Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Statement I : In Vietnam War, Americans used powerful defoliants such as Agent Orange over large areas of dense forest and agricultural fields.
Statement II : Defoliants are very dangerous war weapons which leave the forests and agricultural fields barren.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
During the Vietnam War, the U.S. military conducted Operation Ranch Hand, which involved the extensive aerial spraying of tactical herbicides, the most famous being Agent Orange. This was done to achieve two primary military objectives: stripping the dense jungle canopy that provided cover for Viet Cong forces and destroying agricultural crops that provided them with food. Statement II correctly explains the logic behind this military strategy. Defoliants like Agent Orange, which contained the highly toxic contaminant dioxin (TCDD), are extremely dangerous because they cause long-lasting ecological damage. By killing vegetation and poisoning the soil, these chemicals effectively leave forests denuded and agricultural fields barren for decades, which is precisely why they were selected as a powerful tool of chemical warfare to degrade the enemy's environment and resources.
2History
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Statement I :
Gandhiji failed to realize that the Khilafat was an extra- territorial issue.
Statement II :
The cause of Khilafat was discredited by 1923 as Mustafa Kemal Pasha set up a secular republican government in Turkey.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is true as it reflects a common historical critique that Mahatma Gandhi, in his attempt to forge Hindu-Muslim unity during the Non-Cooperation Movement, tethered the Indian national struggle to the Khilafat cause. This cause was fundamentally extra-territorial since it sought the restoration of the temporal and spiritual authority of the Ottoman Caliph over Islamic holy places outside the Indian subcontinent. Statement II is also historically true because the Khilafat movement was rendered obsolete by internal developments in Turkey. Following the Turkish War of Independence, Mustafa Kemal Pasha (Atatürk) initiated secular reforms, abolished the Sultanate in 1922, and eventually abolished the Caliphate in 1924, effectively ending the raison d'etre of the movement globally. While Statement II provides the historical evidence that the issue was indeed extra-territorial and beyond the control of Indian leaders, it does not explain the psychological or strategic reasons why Gandhiji failed to realize or account for this nature at the movement's inception.
3History
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :In north-western India, the Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
Statement II :
The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that the 'next immediate step' for India must be Dominion Status.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as the Frontier Gandhi, founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement in the North-West Frontier Province. Under his leadership, the Civil Disobedience Movement achieved a mass character through non-violent protests and social reform, gaining immense support from the local Pathan population. Individually, the Nehru Report of 1928 was a significant document prepared by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru, which formally demanded Dominion Status as the next immediate constitutional step for India. Although both statements are correct historical facts, the Nehru Report's demand for Dominion Status was a constitutional proposal that preceded the Civil Disobedience Movement and does not explain the specific regional mass mobilization led by Ghaffar Khan in the north-western frontier.
4Polity and Governance
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II :When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is true because an adjournment is a procedural action that suspends the work in a sitting for a specified period, which may be hours, days, or weeks. It is an interruption within the ongoing session of the House and is ordered by the Presiding Officer (the Speaker in the Lok Sabha or the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha) to allow for temporary breaks in legislative business.
Statement II is also true as it defines adjournment sine die, which occurs when the Presiding Officer terminates a sitting of the House without fixing a specific day or time for its reassembly. This results in an indefinite suspension of the House until the Presiding Officer calls for the next meeting or the session is prorogued by the President.
While both statements are factually correct regarding the powers of the Presiding Officer and the nature of parliamentary suspensions, Statement II is a definition of a specific type of adjournment rather than a logical explanation or reason for why a general adjournment is considered a short recess within a session. Therefore, the two statements are independent factual assertions.
5Polity and Governance
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status.
Statement II :This law enables them to participate in economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to various legislative bodies in India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, introduced the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, which was initially available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) residing in 16 specified countries. Although this status is colloquially referred to as dual citizenship, it does not confer full political rights. Under the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955, as amended, OCI holders are granted parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in economic, financial, and educational fields, but they are expressly denied the right to vote in Indian elections. Furthermore, they are ineligible to be members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, or State Legislative bodies, and cannot hold high constitutional offices such as the President, Vice-President, or judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
6Polity and Governance
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :
The fundamental rights protect the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government.
Statement II :
The fundamental rights guarantee the rights of the citizens.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Fundamental Rights act as a restraint on the powers of the State, specifically limiting the legislative and executive organs from enacting laws or taking actions that interfere with the basic liberties of individuals. This ensures the principle of a government of laws rather than of men. While it is also true that these rights are guaranteed to citizens and all persons by the Constitution, Statement II serves as a general descriptive fact about the nature of these rights as constitutional guarantees. It does not provide the logical reasoning or the specific explanation for why the rights are directed against the encroachment of the government branches mentioned in Statement I. Furthermore, while Statement I applies to people in general, including non-citizens for many rights, Statement II focuses specifically on citizens, making the two statements individually true but logically distinct.
7Polity and Governance
Directions :The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :
The principle of equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India.
Statement II :
The President of India enjoys some special privileges under the Constitution of India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Under Article 361 of the Constitution of India, the President is granted specific immunities and privileges that serve as constitutional exceptions to the general principle of equality before the law enshrined in Article 14. These protections include immunity from being answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office, as well as a total bar on the institution or continuation of criminal proceedings against the President during their term. Additionally, no process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President can be issued from any court during their tenure. These special privileges are explicitly provided by the Constitution to maintain the dignity and independence of the highest executive office, thereby directly justifying why the standard application of the principle of equality before the law is restricted in the case of the President.
8Science and Technology
A close bottle containing water at room temperature was taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water will
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) boil
Explanation
The boiling point of a liquid is directly dependent on the external atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. As the external pressure decreases, the boiling point of the liquid also decreases. The Moon has a negligible atmosphere, creating a near-vacuum environment where the pressure is effectively zero. When a bottle of water at room temperature is opened on the Moon, the external pressure suddenly drops below the vapor pressure of the water. This causes the boiling point to fall below the water's current temperature, resulting in the water boiling vigorously and evaporating rapidly.
9Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. This constitutional provision mandates that the State shall provide this education in such a manner as it may, by law, determine. Following this amendment, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act was passed in 2009 and came into effect on April 1, 2010, providing the legal framework to implement the constitutional guarantee. The amendment also revised Article 45 of the Directive Principles and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), requiring parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to their children within the same age bracket.
10Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct?
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding fundamental rights with a duty to act judicially.
2. Writ of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to a subordinate court, tribunal, or an officer. For the writ to be issued, the body in question must have the legal authority to determine questions affecting the rights of citizens and must have a duty to act judicially. In the context of the Supreme Court's jurisdiction under Article 32, this power is exercised to protect fundamental rights from being determined or affected by a subordinate body acting without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of natural justice.
The writ of certiorari is available during the pendency of proceedings before a subordinate court. While it is commonly known as a curative remedy used to quash a final order after a case is decided, it can also be issued to quash an interlocutory or intermediate order passed while the case is still ongoing. Furthermore, the writ can be used to remove or transfer a pending case from a lower court to the superior court for trial to ensure justice or to resolve a question of law. This differentiates it from the writ of prohibition, which only stops further proceedings and cannot quash an existing order.
11Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not correct about Down's syndrome?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Effected individual has early ageing
Explanation
Early ageing is a physiological trait specifically associated with progeroid syndromes, such as Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome (Progeria) or Werner syndrome, where individuals exhibit signs of advanced biological age at a very young age. Down's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21). While individuals with this condition may have a higher predisposition to certain age-related conditions like early-onset Alzheimer's disease, the syndrome itself is primarily defined by developmental delays, intellectual disability, and specific morphological features rather than systemic accelerated ageing.
12Geography
The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) east to west and north to south
Explanation
The rainfall in the Ganga basin is primarily governed by the Bay of Bengal branch of the South-West Monsoon. As these moisture-laden winds enter the Indian landmass from the east, they travel westward along the Himalayan range. Consequently, they lose their moisture content as they move further inland, leading to a progressive decrease in rainfall from East to West. Additionally, the Himalayas act as a massive physical barrier that triggers intense orographic precipitation along the northern edge of the basin. As one moves southward away from the Himalayan foothills towards the interior of the plains, the intensity of this rainfall decreases, resulting in a North to South reduction in precipitation levels.
13Science and Technology
Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Fluoride
Explanation
Fluoride is a trace element that is crucial for dental health when consumed in regulated amounts, typically around 0.5 to 1.0 mg/L in drinking water. It works by integrating into the tooth enamel to form fluorapatite, a substance that is significantly more resistant to acid attacks and dental caries than the original hydroxyapatite. However, chronic ingestion of high concentrations of fluoride, generally exceeding 1.5 to 2.0 mg/L during the years of tooth calcification, leads to a condition known as dental fluorosis. This condition involves the hypomineralization of the enamel, resulting in characteristic mottling, which presents as white opaque streaks, brownish discolorations, or structural pitting of the teeth.
14History
Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) The Battle of Chausa : Defeat of Humayun by Sher Shah
Explanation
The Battle of Chausa was fought on June 26, 1539, between the Mughal Emperor Humayun and the Afghan ruler Sher Shah Suri. After several months of a military standoff at Chausa, near the banks of the Ganges, Sher Shah launched a surprise night attack on the Mughal camp. The Mughal army was caught unprepared, leading to a catastrophic defeat for Humayun. Many Mughal soldiers were killed or drowned while attempting to flee across the river. Humayun himself narrowly escaped death by crossing the river with the assistance of a water-carrier. This victory significantly bolstered Sher Shah's power, allowing him to assume the royal title of Farid-ud-din Sher Shah and eventually displace the Mughal dynasty from Delhi for a period of fifteen years.
15Science and Technology
The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) a liability cap of ₹ 1,500 crore also on the Government of India in case of an accident
Explanation
The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, differentiates between the financial liability of the nuclear plant operator and that of the Central Government. Under Section 6 of the Act, the liability of an operator is specifically capped at ₹1,500 crore for a nuclear incident. However, the overall maximum liability for any single nuclear incident is fixed at the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). According to Section 7, the Central Government is responsible for covering the extent of damages that exceed the operator liability of ₹1,500 crore up to the total limit of 300 million SDRs. Since the Government's financial obligation is defined by the remaining balance up to the total cap rather than a fixed limit of ₹1,500 crore, the provision of a ₹1,500 crore cap does not apply to the Government of India.
16Polity and Governance
Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment programmes by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) represents a fundamental shift from previous poverty alleviation schemes by moving from a supply-led to a demand-led model. Unlike earlier programs which were administrative schemes dependent on annual budget allocations and government discretion, MGNREGA provides a statutory guarantee under which every rural household has a legal right to at least 100 days of unskilled manual work in a financial year. This rights-based framework ensures that if an applicant is not provided employment within 15 days of demanding it, they are legally entitled to receive a daily unemployment allowance. This legal accountability transforms the nature of wage employment from a discretionary welfare benefit into a justiciable right for rural citizens.
17Science and Technology
Contact lenses are made from
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Lucite
Explanation
Lucite is a commercial trade name for polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA), a transparent synthetic polymer. It was the first material used to manufacture rigid contact lenses due to its exceptional optical clarity, durability, and biocompatibility with the human eye. While modern contact lenses have evolved to include soft hydrogels and silicone-based materials, PMMA remains the foundational polymer for the production of traditional hard contact lenses in material science.
18Geography
Which one among the following best explains the reason for the eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experiencing frequent earthquake?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) These margins coincide with the plate margins
Explanation
The eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean constitute the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region characterized by intense seismic and volcanic activity. This phenomenon is best explained by the fact that these margins coincide with active tectonic plate boundaries. According to the theory of plate tectonics, the movement and interaction of the Pacific Plate with surrounding plates—including the North American, Eurasian, Philippine, and Indo-Australian plates—create zones of significant geological stress. These boundaries include subduction zones, where one plate sinks beneath another, and transform faults, where plates slide horizontally past each other. The sudden release of accumulated energy along these lithospheric junctions results in frequent earthquakes, making the alignment with plate margins the fundamental cause of the region instability.
19Science and Technology
The blackboard seems black because it
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) does not reflect any colour
Explanation
The color of an object is determined by the wavelengths of visible light it reflects back to the human eye. When light hits a surface, the material absorbs certain wavelengths and reflects others. A blackboard appears black because the material it is made of absorbs all the colors of the visible light spectrum and reflects little to no light. Since black is technically the absence of reflected light, the lack of reflection from the surface causes it to be perceived as black.
20Polity and Governance
The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) its first meeting
Explanation
Article 243E of the Constitution of India, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, explicitly defines the duration of Panchayats. It states that every Panchayat, unless dissolved sooner under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer. This provision ensures a uniform five-year term for all levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions across the country. The term is calculated from the date of the first meeting to provide a standard starting point for the functional life of the local body, irrespective of the dates of election notifications, result declarations, or individual oath-taking ceremonies.
21Economy
In August 2010, a container ship had collided with another ship in the Arabian Sea near Mumbai. Which one of the following was the consequence of that?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) The container ship was tilted, some boxes fell into the sea, some moderate scale of oil spill took place and subsequently the ship was made upright
Explanation
On August 7, 2010, the container ship MSC Chitra collided with the MV Khalijia III near the Mumbai coast in the Arabian Sea. The collision caused the MSC Chitra to list heavily, tilting to an angle of nearly 75 degrees. This severe tilt resulted in approximately 200 to 300 containers falling off the deck into the sea, which created significant hazards for maritime traffic and led to the temporary closure of the Mumbai and Jawaharlal Nehru ports. The accident also led to a moderate oil spill as the ship's fuel tanks were breached, releasing several hundred tonnes of oil into the marine environment, impacting local mangroves and aquatic life. Following the incident, extensive salvage operations were conducted to pump out the remaining oil and recover the containers, and the vessel was eventually stabilized and made upright to facilitate the salvage process.
22Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about the teachings of Kabir is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) He was not against pilgrimage and idol worship
Explanation
Kabir was a seminal figure of the Bhakti movement who vehemently opposed external rituals and institutionalized religious practices. He specifically rejected idol worship and the practice of going on pilgrimages, which he considered to be superficial and ineffective for spiritual salvation. His teachings, preserved in the Bijak and the Guru Granth Sahib, emphasize that God is formless (Nirguna) and resides within the heart of every individual rather than in physical icons or specific holy sites. Therefore, the assertion that he was not against pilgrimage and idol worship directly contradicts his core philosophy of internal devotion and his critique of traditional religious orthodoxy.
23Science and Technology
Which one among the following metals is used for making boats because it does not corrode by seawater?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Titanium
Explanation
Titanium is the preferred metal for marine applications and boat construction because of its exceptional resistance to corrosion in seawater. Upon exposure to oxygen, titanium spontaneously forms a tenacious, stable, and highly adherent oxide film (TiO₂) on its surface. This passive layer provides a permanent shield against the aggressive chloride ions found in salt water, which typically cause rapid deterioration in other metals. Its immunity to pitting and stress corrosion in marine environments, combined with a high strength-to-weight ratio, ensures long-term structural integrity without the need for protective coatings or frequent maintenance.
24Polity and Governance
In August 2010, Russian President hosted a summit of four nations to discuss about the menace of terrorism and narcotics at the Black Sea Resort Sochi. The countries attended were
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Russia, Afghanistan, Pakistan and Tajikistan
Explanation
In August 2010, Russian President Dmitry Medvedev hosted a quadrilateral summit at the Black Sea resort of Sochi, inviting the leaders of Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Tajikistan. The meeting included Afghan President Hamid Karzai, Pakistani President Asif Ali Zardari, and Tajik President Emomali Rahmon. The summit focused on regional security challenges, specifically the rising threat of terrorism and the surge in narcotics trafficking originating from Afghanistan. The four nations agreed to enhance cooperation in border management and intelligence sharing to stabilize the region and mitigate the influence of extremist groups. This diplomatic effort was intended to create a regional consensus on security as international forces prepared for transition in Afghanistan.
25Polity and Governance
Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) this membership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic
Explanation
India's membership in the Commonwealth of Nations is a voluntary and extra-constitutional association that does not entail any legal or formal obligations to the British Crown. During the London Declaration of 1949, it was established that while the British Monarch serves as the symbolic Head of the Commonwealth, this role does not grant any constitutional or political authority over member states. Consequently, India maintains its status as a fully sovereign Republic with its own independent domestic and foreign policies. The association is based on mutual cooperation among independent nations, ensuring that the republican character of the Indian state, where the Head of State is an elected President, remains completely unaffected by its participation in the organization.
26Science and Technology
A body is charged negatively. It implies that
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) it has acquired some electrons from outside
Explanation
In the process of electrification, only electrons are transferred between bodies because they are relatively loosely bound in the outer shells of atoms, whereas protons are held firmly inside the nucleus by strong nuclear forces. An object is electrically neutral when it contains an equal number of protons and electrons. When a body acquires or gains additional electrons from an external source, the negative charge of the extra electrons exceeds the positive charge of the protons, resulting in a net negative charge on the body.
27Geography
In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes smaller. It is so to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) reduce transpiration
Explanation
)
In arid and semi-arid environments, plants face significant water scarcity and high atmospheric temperatures. Transpiration is the process through which water vapor is lost from the plant, primarily through the stomata located on the leaf surfaces. The rate of this water loss is directly proportional to the total surface area of the foliage. By reducing leaf size, a phenomenon common in xerophytic plants, the tree minimizes the surface area exposed to heat and wind. This morphological adaptation effectively limits the amount of water lost to the atmosphere, allowing the plant to conserve its internal water reserves and survive in conditions where moisture is limited.
28Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not correct?
A special category State invariably
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) has low literacy rate
Explanation
The Special Category Status (SCS) was introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. The National Development Council designated certain states for this status based on a specific set of criteria known as the Gadgil-Mukherjee formula. These criteria include hilly and difficult terrain, low population density or a sizeable share of tribal population, strategic location along international borders, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable nature of state finances. A low literacy rate was never an official criterion for granting this status. Many states that have historically held Special Category Status, such as Mizoram and Himachal Pradesh, actually possess literacy rates that are significantly higher than the national average, proving that low literacy is not an invariable feature of such states.
29Science and Technology
Which one among the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Thioethanol
Explanation
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), which primarily consists of propane and butane, is naturally colorless and odorless. To ensure safety and facilitate the detection of potentially dangerous leaks, a potent odorant is added to the mixture. The chemical used is Ethyl Mercaptan, also known as Ethanethiol or Thioethanol. This sulfur-based organic compound possesses a distinctive, pungent, and unpleasant smell similar to rotting cabbage or garlic. Because the human nose is highly sensitive to sulfur compounds, Thioethanol can be detected at extremely low concentrations, providing an immediate warning of a gas leak before the concentration reaches an explosive level.
30History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Event)
A. Tarmashirin Khan's invasion of India
B. Visit of Farnao Martinz Evangelho, the Portuguese factor
C. Visit of the traveler Nuniz
D. Network of canals in Kashmir Valley
List-II (Place/Person)
Vijayanagar
Zainul Abidin
Champaner
Muhammad Tughlaq
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
A matches 4 because Tarmashirin Khan, the Chagatai Khan, led a significant Mongol invasion into northern India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq around 1328-29.
B matches 3 because Fernao Martinz Evangelho was a Portuguese factor sent as an envoy to the court of the Sultan of Gujarat at Champaner in 1517 to negotiate trade interests.
C matches 1 because Fernao Nuniz was a Portuguese traveler and chronicler who visited the Vijayanagar Empire in the 16th century and provided detailed accounts of its socio-political life.
D matches 2 because Sultan Zainul Abidin, known as the Akbar of Kashmir, is credited with transforming the agricultural landscape of the Kashmir Valley by constructing an extensive network of irrigation canals.
31Geography
A devastating Cloud Burst swept over Leh on August 2010. Which one of the following statements with regard to Cloud Burst is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Cloud Burst occurs only in hilly areas
Explanation
Cloud bursts are defined by the intensity of precipitation rather than the specific geography where they occur. While they are frequently associated with hilly or mountainous regions because the terrain facilitates the rapid orographic lifting of moisture-laden air required to form deep cumulonimbus clouds, they are not exclusive to such areas. A cloud burst can occur in the plains if there is intense convective activity and sufficient moisture convergence. For instance, the extreme rainfall event in Mumbai in July 2005 demonstrated that high-intensity, localized downpours characteristic of cloud bursts can happen in coastal and flat regions when atmospheric conditions are favorable. Therefore, the assertion that they occur only in hilly areas is meteorologically incorrect.
32Science and Technology
Evergreening of patents is done by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) citing another use of the same product
Explanation
Evergreening of patents refers to the strategy used by pharmaceutical companies and other patent holders to extend their market monopoly beyond the original 20-year patent term. This is done by filing for new patents on minor, incremental changes to an existing product as the original patent nears expiration. One of the primary methods for achieving this is citing another use of the same product, where a company patents a new therapeutic indication or a secondary medical use for a known chemical entity.
This practice effectively blocks generic competition and allows the company to continue charging premium prices. In India, the Patents Act, 1970 (specifically Section 3(d)), was amended in 2005 to curb evergreening. It stipulates that the mere discovery of a new use for a known substance, or the discovery of a new form of a known substance that does not significantly enhance its known efficacy, is not patentable. Thus, attempting to obtain a new patent by claiming a different use for the same product is the hallmark of the evergreening process.
33Polity and Governance
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States to effect amendment?
1. The manner of election of the President of India
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the States
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Article 368 of the Constitution of India mandates that amendments to certain provisions affecting the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament followed by ratification by the legislatures of at least one-half of the States. The manner of election of the President under Articles 54 and 55 is included to protect the States' role in the electoral college. The extent of the executive power of the Union and the States, governed by Articles 73 and 162, is similarly protected to prevent unilateral expansion of authority. Provisions relating to the Supreme Court and High Courts, found in Chapter IV of Part V and Chapter V of Part VI, require state consent to safeguard judicial independence and federal jurisdiction. Finally, any changes to the Seventh Schedule, which distributes legislative subjects between the Union and the States, must be ratified by the states to preserve the constitutional division of powers.
34Science and Technology
Which one among the following substances evolves heat when dissolved in water?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Calcium oxide
Explanation
Calcium oxide (CaO), commonly known as quicklime, reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂) in a process referred to as the slaking of lime. This reaction is highly exothermic, meaning it involves the evolution of a significant amount of heat. The energy released during the formation of the new chemical bonds and the hydration of the ions is much greater than the energy required to break the ionic lattice of the calcium oxide, causing the temperature of the solution to rise sharply.
35History
Consider the following passage and identify the three tribal principalities referred to therein using the code given below:
In the early history of the far south in India, three tribal principalities are mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions of the third century BC and in Kharavela inscription of the first century BC.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras
Explanation
The Major Rock Edicts II and XIII of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BC) specifically name the Cholas, Pandyas, and Keralaputras (Cheras) as independent neighbors on the southern borders of the empire. These three powers are collectively referred to as the Muvendar in Sangam literature. Furthermore, the Hathigumpha inscription of King Kharavela of Kalinga (1st century BC) records his victory over a confederacy of Tamil states (Tramira-desa-sanghatam) that had existed for 113 years, which historically corresponds to the alliance of these three principalities. Together, these inscriptions provide the earliest epigraphic evidence for the existence of the Chola, Pandya, and Chera kingdoms in the far south of India.
36Polity and Governance
Why is Switzerland unable to join European Union (EU) till date (2010) despite its government's persistent effort to do so?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) The Swiss people continue to vote against joining the EU as they do not want to lose Switzerland's sovereignty
Explanation
Switzerland operates under a system of direct democracy that grants the electorate the power to decide on major constitutional changes and international treaties through referendums. Although the Swiss federal government submitted an application for European Union membership in 1992, the process was effectively frozen after Swiss voters rejected participation in the European Economic Area (EEA) in a December 1992 referendum. Subsequent attempts to revive membership negotiations, such as the 2001 popular initiative Yes to Europe!, were overwhelmingly defeated by the public, with over 76 percent voting against it. The Swiss populace remains cautious about EU membership due to concerns that it would undermine national sovereignty, compromise Switzerland's long-standing policy of neutrality, and transfer legislative authority from the Swiss people and cantons to centralized institutions in Brussels. Consequently, Switzerland maintains its relationship with the EU through a series of complex bilateral agreements rather than full membership.
37Economy
Eco-Mark is given to an Indian product which is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) environment-friendly
Explanation
The Eco-Mark scheme was instituted by the Government of India in 1991 to identify and certify products that have a reduced negative impact on the ecosystem. Administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the scheme aims to encourage consumers to purchase products that are less harmful to the environment. The symbol for the Eco-Mark is an earthen pot, which represents the use of renewable resources and the biodegradable nature of traditional Indian materials. To receive this certification, a product must meet specific environmental criteria alongside the quality requirements of the relevant Indian Standards, ensuring that it is manufactured and disposed of in a sustainable manner.
38Science and Technology
When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This is actually not water but fluid secreted from
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) salivary glands
Explanation
The fluid produced when the mouth waters is saliva, which is secreted by the salivary glands. There are three major pairs of these glands: the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands. Salivation is an involuntary reflex triggered by the autonomic nervous system in response to the sight, smell, or even the thought of food. Saliva consists primarily of water but also contains essential components like mucus, electrolytes, and digestive enzymes such as ptyalin (salivary amylase). These substances help to lubricate food for easier swallowing and begin the chemical process of breaking down starches into simpler sugars.
39Economy
Along with goods manufactured using child labour, some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in developing countries using 'sweat labour'. 'Sweat labour' implies goods produced by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) labourers working in inhuman/unhealthy working conditions
Explanation
Sweat labour refers to the employment of workers in sweatshops, which are manufacturing environments defined by extremely poor, unhealthy, and inhuman working conditions. These conditions often involve violations of basic labour laws, such as a lack of proper ventilation, exposure to hazardous substances, inadequate sanitation, and the absence of safety equipment. While low wages and long hours are common features of such employment, the term specifically highlights the physical and environmental hardships that pose a threat to the health and dignity of the labourers. International trade discussions use this term to identify goods produced in settings where fundamental human rights regarding workplace safety and hygiene are ignored, often prompting boycotts from developed nations to enforce global labour standards.
40Economy
Consider the following statements with regard to the mining industry of India :
1. The spatial distribution of minerals is uneven.
2. The mining industry since colonial days has been exportoriented.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
India's mineral resources are concentrated in specific geological formations, primarily the peninsular plateau region, while the northern plains and the Himalayan belt are largely devoid of significant metallic mineral deposits. This geological variation results in a highly uneven spatial distribution across the country. Historically, the British developed the Indian mining sector to feed the industrial requirements of the United Kingdom, establishing a framework geared toward the extraction and shipment of raw materials. This trend persisted post-independence, where India continued to leverage its vast reserves of iron ore, manganese, and bauxite as key export commodities to earn foreign exchange and support global industrial demand, particularly in markets like Japan and China.
41Economy
Which one among the following groups of items contains only biodegradable items?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Wood, Grass, Leather
Explanation
Biodegradable substances are those materials that can be decomposed by the biological activity of microorganisms like bacteria and fungi into simple, harmless substances that return to the environment. Wood and grass are plant-based materials composed primarily of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin, which are easily broken down by various decomposers. Leather is an organic material derived from the skin and hides of animals; although the tanning process slows down its decay, it remains a biologically sourced material that eventually undergoes microbial degradation. These three items represent a group where every component is capable of being naturally recycled by the ecosystem.
42Economy
Which one among the following is not true for Special Economic Zones?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) No permission for subcontracting
Explanation
Under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and the SEZ Rules, 2006, SEZ units are explicitly permitted to subcontract part of their production process or any specific production activity to units in the Domestic Tariff Area or to other SEZ units. This facility is provided to enhance the operational flexibility and competitiveness of the units. Since the regulatory framework allows for such subcontracting arrangements subject to prescribed procedures, the claim that there is no permission for subcontracting is factually incorrect within the context of SEZ policy.
43History
Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the code given below the person who made the statement :
It would be quite impossible for a few hundred British to administer against the active opposition of the whole of the politically minded of the population.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Clement Attlee in January 1947 in a private letter addressed to Ernest Bevin
Explanation
Clement Attlee, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, made this statement in a private letter to Ernest Bevin, the Foreign Secretary, on January 2, 1947. Attlee was assessing the precarious state of British rule in India following World War II, noting the severe depletion of British personnel in the Indian Civil Service and the shifting loyalties of Indian administrative and military forces. He concluded that it was no longer feasible to maintain control over a vast population that was politically awakened and actively opposed to colonial rule, which necessitated a swift and definitive plan for the transfer of power. This internal consensus led to the historic February 20, 1947, declaration regarding the British intention to leave India by June 1948.
44Science and Technology
Sukhoi-30MKI Squadron is not stationed at
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jamnagar
Explanation
Jamnagar Air Force Station in Gujarat is a major base under the Western Air Command, but it was not a permanent home station for a Sukhoi-30MKI squadron as of 2011. At that time, the base primarily operated Jaguar deep-penetration strike aircraft and MiG-29 air superiority fighters. While Jamnagar serves as a critical forward operating base and frequently hosts different aircraft types for training exercises and maritime operations, the induction and permanent basing of the Sukhoi-30MKI fleet were prioritized at other strategic locations to provide specialized coverage for the northern, northeastern, and central sectors.
45Science and Technology
Dog bite can cause rabies. Which among the following other animals can also cause rabies?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Bat
Explanation
Rabies is a zoonotic viral disease caused by the Lyssavirus, which infects the central nervous system of warm-blooded animals, specifically mammals. Bats are well-documented primary reservoirs and vectors of the rabies virus globally. Because they are mammals, they can carry and transmit the virus through their saliva, typically via bites or scratches. In many regions, bats are identified as a significant source of rabies transmission to humans and other animals. The virus remains endemic in various bat species, making them a major ecological source of the disease alongside other wild mammals like foxes and raccoons.
46Science and Technology
In scuba-diving, while ascending towards the water surface, there is a danger of bursting the lungs. It is because of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Boyle's law
Explanation
Boyle's law states that for a given mass of gas at a constant temperature, the volume of the gas is inversely proportional to its pressure (P ∝ 1/V or PV = k). As a scuba diver ascends toward the water surface, the external hydrostatic pressure exerted by the surrounding water decreases. According to Boyle's law, this reduction in pressure causes the volume of the air trapped inside the lungs to expand. If a diver fails to exhale or holds their breath during the ascent, the rapidly expanding air cannot escape, leading to over-expansion and the potential rupture of the lung tissues, a condition referred to as pulmonary barotrauma.
47History
Which one among the following was part of Gandhi-Irwin Agreement of 1931?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Release of political prisoners excepting those guilty of arson and violence
Explanation
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, included a specific provision for the immediate release of all political prisoners who were not convicted of acts of violence. This clause excluded individuals involved in arson, murder, or physical assault, which was a point of significant contention regarding the fate of revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh. As part of this agreement, the Indian National Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference. The British government, in return, agreed to withdraw all ordinances promulgated to curb the movement and release non-violent protesters from custody.
48Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the name of the Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEWACS) inducted in the Indian Air Force in 2009?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Phalcon
Explanation
The Phalcon Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEWACS) was officially inducted into the Indian Air Force in May 2009. This strategic asset consists of the Israeli EL/W-2090 radar suite mounted on the Russian Ilyushin Il-76 heavy-lift transport aircraft. The system provides 360-degree radar coverage, allowing the Indian Air Force to detect and track incoming aircraft, cruise missiles, and other threats over hundreds of kilometers. It serves as a force multiplier by providing long-range surveillance and functioning as a tactical command and control center for directing aerial combat operations, significantly improving situational awareness and air defense readiness.
49Economy
Which one among the following industries produces the most nonbiodegradable wastes?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Thermal power plants
Explanation
Thermal power plants are the primary producers of non-biodegradable waste because they generate massive quantities of fly ash, bottom ash, and slag during the combustion of coal. Fly ash consists of inorganic mineral constituents such as silica (SiO₂), alumina (Al₂O₃), and ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃), which are chemically stable and do not undergo biological decomposition. In India, coal-based power generation is the largest industrial sector, and the volume of solid fly ash produced annually runs into hundreds of millions of tonnes. This inorganic residue remains in the environment indefinitely unless utilized in brick-making or cement production, making thermal power plants the largest source of non-biodegradable industrial solid waste compared to other manufacturing sectors.
50Geography
Why South-East Asia has the largest concentration of peasant population at the global scale?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Intensive subsistence farming is practised in the region
Explanation
The high concentration of peasant population in South-East Asia is primarily due to the practice of intensive subsistence farming, specifically wet paddy cultivation. This agricultural system is characterized by the intensive use of human labor and high-yield crops on relatively small landholdings. Rice, the staple crop of the region, produces more calories per acre than most other cereals and requires significant manual labor for activities such as terracing, transplanting, and irrigation management. The fertile alluvial soils of river valleys and deltas, combined with the consistent moisture provided by the monsoon climate, allow for multiple cropping cycles annually. This high land productivity supports and sustains the dense rural populations found across the region.
51Economy
Brent index is associated with
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) crude oil prices
Explanation
Brent index is a major classification of sweet light crude oil that serves as a primary benchmark price for purchases of oil worldwide. It is sourced from the North Sea and comprises several different crude oil streams including Brent Blend, Forties, Oseberg, Ekofisk, and Troll. As a global price anchor, it is used to price two-thirds of the world's internationally traded crude oil supplies. The index specifically represents the average price of trading in the 25-day Brent Blend, Forties, Oseberg, Ekofisk market and is widely utilized by oil traders, hedgers, and speculators in the energy markets.
52Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft of India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Tejas
Explanation
Tejas is India's premier indigenously designed and manufactured Light Combat Aircraft (LCA). Developed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) in collaboration with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), it is a fourth-generation, supersonic, multi-role fighter. The project was initiated in the 1980s with the primary goal of achieving self-reliance in aerospace technology and replacing the aging MiG-21 fleet of the Indian Air Force. The aircraft features a tailless, compound delta-wing design and incorporates advanced fly-by-wire flight control systems along with extensive use of composite materials to reduce weight. By early 2011, Tejas achieved a critical milestone by receiving its Initial Operational Clearance (IOC), which paved the way for its formal induction into the Indian Air Force.
53Polity and Governance
The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes
Explanation
The election of the President of India follows the principle of uniform representation of states and parity between the Union and the States. The value of the vote of an MLA is calculated by dividing the total population of the state (as per the 1971 census) by the total number of elected members in the State Legislative Assembly, and then dividing the quotient by 1000. Mathematically, the value of an MLA's vote is expressed as: Value of vote = (Total population of State)/(Total number of elected members in SLA × 1000). Since different states have different populations and a different number of elected members in their respective assemblies, the value of the vote of an MLA varies from state to state. While the value of an MP's vote is uniform, the collective weight of representatives from different states is inherently unequal due to these demographic and constitutional variables.
54History
Which one among the following statements regarding the social and religious reform ideas of Raja Ramnohan Roy is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) He paid attention exclusively to the problems/issues of the emerging middle class of India
Explanation
Raja Rammohun Roy was a pioneer of the Indian Renaissance whose reformist vision encompassed the whole of Indian society rather than being restricted exclusively to the interests of the emerging middle class. While he was indeed a product and leader of the new intelligentsia, his most significant social contribution was the crusade against the practice of Sati, a systemic social evil affecting women across various social strata. Furthermore, in his communications with the British government, such as his observations on the revenue system of India, he staunchly advocated for the rights of the impoverished peasantry (ryots) against the oppressive demands of the Zamindars. His advocacy for the freedom of the press, modern scientific education, and judicial reforms like the jury system was intended to benefit the general Indian public and lay the groundwork for a modern, liberal nation.
55Economy
Which among the following monoculture crops provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers?
1. Tea in Assam
2. Rubber in Africa
3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
4. Coffee in Brazil
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
Tea in Assam and Coffee in Brazil are primary examples of plantation agriculture, a type of commercial farming where a single crop is grown on a large scale for the purpose of sale in the market. These are classified as cash crops because they are cultivated specifically to generate profit and provide immediate financial returns once the harvest is processed and sold. In Assam, tea is a dominant monoculture that supports the regional economy through direct sales and exports. In Brazil, coffee production on large estates known as fazendas has historically been the backbone of the country's export economy, oriented entirely toward the global market to ensure high cash liquidity for producers. These crops are characterized by high capital investment and a focus on trade rather than local consumption.
56Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Natural Vegetation (Annual Rainfall of India Received)
A. Tropical 1. 100-200 cm evergreen forests
B. Tropical deciduous forests 2. Above 200 cm
C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm
D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm
5. 50-100 cm
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2 1 5 3
Explanation
Tropical evergreen forests correspond to rainfall above 200 cm because these regions provide the high moisture levels and temperature necessary for dense, multi-layered vegetation.
Tropical deciduous forests correspond to rainfall of 100-200 cm, which is the standard climatic requirement for the moist deciduous forests that constitute the most widespread forest type in India.
Tropical dry forests correspond to rainfall of 50-100 cm, covering transitional areas where deciduous species give way to drought-resistant vegetation.
Arid forests correspond to rainfall of less than 50 cm, defining the xerophytic thorn and scrub species adapted to the desert and semi-desert conditions of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
57Science and Technology
Which one of the following is nuclear- capable submarine- launched ballistic missile?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sagarika
Explanation
Sagarika, also designated as K-15, is an indigenous nuclear-capable submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Designed to provide India with a sea-based nuclear deterrent, it represents the naval leg of the country's nuclear triad. The missile has a range of approximately 750 kilometers and was specifically engineered for deployment on the Arihant-class nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines. By early 2008, Sagarika had successfully completed underwater launch trials from a submerged pontoon, demonstrating the technology required to launch a missile from beneath the ocean surface.
58Science and Technology
Which of the following diseases are transmitted from one person to another?
1. AIDS
2. Cirrhosis
3. Hepatitis B
4. Syphilis
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
AIDS, Hepatitis B, and Syphilis are communicable diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another through various modes of contact. AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and is spread through infected blood, sexual fluids, or from mother to child during pregnancy or childbirth. Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection caused by the organism Treponema pallidum. In contrast, Cirrhosis is a non-communicable clinical condition characterized by the irreversible scarring of the liver. While cirrhosis can be a consequence of transmissible infections like Hepatitis B or C, the condition itself is a physiological state of organ damage resulting from chronic factors like alcoholism or long-term disease and cannot be passed between individuals.
59Geography
Photochemical smog occurs in
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) warm, dry and sunny climate
Explanation
Photochemical smog, also known as Los Angeles smog, is a secondary pollutant formed through the reaction of solar ultraviolet radiation with primary pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). The formation process requires high-intensity sunlight to trigger the photolysis of nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), which eventually leads to the production of ozone (O₃), peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), and various aldehydes. These chemical reactions are significantly accelerated by high ambient temperatures and are most effective in stable, dry air where pollutants are not dispersed by rain or high humidity. Therefore, photochemical smog typically develops in urban environments characterized by warm, dry, and sunny climatic conditions during peak daylight hours.
60History
The interest of the Vijayanagar and Bahmani rulers clashed in three separate and distinct areas in Deccan. Which one among the following was not directly associated with this intense conflict?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Kaveri interior delta
Explanation
The geopolitical conflict between the Vijayanagar Empire and the Bahmani Sultanate was primarily concentrated in the northern Deccan frontier, where their territories met. The three specific regions of intense, recurring struggle were the Tungabhadra doab, the Krishna-Godavari delta, and the Marathawada country. The Tungabhadra doab, the fertile tract between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers, was contested for its agricultural productivity. The Krishna-Godavari delta was fought over for its extreme fertility and control over the strategic ports of the eastern coast. The Marathawada country, including the Konkan region and Goa, was a point of contention because control over these western ports was crucial for the import of high-quality Arabian horses, which were vital for the military strength of both empires. In contrast, the Kaveri interior delta was located far to the south in the Tamil heartland, well within the consolidated territory of the Vijayanagar Empire and away from the Bahmani borders, making it irrelevant to their direct bilateral conflicts.
61Geography
Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) convection current of air
Explanation
Wind is primarily caused by differences in atmospheric pressure, which on a hot summer day are generated by the process of convection. As the Sun heats the Earth surface, the air directly above it gains thermal energy and expands. This expansion reduces the air density, causing it to rise and create a localized region of low pressure. Cooler, denser air from higher-pressure areas then moves horizontally to occupy the space vacated by the rising warm air. This continuous cycle of rising warm air and infilling cool air establishes convection currents, which results in the mass movement of air that we perceive as wind.
62Polity and Governance
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) disputes between the Government of India and one or more States
Explanation
Article 131 of the Constitution of India defines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, positioning it as the exclusive arbiter in federal disputes. This jurisdiction allows the Court to hear cases in the first instance that involve the Government of India and one or more States, or disputes between two or more States. For a case to fall under this category, the dispute must involve a question of law or fact upon which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. This ensures that conflicts between the constituent units of the Indian federation are resolved at the highest judicial level to maintain constitutional order.
63History
Which one among the following was not a reform measure carried out by Mahmud Gawan of Bahmani Kingdom?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) A tract of land, Khalisa, was set apart for the expenses of the Tarafdar
Explanation
Mahmud Gawan's administrative reforms were primarily aimed at centralizing the authority of the Sultan and curbing the autonomy of the provincial governors known as Tarafdars. While he did introduce the concept of Khalisa land within each of the eight provinces, this land was specifically reserved for the central government and the Sultan's treasury. The revenue from Khalisa tracts was used to fund the central administration and the royal household, effectively reducing the financial resources available to the Tarafdars. By taking a portion of the provincial land out of the governor's control, Gawan ensured that the Tarafdars could not maintain private armies large enough to challenge the central authority. Therefore, the Khalisa land was intended to weaken the Tarafdars' influence rather than provide for their expenses.
64Science and Technology
Heavy water implies
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) deuterated water
Explanation
Heavy water, scientifically known as deuterium oxide (D₂O), is a form of water where the hydrogen atoms are replaced by deuterium (²H or D), an isotope of hydrogen. While the nucleus of a standard hydrogen atom (protium) contains only a proton, the nucleus of a deuterium atom contains both a proton and a neutron. This addition of a neutron nearly doubles the mass of the hydrogen atom, resulting in water that is approximately 11% denser than ordinary (H₂O) water. Due to its unique ability to slow down neutrons without absorbing them significantly, deuterated water is extensively used as a moderator and coolant in nuclear reactors.
65Economy
According to Goldman Sachs' review of emerging economies, by 2050 which one of the following would be the order of the largest economies in the world?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) China-USA-India-Brazil-Mexico
Explanation
The Goldman Sachs report titled Dreaming with BRICs: The Path to 2050 and its subsequent updates projected a significant shift in global economic power based on demographic trends, capital accumulation, and productivity growth. The analysis predicted that China would overtake the United States to become the world's largest economy by approximately 2027. By the year 2050, the report estimated the top rankings in terms of GDP in US dollars would be led by China, followed by the United States and India. Among the other emerging giants, Brazil was expected to secure the fourth position, while Mexico was projected to follow in the fifth spot, as these nations were anticipated to significantly outpace the growth rates of most traditional G7 economies.
66Science and Technology
Most of the communication satellites today are placed in a geostationary orbit. In order to stay over the same spot on the Earth, a geostationary satellite has to be directly above the
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Equator
Explanation
A geostationary orbit is a specific type of geosynchronous orbit that is circular and lies exactly in the Earth's equatorial plane. For a satellite to appear stationary relative to a fixed point on the ground, its orbital period must match the Earth's sidereal rotation period, and its orbital inclination must be zero. If a satellite were placed in an orbit above any other latitude, such as the Tropics or the Poles, the Earth's gravitational pull toward the center of mass would cause the satellite to cross the Equator twice per orbit, resulting in a north-south oscillation relative to the ground. Only by orbiting directly above the Equator can the satellite maintain a constant position in the sky, as its orbital path perfectly aligns with the Earth's direction of rotation.
67Polity and Governance
SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) India and Singapore
Explanation
SIMBEX is an acronym for Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise. It is an annual naval exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy. The engagement began in 1994 and was originally focused on anti-submarine warfare. Over the years, the scope of the exercise has expanded significantly to include advanced maritime security operations, air defense exercises, and live-fire drills. It stands as one of the longest-running continuous bilateral maritime exercises for the Indian Navy, reflecting the deep strategic partnership and high level of interoperability between the two maritime forces in the Indo-Pacific region.
68Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
Explanation
The Speaker Pro-Tem is appointed by the President of India under Article 95(1) of the Constitution to perform the duties of the Speaker when the office is vacant. This usually occurs after a general election when the previous Speaker vacates office immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha. The primary responsibilities of the Speaker Pro-Tem include presiding over the first sitting of the newly elected House, administering the oath or affirmation to the newly elected members as per Article 99, and enabling the House to elect a permanent Speaker. Once the regular Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro-Tem ceases to exist.
69Economy
The term 'demographic gap' signifies the difference
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) between the birth and the death rate
Explanation
The demographic gap refers to the statistical difference between the birth rate and the death rate within a specific population. This concept is central to the Demographic Transition Model, which describes the historical shift from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops. During the second stage of this transition, improvements in medicine, sanitation, and food security lead to a rapid decline in the death rate, while the birth rate remains high due to social and cultural factors. The resulting divergence between these two rates creates the demographic gap, which directly represents the rate of natural population increase. As the gap widens, the population undergoes a period of rapid growth or a population explosion, which continues until the birth rate eventually falls to align with the lower death rate in later stages of development.
70Science and Technology
Dead organs are generally stored in formalin. Formalin is
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) aqueous formaldehyde
Explanation
Formalin is a saturated solution of formaldehyde gas (HCHO) in water. It typically consists of approximately 37% to 40% formaldehyde by weight. This aqueous solution is widely used as a biological preservative and disinfectant because it acts as a chemical fixative. When tissues or dead organs are immersed in formalin, the formaldehyde molecules create cross-links between the proteins in the cells, specifically by forming methylene bridges between amino groups. This process stabilizes the cellular structure, prevents autolysis (self-digestion by enzymes), and inhibits the growth of bacteria and fungi, thereby preserving the specimen for long-term medical or scientific study.
71Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not true regarding the draft National Food Security Bill?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) The distribution will be on universal entitlement by ensuring coverage of every adult under the public distribution scheme
Explanation
The draft National Food Security Bill rejected the concept of universal entitlement, which would have ensured coverage for every adult or every household in India. Instead, the framework developed in 2011 relied on a targeted system, dividing the population into priority and general categories based on specific inclusion and exclusion criteria. While the National Advisory Council had proposed high coverage levels, the government bill maintained limits on the percentage of the population eligible for subsidized grains to balance food security goals with fiscal constraints and logistical feasibility. Consequently, the distribution was never intended to be universal for every adult.
72Science and Technology
When items of jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of gold is deposited by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) passing an electric current
Explanation
The process of depositing a thin layer of gold onto a base metal like copper or nickel is known as electroplating. This technique involves an electrolytic cell where the jewellery item acts as the cathode and the gold salt solution serves as the electrolyte. When an electric current is passed through the system, gold ions in the solution migrate toward the negatively charged cathode. At the surface of the jewellery, these gold ions undergo reduction by gaining electrons to form solid gold atoms, which then adhere to the metal surface as a thin, uniform film. This electrochemical reaction requires a continuous flow of electricity to drive the deposition of the gold layer.
73Science and Technology
Due to contraction of eyeball, a long- sighted eye can see only
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) farther objects which is corrected by using convex lens
Explanation
Long-sightedness, also known as hypermetropia, occurs when the eyeball is too short due to contraction along its axis or when the lens has insufficient curvature. Because the distance between the lens and the retina is reduced, light rays from nearby objects do not converge quickly enough and instead form an image behind the retina. This results in blurred vision for close-up tasks while distant or farther objects remain clear because the light rays from them are parallel and require less refractive power to focus. To correct this condition, a convex lens is used. The convex lens acts as a converging lens that pre-refracts incoming light rays, increasing the total converging power of the eye's optical system and bringing the focal point forward onto the retina.
74Economy
To boost India's power-generating capacity, the Jawaharlal Nehru Solar Mission was launched in India in January 2010. Which of the following statements regarding this Mission is/are correct?
1. India is fast exhausting reserves of fossil fuel resources.
2. Solar energy is a clean source of energy.
3. India lacks technology for development of other alternative sources of power generation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission was launched as a major initiative under the National Action Plan on Climate Change to promote ecologically sustainable growth while addressing India's long-term energy security. The mission was driven by the fact that India’s domestic reserves of fossil fuels are limited and are being exhausted rapidly, leading to a high reliance on expensive energy imports. By shifting toward solar power, India aimed to diversify its energy mix. Additionally, solar energy is a clean, renewable, and carbon-neutral source of energy, making it a critical component for mitigating climate change and reducing the environmental degradation caused by conventional thermal power plants.
75History
Which of the following statements about Fourth Anglo-Mysore War are correct?
1. The Madras Council suggested a policy of rigorous and intense attack on Mysore.
2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive the Triple Alliance.
3. Tipu sent emissaries to Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius and Kabul enlisting support against the English.
4. The War was of a very short duration though decisive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Lord Wellesley arrived in India in 1798 with the primary objective of eliminating French influence and neutralizing Tipu Sultan. To achieve this, he actively sought to revive the Triple Alliance of 1790 between the British, the Nizam of Hyderabad, and the Marathas. While the Nizam joined through the Subsidiary Alliance, the Marathas remained non-committal but Wellesley proceeded with the coalition framework.
Tipu Sultan had been engaged in extensive diplomatic efforts to secure international support against the British. He sent emissaries to the Sultan of Rum (Ottoman Empire) in Arabia, the French Directory and Napoleon, the Governor of Mauritius (Isle of France), and Zaman Shah of Kabul. The discovery of this correspondence, particularly the Jacobin Club links and the arrival of a small French force from Mauritius, served as the immediate justification for Wellesley’s declaration of war.
The war itself was remarkably brief but highly decisive. It commenced in March 1799 and concluded within two months on May 4, 1799, with the fall of Seringapatam. The conflict ended with the death of Tipu Sultan on the battlefield, the complete destruction of the Mysore Sultanate's power, and the restoration of the Wodeyar dynasty under a subsidiary alliance.
76Geography
Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many arctic birds and fish. However, under natural conditions, no one found polar bears predating any penguin. This is because
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural conditions. The former lives in the North Pole while the latter lives in the South Pole
Explanation
Polar bears and penguins occupy entirely different geographical regions of the Earth, preventing them from ever encountering each other in the wild. Polar bears are native to the Arctic Circle and surrounding landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. In contrast, penguins are found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere, primarily in Antarctica and sub-Antarctic islands. Because these two species are separated by thousands of miles and different climatic zones, they do not coexist in any natural ecosystem, which is why polar bears are never found preying on penguins.
77History
Which of the following statements regarding the American Revolution is/are correct?
1. The American Revolution was a conflict between British settlers and native Americans.
2. The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament in which the Americans had no representation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The American Revolution was fundamentally driven by the political principle that the British government could not legally tax the American colonists because the colonists were not represented in the British Parliament. This grievance was famously summarized by the slogan No taxation without representation. Following the costly French and Indian War, Great Britain sought to raise revenue through acts like the Stamp Act (1765) and the Tea Act (1773). The colonists argued that according to the Bill of Rights 1689, only their own provincial assemblies had the authority to levy taxes on them. The persistence of the British Parliament in asserting its right to tax the colonies without their consent led to widespread civil unrest, the formation of the Continental Congress, and eventually the outbreak of armed conflict in 1775.
78Science and Technology
Viewfinders, used in automobiles to locate the position of the vehicles behind, are made of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) convex mirror
Explanation
Convex mirrors are used as viewfinders or rearview mirrors in automobiles because they provide a significantly wider field of view compared to other mirror types. Due to their outward curvature, these mirrors diverge light rays, allowing them to capture images from a broader area. They consistently produce an erect and diminished virtual image of objects, regardless of the distance of the following vehicles. This combination of an upright image and a wide-angle perspective enables drivers to monitor a large portion of the traffic and road conditions behind them within a compact mirror surface.
79Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. India has a published nuclear doctrine.
2. The doctrine advocates 'no-first-use' policy.
3. The authority to release nuclear weapons for use resides in the person of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
India officially adopted and published its nuclear doctrine in January 2003. A central tenet of this doctrine is the commitment to a No First Use (NFU) policy, which stipulates that India will only use nuclear weapons in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or Indian forces anywhere. However, the authority to authorize the use of nuclear weapons does not reside with the President. Instead, it is vested in the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA). The NCA comprises an Executive Council and a Political Council; the Political Council, which is chaired by the Prime Minister, is the sole body empowered to authorize the use of nuclear weapons. Since statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect, the answer is b).
80Art and Culture
Which one among the following statements regarding Rabindranath Tagore's concern for the natural world and environment is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Tagore's concern about the environment was activated by pragmatic and utilitarian considerations
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore's environmental philosophy was fundamentally rooted in spiritual, aesthetic, and ethical values rather than pragmatic or utilitarian ones. He believed in the concept of Tapovan, where humans coexist in harmony with the natural world to achieve a higher consciousness. Tagore explicitly criticized the modern industrial drive to exploit nature for material gain, viewing such a mechanistic and utilitarian approach as a form of human greed that leads to spiritual desolation. His concerns were driven by the belief that nature is a source of joy, beauty, and truth, and he advocated for a relationship of love and reciprocity with the earth, which stands in direct contrast to the resource-based utilitarianism of the industrial age.
81Polity and Governance
Which one among the following was the objective of starting the Nirmal Gram Puraskar incentive scheme?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Encourage Panchayati Raj Institutions to take up sanitation promotion for attaining 100% open defecation-free environment
Explanation
The Nirmal Gram Puraskar was introduced by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation in 2003 as an incentive component of the Total Sanitation Campaign. Its specific objective was to motivate Panchayati Raj Institutions to achieve full sanitation coverage and an open defecation-free status within their jurisdictions. The award recognized local bodies that successfully ensured 100 percent household toilet coverage, proper school and anganwadi sanitation, and effective management of solid and liquid waste. By providing financial incentives and public recognition, the scheme aimed to transform sanitation into a community-led movement, prioritizing the elimination of open defecation at the grassroots level.
82Science and Technology
Why do you feel cool under a tree but not so under a tin shed on a sunny day?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The leaves give out water which vaporizes absorbing some heat as latent heat
Explanation
The cooling effect under a tree is primarily due to the process of transpiration. Trees release liquid water through the stomata in their leaves, which then evaporates into water vapor in the surrounding air. This phase change from liquid to gas requires energy, known as the latent heat of vaporization. The water absorbs this heat from the leaves and the immediate atmosphere, resulting in a significant reduction in temperature. This natural evaporative cooling creates a microclimate that is noticeably cooler than the ambient temperature. Unlike a tin shed, which absorbs and re-radiates solar energy, the living canopy of a tree actively uses thermal energy to drive transpiration, providing a continuous cooling mechanism.
83Polity and Governance
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) was first enforced in the hills of Assam.
2. The AFSPA is enforced in regions notified as 'disturbed area'.
3. Under the provisions of the Act, the Chief Minister of a State can declare the whole State or part of it as 'disturbed area'.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was enacted in 1958 to address the Naga insurgency in the Naga Hills, which were then a part of the state of Assam. Consequently, the act was first enforced in the hilly tracts of Assam to provide special powers to the armed forces in these volatile regions.
Under Section 3 of the Act, the application of AFSPA is contingent upon an area being officially notified as a disturbed area. A region can be declared disturbed when the use of armed forces in aid of civil power is deemed necessary due to large-scale public disorder or insurgency.
The authority to declare an area as disturbed is specifically vested in the Governor of the State, the Administrator of a Union Territory, or the Central Government. While the state government may be consulted, the Chief Minister does not possess the statutory power under AFSPA to issue such a declaration. This power was initially limited to the Governor but was expanded to include the Central Government via an amendment in 1972.
84Science and Technology
Which one among the following would expand the most on being heated?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Air
Explanation
The degree of thermal expansion is determined by the state of matter, where gases expand the most, followed by liquids and then solids. This phenomenon occurs because the intermolecular forces in gases are negligible, allowing molecules to move significantly further apart as their kinetic energy increases during heating. According to the Ideal Gas Law, represented by the formula V = nRT/P, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at constant pressure. Air, being a mixture of gases, possesses a volume expansion coefficient that is much higher than those of liquids or solids. For a given increase in temperature, the increase in volume for air is substantially greater than the expansion observed in substances with stronger molecular bonds or fixed structures.
85Geography
Consider the following statements about black soil of India:
1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet.
2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as well as phosphorus required for the growth of plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Black soils, also known as Regur soils, are characterized by a high proportion of clay, particularly the mineral montmorillonite. This high clay content allows the soil to retain a significant amount of moisture but also causes it to swell and become extremely sticky when wet, which makes manual or mechanical cultivation difficult unless performed immediately after the first rain. During dry periods, the soil shrinks and develops deep cracks, a phenomenon known as self-ploughing. Chemically, black soils in India are generally rich in lime, iron, magnesium, and potash. However, like the majority of soil types found across the Indian subcontinent, they are inherently deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus. They also lack sufficient organic matter. Because statement 1 accurately describes the physical property of the soil and statement 2 incorrectly attributes adequate nitrogen and phosphorus levels to it, only the first statement is correct.
86History
Industrial Revolution in Europe mainly emerged due to
1. locating the production process in the countryside
2. declining of the guilds because of non-farming production coming under a single roof (the factory)
3. growing role of merchant- capitalists in the production process
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Industrial Revolution was preceded by a phase of proto-industrialization where merchant-capitalists moved production to the countryside to bypass the restrictive regulations of urban guilds and tap into cheaper rural labor. These merchant-capitalists took control of the production process by providing raw materials and capital, fundamentally changing the economic structure. As technological innovations progressed, the factory system centralized non-farming production under a single roof to maximize efficiency and leverage power-driven machinery. This transition caused the decline of traditional guilds, as the specialized, large-scale factory model replaced the decentralized handicraft system, completing the shift toward industrial capitalism.
87History
In addition to Macaulay's Minutes on Education, another landmark Draft is also attributed to him. Identify the Draft from the following.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Draft of Indian Penal Code
Explanation
Thomas Babington Macaulay served as the President of the First Law Commission of India, which was established in 1834 under the provisions of the Charter Act of 1833. As the head of this commission, Macaulay was the primary author and drafter of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). He submitted the initial draft to the Governor-General in Council in 1837. The code was designed to provide a uniform, logical, and comprehensive criminal law system for British India, replacing the disparate regulations and customary laws that varied by region and religion. While the implementation of the code was delayed for over two decades due to revisions and the events of 1857, it was finally enacted in 1860 and came into force on January 1, 1862. It continues to serve as the fundamental criminal code of India.
88Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Kiran MK11 : Aerobatic aircraft
2. MI 35 : Attack helicopter
3. Mirage 2000 : Military transport aircraft
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The HJT-16 Kiran MKII is an intermediate jet trainer developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) that gained prominence as the primary aircraft for the Surya Kiran Aerobatic Team (SKAT), performing precision formation flying and aerobatic maneuvers at air shows. The Mi-35 is a specialized twin-engine attack helicopter designed for anti-armor and close air support missions, equipped with a nose-mounted turret gun and various rockets and missiles to engage ground targets. While it can carry a small number of troops, its primary designation and operational role in the Indian Air Force is that of a gunship. The Mirage 2000 is a high-performance multi-role fighter jet used for air defense and strike operations, whereas military transport roles are typically fulfilled by aircraft like the IL-76 or C-130J.
89Geography
If a ship moves from freshwater into seawater, it will
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) rise a little higher
Explanation
According to Archimedes Principle, a floating object displaces a weight of fluid equal to its own weight. This relationship is expressed as W = ρ · g · V, where W is the weight of the ship, ρ is the density of the fluid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and V is the volume of the submerged part of the ship. Seawater has a higher density than freshwater due to the presence of dissolved salts. Since the weight of the ship remains constant, the volume of water displaced must decrease when moving into a denser medium to maintain equilibrium. Therefore, because the density ρ of seawater is greater than that of freshwater, the submerged volume V must be smaller, causing the ship to rise a little higher in the water.
90Polity and Governance
Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity?
1. Common All India Service
2. Single integrated judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Both features are unitary or non-federal characteristics of the Indian Constitution that deviate from the traditional federal model. In a strict federal polity, the center and states have separate administrative services and separate judicial systems to enforce their respective laws. Common All India Services violate this norm because their members are recruited and trained by the Central government but serve in the states, giving the Centre ultimate control over state administration and undermining state autonomy. Similarly, a single integrated judiciary is contrary to federalism because it establishes a unified hierarchy of courts to adjudicate both central and state laws. In classical federations like the United States, there is a dual system of courts where federal courts handle federal matters and state courts handle state matters, whereas the Indian system centralizes judicial authority under the Supreme Court.
91Science and Technology
Rainwater collected after 30 to 40 minutes of raining is not suitable for drinking because it
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) is acidic
Explanation
Rainwater naturally reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂) to produce carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which gives the water an acidic character with a pH of approximately 5.6. Although the first 30 to 40 minutes of rainfall serves to wash away physical contaminants like dust, soot, and bacteria from the air, the water continues to absorb atmospheric gases as it falls through the sky. In many regions, the presence of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from industrial emissions further increases this acidity by forming traces of sulfuric and nitric acids. This persistent acidity, which remains even after the atmosphere has been scrubbed of particulates, makes the water unsuitable for direct consumption as it can disrupt the body's internal pH balance and potentially leach minerals from the skeletal system.
92History
Which one among the following statements about Ashokan Edicts is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The Greek or Aramaic Edicts are versions or translations of the texts used in other Edicts
Explanation
Ashoka utilized a variety of languages and scripts to ensure that his message of Dhamma reached the diverse populations within his vast empire. In the north-western frontier regions, specifically in areas like Kandahar in modern Afghanistan, edicts were inscribed in Greek and Aramaic. A primary example is the Shar-i-Kuna bilingual inscription, which contains texts in both Greek and Aramaic that serve as translations or adaptations of the ethical principles and administrative policies found in the Prakrit-language Major Rock Edicts distributed across the rest of the Indian subcontinent. These versions were intended to make the imperial proclamations regarding non-violence and social conduct accessible to the Hellenistic and Iranian-influenced subjects of those provinces.
93Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
1. The five permanent members of the Security Council are the only countries recognized as nuclear-weapon States under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.
2. The term of non-permanent members of the Council is five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) defines a nuclear-weapon state in Article IX, paragraph 3, as one which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—the United States, Russia (as the successor to the Soviet Union), the United Kingdom, France, and China—are the only countries that meet this specific temporal requirement and are recognized as such under the treaty framework. Regarding the structure of the Security Council, the UN Charter mandates that the non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of two years, making the five-year claim factually incorrect.
94Science and Technology
Mr. X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that such walls
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) help keeping inside cooler in summer and warmer in winter
Explanation
Hollow bricks are designed with air-filled cavities that significantly improve the thermal insulation of a building. Air is a poor conductor of heat, and when trapped within these cavities, it acts as a barrier to heat transfer between the interior and exterior environments. In the summer, these air pockets slow down the conduction of external heat into the house, keeping the inside cooler. During the winter, the same insulating effect prevents internal heat from escaping to the cold outside, keeping the house warmer. This thermal regulation makes the living space more comfortable and enhances energy efficiency by reducing the need for artificial heating and cooling.
95Geography
Mr. X has been invited to participate in a conference to be held at Buenos Aires. He has chosen the following shortest flight route :
Mumbai to Frankfurt (non-stop) Frankfurt to Sao Paulo (non-stop) Sao Paulo to Buenos Aires (non-stop)
Which one of the following seas will likely to be flown over by Mr. X?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Black Sea
Explanation
The flight route from Mumbai to Frankfurt follows a northwesterly trajectory across the Arabian Sea, the Middle East, and Turkey. The Black Sea is located between Western Asia and Southeastern Europe, bordered by Turkey to the south and countries like Romania and Bulgaria to the west. Commercial aviation corridors from India to Central Europe frequently traverse the airspace over or adjacent to the Black Sea. The other options are geographically distant: the Tasman Sea is between Australia and New Zealand, the Labrador Sea is between Greenland and Canada, and the Beaufort Sea is in the Arctic Ocean north of Alaska and Canada. Therefore, the Black Sea is the only water body among the choices that lies along the path of the Mumbai to Frankfurt leg of the journey.
96Polity and Governance
Which among the following statements regarding Lord Ripon's plan for local self-government in India is/are correct?
1. The district should be the maximum area served by one Committee or Local Board.
2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority of nominated official members and be presided over by an official member as Chairman.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Lord Ripon, often called the Father of Local Self-Government in India, introduced the Resolution of 1882 to foster political education through local representative institutions. He proposed that the district should be the maximum area served by one Committee or Local Board, but emphasized that the primary units of administration should be smaller, such as sub-divisions, tehsils, or talukas. This was intended to keep the administration closer to the people.
To ensure the independence of these bodies, Ripon stipulated that the local boards must consist of a large majority of non-official members, specifically at least two-thirds of the total strength. He also recommended that these boards should be presided over by a non-official Chairman whenever possible, as he believed that the government should exercise control from the outside rather than through direct official presence within the committees. Thus, his plan advocated for non-official majorities and leadership, which contradicts the idea of nominated official dominance.
97Economy
Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) It is responsible for the execution of development programmes and plans
Explanation
The Planning Commission was established as an advisory body and a staff agency to the Government of India. Its primary mandate involved assessing the country's resources, formulating Five Year Plans for their most effective and balanced utilization, and identifying factors that could hinder economic growth. However, it lacked executive authority. The actual implementation and execution of development programs and plans were the responsibilities of the respective central ministries and state governments. The Commission provided the framework and recommendations, but it did not have the administrative machinery or legal mandate to carry out the operational aspects of the plans it designed.
98Science and Technology
White blood cells act
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) as a defence against infection
Explanation
White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, serve as the primary component of the body's immune system. Their fundamental role is to protect the organism against both infectious diseases and foreign invaders. They achieve this by identifying, attaching to, and destroying pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi through various specialized mechanisms, including phagocytosis, where the cell engulfs the invader, and the production of specific antibodies. These cells circulate through the bloodstream and lymphatic system, providing a continuous surveillance and defense mechanism against external biological threats.
99Geography
Why do Fold Mountains have enormous thickness of sedimentary rocks?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Due to accumulation of sediments in a geosyncline
Explanation
Fold mountains are characterized by vast thicknesses of sedimentary strata because they originate from sediments deposited in extensive, subsiding marine depressions known as geosynclines. These long, narrow troughs act as massive catchments for sediments eroded from neighboring landmasses over geological timescales. As the weight of the accumulating debris increases, the floor of the geosyncline undergoes gradual subsidence, which creates space for further deposition and allows for the buildup of sedimentary layers that can reach several thousand meters in depth. When lateral tectonic forces eventually compress these deep sedimentary sequences, they are crumpled and pushed upward to form the high peaks and ridges of fold mountain systems.
100Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding India's advocacy for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council:
1. India is the largest democracy in the world.
2. India is among the top five largest growing economies in the world.
3. India has been the largest contributor to the United Nations Peacekeeping Forces.
4. India is one of the top ten contributors of the United Nations Budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
India is the world's largest democracy, representing a significant portion of the global population with a sustained record of democratic governance, which is a central pillar of its claim for a permanent UNSC seat. By 2011, India had also established itself as one of the top five fastest-growing major economies in the world, maintaining high GDP growth rates that underscored its increasing influence in global economic affairs. These two factors—demographic legitimacy and economic dynamism—serve as key justifications for India's pursuit of enhanced representation in the United Nations.
101Science and Technology
Water is a good coolant and is used to cool the engines of cars, buses, trucks, etc. It is because water has a
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) high specific heat
Explanation
Water possesses an exceptionally high specific heat capacity, which is the quantity of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius. For water, this value is approximately 4184 J/kg·K, which is significantly higher than most other common liquids. This property allows water to act as an efficient heat sink, absorbing large amounts of thermal energy generated by the internal combustion engine while undergoing only a relatively small increase in its own temperature. By circulating through the engine, water effectively carries away excess heat to the radiator for dissipation, maintaining the engine within safe operational temperature limits and preventing thermal damage.
102Geography
The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) precious stones and building materials
Explanation
The Vindhyan system of rocks is a vast sedimentary formation in central India primarily composed of sandstone, shale, and limestone. It is highly valued for its high-quality building materials, providing the red sandstone used in the construction of iconic historical monuments such as the Red Fort, Sanchi Stupa, and Jama Masjid. Additionally, this geological system is famous for containing diamondiferous conglomerates, most notably in the Panna region of Madhya Pradesh, which has been a historic source of precious stones in India. The extensive limestone deposits within this system also serve as a crucial raw material for the domestic cement industry.
103Geography
Which of the following best explain why the lower course of a river is sometimes choked with sediments?
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower course.
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is low.
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river's lower course.
4. Much of the river water is drawn for irrigation in the lower course.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The choking of a river's lower course with sediments is driven by the depletion of its kinetic energy and transport capacity. The primary factor is the low velocity of the river, resulting from a very gentle gradient as it approaches base level. According to the sixth power law, a river's competence to move particles is highly dependent on its velocity, so even a slight slowdown leads to massive deposition. The widening of the river valley in its lower course forces the water into a broader and shallower channel, which increases the wetted perimeter and hydraulic friction, further reducing flow speed. Additionally, the intensive withdrawal of water for irrigation significantly decreases the river's discharge, leaving it with insufficient volume to carry its sediment load. The formation of a delta also contributes to this process, as the accumulation of silt at the mouth creates distributaries and physical obstructions that further baffle the flow and trap incoming sediments.
104Science and Technology
Bats can fly in dark because they
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) produce ultrasonic waves
Explanation
Bats utilize a biological sonar system known as echolocation to navigate and hunt in total darkness. They emit high-frequency ultrasonic waves, typically ranging from 20 kHz to over 100 kHz, which are above the limit of human hearing. When these waves strike an object, they bounce back as echoes. By interpreting the time it takes for the echo to return and the shift in its frequency, the bat's brain constructs a detailed spatial map of its surroundings. This allows the bat to detect obstacles and track moving prey with high precision without the need for visual light.
105Geography
The Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical path and the Sun is located at one focus of the ellipse. Imagine a situation in which the Earth goes around the Sun on a circular path. Which one among the following would result in under that situation?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Difference between seasons will be reduced
Explanation
Earth's seasons are primarily caused by the axial tilt of approximately 23.5° relative to its orbital plane. However, the elliptical nature of the orbit means the Earth-Sun distance varies throughout the year, being closest at perihelion (around January 3) and farthest at aphelion (around July 4). This variation in distance results in a change of about 6.7% in the intensity of solar radiation received by the Earth. In the current elliptical model, this distance factor modulates seasonal temperatures—for instance, providing a slight warming effect during the Northern Hemisphere's winter. If the orbit were perfectly circular, the Earth-Sun distance would remain constant. This would eliminate the variations in solar intensity caused by orbital eccentricity, thereby removing one of the components that contributes to the overall difference in seasonal intensity and temperature extremes across the year.
106Geography
Asia has large areas of inland drainage. Why is it so?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) There is a number of inter- montane plateaus
Explanation
Asia's extensive inland drainage system is primarily due to its unique physical geography, characterized by numerous intermontane plateaus and high mountain ranges. Regions like the Tibetan Plateau, the Tarim Basin, and the Iranian Plateau are enclosed by massive mountain chains such as the Himalayas, Kunlun Shan, and Tian Shan. These mountains act as formidable barriers that prevent rivers originating in the interior from finding a path to the surrounding oceans. As a result, the water is forced to drain into internal closed basins, where it either feeds into inland lakes like the Caspian Sea, Aral Sea, and Lake Balkhash, or evaporates in arid desert regions.
107Geography
In the interior of the Earth
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) the temperature rises with increasing depth
Explanation
The temperature within the Earth's interior increases with depth, a phenomenon known as the geothermal gradient. This rise in temperature is primarily driven by two factors: the primordial heat remaining from the planet's initial formation and the continuous heat generated by the radioactive decay of isotopes like Uranium, Thorium, and Potassium within the crust and mantle. Similarly, the pressure also increases with depth due to the cumulative weight of the overlying rock layers exerted by gravity. While both variables increase, the relationship between depth and temperature rise is a fundamental characteristic of the Earth's internal thermal structure, leading to temperatures that reach several thousand degrees Celsius in the core.
108Geography
Currently half of the world's population live in just six countries. Identify them from the following.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) China, India, United States, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
Explanation
In 2011, the global population reached approximately 7 billion people. The six most populous nations at that time were China, India, the United States, Indonesia, Brazil, and Pakistan. These countries collectively housed nearly 3.5 billion people, representing approximately 50 percent of the total world population. China and India were the primary contributors, with populations of roughly 1.34 billion and 1.21 billion respectively. The United States followed with approximately 312 million, Indonesia with 238 million, Brazil with 197 million, and Pakistan with 177 million. The demographic concentration in these six nations meant that nearly every second person on the planet was a resident of one of these countries during that period.
109Science and Technology
Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with a white piece of cloth while the other half with a black one. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Ice melts more easily under black wrap
Explanation
Black surfaces are superior absorbers of thermal radiation compared to white surfaces. In the presence of ambient light or heat, a black cloth absorbs a significantly higher percentage of incident radiant energy and converts it into thermal energy. Conversely, white cloth reflects most of the incident radiation. The increased heat absorption by the black wrap facilitates a faster transfer of thermal energy to the ice, providing the latent heat of fusion required for the melting process more efficiently than the white wrap. This difference in absorption coefficients results in the ice melting more rapidly under the black cloth.
110Science and Technology
Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) vectors
Explanation
In epidemiology, vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious pathogens between humans, or from animals to humans. Many of these vectors are blood-sucking insects, which ingest disease-producing microorganisms during a blood meal from an infected host and later inject them into a new host during a subsequent feeding. Mosquitoes are the best-known disease vectors, responsible for spreading illnesses such as malaria, dengue, and yellow fever. Other common insect vectors include ticks, flies, sandflies, fleas, and triatomine bugs. These organisms serve as a critical intermediary in the transmission cycle, physically transporting the pathogen from one individual or species to another.
111History
Consider the following statement and identify the author of the statement using the code given below :
I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country, in whose making they have an effective voice, an India in which there shall be no high class and low class of people, an India in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
This statement was written by Mahatma Gandhi in his journal, Young India, in 1931. In this passage, he articulated his vision for an independent India, emphasizing a society rooted in social justice and egalitarianism. Gandhi envisioned a nation where the poorest citizens would have a meaningful and effective voice in the country's development, ensuring they felt a genuine sense of belonging. His goal was to eliminate the rigid hierarchies of high and low classes while fostering a spirit of perfect communal harmony. This vision reflected his broader philosophy of Purna Swaraj, which aimed for the total empowerment and dignity of every individual, particularly the most marginalized sections of society.
112Science and Technology
The angular speed of a whirlwind in a tornado towards the centre
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) increases
Explanation
The dynamics of a whirlwind are governed by the law of conservation of angular momentum, which states that if no external torque acts on a system, its angular momentum L remains constant. The angular momentum for a rotating mass is given by L = Iω, where I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular speed. For a parcel of air moving in a circular path of radius r, the moment of inertia is I = mr². As the air is drawn towards the center of the tornado, the radius r decreases. Since L is constant, the reduction in the moment of inertia must be compensated for by an increase in the angular speed ω. Mathematically, this is represented as L = mr²ω, which shows that ω is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. Therefore, the air rotates faster as it approaches the center.
113Polity and Governance
There is a distinct change in public policies promoting human development in India in the postglobalized era. This change has been termed as
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) right-based approach to development
Explanation
In the post-globalized era, particularly during the 2000s, India’s public policy underwent a paradigm shift toward a rights-based approach to development. This approach represents a departure from traditional welfare models by transforming social benefits into legally enforceable entitlements for citizens. Instead of viewing development as a discretionary top-down provision of services by the state, this paradigm empowers individuals by providing them with a legal claim to essential services. This era was characterized by the enactment of landmark legislations such as the Right to Information Act (2005), the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2005) which institutionalized the right to work, the Forest Rights Act (2006), and the Right to Education Act (2009). By enshrining these provisions in law, the state established a framework of accountability and justice, ensuring that human development is treated as a fundamental right rather than a matter of state patronage.
114Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Phase of Industrial Revolution)
A. First phase
B. Third phase
C. Second phase
D. Fourth phase
List-II
1. Rise of steel, chemical, electricity industries
2. Rise of cotton mill
3. Rise of steam engine
4. Rise of petrochemicals, jet aircraft, computers
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 1 3 4
Explanation
The Industrial Revolution progressed through distinct stages characterized by specific technological advancements.
First phase (A-2): This stage began in the late 18th century, primarily in Britain, focusing on the mechanization of the textile industry. The rise of the cotton mill was the hallmark of this era, shifting production from cottages to factories.
Second phase (C-3): Occurring in the early-to-mid 19th century, this phase saw the widespread application and improvement of the steam engine. This technology revolutionized transportation through railways and steamships and provided a consistent power source for various heavy industries.
Third phase (B-1): Often referred to as the Second Industrial Revolution (late 19th to early 20th century), this period was defined by the rise of steel as a primary building material, the birth of the modern chemical industry, and the large-scale adoption of electricity for power and communication.
Fourth phase (D-4): Emerging in the mid-20th century, this phase is characterized by the scientific-technical revolution. It involves the growth of the petrochemical industry, the development of jet aircraft for global travel, and the advent of electronic computers, leading into the digital age.
115Science and Technology
We observe twinkling of stars due to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) constant change of refractive index of the medium between the stars and the Earth because of temperature variation
Explanation
The twinkling of stars, scientifically known as stellar scintillation, is caused by the atmospheric refraction of starlight. The Earth's atmosphere is not a uniform medium; it consists of multiple layers of air with varying densities and temperatures that are constantly in motion. The refractive index of air is directly related to its density, which varies with temperature. As starlight travels through these turbulent layers, it undergoes continuous and random refraction. Since stars are so far away that they act as point sources of light, these slight changes in the path of the light rays cause the star's apparent position and brightness to fluctuate rapidly. This creates the visual effect of twinkling as perceived by an observer on the ground.
116Science and Technology
Global positioning system (GPS) is associated with
1. determining latitude and longitude
2. constellation of satellites
3. US system of GPS and Russian system of GLONASS
4. navigation
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based radionavigation system that allows users to determine their precise latitude, longitude, and altitude. It functions through a space segment consisting of a constellation of satellites—originally 24—that orbit the Earth and transmit synchronized signals. These signals are used by receivers to calculate position through trilateration, facilitating navigation for military, commercial, and civilian users worldwide. While GPS specifically refers to the system developed by the United States, it is fundamentally associated with the broader category of Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS), which in 2011 prominently included the Russian GLONASS system. These two systems were the primary global constellations available during that period, often used in conjunction by dual-system receivers to enhance positioning accuracy and signal reliability across the globe.
117Geography
Which one among the following statements is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) In summer season, the duration of day is more in northern hemisphere
Explanation
The duration of daylight is determined by the tilt of the Earth's axis, which is inclined at an angle of 23.5° relative to its orbital plane. During the summer season in the Northern Hemisphere, which peaks around the Summer Solstice on June 21, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun.
As the Earth rotates, the circle of illumination (the boundary between day and night) covers more than half of the Northern Hemisphere. Consequently, any specific location in this hemisphere remains in the sunlit portion for more than 12 hours of the 24-hour cycle. This results in the duration of the day being at its maximum, while the duration of the night is at its minimum. This phenomenon becomes more pronounced as one moves toward the North Pole, where the Sun remains above the horizon for 24 hours.
118Geography
What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench and Challenger Deep?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) They are the deepest points of the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans, respectively
Explanation
Milwaukee Deep is the deepest part of the Puerto Rico Trench and serves as the lowest point in the Atlantic Ocean, with a depth of approximately 8,376 meters. The Java Trench, often called the Sunda Trench, contains the deepest point in the Indian Ocean, reaching depths of around 7,450 meters. Challenger Deep, located within the Mariana Trench, is the deepest known point in the Pacific Ocean and the Earth's seabed, measured at nearly 11,000 meters. These three geographic features represent the maximum depths of the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans in that specific order.