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CDS II 2012 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 117 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

117
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6
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance3227%
  • History2521%
  • Geography2421%
  • Science and Technology2118%
  • Economy98%
  • Art and Culture65%
1Science and Technology
Statement I : The planet Neptune appears blue in colour. Statement II : The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of Neptune is responsible for its colour.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

Neptune possesses an atmosphere primarily composed of hydrogen and helium, but it also contains a significant amount of methane. This methane gas is responsible for the planet's distinct blue appearance because it absorbs the red and infrared wavelengths of sunlight. When solar radiation enters Neptune's atmosphere, methane molecules absorb the longer-wavelength red light while scattering the shorter-wavelength blue light back into space. This process of selective absorption and scattering gives the planet its characteristic deep azure or blue colour. Thus, the presence of methane is the fundamental physical cause of Neptune's visual hue, making the second statement a scientifically accurate explanation of the first.

2Science and Technology
Statement I : Comets revolve round the Sun only in long elliptical orbits. Statement II : A comet develops a tail when it gets close to the Sun.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

Statement I is true because comets are celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun in highly elongated elliptical orbits. These orbits take them from the outer edges of the solar system, such as the Oort Cloud or Kuiper Belt, to the inner solar system. Statement II is also true as the heat from the Sun causes the ices in a comet's nucleus to sublimate, releasing gas and dust that form a tail pointing away from the Sun. Both statements are individually correct observations regarding the behavior and physical properties of comets. Statement II describes a physical transformation that occurs during a specific part of the orbit but does not provide the gravitational or mechanical reason for the shape of the orbit itself.

3Science and Technology
Statement I : Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it. Statement II : Pushing increases the apparent weight and hence the force of friction.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

When a force F is applied to a lawn roller at an angle θ with the horizontal, it can be resolved into two components: F cos θ acting horizontally and F sin θ acting vertically. In the case of pushing, the vertical component F sin θ acts downwards, in the same direction as the weight W. This increases the normal reaction R = W + F sin θ. Since the force of friction f is given by f = μR, the frictional resistance increases during pushing.

In the case of pulling, the vertical component F sin θ acts upwards, opposite to the weight. This reduces the normal reaction to R = W - F sin θ, thereby decreasing the force of friction f = μ(W - F sin θ). Because the apparent weight and the resulting frictional force are higher when pushing, pulling the roller requires less effort and is considered easier. Statement II directly explains the physical mechanism described in Statement I.

4Science and Technology
Statement I : All compounds contain more than one element. Statement II : All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

Explanation

Statement I is true because a chemical compound is defined as a substance formed when two or more different chemical elements are chemically bonded together in a fixed ratio. If a substance consists of only one type of element, such as O₂ or S₈, it is considered an element or an elemental molecule, not a compound. Statement II is false because compounds are pure substances, not mixtures. While a mixture consists of physically combined substances that can often be separated by physical means and may be heterogeneous, a compound is a single chemical entity with a uniform, homogeneous composition throughout. All samples of a specific compound exhibit identical chemical and physical properties because the constituent elements are chemically united.

5Geography
Statement I : Tsunami is small in open ocean yet may be over 30m high when it reaches a coastline. Statement II : Tsunami have long wavelength and they travel across the open ocean at high speed. As they approach shore, the wavelength decreases and the wave height increases.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

In the open ocean, the depth d is great, and tsunami waves travel at high speeds v = √(gd), often exceeding 700 km/h. Because their energy is spread over wavelengths λ that can reach 200 km, their amplitude or height remains very small, often less than 1 meter, making them barely noticeable to ships. As the tsunami approaches the shallow waters of a coastline, the decrease in water depth causes the wave speed to drop significantly. To conserve the total energy flux of the wave train, the kinetic energy is converted into potential energy, causing the wave height to increase dramatically through a process called shoaling. This compression of the wavelength and the resulting pile-up of water can create massive waves exceeding 30 meters in height by the time they strike the shore. Statement II describes the physical mechanism of shoaling which directly explains the observation in Statement I.

6History
Statement I : Operation Parakram involved the mobilization of Indian troops along India's border with Pakistan. Statement II : After the year 2001 Parliament attacks, India wanted to pressure Pakistan into acting against terror groups operating from areas under its control.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

Operation Parakram was a major military standoff between India and Pakistan that lasted from December 2001 to October 2002. It involved the massive mobilization of the Indian Armed Forces to the International Border and the Line of Control. This deployment was a direct response to the terrorist attack on the Indian Parliament on December 13, 2001, which India attributed to Pakistan-based terror groups Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammed. The primary objective of this mobilization was to engage in coercive diplomacy, using the threat of military action to pressure the Pakistani leadership into dismantling the infrastructure of cross-border terrorism and taking decisive action against militants operating from its territory. Since the 2001 Parliament attack served as the immediate trigger and the strategic rationale for the deployment, the second statement correctly explains the first.

7Polity and Governance
Statement I : India supports the development and use of the Chabahar Port in Iran. Statement II : India does not subscribe to Western sanction on energy trade with Iran.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

India has long supported the development of the Chabahar Port in Iran to establish a strategic transit route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, effectively bypassing Pakistan. This infrastructure project is a cornerstone of India's regional connectivity policy. Simultaneously, India has historically maintained that it only recognizes sanctions imposed by the United Nations and does not subscribe to unilateral Western sanctions, such as those imposed by the United States and the European Union on Iran's energy sector. In 2012, India continued to import Iranian crude oil to satisfy its domestic energy requirements. While both statements are true and reflect India's pursuit of strategic autonomy in its bilateral relations with Iran, the refusal to follow energy sanctions is a matter of energy security and is not the underlying reason or explanation for the development of the port, which is primarily a project for land-route access and regional trade.

8Polity and Governance
The 'Partnership Council' was launched in May 2012 to implement the 'Strategic Partnership Agreement' signed in the year 2011 between India and
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Answer: (D) Afghanistan

Explanation

India and Afghanistan signed the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA) in October 2011 to formalize their bilateral cooperation in areas such as security, development, and economic trade. This agreement was significant as it was the first strategic partnership India signed with a country in its immediate neighborhood. To operationalize and oversee the various provisions of the SPA, the Partnership Council was established as the primary high-level implementation body. The Council held its inaugural meeting in May 2012 in New Delhi, co-chaired by the Foreign Ministers of both nations, where they discussed the creation of several joint working groups to handle specific sectors like political and security consultations, trade and investment, and capacity development.

9History
The Indian Army undertook Operation Meghdoot to establish Indian control over
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Answer: (C) Siachen Glacier

Explanation

Operation Meghdoot was launched by the Indian Armed Forces on April 13, 1984, to secure control over the Siachen Glacier in the eastern Karakoram Range of the Himalayas. The military action was a preemptive strike conducted after Indian intelligence discovered that Pakistan was planning to occupy the glacier, which was located in an undemarcated region of the Line of Control. Led by the Indian Army and supported by the Indian Air Force, the operation resulted in Indian troops successfully gaining control of the entire Siachen Glacier along with the strategic Saltoro Ridge and its primary mountain passes, including Sia La and Bilafond La. This operation established India's dominance over the world's highest battlefield, a position it has maintained since the mid-1980s.

10Polity and Governance
The Treaty on Integrated Development of Mahakali River' was signed between India and
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Answer: (B) Nepal

Explanation

The Treaty on Integrated Development of the Mahakali River, commonly known as the Mahakali Treaty, was signed between India and Nepal on February 12, 1996. The Mahakali River, which is known as the Sharda River in India, forms a significant portion of the international boundary between the two countries. The agreement focuses on the integrated development of the river's water resources, primarily centered around the construction of the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project. It also covers the operation of the Sharda Barrage and the Tanakpur Barrage, outlining the rights and obligations of both nations regarding water sharing for irrigation, power generation, and flood control along their shared border.

11Geography
Farkhor Air Base, operated by the Indian Air Force, is situated in which one among the following countries?
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Answer: (D) Tajikistan

Explanation

Farkhor Air Base is located in Tajikistan and represents India's first military outpost outside its borders. Situated near the town of Farkhor, approximately 130 kilometers from Dushanbe and close to the Afghan border, the facility was initially utilized in the late 1990s as an Indian-run hospital to support the Northern Alliance. Following bilateral agreements, India collaborated with the Tajik government to renovate and upgrade the airfield. The base provides the Indian Air Force with a strategic presence in Central Asia, which is vital for monitoring regional security dynamics and protecting India's energy and geopolitical interests in the region.

12Science and Technology
INS Vikramaditya, scheduled for induction into the Indian Navy soon, is the name given to
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Answer: (A) an aircraft carrier

Explanation

INS Vikramaditya is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier originally built for the Soviet Navy under the name Admiral Gorshkov. India acquired the vessel from Russia following an agreement in 2004, which involved a comprehensive overhaul and modernization process at the Sevmash shipyard. The ship was converted from a hybrid cruiser-carrier into a full-deck aircraft carrier utilizing a Short Take-Off But Arrested Recovery (STOBAR) system, which includes a 14-degree ski-jump to facilitate the launch of MiG-29K fighter jets. By 2012, it was the most anticipated addition to the Indian Navy fleet, serving as a primary platform for naval aviation and maritime power projection.

13Science and Technology
In the year 2012, India undertook its largest military exercise since independence. This was named
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Answer: (D) Shoor Veer

Explanation

Exercise Shoor Veer was a major military maneuver conducted by the Indian Army's South Western Command in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan during April and May 2012. This exercise involved the participation of approximately 60,000 troops along with hundreds of tanks and artillery guns, supported by the Indian Air Force. The primary objective was to validate the Indian military's proactive war-fighting strategy, which emphasizes the integration of air and land forces for swift, high-intensity operations. At the time of its execution, it was recognized as one of the largest and most comprehensive integrated war games held by India to test the synergy and battle readiness of its armed forces in a simulated conflict environment.

14Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Sufism : 1. The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran and Sunna (traditions of the Prophet) adopted by the theologians. 2. The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Sufism emerged as a mystical movement within Islam that prioritized the inner spiritual dimension over the outward, legalistic aspects of the religion. Sufis were notably critical of the Ulama, or orthodox theologians, who they felt relied too heavily on dogmatic definitions and complex scholastic methods to interpret the Quran and Sunna. The Sufis believed that such intellectualism often obscured the true essence of faith, which they viewed as a path of love and devotion rather than just formalistic ritual. Consequently, they sought to understand the Quran through personal spiritual experience and intuition. This approach, often referred to as an esoteric interpretation, allowed Sufis to look for hidden meanings within the text that could only be realized through the refinement of the soul and direct communion with the Divine.

15Polity and Governance
Model towns were created in India in the 1950s with the object of
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Answer: (D) providing housing for those displaced during partition and be an example of good town planning

Explanation

The creation of model towns in the 1950s was primarily driven by the massive humanitarian crisis following the partition of India in 1947. Millions of refugees required immediate resettlement, leading the government to develop planned residential areas to provide permanent housing for displaced persons. Beyond simple shelter, these settlements were envisioned as models of modern urban development, incorporating scientific layouts, proper drainage, and community facilities to set a standard for future urban planning in a newly independent nation. Projects like the Nilokheri township and various colonies in Delhi and Punjab exemplified this approach of combining rehabilitation with the promotion of orderly, self-sufficient town planning.

16History
The first Indian ruler to be shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers is
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Answer: (C) Kanishka

Explanation

Kanishka, the prominent ruler of the Kushana dynasty, is famously depicted in a life-size headless stone statue discovered at Mat, near Mathura. This sculpture, which dates to the 2nd century CE, serves as the primary archaeological evidence of an Indian monarch wearing trousers and heavy boots. The statue shows Kanishka dressed in a long quilted tunic and baggy trousers tucked into large, padded boots, a style of dress originating from Central Asian nomadic cultures. This introduction of stitched clothing and trousers marked a significant cultural and sartorial shift in the Indian subcontinent, as earlier depictions of Indian royalty typically featured unstitched garments like the dhoti.

17History
Which one among the following is not a function of Mir Bakhshi, the head of the military department as well as of the nobility under Mughal rule?
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Answer: (C) He was responsible for all incomes and expenditures, and held control over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands

Explanation

In the Mughal administrative system, the responsibility for all incomes and expenditures, along with the management and control of Khalisa (crown lands), Jagir (land assignments), and Inam (revenue-free grants), was the specialized function of the Diwan-i-Kul (also known as the Wazir). The Diwan was the head of the revenue and finance department, acting as the chief financial advisor to the Emperor. While the Mir Bakhshi was the paymaster general and head of the military and nobility, he did not manage the state treasury or land revenue. He only issued pay certificates (Sarkhat) after verifying the military strength and records of the Mansabdars, which were then processed by the Diwan's office for the actual disbursement of funds or land assignments.

18History
Which among the following statements regarding the Gupta dynasty is/are correct? 1. The Kumaramatyas were the most important officers and they were appointed directly by the King in the home provinces. 2. The village headmen lost importance and land transactions began to be effected without their consent. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Kumaramatyas represented the most significant class of high-ranking officials in the Gupta administrative hierarchy. They served in diverse roles such as provincial governors, ministers, and military commanders. In the central territories or home provinces directly administered by the crown, these officers were appointed directly by the King. This cadre of officials provided a pool of talent for high-level state functions and maintained the administrative cohesion of the empire.

Conversely, the local administration during the Gupta period remained robust, and the village headman, known as the Gramika, did not lose his importance. Historical evidence from land grant inscriptions, such as the Damodarpur copper plates, indicates that land transactions were a highly localized process. The consent of the village headman and the village elders, or Mahattaras, was essential for the sale or transfer of land. They were actively involved in the measurement, valuation, and legal validation of such transactions, ensuring that local interests and traditional rights were maintained.

19Geography
The variability among living organisms from all sources including terrestrial, marine and other ecosystems and the ecological complexes of which they are part which includes diversity within species, between species of ecosystems refers to
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Answer: (D) biological diversity

Explanation

The definition provided is the internationally accepted legal definition of biological diversity as established by Article 2 of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in 1992. This term encompasses the total variability of life on Earth across three hierarchical levels: genetic diversity (within species), species diversity (between species), and ecosystem diversity (diversity of habitats and ecological complexes). It accounts for all living organisms across terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic ecosystems, recognizing that diversity exists not just in the number of species but also in the complex interactions and ecological processes of which they are a part.

20Science and Technology
Surgeons can perform delicate operations by using devices through computers. This technology is known as
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Answer: (A) robotics

Explanation

Robotics in the medical field refers to the use of computer-controlled systems to assist in complex surgical procedures. Surgeons operate via a computer console where they manipulate electronic arms equipped with specialized instruments. The system translates the surgeon's hand, wrist, and finger movements into real-time, highly precise micro-movements of the surgical tools inside the patient's body. This technology, exemplified by systems such as the da Vinci Surgical System which was well-established by 2012, provides enhanced visualization through high-definition 3D cameras and allows for greater dexterity and precision in minimally invasive surgeries than is possible with traditional human-led techniques.

21Science and Technology
On the labels of the bottles, some soft drinks are claimed to be acidity regulators. They regulate acidity using
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Answer: (C) both carbon dioxide and bicarbonate salts

Explanation

Soft drinks maintain a consistent pH through a buffering mechanism involving both carbon dioxide and bicarbonate salts. Carbon dioxide is dissolved in the liquid under pressure to create carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which provides the beverage with its characteristic acidity. Bicarbonate salts are added to act as a conjugate base, providing bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) that can neutralize excess hydrogen ions. Together, these components form an acid-base buffer system that stabilizes the acidity of the drink. This regulation ensures the beverage retains its specific taste profile and chemical stability over time by resisting fluctuations in pH that could occur during storage or upon exposure to air.

22Science and Technology
The gas which turns limewater milky is
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Answer: (A) carbon dioxide

Explanation

Limewater is a dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)₂. When carbon dioxide (CO₂) is bubbled through it, a chemical reaction occurs that produces calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) and water. Calcium carbonate is an insoluble white solid that forms a precipitate. These small particles remain suspended in the solution, scattering light and giving the liquid a cloudy or milky appearance. The chemical equation for this process is Ca(OH)₂(aq) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s) + H₂O(l). This specific reaction is widely used in chemistry as a diagnostic test to identify the presence of carbon dioxide.

23Science and Technology
When deep-sea fishes are brought to the surface of the sea, their bodies burst. This is because the blood in their bodies flows at very
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Answer: (B) high pressure

Explanation

Deep-sea fishes inhabit environments where the hydrostatic pressure is immense, increasing by approximately one atmosphere for every ten meters of depth. To counteract this external force and prevent their bodies from being crushed, these organisms have evolved to maintain an internal blood pressure that is equally high. When such a fish is brought rapidly to the surface, the external pressure decreases to atmospheric levels almost instantaneously, but the internal pressure remains significantly higher. This sudden pressure differential causes the internal fluids and gases, particularly those in the swim bladder or circulatory system, to expand forcefully, leading to the rupture of blood vessels and body tissues.

24Science and Technology
It is difficult to cut things with a blunt knife because
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Answer: (C) a blunt knife decreases the pressure for a given force

Explanation

Pressure is defined as the force applied perpendicular to the surface of an object per unit area over which that force is distributed, represented by the formula P = F/A. When cutting an object, the effectiveness depends on the magnitude of pressure exerted by the blade. A blunt knife has a rounded or thicker edge, which results in a larger surface area A in contact with the material being cut. For a given amount of force F applied by the user, an increase in the area A leads to a mathematical decrease in the pressure P. Since high pressure is required to penetrate the surface and shear the fibers of the material, the reduced pressure from a blunt edge makes the cutting process significantly more difficult.

25Geography
Arrange the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra from west to east : 1. Lohit 2. Dibang 3. Subansiri 4. Tista Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 4-3-2-1 (b) 4-3-1-2 (c) 3-4-2-1 (d) 2-4-3-1
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Answer: (A) 4-3-2-1

Explanation

The Tista river is the westernmost of the listed tributaries, flowing through Sikkim and West Bengal before joining the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh. Moving eastward, the Subansiri originates in the Tibetan Himalayas and joins the Brahmaputra in the Lakhimpur district of Assam. Further east, the Dibang flows through the Lower Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh to meet the main river near Sadiya. The Lohit is the easternmost tributary among the four, entering India from the Zayu region of Tibet and flowing through the Anjaw and Lohit districts of Arunachal Pradesh before its confluence with the Brahmaputra. The geographical sequence from west to east is therefore Tista, Subansiri, Dibang, and Lohit.

26Geography
The expression 'South Asia' usually includes
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Answer: (A) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka

Explanation

The expression South Asia typically refers to the geopolitical and geographical region of the Indian subcontinent, bounded by the Himalayas to the north and the Indian Ocean to the south. This region is traditionally defined by the seven founding member states of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC): Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These nations share a distinct cultural and historical heritage, as well as common geographical features. While Afghanistan became the eighth member of SAARC in 2007, standard academic and international definitions often focus on these core seven nations. Significant regional neighbors such as China and Japan are classified as part of East Asia and are never included in the definition of South Asia.

27Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about the functioning of political parties in a democracy is not correct?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Political parties in a democratic setup perform several integral functions that facilitate the governance process and citizen engagement. They serve as agents of political socialization and education by informing the public about various policy alternatives and national concerns, thereby fostering an informed electorate. They also act as a vital communication channel or link between the administration and the citizenry, ensuring that public needs are translated into legislative agendas and that executive decisions are communicated back to the people. Furthermore, the fundamental organizational objective of a political party is to mobilize support and contest elections to secure the highest possible number of representatives in legislative bodies. Because these roles are universally acknowledged as the core operational functions of political parties, there is no incorrect statement provided among the choices.

28Polity and Governance
Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for SCs and STs are done by
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Answer: (B) Delimitation Commission

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. Its primary mandate is to redraw the boundaries of various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on the recent census data to ensure that each seat represents an approximately equal number of voters across the country. Additionally, the Commission is specifically empowered to identify and determine the specific constituencies that are to be reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in accordance with the constitutional provisions for proportional representation. The orders issued by the Delimitation Commission are final and hold the force of law, meaning they cannot be challenged in any court of law once they are published in the Gazette of India and laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assemblies.

29Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about Veto Power with regard to United Nations is correct?
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Answer: (A) One veto can stall a Security Council resolution

Explanation

The veto power is a mechanism established by Article 27 of the United Nations Charter which dictates that substantive decisions in the Security Council require the concurring votes of all five permanent members. If any one of these five permanent members—the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Russia, or China—casts a negative vote on a substantive resolution, that resolution is not adopted. This means that a single negative vote from a permanent member acts as a complete block, stalling the resolution even if it has secured the minimum requirement of nine affirmative votes from the fifteen-member council.

30Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the Governor in a State?
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Answer: (B) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be consulted by the President in selecting a Governor

Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988) formulated specific criteria to preserve the dignity and impartiality of the office of the Governor. Regarding the appointment process, the Commission recommended that the Vice-President of India and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha should be consulted by the Prime Minister. It also emphasized that the Chief Minister of the concerned State must be consulted before the appointment to ensure a harmonious relationship between the State Government and the Governor. The Commission never recommended the consultation of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court for the selection or appointment of a Governor.

31Polity and Governance
Which one among the following nuclear-capable countries has a declared No First Use policy?
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Answer: (B) People's Republic of China

Explanation

The People's Republic of China established a No First Use policy in 1964, asserting that it would never be the first to use nuclear weapons at any time or under any circumstances. This commitment is a central pillar of Chinese nuclear strategy, which defines its nuclear force as a tool for self-defense and deterrence rather than offensive action. Since its first nuclear test, China has consistently reiterated this pledge in various official defense documents and white papers, maintaining that it will not use or threaten to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-weapon states or nuclear-weapon-free zones.

32Polity and Governance
The year 2002 Code of Conduct related to territorial and maritime dispute in the South China Sea was signed between China and
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Answer: (D) ASEAN

Explanation

The Declaration on the Conduct of Parties in the South China Sea (DOC) was signed on November 4, 2002, during the 8th ASEAN Summit held in Phnom Penh, Cambodia. This agreement was signed between the People's Republic of China and the member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). It served as a non-binding political document intended to promote peace and stability in the region by encouraging the peaceful resolution of territorial and jurisdictional disputes. The signatories pledged to exercise self-restraint in activities that could complicate or escalate tensions, such as the occupation of uninhabited features, and committed to enhancing maritime cooperation and building trust while working toward the eventual adoption of a formal, legally binding Code of Conduct.

33Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about Mohamed Nashed of Maldives is not correct?
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Answer: (C) He was a strong advocate of the policies of long-time President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom

Explanation

Mohamed Nasheed was the primary political opponent and a fierce critic of Maumoon Abdul Gayoom, who ruled the Maldives for thirty years. Far from advocating for Gayoom's policies, Nasheed was frequently imprisoned and tortured for his activism against the regime. He co-founded the Maldivian Democratic Party (MDP) and led a long campaign for democratic reforms, which eventually forced Gayoom to allow the country's first multiparty elections in 2008. Nasheed's victory in that election ended Gayoom's three-decade rule, making him the first democratically elected president of the Maldives. His entire political career up to 2012 was characterized by his efforts to dismantle the power structures established by Gayoom.

34Polity and Governance
Shunglu Committee was appointed by the Prime Minister to
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Answer: (B) look into the corruption charges in the conduct of Commonwealth Games

Explanation

The Shunglu Committee, formally known as the High Level Committee, was constituted by the Prime Minister of India in October 2010. Chaired by former Comptroller and Auditor General V.K. Shunglu, the committee was tasked with investigating allegations of financial irregularities, mismanagement, and corruption in the planning and execution of the XIX Commonwealth Games held in Delhi. The committee examined various aspects including the award of contracts, the role of the Organizing Committee, and the delays and cost overruns in infrastructure projects, eventually submitting multiple reports that detailed systemic failures and recommended administrative reforms.

35Polity and Governance
Anna Hazare was awarded the Padma Bhushan in recognition for
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Answer: (C) transforming a barren-dry village called Ralegan-Siddhi in Maharashtra's Ahmednagar district into a model village of self-sufficiency, ecofriendly and harmony

Explanation

Anna Hazare was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 1992 for his exemplary contribution to social work and rural development. His most significant achievement was the total transformation of Ralegan Siddhi, a drought-prone and impoverished village in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra. Through community participation, he implemented effective watershed management, rainwater harvesting techniques, and sustainable farming practices that turned the barren land into a self-sufficient, green, and prosperous model village. His work emphasized ecological balance, social harmony, and the elimination of social evils, setting a benchmark for rural reconstruction and community-led development in India.

36Art and Culture
Which one among the following Indian events will be upgraded as an international event from February 2013?
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Answer: (B) Surajkund Craft Mela

Explanation

The Surajkund Crafts Mela, organized annually in Haryana by the Surajkund Mela Authority and Haryana Tourism in collaboration with the Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture, and External Affairs, was officially upgraded to an international event starting from its 27th edition in February 2013. Renamed the Surajkund International Crafts Mela, this elevation was aimed at showcasing Indian handicrafts and handlooms to a global audience while facilitating cultural exchange. Since this upgrade, the fair has seen a significant increase in international participation, featuring a specific Partner Nation each year alongside the traditional Indian Theme State to promote global artistic heritage.

37History
The polity of the Harappan people, as derived from the material evidence, was
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Answer: (D) theocratic-unitary

Explanation

The material remains of the Harappan civilization, such as the uniform grid pattern of cities, standardized weights and measures, and the consistent 4:2:1 ratio of burnt bricks across vast distances, suggest the existence of a highly centralized and unitary administrative system. The presence of a fortified citadel in most cities indicates a concentrated seat of power. Additionally, the discovery of the Priest-King statue and the ritual significance of structures like the Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro imply that political authority was likely intertwined with religious leadership. This combination of centralized control and religious-political overlap characterizes the Harappan polity as theocratic-unitary, where a priestly class or a religious head exercised singular authority over the entire civilization.

38Art and Culture
Jaubani is a dance form traditionally performed in North-Eastern India by the
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Answer: (A) Dimasas

Explanation

Jaubani is a traditional folk dance performed by the Dimasa community, who primarily reside in the Dima Hasao district and other parts of Assam in North-Eastern India. This dance form is an integral part of their cultural heritage and is most prominently performed during the Busu Dima festival, which is the major post-harvest celebration of the Dimasas. The dance is characterized by its rhythmic movements and is typically accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the Khram (a double-headed drum) and the Muri (a wooden flute). Jaubani reflects the social life and joy of the community, serving as a medium to express gratitude for a bountiful harvest and to preserve their ancestral traditions.

39Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Festival) (State) A. Ugadi 1. West Bengal B. Nababarsha 2. Gujarat C. Bhadra 3. Maharashtra Purnima D. Gudi Padwa 4. Andhra Pradesh Code :
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

Ugadi is the traditional New Year festival celebrated in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka, marking the first day of the Hindu lunar calendar month of Chaitra. Nababarsha, also known as Poila Baisakh, signifies the start of the Bengali New Year and is celebrated with cultural festivities in West Bengal. Bhadra Purnima is a major religious fair and festival observed at the Ambaji temple in Gujarat during the full moon day of the Bhadrapada month. Gudi Padwa is the Marathi New Year celebrated in Maharashtra, characterized by the hoisting of the Gudi flag to symbolize victory and the arrival of spring.

40History
Who among the following cultures were the first to paint their pottery?
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Answer: (B) Chalcolithic

Explanation

The Chalcolithic period, which followed the Neolithic era and saw the simultaneous use of stone and copper tools, is recognized for the first systematic use of painted pottery. While pottery originated in the Neolithic age, it was largely plain, hand-made, or cord-marked for utilitarian purposes. In contrast, Chalcolithic communities developed advanced wheel-made pottery techniques and used various mineral pigments to paint designs on the surface of their wares before firing. This era is characterized by distinct ceramic traditions such as the Malwa, Jorwe, and Ahar cultures, which produced high-quality black-on-red and black-and-red ware decorated with geometric motifs, vegetation, and animal figures. This development indicates a significant advancement in craftsmanship and the aesthetic specialization of ancient societies.

41History
Consider the following statements about Shivaji's military acumen : 1. He was a master in guerrilla tactics and swift cavalry warfare. 2. He had built a series of fortified strongholds on the table mountains of the Western Deccan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Shivaji Maharaj was a pioneer of the Ganimi Kava, a form of guerrilla warfare that leveraged the rugged terrain of the Western Ghats to neutralize the numerical superiority of his enemies. His military strategy centered on extreme mobility, high-speed cavalry maneuvers, and surprise attacks, allowing his forces to strike and retreat before the slower Mughal or Bijapuri armies could react. Complementing this tactical mobility was his strategic focus on fortifications. He controlled a network of over 300 forts, many of which were built or extensively repaired on the flat-topped table mountains of the Western Deccan. These hill forts acted as decentralized command centers and impregnable defensive bastions, providing secure bases for his troops and essential protection for the local population during invasions.

42Science and Technology
Iodized salt is a
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Answer: (A) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt

Explanation

Iodized salt is a fortified food product created by physically blending common table salt, which consists of sodium chloride (NaCl), with a small amount of an iodine source. In the manufacturing process, potassium iodide (KI) is one of the primary additives used to provide the essential micronutrient iodine. This combination is a physical mixture because no new chemical bonds are formed between the sodium chloride and the potassium iodide. The two substances retain their distinct chemical identities within the blend, ensuring that the iodine is distributed uniformly and remains bioavailable for absorption by the human body to prevent iodine deficiency disorders such as goiter.

43Science and Technology
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the stomach. A commonly used antacid is
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Answer: (B) magnesium hydroxide

Explanation

Magnesium hydroxide, commonly known in its suspension form as Milk of Magnesia, is a basic compound used to treat symptoms caused by too much stomach acid. It works through a neutralization reaction where the hydroxide ions from the compound react with the hydrogen ions of the gastric hydrochloric acid to form water and a salt, magnesium chloride. The chemical equation for this process is Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. Its low solubility ensures that it acts locally within the digestive tract to reduce acidity effectively while maintaining a safe pH balance.

44Science and Technology
Recently Apple Computers of USA has launched a touchpad which allows a user to operate desktop computer with finger gestures, eliminating the need for a mouse. What is the name of the device?
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Answer: (D) Magic track pad

Explanation

The Magic Trackpad was released by Apple in July 2010 as a standalone multi-touch device designed for use with desktop Mac computers. It utilizes Bluetooth connectivity and features a large glass surface that supports a variety of multi-touch gestures, such as two-finger scrolling, pinching to zoom, and three-finger swiping. This device was specifically engineered to bring the tactile gesture-based interface of MacBook trackpads to desktop users, providing a wireless alternative to the traditional computer mouse.

45Science and Technology
A device which is used in our TV set, Computer, Radio set for storing the electric charge is
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Answer: (C) capacitor

Explanation

A capacitor is a passive electronic component consisting of two conducting plates separated by an insulating material known as a dielectric. Its primary function is to store electrical energy in the form of an electrostatic field. When a voltage is applied across its terminals, electric charges of equal magnitude but opposite polarity accumulate on the plates, a property quantified as capacitance (C = Q/V). In electronic devices such as television sets, computers, and radios, capacitors are essential for filtering power supply fluctuations, smoothing rectified current, and managing signal coupling and decoupling between different circuit stages. This ability to hold and release charge rapidly allows the device to stabilize voltage and support the high-speed processing requirements of modern electronics.

46Economy
A bus travels at a speed of 50km per hour to go from its origin to its destination at a distance of 300km and travels at a speed of 60km per hour to return to the origin. What is the average speed of the bus?
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Answer: (A) 54:55 km per hour

Explanation

The average speed of an object travelling equal distances at different speeds v₁ and v₂ is calculated using the harmonic mean formula Vₐᵥ₉ = 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂). In this scenario, the bus travels 300km to the destination and returns the same 300km to the origin, making the distances for both legs of the journey equal.

Substituting the given speeds v₁ = 50km/h and v₂ = 60km/h into the formula:

Vₐᵥ₉ = (2 × 50 × 60)/(50 + 60) Vₐᵥ₉ = 6000/110 = 600/11 Vₐᵥ₉ ≈ 54.5454... km/h

Rounding the recurring decimal to two decimal places results in 54.55km/h. In the format presented in the options, this matches 54:55.

47Geography
Which one among the following is called terrestrial planet?
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Answer: (A) Mercury

Explanation

Mercury is classified as a terrestrial planet because it is primarily composed of silicate rocks or metals and possesses a solid, rocky surface. In our solar system, the terrestrial planets are the four innermost planets—Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. These planets are distinguished from the outer Jovian planets by their high density, compact structures, and lack of gaseous envelopes. Mercury is the smallest of these terrestrial bodies and features a large iron-rich core that accounts for a significant portion of its internal volume, a characteristic typical of rocky, Earth-like planets.

48Geography
Which among the following phenomena can occur when very warm and humid air is rising over a mass of a very cold air? 1. Calm weather 2. Snowfall 3. Storms and cyclonic storms 4. Intense rain and hail Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

When very warm and humid air meets a mass of very cold air, a frontal boundary is established. The cold air, being denser, acts as a wedge and forces the lighter, warm air to rise rapidly. This process, known as frontal lifting, causes the ascending warm air to cool adiabatically. Since the air is very humid, it reaches its dew point quickly, leading to massive condensation and the release of latent heat. This release of energy fuels atmospheric instability and the development of cumulonimbus clouds, which are responsible for intense rain and hail. Additionally, the sharp temperature and pressure gradients between these two contrasting air masses provide the necessary energy for the development of mid-latitude or extra-tropical cyclones, resulting in storms and cyclonic storms.

49Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Biosphere Reserve) (State) A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha B. Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamil Nadu D. Simlipal 4. Assam Code :
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Nilgiri matches with Tamil Nadu as it was established in 1986 as India's first biosphere reserve, covering the confluence of the Western and Eastern Ghats. Manas matches with Assam because it is situated in the foothills of the Himalayas and is a critical habitat for endangered species like the pygmy hog. Pachmarhi matches with Madhya Pradesh as it is located within the Satpura Range and includes the highest point in the state, Dhupgarh. Simlipal matches with Odisha because it is a massive tiger reserve and national park located in the Mayurbhanj district, named after the abundance of red silk cotton trees.

50Geography
The waves that help scientists to understand the internal structure of the Earth are
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Answer: (B) secondary waves

Explanation

Secondary waves, also known as S-waves, are the principal seismic waves used to determine the physical state of the Earth's internal layers. These are transverse waves, meaning the particle motion is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, a characteristic that requires the medium to have shear strength. Because liquids and gases have no shear strength, S-waves cannot travel through them. Seismological observations show that S-waves disappear at the core-mantle boundary, creating a massive shadow zone beyond an angular distance of 103° from an earthquake's epicenter. This phenomenon provided the definitive evidence that the Earth's outer core is liquid, allowing scientists to map the internal boundaries and distinguish between the solid and fluid layers of the planet.

51History
Gaddis are
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Answer: (C) shepherds of Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Gaddi people are a semi-nomadic tribe residing primarily in the Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal mountain ranges of Himachal Pradesh. They are traditionally engaged in sheep and goat rearing, practicing transhumance by moving their livestock between high-altitude alpine pastures in the summer and lower foothills in the winter. Their socio-economic life is centered around pastoralism, and they are well-known for their unique attire and cultural heritage associated with the Himalayan region.

52Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) Right to Information

Explanation

The Right to Information is a statutory right established by the Right to Information Act, 2005, rather than a Fundamental Right explicitly enumerated in Part III of the Constitution of India. Although the Supreme Court of India has ruled in various cases, such as State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975), that the right to know is derived from the Fundamental Right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), the Right to Information itself does not constitute a separate, explicitly named category of Fundamental Rights. It is a legal entitlement that empowers citizens to request information from public authorities to ensure transparency and accountability in governance.

53Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha : 1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date. 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date. 3. At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The election procedure for the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is governed by Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Rule 8(1) states that the election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. Following this, the Secretary-General is responsible for sending a notice of this date to every member of the House.

Rule 8(2) specifies the timeline and method for nominations. It provides that at any time before noon on the day preceding the date fixed for the election, any member may give notice in writing of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House. This motion must be addressed to the Secretary-General and seconded by another member.

The procedure for electing the Speaker is distinct regarding who fixes the schedule. Under Rule 7(1), the date for the election of the Speaker is fixed by the President of India, not the Prime Minister. Therefore, while the rules for the timing of the notice for a motion remain similar for both positions, the authority to set the election date for the Speaker rests with the President, whereas for the Deputy Speaker, it rests with the Speaker.

54Polity and Governance
The writ of 'Prohibition' is issued by a superior court
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Answer: (A) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice

Explanation

The writ of Prohibition is a judicial order issued by a superior court, such as the Supreme Court or a High Court, to an inferior court or a quasi-judicial body. Its primary purpose is to prevent the lower body from continuing proceedings in a case where it lacks jurisdiction, is exceeding its jurisdiction, or is acting in violation of the principles of natural justice. It is essentially a preventive writ that stays the proceedings of the lower court to ensure that legal authorities do not overstep the boundaries established by law. Because it is issued while the matter is still pending, it is often described by the legal maxim that prevention is better than cure.

55Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the citizen of India?
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Answer: (D) To practice family planning and to control population

Explanation

PROPOSED: [D]

The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enumerated in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution. These duties were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, with an eleventh duty added later via the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. The prescribed list covers aspects such as respecting the Constitution, cherishing the ideals of the national struggle for freedom, protecting the environment, and striving for excellence. The practice of family planning and population control is not included in the list of eleven Fundamental Duties specified under Article 51A. Although population control is a significant policy objective for the Indian state, it remains a legislative and administrative goal rather than a constitutionally mandated Fundamental Duty for individual citizens.

56Polity and Governance
Which one among the following writs literally means 'you may have the body'?
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Answer: (B) Habeas corpus

Explanation

The term Habeas corpus is a Latin phrase that literally translates to 'you may have the body' or 'to have the body of'. Under the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts issue this writ under Article 32 and Article 226, respectively, to protect the fundamental right to personal liberty. It serves as a judicial order directed to a person or authority who has detained another person, commanding them to produce the detainee before the court. The court then examines the legality and the grounds of the detention. If the court concludes that the detention is unlawful, it orders the immediate release of the individual. This writ is a powerful safeguard against arbitrary or illegal confinement by both state and private individuals.

57History
Consider the following statements about Viswanathan Anand: 1. He has won the World Chess Championship five times. 2. He is the first sportsperson to receive the Padma Vibhushan award. 3. He is currently the No. 1 rating player on the FIDE Ratings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Viswanathan Anand secured the World Chess Championship title five times by 2012. He won his first title in 2000 (FIDE World Championship) and followed it with victories in 2007 (tournament format), 2008 (match against Kramnik), 2010 (match against Topalov), and 2012 (match against Gelfand). Furthermore, Anand made history in 2007 by becoming the first sportsperson to receive the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award in India.

58History
Consider the following statements: 1. Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza won the French Open Mixed Doubles Title in the year 2012. 2. This is their first Grand Slam Title together. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza won the French Open mixed doubles title in 2012 by defeating the pair of Klaudia Jans-Ignacik and Santiago Gonzalez in the final. This victory marked their second Grand Slam title as a pair. Their first Grand Slam title together was the Australian Open mixed doubles title, which they won in 2009 by defeating Nathalie Dechy and Andy Ram. Because they had already secured a major title three years prior, the 2012 French Open win was not their first joint Grand Slam success.

59Science and Technology
During the recent Venus transit (June 2012), the planet appeared as a tiny black circle moving on the Sun. The black colour on the Sun is because the planet
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Answer: (B) obstructed all light from the Sun

Explanation

A transit occurs when an opaque celestial body passes between an observer and a light source. During the Venus transit, the planet moves directly between the Earth and the Sun. Venus is a solid, non-luminous planet that does not emit its own visible light. When it aligns with the Sun, it blocks the solar radiation from the specific portion of the solar disk that it covers. Since the night side of Venus faces the Earth during this event, and the Sun is significantly brighter than any light reflected by the planet's atmosphere, the planet appears as a dark silhouette. The black appearance is the result of the planet obstructing the light rays emanating from the Sun along the line of sight of the observer, creating a high-contrast circular shadow on the solar disk.

60Geography
Which one among the following was the theme of World Environment Day, 2012?
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Answer: (D) Green Economy: Does it Include You?

Explanation

The theme of World Environment Day 2012 was 'Green Economy: Does it Include You?' This theme focused on the transition towards a green economy that is low-carbon, resource-efficient, and socially inclusive. For reference, the themes of adjacent years were: 2010 — 'Many Species. One Planet. One Future.', 2011 — 'Forests: Nature at Your Service', and 2013 — 'Think.Eat.Save. Reduce Your Foodprint'.

61History
Consider the following statements about Rahul Bhattacharya, who won the prestigious Royal Society of Literature Ondaatje Prize, 2012: 1. He was awarded the Ondaatje Prize for his book, The Sly Company of People Who Care. 2. He is a cricket journalist. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Right to Information is a statutory right created by the Right to Information Act, 2005. While the judiciary has held that the right to seek and receive information is an inherent part of the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(1)(a), the Right to Information is not listed as an independent Fundamental Right in the text of the Indian Constitution. It is a legal entitlement provided by an Act of Parliament, which sets out the rules and procedures regarding how citizens can request information from public authorities.

62Art and Culture
Which one among the following popular cartoon characters has recently completed 50 years of creation?
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Answer: (C) 'Utterly Butterfly' Amul Girl

Explanation

The Right to Information is a statutory right established by the Right to Information Act, 2005. It is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Right within Part III of the Constitution of India. While the judiciary has interpreted the right to know as an implicit part of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), its formal status is that of a legal right granted by parliamentary legislation. This status allows the government to define its scope, procedures, and exemptions through legislative amendments rather than constitutional amendments.

63History
Industrial Revolution, in its early phase from C. 1760 to C. 1850, was largely dependent for its success on
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Answer: (D) organization of labour under factory system

Explanation

The early phase of the Industrial Revolution was characterized by the fundamental transition from the domestic putting-out system to the factory system. This organizational shift centralized production by bringing workers and machinery together under one roof, which allowed for the systematic division of labor and direct supervision of the production process. The factory system was essential for the successful integration of early mechanical inventions, such as the water frame and the power loom, which required centralized power sources like water wheels or early steam engines. By organizing labor into disciplined shifts and specialized tasks, the factory system achieved the economies of scale and consistency in output necessary to sustain the transition from an agrarian to an industrial economy.

64History
Consider the following statements about the European travelers to India : 1. Sir Thomas Roe, the representative of the East India Company, was granted the permission by Jahangir to open a factory at Surat. 2. Captain Hawkins was driven out from Agra by the Mughals at the instigation of the Portuguese. 3. Father Monserrate traveled with Akbar on his journey to Kashmir. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Captain William Hawkins arrived at the court of Jahangir in 1609 to seek permission for trade. Although he was initially welcomed and granted a mansab, the intense opposition and diplomatic intrigue of the Portuguese, who held significant influence at the Mughal court, eventually turned Jahangir against the English. Consequently, Hawkins' mission failed, and he was forced to leave Agra in 1611.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the formal permission (firman) to establish a permanent factory at Surat was granted by Jahangir in 1613, following the English naval victory over the Portuguese at the Battle of Swally (1612). Sir Thomas Roe did not arrive until 1615; his contribution was securing a broader imperial firman for trade and factories across the Mughal Empire.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Father Antonio Monserrate, a member of the first Jesuit mission (1580–1583), accompanied Akbar on his military expedition to Kabul in 1581. He had already left the Mughal court by the time Akbar made his first journey to Kashmir in 1589.

65History
Dalhousie has been regarded as the maker of modern India because he brought about reforms and made a beginning in many fields. Which one among the following was not one of his schemes of reforms?
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Answer: (D) Factories Act to improve the condition of Indian labour

Explanation

The first Indian Factories Act was enacted in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon to regulate child labour and improve safety conditions in manufacturing units. This legislation was introduced decades after the departure of Lord Dalhousie, who served as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. While Dalhousie is credited with laying the foundation of the modern administrative and infrastructural framework of India, the specific focus on industrial labour welfare through a Factories Act did not begin until the late 19th century.

66History
The suppression of Indian language newspapers under the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was caused by the criticism of
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Answer: (C) inhuman approach of English officials towards the victims of the famine of 1876-77

Explanation

The Vernacular Press Act of 1878, often referred to as the Gagging Act, was introduced by Lord Lytton to suppress the growing vocal criticism in Indian language newspapers. A primary cause for this administrative hostility was the intense criticism directed at the British government for its perceived inhumanity and negligence during the Great Famine of 1876-77. While millions of Indians were dying of starvation, the colonial administration was seen as prioritizing imperial prestige, notably evidenced by the massive expenditure on the Delhi Durbar of 1877. The vernacular press extensively highlighted this contrast between the suffering of the masses and the extravagance of the Raj, prompting the government to enact restrictive legislation to silence such dissent and prevent the spread of anti-colonial sentiment among the local populations.

67Science and Technology
A 'rectifier' is an electronic device used to convert
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Answer: (A) AC voltage into DC voltage

Explanation

A rectifier is an electronic component, typically utilizing semiconductor diodes, designed to restrict the flow of electric current to a single direction. Alternating current (AC) by definition reverses its polarity and direction periodically, usually in a sinusoidal manner. By allowing current to pass during one half of the AC cycle and blocking it during the other—or by redirecting both halves of the cycle to flow in the same direction—the rectifier produces a unidirectional output. This fundamental process transforms AC voltage into direct current (DC) voltage, which is essential for powering most electronic devices that require a stable, single-direction flow of electrons.

68Science and Technology
In step-down transformer, the AC output gives the
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Answer: (A) current more than the input current

Explanation

A step-down transformer is designed to decrease the voltage from the primary to the secondary winding. According to the principle of conservation of energy for an ideal transformer, the input power is equal to the output power, which is expressed by the formula Pᵢₙ = Pₒᵤₜ or Vₚ Iₚ = Vₛ Iₛ. In this equation, Vₚ and Iₚ represent the primary voltage and current, while Vₛ and Iₛ represent the secondary voltage and current. Since a step-down transformer reduces voltage (Vₛ < Vₚ), the current must increase proportionally (Iₛ > Iₚ) to satisfy the power equality. This relationship is also defined by the transformer turns ratio Vₛ/Vₚ = Nₛ/Nₚ = Iₚ/Iₛ, where Nₛ and Nₚ are the number of turns in the secondary and primary coils respectively. Because the secondary coil has fewer turns than the primary coil, the output voltage is lower and the output current is higher than the input.

69Science and Technology
When ice melts, its
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Answer: (A) volume decreases

Explanation

The melting of ice involves a phase transition where the rigid, open hexagonal lattice structure maintained by hydrogen bonds in the solid state collapses. In this crystalline form, water molecules are spaced further apart than they are in the liquid state, making ice less dense than liquid water. According to the relation V = m/ρ, where V is volume, m is mass, and ρ is density, the volume of a substance is inversely proportional to its density for a constant mass. As ice melts into water, its density increases, which leads to a corresponding decrease in the volume occupied by the substance.

70Geography
The riverbank is weakest where the river turns. This is because water
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Answer: (B) effectively bounces off the outer bank as it turns, exerting an extra pressure on the bank

Explanation

When a river flows through a bend, the momentum of the moving water carries it toward the outer bank due to centrifugal force. This physical action causes the water to press against the outer curve with greater force than it would in a straight reach. As the water is redirected by the bank, it exerts significant hydraulic pressure and shear stress on the soil and rock. This mechanical action, often described as the water striking or bouncing off the bank, accelerates the process of lateral erosion and undercutting. Because the outer bank sustains this continuous and heightened pressure from the redirected current, it becomes the weakest and most unstable part of the riverbank system, eventually leading to the formation of a cut bank.

71Geography
Why do we have a leap year every four years?
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Answer: (C) The length of a year is not an integer number of days

Explanation

The Earth takes approximately 365.24219 days to complete one full revolution around the Sun, a duration known as a tropical year. Because a standard calendar year is defined as 365 days, it does not perfectly match the actual time required for the orbit. This leaves a remainder of nearly six hours, or approximately 0.25 days, each year. To account for this non-integer length and maintain synchronization between the calendar and the solar cycle, these fractional parts are added together over a period of four years to form one full day (0.25 × 4 = 1). By adding this leap day to the month of February every four years, the calendar stays aligned with the Earth's position in its orbit and the timing of the seasons.

72Geography
Rain-bearing clouds look black because
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Answer: (C) they reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere

Explanation

Rain-bearing clouds, such as cumulonimbus or nimbostratus, are characterized by their immense thickness and high density of water droplets. When sunlight hits these clouds, the majority of the light is reflected from the upper layers back into the atmosphere or scattered in various directions within the cloud. This high albedo (reflectivity) and the significant optical depth of the cloud prevent a large portion of the sunlight from penetrating through to the base. Because the clouds are thick enough to obstruct the transmission of light, an observer on the ground sees very little light coming from the cloud base, causing it to appear dark or black.

73Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Tribal Group) List-II (State where predominantly located) A. Reang 1. Arunachal Pradesh B. Dimasa 2. Nagaland C. Konyak 3. Tripura D. Mishmi 4. Assam Code :
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Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Reang, also known as Bru, is the second-largest tribal community in Tripura and is categorized as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). The Dimasa people are an ethno-linguistic group residing predominantly in the Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong districts of Assam. Konyak is a major Naga ethnic group inhabiting the Mon district of Nagaland, historically known for their warrior culture and distinct social hierarchy. The Mishmi tribes, which include sub-groups such as the Idu, Digaru, and Miju, are indigenous to the central and eastern regions of Arunachal Pradesh, specifically within the Dibang Valley and Lohit districts.

74Geography
Which one among the following sequences of water bodies, from lower to higher salinity concentration, is correct?
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Answer: (B) Baltic Sea-Arctic Sea-Gulf of California-Red Sea

Explanation

The salinity of a water body is determined by the net balance between freshwater influx and evaporation. The Baltic Sea has the lowest salinity among these water bodies, typically ranging from 6 to 10 parts per thousand (ppt), due to high freshwater discharge from numerous rivers and low evaporation in a cool climate. The Arctic Sea follows with a salinity of approximately 30 to 34 ppt, kept relatively low by massive river runoff from the surrounding continents and the melting of sea ice. The Gulf of California displays higher salinity, generally around 35 to 36 ppt, resulting from high evaporation in a desert environment and limited freshwater input. The Red Sea has the highest salinity, often exceeding 40 ppt, because it is located in one of the most arid regions on Earth with extreme evaporation rates, very little rainfall, and no permanent river inflows.

75Economy
The main aim of watershed management strategy of India is
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Answer: (D) soil conservation

Explanation

Watershed management in India is a holistic approach designed to conserve, regenerate, and judiciously use natural resources, primarily land and water, within a specific hydrological unit. The core technical objective is soil conservation, which is achieved by reducing the velocity of surface runoff to prevent the washing away of fertile topsoil. By implementing measures such as contour bunding, gully plugging, and the construction of check dams, the strategy ensures that soil moisture is retained and erosion is minimized. This focus on soil health and stability serves as the foundation for secondary benefits like groundwater recharge, increased agricultural productivity, and the restoration of ecological balance, as emphasized in the Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) guidelines.

76Geography
In absorption of insolation, the most significant part is played by
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Answer: (B) ozone

Explanation

Insolation refers to the incoming solar radiation that reaches the Earth's atmosphere, primarily in the form of shortwave radiation such as ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared light. While the atmosphere is mostly transparent to this solar energy, specific components are responsible for its absorption. Ozone (O₃), concentrated in the stratosphere, plays the most significant role among the listed options by absorbing the high-energy ultraviolet (UV) portion of the solar spectrum. This process is crucial as it protects the biosphere from harmful radiation and acts as a primary source of heat for the upper atmosphere. In contrast, gases like carbon dioxide are major absorbers of outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation rather than incoming shortwave insolation.

77Geography
Which among the following cities of India will have mid-day Sun exactly overhead only once a year?
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Answer: (D) Nagpur and Kolkata

Explanation

The phenomenon of the Sun being exactly overhead (at the zenith) at mid-day depends on a location's latitude and the Earth's axial tilt. The Sun's apparent path moves between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S) throughout the year.

For any location situated between these two tropics, the mid-day Sun is exactly overhead twice a year — once as it moves toward the north (Uttarayana) and once as it moves back toward the south (Dakshinayana). For locations situated exactly on the Tropic of Cancer or the Tropic of Capricorn, the Sun is overhead exactly once a year, occurring during the Summer Solstice (June 21 in the Northern Hemisphere) and the Winter Solstice (December 22 in the Southern Hemisphere) respectively. Locations situated beyond the tropics (>23.5° N or S) never experience the Sun exactly overhead.

In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Consequently, only cities located precisely on this latitude, such as Ranchi (Jharkhand), Gandhinagar (Gujarat), and Agartala (Tripura), experience the mid-day Sun exactly overhead only once a year. Cities located south of the Tropic of Cancer, such as Chennai (13.1° N), Hyderabad (17.4° N), Nagpur (21.1° N), and Kolkata (22.5° N), have the Sun overhead twice a year. Cities located north of the Tropic of Cancer, such as Delhi (28.6° N), Srinagar (34.1° N), Darjeeling (27.0° N), and Kohima (25.7° N), never have the Sun exactly overhead.

78Polity and Governance
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by
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Answer: (D) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the House

Explanation

Under Article 94 of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. This specific type of majority is known as an effective majority, which is calculated by taking the total membership of the House and subtracting any existing vacancies. A mandatory requirement for initiating this process is that at least fourteen days' notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution. During the period when such a resolution is being considered by the House, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting, although they maintain the right to participate in the proceedings and vote in the first instance, but they do not possess a casting vote in the event of a tie.

79Polity and Governance
What is/are the major difference/differences between a written and an unwritten constitution? 1. A written constitution is the formal source of all constitutional laws in the country and the unwritten constitution is not the formal source. 2. A written constitution is entirely codified whereas an unwritten constitution is not. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The fundamental distinction between a written and an unwritten constitution is based on codification. A written constitution is codified, meaning the framework of government and the fundamental laws of the land are systematically arranged and enacted in a single legal document or a specific set of documents. In contrast, an unwritten constitution is uncodified, where the constitutional rules are not found in one specific document but are instead spread across multiple sources such as historical charters, statutes passed by the legislature, judicial precedents, and established conventions.

Statement 1 is incorrect because an unwritten constitution still relies on formal sources of law. For instance, in the United Kingdom, which has an unwritten constitution, formal sources include historical documents like the Magna Carta and various Acts of Parliament that have constitutional status. Therefore, the absence of a single codified document does not mean the constitution lacks a formal legal source. Additionally, in countries with written constitutions, the document itself is the supreme source, but it is rarely the source of all constitutional law, as judicial interpretations and conventions also play vital roles.

80Polity and Governance
In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been given seats
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Answer: (A) in accordance with their population

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories. Unlike the United States Senate, where every state is represented equally regardless of size, the Indian Constitution adopts a system where seats are allotted primarily on the basis of the population of each state. This ensures that the demographic weight of a state is reflected in its representation in the upper house. The specific number of seats for each state is determined by a formula that grants one seat per million for the first five million people and one seat for every additional two million people thereafter, based on the census figures. Therefore, states with larger populations, such as Uttar Pradesh, have more seats compared to smaller states like Sikkim or Goa.

81Polity and Governance
The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it
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Answer: (B) contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers

Explanation

The Preamble is recognized as the key to the minds of the framers of the Constitution, as it embodies the fundamental values, the overarching philosophy, and the socio-political objectives they sought to establish. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court observed that the Preamble serves as a guide to the interpretation of the Constitution, especially in instances where the wording of a provision is ambiguous or capable of multiple interpretations. It provides the essential context and the core spirit of the document, ensuring that legal interpretations align with the noble vision of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Consequently, the judiciary utilizes the Preamble to clarify the intent of the makers and to resolve legal complexities in harmony with the Constitution's foundational principles.

82Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model?
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Answer: (D) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure

Explanation

The sustainability of the Indian democratic model is grounded in its ability to manage immense sociocultural diversity and its commitment to procedural democracy through regular elections at all levels of government since the 1950s. Furthermore, the economic liberalization and sustained growth witnessed after the 1990s provided the necessary material conditions to support democratic institutions and meet the rising expectations of a growing middle class. However, a strong industrial base is not considered a defining attribute of the Indian model. Unlike many developed nations that transitioned from agriculture to industry and then to services, India experienced a unique developmental trajectory where the service sector grew rapidly while the manufacturing and industrial base remained relatively stagnant and struggled to increase its share of the GDP. Therefore, while a vibrant federal structure is a core component of Indian democracy, the presence of a strong industrial base is factually inconsistent with India's economic history and is not a prerequisite for its democratic sustainability.

83History
Which one among the following was the immediate cause of attack by Nawab Siraj-ud-daullah on Calcutta in 1756?
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Answer: (D) Refusal of the English to demolish the fortification of Calcutta

Explanation

The immediate cause of Nawab Siraj-ud-daullah's attack on Calcutta was the British East India Company's refusal to stop and demolish the unauthorized fortifications at Fort William. Upon his accession to the throne in 1756, the Nawab ordered both the British and the French to cease strengthening their military defenses in anticipation of the Seven Years' War. While the French complied by stopping the work at Chandernagore, the British defied the Nawab's authority and continued their construction. This blatant disregard for the sovereign's command, coupled with the British sheltering of political fugitives like Krishna Das, led the Nawab to capture the factory at Cossimbazar and subsequently march on Calcutta in June 1756 to assert his authority and dismantle the fortifications.

84History
Which among the following materials were used for minting coins during the rule of the Mauryas?
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Answer: (B) Silver and Copper

Explanation

The Mauryan Empire established a centralized currency system where coins were minted primarily using silver and copper. According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, the silver coin was known as the Pana, which served as the standard unit of currency for various transactions, including the payment of government officials. Copper coins, such as the Mashaka and the smaller Kakini, were used for lower-denomination transactions and daily trade. These coins were produced through a punch-marking technique where symbols were impressed onto metal pieces of specific weights. The Lakshadhyaksha supervised the minting process, while the Rupadarshaka served as the examiner of coins, ensuring the purity and weight of the silver and copper used in circulation.

85History
What was the Kutagarashala—literally, a hut with a pointed roof?
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Answer: (B) A place where intellectual debates among Buddhist mendicants took place

Explanation

The Kutagarashala, which translates literally to a hut with a pointed roof, was a specific type of structure located in forests or groves where traveling mendicants and philosophers stayed during the 6th century BCE. These sites served as significant intellectual hubs where teachers, including the Buddha and Mahavira, engaged in debates regarding the nature of the universe and ultimate reality. If a philosopher succeeded in convincing an opponent of the validity of his theories during these discussions, the defeated philosopher and his followers would typically become the disciples of the victor, facilitating the spread of various schools of thought.

86History
The 'Dhamma', propagated by Ashoka, was
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Answer: (C) a system of morals consistent with the tenets of most of the sects of the time

Explanation

Ashoka's Dhamma was a socio-ethical code intended to foster social harmony and political unity within his diverse empire. Rather than being a sectarian religious doctrine or a summary of Buddhist theology, it focused on universal moral principles such as non-violence (ahimsa), mutual respect between different religious groups, and kindness toward all living beings. In his Major Rock Edicts, Ashoka explicitly encouraged religious tolerance and the honoring of other sects, making the Dhamma a shared ethical platform that was compatible with the core moral values of most contemporary Indian schools of thought, including Brahmanism, Buddhism, and Jainism. This broad, humanitarian approach allowed it to serve as a unifying framework for a pluralistic society.

87History
Which one among the following pairs is not properly matched?
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Answer: (C) Panini : Mahabhashya

Explanation

Panini was an ancient Sanskrit philologist and grammarian who authored the Ashtadhyayi, the foundational text of the Vyakarana tradition of Sanskrit grammar. The Mahabhashya is a famous commentary on the rules of Sanskrit grammar as established in Panini's Ashtadhyayi and Katyayana's Varttika. The Mahabhashya was authored by the grammarian Patanjali in the 2nd century BCE, making the pairing of Panini with the Mahabhashya incorrect.

88Science and Technology
In an atomic explosion, release of large amount of energy is due to conversion of
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Answer: (C) mass into energy

Explanation

The release of a massive amount of energy in an atomic explosion is a direct consequence of Albert Einstein's mass-energy equivalence principle, defined by the equation E = mc². In nuclear processes such as fission or fusion, the total mass of the end products is slightly less than the mass of the original nuclei. This difference is known as the mass defect. According to the formula, this lost mass is converted into energy. Since the square of the speed of light c² is an extremely large numerical value, the conversion of even a very small amount of matter generates the tremendous explosive force and thermal energy characteristic of nuclear weapons.

89Science and Technology
Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition because they lose their cleansing effect due to formation of insoluble
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Answer: (D) long-chain fatty acids

Explanation

Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids, typically represented by the formula RCOONa. In an acidic medium, the high concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) reacts with the carboxylate ions of the soap to form free long-chain fatty acids. The chemical reaction is RCOO⁻Na⁺ + H⁺ → RCOOH + Na⁺. While the salt form is soluble and acts as a surfactant to remove grease, the resulting long-chain fatty acids (RCOOH) are insoluble in water due to their large hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains. These acids precipitate out as a waxy solid, which removes the active soap molecules from the solution and neutralizes their cleansing properties.

90Economy
Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while farming their fields. This is because
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Answer: (B) lime decreases the acidity of soil

Explanation

Lime, typically in the form of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), calcium oxide (CaO), or calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂), is used by farmers as a soil conditioner to neutralize soil acidity. Soils become acidic due to various factors such as the leaching of basic cations like calcium and magnesium, the use of certain nitrogenous fertilizers, and the decomposition of organic matter. High acidity can restrict plant growth by making essential nutrients less available and increasing the solubility of toxic elements like aluminum and manganese. When lime is added to the soil, it reacts with the hydrogen ions (H⁺) responsible for acidity, effectively raising the pH level and creating a more favorable environment for crop development and beneficial microbial activity.

91Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (River) List-II (Tributaries) A. Ganga 1. Chambal and Ken B. Indus 2. Wainganga and Indravati C. Yamuna 3. Chenab and Sutlej D. Godavari 4. Gomti and Kosi Code :
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Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

The Ganga matches with the Gomti and Kosi as they are prominent left-bank tributaries of the river system. The Indus matches with the Chenab and Sutlej which are major components of the five rivers forming the Indus basin in the Punjab region. The Yamuna matches with the Chambal and Ken because these rivers originate in the Peninsular plateau and join the Yamuna on its right bank. The Godavari matches with the Wainganga and Indravati as they are important tributaries draining into the largest river of Peninsular India.

92Geography
Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular India because 1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells. 2. rivers are rain-fed 3. of compact nature of population and agricultural fields Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The geological structure of Peninsular India is primarily composed of hard crystalline and metamorphic rocks, such as granite and gneiss. This makes the excavation of canals and the digging of deep wells extremely difficult and expensive compared to the soft alluvium of the Northern Plains. The undulating topography of the Deccan Plateau provides numerous natural depressions that can be easily converted into storage tanks by constructing small masonry walls or earthen bunds to trap surface runoff.

Furthermore, unlike the perennial rivers of the North that originate from Himalayan glaciers, the rivers of the Peninsular region are rain-fed and seasonal. These rivers carry very little water during the dry months, making it essential to store rainwater in tanks during the monsoon season to ensure a steady supply for irrigation and domestic needs throughout the rest of the year.

93Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on community land and on privately owned land. 2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic need of the family. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Social forestry in India is primarily classified into three categories: urban forestry, rural forestry, and farm forestry. Rural forestry is further subdivided into agro-forestry and community forestry. Agro-forestry involves the simultaneous cultivation of agricultural crops and forest trees on the same piece of private land, including waste patches. Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community-owned lands, such as village pastures, temple lands, and along roads or canal banks, to benefit the community as a whole. Therefore, rural forestry as a broad category aims to plant trees on both community and privately owned land.

Farm forestry is a practice where individual farmers are encouraged by the government and various agencies to plant trees on their own farmland. The primary goal is to make the farm self-sufficient in domestic needs such as fuel-wood, fodder for cattle, and timber for construction or agricultural implements. While it can have commercial motives, the foundational intent under social forestry programs is to meet the household requirements of the farming family. Since both statements accurately describe these components of social forestry, they are both correct.

94Economy
Which of the following are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India? 1. Low per capita income 2. Rapid rate of increase of population 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs 4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The decrease in per capita holding of cultivated land in India is primarily driven by demographic and socio-legal factors. A rapid rate of population growth increases the total number of individuals dependent on a finite supply of agricultural land, naturally diluting the share available to each person. This pressure is compounded by the traditional laws of inheritance, which dictate that land must be divided equally among all legal heirs. This cultural practice leads to the continuous subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings into smaller and smaller parcels with each passing generation, directly reducing the average size of land held per capita. While factors like income levels and farming techniques influence the productivity of the land, they do not dictate the physical size of the land holding itself.

95Geography
Surface water resources are highest in
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Answer: (A) Ganga plains

Explanation

The Ganga plains possess the highest surface water resources in India because the Ganga river system is the largest in the country, draining a catchment area of approximately 861,452 square kilometers. This region benefits from perennial rivers that are fed by both the melting of Himalayan glaciers and heavy seasonal rainfall from the Southwest monsoon. The Ganga basin has a total annual surface water potential of about 525 billion cubic meters, which is significantly higher than that of the Indus or peninsular river systems within Indian territory.

While the Brahmaputra in North-Eastern India has a high total discharge, the Ganga plains have the highest utilizable surface water resources, estimated at 250 billion cubic meters. This is due to the vast, flat topography of the plains which allows for the extensive development of irrigation canals and water storage projects, whereas the rugged terrain of the North-East limits water utilization. Consequently, in terms of both basin scale within India and functional availability, the Ganga plains lead in surface water resources.

96Geography
Which one among the following cities is called the 'zero-mile centre' of India?
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Answer: (C) Nagpur

Explanation

Nagpur is recognized as the zero-mile centre of India because it contains the Zero Mile Stone monument, which was established by the British during the Great Trigonometrical Survey of India in 1907. The British used this specific location as the central reference point to measure all distances throughout the Indian subcontinent. The monument features a sandstone pillar and sculptures of four bronze horses, symbolizing Nagpur's role as the geographical hub of India during the colonial era. Its location in the heart of the Deccan plateau served as the benchmark for the construction of the country's major road networks and mapping projects.

97Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. High growth will lead to inflation. 2. High growth will lead to deflation. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

High economic growth is typically driven by an increase in aggregate demand. When the demand for goods and services rises rapidly, it often outpaces the economy's immediate productive capacity, creating an inflationary gap. This leads to demand-pull inflation as the relative scarcity of supply pushes prices higher. Additionally, high growth is usually associated with increased employment and rising wages, which further boosts consumer spending and reinforces the upward pressure on price levels. In macroeconomic theory, particularly during the expansionary phase of a business cycle, rapid growth in output is fundamentally linked to inflationary trends rather than price stability or deflation.

98Polity and Governance
The Right to Information means and includes 1. inspection of documents 2. taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant 3. taking photograph of files 4. obtaining information in tapes Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, defines the right to information as the right to access information held by or under the control of any public authority. This specifically includes the right to the inspection of work, documents, and records. It also covers the right to take notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records, as well as taking certified samples of material. Within the context of taking extracts or copies, using modern means such as taking photographs is included. Additionally, the Act explicitly allows for obtaining information in various electronic formats, mentioning diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes, or any other electronic mode where the information is stored in a computer or other devices. While the Act facilitates access through inspection and the provision of copies, it does not permit an applicant to physically remove original official files from the office of the public authority.

99Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about 'Revolution' is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Revolution implies change within the system's rules

Explanation

A revolution is defined as a fundamental and relatively sudden change in political power and social organizational structures. This process involves the total replacement of the existing political system rather than mere adjustments made through its established procedures. While reform operates within the system's rules to improve or modify it, a revolution breaks those rules to establish a new foundational order. Consequently, the characteristic feature of a revolution is the transformation of the system itself from the outside, often through extra-legal or non-constitutional means, rather than functioning through the internal mechanisms or legal protocols of the regime it seeks to replace.

100Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about features of Sanskritization is/are correct? 1. It refers to a process whereby members of a caste attempt to raise their own social status by adopting the rituals, domestic and social practices of a caste of higher status. 2. The practices which were usually chosen for emulation were adopting vegetarianism, wearing of sacred thread, specific prayers, religious ceremonies and so on. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Sanskritization is a process of social change in India first conceptualized by M.N. Srinivas. It describes the mechanism through which a low Hindu caste, tribal group, or other middle-tier community attempts to upwardly mobilize their social status by imitating the customs, rituals, ideology, and lifestyle of a higher caste, typically one of the twice-born or dwija categories. This emulation is driven by the desire to gain recognition for a higher position within the local caste hierarchy over one or two generations.

The specific practices adopted during this process are those associated with the traditional Sanskritic way of life. This includes a shift towards purity-based rituals and lifestyle changes such as adopting a strictly vegetarian diet, renouncing the consumption of alcohol, and performing Vedic rites. Symbols of high status, such as the wearing of the sacred thread (yagnopavitam) and the observation of specific domestic prayers and elaborate religious ceremonies, are central to this transformation. By aligning their cultural identity with that of the dominant or higher castes, these groups seek to validate their claims to a superior rank in the social order.

101Polity and Governance
The 'Instrument of Instructions' contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
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Answer: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are modeled after the Instrument of Instructions issued to the Governor-General and Governors under the Government of India Act, 1935. During the Constituent Assembly debates, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clarified that the Directive Principles are essentially the same as these colonial-era instructions, serving as guidelines for the State's legislative and executive organs. While the original instruments were executive directives from the British Crown to its representatives, the 1950 Constitution adapted them as non-justiciable fundamental principles for the governance of the country, aimed at achieving a welfare state and ensuring social, economic, and political justice for all citizens.

102Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Act) List-II (Feature) A. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 1. Introduction of provincial autonomy B. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 2. Introduction of the principle of election C. The Government of India Act, 1919 3. Introduction of diarchy in provinces D. The Government of India Act, 1935 4. Introduction of separate electorate for the Muslims Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 4 3 1

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1892 introduced the principle of election, although the word election was not explicitly used in the act; it allowed for the nomination of some non-official members of the Central and provincial legislative councils on the recommendation of certain bodies. The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of a separate electorate. The Government of India Act of 1919, known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced dyarchy in the provinces, which divided provincial subjects into two parts: transferred and reserved. The Government of India Act of 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy in its place, allowing provinces to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.

103History
Silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. Which one among the following is not true of silk routes?
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Answer: (D) As a result of silk route trade, precious metals like gold and silver, flowed from Asia to Europe

Explanation

The pre-modern trade along the silk routes involved the exchange of Asian luxury goods like silk, spices, and textiles for European precious metals. European merchants paid for these highly valued commodities using gold and silver, leading to a net flow of bullion from Europe to Asia. This economic drain was a primary reason for the eventual European search for direct maritime routes to the East to bypass middlemen and find alternative sources of wealth. Since the flow of precious metals was from West to East to settle trade deficits, the assertion that gold and silver flowed from Asia to Europe is historically inaccurate.

104History
Which one among the following correctly describes Gandhiji's attitude towards the Swarajist leaders?
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Answer: (B) He had full trust in their bona fides and considered them most valued and respected leaders

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi, despite his personal disagreement with the program of Council entry, maintained deep respect for Swarajist leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. Following his release from prison in 1924, Gandhi sought to avoid a repeat of the 1907 Surat split within the Congress. He recognized that the Swarajists represented a significant and patriotic wing of the national movement. When the British government launched a series of repressive measures against the Swarajists in late 1924, Gandhi stood firmly by them, declaring that he had full trust in their bona fides and sincerity. He referred to them as his most valued and respected colleagues and eventually signed the Gandhi-Das Pact to ensure the Congress remained a united front against colonial rule.

105History
Which one among the following depicts the correct meaning of the term Jins-i-kamil concerning crops in Mughal India?
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Answer: (B) Cash crop

Explanation

The term Jins-i-kamil literally translates to perfect crops in the Mughal administrative and agrarian vocabulary. These were high-value commercial crops that yielded significantly higher revenue for the state compared to ordinary subsistence crops. The Mughal authorities actively encouraged peasants to cultivate Jins-i-kamil, such as cotton, sugarcane, indigo, and oilseeds, because they were more profitable and were typically assessed for revenue in cash. Since these crops were primarily grown for sale in the market rather than for immediate consumption by the farming household, they represent what are modernly classified as cash crops. The expansion of these crops was a key feature of the commercialization of agriculture during the Mughal period, reflecting the state's interest in increasing its financial resources through high-yield commercial agriculture.

106Geography
Sargasso Sea is characterized by
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Answer: (D) typical marine vegetation

Explanation

The Sargasso Sea is a unique region in the North Atlantic Ocean, positioned within the North Atlantic Gyre and bounded by the Gulf Stream, the North Atlantic Current, the Canary Current, and the North Atlantic Equatorial Current. It is the only sea on Earth that has no land boundaries. Its most defining characteristic is the presence of vast, floating mats of brown seaweed of the genus Sargassum. This characteristic marine vegetation provides a vital habitat and breeding ground for a diverse range of marine life, including various species of fish, crabs, and shrimp, as well as being the primary spawning site for American and European eels. The sea was named by Portuguese explorers who called the seaweed sargazo after the grape-like air bladders that keep the algae afloat. While the region also exhibits high salinity and warm temperatures due to the trapping of water within the gyre and high evaporation rates, the abundance of its namesake seaweed is its most distinctive geographical and biological feature.

107Geography
Ozone holes are more pronounced at the
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Answer: (D) Poles

Explanation

Ozone holes are most pronounced at the poles because of the unique meteorological and chemical conditions found in the polar stratosphere. During the extremely cold polar winter, temperatures drop low enough to form polar stratospheric clouds, which provide a surface for chemical reactions that release reactive chlorine and bromine from man-made compounds. These chemicals are trapped over the polar regions by a strong circulating wind pattern known as the polar vortex, which prevents the mixing of air from lower latitudes. When sunlight returns in the spring, it provides the energy required for these reactive species to trigger the rapid catalytic destruction of ozone (O₃). While this occurs at both poles, the phenomenon is most severe over Antarctica due to its colder and more stable atmospheric conditions compared to the Arctic.

108Polity and Governance
In India, the 'effective literacy rates' are calculated from
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Answer: (D) population above 7 years of age

Explanation

In the Indian Census, the effective literacy rate is defined as the number of literate persons aged 7 years and above divided by the total population in that same age group. This methodology has been followed since the 1991 Census. Children in the age group of 0 to 6 years are excluded from the calculation and are treated as illiterate, regardless of their schooling or ability to read and write, because the ability to comprehend and communicate through written language is generally considered to develop from age 7 onwards. The formula is expressed as:

Effective Literacy Rate = (Number of Literate Persons (aged 7+))/(Population (aged 7+)) × 100

109Economy
In the parlance of financial investment, the term 'bear' denotes
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Answer: (A) an investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall

Explanation

In stock market terminology, a bear is an investor who maintains a pessimistic outlook on the future price of a specific security or the market as a whole. Expecting prices to decline, a bear may sell their holdings or engage in short-selling to profit from the anticipated downward movement. The term is derived from the physical action of a bear, which typically swipes its paws in a downward motion when attacking. A market environment defined by falling prices and negative investor sentiment is consequently referred to as a bear market.

110Economy
Which one among the following is an appropriate description of 'deflation'?
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Answer: (C) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services

Explanation

Deflation is a macroeconomic phenomenon characterized by a sustained and persistent decrease in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It occurs when the inflation rate becomes negative, falling below 0%, which increases the purchasing power of the currency. This condition is monitored through indices such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which tracks the price changes of a representative basket of goods. Deflation typically arises due to a contraction in the money supply, a significant decline in aggregate demand, or an increase in productivity that outpaces the growth in demand, leading to a general and ongoing drop in market prices.

111Polity and Governance
With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (D) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat

Explanation

Under Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court or an order of any other court. The Act explicitly provides that such an award shall be final and binding on all parties to the dispute and no appeal shall lie to any court against the award. This provision exists because the award is based on a settlement or compromise reached with the mutual consent of the parties involved, thereby precluding the need for further litigation or appellate review.

112Polity and Governance
Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India? 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) fulfills the constitutional obligations under both the Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights. Article 41 of the Directive Principles in Part IV specifically directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, as well as in other cases of undeserved want. The various components of NSAP, such as the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) and the Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS), are direct applications of this directive. Furthermore, the program supports the realization of Article 21 under Fundamental Rights, which guarantees the Right to Life. The judiciary has interpreted the Right to Life to mean more than mere animal existence; it includes the right to live with human dignity and the entitlement to basic necessities. By providing a social security net to the most vulnerable sections of society—including the elderly, widows, and persons with disabilities—the government ensures that these citizens can lead a life with basic dignity, thereby fulfilling the substantive requirements of Article 21.

113Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies. 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

In 2012, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry were the only two Union Territories in India equipped with their own Legislative Assemblies and Councils of Ministers. The other Union Territories at that time were governed directly by the Union government through administrators or lieutenant governors without local legislatures.

Regarding the second statement, while Mizoram and Nagaland each have only one seat in the Lok Sabha, Meghalaya is allocated two seats in the Lower House of Parliament. Therefore, the assertion that all three North-Eastern states mentioned have only one seat each is inaccurate. In the North-East, other states like Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Tripura also have two Lok Sabha seats each, while Sikkim has one.

114Geography
There are three distinct characters of temperature stratification of atmosphere around the Earth. Which one among the following is the correct arrangement of the layers (from the Earth's surface upwards)?
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Answer: (C) Troposphere—Stratosphere—Thermosphere

Explanation

The Earth's atmosphere is vertically stratified into distinct layers based on temperature gradients. Starting from the Earth's surface, the first layer is the Troposphere, which contains the majority of the atmosphere's mass and is where temperature typically decreases with altitude. Above the tropopause lies the Stratosphere, extending roughly from 12 km to 50 km, where the temperature increases with height due to the absorption of ultraviolet radiation by the ozone layer. Moving further upwards beyond the mesosphere, the Thermosphere is characterized by a rapid increase in temperature with altitude as atmospheric molecules absorb high-energy solar radiation, such as X-rays and short-wave ultraviolet rays.

115Geography
Which one among the following statements regarding Chinook winds is not correct?
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Answer: (C) They bring lots of rain with them

Explanation

Chinook winds are characterized as warm, dry, downslope winds that occur on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains. As moist air from the Pacific Ocean rises over the windward western slopes, it undergoes orographic lifting, cools, and loses its moisture through precipitation. By the time the air reaches the crest and begins to descend the eastern slopes, it is significantly drier. During this descent, the air is compressed and heats up adiabatically at the dry adiabatic lapse rate of approximately 10 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters. This process results in a very warm and parched wind that promotes rapid evaporation and sublimation of snow, earned them the nickname snow eaters, rather than bringing rainfall to the region.

116Economy
Which one among the following statements is not true of the Jajmani system?
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Answer: (C) It was introduced under pressure from the colonial regime

Explanation

The Jajmani system was an indigenous socio-economic arrangement rooted in the traditional caste-based structure of rural India, existing long before the arrival of European powers. It operated as a reciprocal, non-market exchange where service-providing castes (Kamins) performed hereditary duties for land-owning patron castes (Jajmans) in return for a share of the harvest or other goods. Historical records from the medieval and early modern periods confirm its prevalence across various regions as a mechanism for village self-sufficiency. Rather than being introduced by the British, the system actually faced disruption and gradual decline due to colonial policies, such as the monetization of the economy, the introduction of formal legal contracts, and the transition to a market-based land revenue system, all of which undermined traditional patron-client obligations.

117History
Which one among the following books was authored by a lady of the Mughal Royal House?
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Answer: (C) Humayun Nama

Explanation

Gulbadan Begum, the daughter of Emperor Babur and the sister of Emperor Humayun, authored the Humayun Nama. She wrote this biographical account at the request of her nephew, Emperor Akbar, to provide historical details regarding the reigns of her father and brother. As a lady of the Mughal Royal House, her work is particularly significant because it offers a rare perspective on the domestic life, social customs, and internal dynamics of the Mughal harem and royal family, which were typically not documented by male court historians. It remains one of the most important primary sources for understanding the early Mughal period in India.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7B
  8. 8D
  9. 9C
  10. 10B
  11. 11D
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14C
  15. 15D
  16. 16C
  17. 17C
  18. 18A
  19. 19D
  20. 20A
  21. 21C
  22. 22A
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25A
  26. 26A
  27. 27D
  28. 28B
  29. 29A
  30. 30B
  31. 31B
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34B
  35. 35C
  36. 36B
  37. 37D
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40B
  41. 41C
  42. 42A
  43. 43B
  44. 44D
  45. 45C
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48C
  49. 49C
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54A
  55. 55D
  56. 56B
  57. 57B
  58. 58A
  59. 59B
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62C
  63. 63D
  64. 64B
  65. 65D
  66. 66C
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72C
  73. 73D
  74. 74B
  75. 75D
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81B
  82. 82D
  83. 83D
  84. 84B
  85. 85B
  86. 86C
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89D
  90. 90B
  91. 91B
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94B
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99B
  100. 100C
  101. 101B
  102. 102A
  103. 103D
  104. 104B
  105. 105B
  106. 106D
  107. 107D
  108. 108D
  109. 109A
  110. 110C
  111. 111D
  112. 112B
  113. 113A
  114. 114C
  115. 115C
  116. 116C
  117. 117C

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