Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real and enlarged image of the object?
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Answer: (C) Between the principal focus and twice the focal length
Explanation
When an object is placed between the principal focus F and twice the focal length 2F of a convex lens, the refracted rays intersect at a point beyond 2F on the opposite side of the lens. The resulting image is real, inverted, and larger than the object. This position is the specific range where the converging power of the lens produces a magnified image on a screen. According to the thin lens formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u and the magnification formula m = v/u, when the object distance u is such that f < |u| < 2f, the image distance v will always be greater than 2f. Since the absolute value of the image distance is greater than the object distance (|v| > |u|), the magnification m is greater than 1, resulting in an enlarged image.
2Science and Technology
The magnetic field lines inside a current carrying long solenoid are in the form of
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Answer: (D) parallel straight lines.
Explanation
Inside a long current-carrying solenoid, the magnetic field is uniform in magnitude and direction. According to Ampere's Circuital Law, the magnetic field strength B inside an ideal solenoid is expressed by the formula B = μ₀ n I, where μ₀ is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current. Because this field is constant and directed along the longitudinal axis of the solenoid, the magnetic field lines are represented as equidistant parallel straight lines. This pattern indicates a homogeneous magnetic field throughout the internal volume of the solenoid.
3Science and Technology
A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium
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Answer: (B) slows down and bends towards the normal.
Explanation
When light transitions from an optically rarer medium to an optically denser medium, its speed decreases because the refractive index n of the denser medium is higher. This relationship is defined by the formula v = c/n, where v is the velocity in the medium and c is the speed of light in a vacuum. Simultaneously, Snell's Law states that n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂. Since the refractive index of the second medium n₂ is greater than that of the first medium n₁, the angle of refraction θ₂ must be smaller than the angle of incidence θ₁ to maintain the equality. This decrease in angle relative to the normal indicates that the light ray bends towards the normal as it enters the denser medium.
4Science and Technology
An electric circuit is consisting of a cell, an ammeter and a nichrome wire of length l . If the length of the wire is reduced to half (l / 2) , then the ammeter reading
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Answer: (B) gets doubled.
Explanation
The resistance R of a conductor is directly proportional to its length l as defined by the formula R = ρ l/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material and A is the cross-sectional area. When the length of the nichrome wire is reduced to half (l/2), the resistance of the wire also reduces to half (R/2) of its original value.
According to Ohm's law, the current I flowing through a circuit is inversely proportional to the resistance R for a constant potential difference V, expressed as I = V/R. Substituting the new resistance into this equation, the new current I' becomes I' = V/(R/2) = 2 × (V/R) = 2I. Because the ammeter measures the current flowing through the wire, its reading will reflect this doubling of the current.
5Science and Technology
What is the effect of pressure of a human body on sand?
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Answer: (A) Larger while standing than while lying
Explanation
Pressure is defined as the force exerted perpendicular to the surface of an object per unit area over which that force is distributed. The mathematical relationship is given by the formula P = F/A, where P is pressure, F is the magnitude of the normal force, and A is the area of the surface on contact. In this scenario, the force F is the weight of the human body, which is the product of mass and gravitational acceleration (mg). Since the weight of the individual remains constant regardless of their posture, the pressure exerted depends entirely on the contact area.
When a person is standing, the entire weight of the body is concentrated on the relatively small surface area of the soles of the feet. In contrast, when a person lies down, the same weight is distributed over a much larger surface area encompassing the back, legs, and arms. Because pressure is inversely proportional to the area of contact, a smaller area results in a higher pressure. Therefore, the pressure exerted on the sand is significantly larger while standing than while lying down, which is why a person's feet sink deeper into the sand when standing still.
6Science and Technology
An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 100 m in 20 s . What will be the displacements after 1 minute and 10 s , respectively?
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Answer: (D) 0 m , 100 m
Explanation
Displacement is defined as the shortest straight-line distance between the initial and final positions of an object. The athlete completes one full round of the circular track in T = 20 s.
For the first duration of 1 minute (60 s), the number of rounds completed is n₁ = 60 s / 20 s = 3. After three complete revolutions, the athlete returns exactly to the starting point. Therefore, the displacement after 1 minute is 0 m.
For the second duration of 10 s, the number of rounds completed is n₂ = 10 s / 20 s = 0.5. Completing half a round means the athlete is at the point diametrically opposite to the starting position. The shortest distance between these two points is the diameter of the circular track. Given the diameter is 100 m, the displacement after 10 s is 100 m.
7Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about universal indicator is/are true?
1. It is a mixture of several indicators.
2. It shows different colours at different concentrations of hydrogen ions in solution.
3. It helps to determine the strength of given acid and base in titration.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
A universal indicator is a pH indicator made of a solution of several compounds (such as phenolphthalein, methyl red, bromothymol blue, and thymol blue) that exhibits several smooth color changes over a wide range of pH values from 1 to 14. This makes it a mixture of several individual indicators.
The variation in color is directly related to the concentration of hydrogen ions [H⁺] in the solution. As the [H⁺] changes, the different component indicators within the mixture undergo chemical transitions at different pH levels, resulting in a continuous spectrum of colors—ranging from red for strong acids to green for neutral solutions and violet for strong bases. However, universal indicators are generally unsuitable for titrations because they change color gradually over a wide range. Precise titrations require a sharp, distinct color change at the equivalence point, which is why specific indicators with narrow transition ranges are preferred for such quantitative analysis.
8Science and Technology
Which of the following carbon allotropes is/are good conductor(s) of electricity?
1. Diamond
2. Graphite
3. Fullerene
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Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation
In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane, resulting in a hexagonal layered structure. This sp² hybridization leaves one valence electron per carbon atom unbonded and located in a p-orbital. These p-orbital electrons overlap across the layer to form a system of delocalized electrons that are free to move throughout the graphite lattice. These mobile electrons function as charge carriers, allowing graphite to be an effective conductor of electricity. In contrast, in diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and bonded to four other atoms in a tetrahedral structure, which leaves no free electrons to carry charge. Pure fullerene molecules, such as C₆₀, contain delocalized electrons within their individual cage structures, but these electrons cannot easily move between separate molecules in the solid state, making pure fullerene an insulator or a semiconductor rather than a good conductor.
9Geography
What is the approximate percentage of carbon in the Earth's crust?
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Answer: (B) 0-025%
Explanation
Carbon is present in the Earth's crust in the form of minerals such as carbonates, bicarbonates, coal, and petroleum. Geochemical studies and standard scientific references estimate that carbon makes up approximately 0.02% to 0.03% of the Earth's crust by mass. Specifically, the value of 0.025% is widely recognized as a precise mean concentration of carbon in the lithosphere, where it exists primarily in sedimentary rocks like limestone (CaCO₃) and fossil fuel deposits. This percentage represents carbon's total mass relative to the overall chemical composition of the crustal layer.
10Science and Technology
When copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide (CO₂) in air, it forms a green coating of which one of the following compounds?
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Answer: (A) Cupric carbonate
Explanation
When copper metal is exposed to moist air containing carbon dioxide, it undergoes a slow oxidation process. The copper reacts with atmospheric oxygen (O₂), moisture (H₂O), and carbon dioxide (CO₂) to form a substance called basic copper carbonate. The chemical reaction can be represented as:
This basic copper carbonate is a mixture of cupric carbonate (CuCO₃) and cupric hydroxide (Cu(OH)₂). It is responsible for the characteristic green coating, often called a patina, that develops on copper surfaces like old coins or statues over time. This layer is stable and protects the underlying metal from further corrosion.
11Science and Technology
What is the name of the process that converts sulphide ores into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air?
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Answer: (B) Roasting
Explanation
Roasting is a metallurgical process used to convert concentrated sulphide ores into their respective metal oxides. This is achieved by heating the ore to a high temperature, below its melting point, in the presence of a continuous and excess supply of air or oxygen. During this process, the sulphide content of the ore reacts with oxygen to form metal oxides, while releasing sulphur as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) gas. For example, the roasting of zinc sulphide (zinc blende) occurs according to the reaction: 2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂. In addition to converting sulphides to oxides, roasting also helps in removing moisture and volatile impurities like arsenic and phosphorus by converting them into their volatile oxides. Metal oxides are generally preferred in metallurgy because they are more easily reduced to the pure metal than sulphides.
12Science and Technology
What are the constituents of alloy solder?
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Answer: (B) Pb and Sn
Explanation
Solder is a fusible metal alloy used to create a permanent bond between metal workpieces. The most common type of soft solder, used extensively in electronics and electrical work, is composed of Lead (Pb) and Tin (Sn). This alloy is preferred because it possesses a significantly lower melting point than its constituent metals, allowing it to melt and flow into joints without damaging the components being joined. A typical composition used in soldering is approximately 60 percent tin and 40 percent lead, or the eutectic mixture of 63 percent tin and 37 percent lead, which melts at a constant temperature of 183 degrees Celsius.
13Geography
Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
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Answer: (C) Decrease in the available energy at higher trophic levels
Explanation
The length of a food chain is fundamentally limited by the progressive loss of energy at each successive trophic level. According to the 10 percent rule, only a small portion of the energy consumed by an organism is converted into biomass and made available to the next level. The majority of energy is dissipated as heat during metabolic processes like respiration or lost as waste. As energy flows through the chain, the total amount of available energy decreases exponentially. Eventually, the energy pool becomes too small to sustain a viable population of predators at a higher level, which typically restricts food chains to four or five links.
14Science and Technology
In pea, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). What will be the ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in the F2 generation?
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Answer: (A) 1:1
Explanation
When a pure tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt), the F₁ generation consists of heterozygous tall plants (Tt). Self-pollinating the F₁ hybrids (Tt × Tt) produces the F₂ generation with a genotypic ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. Pure tall plants are those with the homozygous dominant genotype (TT), while short plants are those with the homozygous recessive genotype (tt), as the recessive trait is only expressed in the absence of the dominant allele. Based on the Mendelian distribution, there is exactly one TT plant for every one tt plant. Consequently, the ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in the F₂ generation is 1:1.
15Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about variations is not true?
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Answer: (B) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.
Explanation
The statement that all variations in a species have equal chances of survival is incorrect because natural selection acts differently on different traits. In any population, variations arise through mutations or genetic recombination. Some of these variations may be advantageous, providing the individual with a better chance to survive and reproduce in a specific environment, such as better camouflage or antibiotic resistance in bacteria. Other variations may be neutral or even harmful, reducing the organism's fitness. Because environmental factors exert selective pressure, only those variants that are well-adapted to their surroundings have a higher probability of survival, while less favorable variations are often eliminated from the gene pool over time.
16Geography
While studying vegetation of an area, terms like 'population' and 'community' are often used. Which one of the following statements best describes a population?
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Answer: (A) A group of organisms of one species, living in the same area at the same time.
Explanation
In ecological studies, a population is defined as a group of organisms belonging to a single species that live together in a specific geographical area during the same period. The boundaries of a population are determined by the individuals' ability to interact and interbreed with one another within that shared environment. This definition emphasizes both biological identity (one species) and ecological context (spatial and temporal overlap), which allows for the study of birth rates, death rates, and gene flow within that specific group. By focusing on a single species in a defined space and time, the concept of a population serves as a fundamental level of organization between individual organisms and biological communities.
17Science and Technology
In the human body, blood flows through a process of double circulation. Which one of the following statements is true in this regard?
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Answer: (A) Oxygenated blood reaches the left side of the heart from the lungs.
Explanation
The human circulatory system is characterized by double circulation, consisting of pulmonary and systemic circuits. In the pulmonary circuit, deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Once the blood undergoes gaseous exchange in the lungs and becomes enriched with oxygen, it returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins. These veins specifically deliver the oxygenated blood into the left atrium, which is located on the left side of the heart. This arrangement ensures that oxygenated and deoxygenated blood remain separate, maintaining a high pressure and efficient oxygen delivery system for the body's metabolic needs.
18Science and Technology
In which of the following groups of organisms, is food material broken down outside the body and absorbed?
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Answer: (A) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
Explanation
The organisms in this group exhibit saprophytic nutrition, a process characteristic of fungi. In this mode of nutrition, the organism secretes digestive enzymes onto dead or decaying organic matter. These enzymes break down complex food materials into simpler, soluble forms outside the body. Once the food is chemically simplified, the organism absorbs the resulting nutrients through its cell membrane or body surface. Yeast, mushroom, and bread mould are all types of fungi that rely on this external digestion and subsequent absorption to obtain energy and nutrients.
19Science and Technology
A sound wave has a frequency of 4 kHz and wavelength 30 cm. How long will it take to travel 2.4 km?
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Answer: (A) 2-0 s
Explanation
To find the time taken for the sound wave to travel a specific distance, we first calculate the velocity (v) of the sound wave using the relation between frequency (f) and wavelength (λ):
v = f × λ
Given that the frequency f = 4 kHz = 4000 Hz and the wavelength λ = 30 cm = 0.3 m, we substitute these values into the formula:
v = 4000 Hz × 0.3 m = 1200 m/s
The distance to be traveled is d = 2.4 km = 2400 m. Using the standard formula for time t = distance / speed:
t = 2400 m / 1200 m/s = 2.0 s
20Science and Technology
An electric bulb is connected to a 110 V generator. The current is 0-2 A. What is the power of the bulb?
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Answer: (C) 22 W
Explanation
The electric power P consumed by an electrical appliance is the product of the potential difference V across its terminals and the current I flowing through it. This relationship is defined by the formula P = V × I. In this problem, the bulb is connected to a generator providing a voltage of 110 V, and the current passing through the bulb is 0.2 A. By substituting these values into the power equation, we get P = 110 V × 0.2 A = 22 W. The power of the bulb is therefore 22 Watts, which indicates the rate at which it converts electrical energy into light and heat.
21Science and Technology
Refraction of light, as it enters from one transparent medium to another, is due to
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Answer: (C) change in speed of light.
Explanation
Refraction is the phenomenon where light changes direction as it passes from one transparent medium to another. This occurs because light travels at different speeds in different materials due to differences in their optical densities. When a light wave strikes the boundary between two media at an angle, the change in the speed of light causes the wavefront to bend. The relationship between the speed of light in vacuum (c) and its speed in a medium (v) is expressed by the refractive index n = c/v. According to Snell's Law, n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂, the degree of bending depends directly on the ratio of the speeds of light in the two media. Consequently, if light slows down entering a denser medium, it bends towards the normal, and if it speeds up entering a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.
22Science and Technology
A bus starting from a bus-stand and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed of 20 km / h in 10 minutes. What is its acceleration?
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Answer: (B) 120 km/h²
Explanation
To find the acceleration of the bus, we use the first equation of motion for uniform acceleration: v = u + at, which rearranges to a = (v - u)/t.
The bus starts from a bus-stand, so its initial velocity u = 0. The final velocity attained is v = 20 km/h. The time taken is given as t = 10 minutes. Since the required acceleration is in km/h², we must convert the time into hours:
t = 10/60 h = 1/6 h.
Substituting these values into the acceleration formula:
a = (20 km/h - 0 km/h)/(1/6 h)
a = 20 × 6 = 120 km/h².
23Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct reactivity order of metals reacting with dilute HCl?
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Answer: (A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
Explanation
The reactivity of metals with dilute hydrochloric acid is determined by their position in the metal activity series, which ranks metals based on their ability to lose electrons and form positive ions. Magnesium (Mg) is the most electropositive among the given elements and reacts vigorously with dilute HCl to displace hydrogen. Aluminum (Al) follows magnesium in the reactivity series; although it is highly reactive, its reaction may start slowly due to a protective oxide layer, but it remains more reactive than zinc and iron. Zinc (Zn) reacts at a moderate pace, while Iron (Fe) is the least reactive of the four, resulting in a slow evolution of hydrogen gas. Consequently, the correct descending order of reactivity is Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.
24Science and Technology
Which one of the following acids is secreted by leaves of Nettle that causes painful stings?
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Answer: (A) Methanoic acid
Explanation
Nettle leaves are covered with tiny, needle-like stinging hairs called trichomes. When these hairs come into contact with the skin, they break and inject a mixture of chemicals that includes methanoic acid, also known as formic acid (HCOOH). This acid is primarily responsible for the immediate burning sensation, itching, and painful stinging rash associated with touching the plant. In nature, this serves as a defense mechanism to protect the plant from herbivores. While other substances like histamine and acetylcholine are also present in the sting, methanoic acid is the specific organic acid identified as the irritant in this context.
25Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. All the bases are alkali.
2. All alkalis dissolve in water.
3. Alkalis are soapy to touch, bitter in taste and corrosive in nature.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Alkalis are defined as bases that are soluble in water, which distinguishes them from insoluble bases. This solubility is their defining characteristic. Additionally, alkalis share several distinct properties: they have a slippery or soapy texture when handled because they react with the fatty acids on the skin, they possess a characteristic bitter taste, and they are chemically corrosive, meaning they can cause irritation or damage to living tissue and other substances upon contact.
26Science and Technology
Which one of the following materials is present in a guard tube (drying tube) that is used for preparation of HCl gas?
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Answer: (A) Calcium chloride
Explanation
Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl₂) is used in the guard tube (drying tube) during the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas to remove moisture. In this process, HCl gas is generated by the reaction of sodium chloride (NaCl) with concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄). The gas produced is moist, and because HCl is highly soluble in water, it must be dried to obtain the pure gas. Calcium chloride is a highly hygroscopic substance, meaning it has a strong affinity for water and can effectively absorb moisture from the gas as it passes through the drying tube. It is the material of choice for this purpose because it is chemically inert toward hydrogen chloride, ensuring that the gas is dried without being consumed or altered by a chemical reaction.
27Economy
Fertilizers are used to obtain higher yields of crops. However, all nutrients are usually not available in fertilizers. Which one of the following nutrients is usually not available in fertilizers?
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Answer: (A) Iron
Explanation
Chemical fertilizers are primarily formulated to supply the three essential macronutrients required by plants in large quantities for growth and reproduction, namely nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. These are commonly known as NPK fertilizers and represent the vast majority of commercial fertilizer production used to boost agricultural yields. While iron is an essential element for plant health, it is classified as a micronutrient or trace element because plants need it in very minute amounts. Because iron is typically present in sufficient quantities in most mineral soils, it is usually not included in standard multi-purpose fertilizers. It is generally provided only through specialized micronutrient applications or organic matter rather than through the common fertilizers used for broad-scale crop production.
28Science and Technology
Rupa and Sachin observed an animal in their school garden. Rupa called it an insect while Sachin identified it as an earthworm. Which one of the following characteristics confirms that it is an insect?
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Answer: (A) The animal had jointed legs.
Explanation
Insects belong to the Phylum Arthropoda, a taxonomic group defined by the presence of jointed appendages, as the name itself is derived from the Greek words arthron (joint) and pous (foot). This characteristic is a fundamental diagnostic feature of all arthropods. While earthworms belong to the Phylum Annelida and share some traits like segmentation and bilateral symmetry, they lack any form of jointed legs, instead relying on muscular contractions and tiny hair-like structures called setae for movement. Therefore, the observation of jointed legs is the definitive anatomical evidence required to classify the organism as an insect rather than an earthworm.
29Science and Technology
Animals which are marine, bilaterally symmetrical, have a coelom and a notochord, but never form a vertebral column are placed under which one of the following groups?
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Answer: (B) Protochordata
Explanation
Protochordata is a group of primitive chordates that are exclusively marine, triploblastic, and coelomate with bilateral symmetry. They possess a notochord, which is a long, rod-like support structure that runs along the back of the animal, separating the nervous tissue from the gut. While they share this key feature with all chordates, they are specifically distinguished by the fact that they never develop a bony or cartilaginous vertebral column. In subphyla like Cephalochordata, the notochord extends the entire length of the body and persists throughout the animal's life. In Urochordata, the notochord is present only in the tail of the larval stage and disappears in the adult. Because they lack a backbone despite having a notochord, they are classified under this specific group.
30Science and Technology
What is the location of intercalary meristem in plants?
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Answer: (A) Base of the leaves or internodes
Explanation
Intercalary meristems are a specialized type of primary meristematic tissue located at the base of leaves or at the internodes, particularly common in monocotyledonous plants like grasses and bamboo. These tissues are remnants of the apical meristem that have become separated from the apex by regions of mature, permanent tissue. Their primary function is to facilitate rapid longitudinal growth by enabling the elongation of internodes and the regeneration of leaf blades. This characteristic is especially vital for grasses, as it allows them to regrow quickly after being grazed by herbivores or mown. In some plants, such as mint, these meristems are specifically positioned at the base of the nodes to support stem extension.
31Polity and Governance
The federation of which one of the following States has been described as an indestructible union of indestructible states?
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Answer: (B) U.S.A.
Explanation
The phrase an indestructible union of indestructible states characterizes the federal system of the United States of America. This legal principle was established by the U.S. Supreme Court in the 1869 case of Texas v. White. The court ruled that the U.S. Constitution created a perpetual union from which no state has the right to secede, thereby making the union indestructible. Furthermore, the American federal structure guarantees the territorial integrity of the states; according to Article IV, Section 3 of the U.S. Constitution, the federal government cannot form a new state within the jurisdiction of any other state, nor merge states, without the consent of the legislatures of the states concerned. This ensures that the states remain indestructible entities within the constitutional framework.
32Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the author of the famous essay, 'The End of History and the Last Man'?
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Answer: (A) Francis Fukuyama
Explanation
Francis Fukuyama is the political scientist who authored the 1992 book The End of History and the Last Man, which expanded upon his 1989 essay titled The End of History?. Writing in the immediate aftermath of the Cold War and the collapse of the Soviet Union, Fukuyama proposed that the global ascendancy of Western liberal democracy marked the final point of humanity's ideological evolution. He argued that the struggle between competing ideologies had concluded with the universalization of liberal democracy and market capitalism as the definitive system of governance. Drawing on the teleological philosophies of Hegel and Kojève, Fukuyama suggested that this state represents the end of history in a macro-historical sense, having resolved the fundamental contradictions that previously drove historical conflict.
33Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Guwahati High Court has no Bench.
Explanation
The Guwahati High Court, which has jurisdiction over the states of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh, maintains several permanent benches to ensure judicial accessibility across these regions. While its principal seat is located in Guwahati, it has permanent benches at Kohima for the state of Nagaland, Aizawl for the state of Mizoram, and Itanagar for the state of Arunachal Pradesh. This multi-bench structure was preserved even after the creation of separate High Courts for Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura in 2013. Therefore, the assertion that the Guwahati High Court has no bench is factually inaccurate.
34Polity and Governance
Which among the following is not a condition for the disqualification of a Member of Parliament?
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Answer: (B) Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
Explanation
Under Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, a person is disqualified from being a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, lists various offices that are exempt from this rule. Following the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006, the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was specifically included in the list of exempted offices. Consequently, holding this position does not constitute a ground for disqualification of a Member of Parliament.
35Polity and Governance
Who among the following considered the Directive Principles of State Policy as aiming at 'furthering the goals of social exclusion'?
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Answer: (B) Granville Austin
Explanation
Granville Austin, an eminent scholar of the Indian Constitution, described the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy as the conscience of the Constitution. In his influential work, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, he argued that the Directive Principles were specifically designed to further the goals of the social revolution. Austin believed that these principles formed the core of the Indian Constitution's commitment to social and economic justice, providing the framework through which the state could achieve a fundamental transformation of society. He viewed them as necessary conditions for the fulfillment of the revolution that the Indian independence movement had initiated.
36Geography
D performs her train journey by the shortest route from Bengaluru to New Delhi. Which one of the following rivers will she not cross while performing the journey?
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Answer: (B) Yamuna
Explanation
The Yamuna River flows through Delhi and Agra, but the primary rail corridor from South India to New Delhi approaches the city from the south via the Mathura-Agra-Palwal route. This railway track remains on the western bank of the Yamuna River throughout its final approach into the National Capital Region. Consequently, a passenger traveling from Bengaluru to New Delhi by the shortest rail route arrives at major terminals such as New Delhi (NDLS) or Hazrat Nizamuddin (NZM) without the train ever traversing a bridge over the Yamuna.
37Geography
Identify the State on the basis of the following characteristics:
1. Tropic of Cancer passes through the State.
2. The State has more north-south extension.
3. The State has international border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
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Answer: (B) Mizoram
Explanation
Mizoram is the state that satisfies all the given characteristics. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the center of the state, roughly at 23.5° N latitude, near the capital city Aizawl. The state is characterized by a narrow, elongated shape where the north-south distance of approximately 277 km is significantly greater than its east-west width of about 121 km. Furthermore, Mizoram occupies a strategic geographical position sharing international borders with two countries: it shares a border with Bangladesh to the west and a longer border with Myanmar to the east and south.
38Geography
M wants to visit a place in a Union Territory, which is located at 34° N and 77° E . Which one of the following Union Territories must he have planned to visit?
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Answer: (D) Ladakh
Explanation
The geographic coordinates 34° N and 77° E correspond to the high-altitude northern region of India. Specifically, the capital city of the Union Territory of Ladakh, Leh, is located at approximately 34.15° N latitude and 77.58° E longitude. The Union Territory of Ladakh was established on October 31, 2019, following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, and it covers the eastern part of the former state, including the districts of Leh and Kargil. Given that 34° N is far north of the Indian mainland's center and 77° E passes through the northern mountainous belt, Ladakh is the only Union Territory situated at these coordinates.
39Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with respect to the adolescent population (age group of 10 to 19 years) of India, according to the 2011 Census:
1. Adolescent population comprises half the population of the country.
2. The group is regarded as youthful population with high potential.
3. In this group there are greater number of females than males.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, the adolescent population in the 10 to 19 age group is approximately 253.2 million, which constitutes about 20.9 percent of Indias total population. This segment is officially regarded as a youthful population with high potential for the countrys future development, provided they receive adequate investment in health and education. The demographic data also shows that there are approximately 133.4 million males and 119.8 million females in this age group, meaning males outnumber females. Consequently, only the characterization of the group as a high-potential youthful population is factually accurate based on the census data.
40Geography
In a discussion, M from Arunachal Pradesh, J from Assam, N from Meghalaya and S from Nagaland are claiming that as per Census 2011, their State has the maximum density of population. Identify the person making the correct claim.
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Answer: (B) J
Explanation
According to the Census 2011 data, the population density of a state is defined as the number of persons per square kilometre. Among the states mentioned, Assam has the highest population density with 398 persons per sq km. This figure significantly exceeds the densities of the other three states, as Meghalaya has a density of 132, Nagaland has 119, and Arunachal Pradesh has a density of 17, which is the lowest in India. Since J represents Assam, the claim that his state has the maximum density among the group is factual and correct.
41History
Who among the following ancient Indian kings was praised in glowing terms in the Prayaga Prashasti?
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Answer: (C) Samudragupta
Explanation
The Prayaga Prashasti, also widely known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, was composed by Harisena, who served as the court poet and minister of the Gupta emperor Samudragupta. Written in elegant Champu kavya style (a mix of prose and verse) in Sanskrit, the inscription is engraved on a pillar that originally belonged to the Mauryan emperor Ashoka. It serves as a detailed panegyric praising Samudragupta's multifaceted personality, his exceptional military genius, and his extensive conquests across Northern and Southern India. The text highlights his policy of Digvijaya and mentions his victories over the kings of Aryavarta and the submission of the rulers of Dakshinapatha. Harisena also describes the emperor's intellectual and artistic prowess, calling him Kaviraja (King of Poets) and comparing his glory to that of divine figures like Indra, Varuna, and Kubera.
42History
The Self-Respect Movement was initiated by
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Answer: (C) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
Explanation
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. The movement was designed to create a society where backward castes could enjoy equal human rights and dignity, specifically aiming to liberate the non-Brahmin masses from the perceived cultural and religious hegemony of the priestly classes. It advocated for rationalism, the total eradication of the caste system, and gender equality. One of the hallmark practices of the movement was the promotion of self-respect marriages, which were conducted without the involvement of priests or religious rituals to assert independence from traditional social hierarchies.
43History
The location of the ancient city of Taxila (Takshshila), mentioned in ancient Indian texts, was identified by
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Answer: (A) Alexander Cunningham
Explanation
Sir Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, identified the ruins at Shah-dheri in present-day Pakistan as the ancient city of Taxila in 1863–64. He relied heavily on the travelogues of Chinese Buddhist pilgrims, specifically Faxian and Xuanzang, as well as the historical accounts from the time of Alexander the Great. By comparing the topographical descriptions and distances recorded in these ancient texts with the physical geography of the Rawalpindi district, Cunningham successfully matched the archaeological remains with the historical Takshshila. His identification laid the groundwork for all subsequent archaeological exploration and systematic excavation of the site.
44History
Who among the following was not a Jain Acharya?
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Answer: (B) Khema
Explanation
Khema was a prominent Buddhist nun and one of the two chief female disciples of Gautama Buddha, known as the Agrasravikas. Before her ordination, she was the queen consort of King Bimbisara of Magadha. According to Buddhist scriptures, the Buddha praised her as being foremost in wisdom among the female monks. Her inclusion in Buddhist literature and her role as a primary teacher of the Dhamma distinguish her from the other figures, who were all prominent scholars, authors, or leaders within the Jain tradition.
45History
In India, the first major public appearance of Mahatma Gandhi was in
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Answer: (C) Inauguration of Banaras Hindu University (1916)
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in January 1915. His first major public appearance occurred in February 1916 at the inauguration of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU), where he had been invited by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya. During this event, Gandhi delivered a landmark speech that surprised the audience of princes and dignitaries. He criticized the elite for their display of wealth and their indifference toward the millions of poor Indians, famously stating that India's salvation lay with the peasantry. This speech established his presence in the Indian political landscape and outlined his vision for a mass-based national movement, occurring before his active leadership in local regional struggles like those in Champaran or Kheda.
46History
Consider the following statements about Patanjali's Mahabhashya:
1. It makes a mention of Kautilya.
2. It is a book on grammar and refers to historical personalities only incidentally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Patanjali's Mahabhashya is a fundamental treatise on Sanskrit grammar, written as a commentary on Panini's Ashtadhyayi and Katyayana's Varttikas. The primary objective of the work is the linguistic analysis of the Sanskrit language. While the text contains several references to contemporary historical events and figures—such as the Greek (Yavana) invasions of Saketa and Madhyamika or the sacrifices performed for the Sunga ruler Pushyamitra—these references are entirely incidental. Patanjali utilizes these real-world examples solely to illustrate specific rules of grammar and syntax (Vyakaran). Furthermore, while the Mahabhashya mentions the Mauryas in the context of their idol-making practices, it makes no mention of Kautilya or the Arthashastra.
47Economy
Which one of the following may lead to movement along the demand curve of a commodity?
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Answer: (A) Change in its price
Explanation
In economic theory, a movement along the demand curve occurs when the quantity demanded of a commodity changes in response to a change in its own price, while all other factors influencing demand remain constant. This is referred to as expansion of demand when the price decreases (moving downward along the curve) or contraction of demand when the price increases (moving upward along the curve). This movement reflects the law of demand, which states that there is an inverse relationship between the price of a good and its quantity demanded, assuming ceteris paribus. Factors other than the price of the commodity itself, such as consumer income or the price of related goods, would instead cause the entire demand curve to shift.
48Economy
Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of a chosen activity?
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Answer: (D) Value of next best alternative that is given up
Explanation
Opportunity cost is a fundamental economic concept that represents the value of the benefits an individual, business, or investor misses out on when choosing one alternative over another. Since resources like time, money, and labor are finite, every choice involves a trade-off where selecting one path necessitates the rejection of others. The opportunity cost is specifically the value of the single most valuable alternative that was sacrificed to pursue the chosen activity. It serves as a measure of the relative loss of the next best option, ensuring that the true cost of any decision accounts for the potential gains that could have been realized from the best available substitute.
49Economy
Which one of the following statements in the context of social sector spending in India during 2014-19 (both States and the Union Government together) is true?
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Answer: (C) There was a stagnation in the spending on education as a percent of GDP.
Explanation
The Economic Survey data for the period between 2014-15 and 2018-19 indicates that the combined expenditure of the Union and State governments on the education sector remained constant at approximately 2.8% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This consistency across multiple financial years represents a period of stagnation, as the proportional allocation failed to see any significant increase despite the growing requirements of the sector and the long-term policy goal of reaching 6% of GDP. While total nominal spending increased along with the size of the economy, the relative share dedicated to education did not fluctuate, maintaining a steady but stagnant ratio relative to the national income throughout this five-year period.
50Economy
According to UNDP's Human Development Report - 2020, in which of the HDI components has India improved in recent years?
1. Life expectancy at birth
2. Expected years of schooling
3. GNI per capita
4. Mean years of schooling
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Human Development Report (HDR) 2020, published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), highlights India's steady progress in human development indicators between 1990 and 2019. During this period, India's HDI value increased from 0.429 to 0.645, reflecting significant improvements across all four dimensions. Life expectancy at birth in India rose by approximately 11.8 years, reaching 69.7 years in 2019. The mean years of schooling increased by 3.5 years, while the expected years of schooling saw an upward trajectory of 4.5 years. Additionally, India's Gross National Income (GNI) per capita increased by about 273.1% between 1990 and 2019 when measured in constant 2017 PPP dollars. These consistent upward trends across health, education, and standard of living metrics confirm that all four components improved in the years leading up to the 2020 report.
51Economy
Which one of the following is true of a pure voluntary exchange between two parties A and B?
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Answer: (B) Both gain; it is a win-win situation
Explanation
In economics, a pure voluntary exchange is defined as a transaction where two parties freely agree to trade goods or services without any coercion. The fundamental premise of such an exchange is that both participants act out of self-interest to improve their own welfare. Because the trade is voluntary, a rational actor will only consent to the exchange if they perceive that the value of what they receive is greater than the value of what they give up. This results in a mutual increase in subjective utility, meaning that both parties are better off after the transaction than they were before. This principle demonstrates that trade is a non-zero-sum game where value is created through the alignment of different preferences and needs, leading to a win-win situation for both parties involved.
52Polity and Governance
The provision, 'the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State' is incorporated in which part of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) Part-IV
Explanation
Article 50 of the Constitution of India mandates that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. This provision is a key Directive Principle of State Policy aimed at ensuring the independence of the judiciary from the influence of the executive branch. All Directive Principles of State Policy, including Article 50, are incorporated in Part IV of the Constitution, which covers Articles 36 to 51. The separation of these two branches is considered essential for the fair administration of justice and is recognized as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
53Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Speaker may permit any Member to address the House in his/her mother tongue, if he/she cannot adequately express in either Hindi or English.
2. Business of the Parliamentary Committees is transacted either in Hindi or in English.
3. The minutes of the Parliamentary Committees are prepared invariably in Hindi or English.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Under Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business of Parliament is conducted in Hindi or English. However, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has the discretionary power to allow a member to speak in their mother tongue if they are unable to express themselves sufficiently in the two official languages. This provision ensures that linguistic diversity does not hinder the representative duties of the members of Parliament.
Parliamentary Committees, which function as extensions of the House, follow the same linguistic protocols. Their internal business and proceedings are transacted in Hindi or English. Furthermore, in accordance with the Official Languages Act of 1963 and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business, all official documentation of these committees, including the minutes of their meetings and their formal reports, are prepared and maintained in both Hindi and English.
54Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the term 'State', as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) It refers to the Government of India, Parliament of India, Governments and Legislatures of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India.
Explanation
Article 12 of the Constitution of India provides an inclusive definition of the term State for the purpose of Part III, which deals with Fundamental Rights. According to this article, the State includes the executive and legislative organs of the Union government (the Government and Parliament of India), the executive and legislative organs of the State governments (the Government and the Legislature of each State), and all local or other authorities. Local authorities encompass entities such as municipalities, panchayats, and district boards. Other authorities include statutory or non-statutory bodies that function as instrumentalities or agencies of the government, such as LIC, ONGC, and SAIL. This broad definition ensures that fundamental rights can be enforced against all authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
55Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is the largest State in terms of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Bihar
Explanation
Bihar is allocated 16 seats in the Rajya Sabha, the Council of States, which is the highest number of members among the states listed. According to the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats to different states and union territories is primarily based on their population. Bihar's representation of 16 members exceeds the 12 seats allocated to Karnataka, the 11 seats allocated to Andhra Pradesh (following the 2014 reorganization), and the 10 seats allocated to Rajasthan. This allocation for Bihar has been in effect since the creation of Jharkhand in 2000.
56Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Constitution of India has provision been made for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?
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Answer: (C) Article 243 D
Explanation
Article 243 D of the Constitution of India, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in Panchayats at all three levels. Clause (3) of Article 243 D specifically states that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. This calculation includes the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Additionally, clause (4) of the same Article provides for the reservation of the offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village or any other level for women, also stipulating that not less than one-third of the total number of such offices shall be reserved for them.
57History
The painted illustration of the moving of the Ashoka Pillar at Topra is found in
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Answer: (C) Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi
Explanation
The Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi is an anonymous contemporary Persian manuscript compiled in 1370 during the reign of Sultan Firuz Shah Tughlaq. It is highly significant for historians because it contains a series of unique painted illustrations that document the complex engineering process of transporting the Ashokan pillars from Topra and Meerut to Delhi. These detailed miniatures provide a visual narrative of the specialized machinery used, including the construction of a massive 42-wheel carriage and the use of labor and elephants to move the monoliths without breaking them. While several chronicles of the period record the relocation of the pillars, the Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi is the primary source containing these specific visual depictions of the logistics and mechanical ingenuity involved in the feat.
58Art and Culture
Which one among the following is a temple of the Vaishnavite tradition?
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Answer: (A) Srirangam
Explanation
The Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple at Srirangam is dedicated to Ranganatha, a manifestation of the deity Vishnu in a reclining posture. It is recognized as the first and most important of the 108 Divya Desams, which are the primary centers of worship in the Vaishnavite tradition. The temple is celebrated in the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, the collective corpus of hymns composed by the Alvars, who were the Tamil Vaishnava poet-saints. It serves as a spiritual hub for Sri Vaishnavism and is closely associated with the philosopher Ramanuja, who resided there and systematized the temple's liturgical practices and administration.
59History
The biography of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti, authored by Jahanara, is known as
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Answer: (A) Munis al Arwah
Explanation
Jahanara Begum, the eldest daughter of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan, was a scholarly woman and a devoted follower of the Chishtiyya Sufi order. In 1640, she completed Munis al-Arwah (The Confidant of Spirits), which is a hagiography of the celebrated Sufi saint Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti. The work details the life, spiritual lineage, and miracles of the saint, reflecting Jahanara's deep personal piety and the Mughal dynasty's long-standing patronage of the Ajmer Sharif Dargah. It remains a significant primary source for understanding the role of royal women in the production of Sufi literature during the 17th century.
60History
Which one of the following is not a political method of the moderates in the National Movement?
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Answer: (A) Overthrow of alien rule
Explanation
The Moderates, who dominated the Indian National Congress between 1885 and 1905, did not seek the overthrow of British rule. Instead, they believed in the essential sense of justice and fairness of the British people and aimed for constitutional reforms within the framework of the British Empire. Their primary goal was to achieve colonial self-government or dominion status through gradual, peaceful, and legal means. They viewed the British connection as a stabilizing force that would eventually help India modernize and transition toward representative government. The objective of completely removing or overthrowing alien rule was a radical departure from their philosophy and was instead associated with the later Extremist leaders and revolutionary nationalists who rejected the Moderate policy of petitions and prayers.
61History
Swami Dayanand Saraswati took inspiration from
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Answer: (B) Vedas
Explanation
Swami Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875, viewed the Vedas as the ultimate and infallible source of all knowledge. He famously gave the call Back to the Vedas to encourage a return to the original, pure form of Hinduism. He believed that the Vedas contained the eternal truth and the word of God, advocating for a society based on Vedic principles while rejecting later additions like idol worship, polytheism, and the rigid caste system by birth, which he argued had no scriptural basis in the Vedic texts.
62History
The call for 'renunciation of (all) voluntary associations with the (British) Government' was given during
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Answer: (A) Non-Cooperation Movement.
Explanation
The call for the renunciation of all voluntary associations with the British Government was the fundamental strategy of the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922). This approach was rooted in Mahatma Gandhi's belief that British rule in India existed only because of the cooperation provided by Indians. The program, formally adopted at the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, urged the public to withdraw their support from the colonial state. This involved the surrender of titles and honorary offices, resignation from nominated seats in local bodies, and a complete boycott of government-affiliated educational institutions, law courts, and legislative councils. By ending these voluntary associations, the movement aimed to peacefully paralyze the administrative machinery of the British Raj and achieve Swaraj.
63Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Time Zone in India?
1. There is one standard time for the whole country.
2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands have different Time Zones.
3. Indian Standard Time (IST) is five and half hours behind GMT.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
India observes a single standard time for the entire nation, known as Indian Standard Time (IST), to maintain administrative and logistical uniformity across its longitudinal extent. This time is calculated based on the 82° 30' E longitude, which is designated as the Standard Meridian of India. This single time zone applies to all states and Union Territories, including the remote Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands, meaning there are no separate time zones for the island territories. Furthermore, because India is located in the Eastern Hemisphere, IST is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), which corresponds to the 0° longitude. Therefore, only the first statement accurately reflects India's time zone policy.
64Geography
D had recently visited Khardung La, Nubra Valley and several Buddhist monasteries. Which one of the following States / UT had she visited?
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Answer: (D) Ladakh
Explanation
Khardung La is a high mountain pass located in the Ladakh Range, north of Leh, which serves as the gateway to the Shyok and Nubra Valleys. The Nubra Valley is a high-altitude cold desert region in the Union Territory of Ladakh, famous for its unique landscapes and the confluence of the Shyok and Siachen rivers. This region is a major center of Tibetan Buddhism and is home to numerous historic monasteries, such as the Diskit Monastery in the Nubra Valley and the Hemis and Thiksey monasteries near Leh. Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019, Ladakh was established as a separate Union Territory, encompassing these specific geographical and cultural landmarks.
65Geography
Which one of the following States receives rainfall from both the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch of Monsoon?
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Answer: (A) Punjab
Explanation
Punjab is located in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent, where the two main branches of the Southwest Monsoon converge. The Arabian Sea branch advances northward through the Gulf of Khambhat and across the plains of Rajasthan to reach the state. Meanwhile, the Bay of Bengal branch moves up the Ganges Valley, deflected westward by the Himalayan range. These two moisture-laden currents meet over the Indo-Gangetic plains, specifically in the region encompassing Punjab and Haryana, ensuring that the state receives precipitation from both maritime sources.
66Geography
Inceptisols, Entisols, Vertisols and Mollisols are orders of which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Soil
Explanation
Inceptisols, Entisols, Vertisols, and Mollisols are primary categories in the USDA Soil Taxonomy, a hierarchical system used globally to classify soils based on measurable properties such as soil moisture, temperature, and the presence or absence of diagnostic horizons. The system identifies twelve distinct soil orders. Entisols represent soils with little to no profile development, often found in active floodplains or dunes. Inceptisols show the beginnings of horizon development but are still relatively young. Vertisols are characterized by a high content of expansive clay minerals that cause deep cracks during dry seasons, and Mollisols are highly fertile soils with a dark, organic-rich surface layer, commonly associated with grassland ecosystems. In India, Inceptisols and Entisols cover a significant portion of the total geographical area, particularly across the Indo-Gangetic plains.
67Geography
S had witnessed contour bunding and contour ploughing while visiting one of the States in India. Identify the State from the options given below.
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Answer: (C) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
Contour ploughing and contour bunding are soil conservation techniques specifically designed for hilly and mountainous terrains. Contour ploughing involves ploughing along the contour lines of a slope rather than up and down, which creates a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope and helps reduce soil erosion. Contour bunding involves constructing embankments along these contours to trap water and soil. Among the given options, Himachal Pradesh is a Himalayan state with a rugged, mountainous topography where these practices are essential and widely implemented to manage agriculture on steep slopes. In states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, the terrain is predominantly flat or characterized by arid plains, where these specific hilly-terrain conservation methods are not standard practice.
68Economy
Which one of the following target groups is the beneficiary of 'Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan' scheme?
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Answer: (B) All returning migrants
Explanation
The Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan (GKRA) was launched by the Government of India in June 2020 as a massive 125-day employment-cum-rural public works campaign. It was specifically designed to provide immediate livelihood opportunities to the large population of returnee migrant workers who had traveled back to their home villages from urban centers due to the COVID-19 induced nationwide lockdown. The scheme prioritized 116 districts across six states—Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Odisha—which received the highest numbers of returning laborers. By integrating 25 different types of public work projects, such as the construction of community centers, rural housing, and water conservation structures, the initiative aimed to provide wage employment to these migrants while simultaneously strengthening rural infrastructure and the local economy.
69Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II (Curve) (Indication)
A. Lorenz curve 1. Inflation and employment
B. Phillips curve 2. Tax rates and tax revenue
C. Engel curve 3. Inequality in distribution of income or wealth
D. Laffer curve 4. Income and proportion of expenditure on food
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Lorenz curve (A-3) is a graphical representation used to measure the degree of inequality in the distribution of income or wealth within a population. Phillips curve (B-1) illustrates the inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the level of unemployment or employment in an economy. Engel curve (C-4) describes how the proportion of household income spent on food or other commodities changes as total income increases. Laffer curve (D-2) depicts the relationship between tax rates and the total tax revenue collected by the government, suggesting an optimal rate for revenue maximization.
70Economy
Which one of the following is a typical example of monopolistic competition ?
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Answer: (B) Market for soaps
Explanation
The market for soaps is a quintessential example of monopolistic competition because it features a large number of sellers offering products that are differentiated rather than identical. While all soaps fulfill the basic function of cleaning, firms use branding, fragrance, chemical composition, and packaging to create distinct identities for their products. This product differentiation ensures that while various brands are close substitutes, they are not perfect substitutes, granting each firm a limited degree of pricing power over its specific brand. Furthermore, this market structure is characterized by heavy investment in advertising to build brand loyalty and relatively low barriers to entry and exit for new competitors.
71Polity and Governance
Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the Parliament of India enacted quite a few GST Acts in the year 2017. Which one of the following does not fall in this category ?
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Answer: (D) The State Goods and Services Tax Act
Explanation
The State Goods and Services Tax (SGST) Act does not fall into the category of Acts enacted by the Parliament of India because it is legislated by the respective State Legislatures. Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the power to levy GST is conferred concurrently upon both the Parliament and the State Legislatures. While the Parliament of India enacted the Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Act, the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, the Union Territory Goods and Services Tax (UTGST) Act, and the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act in 2017, the SGST Acts were passed individually by each State Assembly to enable the collection of tax on intra-state supplies of goods and services within their specific jurisdictions.
72Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement ?
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Answer: (D) It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
Explanation
The Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988, as amended, is primarily enforced by the Income Tax Department under the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a specialized financial investigation agency whose statutory mandate is restricted to enforcing the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. While the ED can investigate money laundering cases that may involve assets derived from benami transactions, the specific administration and enforcement of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act itself rests with the tax authorities, not the Directorate of Enforcement.
73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Insurance does not come under the Union List.
Explanation
Insurance is specifically enumerated under Entry 47 of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This means that the Union Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on all matters related to insurance. The statement that insurance does not come under the Union List is therefore inaccurate.
74Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature of India's federal system?
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Answer: (A) There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States.
Explanation
In India’s Rajya Sabha (Council of States), states do not have equal representation. Seats are distributed in proportion to each state’s population as specified in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution, unlike the US Senate where each state has two senators irrespective of population. This unequal representation distinguishes India’s quasi-federal system from classical federal models. The other options (b, c, d) correctly describe features of India’s constitutional structure.
75Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression. But the freedom is subject to certain reasonable restrictions imposed by the State. These restrictions may relate to which of the following?
1. Defamation
2. Decency or morality
3. Incitement to an offence
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of speech and expression to all citizens. However, this right is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2). The State is empowered to impose such restrictions by law in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation, or incitement to an offence. Therefore, defamation, decency or morality, and incitement to an offence are all valid constitutional grounds upon which the State may limit the exercise of free speech.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following amendments in the Constitution of India made a Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review?
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Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, enacted during the Emergency, was the most sweeping amendment to the Indian Constitution. It inserted clauses (4) and (5) in Article 368, barring courts from questioning constitutional amendments on any ground, effectively making Proclamations of Emergency immune from judicial review. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, subsequently restored judicial review over Emergency proclamations by amending Article 352.
77History
Which one of the following British officials was elevated to the position of Governor General after the Regulating Act of 1773?
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Answer: (A) Warren Hastings
Explanation
Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of Bengal in 1772. Following the passage of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament restructured the administration of the East India Company to ensure better oversight and centralize authority. This Act established the office of the Governor-General of the Presidency of Fort William in Bengal. Under the provisions of the Act, Warren Hastings was elevated to the position of the first Governor-General in 1774. This new role granted him supervisory powers over the presidencies of Madras and Bombay, particularly in matters of foreign policy and defense, effectively creating a unified administrative structure for British interests in India.
78History
Which of the following ideas was preached by the Kherwar or Saphia Har movement of the 1870s?
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Answer: (B) Monotheism and internal social reform
Explanation
The Kherwar or Sapha Har movement was a significant socio-religious reform movement initiated by Bhagirath Manjhi in 1874 among the Santal tribes of the Chota Nagpur region. The movement was characterized by its strong emphasis on monotheism, urging the Santals to worship only the supreme deity, Sing Bonga, and to abandon their belief in minor spirits and traditional polytheistic practices. Along with this theological shift, the movement preached extensive internal social reforms, advocating for a purer lifestyle that included the prohibition of liquor and meat consumption, and the adoption of high standards of personal hygiene and moral conduct. The term Sapha Har itself translates to clean cultivators, reflecting the movement's goal of spiritual and social purification to restore the idealized past of the Santal people.
79History
In which one of the following years was the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha established?
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Answer: (D) 1870
Explanation
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established on April 2, 1870, as a socio-political organization in British India. It was founded by prominent figures such as Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, S. H. Chiplunkar, and Mahadev Govind Ranade. The primary objective of the Sabha was to serve as a mediating body between the government and the people of India, ensuring that the grievances and needs of the public were communicated to the British administration. It played a crucial role in early political mobilization and laid the groundwork for future nationalist movements, including the Indian National Congress.
80History
Which one of the following was an important Pandya port, celebrated for its pearls in Sangam poems and Greek accounts?
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Answer: (B) Korkai
Explanation
Korkai was the primary port and the early capital of the Pandya kingdom, situated at the mouth of the Thamirabarani River in the present-day Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. It was globally renowned during the Sangam period for its pearl fisheries, a fact extensively documented in Sangam literature such as the Maduraikkanchi, which describes the king's pearl divers. Greek and Roman accounts, notably the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea and Ptolemy's Geography, refer to the port as Colchi and identify it as a major center for the lucrative pearl trade in the ancient world. Archaeological excavations at Korkai have confirmed its maritime significance through the discovery of large quantities of pearl oyster shells and evidence of trade links with the Mediterranean.
81History
The town of Chisht, from which the Sufi Chishti Silsila derives its name, is located in
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Answer: (B) Central Afghanistan
Explanation
The town of Chisht, officially known as Chisht-e-Sharif, is located in the Herat Province of present-day Afghanistan. It is situated in the upper valley of the Hari River. The Chishti Silsila, which became one of the most influential Sufi orders in the Indian subcontinent, derives its name from this town where the order was established by Abu Ishaq Shami in the 10th century. Shami was the first of the lineage to be called Chishti. The order was later brought to India by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in the late 12th century, where it flourished under the patronage of the Delhi Sultanate and later the Mughal Empire. Geographically, Chisht is located in the mountainous central-western region of Afghanistan, east of the city of Herat.
82History
The rules for congregational worship (Sangat) involving collective recitation were organized by
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Answer: (A) Guru Nanak
Explanation
Guru Nanak Dev Ji organized his followers into a religious community by establishing the institution of Sangat, which refers to a holy congregation for worship. He set up specific rules for these gatherings at Kartarpur, where devotees from all backgrounds sat together to engage in the collective recitation of his hymns. This practice was central to his teachings of equality and the rejection of caste-based rituals. The Sangat, along with the Pangat (communal kitchen), became the foundational pillars of the Sikh faith, ensuring that spiritual life was a shared, communal experience rather than an individual or hierarchical one.
83Geography
Who amongst the following will be at more risk with respect to the earthquake hazard zone specified by the Geological Survey of India?
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Answer: (C) Malti at Pithoragarh
Explanation
Pithoragarh is situated in the state of Uttarakhand within the Himalayan belt, which is categorized under Seismic Zone V according to the Earthquake Hazard Zoning Map of India. Zone V is classified as the Very High Damage Risk Zone, representing the highest level of seismic vulnerability in the country. This region is tectonically highly unstable due to the continuous northward movement of the Indian Plate and its collision with the Eurasian Plate, leading to the accumulation of significant geological stress. As a result, Pithoragarh is at a much greater risk of experiencing high-intensity earthquakes compared to regions located in the stable continental crust of the Indian peninsula.
84Geography
The Government wants to prepare a plan for drought prone areas of the country. Which one of the following regions will be predominantly focused?
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Answer: (D) Kutch region
Explanation
The Kutch region of Gujarat is classified as a chronic drought-prone area due to its arid climate and extremely low, erratic annual rainfall, which often falls below 400 mm. Under the Government of India's criteria for the Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) and the Desert Development Programme (DDP), regions with high rainfall variability and limited irrigation coverage are prioritized for resource management. Kutch lacks perennial river systems and experiences high rates of evapotranspiration, making it highly susceptible to severe water scarcity. Therefore, any national plan for drought-prone areas predominantly focuses on such arid tracts to implement water harvesting, soil moisture conservation, and sustainable livestock management.
85Geography
Four persons are travelling to different States of India. To whom will you advise to protect oneself from blizzards?
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Answer: (A) The person travelling to Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
Arunachal Pradesh is situated in the Eastern Himalayan region and possesses high-altitude mountainous terrain. During the winter months, high-elevation areas and mountain passes in the state, such as the Sela Pass, experience sub-zero temperatures, heavy snowfall, and high-velocity winds. These specific climatic conditions are conducive to the occurrence of blizzards, which are severe snowstorms characterized by strong sustained winds and low visibility, necessitating specialized protection for travelers in the region.
86Geography
Which one of the following States is not prominent for plantation agriculture?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan
Explanation
Rajasthan is characterized by an arid to semi-arid climate with extremely low annual rainfall and high temperature fluctuations. Plantation agriculture requires specific agro-climatic conditions, including high humidity, heavy rainfall (typically above 200 cm), and well-drained loamy or laterite soils, which are primarily found in the tropical and sub-tropical regions of South and North-East India. Due to its geographical location in the Thar Desert region, the state is naturally suited for the cultivation of hardy, drought-resistant crops such as millets, pulses, and oilseeds rather than cash crops like tea, rubber, or coffee. The lack of consistent moisture and the presence of sandy soils make large-scale plantation farming unfeasible in this region.
87Geography
The distance between which two cities has been reduced by the Atal Tunnel?
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Answer: (C) Manali to Leh
Explanation
The Atal Tunnel, named after former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, is a strategic highway tunnel constructed under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas. Located at an altitude of approximately 3,000 meters (10,000 feet), it provides all-weather connectivity to the Lahaul and Spiti valleys, which previously remained cut off for nearly six months every year due to heavy snowfall. By bypassing the winding and hazardous route over the Rohtang Pass, the tunnel reduces the road distance between Manali and Leh by approximately 46 kilometers and decreases the travel time between these two locations by about 4 to 5 hours. This permanent link significantly enhances the movement of both civilian traffic and armed forces toward the border areas of Ladakh.
88Geography
Which one of the following biosphere reserves comprises islands with estuaries, beaches, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?
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Answer: (B) Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve
Explanation
The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, located along the southeastern coast of India in Tamil Nadu, is a marine protected area encompassing 21 islands and their surrounding shallow waters. This reserve is uniquely characterized by a highly diverse range of coastal and marine ecosystems, specifically featuring extensive coral reef formations, seagrass beds, and mangrove forests. Its physical landscape includes estuaries where freshwater meets the sea, sandy beaches, and salt marshes, providing a specialized habitat for over 3,600 species of flora and fauna, including the endangered marine mammal, the Dugong. The combination of coral reefs and mangrove ecosystems within a single biosphere reserve is a defining feature of this maritime region.
89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a correct statement with reference to the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) The Constitution (Eighty-Fifth) Amendment Act has inserted the 'Right to Education' under Article 21A.
Explanation
The Right to Education was inserted into the Constitution as Article 21A by the Constitution (Eighty-Sixth) Amendment Act, 2002, which mandated that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. In contrast, the Constitution (Eighty-Fifth) Amendment Act, 2001, amended Article 16(4A) to provide for consequential seniority for government servants belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotion. Because the Eighty-Sixth Amendment, not the Eighty-Fifth, introduced the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right, the statement is incorrect.
90History
Which one of the following statements about the Cripps Mission is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The British Government could enter into a separate constitutional arrangement with any of the acceding provinces.
Explanation
The Cripps Mission proposals of 1942 offered provinces the choice to stay out of the proposed Indian Union. For these non-acceding provinces, the British Government was prepared to agree upon a separate constitution, granting them the same sovereign status as the Indian Union. The statement is incorrect because separate constitutional arrangements were intended specifically for non-acceding provinces that opted out of the Union. Provinces that chose to accede would be governed by the single, common constitution framed by the Constituent Assembly and would not have independent or separate constitutional agreements with the British Government. This local option was a significant point of contention as it provided a legal basis for the future partition of the country.
91Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding constitutional amendment is/are correct?
1. The procedure for amendment to the Constitution is provided in Article 368.
2. A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
3. The special procedure in Article 368 vests constituent powers upon the ordinary legislation.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, situated in Part XX, specifies the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the formal procedure that must be followed. This article distinguishes the process of constitutional amendment from the process of passing ordinary laws, requiring a special majority in most cases.
A bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It does not require the prior recommendation or sanction of the President for its introduction. Such a bill can be initiated by either a Minister or a private member, and it must be passed in each House by a special majority—that is, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a circumstance for proclamation of Emergency by the President of India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Internal disturbance
Explanation
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion as a ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution. This amendment was introduced to limit the scope of the President's power and prevent the potential misuse of the emergency provisions, as internal disturbance was considered a vague and broad expression. Under the current provisions of Article 352, a National Emergency can only be declared when the security of India or any part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
93History
Akbar issued a Farman in 1598 permitting in the city of Cambay (Khambat), Gujarat, the construction of a
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Answer: (B) Church
Explanation
Emperor Akbar was renowned for his policy of religious tolerance and universal peace, known as Sulh-i-kul. He maintained close relations with various religious groups, including the Jesuits who arrived from Goa. In 1598, following the requests of the members of the Third Jesuit Mission, particularly Father Jerome Xavier, Akbar issued a royal decree or Farman addressed to the local officials of Gujarat. This Farman specifically granted the Christian community permission to construct a church in the prominent port city of Cambay (Khambat). The decree also permitted the public exercise of the Christian faith and allowed individuals to join the religion of their own free will, reflecting Akbar's inclusive administrative and religious approach during the later years of his reign.
94History
Domingo Paes, the medieval traveller, has described the city of
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Answer: (B) Vijayanagara
Explanation
Domingo Paes was a Portuguese traveler who visited India during the medieval period, specifically around 1520–1522 AD. He visited the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of King Krishnadevaraya. Paes provided one of the most detailed and vivid eyewitness accounts of the city of Vijayanagara, which is now known as Hampi. In his writings, he described the city's immense size, its advanced irrigation systems, the bustling markets filled with precious stones and textiles, and the architectural grandeur of the royal enclosures and temples. He notably compared the size and prosperity of Vijayanagara to Rome, highlighting its importance as a major global center of trade and culture in the 16th century.
95Geography
The extent of damage caused by earthquake is not influenced by which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) Climate of the area
Explanation
The extent of damage caused by an earthquake is primarily determined by seismic parameters, the local geological setting, and human-related factors. Seismic factors include the magnitude, depth of focus, and the duration of the shaking. The vulnerability of the affected region is influenced by the density of the population and the structural integrity of the buildings and infrastructure. In contrast, climate refers to the long-term statistical pattern of weather in a region over decades. It does not influence the release of seismic energy, the propagation of tectonic waves through the Earth's crust, or the physical response of a structure to ground motion. While specific meteorological conditions might occasionally exacerbate secondary effects like mudslides, the general climate of an area is not a factor in assessing or predicting earthquake damage.
96Geography
An avalanche is a type of which one of the following disasters?
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Answer: (B) Terrestrial
Explanation
Avalanches are classified as terrestrial disasters because they involve the rapid downslope movement of large masses of snow, ice, and debris on the Earth's surface. According to standard geographical classifications, such as those used in NCERT and disaster management frameworks, disasters are categorized based on their origin and sphere of influence. Avalanches, along with landslides, earthquakes, and volcanic eruptions, are grouped under terrestrial or geomorphic hazards because they occur on land and involve the physical displacement of earth materials due to gravity and slope instability. Although atmospheric conditions like heavy snowfall or temperature fluctuations often serve as triggers, the disaster itself is a phenomenon of the terrain.
97Geography
An infection constantly maintained at a baseline level in a geographic area without external input is known as
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Answer: (A) Endemic
Explanation
An endemic disease refers to the constant presence or usual prevalence of an infectious agent or disease within a given geographic area or population group. It represents the baseline level of the infection that is naturally maintained without the need for external input or triggers. In an endemic state, the rate of transmission is relatively stable, meaning that each infected individual, on average, passes the infection to one other person, keeping the occurrence of the disease predictable over time. This equilibrium is sustained by the local environment and the interaction between the host and the pathogen within that specific region.
98Geography
Streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders in
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Answer: (C) Bhabar
Explanation
The Bhabar is a narrow belt, approximately 8 to 10 km wide, running parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break of the slope. As rivers descend from the steep Himalayan mountains, the sudden decrease in gradient significantly reduces their velocity and carrying capacity. Consequently, the rivers deposit heavy materials such as boulders, rocks, and pebbles in this region. This zone is characterized by high porosity and permeability due to the accumulation of these coarse sediments, often causing smaller streams to flow underground beneath the rock surface before reappearing further downstream in the marshy Terai region.
99Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the electoral rolls is/are correct?
1. There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
2. No person is ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them.
3. A citizen of India, not less than 18 years of age, can cast his/her vote unless disqualified under a law of an appropriate legislature.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 325 of the Constitution of India mandates that there shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for elections to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State. This provision ensures the abolition of communal or separate electorates. It further stipulates that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in such rolls, nor can anyone claim to be included in any special electoral roll, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them.
Article 326 establishes the principle of universal adult suffrage for elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States. It grants every citizen of India who is at least 18 years of age the right to be registered as a voter and cast their vote. This right is only subject to disqualifications prescribed by the Constitution or any law made by the appropriate legislature on specific grounds such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt or illegal practices. Together, these articles form the bedrock of democratic participation and equality in the Indian electoral system.
100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct about 'Totalitarianism'?
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Answer: (B) It usurps political freedom of the individuals, but it doesn't usurp personal freedoms.
Explanation
Totalitarianism is defined by the state's total authority and its attempt to control all aspects of both public and private life. While authoritarianism typically restricts political freedoms and pluralism while potentially allowing some degree of personal or social autonomy, totalitarianism removes the distinction between the private and public spheres. It seeks to mobilize the entire population in support of a state ideology and utilizes pervasive surveillance and terror to ensure conformity in personal beliefs and behaviors. Consequently, the claim that it does not usurp personal freedoms is false, as the total control of the individual's personal life is the central characteristic that distinguishes totalitarianism from other forms of non-democratic rule.
101Art and Culture
Who among the following was chosen for the Kuvempu Award 2020?
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Answer: (A) Dr. Rajendra Kishore Panda
Explanation
Dr. Rajendra Kishore Panda, a celebrated Odia poet and novelist, was selected for the Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar for the year 2020. This prestigious national award was instituted by the Kuvempu Pratishtana in memory of the iconic Kannada poet Kuvempu. It is conferred annually upon writers who have made outstanding contributions to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Dr. Panda has published sixteen poetry collections and several novels, making a significant impact on contemporary Indian literature through his unique poetic voice and stylistic experiments. The selection for the 2020 award was finalized by a committee led by the noted Kannada scholar Hampa Nagarajaiah.
102Art and Culture
Avani Lekhara became the first Indian woman to win two Paralympics medals at the Tokyo Paralympics 2020. Which one of the following was her discipline?
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Answer: (B) Shooting
Explanation
Avani Lekhara is a para-shooter who achieved historic success at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games. She secured the gold medal in the R2 Women's 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1 event with a world record-equalling score of 249.6. Additionally, she won a bronze medal in the R8 Women's 50m Rifle 3 Positions SH1 event. Her performance made her the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic gold medal and the first Indian woman to win two medals at the same Paralympic Games. Her discipline involves high precision and focus using specialized rifles in a competitive target shooting format.
103Geography
Bagram Air Base is located in
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Answer: (C) Afghanistan
Explanation
Bagram Air Base, also known as Bagram Airfield, is situated in the Parwan Province of Afghanistan, approximately 11 kilometers southeast of the city of Charikar and about 47 kilometers north of Kabul. Historically, it served as a major Soviet airbase during the Soviet-Afghan War. Following the 2001 invasion of Afghanistan, it became the largest U.S. military base and the primary hub for the United States Armed Forces and coalition partners during the War in Afghanistan. The facility featured a massive airfield capable of handling all types of military aircraft and functioned as the central point for logistics, air support, and military operations in the region until the U.S. military withdrawal in July 2021.
104Geography
The Panchmuli Lake is situated near
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Answer: (D) Statue of Unity
Explanation
Panchmuli Lake is located in Kevadia, Gujarat, in the immediate vicinity of the Statue of Unity. The lake is an integral part of the tourism circuit surrounding the monument dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. It gained significant attention when the state forest department initiated the relocation of hundreds of mugger crocodiles from the water body to the Sardar Sarovar Dam reservoir to ensure the safety of visitors and to facilitate the operation of seaplane services connecting Ahmedabad to Kevadia. The lake provides a scenic backdrop near the world's tallest statue and is situated amidst the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges.
105Science and Technology
Pinaka, developed in India, is a
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Answer: (B) multi-barrel rocket launcher.
Explanation
Pinaka is an indigenous Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) to provide the Indian Army with high-volume fire capability. Designed as an area-saturation weapon, the system is capable of firing a salvo of 12 high-explosive rockets in 44 seconds from a single launcher. It is mounted on a specialized Tatra truck for rapid mobility and deployment. The Pinaka system operates in a battery of six launchers, which can collectively neutralize a target area of approximately 1000 meters by 800 meters. Initially developed to replace the Soviet BM-21 Grad, Pinaka has since been upgraded into several variants, including the Pinaka Mk-II and a guided version that utilizes an Integrated Fire Control System and GPS for enhanced precision and extended range.
106Polity and Governance
What is itat e-duar?
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Answer: (B) An e-filing portal of Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
Explanation
The itat e-duar is an e-filing portal launched by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) on June 25, 2021. The portal was inaugurated by the Union Minister for Law and Justice with the primary objective of enhancing accessibility, accountability, and transparency in the judicial process of the tribunal. It allows parties to file their appeals, applications, and other relevant documents electronically. By digitizing the filing process, the portal aims to reduce physical interface, speed up the processing of cases, and provide litigants and their representatives with a more efficient way to interact with the tribunal from anywhere in India.
107Science and Technology
What is the range capability of Agni-P Ballistic Missile?
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Answer: (A) 1,000 - 2,000 km
Explanation
Agni-P, also known as Agni-Prime, is a new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is a nuclear-capable, two-stage canisterized solid-propellant ballistic missile. Successfully flight-tested for the first time in June 2021, the missile incorporates cutting-edge technologies from the Agni-IV and Agni-V platforms, including composite rocket motor casings and advanced navigation and guidance systems. It is specifically designed to have a range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 kilometers, serving as a more accurate and mobile successor to the older Agni-I and Agni-II missiles.
108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Indian States has recently declared itself as the first rabies-free State?
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Answer: (D) Goa
Explanation
In June 2021, the Chief Minister of Goa announced that the state had become the first in India to be rabies-free. This milestone was achieved through the Mission Rabies project, a central government-funded initiative that involved a massive vaccination drive and awareness campaign. By the time of the declaration, Goa had not reported a single case of human rabies for three consecutive years since 2018. The state government implemented strict surveillance and a highly effective Integrated Rabies Control Strategy, which included vaccinating over five lakh dogs and establishing a dedicated 24-hour rabies surveillance team to manage animal bites and potential outbreaks.
109Polity and Governance
Department of Public Enterprises is a part of
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Answer: (A) Ministry of Finance.
Explanation
In July 2021, the Government of India moved the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) from the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises to the Ministry of Finance. This administrative shift made the DPE the sixth department within the Ministry of Finance. The transition was implemented to facilitate better coordination and more efficient management of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), particularly regarding their capital expenditure, performance monitoring, and disinvestment targets. By integrating the DPE into the Ministry of Finance, the government ensured that the financial and economic oversight of public sector units is centralized under a single ministry, aligning their operations with the broader fiscal policies and budgetary objectives of the nation.
110Science and Technology
Chronologically arrange the following Indian-origin astronauts on the basis of their flying into space starting with the first:
1. Sunita Williams
2. Rakesh Sharma
3. Sirisha Bandla
4. Kalpana Chawla
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2-4-1-3
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these astronauts based on their first spaceflight is determined by the years they first entered space. Rakesh Sharma became the first Indian citizen to fly into space in 1984 as part of the Soviet Union-led Soyuz T-11 mission. Kalpana Chawla, the first Indian-born woman in space, followed in 1997 aboard the Space Shuttle Columbia mission STS-87. Sunita Williams, the second woman of Indian heritage to fly to space, embarked on her first mission, STS-116, in December 2006. Sirisha Bandla is the most recent on this list, having flown as part of the crew on the Virgin Galactic Unity 22 mission on July 11, 2021. This sequence establishes the order as 2-4-1-3.
111Polity and Governance
President Jovenel Moise, who was assassinated recently, was the President of which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) Haiti
Explanation
Jovenel Moïse served as the 42nd President of Haiti from February 2017 until his assassination on July 7, 2021. He was killed at his private residence in Pétion-Ville, located on the outskirts of the capital, Port-au-Prince, when a group of armed individuals, primarily identified as foreign mercenaries, stormed his home. His tenure was marked by political turmoil and significant public protests, and his death triggered a state of emergency and a profound constitutional crisis within the Caribbean nation.
112Polity and Governance
Recently, which one among the following Ministries was formed under the Government of India?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Cooperation
Explanation
The Ministry of Cooperation was created by the Government of India in July 2021 to realize the vision of Sahkar se Samriddhi, which means prosperity through cooperation. It provides a separate administrative, legal, and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country. The ministry was carved out of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare to streamline processes for the ease of doing business for cooperatives and to facilitate the development of Multi-State Cooperatives. Its formation reflects a shift toward a dedicated focus on the cooperative sector as a distinct economic model that can empower grassroots participants and drive rural development.
113History
Indian Naval Ship INS Tabar had recently participated in a two-day naval exercise with the Italian Navy. The exercise was conducted in
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Answer: (C) Tyrrhenian Sea.
Explanation
As part of its overseas deployment to the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean in mid-2021, the Indian Naval Ship INS Tabar conducted a maritime partnership exercise with the Italian Navy on July 3 and 4. The exercise was held in the Tyrrhenian Sea and involved the Italian frontline frigate ITS Carabiniere. The two-day engagement aimed to enhance interoperability and strengthen bilateral maritime cooperation. The drills included a wide range of naval operations such as air defence procedures, replenishment at sea, communication exercises, and cross-deck helicopter operations, reflecting the growing strategic partnership between the Indian and Italian navies.
114Science and Technology
Which one of the following countries has recently been awarded a malaria-free certification by the WHO?
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Answer: (C) China
Explanation
China was officially certified as malaria-free by the World Health Organization on June 30, 2021. This achievement followed a systematic seven-decade public health campaign that reduced annual cases from an estimated 30 million in the 1940s to zero indigenous cases by 2017. A critical component of this success was the 1-3-7 strategy, a rigorous surveillance and response model where cases are reported within one day, investigated by day three, and public health interventions are implemented to prevent further transmission by day seven. China became the first country in the WHO Western Pacific Region to receive this certification in more than 30 years, marking a significant milestone in global health.
115Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following was honoured with Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2020?
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Answer: (B) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
Explanation
The Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2020 was posthumously awarded to Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman by the Government of India. The award recognized his immense and unparalleled contribution in inspiring the liberation of Bangladesh, bringing stability to a nation born out of adversity, and laying the foundation of the close and fraternal relations between India and Bangladesh. The jury, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, selected him for his leadership and vision in championing the cause of human rights and liberty through non-violent and Gandhian methods. His legacy as the founding father of Bangladesh and his role in political and social transformation made him the recipient of this prestigious international award.
116History
Why was Dholavira in the news recently?
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Answer: (D) It received the UNESCO World Heritage Tag
Explanation
In July 2021, the UNESCO World Heritage Committee inscribed Dholavira: a Harappan City, located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, on the World Heritage List. This designation made Dholavira the 40th World Heritage Site in India and notably the first site belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) within India to receive this status. The site was recognized for its unique urban planning, sophisticated water management system featuring a series of large reservoirs, and its strategic location on the island of Khadir Bet. These elements demonstrate the advanced engineering and organizational capabilities of the Harappan people during the Bronze Age, specifically between 3000 BCE and 1500 BCE.
117History
Which one of the following is the oldest football tournament of Asia?
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Answer: (C) Durand Cup
Explanation
The Durand Cup holds the distinction of being the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest in the world. It was inaugurated in 1888 at Annadale, Shimla, by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand, who served as the Foreign Secretary of British India. The competition was originally conceived as a way to maintain health and fitness among the British Indian Army troops. Over time, the tournament moved to Delhi in 1940 and opened its doors to civilian clubs, becoming a cornerstone of the Indian footballing calendar and a historic symbol of the sport in the region.
118History
Who among the following is the first Indian woman to win a medal in the Olympics?
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Answer: (A) Karnam Malleswari
Explanation
Karnam Malleswari became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal when she secured a bronze in the women 69 kg weightlifting category at the 2000 Sydney Olympics. She lifted a total weight of 240 kg, comprising 110 kg in the snatch and 130 kg in the clean and jerk. This historic achievement made her a pioneer for women in Indian sports, as she was the sole medalist for India during the 2000 Games and the first female athlete from the country to stand on an Olympic podium.
119Polity and Governance
The Russian Federation participated in the Tokyo Olympics, 2020 under which of the following names?
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Answer: (A) Russian Olympic Committee
Explanation
The Russian Federation participated in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics under the name Russian Olympic Committee, commonly abbreviated as ROC. This designation was necessitated by a ruling from the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) in December 2020, which imposed a two-year ban on the use of Russia's name, flag, and anthem at major international sporting events following investigations into state-sponsored doping programs. As a result, Russian athletes competed as neutral participants representing their national Olympic committee rather than the nation itself. During the games, the ROC flag—which features the Olympic rings and the Russian national colors in a flame motif—was used, and Tchaikovsky's Piano Concerto No. 1 replaced the Russian national anthem during medal ceremonies.
120Economy
Which of the following States/Union Territory/Region are in special focus in the National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm?
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Answer: (B) North-East Region and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation
The National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), launched by the Government of India in 2021, identifies the North-East Region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as the primary focus areas for oil palm cultivation. These regions are prioritized because of their favorable agro-climatic conditions, including high rainfall and appropriate temperature ranges, which are essential for the growth of oil palm. The mission aims to achieve self-reliance in edible oils by increasing the area under oil palm to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26. To encourage adoption in these specific focus areas, the government provides higher financial assistance to farmers for planting materials and maintenance compared to other parts of the country, while also supporting the establishment of seed gardens and processing units to create a robust local ecosystem for palm oil production.