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CDS II 2019 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
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6
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100%
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Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance2924%
  • Science and Technology2823%
  • Geography2218%
  • Economy2017%
  • History1613%
  • Art and Culture54%
1Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the motto of NCC?
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Answer: (A) Unity and Discipline

Explanation

The motto of the National Cadet Corps (NCC) is Unity and Discipline, which in Hindi is translated as Ekta aur Anushasan. This motto was formally adopted by the Central Advisory Committee on 12 October 1980 to reflect the core values and objectives of the organization. As a tri-services organization comprising the Army, Navy, and Air Force wings, the NCC aims to develop character, comradeship, and the capacity for leadership among the youth. The motto serves as a guiding light for cadets to lead a life of integrity and dedicated service to the nation while maintaining a cohesive and disciplined outlook in all endeavors.

2Polity and Governance
Which one of the following departments is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
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Answer: (D) Department of Legal Affairs

Explanation

The Department of Legal Affairs functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Law and Justice. Its primary responsibilities include providing legal advice to the Central Government on various issues, handling matters related to the Advocates Act and the Notaries Act, and overseeing government litigation in higher courts. It also manages the Central Agency Section, which handles the litigation work of all ministries and departments of the Government of India before the Supreme Court.

3Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). 2. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry in the Government of India for the UNCCD. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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India signed the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) on October 14, 1994, and ratified it on September 17, 1996, making it a signatory party to this legally binding international agreement. The convention focuses on improving the living conditions for people in drylands, maintaining and restoring land and soil productivity, and mitigating the effects of drought. Within the Government of India, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is designated as the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of the convention, coordinating national strategies to achieve land degradation neutrality and managing reporting requirements to the UNCCD secretariat.

4Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year?
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Answer: (C) Article 112

Explanation

Article 112 of the Constitution of India mandates the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement. It stipulates that the President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year. This document, popularly known as the Union Budget, provides details on the estimated receipts and expenditure for the upcoming financial year, the revised estimates for the current year, and the actual figures for the previous year. It specifically distinguishes between expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring transparency and parliamentary oversight of the nation's finances.

5Polity and Governance
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was founded in
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Answer: (D) Dhaka

Explanation

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was formally established on December 8, 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh. The organization was founded when the heads of state or government of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka adopted the SAARC Charter during their first summit meeting. The primary objective of the association was to promote economic growth, social progress, and cultural development within the South Asia region through mutual cooperation. Although the SAARC Secretariat was later established in Kathmandu in 1987, the initial founding ceremony and the signing of the charter took place in Dhaka.

6Economy
Which one of the following countries is not a founding member of the New Development Bank?
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Answer: (B) Canada

Explanation

The New Development Bank (NDB) was established by the BRICS nations, which comprise Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The agreement to create the bank was signed by these five countries during the sixth BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. These nations are the original founding members of the institution, created to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies. Canada is not a member of the BRICS grouping and did not participate in the establishment of the bank.

7Polity and Governance
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application designed, developed, owned and implemented by the
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Answer: (C) Controller General of Accounts

Explanation

The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is managed and implemented by the Office of the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), which operates under the Department of Expenditure within the Ministry of Finance. Originally launched in 2009 as the Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System (CPSMS), it was redesigned to provide a common electronic platform for the payment, accounting, and reporting of all Government of India schemes. The CGA owns the system to ensure transparency and accountability in the utilization of public funds, facilitating the real-time monitoring of fund flows from the central government to the ultimate beneficiaries. By integrating with the Core Banking System of banks, PFMS enables the Just-in-Time release of funds and serves as the primary portal for the implementation of the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism.

8Art and Culture
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Institute) List II (Location) A. National Institute of Ayurveda 1. Chennai B. National Institute of Homoeopathy 2. Bengaluru C. National Institute of Unani Medicine 3. Kolkata D. National Institute of Siddha 4. Jaipur Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

The National Institute of Ayurveda is located in Jaipur, which serves as a premier autonomous center for education and research in the Ayurvedic system under the Ministry of AYUSH. The National Institute of Homoeopathy is based in Kolkata and was established as a model institute for Homoeopathic education and clinical practice. The National Institute of Unani Medicine is situated in Bengaluru, where it functions as an apex organization for research and post-graduate training in the Unani system. The National Institute of Siddha is located in Chennai, which is strategically significant given that the Siddha system of medicine is indigenous to the Tamil-speaking regions of South India. These four institutes represent the government's commitment to developing and standardizing traditional Indian medicine systems across different geographical regions of the country.

9Economy
Which of the following statements about 'Invest India' is/are correct? 1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company. 2. It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Invest India is the official National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India, established to act as the first point of reference for investors in India. It is a non-profit joint venture company where the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, holds 49 percent of the equity. The remaining 51 percent shareholding is held by three of India's leading industry associations: the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and NASSCOM, with each holding 17 percent. It provides sector-specific and state-specific information to foreign investors and assists in expediting regulatory approvals and hand-holding through the investment process.

10Polity and Governance
The National Dope Testing Laboratory functions under
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Explanation

The National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) is a premier analytical testing laboratory established as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. It was formally inaugurated in 2008 with the primary objective of providing dope testing services to various sporting events at both national and international levels. The laboratory is accredited by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL). Its administrative placement within the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports ensures that anti-doping measures are integrated into the broader framework of sports administration and integrity in India, supporting the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) in maintaining a clean sporting environment.

11Polity and Governance
In how many phases was the general election, 2019 conducted in India?
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Answer: (B) 7 phases

Explanation

The 2019 Indian general election for the 17th Lok Sabha was conducted in 7 phases across the country. The Election Commission of India scheduled the voting to take place from April 11 to May 19, 2019. This multi-phase approach was implemented to ensure adequate security deployment and administrative efficiency across the various states and union territories. The specific dates for the seven phases were April 11, April 18, April 23, April 29, May 6, May 12, and May 19. Approximately 900 million people were eligible to vote, making it the largest election in the world at that time. Following the conclusion of the final phase, the counting of votes was conducted on May 23, 2019.

12Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It is the largest inter-governmental organization of the world.

Explanation

The Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest inter-governmental organization in the world after the United Nations. As of 2019, it comprises 57 member states spread over four continents, whereas the United Nations is the largest with 193 member states. The OIC serves as the collective voice of the Muslim world and works to safeguard their interests while promoting international peace and harmony.

13Art and Culture
Who among the following won the Italian Open Women's Tennis Singles Title, 2019?
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Answer: (A) Karolina Pliskova

Explanation

Karolina Pliskova won the 2019 Italian Open women's singles title, a prestigious Premier 5 tournament held at the Foro Italico in Rome. This victory represented her first title in Rome and her second title of the 2019 season. By winning the final in straight sets with a score of 6-3, 6-4, she earned enough points to rise to the number two position in the WTA world rankings. The win was a major milestone in her career, establishing her as one of the leading players on clay heading into the French Open that year.

14Polity and Governance
Which among the following IN ship(s) participated in the SIMBEX-19? 1. INS Kolkata 2. INS Shakti 3. INS Vikrant Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The 26th edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise, SIMBEX-19, was conducted in May 2019. The Indian Navy was represented by the Kolkata-class stealth guided-missile destroyer INS Kolkata and the Deepak-class fleet tanker INS Shakti. The exercise was held in two phases, starting with a harbor phase at RSS Singapura Changi Naval Base followed by a sea phase in the South China Sea. These ships, along with P8I Long Range Maritime Patrol aircraft, participated in various maritime combat drills including advanced surface and anti-air warfare exercises, tactical maneuvers, and live weapon firings. The deployment of INS Kolkata and INS Shakti during SIMBEX-19 aimed to strengthen the long-standing maritime cooperation and enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy.

15Science and Technology
'Triples' is a new format of
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Answer: (D) Badminton

Explanation

In May 2019, the Badminton World Federation (BWF) launched a new outdoor version of the sport called AirBadminton. This initiative included the introduction of a new match format known as Triples, alongside the traditional singles and doubles. In the Triples format, each team consists of three players on the court at the same time. The rules for Triples specify that in mixed matches, each team must have at least one female player. This format was designed to increase the pace of the game and encourage more strategic play and communication among teammates in an outdoor setting.

16Economy
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Deepening Digital Payments appointed by the RBI?
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Answer: (B) Nandan Nilekani

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted a High-Level Committee on Deepening Digital Payments in January 2019 under the chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani. The primary objective of this five-member committee was to review the existing status of digital payments in India, identify gaps in the ecosystem, and suggest a medium-term strategy for increasing the adoption of digital transactions. The committee aimed to encourage financial inclusion through digitization and submitted its report in May 2019. Key recommendations included removing transaction charges for NEFT and RTGS, enhancing the digital payment infrastructure in rural areas, and setting targets for a massive increase in the volume of digital transactions over the following years to reduce the economy's dependence on cash.

17Polity and Governance
'The Sasakawa Award' of United Nations is given in recognition of the work done in the field of
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Answer: (A) Disaster Reduction

Explanation

The United Nations Sasakawa Award for Disaster Reduction is managed by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). Established in 1986 through the endowment of the Nippon Foundation, it is one of the most prestigious awards in the field of disaster risk management. The award recognizes individuals or organizations that have made outstanding contributions to protecting lives and reducing disaster impacts, aligning with the goals of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030. In 2019, the award gained specific relevance in India as it was conferred upon Dr. Pramod Kumar Mishra for his lifelong dedication to improving disaster resilience and his proactive role in disaster management at both national and international levels.

18Polity and Governance
Why was India's G.S. Lakshmi in news recently?
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Answer: (B) She became the first female ICC match referee.

Explanation

In May 2019, Gandikota Sarva Lakshmi (G.S. Lakshmi) made history by becoming the first woman to be appointed to the International Cricket Council (ICC) International Panel of Match Referees. A former domestic cricketer who played for Andhra and the South Zone between 1989 and 2004, she transitioned to officiating in 2008. Her elevation to the ICC panel allowed her to officiate in international matches at the highest level, making her a pioneer for female representation in the professional management and technical officiating of global cricket. Following this appointment, she also became the first woman to oversee an ICC men's event match during the 2019 ICC Men's T20 World Cup Qualifier in the UAE.

19Polity and Governance
Who among the following was elected as the President of Indonesia for the second term?
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Answer: (A) Joko Widodo

Explanation

Joko Widodo, commonly referred to as Jokowi, was elected for a second five-year term as the President of Indonesia following the general elections held on April 17, 2019. Serving as the incumbent since 2014, Widodo secured approximately 55.5 percent of the total votes cast, as officially confirmed by the General Elections Commission (KPU) in May 2019. His re-election campaign emphasized continued infrastructure projects, economic stability, and human capital development. He was inaugurated for his second term on October 20, 2019, alongside his vice-presidential running mate, Ma'ruf Amin.

20History
In India, May 21 is observed as
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Answer: (D) National Anti-Terrorism Day

Explanation

National Anti-Terrorism Day is observed in India on May 21 to mark the death anniversary of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. He was assassinated on May 21, 1991, during an election rally in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, by a suicide bomber from the LTTE. The objective behind observing this day is to wean the youth away from terrorism and the cult of violence by highlighting the suffering of common people and showing how it is prejudicial to national interest. It promotes peace, humanity, and unity among the citizens while honoring the sacrifices made by the security forces and victims of terror.

21History
Arrange the following in the chronological order of their implementation: 1. The Indian Factory Act (First) 2. The Vernacular Press Act 3. The Morley-Minto Reforms 4. The Cornwallis Code Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 4,2,1,3

Explanation

The Cornwallis Code was enacted in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis to provide a comprehensive set of regulations for the administration of justice and revenue in British India, establishing the principle of the rule of law. The Vernacular Press Act followed in 1878, implemented by Lord Lytton to suppress the growing criticism of British policies in Indian-language newspapers. The first Indian Factory Act was subsequently passed in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon, focusing on improving the working conditions and welfare of child laborers in factories. The Morley-Minto Reforms, officially the Indian Councils Act, were implemented in 1909 to introduce communal electorates and increase the participation of Indians in the legislative process. The chronological order is therefore defined by the dates 1793, 1878, 1881, and 1909.

22Polity and Governance
Article 371 A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to
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Answer: (A) Nagaland

Explanation

Article 371A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Thirteenth Amendment Act of 1962 to implement the 16-point agreement between the Government of India and the Naga People's Convention. This article provides that no Act of Parliament shall apply to Nagaland in matters concerning Naga religious or social practices, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources, unless the Nagaland Legislative Assembly decides so by a resolution. It also vests the Governor with special responsibility for law and order as long as internal disturbances caused by hostile Nagas continue in the state.

23Polity and Governance
How many Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organization Act, 1956?
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Answer: (D) Five

Explanation

The States Re-organisation Act of 1956, under Part-III, established five Zonal Councils to promote interstate cooperation and coordination across India. These are statutory bodies designed to provide a common meeting ground for the states to resolve disputes and coordinate on social and economic planning. The five original councils created by the 1956 Act are the Northern Zonal Council, the Central Zonal Council, the Eastern Zonal Council, the Western Zonal Council, and the Southern Zonal Council. Each council is headed by the Union Home Minister as the common chairman. While there is a North-Eastern Council, it was created much later under a separate statute called the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.

24Polity and Governance
Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India for the exercise of powers of his office?
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Answer: (C) Article 361

Explanation

Article 361 of the Constitution of India provides for the protection of the President and Governors. Specifically, Clause (1) of this Article states that the President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties. This immunity is intended to ensure the independent functioning of the head of the Union without the interference of judicial proceedings regarding official actions. However, the conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal, or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under Article 61.

25Polity and Governance
Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English language?
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Answer: (B) Article 348 of the Constitution of India

Explanation

Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India mandates that, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in the English language. This provision is located within Part XVII of the Constitution, which deals with the Official Language of the Union and the judiciary. While Clause (2) of Article 348 allows for the use of Hindi or other regional languages in the proceedings of a High Court with the prior consent of the President, no such enabling provision exists for the Supreme Court. Consequently, the language of the Supreme Court remains exclusively English for all pleadings, oral arguments, and written judgments. This constitutional requirement ensures technical precision and legal uniformity across the Indian judicial system at the apex level.

26Polity and Governance
The total number of members in the Union Council of Ministers in India shall not exceed
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Answer: (D) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Clause (1A) into Article 75 of the Constitution of India. This provision specifies that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This ceiling was implemented to curb the practice of maintaining excessively large cabinets and to ensure a more efficient and streamlined executive branch. Similar provisions were also introduced for the state level under Article 164(1A) to limit the size of state councils of ministers relative to the Legislative Assemblies.

27Geography
Which one of the following is the most noticeable characteristic of the Mediterranean climate?
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Answer: (B) Dry summer

Explanation

The Mediterranean climate, classified as Cs in the Köppen system, is most distinctly characterized by a pronounced summer drought. This unique precipitation pattern occurs because of the seasonal shifting of planetary wind belts. During the summer, the subtropical high-pressure cells move poleward, bringing stable, descending air and dry conditions to these regions. In the winter, these pressure belts shift equatorward, allowing the moisture-bearing westerlies and associated cyclonic activity to bring rainfall. This specific regime of dry summers and mild, wet winters is the defining meteorological feature that distinguishes it from other temperate or tropical climates, where rainfall typically peaks during the high-sun or summer season.

28Geography
Which one of the following rivers takes a 'U' turn at Namcha Barwa and enters India ?
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Answer: (D) Brahmaputra

Explanation

The Brahmaputra river, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet, flows eastward for about 1,100 km parallel to the main Himalayan range. As it reaches the easternmost point of the Himalayas near the mountain peak Namcha Barwa (7,782 m), it encounters a geological syntaxial bend. Here, the river takes a sharp hairpin U-turn, carving a deep gorge as it cuts through the mountains. This dramatic change in course allows the river to enter India in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, where it is initially known as the Siang or Dihang before emerging into the Assam valley.

29History
What was the Dutt-Bradley thesis ?
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Answer: (D) It was a Communist party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people's front

Explanation

The Dutt-Bradley Thesis, titled The Anti-Imperialist People's Front in India, was published in 1936 by Rajani Palme Dutt and Ben Bradley. This document represented a major shift in the tactics of the Communist Party of India in accordance with the Comintern's Seventh Congress, which advocated for a United Front against fascism and imperialism. The thesis identified the Indian National Congress as the primary vehicle for the anti-imperialist struggle and argued that it could play a foremost part in realizing a broad people's front. It recommended that Communists join the Congress to strengthen its mass base and radicalize its program from within, rather than maintaining a policy of isolation or direct confrontation with the nationalist leadership. This strategy facilitated the entry of Communists into the Congress Socialist Party and the broader ranks of the Indian National Congress during the late 1930s.

30History
The khuntakti tenure was prevalent in which one of the following regions of India during the British Colonial Rule ?
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Answer: (C) Chota Nagpur

Explanation

The Khuntkatti tenure system was a customary land-holding practice prevalent among the Munda tribes in the Chota Nagpur region. Under this system, the original settlers of a village, known as Khuntkattidars, cleared the forests and held the land as collective property of the entire clan rather than as individual owners. The British colonial administration attempted to replace this traditional communal ownership with individualistic zamindari and ryotwari systems to facilitate revenue collection. This interference and the subsequent exploitation by outsiders and moneylenders were the primary grievances that led to the Munda Uprising, or Ulgulan, led by Birsa Munda in the late 1890s. The Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act of 1908 was eventually passed to provide some legal recognition and protection to these Khuntkatti rights.

31History
Who was the author of the book 'Plagues and Peoples' ?
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Answer: (A) William H. McNeill

Explanation

William H. McNeill, a prominent Canadian-American historian, authored Plagues and Peoples in 1976. This seminal work transformed the study of world history by highlighting the critical role that infectious diseases have played in shaping human civilizations. McNeill argued that the ecological relationship between humans and microbes, which he termed microparasitism, was a fundamental driver of historical change, influencing the rise and fall of empires, the outcome of wars, and major demographic shifts more significantly than traditional political or military factors. The book is widely credited with establishing the field of epidemiological history.

32History
Who among the following started the Indian Agriculture Service ?
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Answer: (A) Lord Curzon

Explanation

Lord Curzon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, was instrumental in the professionalization and scientific development of Indian agriculture. In 1901, he appointed an Inspector General of Agriculture to oversee and coordinate agricultural activities across the various provinces. His tenure saw the establishment of the Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar, in 1905, which was funded by a generous donation from the American philanthropist Henry Phipps. These administrative and institutional foundations directly led to the formal creation of the Indian Agricultural Service in 1906. Curzon believed that applying scientific methods and organized state intervention was essential to improving crop yields and the economic condition of the Indian peasantry, thereby making the centralized agricultural administration a permanent part of the British Indian bureaucracy.

33Art and Culture
'Chandimangala' was composed in which one of the following languages during the 16th century CE ?
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Answer: (C) Bengali

Explanation

Chandimangala is a significant work of the Mangal-Kavya tradition, a genre of narrative poems in medieval Bengali literature. Composed primarily during the 16th century, the most celebrated version of this text was written by the poet Mukundaram Chakravarti, also known as Kavikankan. The poem focuses on the goddess Chandi and her efforts to establish her worship among humans, specifically through the stories of the hunter Kalaketu and the merchant Dhanapati. As a quintessential piece of regional vernacular literature, it provides detailed insights into the social, economic, and cultural life of Bengal during the medieval period.

34History
In December 1962, which Soviet leader declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962 ?
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Answer: (A) Khrushchev

Explanation

Nikita Khrushchev, as the leader of the Soviet Union, delivered a significant speech to the Supreme Soviet in December 1962 where he criticized the Chinese leadership for their role in the conflict with India. Khrushchev questioned the motivations behind China military offensive and its subsequent unilateral withdrawal, suggesting that the war was unnecessary and harmful to the global socialist cause. This stance reflected the deepening Sino-Soviet split and the Soviet policy of maintaining strong ties with non-aligned India. By blaming China for the aggression, Khrushchev signaled that the Soviet Union would not provide unconditional support to fellow communist states at the expense of its strategic relationship with India.

35Economy
Which of the following statements with regard to the 'Make in India' initiative is/are correct ? 1. It was launched in the year 2018. 2. Its objective is to foster innovation. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The Make in India initiative was launched by the Government of India on September 25, 2014, rather than 2018. Its primary objective is to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub. To achieve this, the initiative focuses on four pillars: New Processes, New Infrastructure, New Sectors, and New Mindset. Fostering innovation is a central component of these pillars, alongside protecting intellectual property, enhancing skill development, and building best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure. By streamlining regulatory environments and improving the ease of doing business, the program aims to encourage both domestic and foreign companies to invest in Indian production and technological research.

36Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States does not have a Legislative Council ?
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Answer: (D) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh has a unicameral legislature, meaning it consists of only one house, the Legislative Assembly, alongside the Governor. It has never established a Legislative Council under the provisions of Article 169 of the Constitution of India. The state’s legislative body is composed of 60 members who are directly elected from single-seat constituencies. Because the state maintains a single-chamber system, it lacks the upper house or Vidhan Parishad found in several other Indian states.

37Science and Technology
What is SWAYAM ?
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Answer: (A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Explanation

SWAYAM stands for Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds. It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education), Government of India, to provide a Massive Open Online Course (MOOC) platform. The program is designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy: access, equity, and quality. By using an indigenous IT platform, SWAYAM facilitates the hosting of all courses taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation, making high-quality educational resources accessible to students across the country, especially those in disadvantaged areas. The courses on the platform are developed by coordinators from premier institutions such as NPTEL, UGC, CEC, NCERT, and NIOS.

38Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not enumerated: in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India ?
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Answer: (D) To promote international peace and security

Explanation

Promotion of international peace and security is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 51, located in Part IV of the Constitution of India. This article mandates that the State shall endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration. Unlike the other provisions listed, which are Fundamental Duties of citizens enumerated under Article 51A in Part IV-A (added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976), the promotion of international peace is an obligation specifically directed toward the State.

39Economy
Who among the following in his book 'The Managerial Revolution' argued that a managerial class dominated all industrial societies, both capitalist and communist, by virtue of its technical and scientific knowledge and its administrative skills ?
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Answer: (A) James Burnham

Explanation

James Burnham authored 'The Managerial Revolution' in 1941, in which he argued that the era of traditional capitalism was being replaced by a managerial society. In this new social structure, the ruling class consists of professional managers, technicians, and bureaucrats who possess the specialized knowledge and administrative skills necessary to operate complex industrial and state systems. Burnham observed that this shift occurred regardless of a country's political ideology, asserting that both capitalist and communist societies were becoming dominated by this managerial elite because they controlled the practical functions of production and governance.

40Polity and Governance
Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo-Warranto is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision

Explanation

The writ of Quo-Warranto, which literally translates to by what authority, is a judicial remedy used to prevent the illegal usurpation of a public office by an individual. For the High Court or Supreme Court to issue this writ, it must be established that the person holding the office has no legal title to it. This happens specifically when the appointment has been made in violation of the Constitution or a statutory provision. If an appointment is in tune with statutory provisions, it means the individual has been legally and validly appointed according to the prescribed law. Under such circumstances, the person holds the office with proper legal authority, and the essential condition of illegality required to invoke a writ of Quo-Warranto is not satisfied.

41Economy
Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income?
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Answer: (A) Personal Income - Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc.

Explanation

Personal Disposable Income represents the actual income available to households for consumption or saving after all mandatory obligations to the government have been fulfilled. It is calculated by subtracting personal tax payments, such as direct income taxes, and non-tax payments, including miscellaneous fees and fines, from Personal Income. The mathematical relation is expressed as Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income - Personal Tax Payments - Non-tax Payments. This measure provides a realistic view of the purchasing power of individuals within an economy, as it accounts for the portion of income that households are legally required to surrender to the state.

42Economy
The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to which one of the following?
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Answer: (A) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply

Explanation

In a free-market or capitalist economy, the price mechanism operates through the decentralized decisions of numerous firms and households as they interact in markets for goods and services. This system relies on the interplay of the forces of demand and supply to determine the equilibrium price and quantity of resources. When demand for a product exceeds its supply, prices tend to rise, signaling producers to increase output and consumers to reduce consumption. Conversely, when supply exceeds demand, prices fall. This continuous adjustment process ensures resource allocation and coordinates economic activity without the need for a central planning authority or government intervention.

43Economy
Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) Fixing of wage compensation

Explanation

Indexation is an economic technique used to adjust income payments, such as wages, pensions, or social security benefits, by linking them to a specific price index like the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The primary purpose of this method is to maintain the purchasing power of individuals by ensuring that their nominal income rises in tandem with inflation. In the context of wage compensation, indexation allows for the automatic or periodic adjustment of salaries—often referred to as Dearness Allowance in India—to account for the rising cost of living. By doing so, the real value of the compensation is preserved, protecting workers from the erosion of their standard of living during periods of price instability.

44Science and Technology
A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the car is
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Answer: (C) a non-zero but not a constant

Explanation

In uniform circular motion, a car moves along a circular path at a constant speed v. While the speed is constant, the velocity v is a vector quantity that changes continuously because its direction is always tangent to the circular path. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time, a = dv/dt. This change in direction results in a centripetal acceleration that points toward the center of the circle. The magnitude of this acceleration is given by a = v²/r, where r is the radius of the path. Although this magnitude remains constant, the direction of the acceleration vector changes at every point to stay directed toward the center. Since a vector is only constant if both its magnitude and direction remain unchanged, the acceleration in uniform circular motion is non-zero but not constant.

45Science and Technology
An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of sound which moves with a speed of 340 m/s. What is the distance of the mountain from the source of sound which produced the echo?
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Answer: (B) 0-85 km

Explanation

The distance of the reflecting object is calculated using the relation d = (v × t)/2, because the sound must travel to the mountain and return to the source to be heard as an echo, covering the distance d twice. Given the speed of sound v = 340 m/s and the total time t = 5 s, the calculation is:

d = (340 m/s × 5 s)/2 d = 1700 m/2 d = 850 meters

To express the distance in kilometers, divide by 1000: d = 850/1000 km = 0.85 km

46Science and Technology
A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of energy are consumed in 30 days?
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Answer: (C) 30

Explanation

In electrical billing, 1 unit of energy is equivalent to 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh). The total energy consumption in units is calculated by multiplying the power rating of the appliance in kilowatts by the total duration of its operation in hours. The formula used is Energy (kWh) = (Power (W) × Time (h))/1000.

Given that a 100 W bulb is used for 10 hours a day, the total duration of use over 30 days is 10 × 30 = 300 hours. Substituting these values into the formula, we get Energy = (100 × 300)/1000. This simplifies to 30000/1000 = 30 kWh. Since 1 kWh equals 1 unit, the total energy consumed in 30 days is 30 units.

47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.

Explanation

Under Paragraph 5(2) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Governor is specifically empowered to make regulations for the peace and good government of any Scheduled Area. This power explicitly includes the authority to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes in such areas, as well as to regulate the allotment of land to members of Scheduled Tribes and the business of money-lending. Such regulations are issued by the Governor after consultation with the Tribes Advisory Council of the state and require the assent of the President of India to become effective. Therefore, the Governor possesses direct regulatory authority to protect tribal land rights within Scheduled Areas.

48Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with regard to the formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of existing States: 1. Parliament may increase the area of any State. 2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State. 3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State. 4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to reorganize the states of the Indian Union. According to this article, the Parliament may by law form a new state, increase the area of any state, diminish the area of any state, alter the boundaries of any state, and alter the name of any state. Because Article 3 explicitly grants the Parliament the authority to modify the geographical limits and the nomenclature of any existing state, the assertions that the Parliament lacks the power to alter boundaries or names are legally inaccurate. This constitutional provision ensures that while the Union of India is indestructible, the individual states are destructible and their territorial integrity is not guaranteed by the Constitution.

49Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned State. 2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at the State level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Article 165 of the Constitution of India states that the Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and receives such remuneration as the Governor may determine. The President of India is not involved in this appointment process.

High Courts in India possess original and appellate jurisdiction, but they do not have advisory jurisdiction. Under the Indian Constitution, advisory jurisdiction is exclusively conferred upon the Supreme Court of India by Article 143, which empowers the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on matters of public importance or law. Furthermore, the jurisdiction and powers of the High Courts are primarily derived from the Constitution itself under Articles 225 to 228, while the Code of Civil Procedure governs the procedure followed by civil courts rather than conferring advisory jurisdiction.

50Polity and Governance
Which one of the following forms of Constitution contains the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Quasi-Federal

Explanation

A Quasi-Federal Constitution is a hybrid model of governance that integrates the structural features of federalism with the functional characteristics of a unitary system. It provides for a constitutional division of powers between the national government and regional units, yet it reserves significant overriding authority for the center to ensure national integration and administrative uniformity. This term is frequently used by political scientists to describe systems that exhibit a strong centralizing bias within a federal framework. For instance, such a constitution may feature a written supreme law and an independent judiciary alongside unitary traits like a single unified judicial system, central appointment of regional heads, and emergency powers that allow the center to assume control over provincial subjects, thereby operating as a blend of both constitutional forms.

51Geography
Which one of the following Indian States has no international boundary?
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Answer: (B) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

Chhattisgarh is a landlocked state located in central India. It is one of the few states in the country that neither shares an international boundary with any neighboring nation nor possesses a coastline. Positioned in the heart of the Indian peninsula, it is completely surrounded by other Indian states, including Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh. Its geographic location ensures that all its borders are strictly internal to the Union of India.

52Geography
Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on a river bank?
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Answer: (C) Bhopal

Explanation

Bhopal, known as the City of Lakes, is situated in the Malwa Plateau region of Madhya Pradesh. The city is geographically characterized by its hilly terrain and a series of natural and artificial water bodies, most notably the Bhojtal (formerly known as the Upper Lake) and the Lower Lake. Unlike many major North Indian cities that evolved along the banks of perennial rivers to facilitate trade and transport, Bhopal’s historical and urban development is centered around these extensive lake systems. While the Betwa and Parbati rivers flow through the Bhopal district, the metropolitan area of the city itself is not located on the bank of any river.

53Geography
Where are Jhunri Telaiya and Mandar Hills situated?
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Answer: (A) Jharkhand

Explanation

Jhumri Telaiya is a city located in the Koderma district of Jharkhand. It became famous across India due to its listeners frequently sending song requests to the Vividh Bharati radio station. Mandar Hill, also known as Mandar Parvat, is a hill approximately 700 feet high situated in the Banka district of Bihar. It holds immense religious significance for both Hindus and Jains and is mythologically identified as the Mandara Mountain used for the Samudra Manthan (churning of the ocean). Historically, both locations were part of the state of Bihar; however, following the Bihar Reorganisation Act in 2000, Jhumri Telaiya became part of the newly created state of Jharkhand, while Mandar Hill remains within the geographic boundaries of Bihar.

54Geography
Which one of the following is not correct regarding South India?
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Answer: (D) Extreme climatic conditions are found

Explanation

South India experiences a tropical maritime climate due to its peninsular location and proximity to the sea. This geographical setting provides a moderating effect that prevents the occurrence of extreme climatic conditions, which are defined by significant fluctuations between seasonal and daily temperatures. Instead, the region is characterized by an equable climate where the maritime influence keeps temperatures relatively stable and prevents the sharp variations typically found in the continental interiors of Northern India.

55Geography
Which one of the following statements regarding sex composition is not correct?
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Answer: (D) In Asia, there is high sex ratio.

Explanation

In demography, Asia is characterized by a low sex ratio, which indicates a lower number of females per thousand males. According to standard geographical texts like NCERT, while the developed regions of the world generally have sex ratios favourable to females, Asia exhibits a deficit of women. This is attributed to various socio-economic factors such as female feticide, female infanticide, and the low socio-economic status of women in several Asian countries, including India, China, Pakistan, and Saudi Arabia. In contrast, Europe has a high sex ratio where females outnumber males. Therefore, the statement claiming Asia has a high sex ratio is factually incorrect within the context of population composition studies.

56Economy
Who among the following has given the concept of Human Development?
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Answer: (B) Mahbub-ul-Haq

Explanation

Mahbub-ul-Haq, a Pakistani economist, is the primary architect of the human development concept. He introduced the first Human Development Report in 1990 for the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). His objective was to shift the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies. The concept defines human development as a process of enlarging people's choices, emphasizing that people are the real wealth of a nation. This approach measures progress through dimensions such as a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living, rather than relying solely on Gross Domestic Product.

57Geography
Which one of the following regions is an important supplier of citrus fruits?
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Answer: (B) Mediterranean region

Explanation

The Mediterranean region is known as the Orchard Lands of the World due to its specialized commercial production of citrus fruits. This region experiences a unique climatic pattern of mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers with abundant sunshine, which is ideal for the growth of thick-skinned fruits like oranges, lemons, limes, and citrons. The plants in this region have adapted to the summer drought through long roots and leathery leaves, a process called xerophytic adaptation, allowing for the high-quality cultivation and global supply of these fruits.

58History
Who were the Nayanars?
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Answer: (C) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva

Explanation

The Nayanars were a group of 63 saints who lived in South India during the 6th to 8th centuries CE and were deeply devoted to the Hindu god Shiva. They were instrumental in the development of the Bhakti movement in the Tamil-speaking regions, emphasizing a personal and emotional bond with the divine through music and poetry. Their hymns and hagiographies were later organized into the Tirumurai, which remains a foundational canonical text for Tamil Shaivism. These saints came from diverse social backgrounds, illustrating the inclusive nature of the devotional movement that sought to bring the worship of Shiva to all segments of society through the use of the vernacular Tamil language.

59History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Ethnic Territorial Segment) List II (Related Occupational Pattern) A. Maruta Makkal 1. Pastoralists B. Kuravan Makkal 2. Fishing people C. Mullai Makkal 3. Ploughmen D. Neytal Makkal 4. Hill people Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

The five-fold classification of land known as Thinai in Sangam literature defines specific occupations for the inhabitants of each ecological zone. Maruta Makkal are matched with ploughmen because they inhabited the Marutham riverine plains where settled agriculture and wet-land cultivation were the primary activities. Kuravan Makkal are matched with hill people as they were the indigenous inhabitants of the mountainous Kurinji region traditionally involved in hunting and gathering. Mullai Makkal are matched with pastoralists because the Mullai landscape consisted of forest and grazing lands suitable for animal husbandry and cattle rearing. Neytal Makkal are matched with fishing people because they inhabited the coastal Neythal region where the socio-economic life centered on the sea and salt manufacture.

60History
Who among the following Mughal emperors was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar?
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Answer: (A) Babur

Explanation

Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was a devoted follower of the Naqshbandiyya Sufi order, particularly the teachings of Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar. This spiritual connection was deeply rooted in his Central Asian Timurid heritage, as both his father, Umar Sheikh Mirza, and his grandfather, Abu Sa'id Mirza, were disciples of the Khwaja. In his autobiography, the Baburnama, Babur records several instances where he sought spiritual guidance or attributed his survival and military successes to the spiritual influence and intercession of Khwaja Ahrar. A significant testament to his devotion is his translation of the Khwaja's Persian prose treatise, Risala-i-Walidiyya, into Chaghatai Turkic verse in 1528-29. Babur undertook this translation work during a period of severe illness, believing that the merit gained from such a pious act would lead to his recovery.

61Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct?
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Answer: (B) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature.

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919, did not establish a responsible government at the central level. The Central Executive, comprising the Governor-General and his Executive Council, remained strictly accountable to the British Parliament through the Secretary of State for India, rather than to the Indian Legislature. While the Act introduced a bicameral legislature at the Center and increased the number of elected members, the executive stayed independent of legislative control and was not removable by it. The concept of ministerial responsibility was introduced only in the provinces through the system of Dyarchy for transferred subjects. At the Center, the Governor-General retained extensive overriding powers, including the authority to certify bills rejected by the legislature and to issue ordinances, ensuring the central administration remained autocratic.

62Polity and Governance
The concept of Four Pillar State, free from district magistracy for India was suggested by
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Answer: (B) Ram Manohar Lohia

Explanation

Ram Manohar Lohia propounded the concept of the Four-Pillar State, known as Chaukhamba Raj, to promote radical decentralization of power in India. His model envisioned four levels of governance: the village, the district, the province, and the center, integrated through a functional distribution of powers. Lohia specifically advocated for the abolition of the post of the District Magistrate, viewing it as a colonial legacy that concentrated executive authority and hindered the growth of local democracy. In his vision, the district would function as a pillar of the state where administrative and legislative functions were managed by elected representatives in a district council rather than an appointed bureaucrat, thereby making the administration directly accountable to the people.

63Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a part of the Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Participation of workers in management of industries

Explanation

The participation of workers in the management of industries is enshrined under Article 43A of the Constitution of India. This provision was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976 and is categorized under Part IV, which details the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles serve as constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters. Unlike the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III, which are justiciable and protected by the judiciary through writs, the Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature. Article 43A specifically directs the State to take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organizations engaged in any industry.

64Geography
Which one of the following is not a geographical requirement for cultivation of cotton?
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Answer: (D) A growing period of at least 100 frost free days

Explanation

Cotton is a tropical and sub-tropical crop that requires a long, warm growing season to reach maturity. A critical climatic constraint for its successful cultivation is the requirement of at least 210 frost-free days. Frost is highly detrimental to the plant, particularly during the stages of flowering and boll formation. Because the crop typically takes between six to eight months to mature, a period of only 100 frost-free days is insufficient for the plant to complete its life cycle and produce a viable yield. While cotton thrives in temperatures between 21°C and 30°C and requires well-drained soil with moderate moisture, the duration of the frost-free period is the defining factor that limits its geographical distribution.

65Geography
Which one of the following statements regarding temperate coniferous forest biome is not correct?
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Answer: (C) There is low variation in annual temperature.

Explanation

Temperate coniferous forests, particularly the boreal forests or taiga, are characterized by a high annual temperature range rather than a low one. These regions are subject to extreme seasonality due to their high-latitude positions and the effects of continentality. In the interior of North America and Eurasia, winters are long and severe, with temperatures often dropping below -30°C, while summers are short and can be relatively warm, reaching 20°C or more. This creates one of the largest annual temperature fluctuations of any biome on Earth.

66Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Peak) (Name of Hill) A. Anaimudi 1. Nilgiri B. Doddabetta 2. Satpura C. Dhupgarh 3. Aravali D. Guru Shikhar 4. Annamalai Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

Anaimudi is the highest peak of the Annamalai Hills (A-4), reaching an elevation of 2,695 metres in the Western Ghats of Kerala. Doddabetta stands at 2,637 metres and is the highest point in the Nilgiri Hills (B-1) of Tamil Nadu. Dhupgarh is the highest peak of the Satpura Range (C-2), specifically located in the Mahadeo Hills near Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh. Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of the Aravali Range (D-3), situated at an altitude of 1,722 metres in the Mount Abu region of Rajasthan.

67Geography
Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following regions ?
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Answer: (D) Gulf of Cambay

Explanation

The Gulf of Cambay, also known as the Gulf of Khambat, is characterized by a high influx of freshwater and massive sediment loads from major rivers such as the Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati. This discharge results in high turbidity and fluctuating salinity levels, which are unfavorable for coral growth. Corals require clear, shallow, and saline waters to allow sunlight to penetrate for the photosynthesis of symbiotic zooxanthellae. In the Gulf of Cambay, the heavy siltation blocks sunlight and physically smothers coral polyps, while the large tidal range further prevents the establishment of stable reef colonies.

68Economy
In which one of the following States is jute not significantly cultivated ?
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh is not a significant producer of jute because it lacks the specific agro-climatic conditions necessary for the crop's optimal growth. Jute cultivation requires a very hot and humid climate with temperatures between 25°C and 35°C and heavy annual rainfall exceeding 150 cm. It thrives in deep, fertile alluvial soil, particularly in deltaic plains where nutrient-rich silt is deposited by rivers. The geographical and climatic profile of Andhra Pradesh is generally better suited for other commercial crops. While the state is known for producing mesta, a hardy fiber substitute, its contribution to the national production of true jute is negligible, placing it outside the primary jute-growing belt of the country.

69History
Consider the following statements : 1. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha's dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him. 2. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the Buddha's teaching to the influence of Samudra, a merchant-turned monk. 3. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka's coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Mahavamsa, a major Sri Lankan Buddhist chronicle, identifies Nigrodha as the individual responsible for Ashoka's conversion. Nigrodha was the son of Ashoka’s elder brother Sumana and had become a novice monk. His serene demeanor and his preaching of the Appamada-vagga, a discourse on earnestness, deeply impressed the emperor and led him to embrace the Buddha's teachings.

The Divyavadana, a North Indian Sanskrit text, attributes Ashoka's spiritual transformation to a monk named Samudra. According to this tradition, Samudra was a former merchant who had entered the monastic order. He was accidentally imprisoned in the torture chamber known as Ashoka’s Hell, where he performed miracles to survive the horrific conditions. Witnessing these miracles and hearing Samudra’s subsequent preaching prompted Ashoka to dismantle the prison and seek refuge in the Dhamma.

70History
Name the site that gives us valuable information about India's maritime links on the Coromandel coast.
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Answer: (C) Arikamedu

Explanation

Arikamedu, located near Puducherry, was a major Indo-Roman trading station and an active port on the Coromandel coast during the early centuries of the Common Era. Archaeological excavations led by Sir Mortimer Wheeler and others revealed its role as a key node in ancient maritime commerce, specifically linking India with the Roman Empire. The site yielded significant quantities of Roman artifacts, including amphorae used for wine and olive oil, Arretine ware, and Roman glassware, confirming extensive overseas trade. Known as Poduke in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, Arikamedu served as a critical hub for the export of textiles, spices, and semi-precious stone beads, providing the most detailed historical evidence of international sea trade on Indias southeastern coastline.

71Geography
Where are the largest quantity of cichlids found in India ?
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Answer: (A) Backwaters of Kerala

Explanation

The largest quantity of native cichlids in India is found in the backwaters of Kerala. Native Indian cichlids belong to the subfamily Etroplinae, specifically the genus Etroplus, which includes species such as the Pearlspot (Etroplus suratensis) and the Orange chromide (Etroplus maculatus). These species are highly concentrated in the brackish water ecosystems, lagoons, and estuaries characteristic of the Kerala coast. The Pearlspot, locally known as Karimeen, is so abundant and culturally significant in this region that it was designated as the state fish of Kerala in 2010. The extensive backwater systems, such as Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes, provide the ideal salinity gradients and submerged vegetation necessary for the large-scale breeding and survival of these fishes.

72Geography
Which Greek philosopher coined the term Geography in the 3rd century B.C.E. ?
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Answer: (C) Eratosthenes

Explanation

Eratosthenes of Cyrene was a Greek polymath who is recognized as the father of geography. In the 3rd century B.C.E., he coined the term geographia, which translates to earth writing. As the chief librarian at the Library of Alexandria, he produced one of the first maps of the known world and established the discipline of geography as a systematic field of study. He is particularly famous for being the first person to accurately calculate the circumference of the Earth by measuring the shadow angles of the sun at two different locations, Alexandria and Syene, during the summer solstice.

73Art and Culture
Who is the author of the 16th century Sanskrit text, the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in North India ?
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Answer: (B) Narayana Bhatta

Explanation

Narayana Bhatta was a 16th-century South Indian Brahmin and a prominent figure in the Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition who migrated to the Braj region. He authored the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa, a comprehensive Sanskrit text that functions as a theological and geographical map of the eighty-four kos of Braj Mandala. This work is instrumental in the identification and sanctification of numerous pilgrimage sites, forests, and water bodies associated with the life of Krishna. Narayana Bhatta is historically significant for systematizing the tradition of the Vraja Yatra, or the circular pilgrimage of Braj, which remains a core spiritual practice in the region. His efforts were fundamental to the medieval topographical reconstruction and cultural revival of the sacred landscape of Mathura and Vrindavan.

74Science and Technology
Bose-Einstein Condensate is
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Answer: (B) fifth state of matter

Explanation

Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) is recognized as the fifth state of matter, following the primary states of solid, liquid, gas, and plasma. It represents a phase of matter that occurs when a dilute gas of bosons is cooled to temperatures approaching absolute zero (0 K or -273.15°C). In this state, a significant fraction of the bosons occupy the lowest quantum state, leading to macroscopic quantum effects where the particles behave as a single entity or wave. The theoretical foundation was established by Satyendra Nath Bose and Albert Einstein in the 1920s, and it was eventually observed in laboratory settings in 1995.

75Economy
The rate of evaporation of liquid does not depend upon
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Answer: (C) its mass

Explanation

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon that occurs when molecules at the liquid surface acquire sufficient kinetic energy to overcome the attractive forces of neighboring molecules and escape into the gaseous state. The rate of this process is governed by the molecular activity at the surface layer and the environmental conditions directly above the interface. The total mass or volume of the liquid situated below the surface does not influence the escape velocity of individual molecules or the frequency with which they leave the surface. Since the transition from liquid to vapor is localized strictly to the interface between the liquid and the atmosphere, the bulk quantity or mass of the substance has no impact on the instantaneous rate of phase change.

76Science and Technology
Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment on thin gold foil was responsible for the discovery of
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Answer: (C) atomic nucleus

Explanation

Ernest Rutherford conducted the alpha particle scattering experiment in 1911 by bombarding a thin gold foil with high-energy alpha particles (α-particles). The observation that most particles passed through the foil undeflected, while a small fraction experienced large-angle deflections and some even rebounded, proved that the atom contains a tiny, dense, and positively charged central core. This led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus, as it was concluded that nearly all the mass of the atom must be concentrated in this central region to cause such significant repulsion of the positively charged alpha particles. This discovery established the nuclear model of the atom, demonstrating that the atom is mostly empty space with a central core.

77Geography
Food chain is
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Answer: (C) passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism to another

Explanation

A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism eats another. In an ecosystem, energy flow begins with primary producers, typically green plants or algae, which capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy through photosynthesis. This energy is then transferred to primary consumers (herbivores) when they eat the plants, and subsequently to secondary and tertiary consumers (carnivores) as they prey upon lower levels. Each step in this sequence represents a trophic level, demonstrating the unidirectional passage of food and the vital chemical energy required for the survival and growth of organisms within a biological community.

78Science and Technology
Which one of the following is active transport?
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Answer: (A) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration.

Explanation

Active transport is a biological process that involves the movement of molecules or ions across a cell membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. This movement occurs against the concentration gradient, which is often referred to as moving substances uphill. To overcome the natural tendency of substances to diffuse down their gradient, the cell must expend metabolic energy. This energy is primarily derived from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is generated within the cell during the process of cellular respiration. Specific carrier proteins or protein pumps embedded in the plasma membrane facilitate this process by binding to the target molecule and using the energy from ATP to transport it to the other side of the membrane. This mechanism is essential for maintaining internal cellular environments, such as the accumulation of glucose in intestinal cells or the maintenance of ion gradients in nerve cells.

79Science and Technology
Chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with
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Answer: (B) membranous vesicles

Explanation

Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the absence of membrane-bound organelles, meaning they do not possess plastids like chloroplasts which are found in eukaryotic plants. In photosynthetic prokaryotes, such as cyanobacteria, the chlorophyll and other photosynthetic pigments are instead associated with membranous vesicles. These vesicles are bag-like structures formed by the infolding or extension of the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm. They provide the necessary surface area and structural framework for the photosynthetic enzymes and pigments to function, performing a role similar to the thylakoids found within eukaryotic chloroplasts.

80Economy
What do you mean by 'Demographic Dividend'?
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Answer: (A) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population

Explanation

Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that results from shifts in a population's age structure. According to the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), this phenomenon occurs when the share of the working-age population, generally defined as those aged 15 to 64, is larger than the non-working-age share of the population consisting of children and the elderly. As the fertility rate declines, the dependency ratio falls, leading to a surplus of productive individuals. This transition can significantly boost a country's per capita income and overall GDP through increased labor supply, higher savings rates, and greater investment in human capital. The dividend represents a window of opportunity for accelerated economic development if the country implements effective policies in education, health, and employment to harness the potential of its expanding workforce.

81Science and Technology
Which one of the following organisms is responsible for sleeping sickness?
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Answer: (B) Trypanosoma

Explanation

Sleeping sickness, also known as Human African Trypanosomiasis, is a parasitic disease caused by protozoa of the genus Trypanosoma. The infection is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected tsetse fly (Glossina species), which acts as the biological vector. Two specific subspecies are responsible for the disease in humans: Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. After the parasite enters the bloodstream, it eventually crosses the blood-brain barrier to infect the central nervous system. This causes the characteristic neurological symptoms of the disease, including profound lethargy and the disruption of the sleep-wake cycle, which gives the condition its common name. The disease is endemic to sub-Saharan Africa, where the tsetse fly habitat exists.

82Science and Technology
Which one of the following body parts/organs of the human body does not have smooth muscles?
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Answer: (D) Biceps

Explanation

The biceps are skeletal muscles, which are characterized as voluntary and striated muscles. They are attached to bones by tendons and are under the conscious control of the somatic nervous system to facilitate movement, such as flexing the elbow. Unlike smooth muscles, which are involuntary and found in the walls of internal organs, skeletal muscles consist of long, cylindrical, multinucleated fibers that exhibit a distinct banded or striated appearance under a microscope.

83Economy
What is Inter-cropping?
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Answer: (C) It is growing of two or more crops in definite row patterns.

Explanation

Inter-cropping is an intensive cropping system where two or more crops are grown simultaneously on the same piece of land in a specific and definite row arrangement. Unlike methods where seeds are mixed and broadcasted randomly, inter-cropping follows a pre-determined spatial pattern, such as alternating one row of a primary crop with one or more rows of a companion crop. This systematic layout is designed to enhance resource use efficiency by allowing crops with different growth habits, root structures, or nutrient requirements to occupy different ecological niches. By utilizing a definite row pattern, farmers can perform specific intercultural operations, apply targeted fertilizers, and manage pests or harvesting more effectively for each individual crop component.

84Science and Technology
Magnification is
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Answer: (B) observed size of specimen / actual size

Explanation

Magnification is defined as the ratio of the size of the image produced by an optical system to the actual size of the object being viewed. Mathematically, it is expressed by the formula M = I/O, where I is the image size (or observed size) and O is the object size (or actual size). This calculation provides a dimensionless value that indicates how many times larger the specimen appears under observation compared to its true physical dimensions. For instance, if a biological specimen that is 1 μm in actual size appears as 100 μm under a microscope, the magnification is 100×.

85Science and Technology
Which one of the following cell organelles is known as 'suicide bags' of a cell?
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Answer: (A) Lysosomes

Explanation

Lysosomes are specialized membrane-bound vesicles that contain a wide array of powerful hydrolytic enzymes, including proteases, lipases, and nucleases. These enzymes are designed to break down waste materials, cellular debris, and foreign pathogens within an acidic environment. Under conditions of significant cellular damage, aging, or metabolic stress, the lysosomal membrane may lose its integrity and rupture. This event releases the concentrated digestive enzymes into the cytoplasm, where they begin to degrade the cell's own proteins and organelles in a process known as autolysis. Because the activation of these enzymes leads to the self-destruction of the cell as a mechanism for clearing dysfunctional units, lysosomes are characterized as the suicide bags of the cell.

86Economy
Which one of the following statements with regard to economic models is not correct?
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Answer: (C) They can be expressed only through equations.

Explanation

Economic models are conceptual frameworks designed to simplify complex economic processes and identify cause-and-effect relationships. While mathematical equations are a common and rigorous way to express these models, they are not the exclusive method. Models can also be represented visually through graphs, such as the circular flow of income or supply and demand curves, or verbally through logical descriptions of theoretical relationships. The restriction that models must only be expressed through equations is incorrect because the essence of a model lies in its ability to abstract reality into a manageable form, regardless of whether the medium is mathematical, graphical, or prose-based.

87Economy
The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is
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Answer: (B) negative

Explanation

The Law of Demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded, assuming all other factors remain constant (ceteris paribus). This means that as the price (P) of a good increases, the quantity demanded (Q) decreases, and as the price decreases, the quantity demanded increases. In graphical representation, the demand curve is typically plotted with price on the vertical axis and quantity on the horizontal axis. The slope of any curve is defined as the change in the vertical coordinate divided by the change in the horizontal coordinate, expressed as dP/dQ. Because the price and quantity move in opposite directions, the ratio of their changes is always negative. Consequently, the demand curve slopes downward from left to right, reflecting a negative slope throughout its length for a normal good.

88Economy
Which one of the following is an example of a price floor?
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Answer: (A) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India

Explanation

A price floor is a legal minimum price established by the government to ensure that the market price of a commodity does not fall below a specific level. This mechanism is typically used to protect the income of producers when market conditions might otherwise lead to excessively low prices. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) implemented for various agricultural crops in India, such as Jowar, is a prime example of a price floor. By declaring an MSP, the government guarantees farmers a minimum price for their harvest, effectively intervening in the market to provide a safety net. This ensures that farmers can recover their costs and earn a baseline profit, thereby shielding them from the volatility of market demand and supply.

89Economy
Which one of the following factors is not considered in determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India?
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Answer: (C) Cost of living index

Explanation

The cost of living index is a macroeconomic indicator used to measure the average change over time in the prices paid by urban or rural consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. It is primarily used for the indexation of wages, pensions, and dearness allowance to mitigate the impact of inflation on the purchasing power of the population. In the context of agricultural policy, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) focuses on factors directly related to the agricultural economy, such as production expenses, market dynamics, and parity between different sectors. While the CACP analyzes the potential impact of MSP on the general cost of living for consumers, the cost of living index itself is not a technical parameter or a factor used in the formula to determine the support price for agricultural commodities.

90Economy
Which one of the following is not a dimension of the Human Development Index ?
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Answer: (C) Access to banking and other financial provisions

Explanation

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index used by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure human development based on three specific dimensions: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. These are quantified using indicators such as life expectancy at birth, mean and expected years of schooling, and gross national income per capita. Access to banking and other financial provisions, while an important factor in economic development and financial inclusion, is not one of the components or dimensions used in the calculation of the HDI.

91Economy
Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with which one of the following measurements in an economy ?
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Answer: (C) Income inequality

Explanation

The Gini Coefficient, also known as the Gini index or Gini ratio, is the standard statistical measure used to represent the income inequality or wealth inequality within a nation or any other group of people. It quantifies the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution. The coefficient is derived from the Lorenz Curve, which plots the cumulative percentages of total income received against the cumulative number of recipients, starting with the poorest. The Gini coefficient is defined as the ratio of the area that lies between the line of perfect equality and the Lorenz curve to the total area under the line of perfect equality. A Gini coefficient of zero expresses perfect equality, where everyone has the same income, while a coefficient of one expresses maximal inequality, where a single individual receives all the income. Mathematically, it is expressed as G = A / (A + B), where A is the area between the line of perfect equality and the Lorenz curve, and B is the area under the Lorenz curve. By measuring this dispersion, the Gini ratio provides a single numerical value to evaluate the degree of economic concentration in a society.

92Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : 1. Particles of matter intermix on their own. 2. Particles of matter have force acting between them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Particles of matter are in a state of constant random motion, which enables them to spread out and occupy the empty spaces between the particles of another substance. This spontaneous intermixing of particles is known as diffusion. Furthermore, particles of matter are held together by attractive forces called intermolecular forces. The strength of these forces depends on the specific type of matter and its physical state, determining how closely the particles are bound to one another.

93Geography
Rate of evaporation increases with
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Answer: (A) an increase of surface area

Explanation

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon, meaning it occurs at the interface between the liquid and the surrounding atmosphere. When the surface area of a liquid is increased, a greater number of molecules are positioned at the surface and exposed to the air. This larger exposure allows more particles to simultaneously gain sufficient kinetic energy to overcome intermolecular attractions and escape into the vapor phase. Consequently, the rate at which the liquid converts to gas is directly proportional to the area of the exposed surface.

94Science and Technology
If an object is at rest, then the time (X-axis) versus distance (Y-axis) graph
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Answer: (B) is horizontal

Explanation

When an object is at rest, its position or distance from a reference point does not change as time progresses. In a coordinate system where time is represented on the X-axis and distance is represented on the Y-axis, the relationship can be expressed by the equation y = c, where c is a constant representing the fixed distance. Since the distance remains the same for all values of time, the resulting plot is a straight line parallel to the X-axis. In physics, the slope of a distance-time graph represents the velocity of the object, calculated as v = dy/dt. For an object at rest, the velocity is zero, which corresponds to a graph with a slope of zero. A line with a slope of zero on a standard Cartesian plane is a horizontal line.

95Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about mixture : 1. A substance can be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process. 2. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by the physical process of evaporation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

In chemistry, a substance is defined as a pure form of matter that possesses a constant composition and distinct chemical properties. A characteristic feature of a pure substance is that it cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by physical processes such as filtration, distillation, or evaporation. In contrast, mixtures are combinations of two or more substances that can be separated using such physical methods. When sodium chloride (NaCl) is dissolved in water, it forms a homogeneous mixture or solution. Because water has a significantly lower boiling point than sodium chloride, the process of evaporation removes the water as vapor, leaving the solid sodium chloride behind. This illustrates that while physical processes can separate the components of a mixture, they cannot break down a pure substance into other forms of matter.

96Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number but different mass number.

Explanation

Isobars are defined as atoms of different chemical elements that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers. The mass number represents the total sum of protons and neutrons (nucleons) in the nucleus. Because isobars have different atomic numbers, they contain different numbers of protons and thus belong to different elements with distinct chemical properties. The description of atoms having the same atomic number but different mass numbers defines isotopes, which are variants of a single chemical element, rather than isobars. For example, ⁴⁰₁₈Ar, ⁴⁰₁₉K, and ⁴⁰₂₀Ca are isobars because they all share a mass number of 40 despite having different numbers of protons.

97Science and Technology
If the speed of a moving magnet inside a coil increases, the electric current in the coil
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Answer: (A) increases

Explanation

According to Faraday Law of Electromagnetic Induction, the induced electromotive force (EMF) in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux through it, expressed by the formula ε = -N dΦᵦ/dt, where N is the number of turns and Φᵦ is the magnetic flux. When a magnet is moved inside a coil, the movement causes a change in the flux linked with the coil. Increasing the speed of the magnet increases the rate at which the magnetic field lines are cut by the coil, leading to a higher rate of change of flux dΦᵦ/dt. By Ohm Law, the induced current I is determined by I = ε/R, where R is the resistance of the coil. Therefore, a higher induced EMF resulting from the increased speed of the magnet directly leads to an increase in the electric current flowing through the coil.

98Science and Technology
The frequency (in Hz) of a note that is one octave higher than 500 Hz is
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Answer: (C) 1000

Explanation

In acoustics and music theory, an octave is defined as the interval between one musical pitch and another with double its frequency. This relationship is expressed by the formula f₂ = f₁ × 2ⁿ, where f₁ is the fundamental frequency, f₂ is the resulting frequency, and n is the number of octaves. For a note that is exactly one octave higher than the base frequency, n = 1. Applying this to the given frequency of 500 Hz, the calculation is 500 Hz × 2¹, which equals 1000 Hz. This doubling of frequency is consistent throughout the audible spectrum.

99Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India are not correct? 1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India. 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India specifies that the President addresses his resignation to the Vice-President of India, not the Chief Justice. Regarding removal, Article 148(1) provides that the Comptroller and Auditor General shall be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which involves a parliamentary address under Article 124(4); this differs from the impeachment process for the President detailed in Article 61, which is based on the violation of the Constitution and requires a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the House. Furthermore, Article 124(2)(a) dictates that a Judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President, rather than the Chief Justice of India.

100Polity and Governance
Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in
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Answer: (D) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List

Explanation

Under Article 249 of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha possesses the exclusive power to authorize the Parliament to legislate on a subject mentioned in the State List. This is achieved by passing a resolution supported by a special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, stating that such legislation is necessary or expedient in the national interest. Once such a resolution is passed, the Parliament becomes competent to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter for as long as the resolution remains in force, which is typically one year but can be extended. This provision underscores the role of the Rajya Sabha as the representative body of the States, providing a mechanism for the Union to legislate on state subjects without a formal constitutional amendment.

101Economy
The term soil impoverishment relates to which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients

Explanation

Soil impoverishment refers to the depletion of essential soil nutrients and the overall decline in soil fertility. This process occurs when the rate of nutrient removal by crops, leaching, or erosion exceeds the rate of nutrient replacement through natural processes or the application of fertilizers. Over time, the soil becomes deficient in vital elements such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, which are necessary for healthy plant growth and high agricultural productivity. Factors contributing to this condition include intensive monoculture, lack of crop rotation, and the absence of organic matter recycling, all of which exhaust the soil's natural capacity to sustain vegetation.

102Geography
Which one of the following is the correct sequential phase in the successional development of vegetation community in a habitat?
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Answer: (C) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization

Explanation

The successional development of a vegetation community in a habitat follows a specific chronological sequence of stages. It begins with Nudation, which is the development of a bare area devoid of any life forms, often caused by topographic, climatic, or biotic factors. This is followed by Migration, the process by which seeds, spores, or other reproductive propagules from surrounding areas reach the bare site. Once these pioneer species establish themselves and grow, the phase of Reaction occurs, where the vegetation actively modifies the environment by altering soil composition, moisture levels, and light intensity. This sequence eventually leads to Stabilization, also known as the climax stage, where the plant community reaches a state of equilibrium with the regional climate and forms a stable, self-perpetuating ecosystem.

103Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Soil type) (Major characteristic) A. Oxisols 1. Very rich in organic matter B. Vertisols 2. Soil lacking horizons C. Histosols 3. Very old and highly weathered D. Entisols 4. Rich in clay content and highly basic Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Oxisols are highly weathered tropical soils found in stable landscapes where intense leaching over geologic time has left behind resistant iron and aluminum oxides, making them very old and highly weathered. Vertisols are dominated by shrinking and swelling clay minerals, which create deep cracks during dry spells; these soils have high clay content and are typically neutral to highly basic in pH. Histosols consist primarily of organic soil materials, typically forming in waterlogged environments like bogs and swamps where decomposition is inhibited by anaerobic conditions, resulting in a profile very rich in organic matter. Entisols are characterized by the absence of diagnostic pedogenic horizons due to their relative youth, occurrence on unstable surfaces, or parent material resistance, which prevents distinct profile development.

104Geography
Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian Sea?
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Answer: (B) Caucasus

Explanation

The Caucasus Mountains are a major mountain system situated between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea, forming a natural bridge between Europe and Asia. The range stretches approximately 1,200 kilometers from the Taman Peninsula on the Black Sea to the Absheron Peninsula on the Caspian Sea. This geographical positioning makes it the primary physical barrier separating the two bodies of water. The Greater Caucasus range specifically acts as the continental divide, with its peaks creating a distinct watershed and defining the transcontinental boundary in the region.

105Geography
Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called
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Answer: (D) Cherry blossoms

Explanation

Cherry blossoms, also known as blossom showers, are the pre-monsoon thunderstorm rains that occur in Karnataka during the hot weather season. These rains are of great importance to the coffee-growing regions of the state, such as Kodagu and Chikmagalur, as they help in the flowering of coffee plants. Occurring typically in the months of April and May, these showers provide the necessary moisture for the coffee blossoms to appear before the main monsoon season begins. This localized rainfall is a characteristic feature of the climatic pattern in the southern part of the Indian peninsula during the transition from summer to the monsoon.

106Geography
Which one of the following is the largest fresh water lake in India?
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Answer: (D) Wular

Explanation

Wular Lake, situated in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is recognized as the largest freshwater lake in India. The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is primarily fed by the Jhelum River. Its surface area is highly variable, changing with the seasons and water levels from roughly 30 square kilometers to about 260 square kilometers. In 1990, it was designated as a Ramsar site, highlighting its ecological significance as a habitat for migratory birds and its importance to the local economy through its extensive fisheries.

107History
Direction: The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility of India's soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators. Statement II: Ancient India knew the use of manure.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Explanation

Greek travellers, most notably Megasthenes in his work Indica, recorded that India possessed a highly fertile soil and produced two crops a year. He observed that the cultivators were a respected class, dedicated to their work with great skill and energy, which ensured a constant supply of food even during times of war. This high productivity and the perceived ability of the farmers were significantly supported by advanced agricultural practices.

Ancient Indian texts such as Kautilya's Arthashastra, which is contemporary to the early Greek accounts, provide evidence that cultivators understood soil health management. These texts detail the use of various fertilizers and manures, including cow dung, green manure, and bone meal, to maintain the richness of the land. The systematic application of manure is a direct demonstration of the cultivators' ability and a primary reason for the sustained fertility of the soil that so impressed the Greek visitors.

108History
Direction: The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: Non- cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921. Statement II: The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Explanation

The Non-cooperation Movement in Punjab was significantly energized in January 1921 when Lala Lajpat Rai addressed a large gathering of students in Lahore, urging them to boycott government-aided educational institutions. This call led to a widespread student strike and the establishment of national schools and colleges, marking the effective beginning of the movement in the urban centers of the province. During the same period, the Sikh peasantry in the central Punjab countryside was being mobilized by the Akali Movement, which sought to reform the management of Gurdwaras. Although the Akali upsurge was a distinct struggle for religious reform, it became deeply intertwined with the nationalist agitation, and its success in the rural areas provided a massive base for the anti-colonial struggle in Punjab. Both statements are historically accurate descriptions of the two main pillars of the movement in Punjab—urban student activism and rural Sikh mobilization—but the Akali movement in the countryside does not serve as the causal explanation for the student movement led by Lala Lajpat Rai in the cities.

109History
Direction: The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas. Statement II: The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Explanation

The Oudh Kisan Sabha was formed in October 1920 by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra, and other leaders to coordinate the peasant movement in the Awadh region against the oppressive practices of taluqdars and landlords. Statement I is false because the Sabha was highly successful in its organizational outreach; within a month of its inception, over 300 branches had been established across the villages of Awadh, bringing a vast network of local peasant associations under its organizational umbrella. Statement II is true as the Sabha specifically directed peasants to refuse the cultivation of bedakhli land (land from which a tenant had been evicted to enhance rent) and to stop providing hari and begar, which were forms of forced and unpaid labor demanded by the landed elite. It also advocated for the social boycott of oppressive landlords and the use of panchayats to settle disputes.

110History
Direction: The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The United Provinces during Non- Cooperation became one of the strongest bases of the Congress. Statement II: The literary outcrop of Non- Cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Explanation

Statement I is true because the United Provinces emerged as a primary stronghold for the Congress during the Non-Cooperation Movement. This was largely due to the successful integration of peasant grievances with nationalist politics. The Kisan Sabha movement, led by Baba Ramchandra and supported by Jawaharlal Nehru, mobilized the rural masses in regions like Awadh against high rents and illegal cesses, creating a formidable base for the Congress.

Statement II is also true as historians have noted that the cultural and literary productivity in Bengal during the Non-Cooperation period (1920-22) did not match the extraordinary heights reached during the Swadeshi agitation (1905-1911). While Bengal remained politically active through boycotts and strikes, the Swadeshi era had been uniquely defined by a massive explosion of nationalist songs, poetry, and journalism, including iconic works by Rabindranath Tagore and others, which served as a cultural renaissance that was not replicated with the same intensity during the later movement. Since Statement II focuses on the cultural climate of Bengal and Statement I on the political mobilization in the United Provinces, there is no causal relationship between them.

111Art and Culture
Who were Alvars ?
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Answer: (A) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu

Explanation

The Alvars were Tamil poet-saints of South India who lived between the 6th and 9th centuries CE and were deeply devoted to Lord Vishnu. The word Alvar literally translates to one who is immersed in the experience of God. They wandered from temple to temple singing hymns in praise of Vishnu and his various incarnations, such as Krishna and Rama. Their collective works were compiled by Nathamuni in the 10th century into a canon known as the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, which is highly revered and often referred to as the Dravida Veda. There were twelve prominent Alvars, including the famous female saint Andal and the influential poet Nammalvar. Their bhakti movement was instrumental in the cultural and religious revival of Vaishnavism in the Tamil region.

112Science and Technology
Which one of the following is monatomic ?
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Answer: (D) Helium

Explanation

Helium is a member of the noble gases, which are located in Group 18 of the periodic table. These elements possess a completely filled valence electron shell, giving them a highly stable electronic configuration. For helium, this configuration is 1s². Because of this inherent stability, helium atoms have no tendency to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms under standard conditions. Consequently, helium exists as individual atoms rather than molecules, making it a monatomic gas.

113Science and Technology
In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms
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Answer: (B) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array

Explanation

In graphite, each carbon atom is sp² hybridized and forms covalent bonds with three other carbon atoms. These bonds are directed towards the corners of an equilateral triangle within the same plane, with bond angles of 120°. This specific bonding pattern results in the formation of flat layers composed of interconnected hexagonal rings. These planar sheets are then stacked on top of each other, held together by weak van der Waals forces. The arrangement of atoms into these hexagonal patterns within a single plane provides graphite with its characteristic layered structure and unique physical properties such as lubricity and electrical conductivity.

114Science and Technology
Soap solution used for cleaning purpose appears cloudy. This is due to the fact that soap micelles can
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Answer: (B) scatter light

Explanation

Soap molecules in a solution aggregate to form clusters called micelles, where the hydrophobic tails point inwards and the hydrophilic heads point outwards. These micelles are colloidal in size, meaning they are large enough to interfere with the passage of visible light. When light hits these particles, it is deflected in various directions, a phenomenon known as the Tyndall effect. This scattering of light prevents the solution from being perfectly transparent and instead gives it a cloudy or turbid appearance.

115Science and Technology
People prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer season. This is due to the fact that cotton clothes are
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Answer: (A) good absorbers of water

Explanation

Cotton is a natural cellulose fiber with high hygroscopic properties, meaning it can absorb a significant amount of moisture. During the summer, the human body regulates its internal temperature through the secretion of sweat. Cotton fabrics effectively absorb this perspiration from the skin and facilitate its exposure to the atmosphere. The subsequent evaporation of the absorbed sweat requires latent heat, which is extracted from the body, thereby producing a cooling effect and maintaining physical comfort in high temperatures.

116Science and Technology
Employing Chromatography, one cannot separate
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Answer: (A) radio-isotopes

Explanation

Chromatography is a separation technique that depends on the differential partition of substances between a stationary phase and a mobile phase. This separation is driven by chemical characteristics such as polarity, solubility, and molecular affinity. Radio-isotopes are atoms of the same element that share the same chemical properties and electronic configurations. Because their chemical behavior is identical, they do not exhibit the differential affinity required for chromatographic separation. Instead, the separation of isotopes requires physical processes that rely on differences in atomic mass, such as gaseous diffusion, centrifugal separation, or electromagnetic methods.

117Science and Technology
Consider the following statement: Atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass. Who among the following scientists has made the above statement ?
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Answer: (B) Henry Moseley

Explanation

In 1913, the British physicist Henry Moseley performed experiments where he bombarded various elements with high-energy electrons and measured the frequencies of the resulting X-ray emissions. He discovered a systematic mathematical relationship, known as Moseley's Law, which showed that the square root of the frequency of the emitted X-rays (√ν) is directly proportional to the atomic number (Z) of the element. This discovery provided a physical basis for the atomic number and proved that it represents the number of positive charges (protons) in the nucleus. Consequently, Moseley established that the atomic number is a more fundamental property for characterizing an element than its atomic mass, leading to the reorganization of the periodic table based on increasing atomic number.

118Science and Technology
Which one of the following acids is also known as Vitamin C ?
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Answer: (B) Ascorbic acid

Explanation

Vitamin C is a water-soluble, essential micronutrient chemically identified as L-ascorbic acid (C₆H₈O₆). It is a six-carbon compound structurally related to glucose. Its acidic properties are derived from the hydroxyl groups on its enediol moiety, which can readily donate protons. Ascorbic acid functions as a powerful antioxidant and serves as a vital cofactor for several enzymatic reactions, including those necessary for the synthesis of collagen, carnitine, and catecholamines. Because the human body lacks the enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase, it cannot synthesize ascorbic acid internally and must acquire it through dietary sources such as citrus fruits, berries, and green leafy vegetables to prevent conditions like scurvy.

119Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not found in animal cells ?
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Answer: (D) Cell wall

Explanation

The cell wall is a structural layer surrounding the cell membrane that provides rigidity, support, and protection to cells in plants, fungi, and bacteria, but it is not found in animal cells. Animal cells are enclosed only by a flexible plasma membrane, which allows them to adopt various shapes and facilitates the complex movements and cellular interactions required for animal physiology. This absence of a rigid external wall is a fundamental characteristic of the kingdom Animalia, enabling the development of specialized tissues like muscles and nerves that depend on cellular flexibility and mobility.

120Science and Technology
Marsilea, Fern and Horse-tail are examples of which one of the following plant groups ?
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Answer: (A) Pteridophyta

Explanation

Marsilea, Ferns, and Horse-tails belong to the Pteridophyta group. These plants are characterized by a well-differentiated plant body consisting of true roots, stems, and leaves. They are the first terrestrial plants to have evolved vascular tissues, namely xylem and phloem, for the conduction of water and minerals. Pteridophytes are seedless vascular plants that reproduce via spores produced within sporangia. This group represents an evolutionary link between the non-vascular bryophytes and the seed-bearing spermatophytes, with the sporophyte being the dominant phase of their life cycle.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2D
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5D
  6. 6B
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16B
  17. 17A
  18. 18B
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21A
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26D
  27. 27B
  28. 28D
  29. 29D
  30. 30C
  31. 31A
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34A
  35. 35B
  36. 36D
  37. 37A
  38. 38D
  39. 39A
  40. 40D
  41. 41A
  42. 42A
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48C
  49. 49D
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52C
  53. 53A
  54. 54D
  55. 55D
  56. 56B
  57. 57B
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60A
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65C
  66. 66C
  67. 67D
  68. 68D
  69. 69C
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74B
  75. 75C
  76. 76C
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81B
  82. 82D
  83. 83C
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89C
  90. 90C
  91. 91C
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94B
  95. 95B
  96. 96B
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99D
  100. 100D
  101. 101C
  102. 102C
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105D
  106. 106D
  107. 107A
  108. 108B
  109. 109D
  110. 110B
  111. 111A
  112. 112D
  113. 113B
  114. 114B
  115. 115A
  116. 116A
  117. 117B
  118. 118B
  119. 119D
  120. 120A

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