Which one among the following is not a micronutrient for plants?
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Answer: (C) Magnesium
Explanation
Magnesium is classified as a macronutrient rather than a micronutrient because plants require it in relatively large amounts, generally exceeding 10 mmole/kg of dry matter. It serves as the central metallic atom in the chlorophyll molecule, making it essential for the process of photosynthesis and the capture of light energy. Furthermore, magnesium acts as a critical cofactor and activator for numerous enzymes involved in phosphate metabolism, carbon dioxide fixation, and the synthesis of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA. Along with calcium and sulfur, it is considered a secondary macronutrient necessary for maintaining the structural integrity and physiological functions of plant tissues.
2Science and Technology
Xylem in the plants are responsible for the transport of:
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Answer: (B) Water and dissolved minerals
Explanation
Xylem is the specialized vascular tissue in plants responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved inorganic minerals, collectively referred to as xylem sap. This upward transport occurs from the roots to the aerial parts of the plant, such as the stems and leaves. The process is primarily driven by transpiration pull, where the evaporation of water from leaves creates a negative pressure that draws the water-mineral solution through tracheids and vessel elements. This mechanism ensures that essential nutrients absorbed from the soil are distributed throughout the plant for physiological processes like photosynthesis and growth.
3Science and Technology
Which one among the following hormones inhibits the growth activity in plants?
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Answer: (C) Abscisic acid
Explanation
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a potent plant growth inhibitor that regulates various physiological processes to help the plant survive unfavorable conditions. It functions as a stress hormone by inducing seed and bud dormancy, which prevents germination and growth during periods of environmental stress like extreme cold or drought. At the cellular level, ABA inhibits cell division and elongation, effectively slowing down the plant's metabolic activities. It also plays a crucial role in water conservation by signaling the closure of stomata in leaves during water scarcity and promotes the senescence and abscission of leaves and fruits. By counteracting the effects of growth-promoting hormones, abscisic acid ensures that the plant prioritizes survival over active growth when resources are limited.
4Science and Technology
Which of the following category of biomolecules does Starch belong to?
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Answer: (B) Carbohydrate
Explanation
Starch is a polysaccharide, which is a complex carbohydrate composed of long chains of glucose monomers linked by α-1,4 and α-1,6 glycosidic bonds. It serves as the primary energy storage molecule in green plants and is a major source of energy in the human diet, commonly found in staple foods such as potatoes, wheat, rice, and maize. Structurally, starch consists of two distinct components: amylose, which is a linear polymer of glucose units, and amylopectin, which is a highly branched polymer. During digestion, enzymes such as amylase break down these large carbohydrate molecules into simple sugars like maltose and glucose to be utilized by the body for cellular respiration.
5Geography
Which one among the following is not a feature of Xerophytes?
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Answer: (B) Large number of stomata
Explanation
Xerophytes are plants specifically adapted to survive in environments with limited water availability, such as deserts. Their primary physiological goal is to minimize water loss through transpiration. A large number of stomata would facilitate excessive water loss, which is detrimental in arid conditions. Instead, xerophytes typically have a significantly reduced number of stomata or have them concentrated in specific protected areas to limit gas exchange and conserve internal moisture. This adaptation ensures that the plant can maintain its hydration levels even when the external environmental demand for moisture is extremely high.
6Geography
Halophytes are the plants that grow on which one, among the following categories of soil?
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Answer: (B) Saline soil
Explanation
Halophytes are specialized plants specifically adapted to thrive in environments with high salt concentrations, primarily saline soils or brackish water. These plants possess unique physiological and morphological mechanisms to overcome the osmotic stress and ion toxicity associated with high salinity. Many halophytes utilize salt glands on their leaf surfaces to actively excrete excess sodium and chloride ions, while others employ succulence to dilute salt concentrations within their tissues. They are typically found in habitats such as mangrove forests, coastal salt marshes, and inland salt flats, where they play a crucial role in the ecosystem by stabilizing soil and providing habitat in conditions that are toxic to most common land plants.
7Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a part of vascular bundle in plants?
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Answer: (D) Endodermis
Explanation
The endodermis is the innermost layer of the cortex and belongs to the ground tissue system of the plant. It serves as a biological checkpoint between the outer layers of the root or stem and the central vascular cylinder, known as the stele. Unlike the xylem, phloem, and cambium, which are direct structural components of the vascular bundle, the endodermis is a specialized boundary layer characterized by the presence of Casparian strips. These suberized strips regulate the radial movement of water and minerals into the vascular system, effectively acting as a filter rather than a conductive or meristematic part of the vascular bundle itself.
8Science and Technology
In which one among the following mediums would the speed of sound be maximum?
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Answer: (B) Sea water
Explanation
The speed of sound in a liquid medium is governed by the relation v = √(B/ρ), where B represents the bulk modulus (incompressibility) and ρ represents the density of the medium. In the case of aqueous solutions, the presence of dissolved salts in sea water significantly increases the bulk modulus of the liquid. While the density also increases with salinity, the increase in the bulk modulus is more pronounced, leading to a higher overall velocity of sound. At a standard temperature of 25°C and atmospheric pressure, the speed of sound in sea water is approximately 1531 m/s, which is higher than the speed in distilled water (approximately 1497 m/s) or drinking water. Methanol, being an organic solvent with lower intermolecular forces and a lower bulk modulus, has a much lower speed of sound, typically around 1103 m/s. Thus, the high mineral and salt content of sea water makes it the densest and stiffest medium among the options, resulting in the maximum speed of sound.
9Science and Technology
Which organelle in animal cells can digest foreign materials?
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Answer: (B) Lysosome
Explanation
Lysosomes function as the primary digestive component of the animal cell, containing approximately 50 different hydrolytic enzymes such as proteases, nucleases, and lipases. These enzymes operate optimally at an acidic pH maintained within the lysosomal lumen. When the cell engulfs foreign materials like pathogens, toxins, or debris through processes such as phagocytosis or endocytosis, these materials are sequestered into vesicles that fuse with lysosomes. The enzymatic action then breaks down the complex foreign matter into its constituent parts, effectively neutralizing potential threats and allowing the cell to recycle useful nutrients.
10Science and Technology
Photosynthesis that converts light energy into chemical energy by the plants, involves the use of green pigments of leaves called chlorophyll. The only structure in a leaf that hosts chlorophyll is:
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Answer: (C) Chloroplast
Explanation
Chloroplasts are specialized membrane-bound organelles found within the cells of plants and algae that serve as the primary site for photosynthesis. They contain the green pigment chlorophyll, which is essential for absorbing light energy from the sun. This pigment is specifically located within the thylakoid membranes, which are stacked into structures called grana inside the chloroplast. By capturing solar energy, chlorophyll initiates the chemical reactions that convert water and carbon dioxide into glucose and oxygen. Because the entire machinery for light absorption and energy conversion is housed within these organelles, the chloroplast is the specific structure in a leaf cell that hosts chlorophyll.
11Science and Technology
In which of the following colloids is the dispersing medium a liquid ?
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Answer: (D) Shaving cream
Explanation
Shaving cream is a colloidal system where the dispersed phase is a gas and the dispersing medium is a liquid. In this substance, air bubbles are uniformly distributed throughout a liquid solution of water and surfactants. The liquid serves as the continuous phase that holds the dispersed gas particles, fulfilling the criteria for a colloid with a liquid dispersing medium. This arrangement provides the shaving cream with its unique texture and stability, where the liquid matrix acts as the host medium for the trapped gas bubbles.
12Science and Technology
The two isotopes of elemental chlorine are :
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Answer: (D) 35/17C and 37/17C
Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same chemical element that possess the same atomic number but different mass numbers due to a different number of neutrons in their nuclei. The atomic number of chlorine is 17, which means every chlorine atom has 17 protons. The two stable and naturally occurring isotopes of elemental chlorine are chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. In the isotopic notation A/ZX, the subscript Z represents the atomic number and the superscript A represents the mass number. Therefore, these isotopes are represented as ³⁵/₁₇C and ³⁷/₁₇C. While chlorine-35 has 18 neutrons (35 - 17 = 18), chlorine-37 has 20 neutrons (37 - 17 = 20). These two isotopes exist in nature in a relative abundance of approximately 75 percent and 25 percent respectively, which results in the characteristic average atomic mass of chlorine being approximately 35.5 atomic mass units.
13Science and Technology
Which one among the following metals is not stored under oil ?
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Answer: (D) Lithium
Explanation
Lithium is the lightest of all solid elements, having a density of approximately 0.534 g/cm³. This value is significantly lower than the density of common mineral oils and kerosene, which generally ranges around 0.8 g/cm³. When placed in these oils, lithium floats on the surface instead of remaining submerged. This buoyancy causes the metal to remain in contact with atmospheric oxygen and moisture, with which it reacts. Consequently, to ensure complete isolation from the atmosphere, lithium is typically stored by being wrapped in paraffin wax or coated in petroleum jelly rather than being kept under oil.
14Science and Technology
Potassium nitrate is not used :
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Answer: (B) in medicine
Explanation
Potassium nitrate (KNO₃), commonly known as saltpeter or niter, is a versatile chemical compound with established applications in all four fields mentioned. In agriculture, it is used as a high-quality, water-soluble fertilizer because it provides two essential macronutrients, nitrogen and potassium, and is particularly favored for chloride-sensitive crops. In the defense and pyrotechnics industries, it is a key ingredient in the manufacture of gunpowder (black powder), where it serves as the necessary oxidizing agent to facilitate the rapid combustion of sulfur and charcoal.
In the food industry, potassium nitrate is recognized as a food additive (E252) used specifically for the preservation of meat products. It acts as a curing agent that prevents bacterial spoilage, particularly from Clostridium botulinum, and helps maintain the characteristic reddish-pink color of cured meats like ham and corned beef. Furthermore, in the field of medicine, potassium nitrate is widely utilized as the active desensitizing agent in toothpastes designed for sensitive teeth, where it works by blocking the transmission of pain signals from the tooth surface to the nerve. It also has historical medical uses as a diuretic and in the treatment of asthma. Because it is functionally employed in fertilizers, gunpowder production, medical products, and meat preservation, it is correctly identified as having uses in all these categories.
15Science and Technology
The surface of the concrete structure of a new construction is covered with straw/gunny bags by wetting. This is done to :
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Answer: (A) prevent fast evaporation, until hydration has proceeded well
Explanation
Curing is the process of maintaining satisfactory moisture content and temperature in concrete for a period of time immediately following placement and finishing so that the desired properties may develop. Cement gains strength through a chemical reaction known as hydration, which requires the continuous presence of water. Covering the concrete surface with wet straw or gunny bags prevents the rapid evaporation of mixing water from the surface due to environmental factors like direct sunlight and wind. This practice ensures that sufficient moisture remains available within the concrete mass for the hydration of cement particles to proceed until the structure achieves its required strength and durability, while also minimizing the risk of plastic shrinkage cracks.
16Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements for the gases mentioned below is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) Helium is a commonly used gas in electric bulbs.
Explanation
Helium is not the gas commonly used in electric bulbs because its high thermal conductivity would cause heat to be drawn away from the filament too rapidly, which decreases the efficiency and temperature of the light source. To ensure a long lifespan for the tungsten filament, inert gases with lower thermal conductivity and larger atomic sizes are preferred to inhibit the evaporation of the metal. Furthermore, helium atoms are small enough to diffuse through glass over time, making it difficult to maintain the necessary internal pressure compared to heavier noble gases.
17Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Trade Name) List-II (Chemical Name)
A. Bleaching powder 1. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Baking soda 2. Sodium carbonate, 10 water
C. Washing soda 3. Calcium oxychloride
D. Plaster of Paris 4. Calcium sulphate, 1/2 water
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Bleaching powder is chemically Calcium oxychloride with the formula CaOCl₂, produced by the reaction of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime. Baking soda is Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), which is used in cooking to release carbon dioxide for leavening. Washing soda is Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃ ⋅ 10H₂O), which is a basic salt used in the manufacture of glass and for removing permanent hardness of water. Plaster of Paris is Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO₄ ⋅ 1/2H₂O), obtained by heating gypsum at 373 K and used for setting fractured bones. Thus, the matching pairs are A-3, B-1, C-2, and D-4.
18Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is not true for glass?
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Answer: (C) Crystallinity develops on cooling of the molten mass of the glass.
Explanation
Glass is an amorphous solid, meaning it lacks a long-range periodic atomic arrangement or crystal structure. When the molten mass of glass components is cooled, the process occurs at a rate that prevents the atoms from organizing into a regular lattice. This results in a disordered, glass-like state rather than a crystalline one. If crystallinity were to develop during the cooling process, the resulting material would be a crystalline solid or a glass-ceramic, which possess distinct physical properties different from those of standard glass. Therefore, the absence of crystallinity is a fundamental characteristic of the formation and definition of glass.
19Science and Technology
Which one among the following is responsible for determining the chemical properties of an element?
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Answer: (B) Electrons
Explanation
The chemical properties of an element are primarily determined by the number and arrangement of electrons in its atoms, specifically the valence electrons located in the outermost shell. Chemical reactions involve the redistribution, sharing, or exchange of these electrons between atoms to form chemical bonds and achieve a stable electronic configuration. Because the reactivity, valency, and bonding patterns of an atom depend on how its electrons interact with those of other atoms, the electron configuration is the fundamental factor that dictates an element's chemical behavior and its position in the periodic table.
20Science and Technology
Which one among the following is used in bleaching of paper?
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Answer: (A) Chloride
Explanation
Chloride is used in the bleaching of paper primarily in the form of chloride of lime, which is the commercial name for bleaching powder (CaOCl₂). During the paper manufacturing process, wood pulp contains lignin and various organic pigments that impart a brown or yellow color to the fibers. Bleaching powder acts as a powerful oxidizing agent that chemically reacts with these impurities to break down their structure and remove the color. This oxidative process whitens the wood pulp before it is processed into paper. Bleaching powder is synthesized by the action of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime and is one of the most common industrial reagents used for large-scale decolorization of cellulose-based materials.
21Science and Technology
X-rays can be used to:
1. inspect welded joints between two metal parts of a machine.
2. study structure of crystals.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
X-rays possess high penetrating power and short wavelengths, making them highly effective for both industrial and scientific analysis. In industrial radiography, X-rays are employed for non-destructive testing to inspect welded joints in machinery. Because X-rays can penetrate solid metal, they create an internal image where defects like cracks, air bubbles, or incomplete fusion appear as variations in density, allowing for structural integrity checks without damaging the parts.
In the field of crystallography, X-rays are essential for determining the atomic arrangement of crystals. The wavelength of X-rays, typically around 10⁻¹⁰ meters, is comparable to the interatomic spacing in a crystal lattice. When a beam of X-rays hits a crystal, it is diffracted in specific directions. By measuring the angles and intensities of these diffracted beams, scientists use Bragg Law, expressed as nλ = 2d sin θ, to calculate the precise three-dimensional structure of the atoms within the crystal.
22Science and Technology
Which one of the following heat transfers is an example of convection?
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Answer: (B) Boiling water in a pot on a gas stove
Explanation
Convection is the mode of heat transfer that occurs within fluids through the collective movement of molecules. In the process of boiling water in a pot, the water near the heat source at the bottom increases in temperature, expands, and becomes less dense. This heated water rises, while the cooler, denser water from the upper layers descends to replace it. This cyclical movement creates convection currents that transport thermal energy from the bottom to the top, effectively heating the entire body of water through the mass motion of the fluid itself.
23Science and Technology
The phenomenon of rainbow formation by water droplets involves:
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Answer: (D) both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight
Explanation
Rainbow formation occurs when sunlight is dispersed by water droplets acting as tiny prisms in the atmosphere. As sunlight enters a spherical water droplet, it undergoes refraction due to the change in medium from air to water, which simultaneously causes the dispersion of light into its constituent colors. This light travels through the droplet and strikes the back inner surface, where it undergoes internal reflection. Finally, the light is refracted a second time as it exits the droplet toward the observer. While a primary rainbow involves one internal reflection and a secondary rainbow involves two, both refraction and internal reflection are essential physical components of the process.
24Geography
Ozone hole is a region over:
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Answer: (A) the Antarctic caused mainly by CFC gases.
Explanation
The ozone hole is a phenomenon characterized by a significant seasonal thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer over the Antarctic region. This depletion is primarily attributed to the presence of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone-depleting substances. During the Antarctic winter, the unique meteorological conditions within the polar vortex lead to the formation of polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs). These clouds facilitate heterogeneous chemical reactions that convert inactive chlorine reservoirs into highly reactive forms. When the sun returns in the spring, the increased ultraviolet radiation triggers a catalytic cycle where reactive chlorine atoms rapidly decompose ozone molecules (O₃) into molecular oxygen (O₂), resulting in a localized drop in ozone concentrations.
25Science and Technology
Which of the following are the major missions of Indian Space Research Organization in 2023?
1. Chandrayaan-3
2. Solar Mission Aditya-L1
3. Liquid fuel powered rockets
4. Solar powered rockets
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Chandrayaan-3 was India's third lunar exploration mission, launched on July 14, 2023, via the LVM3-M4 vehicle. It successfully executed a soft landing on the south pole of the Moon on August 23, 2023, making India the fourth country to achieve a lunar landing and the first to reach the lunar south polar region. Aditya-L1 was India's first dedicated solar mission, launched on September 2, 2023, using the PSLV-C57 rocket. It was designed to be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, to study solar atmospheric dynamics, including the chromosphere and corona, and solar eruptive events. These two high-profile projects were the primary scientific and exploration missions conducted by the Indian Space Research Organization during the year 2023.
26Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for aircraft being equipped with conducting tyres?
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Answer: (B) They can transfer the charge accumulated on their surfaces being rubbed by air particles
Explanation
During flight, the metallic body of an aircraft accumulates a significant amount of static electricity due to friction with air molecules and water droplets, a process known as triboelectric charging. This accumulation of charge creates a high electric potential between the aircraft and the ground. If this charge is not safely dissipated, it can cause high-voltage sparks during landing or refueling, which poses a severe fire hazard and can damage sensitive electronic equipment or deliver electric shocks to ground personnel.
Aircraft tyres are manufactured using a special grade of rubber containing carbon black, which makes them slightly conductive rather than insulating. This conductivity provides a direct, low-resistance path for the accumulated static charge to flow from the aircraft's airframe to the earth the moment the tyres make contact with the runway. This immediate grounding neutralizes the potential difference and ensures the safety of the aircraft and ground operations.
27Science and Technology
Which of the following statements for persons suffering from presbyopia is/are correct?
1. They cannot distinguish colours.
2. It usually develops with ageing.
3. They wear either bi-focal lenses consisting of both concave and convex lenses or progressive lenses.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Explanation
Presbyopia is a physiological condition characterized by the progressive loss of the eye's ability to focus on nearby objects, which occurs as a natural part of the ageing process. This condition arises because the crystalline lens loses its flexibility over time and the ciliary muscles responsible for adjusting the lens shape become weaker. Consequently, the eye can no longer accommodate sufficiently to produce a clear image of close-up tasks like reading. To manage this, individuals often use bifocal lenses, which typically feature a concave upper segment for distance vision and a convex lower segment for near vision. Alternatively, progressive lenses are used to provide a seamless transition between various focal lengths without a visible line on the lens, allowing for clear vision at all distances.
28Science and Technology
A sound wave having frequency of 300 Hz is travelling in an unknown medium. Its wavelength is not known. It travels a distance equal to 150 times its wavelength in time t . The value of t is:
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Answer: (A) 0·5 s
Explanation
The relationship between the speed of a wave v, its frequency f, and its wavelength λ is given by the formula v = fλ. Speed is also defined as the distance d traveled per unit time t, expressed as v = d/t. By equating these two expressions, we get fλ = d/t.
Given that the distance traveled d is equal to 150λ, we substitute this into the equation: fλ = (150λ) / t. The wavelength λ cancels out from both sides, leaving the equation f = 150/t. Rearranging to solve for time, we get t = 150/f. Substituting the given frequency of 300 Hz, the calculation becomes t = 150/300, which results in t = 0.5 s.
29Science and Technology
Mission Shakti (DRDO) of India is related to which one among the following?
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Answer: (D) Use of rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite
Explanation
Mission Shakti was India's first Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile test, successfully conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on March 27, 2019. The operation involved the launch of a three-stage interceptor missile from the Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha, which successfully targeted and destroyed a live Indian satellite in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at an altitude of approximately 300 km. This was achieved through a kinetic kill mechanism, meaning the missile physically collided with the satellite at high velocity rather than using an explosive warhead. By demonstrating this capability, India became the fourth country in the world to possess ASAT technology, joining the United States, Russia, and China. The mission established India's credible deterrence against threats to its space-based assets.
30Geography
In Sun-Earth system, the Sun, the Earth and the Lagrange point L4 form:
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Answer: (B) an equilateral triangle
Explanation
Lagrange point L4 is one of the two stable triangular points in the Sun-Earth orbital system. In a three-body problem involving two large masses and a much smaller third mass, the L4 point is mathematically located at a position such that it forms the apex of an equilateral triangle with the two primary bodies. In the Sun-Earth system, the distance between the Sun and the Earth acts as the base of this triangle. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Earth, combined with the centrifugal force of the Earth's orbital motion, balances exactly at this point. Consequently, the distance from the Sun to L4 is equal to the distance from the Earth to L4, which is also equal to the distance between the Sun and the Earth. This specific geometry ensures that the interior angles are all 60°, resulting in an equilateral triangle.
31Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Training Institute)
A. National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics
B. LBS National Academy of Administration
C. National Academy of Audit and Accounts
D. All India Institute of Local Self Government
List-II (Location)
1. Mussoorie
2. Shimla
3. Mumbai
4. Palasamudram
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
The National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics (NACIN) has its newly inaugurated world-class national campus located at Palasamudram in Andhra Pradesh. The LBS National Academy of Administration is the premier training institution for the Indian Administrative Service and is based in Mussoorie. The National Academy of Audit and Accounts is the specialized training institute for the Indian Audit and Accounts Service situated in Shimla. The All India Institute of Local Self Government is an apex research and training body for urban local bodies with its headquarters in Mumbai.
32Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
1. The Flag Code of India superseded the 'Flag Code-India'.
2. The state emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Flag Code of India, 2002, was enacted to consolidate all the laws, conventions, practices, and instructions regarding the display of the National Flag. It replaced the pre-existing set of instructions known as the Flag Code - India, providing a unified and comprehensive regulatory framework that came into effect on January 26, 2002.
The State Emblem of India was officially adopted on January 26, 1950, as an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka situated at Sarnath. It represents three of the four lions standing back-to-back on an abacus, which features sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull, and a lion, separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus.
33Economy
Which one of the following is not among the thematic areas of National Mission on Sustainable Habitat ?
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Answer: (D) Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity
Explanation
The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (NMSH) is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The mission focuses exclusively on making cities and urban areas more sustainable and climate-resilient. Its primary thematic areas include Energy and Green Buildings, Mobility and Air Quality, Water Management, Waste Management, and Storm Water Management. Rural Planning, Green cover, and Biodiversity are excluded from its scope because the mission's mandate is restricted to the urban habitat. Issues concerning rural areas and biodiversity are instead addressed by other specialized missions such as the National Mission for a Green India and various rural development frameworks.
34Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the components of the Indian Legal System ?
1. Basic values and principles enshrined in the Constitution
2. Rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes
3. Organizational set-up to enforce rights and obligations within the constitutional norms
4. Legal and judicial persons
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Indian Legal System is a multifaceted framework that integrates substantive rules, institutional structures, and fundamental values. The Constitution of India acts as the cornerstone, providing the basic values and principles, such as the Rule of Law and the Independence of the Judiciary, which govern all legal interpretations. Ordinary statutes enacted by the Parliament and State Legislatures expand this framework by prescribing specific rights and obligations for individuals and entities. The system also encompasses the organizational set-up, including the hierarchical judiciary and administrative machinery, tasked with the enforcement of these laws within constitutional boundaries. Additionally, the system defines and regulates legal and judicial persons, which include natural individuals, juristic entities like corporations, and the judicial officers responsible for the administration of justice. Since all these elements are essential for the functioning and definition of the legal order, they all constitute components of the Indian Legal System.
35Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about the objectives of Vibrant Village Programme is correct ?
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Answer: (A) It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
Explanation
The Vibrant Village Programme (VVP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme approved by the Government of India for the financial years 2022-23 to 2025-26. It was designed to improve the infrastructure and provide livelihood opportunities in villages located along India's northern border to enhance the quality of life and encourage residents to remain in their native locations. The scheme covers border areas in the states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and the Union Territory of Ladakh, focusing on comprehensive rural development to bolster border security through community stability.
36Polity and Governance
Which one of the following UN organizations has not been awarded the Nobel Prize ?
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Answer: (C) UNESCO
Explanation
UNESCO, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, is tasked with building peace through international cooperation in the fields of education, sciences, and culture. While it plays a critical role in fostering global intellectual and moral solidarity, UNESCO has not been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Several other specialized agencies within the United Nations system have received this honor for their specific humanitarian, social, or peacekeeping contributions, but UNESCO remains an organization that has not been selected by the Norwegian Nobel Committee to date.
37Polity and Governance
Which of the following areas has been exempted from the purview of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 ?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) The Sixth Schedule Areas
Explanation
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, contains a specific exclusionary clause under Section 6B(4) to protect the interests and cultural identity of indigenous populations in certain regions. The Act explicitly states that its provisions for granting citizenship to persecuted minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan shall not apply to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution. These areas are governed by Autonomous District Councils that exercise significant administrative and legislative autonomy. The Act also excludes areas covered under the Inner Line Permit system notified under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873, which currently includes the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Manipur.
38Polity and Governance
Who among the following stated that 'A just society is that society in which ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of contempt is dissolved into the creation of a compassionate society' ?
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Answer: (B) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Explanation
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar used this specific formulation to describe the psychological and social structure of the Indian caste system, which he characterized as a system of graded inequality. In his analysis, the caste hierarchy prevents the formation of a unified society because it instills an ascending scale of reverence toward those in higher castes and a descending scale of contempt toward those in lower castes. He argued that for a truly just and democratic society to emerge, this hierarchical mindset must be dissolved to make way for fraternity and a compassionate social order. Ambedkar emphasized that social justice is not merely about legal rights but about the fundamental transformation of social relationships based on the principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity.
39Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Criminal law is exclusively a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India.
2. Code of Civil Procedure falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists. Entry 13 of the Concurrent List (List III) specifically includes Civil procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Civil Procedure at the commencement of the Constitution. This placement allows both the Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on civil procedural matters. In contrast, Criminal Law is listed under Entry 1 of the Concurrent List, which means it is not an exclusive subject of the State List. Both the Union and the States share jurisdiction over criminal and civil procedural laws to ensure a degree of national uniformity while allowing for regional variations through state-specific amendments.
40Polity and Governance
Arrange the following agreements between India and Pakistan in chronological order :
1. Tashkent Declaration
2. Indus Water Treaty
3. Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities
4. Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons
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Answer: (C) 2,1,3,4
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these bilateral agreements between India and Pakistan is as follows:
The Indus Water Treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, in Karachi by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and President Ayub Khan to distribute the waters of the Indus River system.
The Tashkent Declaration was signed on January 10, 1966, by Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and President Ayub Khan to end the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965.
The Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities was signed on December 31, 1988, by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto, requiring an annual exchange of coordinates of nuclear facilities.
The Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons was signed on February 21, 2007, as a confidence-building measure to prevent the accidental or unauthorized use of nuclear weapons.
41Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is/are correct ?
1. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
2. The SCO enjoys observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. The SCO consists of 13 member states.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Charter stipulates that the official working languages of the organization are Russian and Chinese. Furthermore, the SCO has held observer status in the United Nations General Assembly since 2004, which facilitates its cooperation with the UN on matters of international security and regional development. As of the Astana Summit in July 2024, the SCO comprises 10 member states: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan, Iran, and Belarus. The figure of 13 member states is inaccurate, as the organization currently only includes these ten members alongside its dialogue partners and observers.
42Polity and Governance
Financial Action Task Force is :
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Answer: (C) A global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog
Explanation
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an independent intergovernmental organization established in 1989 by the G7 countries to serve as the global watchdog for money laundering and terrorist financing. It sets international standards, known as the FATF Recommendations, which aim to prevent illegal activities and the harm they cause to society. The body monitors how countries implement these standards and identifies jurisdictions with weak measures through its compliance process, often referred to as the Grey and Black lists. By promoting the effective implementation of legal, regulatory, and operational measures, the FATF works to protect the integrity of the international financial system from threats such as organized crime, corruption, and the financing of terrorism.
43Polity and Governance
In which of the following matters placed before the UN General Assembly, a resolution by two-thirds majority of the members present and voting is required?
1. Admission of new members to the UN
2. Election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council
3. Election of members of the Economic and Social Council
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
According to Article 18 of the United Nations Charter, decisions of the General Assembly on important questions must be made by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. The Charter explicitly identifies the admission of new members to the United Nations, the election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council, and the election of members of the Economic and Social Council as such important questions. This requirement ensures that these key institutional decisions reflect a broad consensus among the member states. Other matters falling under this category include budgetary questions, the suspension of rights and privileges of membership, and recommendations regarding the maintenance of international peace and security.
44Art and Culture
'Bharat Parv' was organized by the Government of India during which of the following programmes?
1. Republic Day 2024
2. National Film Festival 2024
3. Cannes Film Festival 2024
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Bharat Parv was organized by the Ministry of Tourism as a major component of the Republic Day 2024 celebrations. Held from January 23 to 31 at the Red Fort in New Delhi, the event featured the Republic Day tableaux, cultural performances, and a display of diverse handicrafts and cuisines to promote the spirit of Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat and Viksit Bharat.
The Government of India also organized Bharat Parv at the 77th Cannes Film Festival in 2024. This initiative, led by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, aimed to showcase India's creative economy and cultural heritage to a global audience. It provided a platform for international filmmakers and industry stakeholders to engage with the Indian film industry and learn about incentives for filming in India, marking the first time the Indian delegation's presence at Cannes was branded under this specific title.
45Polity and Governance
Which one of the following organizations challenged the constitutionality of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in the Supreme Court of India?
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Answer: (A) Naz Foundation (India) Trust
Explanation
The Naz Foundation (India) Trust, an NGO dedicated to HIV/AIDS intervention and sexual health, initiated the landmark legal challenge against Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code. The foundation originally filed a Public Interest Litigation in the Delhi High Court in 2001, arguing that the criminalization of consensual same-sex acts violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution. This litigation path eventually brought the matter before the Supreme Court of India, first during the appeals against the 2009 Delhi High Court judgment and subsequently through curative petitions. The foundation's sustained legal advocacy played a pivotal role in the judicial journey that led the Supreme Court to eventually strike down the colonial-era provision in the 2018 Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India case.
46Polity and Governance
As per Article 371G of the Constitution of India, special provisions have been made with respect to the state of Mizoram. Accordingly, no Act of Parliament shall apply on certain matters unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides by a resolution. Which one of the following matters is not covered under this Article?
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Answer: (D) Ownership and transfer of natural resources
Explanation
Article 371G of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 53rd Amendment Act in 1986, specifies that no Act of Parliament shall apply to the State of Mizoram unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides by a resolution regarding four specific areas. These areas include religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, and the ownership and transfer of land. While the ownership and transfer of land is protected, the article does not include the term natural resources. This is a significant distinction from Article 371A, which applies to Nagaland and explicitly covers both land and its resources. Consequently, the ownership and transfer of natural resources is not a matter protected under the special provisions of Article 371G.
47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, is/are correct?
1. This Act provides that electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as the handwritten signature.
2. Both the Central Government and State Governments have been given the power to make rules with respect to electronic signature.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Section 5 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides legal recognition to electronic signatures. It mandates that if any law requires information or a document to be authenticated by a signature, that requirement is fulfilled if such authentication is done via an electronic signature in the prescribed manner. This effectively ensures that electronic signatures carry the same legal weight as traditional handwritten signatures. Under Section 87 of the Act, the Central Government is specifically empowered to make rules regarding electronic signatures, including the standards and the manner in which they are affixed. While Section 90 grants State Governments the power to make rules, this authority is limited to administrative matters such as the fees and the format for filing electronic records with state-level agencies, and does not extend to the technical or legal framework governing the validity of electronic signatures.
48Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about National Recruitment Agency is correct?
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Answer: (A) It is a body to conduct Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist the candidates for vacancies under 'Group B' and 'Group C' of the Government.
Explanation
The National Recruitment Agency (NRA) is an autonomous multi-agency body established to streamline the recruitment process for central government jobs. Its primary function is to conduct a Common Eligibility Test (CET) to shortlist candidates for Group B (non-gazetted) and Group C (non-technical) posts. This CET serves as a preliminary screening exam, replacing the first-level tests previously conducted independently by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), and the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). The objective is to provide a single platform for candidates to qualify for multiple government sectors, thereby reducing the logistical and financial burden of appearing for several different preliminary examinations.
49Science and Technology
The Research Design and Standards Organization is the R&D wing of which one of the following organizations?
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Answer: (C) Indian Railways
Explanation
The Research Design and Standards Organization (RDSO) is an ISO 9001 certified organization that functions as the dedicated research and development wing of the Indian Railways under the Ministry of Railways. Headquartered in Lucknow, it acts as a technical advisor and consultant to the Railway Board, Zonal Railways, and Railway Production Units. RDSO was established in 1957 by merging the Central Standards Office (CSO) and the Railway Testing and Research Centre (RTRC) to centralize the efforts towards standardization and indigenization of railway equipment. Its primary responsibilities include the development of new designs, the creation of standard specifications for railway components, and the evaluation of new technologies to improve the safety and efficiency of the rail network.
50Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Speaker of Lok Sabha)
A. Manohar Gajanan Joshi
B. Somnath Chatterjee
C. Meira Kumar
D. Sumitra Mahajan
List-II
1. 14th Lok Sabha
2. 13th Lok Sabha
3. 16th Lok Sabha
4. 15th Lok Sabha
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Manohar Gajanan Joshi served as the Speaker of the 13th Lok Sabha from 2002 to 2004, taking office after the death of the previous Speaker, G.M.C. Balayogi.
Somnath Chatterjee was the Speaker of the 14th Lok Sabha, serving the full term from 2004 to 2009 during the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) administration.
Meira Kumar served as the Speaker during the 15th Lok Sabha from 2009 to 2014, distinguished as the first woman to hold this constitutional office in India.
Sumitra Mahajan presided over the 16th Lok Sabha from 2014 to 2019, being the second woman to serve as Speaker and representing the Indore constituency.
51Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about the Vedanta philosophy :
1. Shankara was the founder of Advaita Vedanta.
2. The philosophy of Dvaita was elaborated by Madhva.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Adi Shankara is the primary architect of the Advaita Vedanta school, which posits that the individual soul and the universal consciousness are identical. He interpreted the Prasthanatrayi—comprising the Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita, and the Brahma Sutras—to establish a systematic non-dualist philosophy where the material world is considered an appearance of the singular reality of Brahman. Madhvacharya founded the Dvaita Vedanta school, providing a dualistic interpretation of the same foundational texts. He elaborated on the concept that there is a fundamental and eternal distinction between the Supreme Being, individual souls, and the material universe. According to his teachings, the individual soul is eternally dependent on God but remains a separate entity even in the state of liberation. Together, these philosophers represent distinct and influential interpretations within the broader Vedanta tradition.
52History
The distribution of charkhas on a wide scale among the people was decided by :
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Answer: (B) All India Congress Committee in 1921
Explanation
The decision to distribute twenty lakh (2 million) charkhas throughout India was taken during the Bezwada (Vijayawada) session of the All India Congress Committee held in March 1921. This move was a critical component of the Non-Cooperation Movement and was aimed at promoting the Swadeshi spirit and economic self-sufficiency. Along with the distribution of charkhas, the committee resolved to collect one crore rupees for the Tilak Swaraj Fund and to enroll one crore members into the Congress party. By making the charkha a household item, the leadership sought to boycott foreign-made textiles and revive the domestic hand-spinning and weaving industry, thereby empowering the rural masses and providing a tangible form of resistance against British economic exploitation.
53History
The terms used for cereals in the Rig Veda are :
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Answer: (B) Yava and Dhanya
Explanation
In the Rig Veda, agriculture was a secondary activity compared to cattle rearing, and the variety of cultivated crops was limited. Yava is the most frequently mentioned cereal in the Rig Vedic hymns and is generally identified by historians as barley. Dhanya is another term found in the text, which served as a generic designation for any type of grain or cereal crop. While other grains like rice and wheat became staples in the later Vedic period, the Rig Vedic economy relied primarily on the cultivation of Yava and the collection of wild grains grouped under the term Dhanya.
54History
Consider the following statements about the condition of widows in the 18th century India:
1. Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber promoted widow remarriage.
2. Maratha General Parshuram Bhau promoted widow remarriage.
3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed Sati.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Raja Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber (Jaipur) was a progressive 18th-century ruler who attempted several social reforms, including the promotion of widow remarriage and the discouragement of Sati. He even tried to pass a law to legalise widow remarriage, although he faced significant opposition from conservative priests.
Similarly, in the late 18th century, the Maratha General Parshuram Bhau Patwardhan attempted to promote widow remarriage by trying to arrange the remarriage of his young widowed daughter in the 1790s. He sought the approval of the Peshwa and religious authorities like the Shankaracharya to provide social and religious legitimacy to the act, representing a significant reformist effort in the Maratha region before the 19th-century social reform movements gained momentum.
55History
Consider the following statements about the administrative measures of Shivaji:
1. The scheme of Ashta Pradhan (eight ministers) was completed and announced at the time of Shivaji's coronation with regulations and duties properly defined.
2. Shivaji introduced Marathi in place of Persian and coined Sanskrit technical terms for administrative purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Shivaji Maharaj formalised the council of eight ministers, known as the Ashta Pradhan, at the time of his coronation in 1674 at Raigad. Although several ministerial roles had existed in various forms during his earlier reign, it was at the coronation that the council was structured into a definite system with clearly defined duties and hierarchical regulations. Each minister, such as the Peshwa (Prime Minister) and Amatya (Finance Minister), was assigned specific administrative and military responsibilities, ensuring a centralized and efficient governance model.
To strengthen the indigenous character of his administration, Shivaji Maharaj replaced Persian, which was the official language of the preceding Sultanates, with Marathi. He sought to eliminate foreign linguistic influence in state affairs by commissioning the Rajya-vyavahara-kosha. This comprehensive administrative dictionary provided Sanskrit equivalents for Persian and Arabic technical terms, thereby institutionalizing Sanskritized Marathi as the medium for official correspondence and administrative purposes.
56History
With reference to the Mesolithic art in India, consider the following statements:
1. Alexander Burns discovered the first rock paintings in India at Sohagighat in Uttar Pradesh.
2. Bhimbetka rock paintings were discovered when archaeologist V.S. Wakankar noticed the rocks out of a train window while travelling from Bhopal to Itarsi and got off at the nearest railway station to explore the site.
3. The paintings and engravings do not exist in the same shelter in the rock art of Orissa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
V.S. Wakankar discovered the Bhimbetka rock shelters in 1957. While traveling by train from Bhopal to Itarsi, he noticed the sandstone formations from his window and, sensing their archaeological significance, alighted at a nearby station to explore the area. This led to the discovery of one of the largest and oldest rock art complexes in the world.
The first discovery of rock paintings in India was actually made by Archibald Carlleyle in 1867-68 at Sohagighat in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh, nearly twelve years before the discovery of Altamira in Spain. Alexander Burnes was a British explorer and diplomat, but he is not associated with this discovery. Furthermore, the rock art of Odisha is distinct because it frequently features both paintings and engravings within the same rock shelters. Sites such as Gudahandi and Vikramkhol provide clear evidence where pictographs and petroglyphs coexist, contradicting the claim that they do not exist in the same shelter.
57Art and Culture
In the decoration of Stupas, what does the term 'Kinjalkini' refer to?
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Answer: (A) Creepers showing ornaments and textiles
Explanation
In the context of Buddhist stupa architecture and iconography, specifically observed in the stone railings of the Bharhut Stupa, Kinjalkini refers to a decorative motif of the wish-fulfilling creeper known as the Kalpavalli or Kalpalata. This artistic element is sculpted as a winding vine that produces various worldly luxuries instead of standard botanical fruits or flowers. These creepers are depicted bearing an abundance of exquisite jewelry, ornaments, and fine textiles, symbolizing the celestial nature of the sacred site. The motif represents the concept of divine prosperity and the ability of the sacred landscape to provide for all human needs and desires, serving as a significant element of the narrative and symbolic relief work in early Indian art.
58Art and Culture
Which of the following is/are the correct components of the Lion Capital at Sarnath?
1. The shaft (stambha-yashti) or the tall tapering column
2. An elliptical top part - the abacus, devoid of any carvings
3. Overflowing inverted petals below the abacus
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Sarnath Lion Capital was originally part of a monolithic Ashokan pillar which consists of a tall, tapering shaft known as the stambha-yashti. This shaft was carved from a single block of Chunar sandstone and served as the support for the capital. The capital itself features a base designed as an inverted lotus with stylized, overflowing petals, often referred to as a bell-shaped base. Above this lotus base is the abacus, which is a circular drum-like structure. The abacus is not elliptical, nor is it devoid of carvings; rather, it is intricately decorated with relief sculptures of four animals—a lion, a horse, a bull, and an elephant—separated by four Dharmachakras (wheels). The entire assembly was originally crowned by four lions seated back-to-back, which in turn supported a large stone wheel, the Dharmachakra.
59History
Consider the following events leading to the Indian Independence:
1. Lucknow Pact
2. Return of Subhash Chandra Bose to India
3. Cripps Mission
4. Naval Mutiny in Bombay
Select the chronological sequence of these events (earliest to latest) from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation
The Lucknow Pact was an agreement signed between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League in December 1916 to pressure the British government for political reforms. Subhash Chandra Bose returned to India in 1921 after resigning from the Indian Civil Service in London to join the Indian independence struggle. The Cripps Mission visited India in March 1942 under the leadership of Sir Stafford Cripps to negotiate Indian support for World War II in exchange for the promise of eventual self-rule. The Naval Mutiny, also known as the Royal Indian Navy revolt, started in Bombay in February 1946 as a protest by Indian sailors against British officers and discriminatory conditions.
60History
Who among the following were famous for their metal-casting skills and used to cast excellent matchlocks during the medieval period?
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Answer: (C) Ahoms
Explanation
The Ahoms of the Brahmaputra Valley were renowned for their advanced metallurgical skills and the indigenous production of firearms during the medieval period. While they initially encountered firearms through contact with the Bengal Sultanate and the Mughals, they rapidly developed a sophisticated domestic industry. Historical accounts, such as those by the Mughal chronicler Shihabuddin Talish who accompanied Mir Jumla's expedition in 1662, specifically highlight the excellence of Ahom metal-casting. The Ahoms manufactured high-quality matchlocks and large cannons, often using a superior variety of local iron and sophisticated casting techniques. This proficiency in making durable and effective firearms, combined with their expertise in producing high-grade gunpowder, played a decisive role in their successful military resistance against repeated Mughal invasions.
61Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about the Ancient Hindu metal images in India:
1. The Chola period is well known for the aesthetic and technical finesse of its metal sculpture.
2. The iconography and style of Chola metal images were similar to those of their stone counterparts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Chola period is celebrated as the golden age of bronze casting in India, where artisans mastered the lost-wax (cire perdue) process to create sculptures of unparalleled aesthetic and technical excellence. These metal images are renowned for their fluid grace, rhythmic movement, and sophisticated detailing, particularly evident in the iconic representations of Shiva as Nataraja. Furthermore, the iconography and stylistic features of Chola bronzes were intrinsically linked to the stone sculptures of the same period. Both mediums followed the strict canonical prescriptions of the Shilpa Shastras and Agamas, which dictated the proportions, gestures (mudras), and postures (bhangas) of the deities. As a result, the artistic language used in the relief carvings on temple walls and the primary stone idols in the sanctums mirrored the style found in the portable bronze images used for temple processions.
62Polity and Governance
Which one of the following terms was used for the States in the Draft Constitution presented by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on 4th November, 1948?
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Answer: (A) Union of States
Explanation
In the Draft Constitution presented to the Constituent Assembly on November 4, 1948, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar used the term Union of States in Article 1 to describe the Indian polity. While explaining the choice of this specific terminology over Federation of States, Ambedkar emphasized that the Indian federation was not the result of an agreement among the states, similar to the American model, and that the states had no right to secede from the Union. The term was intended to signify that although the Constitution is federal in form, the Union is permanent and indestructible.
63History
The antariva was a garment worn by people during the Mauryan period. It was:
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Answer: (A) an unstitched length of cloth draped around the body.
Explanation
The antariva was the primary lower garment worn by both men and women during the Mauryan period. It consisted of a rectangular strip of unstitched white cotton, linen, or muslin that was wrapped around the hips and secured at the waist. Commonly draped in the kachcha style, the cloth was passed between the legs and tucked into the waist at the back, similar to the modern dhoti. It was typically held in place by a sash or waistband known as the kayabandh. This garment was a fundamental element of ancient Indian attire, providing ease of movement and comfort in the tropical climate.
64History
Consider the following statements with reference to the Utpala dynasty of Kashmir:
1. Avantivarman, the founder, devoted his energies to the economic upliftment of his subjects.
2. Avantivarman's period in Kashmir is known for the engineering operations under his minister Suyya, resulting in the enormous increase of grains and fall in prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Avantivarman, who established the Utpala dynasty in the 9th century, shifted the state focus from military expansion to internal consolidation and the economic welfare of his subjects. His reign is particularly distinguished by the innovative engineering projects directed by his minister, Suyya. To mitigate the frequent and devastating floods in the Kashmir Valley, Suyya regulated the waters of the Vitasta River by clearing the silted bed at the gorge of Baramulla and diverting its course. This massive drainage and irrigation scheme reclaimed extensive marshy lands for agriculture and protected crops from seasonal inundation. The resulting agricultural boom led to a sharp increase in the availability of food grains, causing the price of rice to drop significantly and ensuring long-term food security for the region.
65History
Consider the following pairs of High Offices and concerned Departments in the Mauryan Administration:
1. Samahartri - Chief Collector of Revenue
2. Dauvarika - Chief of Army
3. Akshapatala - Records-cum-Audit Officer
4. Samnidhatri - Treasurer
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
In the Mauryan administrative system, the Samahartri served as the Collector-General of Revenue, responsible for the assessment and collection of taxes from various sources like land, trade, and mines. The Akshapatala was the central department for accounts and records, headed by an officer who functioned as the Records-cum-Audit Officer to maintain state ledgers and audit the income and expenditure of all departments. The Samnidhatri was the Chief Treasurer and Custodian of the state warehouses and granaries, ensuring the safe storage of revenue collected in both cash and kind. These high offices were central to the fiscal management and bureaucratic organization described in Kautilya's Arthashastra.
66History
Which kingdom was described by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie as A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day?
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Answer: (B) Awadh
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie used the metaphor of a cherry that would drop into the British mouth one day to describe the kingdom of Awadh in 1851. This statement reflected the British strategic interest in the wealthy and fertile region, which had been under a subsidiary alliance since 1801. Dalhousie anticipated that the internal political situation and the nature of British control would eventually make its formal annexation inevitable. This prediction was fulfilled in 1856 when the British annexed Awadh on the grounds of chronic misgovernment and maladministration under Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, rather than using the Doctrine of Lapse. The annexation of Awadh was a major factor contributing to the discontent that led to the Revolt of 1857.
67Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with reference to Census in India:
1. The first All India Census was attempted in 1872.
2. From 1881, decennial censuses became a regular feature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The first population census in India was attempted in 1872 under the administration of Governor-General Lord Mayo. This effort was not synchronous and did not cover all territories of India, but it marked the first major initiative to conduct a large-scale population count.
The first synchronous census, which covered the whole of India and provided a more complete and uniform set of data, was conducted in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon. This established the tradition of decennial censuses in India, meaning the census was held every ten years thereafter without interruption until the delay of the 2021 cycle. These regular exercises have since served as the primary source of demographic information for the country.
68History
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. During the Second Round Table Conference held in London in 1931, the British Government refused to accept the basic nationalist demand for freedom.
2. India was granted dominion status in 1932.
3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon adopted a policy of reconciliation with Congress.
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started with the breaking of salt laws.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the Second Round Table Conference, held from September to December 1931, ended in failure regarding the nationalist demand for self-rule. Mahatma Gandhi, as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, demanded the immediate grant of dominion status. However, the British government prioritized the communal question and the representation of minorities over the transfer of power, refusing to concede to the basic nationalist demand for independence or a definite constitutional timeline.
Statement 4 is correct as the Civil Disobedience Movement was formally inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi through the Salt Satyagraha. The movement began with the historic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram, concluding on April 6, 1930, when Gandhi broke the salt law by picking up a handful of salt at Dandi. This act of defiance against the British salt monopoly served as the catalyst for widespread non-violent resistance and the violation of colonial laws across the country.
69History
Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct?
1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian leaders.
2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy.
3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states, alongside a federal centre.
4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Cabinet Mission was sent to India in March 1946 to negotiate with Indian leaders regarding the constitutional framework for the transfer of power. The mission proposed a federal structure for the Union of India that would include both the British Indian provinces and the Princely States. This federal plan was designed to be decentralized, with the central government limited to handling only defense, foreign affairs, and communications, while all other subjects and residuary powers were vested in the provinces. This arrangement conceded the largest measure of regional autonomy to the constituent units. Furthermore, the plan introduced a grouping scheme where provinces were divided into three sections (Groups A, B, and C). Individual provinces were permitted to form these regional unions and could decide to surrender some of their provincial powers to the group executive and legislature by mutual agreement. This created a multi-layered administrative system intended to provide a middle ground between the demands for a strong central government and the demand for a separate state.
70History
Consider the following pairs:
1. Gajapati - Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa
2. Ashvapati - Deccan Sultans
3. Narapati - Rayas of Vijayanagara
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The historical titles used during the medieval period in the Indian subcontinent reflected the primary military strengths of different ruling powers as described in contemporary accounts. The Gajapatis were a powerful dynasty that governed Odisha from the 15th to the 16th century; their title literally means Lord of Elephants, highlighting their specialized elephant corps. In the political traditions of the era, particularly within the Vijayanagara Empire, regional rivals were categorized by specific epithets. The Deccan Sultans were identified as Ashvapati, which translates to Lord of Horses, signifying their access to and use of superior cavalry. The Rayas of Vijayanagara were called Narapati, meaning Lord of Men, a title that acknowledged their control over extensive territories and a massive infantry force.
71Geography
Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Glaciers and their location is/are correctly matched?
1. Siachen - Nubra Valley Region
2. Chungphar - Kumaon-Garhwal Region
3. Zemu - Central Nepal Region
4. Gasherbrum - Pir Panjal Range
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Siachen Glacier is situated in the eastern Karakoram Range in the Himalayas, just northeast of the point NJ9842. It is the second-longest glacier in the world's non-polar regions and serves as the primary source of the Nubra River. The meltwater from the glacier flows into the Nubra Valley in the Ladakh region, which then joins the Shyok River before entering the Indus. This makes the glacier the most significant hydrological and geographical feature of the Nubra Valley region.
72Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the rivers of India:
1. The Barak River, the head stream of the Meghna, rises in the hills of Meghalaya.
2. The Ghaggar River does not drain out to the sea and gets lost in the Rajasthan desert.
3. Puthimari and Manas are important tributaries of the Brahmaputra.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ghaggar River is a seasonal, endorheic stream that originates in the Shivalik Hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through Punjab and Haryana into Rajasthan, where it eventually dissipates in the sands of the Thar Desert without reaching the sea. The Puthimari and Manas are significant north-bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra River. The Manas is a major transboundary river flowing from Bhutan, while the Puthimari is a primary tributary draining the southern slopes of the Himalayas in Assam. Conversely, the Barak River, which is the headstream of the Meghna, originates in the Manipur Hills near the Laisang peak rather than the hills of Meghalaya.
73Geography
Consider the following statements regarding transportation functions associated with important ports:
1. Singapore functions both as a port of call and an entrepot.
2. Karwar in India is an example of a naval port.
3. Dover in England is an example of an outport.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
Singapore serves as a vital port of call due to its strategic location on the major sea route between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, where ships frequently stop for refueling, repairs, and stocking supplies. Simultaneously, it acts as a premier entrepot, functioning as a major collection and distribution center where goods are imported from various parts of the world and re-exported to other destinations.
Karwar is a prominent example of a naval port in India, as it hosts INS Kadamba, which is one of the largest and most strategically important naval bases of the Indian Navy. Naval ports are specifically developed to provide specialized facilities for the docking, maintenance, and logistics of warships and military personnel.
Dover is categorized as a packet station or ferry port rather than an outport. Packet stations are designed for the transport of passengers and mail across short sea distances, and Dover specifically facilitates high-frequency ferry traffic across the English Channel between England and France. Outports, conversely, are deep-water ports built to supplement a main port that can no longer accommodate large vessels, such as Haldia for Kolkata.
74Geography
Cumulonimbus clouds develop from which among the following clouds?
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Answer: (A) Cumulus congestus clouds
Explanation
Cumulonimbus clouds are the result of extreme vertical development of cumulus clouds driven by powerful convective updrafts in an unstable atmosphere. The growth sequence typically progresses from Cumulus humilis to Cumulus mediocris and then to Cumulus congestus. Cumulus congestus, also known as towering cumulus, is the immediate precursor to a Cumulonimbus. It is characterized by sharp outlines and significant vertical height, but it lacks the glaciated (icy) upper structure and anvil shape typical of a fully developed Cumulonimbus. When the updrafts in a Cumulus congestus cloud are sufficiently strong to reach the upper levels of the troposphere where temperatures are well below freezing, the water droplets turn into ice crystals, marking the transition into a Cumulonimbus cloud capable of producing heavy precipitation, thunder, and lightning.
75Geography
Which of the following Ramsar Wetland sites is not situated in any of the Union Territories of India?
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Answer: (B) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary
Explanation
Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary is located in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu. While the other listed sites are located in the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir or Ladakh, Tamil Nadu is a State. Designated as a Ramsar site in 2002, Point Calimere serves as a critical habitat for migratory waterbirds, particularly the Greater Flamingo, and is characterized by a unique landscape of saline lagoons, mangroves, and dry evergreen forests. It is also well-known for its population of the Blackbuck, an antelope species native to the Indian subcontinent.
76Geography
Eratosthenes, a Greek philosopher measured the Earth's circumference based on the angle of Sun rays at two different points. Which cities were they?
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Answer: (A) Alexandria and Syene
Explanation
Eratosthenes calculated the Earth's circumference by observing that at noon on the summer solstice, the Sun was directly overhead in Syene (modern Aswan), as evidenced by the lack of shadows in a deep well. Simultaneously, in Alexandria, located nearly due north of Syene, he measured the angle of a shadow cast by a vertical pillar to be 7.2°, which is 1/50 of a full 360° circle. By using the estimated distance of 5,000 stadia between the two cities, he applied the geometric principle that the ratio of the arc length to the circumference is equal to the ratio of the central angle to the total degrees in a circle. Multiplying the distance by 50, he arrived at a circumference of approximately 250,000 stadia, a remarkably accurate measurement for the 3rd century BCE.
77Geography
Which kind of mass wasting processes are commonly associated with creep?
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Answer: (D) Slow speed with soil
Explanation
Creep is the slowest type of mass wasting process, involving the gradual downhill movement of soil and regolith. This movement occurs at an almost imperceptible rate, often measured in millimeters or centimeters per year. It is primarily driven by the force of gravity and facilitated by the repeated expansion and contraction of surface materials. These volume changes are typically caused by alternating cycles of freezing and thawing or wetting and drying within the soil layer. When soil moisture freezes, it lifts the soil particles perpendicular to the slope; when it thaws, the particles settle vertically due to gravity, resulting in a net migration downslope over time. Physical evidence of this slow process includes curved tree trunks, tilted utility poles, and displaced retaining walls.
78Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Hadley cells are key to understanding the wind patterns of Earth.
2. Hadley cells are formed because the Equator is heated more strongly by the Sun than other places, creating thermal circulations.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Explanation
Hadley cells are the foundation of the global atmospheric circulation system. They are thermally driven circulations initiated by the intense solar radiation received at the Equator. This high insolation causes air to expand, become less dense, and rise, creating a low-pressure area known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). As this air ascends and moves toward the poles, it cools and eventually sinks at approximately 30 degrees North and South latitudes, forming subtropical high-pressure belts. The air then returns toward the Equator along the surface as the Northeast and Southeast Trade Winds. Because this thermal mechanism establishes the primary pressure gradients and surface wind directions in the tropics and subtropics, understanding the formation and behavior of Hadley cells is essential for explaining the broader wind patterns and climatic zones of the Earth.
79Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Ocean currents are dominated by huge surface gyres that are driven by the global surface wind pattern.
2. Equatorial currents move cold water westward and then poleward along the east coasts of continents.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
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Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is false.
Explanation
Ocean surface circulation is characterized by large-scale circular systems known as gyres, which are primarily driven by the global wind belts. The interaction between the prevailing winds, such as the Trade winds and Westerlies, and the Coriolis effect creates these massive rotating currents. In the northern hemisphere, gyres rotate clockwise, while in the southern hemisphere, they rotate counter-clockwise.
Equatorial currents are warm-water currents because they flow through the tropical regions where solar heating is most intense. Driven by the Trade winds, these currents move water westward across the ocean basins. Upon reaching the eastern coasts of continents (the western boundaries of the ocean basins), they are deflected toward the poles. These western boundary currents, such as the Gulf Stream in the Atlantic or the Kuroshio in the Pacific, transport warm tropical water toward higher latitudes, significantly influencing the climate of the adjacent landmasses. Cold water currents typically originate in polar regions and flow toward the equator along the western coasts of continents.
80Geography
As per India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following states is not among the top three with reference to maximum area under forest?
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Answer: (D) Maharashtra
Explanation
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021 rankings for the largest forest cover by area place Madhya Pradesh at the top with 77,493 sq km, followed by Arunachal Pradesh with 66,431 sq km, and Chhattisgarh with 55,717 sq km. These three states constitute the top tier of forest area in the country. Maharashtra, with a recorded forest cover of 50,798 sq km, is positioned fifth in India, trailing behind Odisha which occupies the fourth rank. As a result, Maharashtra does not feature among the top three states for maximum forest area.
81Geography
How is strong pressure gradient represented on a weather map?
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Answer: (A) Closely spaced isobars
Explanation
The pressure gradient represents the rate of change of atmospheric pressure with respect to horizontal distance. On a weather map, isobars are lines that connect points of equal atmospheric pressure. The magnitude of the pressure gradient is inversely proportional to the distance between these isobars. When isobars are closely spaced, it indicates that the atmospheric pressure is changing rapidly over a short distance, which signifies a strong or steep pressure gradient. This steep gradient generates a powerful pressure gradient force, which is the primary driver of high wind speeds as air moves from areas of high pressure to low pressure. Mathematically, the pressure gradient can be expressed as ΔP/d, where ΔP is the pressure difference and d is the distance; a smaller d for a fixed ΔP results in a larger gradient.
82Geography
Which one of the following is not an example of chemical weathering?
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Answer: (C) Salt Crystal Growth
Explanation
Salt crystal growth is a mechanical weathering process characterized by the physical disintegration of rocks. This phenomenon typically occurs in arid or coastal environments where saline solutions penetrate rock pores and crevices. Upon evaporation of the water, salt crystals precipitate and grow. As these crystals expand due to heating or further crystallization, they exert significant outward pressure against the confining walls of the rock. This internal stress eventually overcomes the cohesive strength of the rock, causing it to crack and break apart into smaller fragments without any transformation in the chemical composition of the constituent minerals.
83Geography
Which of the following statements regarding Arc Volcanoes is/are correct?
1. Arc volcanoes are found near divergent plate boundaries.
2. Some of the world's classical examples of cone-shaped stratovolcanoes, such as Mount Fuji in Japan, Mayon in the Philippines are Arc volcanoes.
3. Some of the highest volcanoes on Earth are of the Arc type, notably Nevado Ojos del Salado in the Chilean Andes.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Arc volcanoes, commonly known as stratovolcanoes, are formed at subduction zones where tectonic plates converge. Mount Fuji in Japan and Mayon in the Philippines are classic examples of these cone-shaped structures, having been built up by successive layers of lava and pyroclastic material over thousands of years within volcanic arcs. Furthermore, volcanic arcs situated on continental crust, such as the Andes, host some of the highest mountains in the world. Nevado Ojos del Salado is a prominent arc volcano located in the Chilean Andes and is recognized as the highest active volcano on Earth, reaching an altitude of 6,893 meters. This demonstrates the massive scale and elevation typical of continental arc systems.
84Geography
Which one of the following statements regarding S-waves is not correct?
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Answer: (B) During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses.
Explanation
S-waves are more destructive than P-waves due to their transverse or shear nature. While P-waves are longitudinal and move the ground back and forth in the direction of wave travel, S-waves cause the ground to shake perpendicularly to the direction of propagation. This side-to-side and up-and-down motion exerts significant shearing stress on man-made structures. Most buildings and highway overpasses are designed to handle vertical loads but are highly vulnerable to the horizontal displacements caused by S-waves. Additionally, S-waves typically have larger amplitudes than P-waves, resulting in more violent ground shaking and a higher potential for structural failure.
85Geography
Which of the following states is/are part of the Ganga Basin?
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Rajasthan
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India, covering approximately 8.6 lakh square kilometers across 11 states and Union Territories. Chhattisgarh is part of the basin because its northern districts are drained by tributaries of the Son river, which is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganga. Himachal Pradesh is included as the Yamuna, the primary tributary of the Ganga, originates and flows through the region, receiving water from catchments like the Tons and Giri rivers. Rajasthan belongs to the basin because a significant portion of the state is drained by the Chambal river system and its various tributaries, such as the Banas, which ultimately flow into the Yamuna. Thus, the hydrological boundaries of the Ganga river system encompass parts of Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
86Geography
Which peninsular river has a tributary named 'Kabini'?
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Answer: (D) Kaveri
Explanation
The Kabini river, also known as the Kapila, is a major right-bank tributary of the Kaveri. It originates in the Wayanad district of Kerala through the confluence of the Panamaram and Mananthavady rivers. It flows eastward into Karnataka and joins the Kaveri at Tirumakudalu Narasipura in the Mysore district. The river is a critical water source for the region and is well-known for the Kabini Reservoir, which supports extensive irrigation and forms a significant part of the wildlife habitat in the Nagarhole and Bandipur national park complex.
87Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
2. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi.
With regard to the statements given above, which of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
Explanation
Bajra and Ragi are important millets grown in India, primarily in rain-fed and dry areas. Bajra is a kharif crop that requires high temperatures and low rainfall, making it ideal for the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, which is the leading producer, as well as Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. Ragi is a hardy crop grown in dry regions, with Karnataka being the largest producer followed by Tamil Nadu. The geographical concentration of these crops is fundamentally determined by their specific soil and climatic requirements. Bajra grows exceptionally well on sandy soils and shallow black soils, which are characteristic features of the landscapes in Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat. Similarly, Ragi is suited for a variety of soils including red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils, which are dominant in the plateau regions of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Since the soil types mentioned in statement 2 are the primary reason why these crops are successfully cultivated in the specific states mentioned in statement 1, the second statement serves as the correct ecological explanation for the first.
88Geography
Which of the following peaks are situated in India?
1. Dhaulagiri
2. Namcha Barwa
3. Kamet
4. Makalu
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
Kamet is the highest point in the Zanskar Range and the second highest peak in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India, after Nanda Devi. It is situated in the Chamoli district near the border with Tibet, standing at an elevation of 7,756 metres.
Dhaulagiri is located in north-central Nepal. It is the highest point of the Dhaulagiri massif and the seventh highest mountain in the world, with an elevation of 8,167 metres.
Namcha Barwa is the highest peak of the eastern Himalayas, situated in the Nyingchi Prefecture of the Tibet Autonomous Region in China. It marks the eastern syntaxial bend of the Himalayan range, where the Yarlung Tsangpo River (the Brahmaputra) makes a sharp U-turn to enter India.
Makalu is the fifth highest mountain in the world, reaching an elevation of 8,485 metres. it is located in the Mahalangur Himalayas on the international border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, approximately 19 kilometres southeast of Mount Everest.
89Geography
Which of the following statements regarding River Rhine is/are correct?
1. Rhine River is an important pathway for industrial activity in northern Germany.
2. Port of Rotterdam is located at the mouth of the Rhine River.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Port of Rotterdam is situated in the Netherlands at the North Sea, specifically at the mouth of the Rhine-Meuse-Scheldt delta. It serves as the primary maritime gateway for the Rhine waterway system, which is the most important inland shipping route in Europe. While the Rhine is a critical industrial artery, it serves the industrial heartlands of Western Germany (particularly the Ruhr region in North Rhine-Westphalia) and Southwestern Germany. Industrial activity in Northern Germany is primarily supported by other river systems such as the Elbe, which serves Hamburg, and the Weser, which serves Bremen. Therefore, the Rhine is not characterized as a pathway for industrial activity in the northern region of Germany.
90Geography
With reference to the continent of 'Antarctica' which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is larger than Europe in terms of area.
2. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents.
3. Mt. Ross is the highest peak of this continent.
4. Waters of the Southern Ocean (West Wind Drift) move in an anticlockwise direction around it.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Antarctica is the fifth-largest continent, covering an area of approximately 14.2 million square kilometers. In comparison, Europe covers about 10.1 million square kilometers, making Antarctica significantly larger than Europe.
Antarctica also has the highest average elevation of all the continents on Earth. Its mean elevation is approximately 2,500 meters (about 8,200 feet) above sea level. This high average elevation is not due to mountainous terrain alone but is primarily the result of the massive continental ice sheet that covers about 98 percent of the landmass. This ice sheet has an average thickness of about 1.9 kilometers, effectively raising the entire surface of the continent well above the height of the average terrain found in other continents like Asia or North America.
91Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. A rupee Vostro account is an account that an Indian bank holds for a foreign bank in the domestic currency (rupee) to enable domestic banks to provide international banking services.
2. Insurance density, i.e., average insurance premium per capita does not fully capture the financing gap in the event of a premature death because most of the insurance products sold in India are savings-linked with a small component of protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
A Rupee Vostro account is an account that a domestic bank in India holds on behalf of a foreign bank in the domestic currency, which is the Indian Rupee. The term Vostro is derived from the Latin word for your, meaning your account on our books. This arrangement allows the foreign bank to facilitate international trade and financial transactions for its clients within the Indian regulatory framework, while enabling the domestic Indian bank to provide international banking and trade settlement services in local currency.
Insurance density is a measure of the average insurance premium paid per capita in a country. While this metric reflects the depth of the insurance market, it does not accurately represent the protection gap or the financing shortfall faced by families in the event of a breadwinner's death. In India, the majority of life insurance policies sold are traditional savings-linked products, such as endowment or money-back plans, where a significant portion of the premium is directed toward investment and only a small fraction is dedicated to pure life cover or protection. Consequently, a high insurance density driven by high-premium savings products does not necessarily equate to adequate financial protection for the population.
92Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. An additional spending by the Government of X is likely to have less impact on income than an additional transfer of X to households.
2. An additional spending by the Government of X is likely to have less impact on income if it is not accompanied by an expansion in money supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct based on the crowding-out effect within the IS-LM framework. When the government increases spending (G), the IS curve shifts to the right, leading to an increase in national income. This higher income increases the transaction demand for money. If the money supply remains constant (fixed LM curve), the increased demand for money pushes interest rates upward. Higher interest rates reduce private investment and interest-sensitive consumption, which offsets some of the initial gain in income. If the fiscal expansion were accompanied by a monetary expansion (increasing the money supply), interest rates could be kept low, preventing crowding out and resulting in a larger total impact on income.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the government spending multiplier is mathematically larger than the transfer payment multiplier. The multiplier for government spending is k_G = 1/(1 - MPC), while the multiplier for transfers is kₜᵣ = MPC/(1 - MPC). Since the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is less than 1, the value of k_G is always greater than kₜᵣ. This is because the entire amount of government spending directly enters the aggregate demand, whereas a portion of a transfer payment is saved by households rather than spent.
93Economy
Long-Term Low Emissions Development Strategy envisions:
1. a transition from fossil fuels in a just, smooth, sustainable manner.
2. increased use of bio-fuels.
3. climate resistant urban development.
4. financing of sustainable development through Green Bonds.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
India submitted its Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) to the UNFCCC during COP27 in 2022. The strategy outlines several key sectoral transitions to reach net-zero emissions by 2070.
Statement 1 is correct as the LT-LEDS emphasizes that the transition from fossil fuels will be undertaken in a just, smooth, sustainable, and all-inclusive manner, ensuring energy security while protecting livelihoods.
Statement 2 is correct because the strategy envisions an integrated, efficient, and low-carbon transport system. A major component of this is the increased use of bio-fuels, particularly the 20% ethanol blending in petrol target and the use of biodiesel.
Statement 3 is correct as climate-resilient urban development is a primary pillar. This involves promoting adaptation in urban design, enhancing energy and material efficiency in buildings through the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), and using smart city initiatives to drive sustainable urbanization.
While the LT-LEDS document discusses the financial aspects of the transition, including the role of Sovereign Green Bonds and carbon markets, the core sectoral vision primarily focuses on the transformations in energy, transport, and urban systems. Therefore, the combination of statements 1, 2, and 3 represents the central pillars of the development strategy.
94Economy
Which one among the following was the focus of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?
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Answer: (A) Sustainable and Inclusive Growth
Explanation
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012-2017) was launched with the primary vision of achieving Faster, Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth. This plan emphasized that for growth to be truly meaningful, it must be broad-based across sectors and inclusive of all sections of the population, particularly the marginalized and vulnerable groups. The inclusion of sustainability as a core objective reflected an integrated approach to economic development that prioritized environmental protection and the efficient use of natural resources alongside industrial and agricultural expansion. It sought to improve infrastructure, health, and education to ensure that the benefits of national development were distributed equitably across various regions and social strata of India.
95Economy
Which of the following is not included in the Capital Account of the Balance of Payments of a country?
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Answer: (C) Invisibles
Explanation
Invisibles are a major component of the Current Account in the Balance of Payments. They encompass three main categories: services, income, and transfer payments. Services include items such as travel, transportation, insurance, and software exports. Income refers to the net flow of compensation for employees and investment income like interest, profits, and dividends. Transfers include unilateral receipts such as remittances from workers abroad, gifts, and grants. Unlike the Capital Account, which records transactions resulting in a change in the assets or liabilities of a country, the Current Account records the actual flow of goods, services, and income. Since Invisibles represent the exchange of services and non-investment financial flows that do not create future claims or obligations, they are excluded from the Capital Account.
96Economy
The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:
1. Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries
2. Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan is a comprehensive economic vision aimed at making India self-reliant by strengthening the five pillars of Economy, Infrastructure, System, Vibrant Demography, and Demand. A central component of this scheme is the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) program, which provides financial rewards to manufacturers for incremental sales, thereby directly enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and boosting exports across diverse industrial sectors. Furthermore, the initiative is not inward-looking but emphasizes Make in India for the world, which involves incentivizing foreign direct investment (FDI) and encouraging multinational corporations to set up domestic production units. By integrating local manufacturing with global capital and technology, the scheme seeks to transform India into a global manufacturing hub and reduce reliance on critical imports.
97Economy
Which one of the following statements for a firm's equilibrium in Perfect Competition is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The marginal cost decreases at the equilibrium output.
Explanation
For a firm to reach equilibrium in a perfectly competitive market, the profit-maximization conditions require the Marginal Cost (MC) curve to intersect the Marginal Revenue (MR) curve from below. This is known as the second-order or sufficient condition for equilibrium. At the point of intersection, the slope of the MC curve must be greater than the slope of the MR curve. Since the MR curve is a horizontal line with a slope of zero in perfect competition, the MC must have a positive slope, meaning it must be increasing at the equilibrium level of output. If MC were decreasing at the point where P = MC, the firm could increase its total profit by producing more units because the cost of each additional unit would be falling while the price remains constant. Therefore, a firm is not in equilibrium if the marginal cost is decreasing.
98Economy
Which one of the following taxes is not included in the Central Pool to be shared with the States according to the recommendations of Finance Commission of India?
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Answer: (C) Surcharge and Cess
Explanation
)
Under Article 270 and Article 271 of the Constitution of India, surcharges and cesses are explicitly excluded from the divisible pool of taxes shared between the Union and the States. Article 271 allows the Union Parliament to levy surcharges on taxes and duties for specific purposes of the Union, and the entire proceeds of such surcharges are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. Similarly, cesses are collected to fund specific government expenditures (such as education or health) and are not subject to the devolution formula recommended by the Finance Commission. As a result, the revenue generated from surcharges and cesses is retained entirely by the Central Government.
99Economy
Which one of the following dimensions is not included in Human Development Index?
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Answer: (D) Mortality rate
Explanation
Mortality rate is not a component of the Human Development Index. The index, as formulated by the United Nations Development Programme, assesses human progress through three specific dimensions: health, knowledge, and standard of living. The health dimension is represented exclusively by life expectancy at birth, which reflects the average number of years a person is expected to live. While mortality data informs the calculation of life expectancy, raw mortality rates are not used as independent indicators within the index formula. Instead, such metrics are typically found in other frameworks like the Multidimensional Poverty Index or the Gender Inequality Index.
100Economy
Suppose there are only two normal goods in the economy, X and Y. If price of good X increases, which would be the correct statement from below?
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Answer: (A) Demand for good X decreases and demand for Y is indeterminate.
Explanation
According to the Slutsky equation, the total effect of a price change on demand is the sum of the substitution effect and the income effect. For a normal good X, an increase in its price Pₓ leads to a negative substitution effect, as the consumer shifts consumption toward the relatively cheaper good Y. Simultaneously, the increase in price reduces the consumer's real income or purchasing power. Since X is a normal good, this reduction in real income further decreases the demand for X. Because both effects work in the same direction, the demand for good X definitely decreases.
For the other normal good Y, the two effects work in opposite directions. The substitution effect is positive, as X and Y must be net substitutes in a two-good economy, encouraging more consumption of Y. However, the income effect is negative because the fall in real income reduces the demand for any normal good, including Y. The net change in the demand for Y depends on whether the positive substitution effect or the negative income effect is dominant. Without specific information regarding the magnitude of these effects or the consumer's preferences, the change in the demand for Y is indeterminate.
101Economy
If the price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022 to 132 in 2023, then the rate of inflation is:
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Answer: (C) 20%
Explanation
The rate of inflation is defined as the percentage change in the price index over a specific period, typically one year. To find the rate of inflation for the most recent year in the sequence, which is 2023, we use the values from the current year and the immediately preceding year. The formula for the annual inflation rate is:
By substituting the provided values for the years 2023 and 2022:
Price Index for 2023 = 132
Price Index for 2022 = 110
The calculation is as follows:
Inflation Rate = (132 - 110)/110 × 100
Inflation Rate = 22/110 × 100
Inflation Rate = 0.2 × 100 = 20%
While the price index increased by 10 percent between 2021 and 2022, and the total cumulative increase from 100 to 132 over two years is 32 percent, the specific rate of inflation for the year 2023 is calculated against the 2022 base of 110, resulting in a rate of 20 percent.
102Economy
The Rangarajan Committee methodology for determining the poverty line incorporated which of the following?
1. A food component
2. A normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items
3. A behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Rangarajan Committee (2014) refined the poverty estimation methodology by adopting a mix of normative and behavioural standards. The food component was determined based on updated nutritional requirements from the ICMR (2010), encompassing specific calorie norms (2155 kcal for rural and 2090 kcal for urban areas) as well as protein and fat requirements. For non-food items, the committee differentiated between essential and other expenditures. It adopted a normative approach for essential non-food items, specifically education, clothing, conveyance, and house rent, by setting specific expenditure levels for these services. In contrast, expenditure on other non-food items, such as footwear, fuel, light, and personal care, was determined behaviourally based on the actual observed consumption patterns of the fractile group of the population near the poverty line. This integrated approach allowed for a more comprehensive assessment of basic living costs.
103Economy
Which one of the following is not a fund managed by NIIFL (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited)?
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Answer: (D) Global Investment Fund
Explanation
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is a collaborative investment platform for international and domestic investors, anchored by the Government of India. It manages three distinct investment vehicles: the Master Fund, the Fund of Funds, and the Strategic Opportunities Fund. The Master Fund is primarily focused on core infrastructure sectors such as roads, ports, airports, and power. The Fund of Funds invests in funds managed by third-party managers across various sectors including green infrastructure, affordable housing, and manufacturing. The Strategic Opportunities Fund is a growth equity fund that targets high-growth companies in sectors like financial services, food, and healthcare. The Global Investment Fund is not a component of NIIFL's portfolio or management structure.
104Polity and Governance
Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was established with the view to help which one of the following groups?
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Answer: (C) Sportspersons
Explanation
The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund for Sportspersons was established in 1982 with the primary objective of providing financial assistance to outstanding sportspersons of the past who are now living in indigent circumstances. Administered by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, the fund provides lump sum ex-gratia assistance to athletes who have brought glory to the country in international sports competitions but lack the means to support themselves or their families. The assistance covers various needs, including medical treatment for injuries or illnesses, procurement of sports equipment, and support for training and participation in national and international sports events. In 2017, the fund was renamed and its guidelines were revised to expand the scope of assistance to include coaches and support personnel who have contributed significantly to Indian sports.
105Economy
Which one among the following items comprises the major portion of revenue expenditure of the Union Government of India?
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Answer: (B) Interest Payments
Explanation
Interest payments consistently constitute the largest single component of the Union Government of India's revenue expenditure. According to the Union Budget 2023-24 and the Interim Budget 2024-25, interest payments account for approximately 20 percent of the total government expenditure and nearly 40 percent of the total revenue expenditure. This expenditure is a non-discretionary, committed liability arising from the government's past borrowings to fund fiscal deficits. The substantial debt stock accumulated over the years necessitates these large periodic payments to domestic and external creditors, making it the most significant drain on the government's current revenue receipts.
106Art and Culture
India's women's badminton team recently won the Badminton Asia Team Championship, 2024. Who among the following players was not a part of the team?
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Answer: (D) Saina Nehwal
Explanation
Saina Nehwal did not feature in the Indian squad for the Badminton Asia Team Championships 2024 due to ongoing fitness issues and her gradual transition away from the primary national team setup during this season. While India clinched the gold medal in Malaysia, she was not among the singles or doubles players selected for the tournament roster, which focused on a combination of established stars and emerging youth talents.
107Art and Culture
Which of the following statements related to Indian medicine system is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.
Explanation
The Unani system of medicine is an integral and foundational part of the Ministry of AYUSH, which was established by the Government of India in 2014 to ensure the development and propagation of traditional healthcare systems. The acronym AYUSH explicitly includes Unani alongside Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Siddha, and Homeopathy. The ministry continues to oversee the education, research, and clinical practices of Unani through dedicated organizations such as the Central Council for Research in Unani Medicine and the National Institute of Unani Medicine. There has been no administrative or functional dissociation of the Unani system from this ministry.
108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct about NISHTHA, a Government of India initiative?
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Answer: (B) It is a teacher-training programme.
Explanation
NISHTHA, which stands for National Initiative for School Heads' and Teachers' Holistic Advancement, is a massive capacity-building programme launched by the Ministry of Education under the Samagra Shiksha scheme. It is designed to improve the quality of school education through integrated teacher training, aiming to build competencies among all teachers and school principals at the elementary stage. The initiative focuses on holistic development by covering aspects such as learner-centered pedagogy, school safety and security, inclusive education, and the integration of ICT in teaching-learning processes. By providing standardized training modules across the country, NISHTHA ensures that educators are well-equipped to foster critical thinking and enhance learning outcomes for students.
109Economy
Arrange the BRICS countries in ascending order of their rank in the Human Development Report 2023-24, released by the UNDP:
1. China
2. India
3. Russia
4. Brazil
5. South Africa
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Answer: (A) 2,5,4,1,3
Explanation
According to the Human Development Report 2023-24 released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the BRICS nations are ranked as follows:
India (2): Rank 134
South Africa (5): Rank 110
Brazil (4): Rank 89
China (1): Rank 75
Russia (3): Rank 56
The sequence 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 arranges the countries starting from the highest numerical rank (lowest human development) to the lowest numerical rank (highest human development). Russia is the leader among these five nations, categorized under Very High Human Development. China, Brazil, and South Africa fall into the High Human Development category, whereas India is placed in the Medium Human Development category. This order reflects the progression from the lowest-ranked to the highest-ranked member within the group.
110Economy
India has signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA, which is a regional group consisting of four countries. Which one of the following countries is not a member of this group?
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Answer: (D) England
Explanation
England is a constituent country of the United Kingdom, which is not a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). The EFTA is an intergovernmental organization that currently comprises only four member states. Although the United Kingdom was a founding member of EFTA in 1960, it resigned its membership in 1973 to join the European Economic Community and has not rejoined the association since that time. Consequently, the United Kingdom was not a party to the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) signed between India and the current four EFTA members in March 2024.
111Geography
Which one of the following countries shares the territorial boundary with both Russia and Ukraine?
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Answer: (C) Belarus
Explanation
Belarus is a landlocked country in Eastern Europe that occupies a central geographic position relative to its neighbors. It shares a significant land border with the Russian Federation to its north and east, extending for approximately 1,312 kilometers. To its south, Belarus shares a territorial boundary with Ukraine that spans about 1,111 kilometers. This positioning makes Belarus the only nation among the provided options that borders the contiguous mainlands of both Russia and Ukraine, serving as a direct corridor between the two states.
112Economy
In June 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with USA for supporting Indian Railways to achieve Mission Net Zero Carbon Emission by the year:
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Answer: (A) 2030
Explanation
India signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) to support Indian Railways in achieving its ambitious goal of becoming a Net Zero Carbon Emitter by 2030. This partnership focuses on facilitating the deployment of renewable energy technologies, enhancing energy efficiency, and integrating various green initiatives across the railway network. The collaboration provides technical assistance for large-scale solar and wind power projects and helps in creating a roadmap for carbon footprint reduction, ensuring that one of the world's largest rail systems transitions fully to sustainable energy sources by the end of the decade.
113Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-JANMAN scheme?
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Answer: (C) It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) was launched on November 15, 2023, specifically to target the socio-economic upliftment of 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) across India. The scheme focuses on 11 critical interventions, such as providing permanent housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, improved road connectivity, and electricity to PVTG habitations. By coordinating the efforts of multiple central ministries, the mission aims to ensure that every member of these tribal communities is integrated into the social safety net and receives the full benefits of existing government welfare programs to bridge the gap in their human development indices.
114Economy
Which of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.
Explanation
Sagar Manthan is the Real-time Performance Monitoring Dashboard of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, launched in March 2023 to digitize and track the progress of projects and monitor key performance indicators across the maritime sector. It serves as a centralized platform for data-driven decision-making, performance tracking, and enhancing transparency in port operations. It is not related to increasing fish production, as activities concerning fisheries and aquaculture are managed under separate initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
115Science and Technology
ISRO, in its studies, has revealed that there is a 178% increase in the size of the Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake. In which of the following States/UTs is this lake located?
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Answer: (C) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake is located in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh at an elevation of approximately 4060 meters. Long-term satellite monitoring conducted by ISRO's National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) from 1989 to 2022 revealed that the lake's area expanded significantly from 36.49 hectares to 101.30 hectares. This represents an increase of approximately 178%. The rapid expansion of this proglacial lake is primarily driven by the recession and melting of the Ghepang Ghat glacier due to rising temperatures in the Himalayan region, making it a critical site for monitoring potential Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
116Polity and Governance
Which of the following State/s is/are common to Bru-Reang Agreement, NLFT (SD) Agreement and Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA?
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Answer: (A) Tripura
Explanation
Tripura is the only state involved as a primary signatory and administrative entity in all three mentioned agreements. The Bru-Reang Agreement of 2020 was a tripartite pact between the Government of India and the state governments of Tripura and Mizoram to facilitate the permanent settlement of Bru refugees within Tripura. The NLFT (SD) Agreement, signed in 2019, was a tripartite peace accord between the Union Government, the Government of Tripura, and the Sabir Debbarma faction of the National Liberation Front of Tripura to end insurgency in the state. Finally, the Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA was signed in March 2024 between the Government of India, the Government of Tripura, and the Tipra Motha party to address the rights and grievances of the indigenous population of Tripura. Since all three accords directly involve the state administration of Tripura and pertain to its internal security or demographic settlement, it is the common state among them.
117Art and Culture
Which of the following movies won the 96th Academy Award 2024 in the Best Picture category?
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Answer: (B) Oppenheimer
Explanation
Oppenheimer, directed by Christopher Nolan, won the Best Picture award at the 96th Academy Awards held on March 10, 2024. The biographical thriller follows the life of J. Robert Oppenheimer, the theoretical physicist who led the Manhattan Project during World War II. The film was the dominant winner of the evening, securing a total of seven Oscars from thirteen nominations, including Best Director for Nolan, Best Actor for Cillian Murphy, and Best Supporting Actor for Robert Downey Jr. This win represented a major critical and commercial success, as the film was highly praised for its technical mastery, storytelling, and performances, making it the first film from Christopher Nolan's filmography to receive the Academy's highest honor.
118Polity and Governance
India's first dedicated OPD for the Transgenders was opened at which one among the following hospitals?
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Answer: (D) RML Hospital, New Delhi
Explanation
Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia (RML) Hospital in New Delhi inaugurated India's first dedicated Outpatient Department (OPD) for the transgender community on September 17, 2023. The initiative was launched to coincide with the birthday of Prime Minister Narendra Modi as part of the Seva Pakhwada. This specialized facility provides comprehensive healthcare services, including clinical examination, treatment, and counseling, in a supportive environment designed to eliminate the social stigma and barriers that transgender individuals often face in traditional medical settings.
119Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about 'INS Tarmugli' is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.
Explanation
INS Tarmugli was a Trinkat-class fast attack craft originally commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2002. In 2006, the Government of India gifted this vessel to the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF), not the Sri Lankan Naval Force. In the Maldives, it served for seventeen years under the name MCGS Huravee. Following the delivery of a newer replacement vessel to the Maldives in May 2023, the ship was returned to the Indian Navy. After undergoing extensive restoration and refitting, it was recommissioned into service as INS Tarmugli at the Naval Dockyard in Visakhapatnam in December 2023.
120Economy
Which one of the following resolutions in the final agreement reached at COP28 is associated with the target of achieving 'Net Zero by 2050'?
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Answer: (A) Fossil fuel phase-out
Explanation
The UAE Consensus reached at COP28 included the first-ever explicit agreement under the Global Stocktake to transition away from fossil fuels in energy systems. This resolution is fundamentally linked to the target of achieving global net zero emissions by 2050. The agreement urges parties to contribute to global efforts in a just and equitable manner, accelerating action in this decade to ensure that the transition aligns with the 1.5°C pathway. This shift from fossil fuels is recognized as the essential mechanism for balancing anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals by sinks by the mid-century mark.