells, which are a crucial subtype of lymphocytes. These white blood cells play a central role in coordinating the body's immune response against pathogens. The virus enters the lymphocytes, replicates using the host cell's machinery, and eventually causes the cell to burst or die. This progressive depletion of the lymphocyte population leads to a severely compromised immune system, making the individual highly susceptible to opportunistic infections and various cancers that a healthy immune system would normally be able to suppress.
5Geography
Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen- carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death?
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Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide
Explanation
Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that exhibits an affinity for hemoglobin approximately 200 to 250 times greater than that of oxygen. Upon inhalation, it binds to the heme groups in red blood cells to form a stable complex called carboxyhemoglobin (COHb). This process displaces oxygen and prevents it from binding to hemoglobin, while also interfering with the release of any oxygen already bound to the protein. Consequently, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is severely reduced, leading to tissue hypoxia and systemic suffocation. High concentrations of carboxyhemoglobin in the bloodstream cause central nervous system depression, organ failure, and can rapidly lead to death.
6Science and Technology
An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called
1. Parthenogenesis
2. Apogamy
3. Sporophytic budding
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Parthenogenesis, apogamy, and sporophytic budding are all forms of apomixis, which is defined as an asexual mode of reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction through the development of an embryo without fertilization. Parthenogenesis specifically refers to the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell. Apogamy is the process where a sporophyte develops directly from the vegetative cells of the gametophyte without the fusion of gametes. Sporophytic budding, also known as adventive embryony, occurs when an embryo develops directly from the diploid sporophytic tissues of the ovule, such as the nucellus or integuments, bypassing the megagametophyte stage and the requirement for syngamy. Because each of these mechanisms results in the formation of a new individual or embryo without the union of male and female gametes, they all represent irregular reproductive modes as described.
7Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
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Answer: (A) Coal
Explanation
Coal is a combustible black or brownish-black sedimentary rock and a heterogeneous mixture rather than a pure elemental substance. It is formed from the remains of ancient plant matter through the process of coalification, which results in a material containing varying amounts of carbon along with significant proportions of other elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. Allotropy is defined as the property of a chemical element to exist in two or more different structural forms in the same physical state, consisting solely of atoms of that single element. Because coal contains numerous chemical impurities and lacks a uniform structural arrangement of pure carbon atoms, it does not meet the criteria for being an allotrope.
8Economy
In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is done using
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Answer: (C) caustic soda
Explanation
In paper manufacturing, caustic soda (sodium hydroxide, NaOH) is the primary chemical agent used for the degumming and delignification of raw materials like wood, bamboo, or agricultural residues. During the chemical pulping process, such as the soda process, the raw material is treated with a concentrated solution of caustic soda under high temperature and pressure. This alkaline treatment breaks the chemical bonds between the cellulose fibers and the non-cellulosic components, primarily lignin, gums, and resins. By dissolving these binding substances, caustic soda allows the pure cellulose fibers to be separated and refined, which is a critical step in producing high-quality pulp for paper making.
9Economy
Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to
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Answer: (A) increase the pH of the soil
Explanation
Dolomite is a mineral composed of calcium magnesium carbonate CaMg(CO₃)₂. In agricultural practice, it is primarily used as a soil conditioner or liming agent to neutralize soil acidity. When dolomite powder is added to acidic soil, the carbonate ions react with the excess hydrogen ions (H⁺) in the soil solution. This chemical process reduces the concentration of hydrogen ions, thereby increasing the pH level of the soil and making it more alkaline or neutral. By raising the pH, dolomite improves the soil environment for plant roots and enhances the availability of essential nutrients. It also serves as a source of calcium and magnesium, which are vital for plant structural development and chlorophyll production.
10Science and Technology
Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following health problems?
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Answer: (A) Tooth caries
Explanation
Fluoride is essential for the mineralization of dental tissues and the prevention of tooth decay. It works by integrating into the tooth enamel structure, converting hydroxyapatite into fluorapatite. This chemical transformation makes the enamel significantly harder and less soluble in the acidic environments created by oral bacteria. A deficiency of fluoride leads to tooth caries because the enamel remains more susceptible to acid-induced demineralization and bacterial erosion. Maintaining an optimal level of fluoride is necessary to provide a protective barrier that inhibits the breakdown of the tooth surface.
11Economy
Excessive use of which of the following fertilizers may be responsible for the presence of a toxic substance in groundwater?
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Answer: (A) Nitrogen
Explanation
The excessive application of nitrogenous fertilizers leads to the accumulation of nitrates (NO₃⁻) in the soil. Unlike other nutrients, nitrates are highly soluble in water and are not easily adsorbed by soil particles, allowing them to leach through the soil profile and reach the groundwater table. High levels of nitrates in drinking water are toxic to humans, especially infants, as they can cause methemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome. This condition occurs when nitrates are converted to nitrites in the body, which then interfere with the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin in the blood.
12Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements does not form solid hydrogen carbonate?
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Answer: (D) Lithium
Explanation
Lithium has a very small ionic size and high charge density, which gives the Li⁺ ion high polarizing power. This makes the lithium hydrogen carbonate (LiHCO₃) molecule unstable in the solid state. In a crystal lattice, the small Li⁺ ion is unable to stabilize the large HCO₃⁻ ion. As a result, lithium hydrogen carbonate exists only in aqueous solution. If the solution is heated or evaporated to dryness, the compound decomposes into solid lithium carbonate (Li₂CO₃), water (H₂O), and carbon dioxide (CO₂).
13Polity and Governance
According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population?
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Answer: (A) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
Explanation
Based on the official data from Census 2011, Kerala has a total population of 33,406,061. Jharkhand follows closely with a population of 32,988,134. Assam ranks next in the sequence with 31,205,576 inhabitants, and Punjab has the smallest population among these four states, recorded at 27,743,338. These figures establish that the correct sequence in decreasing order of population size is Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, and Punjab.
14Geography
With reference to earthquakes, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate boundaries.
2. Point of origin of earthquake in lithosphere is known as focus/hypocentre.
3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre.
4. Epicentre of earthquake always remains over continents only.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Earthquakes are primarily concentrated along plate boundaries where tectonic stress is highest, with converging plate boundaries (subduction zones and collision zones) accounting for the vast majority of the world's seismic energy release. The specific point within the lithosphere where the rock breaks and energy is first released is technically defined as the focus or hypocentre. The point on the Earth's surface directly above this focus is the epicentre. As seismic waves propagate outward from the epicentre, they lose energy due to geometric spreading and absorption by the crustal material. Consequently, the intensity of an earthquake, which measures the observed effects and damage, typically decreases as the distance from the epicentre increases.
15Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct?
1. Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal population
2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State
3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh
4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, Madhya Pradesh has the largest Scheduled Tribe population in India, with approximately 15.31 million tribal residents. Mizoram holds the highest percentage of tribal population among all Indian states, with Scheduled Tribes making up 94.4 percent of its total population. While Maharashtra possesses the second largest tribal population in the country, Chhattisgarh ranks sixth. In terms of the percentage of tribal population relative to the total state population, Nagaland ranks second at 86.5 percent, followed by Meghalaya at 86.1 percent and Arunachal Pradesh at 68.8 percent. Therefore, the data points for Madhya Pradesh and Mizoram are the only correct pairs.
16Science and Technology
The spring constant of a spring depends on its
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Answer: (D) thickness, its diameter and its material
Explanation
The spring constant k of a helical spring is determined by its physical dimensions and material properties according to the formula k = Gd⁴/8D³n. In this equation, G represents the shear modulus, which is a property of the material used to manufacture the spring. The variable d refers to the wire diameter or thickness, while D denotes the mean coil diameter. The term n represents the number of active coils, which is related to the total length of the spring. Because the stiffness is highly sensitive to the thickness of the wire (to the fourth power) and the diameter of the coils (inversely to the third power), these geometric factors combined with the material's elasticity define the spring constant.
17Science and Technology
In the gamma decay of a nucleus
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Answer: (D) neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes
Explanation
Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus in an excited state transitions to a lower energy state by emitting electromagnetic radiation in the form of high-energy photons called gamma rays. Unlike alpha or beta decay, gamma decay does not involve the transformation of nucleons or the emission of charged particles. Since a gamma photon has zero rest mass and no electric charge, its emission does not alter the number of protons or neutrons in the nucleus. Consequently, both the atomic number Z and the mass number A remains constant. The process is represented by the nuclear equation ᴬₑX* → ᴬₑX + γ, where X* represents the nucleus in an excited state.
18Science and Technology
In a bipolar junction transistor
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Answer: (D) the base has the least concentration of impurity
Explanation
The base of a bipolar junction transistor is designed to be the most lightly doped region among the three layers. The impurity concentration follows the hierarchy where the emitter is the most heavily doped to ensure maximum carrier injection efficiency, the collector is moderately doped to handle power dissipation and breakdown voltage, and the base is kept very thin and lightly doped. This specific construction minimizes the recombination of charge carriers within the base region, allowing the vast majority of carriers injected from the emitter to pass through to the collector. A low base doping concentration increases the transistor's current gain β by ensuring that the base current remains small relative to the collector current.
19Science and Technology
The pressure exerted by a 760mm column of mercury at 0°C is known as
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Answer: (B) 1 atmosphere
Explanation
Standard atmospheric pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by a vertical column of mercury exactly 760 mm high at a temperature of 0°C and under standard gravitational acceleration (9.80665 m/s²). This definition originates from the invention of the mercury barometer by Evangelista Torricelli, where the weight of the mercury column is balanced by the atmospheric pressure. In the International System of Units (SI), 1 atmosphere (atm) is equivalent to 101,325 pascals or 1.01325 bar. It serves as a standard reference for pressure at sea level in scientific and engineering contexts.
20Science and Technology
Which one of the following physical quantities has the same dimensions as that of Planck's constant h ?
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Answer: (B) Angular momentum
Explanation
Planck's constant h is derived from the relation E = hν, where E represents energy and ν represents frequency. The dimensional formula for energy is [ML²T⁻²] and the dimensional formula for frequency is [T⁻¹]. Thus, the dimensions of h are calculated as [ML²T⁻²] / [T⁻¹] = [ML²T⁻¹].
Angular momentum L is defined as the product of mass, velocity, and the radius of the circular path, given by the formula L = mvr. Substituting the dimensions for mass [M], velocity [LT⁻¹], and distance [L], the dimensional formula for angular momentum becomes [M][LT⁻¹][L] = [ML²T⁻¹]. This equivalence is also evident in Bohr’s quantization rule, L = nh/2π, where n is a dimensionless integer and 2π is a dimensionless constant, indicating that L and h must have identical dimensions.
21Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound.
Explanation
The sensitivity of the human ear is highly dependent on the frequency of the sound wave. While the human ear can typically hear frequencies between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz, it is not equally sensitive to all frequencies within this range. The ear is most sensitive to frequencies in the range of 2,000 Hz to 5,000 Hz, which corresponds to the resonance frequency of the human ear canal. This variation in sensitivity is why sounds of different frequencies but equal physical intensity (decibels) are perceived by humans as having different levels of loudness, a phenomenon mapped out by equal-loudness contours such as the Fletcher-Munson curves.
22Science and Technology
Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body?
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Answer: (C) Insulin
Explanation
Insulin is a peptide hormone secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its primary physiological function is to regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, particularly in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. When insulin binds to its specific receptors on the cell surface, it triggers a signaling pathway that leads to the translocation of glucose transporter proteins, specifically GLUT4, from intracellular vesicles to the plasma membrane. These transporters then allow glucose to enter the cell via facilitated diffusion. This process effectively lowers blood glucose concentration and provides cells with the necessary substrate for energy production through glycolysis or for storage in the form of glycogen.
23Science and Technology
Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?
1. Root hair cells
2. Red blood cells
3. Platelets
4. Monocytes
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Mature red blood cells are enucleated during their development in the bone marrow. By losing their nucleus, these cells can accommodate a higher concentration of hemoglobin and adopt a biconcave shape that increases the surface area for gas exchange. Platelets are similarly anucleated because they are not formed as whole cells; instead, they are small, membrane-bound fragments of cytoplasm that break off from megakaryocytes. These structural features allow both red blood cells and platelets to perform their specific roles in transport and clotting within the vascular system without needing genetic material.
24Science and Technology
Biological catalysts are protein molecules which
1. speed up a chemical reaction
2. remain unchanged after reaction
3. function optimally at 37°C
4. do not have an enzymatic activity
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Biological catalysts, or enzymes, are specialized protein molecules that increase the rate of biochemical reactions by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy. As true catalysts, they are not consumed during the process; they interact with substrates to form products and emerge from the reaction in their original state, ready to be reused. In the context of human physiology, these proteins are highly sensitive to thermal conditions and typically exhibit maximum efficiency at an optimal temperature of approximately 37°C. This temperature ensures the protein maintains the precise folding and active site geometry required for substrate binding and catalytic activity.
25Science and Technology
'Altitude sickness' is caused at high altitude due to
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Answer: (B) low partial pressure of oxygen
Explanation
At high altitudes, the total atmospheric pressure decreases because the air becomes less dense. While the concentration of oxygen remains constant at about 21 percent, the lower atmospheric pressure causes a proportional decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen (P_O₂). This reduction in P_O₂ reduces the pressure gradient necessary for oxygen to diffuse from the lungs into the bloodstream, leading to a condition known as hypoxia. The resulting lack of adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues and brain triggers the symptoms of altitude sickness, such as dizziness, headache, and breathlessness.
26Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I(Element) List-II(Property/Use)
A. Mg 1. Gives red colour to flame
B. Ca 2. Sulphate compound used in medicine to examine the alimentary canal of a patient
C. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sunlight in photosynthesis
D. Ba 4. Control of muscle contraction
Code :
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Answer: (C) A B C D 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Magnesium is the central metallic element in the chlorophyll molecule, which is vital for absorbing and trapping light energy during the process of photosynthesis. Calcium ions play a fundamental role in the physiological mechanism of muscle contraction by triggering the interaction between actin and myosin filaments. Strontium salts are known for their ability to impart a distinct deep red or crimson color to a flame, a property commonly utilized in pyrotechnics. Barium sulphate, being an insoluble and radiopaque compound, is administered as a barium meal to patients to provide contrast during X-ray imaging of the gastrointestinal tract or alimentary canal.
27Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (D) Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
Explanation
Hydrogen exhibits multiple oxidation states depending on the nature of the chemical bond and the electronegativity of the atoms it is associated with. In its elemental molecular form H₂, the oxidation number of hydrogen is 0. When bonded to more electronegative non-metals, such as in H₂O, NH₃, or HCl, hydrogen typically assumes an oxidation state of +1. However, in binary compounds with active metals known as ionic or saline hydrides, such as NaH, LiH, or CaH₂, hydrogen is more electronegative than the metal and acquires an oxidation state of -1. This ability to exist in 0, +1, and -1 states confirms that hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
28Science and Technology
In case of a standard hydrogen electrode
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Answer: (A) absolute electrode potential is not zero
Explanation
The electrode potential of the Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is assigned a value of exactly 0.00 V by international convention at all temperatures to serve as a universal reference point. This value is a relative potential rather than an absolute one. The absolute electrode potential represents the actual electrical potential difference between the metal electrode and the bulk of the electrolyte, which is determined by factors including the electronic work function of the platinum and the chemical potential of the species involved. Based on IUPAC recommendations and electrochemical research, the absolute potential of the SHE is estimated to be approximately 4.44 ± 0.02 V at 298.15 K. Therefore, while the standard potential is zero by definition for convenience in the electrochemical scale, the absolute physical potential is non-zero.
29Science and Technology
The elemental composition of an adult human body by mass is
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Answer: (B) O > C > H > N
Explanation
The elemental composition of the human body by mass is dominated by four main elements: Oxygen, Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen. Oxygen is the most abundant, making up approximately 65% of the body mass, primarily because the human body is roughly 60-70% water (H₂O), and oxygen accounts for the majority of the mass of a water molecule. Carbon follows at about 18.5%, acting as the fundamental building block for all organic molecules, including fats, carbohydrates, and proteins. Hydrogen accounts for approximately 9.5% of the mass, being present in water and all organic compounds. Nitrogen represents about 3.2% of the total mass, primarily found in the amino acids that make up proteins and the nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids like DNA and RNA. This hierarchy results in the descending order of O > C > H > N.
30Economy
With regard to water transportation in India, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is located at Delhi.
2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India is located at Noida.
3. National Inland Navigation Institute is located at Kolkata.
4. First National Inland Waterway was between Haldia and Allahabad.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the apex statutory body responsible for the development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. Established in 1986 under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, it is headquartered in Noida, Uttar Pradesh. National Waterway 1 (NW-1) was the first waterway to be designated as a National Waterway in India in 1986. It covers a total distance of 1,620 km along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system, extending from Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh to Haldia in West Bengal.
31Geography
If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/UT is 15°48′00″N to 14°53′15″N and 74°20′13″E to 74°40′33″E , then which one of the following is that State/UT?
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Answer: (C) Goa
Explanation
The state of Goa is situated on the southwestern coast of India, and its geographical boundaries are defined by a latitudinal range of 14°53'15''N at its southern limit to 15°48'00''N at its northern limit. This latitudinal spread covers the distance from the Terekhol River in the north to the southern tip of the state near Polem. Located within the Konkan region, Goa is the smallest state in India by land area, and these specific coordinates precisely delineate its north-south extent along the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
32Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Railway Zone) (Headquarters)
A. North Eastern Railway
1. Kolkata
B. East Central Railway
2. Bilaspur
C. South East Central
3. Hajipur Railway
D. South Eastern
4. Gorakhpur Railway
Code:
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
North Eastern Railway is headquartered at Gorakhpur, serving as the central administrative hub for rail operations in eastern Uttar Pradesh and northern Bihar.
East Central Railway is headquartered at Hajipur, Bihar, and was established in 2002 to improve the efficiency of the rail network in the middle Ganges plain.
South East Central Railway is headquartered at Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh, as it manages a critical freight-heavy zone responsible for large-scale coal and mineral transport.
South Eastern Railway is headquartered at Garden Reach in Kolkata, overseeing the major industrial and mineral-rich corridors that connect West Bengal with the hinterland.
33Geography
Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere of the Earth are correct?
1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude.
2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.
3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.
4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The stratosphere experiences a temperature increase with altitude because the ozone layer resides here and absorbs high-energy ultraviolet radiation from the sun, converting it into heat. In contrast, the mesosphere lacks significant concentrations of solar-absorbing gases, and temperature decreases with altitude due to radiative cooling by carbon dioxide, reaching the atmosphere's absolute minimum temperatures at the mesopause. This upper boundary of the mesosphere is the coldest region of Earth's atmosphere, with temperatures often dropping to approximately -90°C. The tropopause serves as a transitional boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere where the environmental lapse rate typically drops to nearly zero. In this region, the temperature remains constant with increasing height, making it an isothermal zone that acts as a lid, preventing most weather patterns and moisture from rising into the stratosphere.
34Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I(Place) List-II(Industry)
A. Bongaigaon 1. Paper
B. Koraput 2. Machine tools
C. Pinjore 3. Aircraft
D. Sirpur 4. Petrochemical
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Answer: (B) A B C D 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Bongaigaon in Assam is home to a major oil refinery and petrochemical complex operated by Indian Oil Corporation, making it a key hub for the petrochemical industry. Koraput in Odisha houses the Sunabeda division of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), which is primarily engaged in the manufacture and maintenance of aero engines for military aircraft. Pinjore in Haryana is historically significant for the Hindustan Machine Tools (HMT) unit that focused on the production of machine tools and tractors. Sirpur in Telangana is famous for the Sirpur Paper Mills Limited, one of the oldest integrated pulp and paper manufacturing units in India.
35Geography
Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Ganga?
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Answer: (C) Teesta
Explanation
The Teesta river originates from the Pahunri glacier in the Eastern Himalayas and flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh. While it historically flowed into the Ganga, a massive flood in 1787 caused the river to divert its course eastward. Since that event, the Teesta has functioned as a major right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra river (known as the Jamuna in Bangladesh) rather than the Ganga.
36Geography
Which one of the following pairs of lakes is connected by Soo Canal?
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Answer: (B) Superior and Huron
Explanation
The Soo Canal, officially known as the Sault Ste. Marie Canals, connects Lake Superior and Lake Huron. It is situated on the St. Marys River, which is the natural link between these two Great Lakes. The canal was constructed to bypass the St. Marys Rapids, where the water level drops approximately 21 feet (6.4 meters) from Lake Superior down to Lake Huron. By using a series of locks, the canal allows large cargo vessels to navigate between the lakes, making it one of the busiest and most vital commercial waterways in the world for the transport of iron ore, coal, and grain within the Great Lakes-St. Lawrence Seaway system.
37Science and Technology
In total internal reflection, the light travels from
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Answer: (B) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity
Explanation
Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from an optically denser medium with a higher refractive index to an optically rarer medium with a lower refractive index. For this phenomenon to take place, the angle of incidence must exceed the critical angle, which is defined as θ꜀ = sin⁻¹(nᵣₐᵣₑᵣ/nꜣₑₙₛₑᵣ). Under these conditions, the interface acts as a perfect mirror, reflecting the entire energy of the incident light back into the denser medium. Because no light is transmitted into the rarer medium or absorbed by the boundary, the reflection occurs with no loss of intensity, making it more efficient than reflection from silvered surfaces.
38Science and Technology
The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV / c , where c is the speed of light, is given by
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Answer: (A) 10 MeV
Explanation
The energy of a photon is directly related to its momentum by the relativistic energy-momentum equation E² = (pc)² + (m₀c²)². Because photons are massless particles, their rest mass m₀ is zero, which simplifies the equation to E = pc, where E is the energy, p is the momentum, and c is the speed of light.
Given that the momentum of the photon is p = 10 MeV/c, the energy can be calculated by substituting this value into the simplified relation:
E = (10 MeV/c) × c
E = 10 MeV
In particle physics, units are often expressed in terms of the speed of light c to simplify calculations involving relativistic particles. Here, the momentum unit MeV/c is defined such that when multiplied by the speed of light, the energy is obtained directly in mega-electronvolts.
39Science and Technology
Liquids and gases never show
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Answer: (C) ferromagnetic property
Explanation
Ferromagnetism is a macroscopic magnetic phenomenon that requires long-range ordering of atomic magnetic moments. This ordering is facilitated by the exchange interaction between neighboring atoms, which can only be sustained in a rigid, crystalline lattice structure where atoms maintain fixed relative positions. In the liquid and gaseous phases, high thermal energy and constant molecular motion (thermal agitation) disrupt the alignment of these magnetic moments and prevent the formation of stable magnetic domains. Consequently, substances that are ferromagnetic in their solid state lose this property and become paramagnetic when they melt or vaporize, or once they exceed their specific Curie temperature T꜀. Although materials like liquid oxygen exhibit paramagnetism and some colloidal suspensions known as ferrofluids exist, intrinsic ferromagnetism is not observed in pure liquids or gases.
40Science and Technology
Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear propagation of light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for light is
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Answer: (C) homogeneous and transparent
Explanation
Rectilinear propagation refers to the property of light traveling in a straight line. According to Fermat's Principle of Least Time, light follows the path that minimizes the travel time between two points. In a homogeneous medium, the refractive index n is uniform at every point. Since the speed of light in a medium is defined as v = c/n, a uniform refractive index ensures that the speed of light remains constant throughout the medium. Under the condition of constant speed, the path of least time is mathematically equivalent to the shortest geometric distance between two points, which is a straight line. The medium must also be transparent to allow the light to pass through without being entirely absorbed or scattered. When light encounters changes in the refractive index, it undergoes refraction and its path bends, meaning straight-line travel is only guaranteed in a medium that is physically and optically uniform.
41Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Strait)
A. Strait of Hormuz
B. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
C. Strait of Malacca
D. Strait of Sunda
List II (Water Body)
1. Java Sea
2. Andaman Sea
3. Red Sea
4. Gulf of Persia
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically vital waterway that connects the Persian Gulf (Gulf of Persia) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. The Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean, separating the Arabian Peninsula from the Horn of Africa. The Strait of Malacca is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world, linking the Andaman Sea in the Indian Ocean to the South China Sea in the Pacific Ocean. The Strait of Sunda is located between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra, serving as a passage that connects the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean.
42Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Ocean Current)
A. Agulhas Current
B. Humboldt Current
C. Labrador Current
D. Falkland Current
List II (Country)
1. Peru
2. South Africa
3. Argentina
4. Canada
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Agulhas Current (A-2) is a warm western boundary current in the South Indian Ocean that flows southwards along the eastern coast of South Africa. Humboldt Current (B-1), also known as the Peru Current, is a cold eastern boundary current that flows north along the western coast of South America, primarily influencing the climate and marine life of Peru. Labrador Current (C-4) is a cold current that originates in the Arctic Ocean and travels south along the eastern coast of Canada, passing through the Labrador Sea. Falkland Current (D-3) is a cold water current that branches off the Antarctic Circumpolar Current and flows northward along the Atlantic coast of Argentina.
43Geography
Which one of the following fishing banks is located off the coast of the United Kingdom?
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Answer: (C) Dogger Bank
Explanation
Dogger Bank is an extensive sandbank located in the shallow waters of the North Sea, situated approximately 100 kilometers off the east coast of England. It is renowned globally as one of the most productive and significant fishing grounds, particularly for demersal species such as cod, haddock, and plaice. Geologically, it represents a submerged part of the former land bridge known as Doggerland, which once connected Great Britain to mainland Europe. Because the water depth is significantly shallower than the surrounding sea, it promotes the growth of phytoplankton, which supports a rich marine ecosystem and a historically vital commercial fishing industry for the United Kingdom and neighboring North Sea nations.
44Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Power Plant) List-II (State)
A. Satpura
1. Maharashtra
B. Dhuvaran
2. Uttarakhand
C. Tanakpur
3. Gujarat
D. Dabhol
4. Madhya Pradesh
Code :
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Satpura Thermal Power Station is located at Sarni in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh and is operated by the Madhya Pradesh Power Generating Company Limited. The Dhuvaran Thermal Power Station is situated near Khambhat in the Anand district of Gujarat and was historically significant as the first power plant of the Gujarat State Electricity Board. The Tanakpur Hydroelectric Project is a run-of-the-river scheme commissioned on the Sharda River in the Champawat district of Uttarakhand. The Dabhol Power Plant, now known as the Ratnagiri Gas and Power Private Limited (RGPPL), is a large natural gas-fired power station located at Anjanvel in the Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
45Geography
Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?
1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.
2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen.
3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Black soils are primarily derived from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks and are chemically characterized by high concentrations of iron, lime, calcium, and magnesium. Despite their mineral richness, they are notably deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter. Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall through the process of intense leaching. This environmental process results in the removal of silica and soluble salts, leaving the soil enriched with residual oxides of iron and aluminium. Due to this leaching, laterite soils are characteristically deficient in nitrogen, potassium, phosphoric acid, and calcium.
46Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.
Explanation
Syzygy refers to the alignment of the Sun, Earth, and Moon in a straight line, which occurs twice during every lunar month at the New Moon (conjunction) and Full Moon (opposition). This phenomenon follows the synodic month of approximately 29.5 days and happens throughout the year. Perihelion is the specific point in Earth's annual elliptical orbit where it is closest to the Sun, occurring only once a year, typically around January 3. There is no orbital mechanism that restricts the occurrence of syzygy conjunction to the time of perihelion; the two events are independent and conjunction occurs regardless of the Earth's distance from the Sun.
47Geography
Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion?
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Answer: (A) Wind gap
Explanation
A wind gap (also known as an air gap) is a fluvial landform rather than an aeolian (wind-related) one. It is a gap or pass in a mountain ridge that was originally carved by a river but is now dry. This occurs when the stream that previously flowed through the gap is diverted into a different drainage system through the process of river capture or stream piracy. Although it is called a wind gap because wind may blow through it, the physical erosion that created the feature was performed by running water.
In contrast, Zeugen and Dreikanters are direct products of wind erosion. Zeugen are mushroom-shaped rock pedestals formed by wind abrasion in arid regions, and Dreikanters are ventifacts (stones) shaped and faceted by the sand-blasting action of the wind. Demoiselles are earth pillars typically formed by rainwash and differential water erosion, but in the context of landform classification in competitive examinations, the wind gap is the most distinctly unrelated to wind erosion processes, as it belongs specifically to the study of drainage evolution and fluvial geomorphology.
48Geography
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (D) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary.
Explanation
The Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, situated in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, is the largest wildlife sanctuary in India and the only place on Earth where the Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) survives in the wild. Established in 1972, the sanctuary protects the unique saline desert ecosystem of the Rann, which consists of vast salt marshlands and elevated plateaus known as bets that provide the necessary vegetation for the species. The Indian Wild Ass is currently listed as Near Threatened by the IUCN, and the sanctuary remains the primary conservation zone for this distinct subspecies.
49Geography
Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya.
Explanation
Shola forests are tropical montane forests found in the high-altitude regions of South India, specifically within the Western Ghats in the states of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka. These forests are characterized by stunted evergreen trees and are typically found in the sheltered valleys and depressions of the Nilgiri, Anaimalai, and Palani hills at elevations generally above 1500 meters. They are geographically separated by vast stretches of undulating grasslands. In contrast, the upper reaches of the Himalayas are characterized by alpine and sub-alpine vegetation, including coniferous species like Deodar and Fir, making the claim that Shola forests are Himalayan vegetation incorrect.
50Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata.
Explanation
The Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) is an autonomous research institution under the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. The centre focuses on advanced research in life sciences, specifically in the areas of disease biology, genetic engineering, and molecular medicine.
51History
Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement I : The Pahi-kashta peasants were non- resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis.
Statement II : The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
During the Mughal period, the peasantry was classified into two main groups: Khud-kashta and Pahi-kashta. Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators who did not live in the village where they tilled the land but instead migrated to other villages to cultivate land on a contractual basis. This status as migrant, contractual laborers arose because they were either lured by zamindars offering lower revenue rates and better terms to cultivate virgin or deserted lands, or they were forced to leave their home villages due to poverty, debt, or natural calamities. Since their movement and contractual nature were directly motivated by these economic incentives or pressures, Statement II serves as the logical explanation for the socio-economic status described in Statement I.
52History
Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement I : The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India.
Statement II : The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Zamindars in the Mughal Empire functioned as hereditary intermediaries who held proprietary rights (milkiyat) over land and were tasked with revenue collection. They were an exploitative class because they extracted surplus labor and produce from the peasantry to sustain their own local authority and lifestyle, often charging more than the official state demand. Their position depended on the economic subordination of the actual cultivators.
During the seventeenth century, particularly under the reign of Aurangzeb, the Mughal state increased its fiscal demands to meet rising military and administrative costs. This pressure squeezed both the Zamindars' margins and the peasants' subsistence. In response, many Zamindars organized and led agrarian uprisings against the central Mughal administration. These revolts were common in North India, where Zamindars utilized their local kinship ties and traditional influence to mobilize the peasantry against the common threat of state over-taxation. While both statements are historically accurate, the fact that Zamindars led peasant uprisings is a result of shared grievances against the central state and does not provide a causal explanation for why they were an exploitative class in the agrarian hierarchy.
53History
Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement I : King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army.
Statement II : After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Explanation
King Ashoka did not abolish capital punishment or disband his army despite his conversion to Buddhism and policy of non-violence. Historical evidence from Pillar Edict IV shows that he granted a three-day respite to those sentenced to death so they could settle their affairs or seek spiritual merit, confirming that the death penalty remained in force. Furthermore, while he replaced Bherighosha (the sound of the war drum) with Dhammaghosha (the sound of Dharma) and abandoned aggressive expansion, he maintained a standing army to ensure internal security and govern his vast empire. Statement II is correct because Major Rock Edict XIII explicitly records Ashoka's profound remorse following the Kalinga War, which led him to embrace Buddhism and shift the focus of his reign toward the welfare of his subjects and the spread of Dhamma.
54Science and Technology
Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank?
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Answer: (B) T-155
Explanation
The T-155, specifically known as the T-155 Firtina, is a Turkish self-propelled howitzer. It is a mobile artillery system equipped with a 155 mm gun designed for indirect fire support over long distances. Unlike main battle tanks that are built for direct-fire engagements and heavy frontal protection, the T-155 is categorized as artillery. Its primary role is to provide high-volume fire from the rear of the battlefield, making it a distinct class of military vehicle from armored battle tanks.
55Art and Culture
Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe?
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Answer: (A) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
Explanation
In ancient Indian tradition and Puranic mythology, the Lokapalas are the Guardians of the Universe or World Protectors who preside over the cardinal directions. The primary group consists of Indra, who guards the East; Yama, the god of death and justice, who guards the South; Varuna, the god of the oceans and cosmic order, who guards the West; and Kubera, the god of wealth, who guards the North. These deities are responsible for maintaining the stability of the cosmos and protecting the world from chaotic forces. This fundamental set of four deities formed the core of the directional guardianship system in the Vedic and Epic periods before the concept was further expanded to include intermediate directions in later iconographic traditions.
56Polity and Governance
Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
4. The Government of India Act, 1919
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 395 of the Constitution of India specifically provides for the repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935. The article also encompasses the repeal of all enactments that amended or supplemented the Government of India Act, 1935. However, the text of Article 395 explicitly states that the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949, is not included in this repeal. This exclusion was necessary to ensure the continued validity of the transfer of judicial authority from the British Privy Council to the Indian legal system during the transition to a Republic. The Government of India Act, 1919, is not mentioned in Article 395 because it had already been largely repealed and replaced by the Government of India Act, 1935. Thus, only the 1947 and 1935 Acts were repealed by this constitutional provision.
57Polity and Governance
On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect?
1. Citizenship
2. Elections
3. Provisional Parliament
4. Fundamental Rights
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Under Article 394 of the Constitution of India, several provisions came into force on November 26, 1949, which is the date of adoption of the Constitution. These specifically included Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 relating to citizenship, Article 324 relating to the conduct of elections, and Articles 379, 380, 388, 391, and 392 which dealt with the provisional parliament and other temporary and transitional provisions. These sections were given immediate effect to provide a legal framework for the transition from a dominion to a republic, ensuring that the necessary administrative machinery for identifying citizens and organizing future elections was operational. The remaining portions of the Constitution, which established the permanent structures of the state and the fundamental legal protections for its citizens, came into effect on January 26, 1950.
58Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct?
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation.
4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted in November 1946 under the framework provided by the Cabinet Mission Plan. The scheme for the formation of the Assembly, including the method of selection and the distribution of seats, was specifically laid down by this Cabinet Delegation. According to the plan, the members of the Constituent Assembly were to be elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. These provincial representatives used the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote to choose the members of the Assembly. The seats were allocated to the various provinces and princely states in proportion to their respective populations, ensuring a representative character based on the demographic weight of each region as envisioned by the Cabinet Mission.
59Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
Explanation
Potassium bromate (KBrO₃) is primarily classified as a carcinogen rather than a neurotoxin. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) categorized it as a Group 2B carcinogen, meaning it is possibly carcinogenic to humans, based on sufficient evidence that it causes renal and thyroid tumors in experimental animals. During the 2016 food safety controversy in India initiated by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), the primary concern was that the chemical remains as a residue in finished bread products and poses a long-term cancer risk to consumers. While acute exposure to high concentrations can cause kidney damage and hearing loss, the toxicological profile that led to its ban by the Union Government was its potential to induce cancer through chronic dietary intake.
60Polity and Governance
Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016?
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Answer: (B) England and Wales
Explanation
In the United Kingdom European Union membership referendum held on June 23, 2016, the majority of voters in England and Wales opted to leave the European Union. England saw 53.4 percent of voters support Brexit, while in Wales, 52.5 percent of the electorate voted to leave. In contrast, the majority of voters in Scotland and Northern Ireland voted in favor of remaining within the European Union, with Scotland showing a 62 percent remain vote and Northern Ireland a 55.8 percent remain vote. The combined result of these regional totals led to a national victory for the Leave campaign with 51.89 percent of the total UK vote.
61Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.
Explanation
The RLV-TD (Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstrator) HEX-01 mission, launched on May 23, 2016, utilized a single-stage solid propellant booster known as the HS9. This 9-ton booster was designed to propel the winged technology demonstrator to an altitude of approximately 65km and a velocity of Mach 5 before burnout and separation. The propulsion system for this initial boost phase was entirely based on solid fuel (HTPB-based), rather than liquid fuel.
62Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
Explanation
The Sukhoi-30 MKI is a twinjet multirole air superiority fighter developed by Russia's Sukhoi and built under license by India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). While the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is the primary agency responsible for the research and development of indigenous defense technologies and systems, the actual production and manufacturing of the Sukhoi-30 MKI aircraft are conducted by HAL at its Nashik facility. DRDO's role in relation to the Sukhoi-30 MKI focuses on the development and integration of indigenous avionics, electronic warfare suites, and weapon systems such as the BrahMos missile, rather than the manufacturing of the aircraft airframe itself.
63History
Which one of the following sources tells us about women protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household?
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Answer: (B) Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
Explanation
Historical records from the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, specifically the administrative and judicial documents of village panchayats in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, provide detailed insights into domestic social relations. These documents include petitions filed by women to the panchayat, which acted as a local judicial body. Women often approached the panchayat to protest against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the household by the male head. In such cases, the panchayat usually upheld the woman's right to be maintained by her husband and often directed the man to mend his ways or ensure the financial well-being of his wife and children. Failure to comply could lead to social boycott or other communal punishments mediated by the village elders.
64Polity and Governance
The All India Census was
1. first attempted in 1872
2. regularly undertaken since 1881
3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The first population census in India was conducted in 1872 under the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo, representing the first attempt to collect demographic data on an all-India basis, though it was not synchronous. The first complete and synchronous census, which covered the entire country simultaneously, was carried out in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon. Since 1881, the census has been regularly undertaken every ten years. This ten-year frequency makes it a decennial exercise, whereas a five-year exercise is termed quinquennial. Therefore, the practices established in 1872 and 1881 define the historical timeline and periodicity of the Indian census.
65History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Historian) List-II (Book)
A. Sumit Sarkar
1. The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
B. Shahid Amin
2. A Rule of Property for Bengal
C. Ranajit Guha
3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-1908
D. Bipan Chandra
4. Event, Metaphor, Memory—Chauri Chaura, 1922-1992
Code :
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Sumit Sarkar is the author of The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-1908, which is a seminal work examining the social and political complexities of the anti-partition agitation. Shahid Amin wrote Event, Metaphor, Memory: Chauri Chaura, 1922-1992, a subaltern study that explores how the violent incident was remembered and reconstructed in historical narratives. Ranajit Guha, the founder of the Subaltern Studies collective, authored A Rule of Property for Bengal, which analyzes the intellectual origins and the ideological framework of the Permanent Settlement of 1793. Bipan Chandra wrote The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India, providing a comprehensive analysis of the economic critique of British colonialism developed by early Indian nationalist leaders between 1880 and 1905.
66Art and Culture
What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty?
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Answer: (D) Tripurantaka
Explanation
The Brihadeshvara Temple at Thanjavur, commissioned by the Chola emperor Raja Raja I, features Tripurantaka as its most significant iconographic theme. This form depicts Shiva as the destroyer of the three mythical cities of the demons, representing the triumph of divine order over chaos. The choice of Tripurantaka was deeply symbolic for the Chola dynasty, as it mirrored the martial achievements and imperial authority of Raja Raja I himself. Sculptures of Tripurantaka occupy numerous prominent niches on the exterior walls of the vimana, and the form is also the subject of grand frescoes discovered in the narrow circumambulatory passage around the sanctum. These depictions typically show Shiva standing on a chariot, armed with a bow and arrow, embodying the power and sovereignty that the Chola monarchs sought to project through their monumental architecture.
67Polity and Governance
Which one of the Directions is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Fundamental Rights are absolute.
Explanation
Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on these rights to maintain a balance between individual liberty and social control. These restrictions are specified within the Constitution itself under various clauses, such as those found in Article 19, and can be imposed on grounds like the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency, or morality. Whether a restriction is reasonable or not is a matter determined by the judiciary through the process of judicial review.
68Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The Government of India Act, 1919 was the longest Act of the text.
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1935 was the most voluminous and detailed piece of legislation enacted by the British Parliament for the administration of India, consisting of 321 sections and 10 schedules. It was so extensive that it was eventually divided into two separate statutes: the Government of India Act 1935 and the Government of Burma Act 1935. In contrast, the Government of India Act 1919, which introduced the system of dyarchy, was significantly shorter and less comprehensive in its scope and provisions. Consequently, the assertion that the 1919 Act was the longest Act is factually incorrect.
69Polity and Governance
A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she
1. renounces Indian citizenship
2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
3. marries a citizen of another country
4. criticizes the Government
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides for the loss of Indian citizenship through three methods: renunciation, termination, and deprivation. Renunciation is a voluntary act where an Indian citizen of full age and capacity makes a formal declaration to give up their citizenship. Termination is an automatic legal consequence that occurs when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, as the Indian Constitution and the 1955 Act do not recognize dual citizenship. These provisions ensure that the status of a citizen is terminated if they explicitly choose to relinquish it or if they swear allegiance to another sovereign state by obtaining its nationality.
70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?
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Answer: (A) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.
Explanation
Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution grants immunity from self-incrimination, specifically stating that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. This protection is intended to prevent the use of physical or mental coercion to extract statements. However, this constitutional bar does not extend to voluntary confessions made by an accused. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and the Code of Criminal Procedure, a confession that is made freely and without any threat or inducement is legally admissible in a court of law. Judicial confessions recorded by a Magistrate are considered substantive evidence and can be used to convict an individual, provided the court is satisfied with their voluntary nature. Consequently, the legal principle does not prohibit the use of confessions as evidence, but rather prohibits the use of compelled testimony.
71History
Neil O'Brien, who died recently, was a famous
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Answer: (D) quiz master
Explanation
Neil O'Brien is widely celebrated as the pioneer of formal quizzing in India and is often referred to as the father of Indian quizzing. He is credited with conducting the first well-organized, open-to-all quiz in the country at Christ Church School in Kolkata in 1967, an event that laid the foundation for the popular quizzing culture in India. Beyond his role as a quiz master, he was a prominent leader of the Anglo-Indian community, serving as a nominated member of the Lok Sabha and the West Bengal Legislative Assembly. He also had a long and distinguished career in publishing, serving as the managing director of Oxford University Press in India.
72Science and Technology
Consider the following statement :
If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don't give up. There is a way out.
Who among the following made the above statement?
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Answer: (B) Stephen Hawking
Explanation
Stephen Hawking made this statement during a public lecture at the KTH Royal Institute of Technology in Stockholm in August 2015. His remarks were centered on the black hole information paradox, a long-standing problem in physics regarding whether information that falls into a black hole is lost forever. Hawking proposed a new theory suggesting that information is actually stored on the event horizon in the form of two-dimensional holograms. He argued that since information is preserved, it could potentially be recovered or even pass into a different universe, leading to his conclusion that black holes are not the eternal prisons they were once thought to be.
73Science and Technology
Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous 'Dhanush' artillery guns to be produced in India by
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Answer: (C) Indian Ordnance Factory Board
Explanation
The Dhanush is a 155 mm, 45-caliber towed artillery gun developed indigenously in India. It is an upgraded version of the Haubits FH77 Bofors gun, produced using the technical documentation provided during the original Bofors deal in the 1980s. The production of the Dhanush was undertaken by the Ordnance Factory Board, with the Gun Carriage Factory in Jabalpur serving as the primary manufacturing unit. In mid-2016, the Ministry of Defence cleared the proposal for the initial production and induction of these guns into the Indian Army, representing a major milestone for the Indian defense industry's capability to manufacture advanced long-range artillery systems.
74Science and Technology
Who among the following won the Men's Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2016?
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Answer: (C) Novak Djokovic
Explanation
Novak Djokovic claimed the Men's Singles Title at the 2016 Australian Open, marking his sixth championship at the tournament. He secured the victory in the final on January 31, 2016, at Rod Laver Arena in Melbourne. This win allowed him to equal the record for the most Australian Open men's singles titles held at that time and brought his total career Grand Slam tally to 11. Djokovic maintained a high level of performance throughout the two-week event, losing only three sets in total during his path to the trophy and solidifying his position as the world number one in the ATP rankings.
75Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are true?
1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita.
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada.
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic philosophy.
4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Shankara was the preeminent philosopher of Advaita Vedanta, a school of Hindu philosophy that advocates for the absolute non-duality of the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman). He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada, who was the teacher of his own guru, by writing a definitive commentary on Gaudapada’s Mandukya Karika, which laid the early groundwork for non-dualist thought. A central aspect of Shankara's work was his effort to provide a systematic and unified interpretation of the Vedic tradition. He achieved this through his Bhasyas (commentaries) on the Prasthanatrayi—the Upanishads, the Brahmasutras, and the Bhagavad Gita. Through these commentaries, he applied rigorous dialectical logic to demonstrate that these texts do not offer conflicting views but rather present a single, coherent philosophical system centered on the realization of the non-dual Brahman.
76History
Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true?
1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879.
2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British.
3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra.
4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Deccan Riots of 1875 were a response to the extreme indebtedness of peasants caused by the collapse of the cotton boom following the end of the American Civil War. During the war years, Deccan cotton prices soared, but the subsequent slump combined with heavy land revenue hikes by the British led to widespread impoverishment. The riots were characterized by peasants attacking moneylenders to destroy debt bonds and records. The British administration intervened quickly with police and military force, effectively suppressing the movement and ensuring it did not spread beyond the Pune and Ahmednagar districts to the rest of Maharashtra. Following the unrest, the Deccan Riots Commission was formed, leading to the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. This legislation provided protection to farmers by restricting the arrest of debtors and the seizure of land for non-payment of debts.
77History
Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin?
1. They follow Indian religious practices.
2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language.
3. They believe that they came from India.
4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The classification of the Roma people as being of Indian origin is primarily based on linguistic evidence. The Romani language is a member of the Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European language family, making it closely related to Sanskrit and modern North Indian languages such as Hindi, Punjabi, Marwari, and Gujarati. Detailed comparative linguistic studies established that Romani shares fundamental grammatical structures and core vocabulary with these Indo-Aryan languages, which suggests that the ancestors of the Roma migrated from Northern India. This migration is estimated to have begun between the 6th and 11th centuries CE. While modern genetic research has further corroborated this link, the linguistic categorization of Romani as an Indo-Aryan language has been the central academic pillar for tracing their roots back to the Indian subcontinent since the late 18th century.
78History
The term Upar refers to which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule
Explanation
In the Maratha land revenue system, the term Upari or Upar refers to a class of tenant cultivators who held land on a temporary tenancy basis. These individuals were typically migratory farmers or newcomers to a village who did not possess hereditary proprietary rights over the soil. They functioned as tenants-at-will, cultivating land that was either vacant or owned by the state and the village community. Their tenure was contractual and lacked the permanent, transmissible rights enjoyed by the resident land-owning class. The Maratha administration utilized this system to ensure that arable land did not remain fallow, offering these tenants leasehold agreements to maintain agricultural productivity and state revenue.
79Science and Technology
The 'water frame' of Richard Arkwright was a device for
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Answer: (C) producing strong threads of yarn
Explanation
Richard Arkwright patented the water frame in 1769, a pivotal invention during the Industrial Revolution that automated the spinning of cotton. This device used water power to drive a series of rollers that stretched and twisted cotton fibers into yarn. Unlike earlier manual spinning machines, the water frame produced a thread that was remarkably strong and durable. This increased strength made the yarn suitable for use as warp threads in weaving, which are the longitudinal threads held under tension in a loom. This capability was essential for the production of high-quality, 100% cotton cloth and led to the establishment of large-scale, water-powered textile mills, shifting production from homes to factories.
80History
The 'four great needs' of the people as identified by the Guomindang were
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Answer: (A) clothing, food, housing and transportation
Explanation
Sun Yat-sen, the founder of the Guomindang (Nationalist Party), formulated the Three Principles of the People, which included the Principle of People's Livelihood (Minsheng). Under this principle, he identified the primary goal of the state as ensuring the basic material welfare of the population. He categorized the fundamental requirements for human existence and social progress into four essential needs: food, clothing, housing, and transportation. Sun Yat-sen argued that a stable and modern nation could only be built if the government successfully managed the economy to provide these four necessities to all citizens, thereby eliminating poverty and ensuring social harmony. These pillars became a central part of the Guomindang's ideological platform for national development and social reform in early 20th-century China.
81History
Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo?
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Answer: (D) Edo
Explanation
Tokyo was historically known as Edo. It served as the seat of the Tokugawa Shogunate during the Edo period from 1603 to 1868. Following the Meiji Restoration in 1868, the imperial capital was moved from Kyoto to Edo, and the city was renamed Tokyo, which means Eastern Capital. This change marked the end of the shogunate's rule and the beginning of the modernization of Japan under Emperor Meiji.
82Art and Culture
The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the
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Answer: (B) Jaina elements in the storyline
Explanation
Silappadikaram, one of the five great epics of Tamil literature, was composed by Ilango Adigal, who is traditionally considered a Jaina monk and the brother of the Chera King Senguttuvan. The narrative is heavily permeated with Jaina philosophy and ethical values. A significant character in the epic is Kavunthi Adigal, a Jaina nun who accompanies the protagonists, Kovalan and Kannagi, on their journey to Madurai and offers them spiritual guidance based on Jaina principles. The text highlights Jaina doctrines such as the law of Karma, the inevitability of fate, and the merits of asceticism. The presence of Jaina descriptions and the author's own religious background make Jaina elements a fundamental aspect of the storyline.
83History
Rakshasa type of marriage is
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Answer: (B) marriage by capture
Explanation
In ancient Hindu jurisprudence, as detailed in the Manusmriti and other Dharmashastras, eight distinct forms of marriage are recognized. The Rakshasa marriage is defined as the forcible abduction of a maiden from her home after her kinsmen have been killed or injured and their dwelling broken into. It is essentially a marriage by capture, characterized by the use of force and violence to obtain a bride. While it was historically associated with the Kshatriya varna due to its nature of conquest and physical prowess, it is classified among the four blameworthy or inferior types of marriage because it lacks the voluntary consent of the bride's guardians.
84History
Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won the Copa America Football Championship, 2016?
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Answer: (B) Argentina
Explanation
The Copa America Centenario 2016 final was contested between Chile and Argentina on June 26, 2016, at the MetLife Stadium in East Rutherford, New Jersey. After the match remained scoreless throughout regulation and thirty minutes of extra time, the championship was decided by a penalty shootout. Chile emerged victorious with a 4-2 win on penalties to claim their second consecutive Copa America title. This victory followed their previous triumph in the 2015 tournament, where they had also defeated Argentina in a penalty shootout during the final match. Argentina captain Lionel Messi notably missed his penalty during the shootout, contributing to Chile's successful title defense.
85Geography
Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world?
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Answer: (D) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park
Explanation
Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park is located in Darjeeling, West Bengal, at an elevation of approximately 2,134 meters (7,000 feet) above sea level. Established in 1958, it is the largest high-altitude zoo in India and is specialized in the conservation and breeding of endangered Himalayan wildlife. The park is internationally renowned for its successful captive breeding programs for rare species adapted to alpine climates, most notably the Red Panda, Snow Leopard, and Tibetan Wolf. It serves as a critical center for research and preservation of fauna from the Eastern Himalayan region.
86Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Control Regime is not correct?
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Answer: (D) No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.
Explanation
The Missile Technology Control Regime recognizes a category of states known as adherents. An adherent is a country that is not a formal member of the regime but voluntarily chooses to adopt and implement the MTCR Guidelines and its Equipment, Software, and Technology Annex as part of its national export control legislation. These non-member states formally notify the MTCR Point of Contact in writing of their commitment to the guidelines. Multiple countries, including Israel and Kazakhstan, have historically functioned as adherents, proving that states outside the formal membership do follow the regime rules.
87Science and Technology
The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of
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Answer: (A) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve
Explanation
The first Tejas squadron of the Indian Air Force, known as No. 45 Squadron IAF (Flying Daggers), was officially inducted on July 1, 2016. In accordance with the Indian Air Force's organizational structure for this indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), a full-strength squadron is designed to consist of 20 aircraft. This total includes 16 operational single-seat fighter aircraft and 4 twin-seat trainers that function as reserves for training and maintenance rotation. This composition was established as part of the initial order for 40 Tejas aircraft, split into two squadrons of 20 aircraft each to achieve operational readiness.
88Geography
The headquarters of 'Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific' is located at
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Answer: (C) Bangkok
Explanation
The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the regional development arm of the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region. Established in 1947 as the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East (ECAFE), it moved its headquarters to Bangkok, Thailand, in 1949. It functions as one of the five regional commissions under the administrative direction of United Nations Headquarters. The organization provides a forum for its 53 member states and 9 associate members to promote economic and social development through regional and subregional cooperation and integration. It focuses on issues such as macroeconomic policy, poverty reduction, trade, investment, and environmental sustainability.
89Economy
Which of the following with regard to the term 'bank run' is correct?
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Answer: (C) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks
Explanation
A bank run describes a panic situation in which a large number of depositors lose confidence in a bank's financial stability and attempt to withdraw their funds simultaneously. In a fractional-reserve banking system, banks keep only a small percentage of total deposits as liquid cash reserves while lending or investing the rest in long-term assets. When withdrawal demands exceed these liquid reserves, the bank faces a liquidity crisis. This phenomenon is often driven by the fear that the bank will become insolvent, which can create a self-fulfilling prophecy where the rush for cash actually causes the bank to fail. To prevent such collapses, central banks often provide emergency liquidity, acting as the lender of last resort to stabilize the financial system.
90Economy
Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure?
1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation.
2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier.
3. Cost of borrowing decreases.
4. Bondholders get benefitted.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Inflation leads to a decline in the internal purchasing power of the domestic currency. According to the principle of Purchasing Power Parity, a significant decrease in a currency's internal value typically leads to its depreciation in the international forex market as it loses value relative to foreign currencies.
Furthermore, inflation reduces the real cost of borrowing. The real interest rate is calculated using the Fisher equation, where the real rate equals the nominal interest rate minus the inflation rate (r = i - π). As the inflation rate increases, the real interest rate falls, assuming nominal interest rates do not rise at the same pace. This benefits borrowers (debtors) because they repay their loans in currency that has less purchasing power than when it was originally borrowed, effectively reducing the real burden of the debt.
91Economy
According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are
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Answer: (A) purely temporary in nature.
Explanation
The Classical Theory of Employment is based on the fundamental premise that a free-market economy possesses a self-adjusting mechanism that ensures full employment in the long run. This perspective is anchored in Say's Law of Markets, which posits that supply creates its own demand, meaning that the total income generated during production is exactly sufficient to purchase the total output produced. Classical economists, including Adam Smith, David Ricardo, and A.C. Pigou, argued that flexibility in wages, prices, and interest rates allows the economy to automatically correct any imbalances. If unemployment arises, competition among workers leads to a reduction in real wage rates, which encourages employers to hire more labor until the surplus is eliminated. Similarly, if there is an excess of savings, interest rates fall to encourage investment. Because these market forces are assumed to act quickly and efficiently, any deviations from full employment are regarded as purely temporary disturbances that the economy will naturally resolve without external intervention.
92Economy
Capital deepening refers to
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Answer: (A) going for more fixed capital per worker
Explanation
Capital deepening is an economic situation where the amount of capital per worker increases in the economy. It is mathematically expressed as an increase in the capital-labor ratio K/L, where K represents the total stock of fixed capital such as machinery, equipment, and infrastructure, and L represents the total labor force. By providing more fixed capital per worker, the process enhances labor productivity, as each individual worker has more tools and technology at their disposal to produce goods and services. This leads to an increase in the total output per capita and is a significant driver of long-term economic growth. Unlike capital widening, which involves increasing the capital stock at the same rate as the labor force to keep the ratio constant, capital deepening specifically focuses on intensifying the use of capital relative to labor.
93Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.
Explanation
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, which provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, is specifically limited to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III. The Supreme Court's jurisdiction under this article can only be invoked when a Fundamental Right is violated. Unlike Article 226, which grants High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other purpose such as the enforcement of ordinary legal or statutory rights, Article 32 does not extend to the enforcement of ordinary law that does not involve a Fundamental Right. Consequently, a person cannot move the Supreme Court under Article 32 for the protection of a right that is merely a statutory or common law right. The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of rights conferred by Part III is itself a Fundamental Right.
94Polity and Governance
Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?
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Answer: (A) Habeas Corpus
Explanation
The writ of Habeas Corpus, which literally translates to to have the body of, is a judicial order issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution to protect an individual from illegal detention. It is directed to the person or authority who has detained another, commanding them to produce the body of the prisoner before the court. The court then examines the grounds and legality of the detention. If the court concludes that the arrest or detention is unlawful, it orders the immediate release of the person. This writ acts as a fundamental constitutional remedy to safeguard individual liberty against arbitrary state action or unauthorized confinement by private individuals.
95Polity and Governance
According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
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Answer: (D) To promote village and cottage industries
Explanation
The promotion of village and cottage industries is a Directive Principle of State Policy as outlined in Article 43 of the Constitution of India. Located in Part IV, these principles act as constitutional instructions to the State to promote social and economic justice. Fundamental Duties are separately listed under Article 51A in Part IV-A. Promoting industries is a state-led developmental activity and does not constitute a civic duty for citizens under the constitutional framework.
96Polity and Governance
Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by
1. war
2. external aggression
3. armed rebellion
4. internal disturbance
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 352 of the Constitution of India authorizes the President to declare a National Emergency if the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. The grounds of war and external aggression constitute an external emergency, while armed rebellion constitutes an internal emergency. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced the term armed rebellion in place of the original phrasing to ensure that a national emergency could not be proclaimed on vague or non-violent grounds. Under this article, the President can issue such a proclamation only after receiving a written recommendation from the Union Cabinet, and the declaration can apply to the entire country or specifically to a part of it.
97Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not true of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
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Answer: (C) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
Explanation
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, does not restrict the seeking of relief solely to the husband or a male live-in partner. According to the proviso to Section 2(q) of the Act, an aggrieved wife or a woman living in a relationship in the nature of marriage may also file a complaint against a relative of the husband or the male partner. This allows for legal action against female relatives, such as a mother-in-law or sister-in-law, who may be involved in domestic violence. This position was further reinforced by the Supreme Court in the case of Hiral P. Harsora v. Kusum Narottamdas Harsora (2016), which struck down the words adult male from the definition of a respondent, thereby ensuring that remedies can be sought against any person in a domestic relationship with the victim, regardless of their gender.
98Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the names of the same organization.
Explanation
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) and the National Investment Fund (NIF) are separate entities with distinct purposes and origins. The NIF was established in 2005 to receive and manage the proceeds from the disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises, with the funds primarily used for social sector schemes and capital investments in public enterprises. Conversely, the NIIF was announced in the Union Budget 2015-16 as an investment vehicle to provide long-term debt and equity for infrastructure projects by attracting both domestic and international capital. While the NIF focuses on the management of disinvestment revenue, the NIIF functions as a commercial platform registered with SEBI as an Alternative Investment Fund.
99Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command?
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Answer: (D) It was set up by the British during the Second World War.
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) was formally established on 8 October 2001. Its creation was a major reform in India's national security architecture following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers (GoM) that studied the lessons of the 1999 Kargil War. The command was designed to provide a unified operational structure for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Coast Guard in the strategically vital Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea. It was not set up by the British during the Second World War; during that period, the islands were occupied by Japanese forces from 1942 to 1945 before being reclaimed by the British, but no integrated tri-service command structure existed there at that time.
100Polity and Governance
Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
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Answer: (D) The member who has been the longest on the Committee
Explanation
The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) is not a fixed appointment held by any one service chief. Instead, the position rotates to whichever of the three service chiefs — Army, Navy, or Air Force — has been in service the longest on the Committee. This principle of seniority-based rotation ensures that no single service permanently holds the chairmanship. The COSC was the highest defence body in India before the creation of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post in 2019.
101History
Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
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Answer: (A) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (JAK RIF) is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army. It was raised in 1947 and is one of the regiment-based infantry units of the Indian Army that recruits predominantly from the Jammu and Kashmir region. It is distinct from the Rashtriya Rifles (a counter-insurgency force), the J&K Armed Police (a state police force), and the Central Armed Police Forces under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
102Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (D) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.
Explanation
The Corps of Army Air Defence is an active combat arm of the Indian Army that provides ground-based air defense cover against enemy aircraft, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles. It originated as part of the Regiment of Artillery but was recognized as an autonomous branch on 10 January 1994. The corps operates a diverse range of weapon systems, including short and medium-range surface-to-air missiles and various anti-aircraft guns. It functions as a specialized entity within the Army hierarchy, maintaining its own administrative and training infrastructure, such as the Army Air Defence College at Gopalpur. This independence allows it to focus specifically on the tactical and technological requirements of protecting ground formations and vital installations from aerial threats.
103Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of the Indian Army?
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Answer: (B) North Eastern Command
Explanation
North Eastern Command is not a recognized command of the Indian Army. The Indian Army is organized into seven commands, comprising six geographic operational commands and one training command. The defense and administrative operations for the northeastern states of India are managed by the Eastern Command, which has its headquarters at Fort William in Kolkata. Since the Eastern Command oversees this entire sector, there is no separate or specific North Eastern Command within the official organizational structure of the Indian Army.
104Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished.
Explanation
The rank of Second Lieutenant was abolished in the Indian Army following the implementation of the AV Singh Committee recommendations in 2004. This structural reform was designed to address stagnation in the officer cadre and to lower the age profile of battalion and brigade commanders. As a result of these changes, the starting rank for newly commissioned officers was upgraded, and cadets graduating from the Indian Military Academy or the Officers Training Academy are now commissioned directly as Lieutenants.
105Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system?
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Answer: (C) Tatra
Explanation
Tatra refers to a brand of heavy-duty, multi-axle all-terrain trucks manufactured by a Czech company. In the context of the Indian Armed Forces, these vehicles serve as high-mobility logistics platforms and Transporter Erector Launchers (TEL) for various weapon systems, such as the BrahMos cruise missile and the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher. Tatra is an automotive mobility platform and is not a missile or an air defence system.
106Economy
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the composition of national income in India?
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Answer: (B) The share of services sector has increased sharply.
Explanation
The structural transformation of the Indian economy is characterized by a rapid shift from agriculture directly to the services sector, bypassing the traditional industrialization phase seen in many developed nations. Since the liberalization reforms of 1991, the services sector has experienced exponential growth, driven primarily by telecommunications, information technology, banking, and business process outsourcing. By the 2015-16 fiscal year, the services sector accounted for more than 53 percent of India's Gross Value Added (GVA), a significant increase from approximately 30 percent in the 1950s. This sharp rise has made services the dominant component of India's national income, even as the relative share of the primary sector has consistently diminished over the same period.
107Economy
In India, the term 'hot money' is used to refer to
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Answer: (D) Foreign Portfolio Investment
Explanation
Hot money refers to capital that moves quickly and frequently between financial markets to take advantage of interest rate differentials or expected shifts in exchange rates. In the Indian context, Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) is categorized as hot money because it is highly liquid and volatile. Investors in FPI typically seek short-term capital gains through financial instruments like stocks and bonds rather than long-term interest in a business's management. Because these investments can be liquidated and transferred out of the domestic economy almost instantaneously in response to global economic changes or domestic market fluctuations, they represent a less stable form of capital compared to direct physical investments.
108Economy
Which of the following is/are credit rating agency/agencies in India?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
CRISIL, ICRA, and CARE are leading credit rating agencies in India that evaluate the creditworthiness of debt instruments and issuers. These agencies are registered with and regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999. CRISIL, established in 1987, was India's first credit rating agency. ICRA was incorporated in 1991, and CARE began its operations in 1993. They provide objective assessments of the risk associated with financial instruments like debentures, commercial papers, and bank loans, helping investors make informed decisions in the capital market.
109Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?
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Answer: (C) Y. V. Reddy
Explanation
The Fourteenth Finance Commission was constituted in January 2013 under the chairmanship of Dr. Y. V. Reddy, who previously served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. The commission was tasked with providing recommendations for the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States for the period from 2015 to 2020. Its most significant recommendation was the increase in the states' share of the divisible pool of central taxes from 32 percent to 42 percent, which was a major shift aimed at enhancing fiscal federalism and providing states with greater autonomy in their spending.
110Economy
The members of NAFTA are
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Answer: (A) USA, Canada and Mexico
Explanation
The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) was a trilateral trade bloc established between the United States, Canada, and Mexico. It became effective on January 1, 1994, with the goal of eliminating most tariffs and non-tariff barriers on goods and services traded among the three nations. By creating one of the largest free trade zones in the world, the agreement sought to encourage economic integration, increase investment opportunities, and enhance the competitiveness of the North American market in the global economy. The treaty covered a wide range of issues including agriculture, textile and automobile manufacturing, telecommunications, and intellectual property rights protection.
111Polity and Governance
Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India?
1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 17 of the Constitution of India is a fundamental right that explicitly abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making the enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability an offense punishable in accordance with law. To give effect to this constitutional mandate, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (originally the Untouchability (Offences) Act) was enacted to prescribe punishments for the practice of untouchability and for the enforcement of any disability stemming from it. Furthermore, the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides a more comprehensive legal framework to prevent specific crimes and indignities committed against members of these communities by individuals who do not belong to those communities, establishing special courts for the speedy trial of such offenses.
112Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?
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Answer: (D) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
Explanation
The power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is not exclusive to the Supreme Court. While Article 32 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari, Article 226 concurrently empowers the High Courts to issue these same writs. Because both the Supreme Court and the High Courts possess this authority, the jurisdiction is concurrent rather than exclusive. In fact, the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts is technically broader than that of the Supreme Court, as High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights in addition to Fundamental Rights.
113Polity and Governance
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?
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Answer: (A) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
Explanation
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, established under Articles 244(2) and 275(1), contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four North-Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for the creation of Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils, which are granted significant autonomy to legislate on matters such as land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage, and social customs. These councils also possess judicial powers to constitute village courts and councils for the trial of suits and cases between scheduled tribes, as well as the authority to collect certain taxes and revenues to ensure the socio-economic development and cultural preservation of the tribal populations in these specific regions.
114Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
Explanation
Article 31B of the Constitution of India provides that none of the Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall be deemed to be void, or ever to have become void, on the ground that such Act, Regulation, or provision is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by any provisions of Part III. This constitutional provision creates a protective umbrella that immunizes the listed laws from being struck down by the judiciary for violating Fundamental Rights. The very purpose of inserting the Ninth Schedule via the First Amendment Act in 1951 was to ensure that land reform and agrarian laws could not be challenged in courts on the basis of inconsistency with the rights to equality or property. Therefore, stating that such Acts shall become void on the grounds of violating Part III is a direct contradiction of the text and intent of Article 31B.
115History
Consider the following statements about Harappan cities:
1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles.
2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size of the bricks for houses and for city walls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Harappan urban planning is widely recognized for its organized grid system, yet archaeological excavations at sites like Banawali show that this layout was not an absolute rule across the entire civilization. In several instances, the streets were not perfectly straight and did not always intersect at precise ninety-degree angles, reflecting local adaptations or different phases of development. Furthermore, a defining characteristic of the Indus Valley Civilization was the remarkable standardization of building materials. Bricks used for both residential houses and large-scale city walls maintained a uniform ratio of 1:2:4 in terms of thickness, width, and length. This consistency in brick dimensions across vast distances is a significant marker of the sophisticated administrative or cultural integration prevalent during the Mature Harappan period.
116Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Term) (Meaning)
A. Kurinchi
1. Pastoral region
B. Palai
2. Seashore
C. Neytal
3. Arid region
D. Mullai
4. Mountainous region
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 2 3 1
Explanation
In Sangam literature, the land is classified into five distinct geographical landscapes known as Ainthinai, each characterized by its topography and associated lifestyle. Kurinchi refers to the mountainous region (Hills and Hilly tracts) and is dedicated to the deity Murugan. Palai signifies the arid or desert-like parched land, which was often considered to be Kurinchi or Mullai land that had lost its fertility due to heat and lack of rain; it is associated with the goddess Korravai. Neytal represents the seashore or coastal region, where the primary occupations were fishing and salt making, and is associated with the god Varunan. Mullai denotes the pastoral or forest region, associated with the god Mayon (Vishnu). These five divisions, which also include Marutham (the agricultural plains), provided the setting for the various emotional themes in Sangam poetry.
117Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct?
1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced.
3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India.
4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 3 only
Explanation
The power to make laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies is vested in the Parliament of India under Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution, rather than the Election Commission of India. Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after the completion of a census, which provides the legal framework for the redrawing of boundaries. Following the enactment of such legislation, the President of India appoints a Delimitation Commission. Although the Chief Election Commissioner is an ex-officio member of this Commission and the Election Commission provides administrative support, the Commission is a distinct statutory body. Its orders, once published in the Gazette of India, have the force of law and cannot be called into question in any court of law. Therefore, the Election Commission does not possess the legislative authority to create these delimitation laws.
118Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?
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Answer: (B) All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
Explanation
Under Article 338A(6) of the Constitution of India, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes submits its annual or other reports to the President. The President is then required to cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, which includes both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Additionally, Article 338A(7) mandates that where any such report, or any part thereof, relates to any matter with which a State Government is concerned, a copy of such report shall be forwarded to the Governor of the State, who shall cause it to be laid before the Legislature of the State. The submission and tabling process is therefore not restricted to the Lok Sabha alone.
119Polity and Governance
The right to form associations and unions is a right
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Answer: (B) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
Explanation
The right to form associations, unions, or co-operative societies is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution. This provision falls within the category of the Right to Freedom. A key characteristic of the rights protected under Article 19 is that they are available only to the citizens of India and not to foreigners or legal entities like corporations. While other rights such as those under Articles 14 and 21 are extended to all persons, the right to form associations is specifically restricted to citizens to ensure the democratic and political integrity of the nation. These rights are not absolute and can be restricted by the state on specific grounds like public order, morality, and the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
120Polity and Governance
Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure?
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Answer: (C) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament
Explanation
The transfer of Indian territory to Bangladesh in 2015 was given legal effect through the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act. This amendment was necessary to implement the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement and its 2011 Protocol involving the exchange of enclaves. According to the Supreme Court's ruling in the Berubari Union case (1960), the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state under Article 3 does not extend to the cession of Indian territory to a foreign power. Such a transfer can only be accomplished by exercising the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368 to amend the First Schedule of the Constitution. Because the amendment did not fall under the specific categories listed in the proviso to Article 368(2), such as the federal structure or the representation of states, it did not require ratification by the state legislatures. Schedule 1 was amended to redefine the boundaries of the states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, and Tripura.