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CDS I 2025 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
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6
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  • Science and Technology3731%
  • Polity and Governance2420%
  • Geography2218%
  • History1815%
  • Economy119%
  • Art and Culture87%
1Geography
Consider the following statements with reference to Secondary waves (S-Waves) generated during an earthquake: 1. They create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass. 2. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Secondary waves, or S-waves, are transverse seismic waves that vibrate the particles of the medium perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Because of this transverse nature, they deform the material by creating alternating peaks and valleys, known as crests and troughs, as the wave energy moves forward. The vibration of particles in an S-wave occurs in a plane perpendicular to the path of the wave; this can occur in a vertical plane (referred to as SV-waves) or a horizontal plane (referred to as SH-waves). This perpendicular motion distinguishes them from longitudinal P-waves, which vibrate parallel to the direction of travel.

2Geography
Identify the Mineral on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it: I. It is usually a greenish crystal. II. It is often found in basaltic rocks. III. Magnesium, iron, and silica are its major elements. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Olivine

Explanation

Olivine is a magnesium iron silicate mineral with the chemical formula (Mg, Fe)₂SiO₄. It is readily identified by its characteristic olive-green color, which is caused by the presence of iron within its crystal structure. As a primary mineral that crystallizes at high temperatures according to Bowen's Reaction Series, it is a common constituent of mafic and ultramafic igneous rocks, particularly basalt, gabbro, and peridotite. Its chemical composition consists primarily of magnesium, iron, and silica, where the magnesium and iron ions substitute for each other in a solid solution series between the endmembers forsterite (Mg₂SiO₄) and fayalite (Fe₂SiO₄).

3Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Salt Weathering is/are correct? 1. Salt crystallisation is the most effective of all the salt weathering processes. 2. Salt crystal growth is more effective over sedimentary rocks as compared to igneous rocks. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Salt weathering is a potent mechanical weathering process where the formation and growth of salt crystals inside rock pores and fractures exert significant expansive pressure. Salt crystallisation is recognized as the most dominant and effective mechanism among salt-related processes, which also include thermal expansion and salt hydration. This process is particularly impactful on sedimentary rocks because they generally possess higher primary porosity and bedding planes compared to igneous rocks. The greater pore space in sedimentary rocks allows for better infiltration of saline solutions and provides more internal volume for crystals to expand, leading to more rapid disintegration than in the denser, crystalline structures of igneous rocks.

4Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Surface inversion of temperature is/are correct? 1. It causes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. 2. This inversion commonly lasts for a few hours until the Sun comes up. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Surface inversion occurs when the temperature increases with height near the ground, creating a layer of cold, dense air beneath a layer of warmer air. This thermal stratification leads to high atmospheric stability because the denser air remains at the surface and cannot rise, thereby suppressing vertical convection and mixing. Since stability is the defining characteristic of this condition, statement 1 is inaccurate. These inversions are typically a nocturnal phenomenon, developing on clear, calm nights when the Earth's surface loses heat rapidly through terrestrial radiation and cools the adjacent air. The inversion is temporary and generally lasts only until the Sun rises and begins to heat the surface, which in turn warms the lower atmosphere and restores the normal lapse rate.

5Geography
Identify the cloud on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it: I. They look like cotton wool. II. They exist in patches and have flat base. III. They are generally formed at a height of 4 to 7 km. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) Cumulus

Explanation

Cumulus clouds are defined by their distinct physical appearance resembling cotton wool or cauliflower. According to standard geographical texts used in Indian civil services preparation, such as NCERT, these clouds are typically formed at a height of 4,000 to 7,000 meters. They are characterized by a prominent flat horizontal base and a rounded, puffy upper structure. These clouds generally exist in detached patches and are seen scattered across the sky rather than forming a continuous layer. While they are often associated with fair weather, they possess significant vertical development potential. The combination of the cotton wool appearance, the existence in patches with a flat base, and the specific altitude range of 4 to 7 km uniquely identifies them as cumulus clouds in this context.

6Geography
Identify the type of climate on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it: I. Temperature is high throughout the year. II. Rainfall is variable with a short wet season and a longer dry season. III. Climate of Sudan and Paraguay is an example of this climate type. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Tropical wet and dry climate

Explanation

The tropical wet and dry climate, often referred to as the Savanna or Sudan type climate, is characterized by high temperatures throughout the year, with mean monthly temperatures usually exceeding 18°C due to its location in the tropical zone. This climate features a distinct seasonality in precipitation, with a short wet season during the summer months when the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) moves over the region, and a longer dry season during the winter when the subtropical high-pressure cells dominate. The Sudan in Africa and the Gran Chaco region of Paraguay are representative geographical examples of this climatic regime, where the transition between the humid equatorial forests and the arid desert fringes creates a landscape of tall grasses and drought-resistant trees.

7Geography
What is the correct sequence of the following salts in ascending order according to their presence in the sea water? 1. Calcium Carbonate 2. Calcium Sulphate 3. Magnesium Chloride Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The salinity of seawater is composed of several dissolved salts, where the proportions of major ions remain relatively constant. Among the salts provided, Calcium Carbonate (CaCO₃) exists in the lowest concentration, representing approximately 0.3 percent of the total dissolved solids. Calcium Sulphate (CaSO₄) is more abundant, accounting for roughly 3.6 percent of the salts. Magnesium Chloride (MgCl₂) is the most prevalent of the three, being the second most common salt in the ocean after Sodium Chloride and making up about 10.9 percent of the total salinity. Therefore, the correct ascending order based on their presence in seawater is Calcium Carbonate (1), followed by Calcium Sulphate (2), and then Magnesium Chloride (3).

8Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Humus is/are correct? 1. It is a dark coloured amorphous substance. 2. Being colloidal in nature, it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Humus is the dark-colored, amorphous organic matter in soil produced by the decomposition of plant and animal remains by microorganisms. It is referred to as amorphous because it lacks a definite crystalline structure and is highly resistant to further microbial degradation, leading to a very slow decomposition rate. Due to its colloidal nature, humus particles have a high surface area and carry negative surface charges, which give it a high cation exchange capacity. This allows humus to bind and store essential mineral nutrients, effectively serving as a reservoir that slowly releases these nutrients for plant uptake while also improving soil water-holding capacity.

9Geography
Which one among the following Biosphere Reserves is spread over three states in India?
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Answer: (B) Nilgiris

Explanation

The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve established in India in 1986 under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme. It is situated in the Western Ghats and encompasses a total area of approximately 5,520 square kilometers. This reserve is uniquely positioned at the confluence of three Indian states: Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. It includes various protected areas such as the Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Wayanad, Bandipur, and Nagarhole National Parks, as well as the Silent Valley and Siruvani hills, forming a contiguous ecological corridor across these three southern states.

10Geography
River Danube does not flow through which one of the following capital cities in Europe?
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Answer: (C) Prague

Explanation

Prague is the capital city of the Czech Republic and is situated on the banks of the Vltava River. The Vltava is the longest river within the Czech Republic and is a major tributary of the Elbe River, which flows northward through Germany and into the North Sea. The Danube River basin is a separate hydrological system that flows through Central and Southeastern Europe toward the Black Sea, and its course does not pass through Prague.

11Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Easter Island, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is/are correct? 1. It is part of Polynesia group of islands. 2. It is a territory of the South American nation Chile. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Easter Island, also known as Rapa Nui, is geographically situated in the southeastern Pacific Ocean and forms the southeastern corner of the Polynesian Triangle. This location makes it culturally and ethnically part of the Polynesian group of islands, as evidenced by its unique Moai statues and ancestral heritage. The island is also a territory of Chile, having been formally annexed by the South American nation on September 9, 1888. It is currently administered as a special territory within the Valparaíso Region of Chile, maintaining its status as a remote volcanic island under Chilean sovereignty.

12Geography
Which one among the following is home to the endangered mountain gorillas in Africa?
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Answer: (D) Virunga Mountains

Explanation

The Virunga Mountains are a chain of volcanic mountains located along the borders of Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Uganda. This region provides one of the only two remaining natural habitats for the endangered mountain gorilla. These primates reside within the high-altitude montane and bamboo forests of several contiguous protected areas, including Volcanoes National Park in Rwanda, Virunga National Park in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Mgahinga Gorilla National Park in Uganda. The ecosystem at elevations between 2,500 and 4,000 meters offers the specific cool, misty climate and abundant herbaceous vegetation, such as bamboo shoots and wild celery, essential for their diet and survival. Conservation efforts centered in the Virunga range have been instrumental in protecting the species and promoting its population growth within these unique afro-montane habitats.

13Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Jordan is/are correct? 1. The country of Jordan was created through the British Mandate after World War I. 2. It is a landlocked country. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Jordan was established as the Emirate of Transjordan in 1921 under the British Mandate for Palestine following the dissolution of the Ottoman Empire after World War I. This administrative arrangement, sanctioned by the League of Nations, laid the foundation for the modern Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, which eventually gained full independence in 1946. Regarding its geography, Jordan is not a landlocked nation as it possesses a narrow coastline on the Gulf of Aqaba. This southern access point to the Red Sea serves as the country's only maritime gateway through the Port of Aqaba, facilitating international trade and providing strategic sea access.

14Geography
Which one among the following places is situated close to the Pearl River Estuary in Asia?
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Answer: (B) Hong Kong

Explanation

Hong Kong is situated on the eastern side of the Pearl River Estuary in Southern China, where the Pearl River (Zhujiang) discharges into the South China Sea. The estuary is a large, complex network of channels and water bodies, and Hong Kong's territory—specifically Lantau Island and the New Territories—forms its eastern boundary. This strategic location has historically made Hong Kong a vital maritime gateway and a central component of the Pearl River Delta economic region, one of the most significant industrial and urban clusters in the world.

While Macau is also located on the western side of the same estuary, Hong Kong is the major global financial and logistical hub most frequently associated with the geographic landmark of the Pearl River mouth in academic and competitive examinations. The region is characterized by high-density urbanization and is now integrated through major infrastructure like the Hong Kong–Zhuhai–Macau Bridge, which spans the estuary.

15Geography
Consider the following statements with regard to Australia: 1. The Coral Sea separates the Great Barrier Reef from the South Pacific. 2. The Great Dividing Range extends from Melbourne to Perth in Australia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Great Barrier Reef is located within the Coral Sea, off the northeastern coast of Queensland, Australia. The reef system sits on the Australian continental shelf and forms the western boundary of the Coral Sea. Since the reef is a physical feature contained inside the Coral Sea (which is itself a marginal sea of the South Pacific Ocean), it is geographically inaccurate to say the Coral Sea separates the reef from the South Pacific.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Great Dividing Range is situated exclusively in eastern and southeastern Australia. It extends for roughly 3,500 km, beginning from the Daintree River region of the Cape York Peninsula in Queensland, running south through New South Wales, and terminating in the Grampians in western Victoria, near Melbourne. It does not extend to Perth, which is located on the opposite side of the continent on the southwestern coast of Western Australia, separated from the range by the vast Nullarbor Plain and the Western Plateau.

16Geography
What is the correct sequence of the following mountain ranges as one moves from North towards South? 1. Karakoram 2. Kunlun 3. Ladakh 4. Zaskar Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation

The Kunlun Mountains are located at the northern edge of the Tibetan Plateau, marking the northernmost range among those listed. Moving southward, the Karakoram Range is situated south of the Kunlun and north of the Indus River system. Continuing south, the Ladakh Range runs parallel to the Karakoram, separated primarily by the Shyok River valley. Further south, the Zaskar Range lies between the Ladakh Range and the Great Himalayas, with the Indus River flowing between the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges. This geographical progression from the high plateaus of Central Asia toward the Indian subcontinent establishes the north-to-south sequence as Kunlun, Karakoram, Ladakh, and finally Zaskar.

17Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to saline soil in India is/are correct? 1. They are rich in nitrogen. 2. They occur in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Saline soils, also known as Usar soils, are characterized by an accumulation of soluble salts like sodium, potassium, and magnesium. They are predominantly found in arid and semi-arid regions where high evaporation rates exceed precipitation, drawing salts to the surface through capillary action. Additionally, they occur in waterlogged and swampy areas, such as the Rann of Kutch and the coastal deltas, where poor drainage or seawater intrusion leads to high salinity levels. These soils are inherently infertile and are specifically noted for being deficient in nitrogen and organic matter, as the high salt concentration inhibits the accumulation of nutrients and biological activity.

18Geography
Salal Power Project is situated on which one among the following rivers?
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Answer: (A) Chenab

Explanation

The Salal Power Project, also known as the Salal Hydroelectric Power Station, is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric scheme located on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Conceived in 1920 and commissioned in two stages between 1987 and 1995, it was the first major hydropower project built by India in the region under the provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty. The installation features a rock-fill dam and a concrete power dam, providing significant electricity to the Northern Grid to serve various states including Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, and Delhi.

19Geography
Which one among the following tributaries of Indus River does not originate in the Himalayas?
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Answer: (B) Gomal

Explanation

The Gomal River originates in the Paktika Province of Afghanistan, specifically on the eastern slopes of the Sulaiman Range. This mountain range is part of the western highlands of the Indus river basin and is geologically and geographically distinct from the Himalayan mountain system. As a right-bank tributary, the Gomal flows through the tribal areas of Pakistan before joining the Indus River near Dera Ismail Khan. The river serves as a major drainage for the Gomal Pass, which has historically been an important trade route. Unlike tributaries that descend from the high altitudes of the Himalayas or the Karakoram, the Gomal represents the drainage system of the western arid and semi-arid mountainous regions bordering the Indus Plain.

20Economy
As per the Annual Report 2023-24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following are the major bauxite producing states in India?
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Answer: (B) Odisha and Jharkhand

Explanation

Based on the data provided in the Ministry of Mines Annual Report 2023-24, Odisha is the preeminent bauxite-producing state in India, accounting for more than 70 percent of the total national production. Its output is primarily driven by large-scale mining operations in the Koraput and Rayagada districts. Jharkhand is another major producer, consistently ranking among the top three states alongside Odisha and Gujarat. The bauxite mines in Jharkhand are largely concentrated in the Lohardaga and Gumla regions. Together, Odisha and Jharkhand represent the primary mineral belts responsible for the majority of India's bauxite supply for the metallurgical industry.

21Science and Technology
If your image appears to be erect, no matter how far you stand from a mirror, the mirror is likely to be:
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Answer: (D) Either plane or convex

Explanation

A plane mirror always produces a virtual and erect image of an object that is of the same size, regardless of the object's distance from the mirror. Similarly, a convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image of an object placed anywhere in front of it. In both these cases, the orientation of the image remains upright (erect) for all object positions. Thus, if the image is always erect irrespective of the distance, the mirror is likely to be either plane or convex.

22Science and Technology
The rule that determines the direction of a magnetic field produced around a straight conductor carrying current is:
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Answer: (A) Right-hand thumb rule

Explanation

The right-hand thumb rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field produced by a straight conductor carrying an electric current. According to this rule, if you imagine grasping the conductor with your right hand such that your thumb points in the direction of the conventional current I, your fingers will curl around the conductor in the direction of the magnetic field lines. These magnetic field lines form concentric circles centered on the wire, and their direction is always perpendicular to the direction of the current. This principle is a fundamental application of the right-handed coordinate system in electromagnetism, consistent with the Biot-Savart law where the magnetic field direction is determined by the cross product of the current element and the position vector. If the current flows upward, the field lines wrap around the wire in a counter-clockwise direction when viewed from above.

23Science and Technology
A motorcycle has initial velocity of 5 m/s . After 3 seconds, the velocity is 7 m/s . The displacement of the motorcycle in 3 seconds is:
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Answer: (B) 18 m

Explanation

The displacement s of an object moving with constant acceleration can be calculated using the kinematic formula s = (u + v)/2 × t, where u is the initial velocity, v is the final velocity, and t is the time interval. This formula represents the average velocity multiplied by the total time.

Given the initial velocity u = 5 m/s, the final velocity v = 7 m/s, and the time t = 3 s, the calculation is:

s = (5 + 7)/2 × 3

s = 12/2 × 3

s = 6 × 3 = 18 m

Alternatively, one can first find the constant acceleration a using a = (v - u)/t = (7 - 5)/3 = 2/3 m/s². Substituting these values into the second equation of motion, s = ut + 1/2at², yields:

s = (5 × 3) + 1/2 × 2/3 × (3)²

s = 15 + 1/3 × 9

s = 15 + 3 = 18 m

24Science and Technology
The minimum power required to lift a mass of 50 kg up to a vertical distance of 8 m in 10 s is: (Take g = 10 m/s² )
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Answer: (A) 400 W

Explanation

Power is defined as the rate of doing work. In the case of lifting a mass vertically, the work done is equal to the change in gravitational potential energy of the object. The formula for power P is:

P = W/t = mgh/t

Where: m = 50 kg (mass) g = 10 m/s² (acceleration due to gravity) h = 8 m (vertical distance) t = 10 s (time)

Substituting the given values into the formula:

P = (50 × 10 × 8)/10

P = 4000/10

P = 400 W

Thus, the minimum power required to lift the mass is 400 Watts.

25Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Newton's law of gravitation follows from Newton's laws of motion.

Explanation

Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation is a fundamental, independent empirical law that describes the physical nature and mathematical magnitude of the gravitational force between two masses. It is not a logical consequence or a derivation of Newton's three laws of motion. While the laws of motion define the general relationship between force, mass, and acceleration through the formula F = ma, they do not specify the source or the specific inverse-square behavior of the gravitational force. Newton arrived at the law of gravitation by synthesizing Kepler's laws of planetary motion with his concepts of centripetal force and terrestrial gravity. Therefore, the law of gravitation is considered an independent law of nature rather than a principle that follows from the laws of motion.

26Science and Technology
A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is:
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Answer: (A) equal to its weight.

Explanation

According to the Principle of Floatation, a body floats in a liquid when the upward buoyant force exerted by the displaced liquid is equal to the downward gravitational force, or weight, of the body. For an object to maintain a state of equilibrium while floating, the net vertical force acting on it must be zero. This physical condition is represented by the equation F_B = W, where F_B is the buoyant force and W is the weight of the object. When the buoyant force is equal to the weight, the object remains stationary at the surface or partially submerged, preventing it from sinking to the bottom of the container.

27Science and Technology
A metallic sphere of mass 1kg and volume 2 × 10⁻⁴m³ is completely immersed in water. The buoyant force exerted by water on the sphere is: (Given: density of water = 1000kg / m³ , g = 10m / s² )
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Answer: (C) 2N

Explanation

The buoyant force (F_b) exerted on an object completely immersed in a fluid is given by Archimedes' Principle, which states that the force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is calculated using the formula F_b = Vρg, where V is the volume of the submerged object, ρ is the density of the fluid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Given: Volume V = 2 × 10⁻⁴ m³ Density of water ρ = 1000 kg/m³ Gravity g = 10 m/s²

Substituting these values into the formula: F_b = (2 × 10⁻⁴) × 1000 × 10 F_b = 2 × 10⁻⁴ × 10³ × 10¹ F_b = 2 × 10⁰ F_b = 2 N

28Science and Technology
A light bulb rated as 60W at 220V has a potential difference of 110V across its ends. The power dissipated in this light bulb is:
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Answer: (C) 15W

Explanation

The power dissipated by an electrical component is given by the formula P = V²/R, where V is the potential difference and R is the resistance. Assuming the resistance of the light bulb remains constant, the power dissipated is directly proportional to the square of the voltage (P ∝ V²).

Given the rated power P₁ = 60W at rated voltage V₁ = 220V, and the actual voltage V₂ = 110V, we can set up the ratio:

P₂/P₁ = (V₂/V₁)²

Substituting the values:

P₂ = 60 ⋅ (110/220)²

P₂ = 60 ⋅ (1/2)² = 60 ⋅ 1/4 = 15W

Since the voltage is reduced to half of its rated value, the power dissipated becomes one-fourth of the rated power.

29Science and Technology
Which one among the following is used in a simple microscope?
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Answer: (C) Converging lens

Explanation

A simple microscope, commonly known as a magnifying glass, consists of a single converging lens (convex lens) with a short focal length. When an object is placed within the focal length of the lens—between the optical center and the principal focus—the lens produces a virtual, erect, and magnified image of the object. The magnifying power M of a simple microscope is defined by the relation M = 1 + D/f, where D is the least distance of distinct vision (typically 25 cm) and f is the focal length of the lens. Because the focal length of a converging lens is positive and can be made quite small, it allows for the significant enlargement of small objects for clear observation.

30Science and Technology
The force with which the Earth attracts an object is called:
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Answer: (A) Weight of the object

Explanation

Weight is the force of gravitational attraction exerted by the Earth on an object. This relationship is defined by the formula:

W = m ⋅ g

In this equation, W represents the weight of the object, m is the mass of the object, and g is the acceleration due to gravity, which is approximately 9.8 m/s² near the Earth's surface. Since weight is a measure of force, it is a vector quantity directed toward the center of the Earth and is measured in Newtons (N) in the International System of Units. The magnitude of this force is directly proportional to both the mass of the object and the strength of the local gravitational field.

31Art and Culture
Which of the following is one of the 'three gems' (tiratna) of Jainism?
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Answer: (B) Samyag-darshana

Explanation

Samyag-darshana, often translated as Right Faith or Right Perception, is the first of the Three Gems (Triratna) of Jainism. Along with Samyag-jnana (Right Knowledge) and Samyag-charitra (Right Conduct), it forms the fundamental path toward liberation (Moksha) from the cycle of birth and death. Samyag-darshana refers to the clear and correct perception of the true nature of reality and the soul, characterized by an unshakable belief in the teachings of the Tirthankaras and the avoidance of superstitious beliefs or delusions. It is considered the foundation of the Jain spiritual path, as it provides the necessary conviction for the pursuit of knowledge and the practice of ethical conduct.

32History
Which one among the following motifs does not appear on Harappan seals?
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Answer: (C) Lion

Explanation

The lion is notably absent from the extensive collection of Harappan seals recovered from various Indus Valley sites. While Harappan craftsmen depicted a wide array of wildlife including the humped bull, elephant, and crocodile, the lion does not appear in their iconographic record. The tiger was the primary large feline represented in Harappan art and mythology. The lion only became a prominent symbol in Indian art and statecraft much later, gaining significant importance during the Mauryan period with the pillars of Ashoka.

33History
Which one among the following is the earliest text?
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Answer: (C) Ashtadhyayi

Explanation

The Ashtadhyayi is a monumental work on Sanskrit grammar composed by the scholar Panini, generally dated to the 5th or 4th century BCE. It consists of approximately 4,000 sutras that systematically codify the rules of phonetics, morphology, and syntax, marking the formal transition from Vedic Sanskrit to Classical Sanskrit. As a product of the late Vedic or early post-Vedic period, it stands as the earliest scientific and linguistic treatise among the choices provided, reflecting an advanced stage of analytical thought that preceded the final compilation of major Indian legal, medical, and artistic texts.

34History
Which one of the following statements about Ashoka's inscriptions is correct?
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Answer: (D) Kalsi in Uttarakhand is a site of Major Rock Edicts.

Explanation

Kalsi, situated in the Dehradun district of Uttarakhand near the confluence of the Yamuna and Tons rivers, is a significant archaeological site containing a complete set of Ashoka's fourteen Major Rock Edicts. This site is unique as it represents the only location in North India where these major edicts have been discovered inscribed on a single massive quartz rock. The inscriptions are composed in the Prakrit language and written in the Brahmi script, detailing Ashoka's ethical code of Dhamma, his views on non-violence, and his administrative policies aimed at the welfare of his subjects.

35History
Which one of the following statements about the Ajivikas is not correct?
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Answer: (D) They formed an alliance with Jainas against Buddhists.

Explanation

Historical evidence indicates that the Ajivikas, Jainas, and Buddhists were competing heterodox sects during the 6th century BCE, often vying for the same pool of royal patronage and disciples. Although Makkhali Gosala and Mahavira initially spent six years together as wandering ascetics, they eventually parted ways after a severe fallout over their conflicting doctrines, particularly regarding the nature of fate and human effort. Jaina canonical texts, such as the Bhagavati Sutra and the Uvasagadasao, depict the relationship between the Ajivikas and Jainas as one of deep-seated animosity and intellectual conflict rather than collaboration. There is no historical record of a strategic alliance formed between these two groups to oppose the Buddhists; instead, all three traditions remained independent and mutually critical rivals throughout their existence.

36History
Consider the following statements about the use of stirrup in India: 1. The Konarak horse sculpture (c. 1250) shows a ring-stirrup. 2. A broad, probably wooden, stirrup appears in Khajuraho sculptures (probably 10th century). 3. The iron-stirrup was used in the Delhi Sultans' armies from the thirteenth century onwards. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 3

Explanation

The evolution of the stirrup in India is well-documented through sculpture and historical texts. The Konarak Sun Temple horse sculptures, dating to the mid-thirteenth century, depict the use of ring-stirrups, which allowed riders better control and stability. Earlier evidence from the Khajuraho temples, dating roughly to the tenth and eleventh centuries, shows riders using broad stirrups, which historians believe were likely constructed from wood or leather. Finally, the introduction and widespread use of the iron-stirrup in North India is a defining feature of the military technology of the Delhi Sultanate. From the thirteenth century onwards, the Sultanate armies utilized iron stirrups alongside the horseshoe, which significantly enhanced the effectiveness of their heavy cavalry and mounted archers by providing the necessary leverage for complex maneuvers and shock combat. Since all three historical observations are accurate, there are three correct statements.

37History
In the Rig Veda Samhita, use of the terms ishukrit and isukara referred to the maker of:
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Answer: (A) Arrows

Explanation

The terms ishukrit and isukara are etymologically derived from the Sanskrit root ishu, meaning arrow, combined with the suffixes -krit or -kara, which signify a maker or artisan. In the context of the Rig Veda and other early Vedic Samhitas, these terms designate the specialized craftsmen responsible for the production of arrows. Archery was the dominant form of warfare during this period, necessitating a distinct class of artisans who could fashion the wooden or reed shafts, attach the projectile points—often made of metal such as ayas—and fix the feathers to ensure stability in flight. These craftsmen were essential components of the Vedic socio-economic and military structure, providing the necessary equipment for the warrior class.

38History
Which one of the following does not refer to the bow (and arrow) as a weapon of war in ancient India?
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Answer: (B) Kunta

Explanation

The term Kunta refers specifically to a spear, lance, or javelin in ancient Indian military terminology and Sanskrit literature. It is classified as a pole weapon used for thrusting or throwing in close and medium-range combat. In the context of the Dhanurveda (the science of archery and warfare), weaponry is categorized into various classes, and while the other terms mentioned specifically designate bows or types of bows, the Kunta belongs to the category of handheld or projectile piercing weapons.

39History
What is the military-device referred to by the term manjaniq?
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Answer: (D) A device for throwing stones (mangonel)

Explanation

The manjaniq was a heavy siege engine used in medieval warfare, specifically a type of mangonel or catapult designed to hurl large stones, fireballs, or other projectiles at the walls of a besieged fort. Derived from the Greek word manganon, it was extensively used by Arab and Persian armies and was introduced to the Indian subcontinent during the early Islamic conquests. A notable historical instance of its use was during Muhammad bin Qasim's siege of Debal in 712 CE, where a massive manjaniq named al-Urus played a decisive role. These devices operated on the principle of a lever and a sling, utilizing either human traction or a counterweight to generate the force required to breach thick stone fortifications.

40History
In medieval India, the process of indigo extraction underwent great improvement as a result of the:
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Answer: (C) use of gypsum and lime mortars in making the inner surfaces of indigo vats water-proof.

Explanation

The cultivation and processing of indigo were significant industries in medieval India, particularly during the Sultanate and Mughal periods. A major technological advancement in the extraction process was the construction of specialized masonry vats. To ensure that these vats were durable and effectively held the liquid during the fermentation and oxidation stages without seepage, builders utilized lime and gypsum mortars. This application of lime-plastering made the inner surfaces of the vats waterproof and resistant to chemical reactions, which was essential for maintaining the purity and concentration of the indigo dye. This masonry technique, introduced and refined during the medieval period, allowed for larger-scale production and more consistent quality compared to earlier methods.

41History
Which one of the following is listed in the Ain-i Akbari as one of the 'Indian sciences' prescribed by Akbar for scholars to learn at school?
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Answer: (B) Vyakarana

Explanation

Abul Fazl, in the Ain-i Akbari, details the educational reforms and the specific curriculum prescribed by Emperor Akbar to promote a more practical and secular approach to learning. Under the regulations for schools, Akbar directed that every boy should study subjects that were relevant to the requirements of the time. For those students pursuing the study of Sanskrit and Indian sciences, the text explicitly lists Vyakarana, which is traditional Sanskrit grammar, as a primary subject to be mastered alongside Nyaya (logic), Vedanta (philosophy), and Patanjala (yoga). These subjects were included to ensure that scholars gained a comprehensive understanding of Indian linguistic and philosophical traditions as part of a broader, more inclusive educational framework.

42History
Consider the following statements about the arms used by Europeans in warfare in India : 1. The flint-lock muskets could work even in wet weather. 2. The addition of bayonet made musket a more effective and dangerous weapon in close combat. 3. The wrought-iron cannon barrels were easy to move and manoeuvre. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

The addition of the socket bayonet (Statement 2) was a critical advancement in European infantry warfare, as it allowed the musket to function simultaneously as a firearm and a spear. This dual-purpose capability eliminated the need for separate pikemen and enabled infantry to defend against cavalry charges while maintaining the ability to engage in lethal close-range combat.

In contrast, Statement 1 is incorrect because flint-lock muskets were notoriously unreliable in wet weather; the gunpowder in the external priming pan had to remain dry to ignite, and rain or high humidity would frequently lead to misfires. Statement 3 is also incorrect as wrought-iron cannon barrels were generally cumbersome and heavy. The European tactical advantage in India was primarily derived from the use of lighter, more mobile field artillery, often made of bronze or refined cast iron, mounted on advanced carriages that allowed for rapid movement and positioning on the battlefield.

43History
Which one of the following statements about the grammarian Katyayana is correct?
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Answer: (C) He belonged to a period between Panini and Patanjali.

Explanation

Katyayana, also known as Vararuchi, was a renowned Sanskrit grammarian who wrote the Varttikas, which are explanatory notes and critical additions to Panini's Ashtadhyayi. Chronologically, he lived after Panini (circa 4th century BCE) but before Patanjali (circa 2nd century BCE). His work bridges the gap between the original rules of Panini and the comprehensive commentary of Patanjali's Mahabhashya. Katyayana's primary contribution was to refine Panini's grammar by accounting for linguistic changes and nuances that had developed in the Sanskrit language in the centuries following Panini's time. This historical sequence—Panini, followed by Katyayana, followed by Patanjali—is a well-established tradition in the study of the Vyakarana (grammar) school of ancient India.

44Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about Rig Vedic goddesses is correct?
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Answer: (B) Sinivali bestows children.

Explanation

Sinivali is a lunar goddess mentioned in the Rig Veda, specifically in the second Mandala (RV 2.32). She is characterized as a deity associated with fertility, the new moon, and the domestic sphere. The Vedic hymns describe her as having broad hips and beautiful arms, invoking her to bless the worshippers with offspring and ensure easy childbirth. She is frequently petitioned alongside other female deities like Raka and Gungu to provide heroic sons and maintain the continuity of the family lineage. Her primary function in the Vedic pantheon is the bestowal of children and the supervision of the generative processes of nature.

45Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about the Buddhist Goddess Hariti is correct?
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Answer: (A) She was converted by the Buddha from a blood-thirsty yakshi to a benevolent maternal figure.

Explanation

Hariti was originally a cannibalistic yakshi in Rajagriha who abducted and devoured the children of others to feed her own five hundred offspring. According to Buddhist tradition, the Buddha intervened by hiding her youngest and most beloved son, Priyankara, under his begging bowl. Her intense grief during the search for her child led her to realize the immense suffering she had caused to other parents. Upon her conversion to Buddhism, she became a benevolent protector of children and a symbol of fertility. In Buddhist art and iconography, she is typically depicted as a maternal figure surrounded by children, often holding a pomegranate, a fruit that symbolizes fecundity and served as a substitute for the human flesh she previously consumed.

46History
Consider the following statements about the literary language Apabhramsa: 1. It appeared in recognizable forms by the sixth century. 2. It developed out of mixtures of regional vernaculars with the Prakrits and Sanskrit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Apabhramsa emerged as a significant literary language during the transition from the Middle Indo-Aryan to the Modern Indo-Aryan stage. It began to appear in recognizable literary forms by the sixth century CE, a fact supported by the works of early rhetoricians like Bhamaha who categorized it alongside Sanskrit and Prakrit. Linguistically, Apabhramsa developed through the hybridization of standardized Prakrits with regional vernaculars and local dialects (Deshabhashas). While it retained a structural relationship with Sanskrit, it simplified many grammatical and phonetic elements, effectively serving as a bridge between the classical Prakrits and the modern Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Gujarati, and Bengali.

47History
Who composed Zainavilas, a history of the rulers of Kashmir, in the time of Zainul Abidin?
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Answer: (A) Bhattavatara

Explanation

Bhattavatara was a prominent scholar and court poet during the reign of Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin, the 15th-century ruler of Kashmir known for his enlightened and tolerant governance. Bhattavatara composed the Zainavilas, a significant historical and biographical work written in Sanskrit that details the life, achievements, and administration of the Sultan. The text serves as a primary source for understanding the cultural and political history of medieval Kashmir, highlighting the Sultan's efforts in promoting literature, music, and communal harmony. It is part of a rich tradition of Sanskrit historiography in Kashmir that continued the legacy of Kalhana's Rajatarangini under royal patronage.

48History
In which one of the following works has Amir Khusrau praised the climate of India, its languages, notably Sanskrit, its arts and music and even its animals?
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Answer: (D) Nuh Sipihr

Explanation

Nuh Sipihr, or the Nine Skies, was composed by Amir Khusrau in 1318 CE during the reign of Sultan Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khalji. In the third section of this poetic work, Khusrau provides a vivid and patriotic description of India, asserting its superiority over other countries. He praises the land as a paradise on earth, detailing its pleasant climate and the intelligence of its inhabitants. Khusrau specifically highlights the richness of Indian languages, giving special mention to Sanskrit for its classical beauty and grammatical structure, which he compared favorably to Arabic. Furthermore, he celebrates India's contributions to music, its diverse arts, and the unique characteristics of its animals, such as the peacock and the parrot, which he claimed could speak like humans.

49Art and Culture
Which one of the following works was written in early eighteenth century by the Bengali poet Rameshwar Bhattacharya?
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Answer: (B) Shivsankirtan

Explanation

Rameshwar Bhattacharya, a notable poet of the 18th-century Bengal, authored the Shivsankirtan (also known as Sivayan or Rameshwarer Sivayan) around 1710–1711. This work is a significant contribution to the Mangal-kavya tradition, specifically the genre dedicated to the deity Shiva. Rameshwar's composition is distinct for its realistic portrayal of Shiva as a common Bengali farmer struggling with poverty, hunger, and domestic quarrels, rather than an abstract ascetic deity. Written under the patronage of Raja Ramchandra of Karnagarh in Midnapore, the text reflects the socio-economic conditions and agrarian life of rural Bengal during the early eighteenth century.

50History
Which one of the following present day territories was outside the limits of Ashoka's empire?
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Answer: (A) Brahmaputra valley, Assam

Explanation

The Brahmaputra valley, encompassing present-day Assam (anciently known as Pragjyotisha or Kamarupa), remained outside the territorial limits of the Mauryan Empire under Ashoka. Although Ashoka's empire was vast, covering almost the entire Indian subcontinent, archaeological evidence and the distribution of his edicts indicate that his direct administrative control did not extend into the northeastern regions beyond North Bengal. While North Bengal was part of the empire as evidenced by the Mahasthan inscription, no Ashokan pillars or inscriptions have been found in the Brahmaputra valley. Historical records suggest that this region maintained an independent or autonomous status during the Mauryan period, separated from the core imperial territories by dense forests and geographical barriers.

51Science and Technology
Isobars of elements have same:
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Answer: (C) Mass numbers.

Explanation

Isobars are defined as atoms of different chemical elements that share the same mass number (A). The mass number represents the total number of nucleons within the atomic nucleus, calculated as the sum of protons (Z) and neutrons (N) using the formula A = Z + N. While isobars have different atomic numbers and different numbers of neutrons, the specific combination of these particles results in an identical total mass value. For example, ⁴⁰₁₈Ar, ⁴⁰₁₉K, and ⁴⁰₂₀Ca are considered isobars because each possesses a mass number of 40.

52Science and Technology
Which one of the following could not be explained by Rutherford's nuclear model?
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Answer: (A) Stability of the atom

Explanation

Rutherford's nuclear model describes electrons moving in circular orbits around a central nucleus. According to classical electromagnetic theory, any charged particle undergoing acceleration, such as an electron in circular motion, must continuously radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. As the electron loses energy, its orbital radius would decrease, causing it to spiral inward and eventually collapse into the nucleus. This predicted instability contradicts the observed fact that atoms are stable. Rutherford's model lacked a mechanism to explain why electrons do not lose energy and crash into the nucleus, a problem later addressed by Niels Bohr using quantum postulates.

53Science and Technology
If atomic number of an element is 11, the correct name, symbol and valency are:
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Answer: (D) Sodium, Na, 1

Explanation

The element with atomic number 11 is Sodium, denoted by the chemical symbol Na. According to the Bohr-Bury scheme for electronic configuration, the 11 electrons are distributed across energy levels as 2, 8, 1. The first shell (K) holds 2 electrons, the second shell (L) holds 8, and the third shell (M) holds the remaining 1 electron. Valency is defined as the combining capacity of an element, which is determined by the number of electrons in the outermost shell. To achieve a stable noble gas configuration (the octet state of Neon), Sodium readily loses its single valence electron. Consequently, its valency is 1.

54Science and Technology
Which one of the following gas is used in making soft drinks?
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Answer: (D) CO₂

Explanation

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the gas utilized in the carbonation of soft drinks. When CO₂ is dissolved in water under high pressure, it reacts to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which gives the beverage its characteristic acidic tang and effervescent fizz. This gas is ideal for the beverage industry because it is non-toxic, highly soluble in liquids, and acts as a mild preservative by creating an environment that inhibits the growth of many spoilage-causing bacteria. The bubbles released when the pressure is reduced upon opening the container are the CO₂ gas escaping from the solution.

55Science and Technology
Which one of the following is considered as a compound?
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Answer: (D) Calcium carbonate

Explanation

Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) is a chemical compound because it consists of three distinct elements—calcium, carbon, and oxygen—chemically bonded together in a fixed, definite proportion by mass. Unlike elements which contain only one type of atom, or mixtures which are physical blends of substances in varying ratios, a compound possesses unique chemical and physical properties that differ from its constituent elements. Calcium carbonate cannot be separated into its components by physical methods such as filtration or evaporation; it can only be broken down through chemical reactions, such as thermal decomposition, which yields calcium oxide (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂).

56Science and Technology
Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment on gold foil is responsible for the discovery of:
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Answer: (D) Atomic nucleus

Explanation

In Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment, high-energy helium nuclei were directed at a thin sheet of gold foil. The observation that most particles passed through the foil while a small fraction were deflected at large angles, with some even bouncing back, led to the conclusion that the atom's positive charge and most of its mass are concentrated in a tiny, dense central region. This dense center is the atomic nucleus, and its discovery shifted the scientific understanding of atomic structure from a uniform distribution of mass to a nuclear model where electrons orbit a central, massive core.

57Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a metalloid?
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Answer: (A) Germanium

Explanation

Germanium (Ge) is a chemical element with atomic number 32 that is classified as a metalloid because its properties are intermediate between those of metals and non-metals. Located in Group 14 of the periodic table, it possesses a metallic luster and a crystalline structure similar to diamond, yet it is chemically more similar to its neighbor silicon. A defining characteristic of germanium as a metalloid is its behavior as a semiconductor; unlike metals, its electrical conductivity increases with temperature. This unique electronic structure allows it to be used extensively in the production of transistors, fiber optics, and infrared optics.

58Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not explained by the Dalton's atomic theory?
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Answer: (C) Presence of different kind of sub-atomic particles in an atom

Explanation

Dalton's atomic theory was founded on the postulate that atoms are the most basic, indivisible units of matter that cannot be subdivided into smaller components. By defining the atom as a solid, structureless particle, the theory fundamentally excluded the possibility of internal complexity. The existence of sub-atomic particles, such as electrons, protons, and neutrons, was discovered nearly a century later through experimental physics that probed the internal architecture of the atom. Since Dalton's model treats the atom itself as the ultimate and final level of division for any chemical element, it provides no theoretical framework to account for the presence of constituent particles within the atom.

59Science and Technology
Which one of the following contains all Lewis acids?
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Answer: (A) AlCl3, Co3+, BF3

Explanation

A Lewis acid is defined as any chemical species that acts as an electron-pair acceptor. This property typically arises from having an incomplete octet or vacant orbitals that can accommodate incoming electron pairs. In the given set, AlCl₃ and BF₃ are classic examples of Lewis acids because the central atoms, aluminum and boron, possess only six electrons in their valence shells. This electron deficiency makes them highly reactive toward electron-pair donors. Similarly, Co³⁺ is a transition metal cation that serves as a Lewis acid due to its positive charge and the presence of vacant d-orbitals, which allow it to accept electron pairs from ligands to form coordination complexes. All three species satisfy the criteria for being electron-pair acceptors.

60Science and Technology
Number of electrons present in the species H2+, He, H2 and O2+ respectively are:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 2, 15

Explanation

The number of electrons in a chemical species is determined by the sum of the atomic numbers of its constituent atoms adjusted for the ionic charge. For the hydrogen molecular ion H₂⁺, the neutral H₂ molecule has 2 electrons (1 × 2), and the positive charge indicates the loss of one electron, resulting in 2 - 1 = 1 electron. Helium (He) is a neutral atom with an atomic number of 2, meaning it contains 2 electrons. The hydrogen molecule (H₂) is neutral and consists of two hydrogen atoms, providing a total of 1 + 1 = 2 electrons. For the dioxygen cation O₂⁺, the neutral O₂ molecule contains 16 electrons (8 × 2), and the +1 charge signifies the removal of one electron, leaving 16 - 1 = 15 electrons.

61Economy
Consider the following statements with respect to performance of the merchandise export of India in FY-2024: 1. Share of capital goods such as machinery, equipment and other durable goods decreased substantially. 2. Share of consumer goods and intermediate goods increased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, India's merchandise export basket has witnessed a structural shift towards high-value added products. In FY24, the share of capital goods in India's total merchandise exports increased to 15.6 percent from 14.6 percent in FY23, primarily driven by a significant surge in electronics and engineering exports. Similarly, the share of consumer goods rose to 27.6 percent in FY24 from 26.6 percent in the previous fiscal year. Conversely, the share of intermediate goods, which include items like chemicals and certain petroleum products, decreased from 49.0 percent in FY23 to 46.8 percent in FY24. Since the share of capital goods increased rather than decreased, and the share of intermediate goods declined rather than increased, both statements provided are factually incorrect.

62Economy
Which one among the following statements about Project Nexus is correct?
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Answer: (B) It is an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments.

Explanation

Project Nexus is a multilateral initiative spearheaded by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub to connect various domestic instant payment systems (IPS) globally. It aims to enable seamless, instant cross-border retail payments by providing a standardized technical platform and a common set of protocols that link individual national payment infrastructures, such as India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) or Singapore's PayNow. By transitioning from bilateral arrangements to a multilateral network, Project Nexus addresses the traditional challenges of high costs, low speed, and limited transparency in international money transfers. India joined the project as a founding member of the Nexus platform in 2024, collaborating with the central banks of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand to facilitate real-time cross-border retail transactions and remittances.

63Economy
While calculating the consumer price index, 'housing' as an item is classified as:
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Answer: (D) Core service

Explanation

Housing is classified as a service within the Consumer Price Index (CPI) framework because it represents the continuous flow of utility derived from occupying a dwelling. In economic terms, the CPI measures the cost of living, and the housing component specifically tracks the price of shelter services. This includes actual rents paid by tenants and the imputed rent for owner-occupied housing, which reflects the market value of the service the owner receives by living in their own home. Unlike physical commodities that are consumed or used up, housing provides an ongoing service over time, making it a primary constituent of the core services category in inflation accounting.

64Economy
Which one among the following established the first Global Capability Centre in India ?
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Answer: (C) Texas Instruments

Explanation

Texas Instruments is recognized as the pioneer of the Global Capability Centre (GCC) model in India. In 1985, the company established its research and development facility in Bengaluru, becoming the first multinational corporation to set up a high-end technology design and software development center in the country. This move was revolutionary at the time, as it shifted the perception of India from a location for low-end back-office tasks to a hub for sophisticated engineering and innovation. To facilitate its operations, Texas Instruments famously installed its own satellite dish to ensure data connectivity, overcoming the significant infrastructure limitations of the mid-1980s and laying the foundation for the growth of the technology ecosystem in India.

65Economy
Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Global Value Chains (GVC) : International Product Sharing 2. World Integrated Trade Solutions : Database on GVC related Trade 3. Current Account Deficit (CAD) : Foreign Direct Investment
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

The third pair is not correctly matched because the Current Account Deficit and Foreign Direct Investment are recorded in distinct sections of a country's Balance of Payments (BoP). The Current Account tracks the trade of goods and services, net primary income such as interest and dividends, and net secondary income like remittances. A Current Account Deficit occurs when the total value of these imports and outgoing payments exceeds the total value of exports and receipts. Conversely, Foreign Direct Investment is a primary component of the Capital Account (or Financial Account), representing long-term capital flows where an investor acquires a lasting interest in an enterprise in another economy. While FDI is often a preferred method to finance a Current Account Deficit, they are accounting entities belonging to different categories.

Global Value Chains represent the fragmentation of production processes across various countries, a phenomenon often termed international product sharing. The World Integrated Trade Solutions (WITS) is a software platform developed by the World Bank in collaboration with UNCTAD and WTO that provides access to international merchandise trade, tariff, and non-tariff measures data, including specific databases and indicators related to Global Value Chains.

66Economy
How can currency depreciation stimulate an increase in net exports ? 1. By reducing export costs 2. By reducing import prices
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Currency depreciation refers to the decrease in the value of a domestic currency in terms of foreign currencies. When the domestic currency depreciates, foreigners can purchase more of the domestic currency for every unit of their own currency. This makes domestic products cheaper for foreign buyers in their own currency terms, effectively reducing the cost of purchasing those exports. This increase in price competitiveness boosts foreign demand for domestic goods, resulting in higher export volumes. As a result, the value of exports increases, which contributes to an improvement in the net export balance of the country.

67Economy
Core inflation is :
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Answer: (C) CPI headline inflation minus food and energy items

Explanation

Core inflation is a measure of price rise that represents the long-term trend in the price level by excluding certain components that exhibit high price volatility. In practice, it is derived by taking the headline inflation—typically measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI)—and subtracting the indices for food and energy (fuel and power). These two categories are excluded because their prices are frequently influenced by transitory factors such as seasonal weather patterns, global crude oil price fluctuations, and supply-side disruptions, which do not necessarily reflect the underlying demand-supply balance in the broader economy. Consequently, core inflation provides a more stable and accurate gauge of the persistent inflationary pressures that monetary policy can effectively influence, allowing central banks to make better-informed decisions regarding interest rate adjustments.

68Polity and Governance
In alignment with the guidelines of NEP 2020, 'Poshan bhi Padhai bhi' (PBPB) was launched under which one among the following programmes ?
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Answer: (C) Early Childhood Care and Education

Explanation

The Poshan bhi Padhai bhi (PBPB) initiative was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to implement the Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) component of the National Education Policy 2020. This program targets children in the age group of 3 to 6 years through the country's network of Anganwadi centers. It aims to provide at least two hours of high-quality daily preschool instruction rooted in the National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage. By prioritizing foundational literacy and numeracy alongside nutritional goals, PBPB ensures that the early years of a child's development are supported by a play-based, developmentally appropriate learning environment, transforming Anganwadis into centers that cater to both the physical and cognitive needs of young children.

69Economy
Which one among the following defines flexi workers in India ?
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Answer: (A) Formal contract staff employed through organised contract

Explanation

Flexi workers, also known as flexible staff, are individuals employed through a tripartite arrangement involving a worker, a staffing agency, and a client company. In the Indian labor market context, flexi-staffing refers to formal contract employment where workers are on the payroll of an organized staffing firm but perform work for a client organization. These workers are distinguished by having formal employment contracts and access to social security benefits such as the Employees Provident Fund (EPF) and Employee State Insurance (ESI), despite not being permanent employees of the company where they provide their services. This model provides administrative flexibility to companies while bringing the workforce into the organized sector through registered agencies.

70Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is an integrated teacher training programme ?
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Answer: (B) NISHTHA

Explanation

NISHTHA (National Initiative for School Heads' and Teachers' Holistic Advancement) is a national mission launched by the Ministry of Education to improve learning outcomes at the elementary level through an integrated teacher training program. It is considered the world's largest capacity-building initiative of its kind, aimed at training approximately 4.2 million teachers and school heads across the country. The program focuses on building competencies in areas such as learner-centered pedagogy, school safety and security, personal-social qualities, and the use of ICT in teaching and learning. By providing a standardized training module, NISHTHA ensures that educators are well-equipped to foster a conducive and innovative learning environment in schools.

71Science and Technology
Which instrument is used to measure the blood pressure manually ?
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Answer: (A) Sphygmomanometer

Explanation

A sphygmomanometer is the standard medical instrument used for the manual measurement of arterial blood pressure. The device consists of an inflatable rubber cuff that is wrapped around the upper arm, a measuring unit such as a mercury manometer or an aneroid gauge, and a bulb to inflate the cuff. When performing the measurement, the cuff is inflated to temporarily restrict blood flow in the brachial artery. As the pressure is slowly released, a health professional uses a stethoscope to listen for Korotkoff sounds, which indicate the systolic pressure when they first appear and the diastolic pressure when they disappear. This manual technique is often referred to as the auscultatory method.

72Science and Technology
Myopia is also known as :
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Answer: (B) Near-sightedness

Explanation

Myopia is a common refractive error of the eye where close objects appear clear, but distant objects appear blurred. This condition occurs when the physical length of the eyeball is too long or the cornea is too curved, causing incoming light rays to focus at a point in front of the retina rather than directly on its surface. Because the individual retains the ability to see things clearly at short distances, the condition is medically and commonly referred to as near-sightedness.

73Science and Technology
Why does the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum look 'rough' under a microscope ?
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Answer: (A) Due to the presence of ribosomes on its surface

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The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is a network of interconnected flattened sacs called cisternae. Its characteristic granular or rough appearance under an electron microscope is due to the presence of numerous ribosomes attached to its cytosolic surface. These ribosomes are small, dense organelles responsible for the synthesis of proteins, particularly those destined for secretion, membrane insertion, or lysosomal transport. The physical attachment of these protein-synthesizing complexes creates a bumpy texture on the membrane surface, which is the primary morphological feature distinguishing it from the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.

74Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a plant hormone ?
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Answer: (D) Thyroxine

Explanation

Thyroxine is a primary hormone produced and secreted by the thyroid gland in the endocrine systems of vertebrates, including humans. It is an iodine-containing hormone derived from the amino acid tyrosine and is responsible for regulating the basal metabolic rate, heart and digestive functions, muscle control, and brain development. Because its synthesis and physiological functions are restricted to animal biology, it does not act as a phytohormone or participate in any plant growth and developmental processes.

75Science and Technology
The normal systolic pressure in human beings is :
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Answer: (C) 120 mm of Hg

Explanation

Systolic blood pressure represents the maximum pressure exerted by the blood against the arterial walls when the heart's left ventricle contracts to pump blood into the systemic circulation. In a healthy adult, the standard medical benchmark for normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The first and higher value in this ratio, 120 mm Hg, specifically denotes the systolic pressure. Maintaining this pressure level is critical for ensuring that oxygenated blood is efficiently distributed to the brain and other vital organs without causing long-term damage to the vascular system. Values significantly higher or lower than this standard indicate potential hypertensive or hypotensive conditions.

76Science and Technology
Sponges belong to which one among the following phylum ?
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Answer: (A) Porifera

Explanation

Sponges are primitive multicellular animals belonging to the phylum Porifera. The name Porifera is derived from the Latin words porus meaning pore and ferre meaning to bear, which describes the characteristic tiny pores known as ostia that cover their body surface. These organisms exhibit a cellular level of organization where cells are loosely arranged and do not form true tissues or organs. A defining feature of sponges is their water transport or canal system, where water enters through the ostia into a central cavity called the spongocoel and exits through a larger opening called the osculum. This system is lined with specialized flagellated cells called choanocytes or collar cells that facilitate water circulation and nutrient capture.

77Science and Technology
Lactose is made up of :
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Answer: (D) Glucose and Galactose

Explanation

Lactose is a disaccharide carbohydrate commonly referred to as milk sugar because it is found almost exclusively in the milk of mammals. It is formed through a condensation reaction that joins one molecule of glucose and one molecule of galactose. These two monosaccharides are linked together by a β(1→4) glycosidic bond, which connects the C₁ atom of galactose to the C₄ atom of glucose. During the process of digestion in humans, the enzyme lactase, produced in the small intestine, hydrolyzes this bond to release the individual glucose and galactose units for absorption into the bloodstream.

78Science and Technology
The enzymes which catalyze the same reaction but have different amino acid compositions are commonly referred as :
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Answer: (A) Isoenzymes

Explanation

Isoenzymes, also known as isozymes, are multiple forms of an enzyme that catalyze the exact same chemical reaction but possess distinct amino acid sequences. These structural variations often result from different genes encoding the enzyme or different alleles at the same locus. Because of their differing primary structures, isoenzymes typically exhibit different kinetic properties, such as substrate affinity (Kₘ) and maximum velocity (Vₘₐₓ), as well as different regulatory properties and physical characteristics like electrophoretic mobility. This allows an organism to fine-tune its metabolic processes according to the specific needs of different tissues or developmental stages. For example, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) exists in five different isoenzymic forms across various tissues like the heart and skeletal muscles, each adapted to the specific metabolic environment of that organ.

79Science and Technology
How many Carbon atoms are present in a Pyruvate molecule ?
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

Pyruvate, the conjugate base of pyruvic acid, has the chemical formula C₃H₃O₃⁻. It is a key intermediate in several metabolic pathways, most notably as the end product of glycolysis. During glycolysis, a single six-carbon glucose molecule (C₆H₁₂O₆) is broken down through a series of enzymatic reactions into two molecules of pyruvate. The structural formula for pyruvate is CH₃COCOO⁻, which consists of a methyl group (CH₃), a carbonyl group (C=O), and a carboxylate group (COO⁻). Summing these components confirms that each molecule contains exactly three carbon atoms. This three-carbon structure is essential for its subsequent conversion into the two-carbon Acetyl-CoA during the link reaction in the mitochondrial matrix.

80Science and Technology
The human eye has a point that lacks photoreceptor cells. This is identified as :
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Answer: (B) Blind spot

Explanation

The blind spot, also known as the optic disc, is the specific region on the retina where the axons of the retinal ganglion cells converge to form the optic nerve as it exits the eyeball. This anatomical site lacks any photoreceptor cells, meaning it contains neither rods nor cones. Because these cells are necessary for transducing light into electrochemical signals, any light that falls on this portion of the retina cannot be detected or processed by the visual system. This results in a small gap in the visual field of each eye, which the brain typically fills in using information from the surrounding retinal area and the other eye.

81Polity and Governance
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts introduced GST (Goods and Services Tax) in course of inter-state trade or commerce?
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Answer: (A) Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act

Explanation

The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, introduced the comprehensive Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India to replace various indirect taxes. This amendment specifically addressed the taxation of inter-state trade or commerce by inserting Article 269A into the Constitution. Under Article 269A, GST on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce is levied and collected by the Government of India and subsequently apportioned between the Union and the States based on the recommendations of the GST Council. The Act also introduced Article 246A, which provides the Parliament and the State Legislatures with the power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax, and Article 279A, which mandated the creation of the GST Council to oversee the implementation and administration of the tax system across the country.

82Polity and Governance
Which one among the following UN agencies has received the Nobel Prize more than once?
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Answer: (D) UNHCR

Explanation

The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is the only agency listed that has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on two separate occasions. It first received the prize in 1954 for its tireless efforts in providing protection and assistance to refugees, particularly those displaced in Europe following World War II. The agency was honored a second time in 1981 for its continued global work in aiding refugees and addressing the political and legal challenges faced by displaced populations worldwide. While other UN bodies have received the Nobel Peace Prize, UNHCR is distinguished by these multiple recognitions for its humanitarian service.

83Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): 1. Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President of India. 2. The Committee to recommend the appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner has the Minister of Home Affairs as one of the members. 3. In certain circumstances the Leader of the single largest group in opposition in Lok Sabha can be on the Committee to recommend the appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 3

Explanation

All three statements are correct under the provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal. This appointment is made based on the recommendation of a high-level selection committee.

The selection committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Minister of Home Affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha as members. Furthermore, the Act specifies that when no such Leader of the Opposition is recognized in the Lok Sabha, the leader of the single largest group in the opposition in the Lok Sabha shall be substituted as a member of the committee to ensure the selection process remains representative and bipartisan.

84Polity and Governance
International Day of Democracy, as decided vide a UN General Assembly resolution, is observed on:
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Answer: (C) 15 September

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly adopted resolution 62/7 in November 2007 to designate 15 September as the International Day of Democracy. This specific date was selected to commemorate the adoption of the Universal Declaration on Democracy by the Inter-Parliamentary Union in September 1997. The observance aims to promote and uphold the principles of democracy, providing an annual opportunity to review the state of democratic governance and human rights across the globe.

85Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the NITI Aayog is/are correct? 1. Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of its Governing Council. 2. Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh is a member of its Governing Council. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is the premier body responsible for fostering cooperative federalism and evolving a shared vision of national development. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, who provides leadership and presides over its deliberations. The composition of the Governing Council includes the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with Legislatures (such as Delhi and Puducherry), alongside the Lieutenant Governors of all other Union Territories. Since Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislative assembly, its Lieutenant Governor is a constituent member of the Governing Council, ensuring the representation of the region's specific developmental needs in the national planning process.

86Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about National Commission for Women are correct? 1. It is a statutory body. 2. It has the mandate to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women. 3. It has the mandate to advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. This legislative framework grants it the legal authority to function independently. According to Section 10 of the Act, the Commission is specifically mandated to review the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women under the Constitution of India and other laws, recommending remedial legislative measures to meet any lacunae or inadequacies. Additionally, the Act empowers the Commission to perform an advisory role, requiring it to advise the Government on all policy matters that affect the rights, status, and socio-economic development of women. These functions collectively ensure that the NCW acts as a watchdog and advocate for women's rights at the national level.

87Polity and Governance
Which, amongst the following, is the latest language to be included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (A) Maithili

Explanation

Maithili was added to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. This amendment, which became effective in 2004, expanded the list of official languages by including Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, bringing the total count to 22 languages. The other languages mentioned in the options—Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali—were incorporated earlier into the schedule via the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992. As of 2025, the 92nd Amendment remains the most recent addition of new languages to the Eighth Schedule.

88Polity and Governance
Which one among the following states has the highest number of seats in the Council of States ?
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu is allocated 18 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) as per the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India. The allocation of these seats is primarily based on the population of each state, and among the states listed, Tamil Nadu holds the highest number of seats. These 18 members are elected by the elected members of the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly using the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. This allocation ensures that the state has substantial representation in the Upper House of Parliament, reflecting its demographic weight within the federal structure of the country.

89Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Indus Waters Treaty is/are correct ? 1. The term 'Eastern Rivers' means the Sutlej, the Beas and the Ravi taken together. 2. The term 'Western Rivers' means the Indus, the Jhelum and the Chenab taken together. Select the answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Indus Waters Treaty was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan to define the water-sharing rights of the Indus River system. Under the provisions of this treaty, the six rivers of the basin are divided into two categories. The Eastern Rivers, comprising the Sutlej, the Beas, and the Ravi, are allocated to India for exclusive use. The Western Rivers, which include the Indus, the Jhelum, and the Chenab, are allocated to Pakistan for its use. India is allowed specific limited uses of the Western Rivers, such as for run-of-the-river hydroelectric power, navigation, and certain agricultural activities, provided they adhere to the technical constraints laid out in the treaty. Both statements correctly reflect these legal definitions as per the treaty text.

90Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the Constitution of India ? 1. The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act has added the Right to Education to the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. Right to Work and Right to Education are both, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. Select the answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Fundamental Rights chapter (Part III) to provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. It did not add the Right to Education to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP); rather, it substituted the text of the existing Article 45 of the DPSP to focus on early childhood care and education for children until they complete the age of six years. Because education was already part of the DPSP since the commencement of the Constitution, the amendment relocated its justiciable component rather than adding it to that chapter.

Regarding the classification of rights, the Right to Education is represented in both the Fundamental Rights (Article 21A) and the DPSP (Article 45). However, the Right to Work is categorized only as a Directive Principle under Article 41, which requires the State to make effective provisions for securing the right to work within the limits of its economic capacity and development. The Right to Work is not established as a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution. Therefore, the requirement for both rights to exist in both constitutional chapters is not fulfilled.

91Polity and Governance
As defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India, 'State' includes : 1. Parliament of India 2. State Governments 3. State Legislatures 4. Local authorities in India Select the answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Article 12 of the Constitution of India defines the term State for the purpose of Part III, which deals with Fundamental Rights. According to this definition, the State includes the Government and Parliament of India (the executive and legislative organs of the Union), the Government and the Legislature of each of the States (the executive and legislative organs of the States), and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. The term local authorities specifically encompasses entities such as municipalities, panchayats, district boards, and improvement trusts. By providing this comprehensive scope, the Constitution ensures that Fundamental Rights can be enforced against all levels of government and administrative bodies that exercise public functions or sovereign powers.

92Polity and Governance
Which of the following descriptions with regard to Parliamentary Privilege for Members of the Parliament of India is/are correct? 1. The Speaker is empowered to refer suo moto any question of privilege for investigation 2. A question of privilege is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business 3. The privilege extends to freedom from preventive arrest or detention Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Under Rule 227 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the Speaker is empowered to refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation, and report on a suo moto basis, regardless of whether a formal notice has been moved. When the Speaker gives consent for a matter of privilege to be raised in the House, the item is accorded priority over other items in the List of Business and is typically addressed after the Question Hour. However, the scope of parliamentary privilege regarding immunity from arrest is restricted to civil cases during the session and forty days before and after. It does not provide any protection against arrest or detention in criminal matters or under laws pertaining to preventive detention, ensuring that members are not placed above the ordinary criminal law of the land.

93Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about an adjournment motion in the Parliament of India is not correct?
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Answer: (C) This motion can be invoked on any matter of urgent importance that may even be within the jurisdiction of a State Government.

Explanation

An adjournment motion must relate to a matter that is the direct administrative responsibility of the Government of India. Under the rules of parliamentary procedure, a motion for adjournment cannot be raised on a matter that falls within the jurisdiction of a State Government, as the Union Cabinet is not responsible to the Lok Sabha for matters listed in the State List of the Seventh Schedule. The subject must be of such a nature that the Central Government has failed to perform its constitutional or legal duties, or it must involve a situation where the Union's authority is directly involved. Therefore, matters pertaining strictly to the domain of states are generally excluded from being the subject of an adjournment motion in the Parliament.

94Geography
The Kyoto Protocol specifically relates to which one among the following issues?
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Answer: (A) Emission reduction

Explanation

The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement that was adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005 as an extension of the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Its core mandate is to establish legally binding targets for developed countries and economies in transition to reduce their collective emissions of greenhouse gases. The treaty specifically focuses on six primary pollutants: carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆). By establishing these emission reduction commitments, the protocol aimed to stabilize atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system. It is based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities, recognizing that developed nations are principally responsible for the current high levels of greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere.

95History
Who among the following was responsible for demarcating the borders between India and Pakistan during the partition in 1947?
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Answer: (A) Cyril Radcliffe

Explanation

Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer, was appointed as the chairman of the two Boundary Commissions for Punjab and Bengal in 1947. He was tasked with the critical responsibility of drawing the international borders between India and Pakistan during the partition. Given roughly five weeks to complete the demarcation, he relied on maps, census data, and administrative boundaries to divide the provinces based on religious demographics and other geographic factors. The resulting boundary, known as the Radcliffe Line, was officially published on August 17, 1947, three days after Pakistan's independence and two days after India's.

96History
Which one among the following statements about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy, a freedom fighter, is not correct?
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Answer: (D) She was honoured with Bharat Ratna in 1956.

Explanation

Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1956, which is India's third-highest civilian award, in recognition of her distinguished service in social reform and medicine. She did not receive the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor. Her contributions included the founding of the Adyar Cancer Institute and pioneering legislative work for women's rights and social justice, but the specific honor conferred upon her in 1956 was the Padma Bhushan.

97Polity and Governance
Since wars begin in the minds of men, it is in the minds of men that the defences of peace must be constructed. This observation can be found in the Constitution of which one of the following Organs of the United Nations?
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Answer: (B) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation

Explanation

The opening sentence of the Preamble to the Constitution of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) declares that since wars begin in the minds of men, it is in the minds of men that the defences of peace must be constructed. This Constitution was adopted on 16 November 1945 at the conclusion of the United Nations Conference for the establishment of an educational and cultural organization held in London. The document emphasizes that a peace based exclusively upon the political and economic arrangements of governments would not be a peace which could secure the unanimous, lasting and sincere support of the peoples of the world. It posits that peace must be founded upon the intellectual and moral solidarity of mankind, which UNESCO aims to achieve through international cooperation in education, the sciences, and culture.

98Geography
Which one among the following countries does not share its territorial boundary with Ukraine?
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Answer: (C) Lithuania

Explanation

Lithuania is a Baltic state located in Northern Europe and does not share a territorial boundary with Ukraine. It is geographically separated from Ukraine by the territory of Belarus, which lies between the two nations. Ukraine shares its land borders with seven countries: Belarus to the north, Russia to the east and northeast, Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west, and Romania and Moldova to the southwest. Lithuania's own borders are limited to Latvia, Belarus, Poland, and the Russian exclave of Kaliningrad, placing it entirely outside the immediate perimeter of Ukraine.

99Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. First Law Commission recommended Indian Penal Code, 1860. 2. Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been completely replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The First Law Commission of India was established in 1834 under the provisions of the Charter Act of 1833. Chaired by Thomas Babington Macaulay, the commission was specifically tasked with codifying Indian laws, and its primary recommendation was the draft of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which was enacted in 1860. To modernize the legal system and remove colonial imprints, the Parliament of India enacted the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) in 2023. The BNS, 2023, officially came into effect on July 1, 2024, at which point it completely repealed and replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, as the primary substantive law governing criminal offenses in the country.

100Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with regard to the setting up of the Backward Class Commission in India: 1. The First Backward Class Commission, set up by the Government of India, is popularly known as Kaka Kalelkar Commission. 2. The Third Backward Class Commission, set up by the Government of India, is popularly known as Mandal Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The First Backward Class Commission was appointed by the President of India on January 29, 1953, under the provisions of Article 340 of the Constitution. This commission was chaired by Kaka Kalelkar and is widely recognized as the Kaka Kalelkar Commission. It submitted its report in 1955, identifying several thousand castes as backward. The Mandal Commission, on the other hand, was the Second Backward Class Commission, appointed in 1979 by the President under the chairmanship of B.P. Mandal. The Mandal Commission recommended 27 percent reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in central government services and public sector undertakings. Since the Mandal Commission was the second such commission, the claim that it was the third is factually incorrect.

101Science and Technology
Which one among the following is the purpose of firewall?
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Answer: (A) Preventing unauthorised access to computer via the internet

Explanation

A firewall serves as a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Its primary objective is to establish a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks, such as the internet. By inspecting data packets and blocking those that do not meet specific security criteria, a firewall prevents unauthorized users or hackers from gaining access to a computer or private network, thereby ensuring the safety and privacy of the system's data.

102Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an application software?
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Answer: (D) Linker

Explanation

A linker is categorized as system software rather than application software. It is a computer utility program that takes one or more object files generated by a compiler and combines them into a single executable file, library file, or another object file. The linker performs the critical task of symbol resolution and relocation, ensuring that references to functions or variables defined in separate modules are correctly mapped to their actual memory addresses. Because its primary purpose is to facilitate the development and execution of programs by interacting closely with the operating system and hardware, it belongs to the system software layer which provides the environment for application software to operate.

103Science and Technology
Which among the following is a malicious software?
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Answer: (C) Trojan Horse

Explanation

A Trojan Horse is a type of malicious software that is designed to look like a legitimate or harmless program to trick users into installing it. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojans do not replicate by infecting other files or computers. Instead, once executed, they provide a backdoor for attackers, steal sensitive data, or damage the host system. They are frequently used by cybercriminals to gain unauthorized access to a computer system and are a primary tool for deploying other forms of malware, such as ransomware or spyware.

104Science and Technology
What is an interactive combination of text, graphics, video, audio and images termed as?
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Answer: (B) Multimedia

Explanation

Multimedia is defined as the integration of multiple forms of media, including text, graphics, audio, video, and animation, into a single platform or presentation. The term is derived from the combination of multi, meaning many, and media, referring to the tools used to communicate information. In a digital context, multimedia creates a sensory-rich environment that enhances communication and learning by combining these diverse formats. When this combination includes interactive elements, it allows users to control, navigate, and engage with the content dynamically, distinguishing it from static or linear media formats.

105Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the characteristic of Artificial Intelligence?
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Answer: (A) Replicates human decision making

Explanation

Artificial Intelligence is fundamentally characterized by its ability to emulate human cognitive processes, particularly the capacity for reasoning, problem-solving, and judgment. Unlike traditional computing systems that rely on explicit, pre-defined rules for every operation, AI utilizes advanced algorithms and machine learning models to analyze complex data patterns. This allows the system to evaluate various inputs and arrive at conclusions or actions that replicate human decision-making. By processing information and adapting to new variables, AI aims to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, making the autonomous replication of decision-making its most defining trait.

106Art and Culture
Which organisation/institute has recently started the new initiatives such as Bharat Vidya Pariyojana, Brihattar Bharat and Nari Samvaad Prakalp ?
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Answer: (D) Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts (IGNCA)

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture, has launched these initiatives to promote and research various aspects of Indian heritage and knowledge systems. Bharat Vidya Pariyojana is a project dedicated to the systematic study and dissemination of Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS) through academic courses and digital resources. Brihattar Bharat focuses on exploring the historical and cultural spread of Indian civilization beyond its modern political boundaries, particularly across Southeast Asia and the Silk Road. Nari Samvaad Prakalp is a specialized initiative aimed at documenting and discussing the significant roles played by women in Indian culture, history, and the arts through dialogues and research. These programs are part of the broader mission of IGNCA to act as a premier center for research, documentation, and archival of Indian cultural resources.

107Art and Culture
Which one among the following educational institutions established under the Union Ministry of Culture is promoting to preserve, protect and promote Lord Buddha's teaching and value of love, compassion and non-violence for developing good moral values and practices ?
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Answer: (C) Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, Nalanda

Explanation

Nava Nalanda Mahavihara (NNM) is a deemed university located in Nalanda, Bihar, which functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Culture. It was established with the primary objective of reviving the ancient glory of the original Nalanda Mahavihara and serves as a premier center for higher studies and research in Pali language and Buddhist philosophy. The institution is specifically mandated to preserve, protect, and promote the teachings of Lord Buddha, focusing on the core values of Karuna (compassion), Maitri (loving-kindness), and Ahimsa (non-violence) to foster moral development and ethical practices in contemporary society.

108Polity and Governance
Nirbhaya Fund, a non-lapsable corpus fund, which is to be utilized for the projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women is administered by :
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Answer: (C) The Ministry of Finance

Explanation

The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India in 2013 as a non-lapsable corpus fund dedicated to projects aimed at improving the safety and security of women. The administration of this fund is the responsibility of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance. While the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) acts as the nodal ministry to appraise and recommend various schemes and projects and to monitor their progress, the actual management and control of the fund's corpus rest with the Ministry of Finance. The ministry ensures the non-lapsable nature of the fund and oversees the allocation of resources to various central ministries, departments, and states based on the recommendations provided by the MWCD-led Empowered Committee.

109Economy
The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) launched in 2015 - 16 by the Central Government is aimed to :
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Answer: (C) support promotion of organic farming in the country.

Explanation

The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) was launched in 2015 as a sub-component of the Soil Health Management (SHM) under the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). Its primary objective is to promote organic farming across the country by adopting a cluster-based approach and providing financial assistance to farmers. The scheme encourages the use of traditional resources, reduces reliance on chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and improves soil health and fertility. It also facilitates the certification of organic produce through the Participatory Guarantee System (PGS-India) to ensure better market linkages and higher income for farmers practicing sustainable and chemical-free agriculture.

110Polity and Governance
When did the Union Government establish a separate 'Ministry of Cooperation' with the vision of Sahkar Se Samriddhi?
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Answer: (D) 2021

Explanation

The Union Government created the Ministry of Cooperation on July 6, 2021, following a cabinet reshuffle. This dedicated ministry was established to fulfill the vision of Sahkar Se Samriddhi, which translates to prosperity through cooperation. It was designed to provide a separate administrative, legal, and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement across India. Its primary goals include streamlining processes for the ease of doing business for cooperatives and enabling the development of Multi-State Co-operatives (MSCS). Amit Shah was appointed as the first Union Minister to lead this portfolio, signifying the government's commitment to revitalizing the cooperative sector as a key driver of the national economy and rural development.

111Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Defence, Government of India, has declared 2025 as the year of :
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Answer: (B) Reforms

Explanation

The Ministry of Defence, along with the Indian Army, has designated 2025 as the Year of Reforms. This follows the 2024 theme of the Year of Technology Absorption and the 2023 theme of the Year of Transformation. The primary objective of the Year of Reforms is to institutionalize and implement major structural changes within the Indian Armed Forces, most notably the transition toward Integrated Theatre Commands. These reforms aim to optimize operational efficiency and create a unified combat approach by integrating the capabilities of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Additionally, the focus includes streamlining administrative procedures, enhancing human resource management, and modernizing the defense procurement ecosystem to maintain a high state of combat readiness and agility in a rapidly evolving security environment.

112Economy
Which of the following statements about Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is/are correct ? 1. It was launched in 2021 by the Government of India. 2. Its aim is to democratize e-commerce in India. 3. India has surpassed China in 2024 in e-retail penetration. Select the answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) was established in December 2021 as an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It serves as a non-profit company designed to create a public digital infrastructure for the Indian e-commerce market.

The primary mission of ONDC is the democratization of e-commerce by shifting from a platform-centric model to an open-network model. This architecture allows buyers and sellers to connect and transact across different platforms and applications, ensuring that small and local businesses can compete on a level playing field with large e-commerce giants. While the Indian digital market is growing rapidly, China remains the world leader in e-retail penetration with rates exceeding 45 percent, whereas India's penetration currently stands in the single digits, meaning India has not surpassed China in this metric as of 2024.

113Science and Technology
Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge (MANAK), a scheme under the flagship programme, Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE), caters to:
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Answer: (D) The school children studying in classes 6 - 10 in the age group of 10 - 15 years.

Explanation

The INSPIRE-MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge) scheme is a collaborative initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the National Innovation Foundation (NIF) - India. It targets school students enrolled in classes 6 to 10 within the age group of 10 to 15 years. The scheme aims to foster a culture of creativity and innovative thinking by inviting students to propose original technological ideas that address societal needs. By identifying and nurturing one million such ideas, the program seeks to strengthen the innovation ecosystem of the country. Selected students are provided with a financial award to develop prototypes of their ideas, which are then showcased at district, state, and national level exhibitions.

114Polity and Governance
Who among the following were awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024? 1. Shri Gukesh D 2. Shri Harmanpreet Singh 3. Shri Praveen Kumar 4. Ms. Manu Bhaker Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 was conferred upon Shri Harmanpreet Singh and Shri Praveen Kumar for their exceptional performances at the Paris 2024 Games. Shri Harmanpreet Singh, the captain of the Indian men hockey team, led his squad to a second consecutive Olympic bronze medal and finished the tournament as the highest goal-scorer with ten goals. Shri Praveen Kumar secured a gold medal in the Men high jump T64 category at the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games, where he also established a new Asian record with a jump of 2.08 meters. These athletes were selected for India highest sporting honor in recognition of their career-defining contributions and leadership on the international stage during the 2024 sporting calendar.

115Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about a prominent film personality of India: He was born in Hyderabad. He emerged in the 1970s with a series of films that challenged mainstream Bollywood. He became widely known for Bharat Ek Khoj, a landmark 53-episode television series. He directed a 2023 biopic about Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. Identify the personality from the following:
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Answer: (C) Shyam Benegal

Explanation

Shyam Benegal was born in Secunderabad, Hyderabad, and is regarded as the pioneer of the New Indian Cinema or Parallel Cinema movement. He rose to prominence in the 1970s with a trilogy of films—Ankur, Nishant, and Manthan—that shifted focus from traditional Bollywood tropes to realistic portrayals of socio-political issues and rural exploitation. He was the visionary director behind the epic 53-episode television series Bharat Ek Khoj, which aired in 1988 and served as a comprehensive visual history of India based on Jawaharlal Nehru's The Discovery of India. In 2023, he completed the significant biographical film Mujib: The Making of a Nation, a joint production between India and Bangladesh that chronicles the life of Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.

116Polity and Governance
'The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer' is the highest national award of:
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Answer: (B) Kuwait

Explanation

The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer is the highest civil honor and national award of the State of Kuwait. It is named after Sheikh Mubarak Al-Sabah, also known as Mubarak the Great, who reigned from 1896 to 1915 and is widely regarded as the founder of modern Kuwait. This prestigious order is typically reserved for heads of state, members of royal families, and high-ranking foreign dignitaries to recognize exceptional service to the state or to commemorate significant diplomatic relations and state visits. The award consists of several classes, with the Collar being the highest grade, often exchanged during formal state ceremonies to signify the deep ties between Kuwait and the recipient's nation.

117Geography
Bald eagle has recently been officially declared as the national bird of which one among the following countries?
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Answer: (C) USA

Explanation

The United States officially codified the Bald Eagle as its national bird through the National Bird Act of 2024, which was signed into law in late 2024. Although the Bald Eagle has served as a primary national symbol and has been featured on the Great Seal of the United States since June 20, 1782, it had never been formally designated as the national bird by an act of Congress until this recent legislation. This law provides the eagle with the same official statutory status as the national flower, which is the rose, and the national mammal, which is the North American bison.

118Polity and Governance
Surya Kiran is a joint military exercise between India and:
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Answer: (D) Nepal

Explanation

Surya Kiran is a bilateral joint military exercise conducted annually between the Indian Army and the Nepali Army. The exercise aims to improve interoperability and share best practices in counter-insurgency operations, jungle warfare, and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) scenarios within mountainous regions. It is a recurring event that alternates its venue between the two nations, fostering strong military-to-military relations and professional cooperation. The drills allow troops from both sides to exchange tactical expertise and refine their collective response capabilities for regional security challenges and natural calamities.

119Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Moidam-The Mound-Burial system of the Ahom dynasty was inscribed in the UNESCO World Heritage list. 2. The Government of India conferred the status of classical language to Pali, Assamese, Bengali and Maithili. 3. Project PARI is an initiative of Ministry of Education. Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 only

Explanation

The Moidams, representing the mound-burial system of the Ahom dynasty in Charaideo, Assam, was officially inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in July 2024. This site is the first cultural heritage site from Northeast India to receive this recognition, marking it as the 43rd World Heritage Site in India. In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the status of classical language for Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali; however, Maithili was not included in this list. Additionally, Project PARI (Public Art of India) is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture, executed by the National Gallery of Modern Art, aimed at promoting public art and showcasing India's diverse heritage.

120Science and Technology
Which one of the following PSLVs, launched by ISRO, is not correctly matched with their Missions? PSLV | Mission
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Answer: (D) PSLV C57 | DS-SAR

Explanation

The PSLV-C57 mission was the specific launch vehicle configuration used to deploy Aditya-L1, India's first dedicated space-based observatory to study the Sun, which was launched on September 2, 2023. The DS-SAR satellite, a radar imaging satellite for Singapore, was launched as the primary payload of the PSLV-C56 mission on July 30, 2023. Therefore, the pairing of PSLV-C57 with the DS-SAR mission is factually incorrect.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2D
  3. 3C
  4. 4B
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9B
  10. 10C
  11. 11C
  12. 12D
  13. 13A
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16D
  17. 17B
  18. 18A
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23B
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29C
  30. 30A
  31. 31B
  32. 32C
  33. 33C
  34. 34D
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37A
  38. 38B
  39. 39D
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51C
  52. 52A
  53. 53D
  54. 54D
  55. 55D
  56. 56D
  57. 57A
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60A
  61. 61D
  62. 62B
  63. 63D
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66A
  67. 67C
  68. 68C
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73A
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76A
  77. 77D
  78. 78A
  79. 79B
  80. 80B
  81. 81A
  82. 82D
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86D
  87. 87A
  88. 88D
  89. 89C
  90. 90D
  91. 91C
  92. 92C
  93. 93C
  94. 94A
  95. 95A
  96. 96D
  97. 97B
  98. 98C
  99. 99C
  100. 100A
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106D
  107. 107C
  108. 108C
  109. 109C
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112B
  113. 113D
  114. 114D
  115. 115C
  116. 116B
  117. 117C
  118. 118D
  119. 119B
  120. 120D

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