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CDS II 2009 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 119 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

119
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6
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  • Science and Technology3328%
  • Polity and Governance2824%
  • Geography2118%
  • History1613%
  • Economy1613%
  • Art and Culture54%
1Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjavur, is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The temple is a monument dedicated to Lord Vishnu

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The Brihadeswara Temple at Thanjavur, also known as Rajarajeshwaram, is a Shaivite temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. The central sanctum of the temple houses a massive monolithic Shiva Linga, which is one of the largest in India. The temple complex was commissioned by the Chola emperor Rajaraja I specifically to honor Shiva, and the iconography throughout the temple primarily depicts various forms of Shiva and Shaivite legends, rather than Vaishnavite themes.

2Science and Technology
Consider the following statements in respect of protection of copyright in India : 1. Copyright is a legal right: given to creators of literacy, dramatic, musical and artistic works and producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. 2. Copyright protects only the expression and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Copyright Act, 1957, establishes copyright as a statutory legal right granted to creators of original literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works, as well as to the producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings. This bundle of rights allows creators to control the reproduction, communication, and adaptation of their work. A core tenet of Indian copyright law is the idea-expression dichotomy, which stipulates that copyright protection extends only to the specific, original expression of a work and not to the underlying ideas, methods, or facts. For instance, while a specific book about a historical event is protected, the historical facts and the general idea of writing about that event are not. This ensures that while individual creativity is rewarded, the fundamental ideas remain available for public use and further innovation.

3Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements with respect to Indian Air Force is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Chetak is a single engine turboshaft helicopter of Russian origin

Explanation

The HAL Chetak is a single-engine turboshaft helicopter that is of French origin, rather than Russian. It is the Indian license-built version of the Alouette III, which was originally designed and manufactured by the French aerospace firm Sud Aviation (which later became part of Aérospatiale and then Eurocopter). The helicopter was inducted into the Indian Air Force in 1962 and has been produced extensively by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It serves primarily in roles involving training, transport, search and rescue, and light utility missions. While the Indian Air Force operates several platforms of Russian origin, the Chetak remains a prominent example of India's historical defense procurement and licensed production ties with France.

4Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding Bharat Ratna award is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Bharat Ratna is awarded to Indian citizens only

Explanation

The Bharat Ratna award is not restricted to Indian citizens. It has been conferred upon non-citizens who have made significant contributions to India or humanity. Notable examples include Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pakistani national known as Frontier Gandhi, who received the honor in 1987, and Nelson Mandela, the former President of South Africa, who was awarded it in 1990. Additionally, Mother Teresa, an Albanian-born naturalized Indian citizen, received the award in 1980. The official statutes of the award do not contain any provision limiting eligibility to Indian nationals only.

5Economy
Which one of the following statements with respect to Census 2001 is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Density of population of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is lowest in India

Explanation

According to the Census 2001 data, the population density of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands was 43 persons per square kilometer. However, the lowest population density in India was recorded in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, which had only 13 persons per square kilometer. Consequently, the statement identifying the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as having the lowest density in the country is inaccurate, as Arunachal Pradesh held that position among all states and union territories.

6Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Military Academies in India) A. High Altitude Warfare School B. Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School C. Paratrooper's Training School D. Combat Army Aviation Training School List II (Location) 1. Agra 2. Gulmarg 3. Vairengte 4. Nashik Road Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 3 1 4

Explanation

The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is a premier training and research establishment of the Indian Army located in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir, specializing in mountain and winter warfare. The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS), situated in Vairengte, Mizoram, provides specialized training in unconventional warfare and survival in dense forest environments. The Paratrooper's Training School (PTS) is based in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, and is responsible for training the Indian Army's airborne forces in parachute jumping and aerial delivery. The Combat Army Aviation Training School (CATS) is located at Nashik Road, Maharashtra, where it functions as the main training centre for pilots of the Army Aviation Corps.

7Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. An Inconvenient Truth is a documentary film about global warming directed by Al Gore. 2. The film focuses on Al Gore and his travels in support of his efforts to educate the public about the severity of the climate crisis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The documentary film An Inconvenient Truth, released in 2006, focuses on former U.S. Vice President Al Gore and his extensive travels to present a global slide show on the dangers of climate change. It captures his efforts to educate the public regarding the severity of the climate crisis by combining scientific data with his own personal history and observations. While Al Gore is the film narrator and central subject, the documentary was directed by Davis Guggenheim. The film was instrumental in raising international awareness about global warming and contributed to Al Gore sharing the Nobel Peace Prize in 2007. Guggenheim received the Academy Award for Best Documentary Feature for the film.

8Art and Culture
Consider the following statements : 1. The Walker Cup is associated with Golf. 2. The event is contested biennially in odd numbered years. 3. The teams contesting the trophy comprising the leading amateur golfers of the United Kingdom and Great Britain and Ireland. Which of the statements given
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Walker Cup is a golf trophy contested by the leading amateur golfers of the United States and Great Britain and Ireland. Established in 1922, it is named after George Herbert Walker, who served as the president of the United States Golf Association. The event is held biennially, and since the series resumed after World War II in 1947, it has been conducted in odd-numbered years. The competition features two teams: one representing the United States and the other representing Great Britain and Ireland, the latter of which includes players from both the United Kingdom and the Republic of Ireland. Therefore, the cup is associated with golf and is scheduled biennially in odd-numbered years.

9Science and Technology
The headquarters of Western Air Command of the Indian Air Force is located at
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Answer: (C) New Delhi

Explanation

The Western Air Command (WAC) is the premier and largest command of the Indian Air Force. It is headquartered at Subroto Park in New Delhi. This command is strategically vital as it is responsible for the air defense of the nation's capital and oversees operations across the sensitive northern and western sectors, including the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, and Himachal Pradesh. Established originally as No. 1 Operational Group in 1947 and later renamed, it manages a significant portion of India's frontline airbases and assets.

10Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: 1. Nuclear winter is a term that describes the predicted climatic effects of nuclear war. 2. A 2008 study published in the proceedings of the National Academy of Science, USA found that a nuclear weapons exchange between Pakistan and India using their current arsenals could create a near-global ozone hole, triggering human health problems and wreaking environmental havoc for at least a decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Nuclear winter is a well-established scientific hypothesis describing the severe and prolonged global climatic cooling effect that would follow a large-scale nuclear war, caused by the injection of massive amounts of soot and smoke into the stratosphere. In April 2008, a study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences (PNAS) by Michael J. Mills and colleagues titled Massive global ozone loss predicted following a regional nuclear conflict specifically modeled an exchange between India and Pakistan. The research demonstrated that the smoke from a limited regional conflict would heat the stratosphere, leading to massive chemical ozone depletion. The study predicted ozone losses of 20% to 50% over most populated areas, effectively creating a near-global ozone hole that would persist for approximately a decade, leading to extreme ultraviolet radiation exposure and significant environmental damage.

11Economy
Mixed economy means an economy where
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Answer: (B) there is co-existence of public sector along with private sector

Explanation

A mixed economy is an economic system that incorporates elements of both capitalism and socialism by allowing the private sector and the public sector to coexist. In this framework, the private sector is driven by the profit motive and market forces of demand and supply, while the public sector or the government intervenes to provide essential services, manage strategic industries, and ensure social welfare. This model seeks to balance the efficiency and innovation of private enterprise with the state's role in resource allocation, regulation, and the reduction of economic inequalities. India is a prominent example of a mixed economy, having adopted this path post-independence to achieve industrial growth alongside social equity through various Industrial Policy Resolutions.

12Economy
Consider the following statements about Nobel Prize: 1. It is never awarded posthumously. 2. Nobel Prize in Economics is given since 1901. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Nobel Prize has been awarded posthumously on two occasions: to Erik Axel Karlfeldt for Literature in 1931 and to Dag Hammarskjöld for Peace in 1961. While the statutes of the Nobel Foundation were amended in 1974 to state that a prize cannot be awarded posthumously, an exception exists if the laureate dies after the prize has been announced but before the ceremony. The Nobel Prize in Economics, officially the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel, was established much later than the original five prizes. It was instituted in 1968 and first awarded in 1969 to Ragnar Frisch and Jan Tinbergen, whereas the original Nobel Prizes in Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, and Peace have been awarded since 1901.

13Science and Technology
What is the common first digit of the numbers of the Superfast and Shatabdi trains regardless of zones presently running in India?
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Answer: (C) 2

Explanation

In 2009, Indian Railways followed a 4-digit numbering system for its train services. Under this system, the first digit 2 was reserved specifically for Superfast trains, including premium categories such as Shatabdi Express and Rajdhani Express, across all railway zones in India. This prefix was used to distinguish these high-speed services from standard Mail and Express trains. The 4-digit system remained in place until December 2010, when the Indian Railways transitioned to a 5-digit numbering scheme to accommodate an increasing number of trains. In the pre-2010 era, any train whose number began with the digit 2 indicated that it met the criteria for a Superfast train, meaning it maintained a certain average speed and required passengers to pay a superfast surcharge.

14Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) is not correct?
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Answer: (C) India is a sectoral dialogue partner of ASEAN

Explanation

India's status within the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) framework transitioned from a Sectoral Dialogue Partner to a Full Dialogue Partner in December 1995 during the fifth ASEAN Summit in Bangkok. Following this elevation, India began participating in the ASEAN Post Ministerial Conferences (PMC) as a Full Dialogue Partner in July 1996. By 2009, the relationship had further matured into annual India-ASEAN Summits, which commenced in 2002. Therefore, describing India as a sectoral dialogue partner in 2009 is factually inaccurate as that specific status was only held between 1992 and 1995. India also engages with ASEAN through broader platforms like the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) and the East Asia Summit (EAS).

15Geography
Consider the following statements: 1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest National Park of India. 2. It was one of the nine Tiger Reserves created at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973. 3. Initially it was named as 'Hailey National Park'. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Jim Corbett National Park, located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, named after Sir Malcolm Hailey, making it the oldest national park in India. Following India's independence, it was briefly known as Ramganga National Park before being renamed in honor of the hunter-turned-conservationist Jim Corbett in 1956. When Project Tiger was launched on April 1, 1973, to ensure a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats, Corbett was the first park to be included and was one of the nine original tiger reserves designated at the start of the project. These nine reserves included Manas, Palamau, Simlipal, Corbett, Ranthambore, Kanha, Melghat, Bandipur, and Sundarbans.

16History
Who among the following holds the world record for the fastest century in a One Day International cricket match?
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Answer: (C) Shahid Afridi

Explanation

Shahid Afridi holds the world record for the fastest century in One Day International cricket as of the year 2009. He achieved this milestone by reaching the hundred-run mark in only 37 deliveries against Sri Lanka on October 4, 1996, in Nairobi, Kenya. Playing in only his second international match and his first career innings, Afridi hit 11 sixes and 6 fours during his knock of 102 runs. This record stood as the fastest ODI century for more than seventeen years before being surpassed in 2014.

17History
Consider the following statements about a famous autobiographical narrative: The author of the book is/was the head of one of India's leading business houses and a Member of Rajya Sabha. In the book he embraced principles in which the creation of wealth, philanthropy and political leadership were all regarded as part of nation- building. Written in a style that is simple and translucent in its sincerity, the book brings alive an important era in the life of the nation, its changing social mores, evolving principles of corporate governance and enduring family values. Who among the following is the author of the book?
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Answer: (A) K. K. Birla

Explanation

The book described is Brushes with History, the autobiography of Krishna Kumar Birla (K. K. Birla), published in 2007. K. K. Birla was the head of one of India's most prominent industrial conglomerates and served as a Member of the Rajya Sabha for three consecutive terms spanning eighteen years. His narrative chronicles his journey as an industrialist while deeply engaging with the political landscape of India, reflecting his belief that corporate success and philanthropy are essential pillars of nation-building. The book is noted for its candid style, offering insights into the evolution of Indian industry, the intricacies of the Birla family values, and his personal relationships with key political figures in post-independence India.

18Polity and Governance
The year 2009 is being celebrated by the UN as.
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly officially designated 2009 for multiple global observations. Resolution 61/17 proclaimed it the International Year of Reconciliation to foster peace and mediation in conflict-affected regions. Resolution 62/200 designated it the International Year of Astronomy to celebrate the 400th anniversary of Galileo Galilei’s first telescopic observations and to promote scientific curiosity. Resolution 62/171 established the International Year of Human Rights Learning to expand the integration of human rights education into daily life. Since these three separate resolutions were all active for the 2009 calendar year, the inclusive selection covers the recognized themes.

19Science and Technology
The acronym of which one of the following Missile is perceived as the confluence of the two nations (India and Russia) represented by two rivers?
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Answer: (D) BrahMos

Explanation

The BrahMos missile is a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. The name is a portmanteau derived from the names of two major rivers: the Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia. This naming convention symbolizes the partnership and technological confluence between the two nations. It is a supersonic cruise missile capable of being launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land platforms, and it entered service with the Indian Armed Forces in the mid-2000s.

20Polity and Governance
Which one of the following committees was constituted by Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India, as per the Direction of the Supreme Court of India to frame guidelines on students' union elections in colleges/universities?
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Answer: (B) Lyngdoh Committee

Explanation

The Lyngdoh Committee was constituted by the Ministry of Human Resource Development in early 2006 following a directive from the Supreme Court of India in December 2005. Chaired by J.M. Lyngdoh, the former Chief Election Commissioner of India, the committee was mandated to frame guidelines for conducting student union elections in colleges and universities. The recommendations aimed to reform student politics by addressing issues such as the excessive use of money and muscle power, criminalization, and political interference. Key guidelines included setting age limits for candidates, requiring minimum attendance and clean academic records, and capping election expenditures. The Supreme Court accepted these recommendations in September 2006, making them the standard regulatory framework for student body elections across the country.

21Science and Technology
The aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov procured by India from Russia is renamed as
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Answer: (D) INS Vikramaditya

Explanation

India entered into a formal agreement with Russia in January 2004 to acquire the Admiral Gorshkov, a Project 1143.4 Kiev-class aircraft carrier that had served in the Soviet and Russian Navies. As part of the deal, the ship underwent an extensive refit and modernization process at the Sevmash shipyard in Severodvinsk to convert it from a hybrid cruiser-carrier into a full-fledged STOBAR (Short Take-Off But Arrested Recovery) carrier. The Indian Navy renamed the vessel INS Vikramaditya, a name derived from the legendary Indian emperor Vikramaditya, symbolizing great power and valor.

22Economy
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Deepak Parekh : Tata Steel

Explanation

Deepak Parekh is a renowned figure in the Indian financial sector, primarily known for his long-standing leadership as the Chairman of the Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC). He played a pivotal role in transforming HDFC into a financial conglomerate. In 2009, the leadership of Tata Steel was under Ratan Tata, who served as the Chairman of the company, and B. Muthuraman, who was the Managing Director. Therefore, the association of Deepak Parekh with Tata Steel is inaccurate.

23Art and Culture
Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the code the tree with which the statement is related to ? The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity, this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the myths and legends of India.
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Answer: (A) Banyan

Explanation

The Banyan tree (Ficus benghalensis) is characterized by its unique aerial prop roots that grow downwards from its horizontal branches. Once these roots reach the ground, they take firm hold in the soil and thicken into secondary trunks that support the massive spread of the canopy, allowing a single tree to cover a vast area. This process of self-regeneration and expansion, combined with the tree's exceptional longevity, has led to it being called the Akshaya Vat or the eternal tree in Indian tradition. It holds profound significance in Indian culture, often symbolizing immortality and eternal life in various myths and legends.

24History
Consider the following statements about national calendar of India : 1. The national calendar based on the Saka era with Chaitra as. its first month. 2. Dates of the national calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Government of India adopted the National Calendar based on the Saka Era on 22 March 1957. This calendar designates Chaitra as the first month of the year, which consists of 365 days in a normal year and 366 days in a leap year. A permanent correspondence is maintained between the Saka and Gregorian calendars such that 1 Chaitra always falls on 22 March in a common year and on 21 March in a leap year. This fixed relationship ensures that the dates of the national calendar remain synchronized with the solar cycle used by the Gregorian calendar. The first five months of the year, starting from Chaitra, have 31 days each, while the remaining seven months have 30 days each.

25Economy
Recently a large number of children/ infants have fallen sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like South Africa, Japan, and Singapore etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
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Answer: (A) China

Explanation

In 2008, a major food safety scandal emerged in China when it was discovered that melamine, a nitrogen-rich industrial chemical, had been added to infant formula and other dairy products. Melamine was used by dairy producers to artificially inflate the apparent protein content of watered-down milk, as standard protein tests measure nitrogen levels rather than actual protein molecules. This contamination led to the development of kidney stones and renal failure in hundreds of thousands of children. Because China was a significant global supplier of dairy-based ingredients and processed goods, the crisis triggered mass recalls and prompted many countries, including South Africa, Japan, and Singapore, to impose immediate bans on the import of Chinese dairy products to ensure public safety.

26Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about bioremediation : 1. It may be defined as any process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to return the environment altered by contaminants to its original condition. 2. Bioremediation may be employed in order to attack specific contaminants, such as chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by bacteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Bioremediation is a waste management technique that utilizes biological organisms, primarily microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, or their isolated enzymes to neutralize or remove pollutants from contaminated sites. The fundamental objective of this process is to restore the ecosystem to its original, uncontaminated state by transforming hazardous substances into harmless products such as carbon dioxide and water. Furthermore, bioremediation is highly effective against specific chemical pollutants. Certain specialized bacteria have the metabolic capacity to degrade complex synthetic compounds, including chlorinated pesticides and hydrocarbons. These microbes break down the chemical bonds of the contaminants through enzymatic reactions, making the technology a targeted solution for specific environmental challenges like pesticide runoff or oil spills.

27Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Lisbon (2007) : 1. This is an international agreement signed to change the functioning of European Union. 2. To enter into legal force, the treaty must be ratified by at least 3/4th member states of the European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Treaty of Lisbon was signed by the member states of the European Union on 13 December 2007 to reform the constitutional and institutional framework of the bloc. It aimed to make the EU more democratic, efficient, and better equipped to handle global challenges such as climate change and security. The treaty introduced significant changes, including the creation of a permanent President of the European Council and a High Representative for Foreign Affairs. For any such amendment to the founding treaties of the European Union to enter into legal force, the principle of unanimity applies. This requires that the treaty be ratified by every single member state in accordance with their respective constitutional requirements, such as parliamentary votes or national referendums. A 3/4th majority is insufficient for the legal activation of EU treaty amendments.

28Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an independent Department under the Government of India ?
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Answer: (D) Planning Commission

Explanation

The Planning Commission was an advisory body and an extra-constitutional, non-statutory institution established by a resolution of the Government of India in 1950. It was not classified as a Department under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961. In contrast, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the Department of Space (DoS) are independent departments that report directly to the Prime Minister, while the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) is a department functioning under the Ministry of Science and Technology. Consequently, the Planning Commission did not hold the status of a government department.

29Science and Technology
In a significant climate responsive project, in which one of the following places, recently an abandoned thermal power plant has been converted into a mega solar power generating station which poised to give a huge fillip to India's renewable energy ambition ?
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Answer: (C) Jamuria (West Bengal)

Explanation

The solar power project at Jamuria in the Burdwan district of West Bengal was a landmark initiative in India's renewable energy sector. Developed by the West Bengal Green Energy Development Corporation (WBGEDC) in collaboration with the Dishergarh Power Supply Company (DPSC), this project involved the conversion of an abandoned thermal power station site into a grid-connected solar photovoltaic plant. Inaugurated around early 2009, the 2 MW capacity plant demonstrated the feasibility of repurposing defunct brownfield sites of fossil-fuel-based power plants for clean energy generation. This project was considered a significant step toward meeting India's climate goals under the National Action Plan on Climate Change by utilizing existing industrial infrastructure to produce solar energy.

30Polity and Governance
Roh Moo-hyun, the President (2003-2008) of which one of the following countries has committed suicide in May, 2009 ?
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Answer: (B) South Korea

Explanation

Roh Moo-hyun served as the 9th President of the Republic of Korea, commonly known as South Korea, from 2003 to 2008. His presidency was marked by a commitment to the Sunshine Policy of engagement with North Korea and efforts to reform the domestic political system to reduce regionalism and corruption. Following his term in office, he became the subject of a corruption investigation conducted by the state prosecution regarding allegations of bribery involving members of his family. On May 23, 2009, amidst the pressure of this investigation and its impact on his reputation, Roh Moo-hyun committed suicide by jumping from a cliff near his residence in Bongha Village.

31Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Aruna Roy : 1. She was one of the prominent leaders of the right to information movement, which eventually led to the enactment of Right to Information Act in 2005. 2. She was the founder of the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana. 3. She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative Service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Aruna Roy is a distinguished social activist who served in the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) from 1968 until 1975, when she resigned to work with the rural poor in Rajasthan. She co-founded the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana (MKSS) in 1990, an organization dedicated to the empowerment of workers and peasants through grassroots struggle and creative politics. Her work with the MKSS was instrumental in launching the Right to Information movement in India, as the organization conducted public audits (Jan Sunwai) to expose corruption in local development works. These efforts created the necessary momentum for the drafting and eventual passage of the landmark Right to Information Act in 2005. For her significant contributions to community leadership and transparency, she was honored with the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2000.

32Science and Technology
In May, 2009 European Space Agency (ESA) successfully launched two of its most ambitious astronomy missions to unveil the secrets of the darkest, coldest and oldest parts of the universe. Name the two most complex science satellites ever built in Europe used in this mission.
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Answer: (C) Herschel and Planck

Explanation

On May 14, 2009, the European Space Agency successfully launched the Herschel Space Observatory and the Planck satellite together on an Ariane 5 rocket. Herschel was designed to study the coldest objects in the universe, using its massive infrared telescope to peer through cosmic dust and observe the birth of stars and galaxies. Planck was tasked with mapping the Cosmic Microwave Background, the oldest light in the universe emitted just 380,000 years after the Big Bang. This allowed scientists to investigate the origins of the cosmos and the nature of its darkest components, specifically dark matter and dark energy. Together, these two missions represent Europe's most sophisticated effort to unveil the fundamental secrets of the universe's evolution.

33Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (River) (Source) A. Ganga 1. Amarkantak B. Son 2. Gaumukh C. Godavari 3. Mahabaleshwar D. Krishna 4. Trimbakeshwar 5. Mansarovar Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The Ganga river originates from the Gangotri glacier at Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. The Son river, which is a major southern tributary of the Ganga, originates from the Amarkantak plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh. The Godavari river, the largest of the peninsular rivers, rises at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. The Krishna river originates from a spring near the mountain town of Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.

34Economy
Golden Fibre refers to
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Answer: (C) Jute

Explanation

Jute is universally known as the Golden Fibre because of its natural yellowish-brown color and its high commercial value in the global textile market. It is a natural biodegradable fiber extracted from the bark of the jute plant. Its importance stems from its versatility, strength, and eco-friendly nature, making it a primary material for manufacturing gunny bags, ropes, carpets, and various other packaging materials. Geographically, it is a major cash crop in the Indian subcontinent, particularly in the fertile alluvial plains of the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta, where the warm, humid climate and abundant rainfall facilitate its cultivation. The term reflects both the fiber's physical appearance and its role in providing livelihoods for millions of farmers and workers in the region.

35Geography
The channel separating the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands is known as
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Answer: (B) 10° channel

Explanation

The 10° channel is the maritime boundary that separates the Andaman archipelago to the north from the Nicobar archipelago to the south in the Bay of Bengal. It is named for its geographic position on the 10-degree north latitude line. Specifically, the channel lies between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar. Spanning approximately 150 kilometers in width from north to south, it is deep and wide enough to serve as a major international shipping lane, connecting the Bay of Bengal with the Andaman Sea and the Malacca Strait.

36Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. Suez Canal is an important link between developed countries and developing countries. 2. It joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Gulf of Suez. 3. It is not a sea level canal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Suez Canal acts as a vital maritime bridge between the industrialized, developed nations of the West and the emerging, developing economies of the East. By providing the shortest sea route between the North Atlantic and the northern Indian Oceans, it facilitates a massive volume of global trade in commodities and manufactured goods. Geographically, the canal traverses the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt to link the Mediterranean Sea at Port Said with the Gulf of Suez, which is a northern arm of the Red Sea. Since the terrain is relatively flat and the water levels of the two seas are nearly identical, the canal was constructed as a sea-level waterway, meaning it does not require a system of locks to move ships between different elevations.

37Geography
Which one of the following countries is located south of the equator ?
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Answer: (D) Rwanda

Explanation

Rwanda is a landlocked sovereign state in the Great Rift Valley of East-Central Africa. Its geographical coordinates are roughly between 1 degree and 3 degrees south of the Equator, placing the entire country within the Southern Hemisphere. It is characterized by high-altitude geography and is situated just south of the equatorial line, positioned between the Congo River basin to the west and the East African plateaus to the east.

38Geography
What is the correct sequence of the location of the following sea ports of India from south to north ?
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Answer: (C) Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Calicut, Mangalore

Explanation

The latitudinal positions of these ports along the western coast of India determine their south-to-north sequence. Thiruvananthapuram is the southernmost city among the options, situated in southern Kerala at approximately 8.50° N latitude. Moving northward, Cochin is located in the central part of the Kerala coast at about 9.93° N latitude. Further north along the Malabar Coast is Calicut, situated at approximately 11.25° N latitude. Finally, Mangalore is located in the state of Karnataka at about 12.91° N latitude, making it the northernmost port in this group. This geographical progression follows the order of Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Calicut, and Mangalore.

39Geography
The hill range that separates the state of Manipur from the state of Nagaland is known as
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Answer: (C) Barail hills

Explanation

The Barail Range is a significant mountain system in Northeast India that serves as a natural geographical boundary between the states of Manipur and Nagaland. This range acts as a watershed, separating the Brahmaputra river basin from the Barak river basin. Geologically, it is a part of the Tertiary fold mountain system and extends across parts of Assam, Nagaland, and Manipur. Specifically, it forms the partition between the Kohima district in Nagaland and the northern parts of Manipur, with high peaks like Mount Japfu situated along this mountainous stretch.

40Geography
Which continent of the world does not have a desert ?
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Answer: (B) Europe

Explanation

Europe is the only continent in the world that does not have a major climatic desert. This lack of vast arid regions is primarily due to its geographic position and the influence of surrounding water bodies, including the Atlantic Ocean, the Mediterranean Sea, and the Arctic Ocean. The prevailing westerly winds carry moisture-laden air across the continent, and the absence of high, continuous mountain ranges running north-to-south allows this maritime influence to reach deep into the interior. While there are small semi-arid pockets in places like southeastern Spain or the Caspian Depression, they do not meet the scale or the extreme precipitation deficits characteristic of the large hot or cold deserts found on every other continent.

41Geography
Israel has common borders with
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Answer: (A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

Explanation

Israel is a Middle Eastern country situated on the southeastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea and the northern shore of the Red Sea. It shares its land borders with four sovereign states. To the north, it is bordered by Lebanon. To the northeast, it shares a boundary with Syria, specifically along the Golan Heights. Its eastern border is shared with Jordan, running from the north near the Sea of Galilee down to the Gulf of Aqaba. To the southwest, Israel borders the Sinai Peninsula of Egypt, a boundary formalized following the 1979 peace treaty between the two nations. Additionally, Israel shares boundaries with the Palestinian territories of the West Bank and Gaza Strip.

42Geography
The Pacific Islands from New Guinea south east-wards to the Fiji Islands' group is called
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Answer: (B) the Mellanesia

Explanation

Melanesia is a subregion of Oceania extending from the island of New Guinea in the southwestern Pacific Ocean to the Fiji Islands in the east. The name Melanesia, derived from the Greek words for black and island, refers to the dark skin of the indigenous inhabitants. This geographic area encompasses several major island groups and nations, including Papua New Guinea, the Solomon Islands, Vanuatu, and New Caledonia. Geologically, Melanesia is distinct from other Pacific regions due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire, resulting in a landscape dominated by large, mountainous, and volcanic islands rather than the small coral atolls common in neighboring regions. It forms the westernmost of the three major cultural areas in the Pacific Ocean.

43Science and Technology
Radio waves are reflected back to earth from the
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Answer: (D) Ionosphere

Explanation

The ionosphere is a region of the upper atmosphere, extending from approximately 60 km to 1,000 km above the Earth's surface, where solar radiation strips electrons from gas atoms to create a dense layer of free electrons and ions. This high concentration of ionized particles acts as a reflective medium for radio waves, particularly those in the high-frequency range. When these waves are transmitted toward the sky, the ionosphere refracts and reflects them back to Earth, enabling long-distance wireless communication and global broadcasting through skywave propagation.

44Geography
What is the name of the strait where 'Adams' bridge' is situated ?
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Answer: (C) Palk Strait

Explanation

Adam's Bridge, also known as Rama Setu, is a chain of natural limestone shoals that connects Pamban Island off the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu, India, to Mannar Island off the northwestern coast of Sri Lanka. Geographically, this structure is situated in the Palk Strait, a narrow stretch of water that separates the Indian subcontinent from the island nation of Sri Lanka. The bridge serves as a physical boundary dividing the Palk Bay to the north from the Gulf of Mannar to the south. Historical records and geological studies indicate that this formation was a continuous land bridge until the late 15th century, when a major storm breached the channel. It remains a critical geographical feature defining the maritime border and the shallow waters of the Palk Strait region.

45Geography
Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand ?
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Answer: (C) Tasman sea

Explanation

The Tasman Sea is a marginal sea of the South Pacific Ocean that lies between the southeastern coast of Australia and the western coast of New Zealand. Named after the Dutch explorer Abel Tasman, who was the first recorded European to reach New Zealand and Tasmania in 1642, the sea measures approximately 2,000 kilometers in width. It acts as the primary geographic barrier separating the two nations and connects the Coral Sea in the north to the Southern Ocean in the south. In regional culture, crossing this body of water is often colloquially referred to as crossing the Ditch.

46Economy
The ageing index in India has increased from 14% in 1951 to >21% in 2001. With respect to this which of the following effects is/are correct ? 1. Decline in the proportion of child population. 2. Increase in the proportion of old population. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The ageing index is a demographic indicator defined as the ratio of the number of elderly persons (aged 60 years and above) to the number of children (aged 0 to 14 years) in a specific population. It is mathematically expressed as Ageing Index = (P₆₀₊)/(P₀₋₁₄) × 100. An increase in this index, such as the rise from 14% in 1951 to over 21% in 2001 in India, is a direct consequence of two simultaneous demographic shifts. First, a decline in the total fertility rate leads to a reduction in the proportion of the child population. Second, advancements in public health and medical technology lead to increased life expectancy, which results in a higher proportion of the population surviving into old age. Both the shrinkage of the younger base and the expansion of the older top of the population pyramid contribute to the increase in the ageing index.

47Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. In the month of July the InterTropical Convergence Zone is located in the Indo Gangetic plain. 2. Northern Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low-pressure zone located near the equator where the trade winds from the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge. During the Northern Hemisphere summer in July, the ITCZ shifts northward in response to the apparent movement of the sun, positioning itself over the Indo-Gangetic plain around 20°N to 25°N latitude. In the context of the Indian subcontinent, this is often referred to as the monsoon trough. This zone is characterized by strong solar heating and the convergence of moist air masses, which results in powerful convective uplift. As this air rises and cools, it leads to the formation of dense clouds and frequent, heavy precipitation, making the ITCZ the primary region for tropical rainfall.

48Art and Culture
Which one of the following regions is culturally closer to India but ethnically closer to China?
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Answer: (D) South-East Asia

Explanation

South-East Asia is a region that exemplifies the synthesis of Indian cultural heritage and Chinese ethnic lineage. Historically referred to as Farther India or the Indianized Kingdoms, this region adopted Indian religions like Hinduism and Buddhism, the Sanskrit language, and Indian concepts of kingship and social organization, as seen in the architectural marvels of Angkor Wat and Borobudur. However, from an anthropological perspective, the majority of the population in South-East Asia belongs to the Mongoloid race, sharing a common ancestral and genetic pool with the people of Southern China. These populations migrated southward over millennia through major river valleys such as the Mekong and Irrawaddy, resulting in an ethnic profile that is closely aligned with China, while their cultural, linguistic, and spiritual frameworks remain profoundly influenced by India.

49Geography
Sal trees are the typical species of
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Answer: (B) Tropical monsoon forest

Explanation

Sal (Shorea robusta) is a primary species found in the Tropical Deciduous forests of South Asia, which are also known as Tropical Monsoon forests. These forests are characterized by a distinct dry season during which trees shed their leaves to conserve moisture. Sal thrives in areas receiving an annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm, making it a hallmark species of the moist and dry deciduous tracts. It is widely distributed across the foothills of the Himalayas, the Indo-Gangetic plains, and the Central Indian plateau, where the monsoon climate dictates the vegetation pattern.

50Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Place) (Famous for) A. Balaghat 1. Oil field B. Katni 2. Iron ore C. Singrauli 3. Manganese D. Kalol 4. Bauxite 5. Coal Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 5 1

Explanation

Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh is renowned for its high-quality manganese ore deposits, specifically housing the Bharveli mine which is one of the largest underground manganese mines in Asia. Katni, also in Madhya Pradesh, is a major center for bauxite mining, providing crucial raw material for the aluminum industry. Singrauli, situated on the border of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, is a vital coal mining hub known as the energy capital of India due to its extensive coal seams that power numerous thermal plants. Kalol is a significant onshore oil field located in the Gandhinagar district of Gujarat within the prolific Cambay Basin.

51Geography
Leaching is the maximum in the soil type of
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Answer: (A) Laterite

Explanation

Laterite soil is formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods. These climatic conditions lead to intense leaching, a process where heavy rains wash away the fertile topsoil and soluble nutrients like silica and lime, leaving behind a soil rich in iron and aluminum oxides. This specific pedogenic process, known as lateritization, results in the characteristic porous and acidic nature of laterite soils, making them the primary example of a soil type where leaching is at its maximum.

52Geography
High spring tides occur at new moon and full moon because, the
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Answer: (C) Sun, Earth and the Moon are in straight line

Explanation

Spring tides occur when the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun work together to exert a maximum pull on Earth's ocean waters. This phenomenon happens twice every lunar month, specifically during the new moon and full moon phases. At these times, the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned in a nearly straight line, a configuration known as syzygy. During a new moon, the Sun and Moon are in conjunction (on the same side of Earth), and during a full moon, they are in opposition (on opposite sides of Earth). In both positions, the solar tide adds to the lunar tide, resulting in the highest high tides and the lowest low tides, creating the maximum tidal range.

53Economy
The following figure shows the proportion of the population for four years in various age groups in percentage: | Age Group | 1971 | 1981 | 1991 | 2001 | |----------------------|-------|-------|-------|-------| | 0 to 14 years | 42.03 | 35.57 | 37.46 | 35.44 | | 15 to 29 years | 23.97 | 25.90 | 26.71 | 26.65 | | 30 to 64 years | 28.03 | 28.04 | 29.03 | 30.44 | | 65 years and above | 5.97 | 6.49 | 6.80 | 7.47 | Based on the information provided above identify the state of dependency ratio from 1971 to 2001
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Answer: (D) It has fluctuating tendency

Explanation

The dependency ratio is the ratio of the dependent population (typically those aged 0 to 14 and 65 and above) to the working-age population (aged 15 to 64). Using the provided data, the dependency ratio is calculated as:

Dependency Ratio = (Population (0–14) + Population (65+))/(Population (15–29) + Population (30–64)) × 100

Calculating for each census year: 1971: (42.03 + 5.97)/(23.97 + 28.03) = 48.00/52.00 ≈ 92.31% 1981: (35.57 + 6.49)/(25.90 + 28.04) = 42.06/53.94 ≈ 77.97% 1991: (37.46 + 6.80)/(26.71 + 29.03) = 44.26/55.74 ≈ 79.40% 2001: (35.44 + 7.47)/(26.65 + 30.44) = 42.91/57.09 ≈ 75.16%

The sequence of ratios (92.31 → 77.97 → 79.40 → 75.16) shows that the dependency ratio decreased between 1971 and 1981, increased between 1981 and 1991, and decreased again between 1991 and 2001. This lack of a monotonic trend confirms a fluctuating tendency.

54Economy
Which of the following factors is/are responsible for high concentration of jute mills in the Hugli basin ? 1. Nearness to coal fields. 2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and weaving. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The concentration of jute mills in the Hugli basin is significantly influenced by the proximity to the Raniganj and Jharia coal fields, which provide the necessary thermal power to run the machinery in the mills. Access to reliable energy sources is a critical locational factor for this power-intensive industry. Furthermore, the processing of jute, particularly the spinning and weaving stages, requires a hot and humid climate. High atmospheric moisture is essential to keep the natural fibers flexible and prevent them from becoming brittle or breaking during production. Consequently, a dry climate would be unsuitable for jute manufacturing, making the humid environment of the Hugli basin a key reason for the industry's localization there.

55Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension ?
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Answer: (A) Vapour formation above the liquid surface

Explanation

Vapour formation, or evaporation, is a phase transition process driven by the kinetic energy of molecules. At any given temperature, molecules within a liquid move at various speeds; those with sufficient energy to overcome the attractive intermolecular forces can escape from the surface into the gaseous phase. This process is primarily governed by the vapour pressure of the liquid and the ambient temperature. While surface tension represents the cohesive energy at the surface that molecules must overcome to escape, the actual formation of vapour is a consequence of molecular thermodynamics and kinetic theory rather than the surface tension effect that seeks to minimize surface area.

56Science and Technology
Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separator because of
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Answer: (C) Centrifugal force

Explanation

A cream separator operates on the principle of centrifugation. When milk is rotated at high speeds within the device, the components experience a force acting radially outward from the axis of rotation known as centrifugal force. The magnitude of this force is expressed by the formula F = mω²r, where m is the mass of the particle, ω is the angular velocity, and r is the distance from the center. Since milk is a mixture of substances with different densities, the denser skim milk is subjected to a greater outward force than the lighter fat globules. This causes the heavier milk plasma to move toward the outer walls of the separator while the lighter fat is displaced toward the center, allowing them to be collected separately.

57Science and Technology
Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar awards are given to those who excel in the field of science and technology. The Institute associated with Prof. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar is
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Answer: (A) CSIR

Explanation

Prof. Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar was the first Director-General of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and is widely recognized as the Father of Research Laboratories in India. He was instrumental in establishing the network of national laboratories across the country after independence. In his honor, CSIR instituted the Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in 1958, which is awarded annually to Indian scientists for outstanding contributions to various fields of science. His leadership defined the foundational structure and research priorities of CSIR, making it the primary institution associated with his legacy.

58Science and Technology
A collection of gas and dust which appears as a bright ball of light in the sky with a glowing tail is called
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Answer: (B) Comet

Explanation

Comets are celestial bodies composed primarily of frozen gases, ice, and cosmic dust. When a comet's orbital path brings it into the inner solar system, solar radiation causes these volatile materials to sublimate, creating a luminous atmosphere known as a coma. The interaction with solar wind and radiation pressure pushes this gas and dust away from the Sun, forming a characteristic glowing tail that can extend for millions of kilometers. This process gives the comet its distinct appearance as a bright nucleus with a trailing streak of light visible from Earth.

59Science and Technology
A perfect black body has the unique characteristic feature as
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Answer: (C) a good absorber and a good radiator

Explanation

According to Kirchhoff's Law of thermal radiation, for any body in thermodynamic equilibrium, the emissivity ε is equal to the absorptivity α at a given temperature and wavelength. A perfect black body is defined as an object that absorbs 100% of all electromagnetic radiation incident upon it, meaning its absorptivity α = 1. Because ε = α, its emissivity must also be 1, which is the maximum possible value for any object. This makes a perfect black body the most efficient possible absorber and the most efficient possible radiator of thermal energy at any given temperature.

60Science and Technology
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bulletproof jacket ?
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Answer: (C) KEVLAR

Explanation

Kevlar is a high-strength para-aramid synthetic fiber, chemically identified as poly-paraphenylene terephthalamide. It possesses an exceptional tensile strength-to-weight ratio, being approximately five times stronger than steel on an equal weight basis. The polymer chains are highly oriented and held together by strong hydrogen bonds, which provide the material with significant structural rigidity and heat resistance. When used in bulletproof jackets, multiple layers of woven Kevlar fabric work together to absorb and dissipate the kinetic energy of a projectile. The dense network of fibers effectively catches the bullet by deforming and spreading the impact force over a larger surface area, thereby preventing penetration and minimizing blunt force trauma to the wearer.

61Science and Technology
The light emitted by firefly is due to
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Answer: (B) chemiluminiscence process

Explanation

Fireflies produce light through a biochemical reaction known as bioluminescence, which is a specific type of chemiluminescence. In this process, the chemical luciferin reacts with oxygen in the presence of the enzyme luciferase, calcium ions, and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This reaction results in the emission of photons, creating what is often called cold light because nearly 100 percent of the energy is converted into light rather than heat. Because the light generation is triggered by an internal chemical reaction within the firefly's light organ, it is fundamentally a chemiluminescence process.

62Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about the commonly used automobile battery are true? 1. It is usually a lead-acid battery. 2. It has six cells with a potential of 2 Volt each. 3. Its cells work as Galvanic Cells while discharging power. 4. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The standard automobile battery used for starting, lighting, and ignition is a lead-acid battery. This secondary cell consists of a lead anode and a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide (PbO₂) as the cathode, submerged in an electrolyte of roughly 38% sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄).

A typical 12V car battery is constructed by connecting six individual cells in series. Each cell provides a nominal potential of approximately 2.1V, totaling roughly 12V for the entire unit.

During the discharge process, the battery provides electrical energy to the vehicle's systems. In this state, the chemical reactions are spontaneous, converting chemical energy into electrical energy, which means the cells function as Galvanic or Voltaic cells. Specifically, lead and lead dioxide react with sulfuric acid to form lead sulfate and water.

When the engine is running, the alternator supplies an external electric current to the battery to reverse the chemical reaction. This process of recharging involves using electrical energy to drive non-spontaneous chemical reactions, restoring the electrodes to their original state. During this phase, the battery cells function as electrolytic cells.

63Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding potato is correct?
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Answer: (C) It is a modified stem

Explanation

The potato (Solanum tuberosum) is a modified underground stem known as a tuber. It serves as a specialized storage organ where the plant reserves nutrients, primarily in the form of starch, to survive through dormant periods and facilitate vegetative propagation. Botanically, it is classified as a stem because it possesses characteristic features such as nodes, internodes, and axillary buds. The eyes found on the surface of a potato are actually nodes containing these buds, which can sprout into new stems and leaves under favorable conditions. Additionally, potatoes exhibit the presence of scale leaves and lenticels for gas exchange, further confirming their identity as modified stem tissue rather than root tissue.

64Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Mineral) (Major Source) A. Iron 1. Banana, date B. Potassium 2. Palak C. Iodine 3. Iodized common salt D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

Explanation

Iron (A) is matched with Palak (2) because this green leafy vegetable is a primary source of dietary iron required for hemoglobin synthesis. Potassium (B) corresponds to Banana and date (1) as these fruits are well-known for their high potassium content which aids heart and muscle function. Iodine (C) is paired with Iodized common salt (3) because salt fortification is the standard global method to ensure adequate iodine intake for thyroid health. Calcium (D) matches Milk and egg (4) because these are major dietary sources essential for the development and maintenance of healthy bone structure.

65Economy
Which among the following oils has the maximum protein content?
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Answer: (C) Soya bean oil

Explanation

Soya bean (Glycine max) is a leguminous crop that is unique for containing a very high proportion of protein alongside its oil content. While refined vegetable oils are nearly 100 percent fat, the soybean seed itself consists of approximately 40 percent protein and 20 percent oil by weight. This is the highest protein density found among all common oil-producing crops. Due to this composition, the soybean is a critical global resource for plant-based protein, and the meal remaining after the oil is extracted remains the most widely used high-protein ingredient in the production of animal feed and various processed foods for human consumption.

66Science and Technology
Quinine is a drug used in the treatment of malaria. From which part of the plant is it obtained?
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Answer: (C) Bark

Explanation

Quinine is a bitter alkaloid compound derived from the bark of the Cinchona tree, a genus of plants indigenous to the Andean region of South America. The bark contains several alkaloids, including quinine, quinidine, cinchonine, and cinchonidine, which possess potent antimalarial properties. Historically, the bark was harvested, dried, and ground into a fine powder to be mixed with liquids for medicinal consumption. It works by interfering with the malaria parasite's ability to digest hemoglobin within red blood cells, effectively curbing the infection. This natural extraction remains a critical source for the production of quinine-based medications used globally to treat various strains of malaria.

67Geography
Which one of the following is not a feature of eutrophic lakes?
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Answer: (C) Primary productivity is low

Explanation

Eutrophic lakes are characterized by high concentrations of plant nutrients, particularly nitrates and phosphates, which stimulate the excessive growth of algae and aquatic plants. This abundance of nutrients results in high primary productivity, as the rate of biomass production by photosynthetic organisms is significantly elevated compared to oligotrophic or mesotrophic lakes. Because eutrophication inherently involves nutrient enrichment that fuels biological growth, a state of low primary productivity is diametrically opposed to the definition and ecological status of a eutrophic water body. These lakes typically exhibit frequent algal blooms, high biomass, and low water transparency due to the dense population of phytoplankton.

68Science and Technology
For which one among the following diseases no vaccine is yet available?
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Answer: (B) Malaria

Explanation

Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium. The development of a vaccine against malaria is exceptionally difficult because the parasite has a complex life cycle involving multiple stages in both humans and mosquitoes, and it possesses a high degree of genetic diversity. Furthermore, the parasite employs sophisticated mechanisms to evade the human immune system, such as sequestering itself within host cells and frequently changing its surface antigens. As of 2009, while several vaccine candidates were undergoing clinical trials, no vaccine had been licensed or made available for public use. In contrast, effective vaccines for tetanus, measles, and mumps had already been developed and used in global immunization programs for several decades.

69Science and Technology
Which one of the following animals breathes through the skin?
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Answer: (C) Frog

Explanation

Frogs are amphibians that utilize cutaneous respiration, a process where gas exchange occurs across the skin. Their skin is thin, moist, and rich in blood capillaries, allowing oxygen from the air or water to dissolve and enter the bloodstream directly while carbon dioxide is expelled. This method of breathing is essential during hibernation or when the animal is submerged in water for extended periods, as it provides a continuous supply of oxygen when pulmonary respiration is not being used. The presence of mucus glands ensures the skin remains wet, which is a prerequisite for efficient gas exchange through the integument.

70Science and Technology
Anthrax is a disease of humans and cattle with a potential for biological warfare. It is caused by
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Answer: (A) Bacterium

Explanation

Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. It primarily occurs in wild and domestic herbivores, such as cattle, sheep, and goats, but can infect humans who come into contact with infected animals or contaminated animal products. The pathogen is unique for its ability to produce highly resilient endospores that remain dormant and survive in the soil or environment for many years. Because these microscopic spores can be easily produced in a laboratory, stored for long periods, and dispersed through the air, Bacillus anthracis is recognized globally as a significant threat for use as a biological warfare agent.

71Science and Technology
Which one of the following is considered normal blood pressure in man?
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Answer: (C) 120 / 80 mm mercury

Explanation

Blood pressure is the lateral pressure exerted by the column of blood on the walls of the arteries as it is pumped by the heart. It is measured using an instrument called a sphygmomanometer, which traditionally uses a column of mercury to indicate pressure levels. The standard unit for clinical blood pressure measurement is millimeters of mercury (mmHg). A reading of 120/80 mmHg is considered the normal physiological standard for a healthy adult. The higher value, 120, refers to the systolic pressure, which occurs when the ventricles contract and push blood into the arteries. The lower value, 80, refers to the diastolic pressure, which occurs when the heart relaxes and refills with blood between beats. Mercury is utilized as the standard manometric fluid because its high density allows for a compact and accurate measurement scale suitable for clinical use.

72Economy
Anemia is a common health problem especially in women. Which one of the following deficiencies is most frequently responsible for anemia in India?
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Answer: (B) Iron

Explanation

Iron is a vital micronutrient required for the production of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that transports oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Iron deficiency anemia is the most widespread nutritional disorder in India and is the leading cause of anemia, especially among women of reproductive age. The high frequency of this deficiency in the Indian population is primarily due to inadequate dietary intake of iron-rich foods, poor bioavailability of iron from plant-based diets, and increased physiological demands during menstruation and pregnancy. Data from various National Family Health Surveys have consistently highlighted that a significant majority of anemic cases in India are directly linked to insufficient iron levels.

73Science and Technology
Primary source of vitamin D for human beings is
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Answer: (D) Sun

Explanation

Vitamin D is uniquely known as the sunshine vitamin because the human body synthesizes it endogenously when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from sunlight. During this process, the energy from UVB rays converts 7-dehydrocholesterol present in the epidermal layers of the skin into previtamin D3, which is then rapidly transformed into Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol). This photochemical reaction provides the majority of the Vitamin D required by the human body for essential functions like calcium absorption and bone mineralization. Since very few natural food sources contain adequate amounts of this nutrient, solar radiation remains the most efficient and primary source for maintaining healthy serum levels in the population.

74Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Agent of Disease Transmission) List II (Disease Transmitted) A. Anopheles mosquito 1. Kala azar B. Culex mosquito 2. Dengue C. Aedes 3. Malaria D. Sandfly 4. Filaria Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Female Anopheles mosquitoes are the primary vectors for the Plasmodium parasite that causes Malaria. Culex mosquitoes transmit the filarial worms responsible for Filariasis, specifically lymphatic filariasis. Aedes mosquitoes are the principal carriers of the viruses that cause Dengue fever. Sandflies are the biological vectors for the Leishmania protozoa, which lead to the disease Kala-azar.

75Science and Technology
Laser is a device to produce
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Answer: (B) coherent light

Explanation

LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. The device operates by stimulating atoms or molecules to emit photons of a specific wavelength, which then trigger the emission of additional identical photons through a process of optical amplification. This mechanism ensures that the resulting light waves are in phase with one another, a fundamental property known as coherence. Because the emitted photons have the same frequency and phase, the light produced is highly monochromatic, directional, and temporally and spatially coherent.

76Science and Technology
Which one of the following is responsible for the stimulating effect of tea ?
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Answer: (C) Alkaloid

Explanation

Tea contains caffeine, which is the primary bioactive compound responsible for its stimulating effect on the human body. Caffeine is a naturally occurring nitrogenous organic compound that belongs to the chemical class known as alkaloids. It acts as a central nervous system stimulant by crossing the blood-brain barrier and functioning as an adenosine receptor antagonist. This process prevents the onset of drowsiness induced by adenosine, leading to increased alertness, improved cognitive performance, and a temporary reduction in the perception of fatigue.

77Science and Technology
Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to plant leaves ?
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Answer: (B) Magnesium

Explanation

Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants, which is essential for the process of photosynthesis. The chemical structure of chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin-like ring coordinated to a central metallic atom. This central atom is magnesium (Mg²⁺), which is critical for the molecule's ability to absorb light energy from the sun. The presence of magnesium at the center of the chlorin ring allows chlorophyll to efficiently capture photons, specifically reflecting green light while absorbing wavelengths in the blue and red parts of the visible spectrum. Magnesium deficiency in plants leads to chlorosis, a condition where leaves lose their green color because the plant cannot synthesize enough chlorophyll molecules.

78Science and Technology
Earthquake (shock) waves are
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Answer: (A) Infrasonic waves

Explanation

Earthquake waves, also known as seismic waves, are categorized as infrasonic waves because their frequencies are typically below 20 Hz, which is the lower threshold of human hearing. These low-frequency mechanical vibrations travel through the Earth's layers following a sudden release of energy in the lithosphere. While humans cannot hear these sounds, many animals are sensitive to these infrasonic vibrations, allowing them to detect an earthquake before the more intense surface waves arrive.

79History
Consider the following statements : 1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. 2. The Arya Samaj repudiated the authority of the caste system. 3. Dayanand Saraswati was born in a Brahman family. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

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Swami Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in 1875 in Bombay to promote social and religious reform based on the authority of the Vedas. The movement actively repudiated the rigid, birth-based caste system and worked towards social equality by advocating for a Varna system determined by individual merit and conduct rather than ancestry. Born as Mool Shankar in 1824 in Tankara, Gujarat, Dayanand Saraswati belonged to an orthodox Brahmin family, a background that initially provided him with deep traditional education in Sanskrit and the scriptures before he embarked on his mission to simplify and reform Hindu practices.

80History
Which British Military Officer defeated Tipu Sultan in India, Napoleon Bonaparte in Europe and eventually became the Duke of Wellington?
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Answer: (A) Arthur Wellesley

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Arthur Wellesley was a prominent British military leader and statesman who served in India during the late 18th century. He played a decisive role in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War of 1799, where he led a division that contributed to the final defeat of Tipu Sultan at Seringapatam. After returning to Europe, he achieved his most famous military victory by commanding the allied forces that defeated Napoleon Bonaparte at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. In recognition of his military successes and service to the Crown, he was created the 1st Duke of Wellington in 1814 and later served twice as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom.

81History
Fahien's mission to India was to
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Answer: (C) Visit the Buddhist institutions and to collect copies of Buddhist manuscripts

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Fahien was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II with the primary objective of obtaining original copies of the Buddhist Vinaya Pitaka, or the Rules of Discipline. He found that the monastic rules available in China were incomplete and sought to bring back authentic texts to regulate the Buddhist sangha. During his journey, he visited numerous holy sites associated with the life of the Buddha and stayed at various monasteries, most notably in Pataliputra, where he spent three years studying Sanskrit and copying Buddhist manuscripts and sacred images to take back to China.

82History
Consider the following statements about environmental concerns in history: 1. In the Indian Ocean region, early French and British scientists pondered over possible linkages of deforestation, the wholesale denuding of the native tree cover and the cycles of water replenishment. 2. In the USA, there were similar fears by the late 19th century. 3. There was hardly any environmental concerns in the past about wider global impacts of the way, resources were used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

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Statement 1 is correct as colonial scientists in the Indian Ocean islands and India, such as Pierre Poivre in Mauritius, developed the desiccation theory during the 18th and 19th centuries. They established a direct causal link between the removal of native tree cover for plantations and the subsequent reduction in rainfall and depletion of local water cycles. Statement 2 is correct because the United States experienced a significant surge in environmental anxiety during the late 19th century. This period saw the rise of the conservation movement led by figures like George Perkins Marsh and Gifford Pinchot, who feared that the rapid exploitation of natural resources and wholesale timber harvesting would lead to ecological collapse and national decline. These concerns eventually culminated in the establishment of the US Forest Service and the creation of early National Parks to protect critical watersheds and ecosystems from further degradation.

83History
Consider the following statements relating to Sher Shah: 1. During Sher Shah's reign, the village panchayat and zamindars were not allowed to deal with civil and criminal cases at the local level. 2. Sher Shah set up army cantonments in different parts of the empire and a strong garrison was posted in each of them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Sher Shah Suri implemented a robust military and administrative system to ensure the security of his empire. He established a network of approximately 1,700 sarais along the major highways, which functioned as dak-chowkis and military outposts. Each of these stations was manned by a permanent garrison of troops to protect travelers and maintain local stability. He also built several strategic forts, such as Rohtasgarh, to station his forces across different parts of the realm. Regarding local governance, Sher Shah utilized the existing local machinery for justice and law enforcement rather than centralizing every dispute. He upheld the principle of local responsibility, where village panchayats and local headmen were authorized and required to handle local civil and criminal matters, often holding them personally liable for any crimes or thefts that occurred within their jurisdiction to ensure a high standard of public safety.

84History
Which of the following statements on Gandhian movements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) In Gandhian movements, leadership had no role

Explanation

Leadership played a pivotal role in Gandhian movements, which were never leaderless or spontaneous outbursts of mass energy without direction. Mahatma Gandhi served as the supreme commander, dictating the timing, nature, and suspension of the struggles. He emphasized that the masses must be disciplined and guided by trained cadres to ensure the movement adhered to the principles of Satyagraha and non-violence. For instance, his decision to unilaterally call off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 following the Chauri Chaura incident demonstrates the absolute control and role leadership exercised over the movement. Gandhi believed that without effective leadership, a mass movement would inevitably descend into chaos and violence, thereby defeating its spiritual and political objectives.

85History
Shaikh Moinuddin, Bakhtiyar Kaki and Farid ud din Ganj-i-Shakar were
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Answer: (C) prominent Chisti Saints

Explanation

Shaikh Moinuddin Chishti, Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, and Shaikh Farid-ud-din Ganj-i-Shakar were foundational figures of the Chishti Silsila, one of the most influential Sufi orders in India. Shaikh Moinuddin Chishti introduced the order to India in the late 12th century and established his center at Ajmer. His principal disciple, Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, moved to Delhi and became a significant spiritual figure during the reign of Iltutmish. Bakhtiyar Kaki was succeeded by Shaikh Farid-ud-din Ganj-i-Shakar, commonly known as Baba Farid, who popularized the Chishti teachings in the Punjab region. These saints emphasized a life of simplicity, devotion to God, and service to humanity, profoundly influencing the religious and cultural landscape of medieval India.

86History
Consider the following statements relating to Raja Rammohan Roy : 1. He knew that the spread of Western education was necessary to develop a national and scientific attitude in the Indian society. 2. He played a pioneering role in the religious and social reform movements of nineteenth century Bengal. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Raja Rammohan Roy, often called the Father of the Indian Renaissance, was a firm believer that the traditional Indian education system needed to be supplemented with Western scientific knowledge to modernize society. He advocated for the study of English, mathematics, natural philosophy, chemistry, and anatomy to cultivate a rational and scientific temper among Indians. This is evidenced by his 1823 letter to Lord Amherst, where he opposed the establishment of a traditional Sanskrit College in favor of one that taught modern sciences. He also supported the establishment of the Hindu College in 1817 to promote Western learning.

Additionally, Roy was the pioneering figure in the socio-religious reform movements of nineteenth-century Bengal. He founded the Atmiya Sabha and later the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to propagate monotheism and social equality. His relentless campaign against social evils, most notably the practice of Sati, led to its official abolition by Lord William Bentinck in 1829. His efforts toward women's rights, the abolition of the caste system, and the promotion of a rationalist approach to religion laid the groundwork for the modern reformist tradition in India.

87History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Person) List II (Satyagraha) A. Raj Kumar Shukla 1. Kheda Satyagraha B. Ambalal Sarabhai 2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike C. Indulal Yagnik 3. Bardoli Satyagraha D. Vallabhbhai Patel 4. Champaran Satyagraha Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3

Explanation

Raj Kumar Shukla was the indigo cultivator from Bihar who persisted in inviting Mahatma Gandhi to Champaran in 1917 to investigate the oppressive Tinkathia system imposed by European planters.

Ambalal Sarabhai was a prominent textile magnate in Ahmedabad who was a central figure during the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918, where Mahatma Gandhi intervened to resolve the dispute between the mill owners and workers regarding the plague bonus.

Indulal Yagnik was a dedicated grassroots leader and associate of Gandhi who played a crucial role in mobilizing the peasantry during the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 to demand the remission of land revenue due to crop failure.

Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928 against the colonial government's arbitrary increase in land revenue, a movement that was so successful it earned him the title of Sardar from the local women.

88Art and Culture
The Ashtadhyayi of Panini, the Mahabhasya of Patanjali and the Kashika Vritti of Jayaditya deal with
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Answer: (C) Principles of Grammar

Explanation

The Ashtadhyayi of Panini is the foundational text of Sanskrit grammar, consisting of eight chapters and approximately 4,000 sutras that establish the rules for word formation, morphology, and syntax. Patanjali's Mahabhasya is a definitive and critical commentary on the Ashtadhyayi and Katyayana's Varttikas, representing one of the most sophisticated works in the tradition of Vyakarana, or the science of grammar. The Kashika Vritti, co-authored by Jayaditya and Vamana in the 7th century, is a comprehensive commentary that provides a systematic explanation of each of Panini's sutras with illustrative examples. These three works are central pillars of the Sanskrit grammatical tradition, focusing on the structural analysis and systematic standardization of the language.

89History
The doctrines of non-violence and civil disobedience associated with Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by the works of
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Answer: (B) Ruskin-Tolstoy-Thoreau

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Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of Satyagraha was a synthesis of several intellectual influences. Henry David Thoreau's essay on Civil Disobedience provided him with a structural method for resisting unjust state authority through non-payment of taxes and non-cooperation. Leo Tolstoy's The Kingdom of God is Within You deeply impacted Gandhi's belief in non-violence and the power of love over force, leading to a significant correspondence between the two. John Ruskin's Unto This Last inspired Gandhi's socio-economic views, specifically the dignity of manual labor and the ideal that the good of the individual is contained in the good of all, which Gandhi translated into Gujarati as Sarvodaya. These three thinkers provided the primary moral and strategic framework for his doctrines.

90History
Which of the following statements about Annie Besant are correct? 1. She founded the Central Hindu College at Benares. 2. She organized the Home Rule League. 3. She introduced the Theosophical Movement in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Annie Besant founded the Central Hindu College in Benares in 1898 to impart education that combined modern scientific knowledge with traditional Hindu philosophy. This college subsequently became the foundation for the Banaras Hindu University. In 1916, she organized the All India Home Rule League to demand self-government for India within the British Empire, significantly mobilizing public opinion through her journals New India and Commonweal. The Theosophical Movement, however, was not introduced to India by her; it was established in the country by Helena Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott, who moved the society headquarters to Adyar in 1882, whereas Besant joined the society later and arrived in India only in 1893.

91Polity and Governance
Which among the following was not one of the provisions of the 'Communal Award'?
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Answer: (D) The separate electorates were to lapse at the end of 10 years

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The Communal Award, announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald on August 16, 1932, granted separate electorates to various minority communities including Muslims, Sikhs, Europeans, and the Depressed Classes. For the Depressed Classes specifically, the award stipulated that these separate electorates would remain in place for a period of 20 years. There was no provision in the award for the separate electorates to lapse after 10 years. The subsequent Poona Pact between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar replaced separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with reserved seats within the general electorate, but the original 1932 Award itself did not feature a 10-year expiration clause.

92History
Consider the following statements about Swami Vivekananda: 1. He said that Vedanta was the religion of all. 2. He believed in reviving all the best traditions of Hinduism. 3. He was impressed by the status of women in the West. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Swami Vivekananda interpreted Vedanta as a universal philosophy that transcended sectarian boundaries, viewing it as the spiritual foundation for all religions. He advocated for a Neo-Vedantic revival, which aimed to restore the strength-giving and egalitarian traditions of the Vedas and Upanishads while purging Hinduism of later accretions like superstitions and rigid caste practices. Additionally, during his travels to the United States and Europe, he was profoundly impressed by the education, social freedom, and independence enjoyed by Western women. He frequently cited their elevated status as a primary reason for the advancement of Western civilization and argued that the upliftment of women was essential for the regeneration of India.

93Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) S & P CNX Nifty is the index for 50 large companies on the Bombay Stock Exchange

Explanation

The S&P CNX Nifty, commonly known as the NIFTY 50, is the flagship index of the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE). It tracks the performance of 50 of the largest and most liquid Indian companies across various sectors of the economy. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), which is a separate entity, uses the S&P BSE SENSEX as its primary benchmark index, consisting of 30 well-established companies. Since the Nifty is specifically the product and indicator of the NSE, the statement associating it with the Bombay Stock Exchange is factually incorrect.

94Economy
Consider the following statements about Wholesale Price Index (WPI): 1. It captures the price movement extensively and is, therefore, taken as an indicator of inflation. 2. The Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA) is entrusted with the function of compilation and publication of the weekly wholesale price index numbers in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities at the wholesale level. Up to 2009, it was the most widely used and primary indicator of inflation in India, capturing price movements across a broad spectrum of goods categorized into Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products. Because it tracks price changes at the first stage of transaction, it provides an extensive view of inflationary pressures within the production and supply chain.

The compilation and publication of the WPI are handled by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), which operates under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. During the period around 2009, the WPI was released on a weekly basis, providing policymakers and the public with frequent updates on price fluctuations in the economy. The OEA remains the nodal agency for this statistical exercise, ensuring the data is processed according to established base years and methodology.

95Economy
Consider the following statements about Gross Domestic Product: 1. It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a nation in a year. 2. It is equal to the total expenditures for all final goods and services produced within the country in a stipulated period of time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the total market value of all final goods and services produced within the territorial boundaries of a country during a specific period, usually one year. This definition ensures that only finished products are counted to avoid double-counting of intermediate goods, making statement 1 correct. According to the expenditure approach of national income accounting, GDP is also measured as the sum of all final expenditures in the economy. This is represented by the identity GDP = C + I + G + (X - M), where C is private consumption, I is investment, G is government spending, and (X - M) represents net exports. This method calculates the total spending on all final goods and services produced domestically, confirming that statement 2 is also correct. In the circular flow of an economy, the total value of output produced is identical to the total expenditure incurred to purchase that output.

96Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: 1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Article 148 of the Constitution of India establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) and provides safeguards to ensure its independence. According to Article 148(1), the CAG is appointed by the President and can only be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which requires a resolution by both Houses of Parliament supported by a special majority. Furthermore, Article 148(4) explicitly states that the CAG shall be ineligible for any further office under the Government of India or the Government of any State after ceasing to hold the position. These provisions are designed to insulate the office from executive interference and maintain the integrity of the audit process.

97Polity and Governance
Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid. 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid. 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The return of the security deposit for a candidate contesting a Lok Sabha seat is governed by Section 158 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The deposit is returned to the candidate or their legal representative under several specific conditions. First, if the nomination of the candidate is found to be invalid and is rejected by the Returning Officer during the scrutiny of nomination papers, the deposit is refunded. Second, if a candidate submits a valid nomination but chooses to withdraw their candidacy within the timeframe permitted for such withdrawals, the deposit is returned. Third, if the candidate contests the election and is not elected, the deposit is returned provided they have secured more than one-sixth of the total number of valid votes polled in the constituency. The deposit is also returned if the candidate is successful in the election or if the candidate dies before the commencement of the poll. Failure to reach the one-sixth threshold of valid votes results in the forfeiture of the security deposit to the government.

98Polity and Governance
If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha
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Answer: (C) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration

Explanation

According to Article 88 of the Constitution of India, every Minister and the Attorney-General of India has the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. However, this Article also specifies that a person shall not by virtue of this Article be entitled to vote. A Minister is only entitled to vote in the House of which he or she is a member. Since a No-Confidence Motion is moved and voted upon exclusively in the Lok Sabha to test the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers under Article 75(3), a Prime Minister who is a member of the Rajya Sabha cannot cast a vote during the division on such a motion, although he or she can participate in the preceding deliberations.

99Polity and Governance
The function of a Pro tem Speaker is to
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Answer: (C) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected

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The Pro tem Speaker is a temporary appointment made by the President under Article 95(1) of the Constitution of India (or by the Governor under Article 180(1) for State Legislatures) to perform the duties of the Speaker at the commencement of a new House. Usually, the senior-most member of the House is chosen for this role. The primary responsibilities of the Pro tem Speaker include presiding over the first meeting of the newly elected House, administering the oath or affirmation to the newly elected members so they can take their seats, and conducting the election of the permanent Speaker. Once the regular Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Pro tem Speaker ceases to exist.

100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
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Answer: (D) Right to constitutional remedies

Explanation

The Constitution of India distinguishes between fundamental rights available only to citizens and those available to all persons, including non-citizens. The rights guaranteed under Article 19, which include the freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and the right to practice any profession or carry on any trade or business, are exclusively reserved for citizens of India. Consequently, the provisions mentioned in options A, B, and C are not available to foreigners. However, the Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32 is available to any person, including non-citizens, for the enforcement of the fundamental rights specifically guaranteed to them. Since non-citizens enjoy certain fundamental rights such as the right to equality (Article 14) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21), they also possess the right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 to protect these specific entitlements from infringement.

101Polity and Governance
Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed?
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Answer: (C) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

Explanation

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was elected as the sixth President of India in July 1977 and remains the only individual to have been elected to the office unopposed. During the election process, a total of 37 candidates filed their nomination papers; however, upon scrutiny by the returning officer, the nominations of 36 candidates were rejected for failing to comply with the mandatory requirements of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act. As the only candidate with valid nomination papers, he was declared elected without a contest and assumed office on July 25, 1977.

102Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth, is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent. 2. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct based on Section 4 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, regarding citizenship by descent. For persons born outside India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 10th December 1992, Indian citizenship is granted if the father was a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth. Since the birth occurred in Rangoon in 1951 and the father was an Indian citizen by birth, the individual qualifies for citizenship by descent.

Statement 2 is correct according to Section 3 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, as amended by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986. For individuals born in India on or after 1st July 1987 but before 3rd December 2004, the law stipulates that the person is a citizen of India by birth if either of the parents was a citizen of India at the time of the birth. Since the birth took place in Itanagar in 1988 and the mother was an Indian citizen, the person is deemed a citizen by birth regardless of the father's nationality.

103Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Commissions is not provided in the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (A) Planning Commission

Explanation

The Planning Commission was established as an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body through an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on March 15, 1950. It was created on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board to oversee the economic and social development of the country through the formulation of Five-Year Plans. Unlike constitutional bodies which are mandated by specific articles within the Constitution, the Planning Commission was not mentioned in the original document or any subsequent amendments. It served in an advisory capacity to the Union government, with its existence and authority dependent on executive decision rather than a constitutional mandate or legislative requirement.

104Economy
Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament
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Answer: (C) Discussion on Budget - Vote on Account - Finance Bill - Appropriation Bill

Explanation

The enactment of the Union Budget in the Indian Parliament follows a specific procedural sequence to ensure constitutional compliance and financial accountability. The correct sequence for the stages provided is:

Discussion on Budget: After the Budget is presented, a General Discussion takes place in both Houses of Parliament. This stage covers the Budget as a whole and its underlying principles, but no cut motions are moved, nor is the Budget submitted to the vote of the House at this stage.

Vote on Account: Since the detailed voting on demands for grants and the passing of the Appropriation and Finance Bills usually extend beyond the start of the new financial year (April 1st), the Lok Sabha passes a Vote on Account (Article 116). This allows the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India for a part of the year (usually two months) to meet essential expenditures until the full budget is enacted.

Appropriation Bill: After the Voting on Demands for Grants is completed, the Appropriation Bill is introduced and passed (Article 114). This bill provides the legal authority for the government to withdraw the total amount (voted demands plus charged expenditure) from the Consolidated Fund for the entire financial year.

Finance Bill: The Finance Bill is the final stage of the budget process (Article 117). It contains the taxation and revenue proposals of the government. While it is introduced along with the Budget, it is passed only after the Appropriation Bill to finalize the revenue measures for the year.

105Polity and Governance
Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan Parishad ?
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu abolished its Vidhan Parishad on November 1, 1986, through the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council (Abolition) Act, 1986. Since that date, the state legislature has functioned as a unicameral body consisting solely of the Legislative Assembly. Under Article 169 of the Constitution of India, a state can abolish its Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a majority of the total membership and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, which is then followed by an Act of Parliament. Tamil Nadu's council has not been reconstituted since its abolition in 1986.

106Polity and Governance
Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha ?
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Answer: (D) Manmohan Singh

Explanation

Dr. Manmohan Singh served as the Prime Minister of India from 2004 to 2014 while being a member of the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of Parliament, representing the state of Assam. Under Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, every Minister and the Attorney-General of India has the right to speak in and participate in the proceedings of either House or any joint sitting; however, they are not entitled to vote in a House of which they are not a member. Since a Vote of Confidence is a procedural matter specific to the Lok Sabha to determine if the Council of Ministers enjoys the majority support of the House of the People, only members of the Lok Sabha can cast their votes. Consequently, as a Rajya Sabha member, Dr. Manmohan Singh could participate in the debate but could not vote for his own government during the confidence motions, such as the one held in July 2008.

107Polity and Governance
According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment) Act 1985 as amended in 2003; a legislator attracts disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if 1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected. 2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party. 3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house. 4. a member who has been elected as an independent member joins any political party. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, as amended by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003), specifies grounds for disqualification of legislators. Paragraph 2(1)(a) provides that a member is disqualified for voluntarily giving up membership of the political party on whose ticket they were elected. Paragraph 2(1)(b) specifies disqualification for voting or abstaining from voting contrary to any direction issued by the political party. Paragraph 2(2) states that a member elected as an independent candidate is disqualified if they join any political party after the election. Crucially, the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 deleted the split provision (Paragraph 3) that originally exempted groups of at least one-third of the party members from disqualification. Following this amendment, any split is treated as a defection unless it constitutes a merger involving two-thirds of the members, making the one-third threshold legally obsolete.

108Polity and Governance
The quorum for a Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is
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Answer: (C) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House

Explanation

The quorum for a joint sitting of the Indian Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses. This provision is governed by the Houses of Parliament (Joint Sittings and Communications) Rules, framed by the President of India under Article 118(3) of the Constitution. This requirement is consistent with Article 100(3) of the Constitution, which stipulates that the quorum for a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of that House. During a joint sitting, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha meet as a single body, and the presiding officer (typically the Speaker of the Lok Sabha) ensures that at least one-tenth of the combined membership of both Houses is present to constitute the quorum necessary for transacting business.

109Polity and Governance
Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian Judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation ?
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Answer: (C) Epistolary Jurisdiction

Explanation

Epistolary jurisdiction refers to the power of the Indian judiciary to treat a letter or even a postcard addressed to the court as a formal writ petition. This concept was developed by the Supreme Court to facilitate Public Interest Litigation (PIL) by relaxing the traditional requirement of locus standi, which originally allowed only the aggrieved party to seek judicial remedy. By invoking epistolary jurisdiction, the court allows any public-spirited citizen or organization to approach the judiciary on behalf of disadvantaged groups who cannot do so themselves due to poverty, ignorance, or social constraints. This judicial innovation was pioneered by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in the late 1970s and early 1980s to make the judicial process more accessible and responsive to social injustices.

110Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
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Answer: (D) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish social and economic democracy, but they do not guarantee specific outcomes like equal income or universal free health care. Article 38 mandates the State to minimize inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, which is distinct from promising equal income for everyone. Article 47 directs the State to regard the improvement of public health as among its primary duties, yet it does not establish a constitutional promise of free health care for all citizens. These principles are intended as moral and political obligations for the State to follow while framing laws, rather than providing specific, enforceable promises of identical financial status or free medical services.

111Polity and Governance
In India the Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of this power
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Answer: (B) he/she shall be regulated by law

Explanation

Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law. This constitutional provision ensures the principle of civilian supremacy over the military. While the President is the formal head of the armed forces, this authority is not absolute or beyond the reach of the legislature. Instead, the Parliament has the power to enact laws to govern, control, and regulate the exercise of these powers. Consequently, any operational or administrative commands issued in the name of the President must conform to the statutory framework and regulations established by the legislative body.

112Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Committee on the status of women in India (NSWI) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women. 2. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik. 3. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Committee on the Status of Women in India, which submitted its report titled Towards Equality in 1974, recommended the establishment of a statutory body to perform surveillance and facilitative functions for the protection of women's rights. This recommendation eventually led to the enactment of the National Commission for Women Act in 1990.

The National Commission for Women was established as a statutory body on 31 January 1992. Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik served as the first Chairperson of the Commission, leading the organization during its initial term from 1992 to 1995.

The mandate of the Commission, as specified under Section 10 of the National Commission for Women Act, is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women. Its responsibilities include investigating the deprivation of women's rights, reviewing existing laws to suggest amendments for better protection, and evaluating the progress of the development of women under the Union and any State.

113Polity and Governance
Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the 'right to freedom' ?
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

The right to freedom guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions to ensure the larger public interest. These restrictions are governed by specific clauses within Article 19 itself. For instance, the freedom of speech and expression is restricted under Article 19(2) in the interest of public order and morality, which justifies the prohibition of using religion to secure votes, a practice that could incite communal tension and disrupt secular democracy. The right to form associations under Article 19(1)(c) is similarly limited under Article 19(4); when state funds are involved, Article 15(2) mandates that no citizen be denied access to facilities on the ground of sex, thereby validating restrictions on exclusionary clubs to uphold equality. Additionally, Article 19(5) allows the state to restrict the freedom to reside and settle to protect the interests of any Scheduled Tribe. This constitutional provision, along with Article 371A, empowers states like Nagaland to restrict land ownership by non-residents to preserve tribal land rights and cultural integrity. These provisions ensure that fundamental freedoms do not override essential societal values and the protection of minority interests.

114Polity and Governance
The 73rd amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the following are the main features of this provision ? 1. A three tier system of panchayat raj for all states. 2. Panchayat elections in every 5 years. 3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved for women. 4. Constitution of district planning committees to prepare development plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, introduced Part IX to the Indian Constitution to provide a framework for Panchayati Raj. Article 243-B mandates a uniform three-tier system consisting of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels across the states, except for those with a population below 20 lakhs which may skip the intermediate level. Article 243-E ensures the continuity of these bodies by prescribing a five-year term and requiring elections to be held before the term expires or within six months of dissolution. Article 243-D provides for the mandatory reservation of not less than one-third (33%) of the total number of seats and chairperson offices for women. The establishment of District Planning Committees is a provision of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act under Article 243-ZD.

115Polity and Governance
The Sachar Committee Report pertains to
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Answer: (C) Indian Muslims

Explanation

The Sachar Committee, headed by retired Justice Rajindar Sachar, was a seven-member High Level Committee commissioned in 2005 by the Prime Minister of India. Its specific mandate was to examine the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India. The report, submitted in November 2006, provided a detailed empirical analysis of the challenges faced by Indian Muslims, revealing that the community lagged behind national averages in areas such as literacy, representation in government jobs, and access to bank credit. The findings served as a basis for targeted government schemes aimed at the socio-economic upliftment of the community.

116Geography
Assertion (A) : Convectional rains occur during pre-monsoon summer in India. Reason (R) : Such rains occur due to adiabatic cooling.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation

During the pre-monsoon summer months in India, intense solar heating of the land surface creates strong vertical air currents known as convection. As this warm, moist air rises into the higher layers of the atmosphere, it experiences lower atmospheric pressure, which causes the air to expand. This expansion leads to a decrease in the internal energy of the air parcel, resulting in a temperature drop without any exchange of heat with the surrounding environment. This process is defined as adiabatic cooling. When the rising air cools to its dew point, water vapor condenses to form cumulonimbus clouds, leading to localized rainfall often accompanied by thunder and lightning. Since adiabatic cooling is the fundamental physical mechanism that triggers condensation in rising convection currents, the reason correctly explains the assertion.

117Geography
Assertion (A) : The Himalayan meadows are suitable for transhumance. Reason (R) : In these areas transport facility to move from one place, to another is good.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false

Explanation

The Himalayan region is well-known for the practice of transhumance, where pastoralist communities such as the Gaddis, Bakarwals, and Gujjars move their livestock seasonally. During the summer months, they migrate to high-altitude alpine meadows, known as Bugyals or Margs, which offer nutrient-rich grass as the snow melts. In winter, they return to the lower valleys to escape the extreme cold and heavy snowfall. This seasonal migration is a direct adaptation to the climatic conditions and availability of natural fodder in the mountains. However, these high-altitude meadow regions are characterized by exceptionally rugged and steep terrain where modern transport facilities are minimal or non-existent. Transhumance in the Himalayas is traditionally carried out on foot along narrow mountain trails rather than through a developed transport network.

118Science and Technology
Assertion (A) : The safety air bags fitted in some cars inflate during head-on impact of the car. Reason (R) : The inflation is due to pumping of air into the balloon during the impact.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false

Explanation

Assertion (A) is correct because automotive safety airbags are designed to inflate rapidly during a significant frontal or head-on collision to provide a cushion that prevents occupants from striking the interior of the vehicle. However, Reason (R) is incorrect because the inflation mechanism does not involve a mechanical pump or the intake of atmospheric air. Instead, the system relies on a chemical reaction triggered by an electronic sensor. When a collision is detected, an igniter sets off a chemical propellant, typically sodium azide (NaN₃). This solid compound undergoes extremely rapid thermal decomposition to produce a large volume of nitrogen gas (N₂), following the reaction 2NaN₃ → 2Na + 3N₂, which fills the bag in approximately 20 to 30 milliseconds.

119History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below Assertion (A) : First war of independence broke out in India in 1857 soon after the departure of Lord Dalhousie from India. Reason (R) : Lord Dalhousie's annexationist policy had caused great discontent.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie served as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856, and his departure in March 1856 was followed within a year by the Revolt of 1857. The uprising was fundamentally triggered by the political instability and widespread resentment caused by Dalhousie’s aggressive annexationist policies. Through the Doctrine of Lapse, he annexed numerous princely states including Satara, Sambalpur, Jhansi, and Nagpur by refusing to recognize the rights of adopted heirs. Furthermore, the annexation of Oudh in 1856 on the grounds of maladministration caused severe discontent among the landed aristocracy and the sepoys, as a large portion of the British Indian Army was recruited from that region. These policies provided the primary political and social grievances that led directly to the outbreak of the First War of Independence in 1857.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2C
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5C
  6. 6A
  7. 7B
  8. 8D
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11B
  12. 12D
  13. 13C
  14. 14C
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19D
  20. 20B
  21. 21D
  22. 22C
  23. 23A
  24. 24C
  25. 25A
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28D
  29. 29C
  30. 30B
  31. 31D
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36A
  37. 37D
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42B
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51A
  52. 52C
  53. 53D
  54. 54A
  55. 55A
  56. 56C
  57. 57A
  58. 58B
  59. 59C
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65C
  66. 66C
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70A
  71. 71C
  72. 72B
  73. 73D
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77B
  78. 78A
  79. 79A
  80. 80A
  81. 81C
  82. 82A
  83. 83B
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86C
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89B
  90. 90B
  91. 91D
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94C
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98C
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101C
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104C
  105. 105C
  106. 106D
  107. 107B
  108. 108C
  109. 109C
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113D
  114. 114A
  115. 115C
  116. 116A
  117. 117C
  118. 118C
  119. 119A

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