Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?
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Answer: (B) Caesium
Explanation
Atomic clocks utilize the resonance frequencies of atoms as a frequency standard to keep time with extreme precision. The International System of Units (SI) defines the second based on the oscillations of the caesium-133 atom. Specifically, one second is the duration of 9,192,631,770 periods of the radiation corresponding to the transition between the two hyperfine levels of the ground state of the caesium-133 atom at a temperature of 0 K. Caesium is used for this purpose because its single valence electron transitions provide a very stable and measurable microwave frequency, making it the global standard for primary timekeeping and synchronization in technologies such as Global Positioning Systems (GPS) and telecommunications networks.
2Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?
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Answer: (A) Potassium
Explanation
Potassium is the primary intracellular cation in the human body and is essential for maintaining osmotic pressure and fluid balance across cell membranes. It works in conjunction with sodium to regulate the distribution of water between the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments. The concentration of potassium in the blood is closely monitored by the kidneys and the endocrine system; for instance, high levels of potassium trigger the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone then acts on the renal tubules to promote the reabsorption of sodium and water while excreting potassium, thereby directly influencing the overall water content and volume of the blood. Through these mechanisms of osmoregulation, potassium plays a fundamental role in systemic fluid homeostasis.
3Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?
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Answer: (A) Carbon dioxide
Explanation
Carbon dioxide is an acidic oxide of carbon. When it dissolves in water, it reacts chemically to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), a weak acid. The chemical reaction is represented by the equilibrium CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃. In the aqueous solution, carbonic acid partially dissociates into hydrogen ions (H⁺) and bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻), which increases the concentration of hydrogen ions and lowers the pH of the solution. This property is responsible for the natural acidity of rainwater and the sharp taste in carbonated beverages.
4Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?
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Answer: (C) Magnesium
Explanation
Magnesium is the central metallic element in the chlorophyll molecule, which is the primary pigment used by plants for photosynthesis. It is located at the center of the porphyrin ring structure of the molecule, coordinated with four nitrogen atoms. This specific structural role makes magnesium indispensable for the synthesis and functional integrity of chlorophyll. If magnesium is deficient, plants cannot produce sufficient chlorophyll and develop chlorosis, a condition characterized by the yellowing of leaves and a significant reduction in photosynthetic capacity.
5Science and Technology
Consider the following chemical reaction:
aFe₂O₃(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + dCO₂
In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3, 2, 3
Explanation
To balance the chemical equation aFe₂O₃(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + dCO₂(g), we must ensure the number of atoms of each element is identical on both the reactant and product sides.
We can establish algebraic relationships for each element:
For Iron (Fe): 2a = c
For Carbon (C): b = d
For Oxygen (O): 3a + b = 2d
Substituting b for d in the oxygen equation results in 3a + b = 2b, which simplifies to b = 3a. To find the smallest whole-number coefficients, we set a = 1. This yields b = 3. Since b = d, we find d = 3. Using the iron relationship, c = 2a, so c = 2(1) = 2.
Applying these coefficients to the reaction:
1Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
On the left side, there are 2 iron atoms, 3 carbon atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms (3 from Fe₂O₃ and 3 from CO). On the right side, there are 2 iron atoms, 3 carbon atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms (from 3 molecules of CO₂). The atoms are perfectly balanced with the values a=1, b=3, c=2, d=3.
6Science and Technology
Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?
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Answer: (A) To increase the life of the bulb
Explanation
The tungsten filament in an electric bulb operates at extremely high temperatures to produce visible light. In a vacuum, tungsten atoms evaporate relatively quickly from the surface of the filament, which leads to two problems: the filament becomes thinner until it breaks, and the evaporated tungsten deposits on the inner glass surface, darkening the bulb. Argon is an chemically inert gas that does not react with the hot tungsten. When the bulb is filled with argon, the gas molecules collide with the evaporating tungsten atoms and knock them back toward the filament. This pressure-induced suppression of evaporation significantly slows down the degradation of the filament, thereby extending the operational life of the bulb.
7Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (t꜀) ?
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Answer: (D) T = t꜀ + 273.15
Explanation
The relationship between the Kelvin scale and the Celsius scale is defined by an additive offset because both scales use the same unit magnitude for a temperature interval. By international convention, absolute zero is defined as 0 K, which corresponds to -273.15°C. Consequently, the freezing point of water at standard pressure, which is 0°C, corresponds to 273.15 K. The conversion formula is expressed as T = t꜀ + 273.15, where T represents the temperature in Kelvin and t꜀ represents the temperature in degrees Celsius.
8Science and Technology
Sound waves cannot travel through a
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Answer: (D) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum
Explanation
Sound waves are mechanical longitudinal waves that require a material medium such as a solid, liquid, or gas for their propagation. These waves travel through the periodic vibration of particles within the medium, transferring energy from one point to another via successive compressions and rarefactions. A vacuum represents a space entirely devoid of matter. Because there are no atoms or molecules present in a vacuum to vibrate and transmit mechanical energy, sound waves cannot propagate through it. While sound can travel through solids like wood, the absence of a surrounding medium in a vacuum prevents the transmission of sound to or from the object.
9Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?
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Answer: (A) 10⁻⁷ cm
Explanation
The prefix nano- represents a factor of 10⁻⁹ in the International System of Units (SI). Therefore, 1 nanometer (nm) is equal to 10⁻⁹ meters. To convert this value into centimeters, we use the relationship that 1 meter is equal to 100 centimeters, or 10² cm.
The calculation is as follows:
1 nm = 10⁻⁹ m
1 m = 10² cm
1 nm = 10⁻⁹ × 10² cm = 10⁻⁷ cm
By applying the laws of exponents, 10⁻⁹ · 10² = 10⁻⁹⁺² = 10⁻⁷. Thus, one nanometer is equivalent to 10⁻⁷ centimeters.
10Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium.
2. The momentum of a body is always conserved.
3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 only
Explanation
Mechanical equilibrium for a body requires that both the net external force and the net external torque (moment) acting on it are zero. The condition Σ M = 0 ensures that there is no change in the rotational state of the body. Linear momentum p is not always conserved; it changes whenever a net external force F acts on the body, as governed by Newton's Second Law F = dp/dt. Similarly, the kinetic energy of an object is not always conserved and changes whenever net work is done on the object, as stated by the Work-Energy Theorem Wₙₑₜ = ΔK. In most real-world scenarios, kinetic energy is lost to heat, sound, or deformation during interactions. Therefore, only the first statement regarding the absence of a net moment in equilibrium is universally true.
11Science and Technology
Working of safety fuses depends upon
1. magnetic effect of the current
2. chemical effect of the current
3. magnitude of the current
4. heating effect of the current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The working of a safety fuse is based on the Joule heating effect of electric current, which is expressed by the formula H = I²Rt. In this relation, H is the heat produced, I is the magnitude of the current, R is the resistance of the fuse wire, and t is the time for which the current flows. A safety fuse consists of a wire with a low melting point that remains intact under normal operating conditions. However, when the magnitude of the current flowing through the circuit exceeds the specified safety limit or rating of the fuse, the heat generated increases significantly. This heat raises the temperature of the fuse wire until it reaches its melting point, causing the wire to melt and break the circuit. This interruption stops the flow of electricity and protects the electrical appliances from damage caused by overcurrent or short circuits. Therefore, the functioning of a fuse depends on both the magnitude of the current and the heating effect it generates.
12Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.
Statement II :
Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is correct because sinkholes, also known as dolines, are the most fundamental and frequently occurring topographic features in Karst landscapes. They are produced through the chemical weathering process of carbonation, where slightly acidic rainwater dissolves soluble carbonate rocks such as limestone or dolomite, leading to surface subsidence or the collapse of underground caverns.
Statement II is also correct as it accurately describes the physical dimensions of these landforms. Sinkholes are closed depressions that vary widely in scale, ranging from small pits less than a meter deep to massive vertical shafts or wide basins several hundred meters in depth and diameter. While both statements are factual observations regarding Karst topography, the morphological description provided in Statement II does not serve as a causal explanation for the high frequency or prevalence of sinkholes mentioned in Statement I.
13Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.
Statement II :
Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Explanation
Incised or entrenched meanders are specific landforms resulting from the rejuvenation of a river system. In the normal geomorphic cycle, the mature stage of a river is characterized by a decrease in gradient, a dominance of lateral erosion over vertical erosion, and the formation of broad floodplains. While meandering is a typical feature of the mature stage, the process of incision—where a river cuts deep, narrow V-shaped trenches into the bedrock while maintaining its meandering path—requires a significant increase in vertical erosive power.
This increase in vertical erosion occurs during rejuvenation, which is triggered by the tectonic upliftment of the land or a fall in the base level (sea level). When this happens, a river that was already meandering begins to downcut rapidly into the underlying strata. Consequently, incised meanders are associated with active vertical incision due to uplift rather than the standard lateral erosion of the mature stage. This makes Statement I incorrect and Statement II correct.
14Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.
Statement II :
The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
Glacial troughs, commonly characterized as U-shaped valleys, frequently exhibit remarkably flat floors in various segments. This flatness is generally not a direct result of uniform glacial erosion, as glaciers tend to erode the landscape unevenly, creating rock basins, steps, and an irregular bedrock profile based on variations in ice thickness, velocity, and rock resistance. Instead, the flat floor is typically a post-glacial depositional feature. As glaciers retreat, the deep troughs they leave behind are often filled with thick layers of glacio-fluvial outwash, alluvium from post-glacial streams, or fine-grained sediments deposited in proglacial lakes. These sedimentary accumulations bury the irregular bedrock floor, resulting in the level, flat surfaces observed today.
15Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I:
In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.
Statement II:
Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The Tundra climate, found in high-latitude regions, is characterized by extreme cold, permafrost, and very low precipitation. These harsh environmental conditions limit the number of species that can survive and adapt, resulting in low biodiversity compared to tropical or temperate regions.
The primary factor driving this low biodiversity is the extremely short growing season. The reproductive warm period in the Tundra is very brief, often lasting only 50 to 60 days during the summer when temperatures rise above freezing. This limited timeframe restricts the ability of many plant species to complete their life cycles, flower, and produce seeds, which in turn limits the food supply and habitat for a wide variety of animals. Therefore, the lack of an extended warm period for reproduction and growth is a direct cause of the diminished biodiversity in this biome.
16Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.
Statement II :
The Earth rotates from west to east.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is factually correct as tides are the periodic rise and fall of the ocean's surface caused by the spatial variation in the gravitational attraction of the Moon and the Sun acting upon the Earth, along with the centrifugal force generated by the Earth's rotation. These combined forces create tidal bulges, and as the Earth rotates, different locations pass through these bulges, experiencing high and low tides. Statement II is also a true geographical fact, noting that the Earth rotates on its axis from west to east, which is why the Sun and Moon appear to rise in the east and set in the west. While the rotation mentioned in Statement I is characterized by the direction mentioned in Statement II, the specific direction of rotation is not the causal explanation for the existence of the tidal forces themselves. Therefore, both statements are individually true, but Statement II does not explain the physical mechanism provided in Statement I.
17Science and Technology
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.
Statement II :
Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Tuberculosis is a highly infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is primarily an airborne disease, meaning the bacteria are expelled into the surrounding air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, speaks, or spits. Statement II accurately describes this mode of transmission through respiratory droplets. Because the bacteria can remain suspended in the air for several hours, individuals in crowded or poorly ventilated spaces are at a much higher risk of inhaling these contaminated droplets from an infected person. Therefore, the mechanism of droplet transmission explained in Statement II directly accounts for why frequenting crowded places as mentioned in Statement I increases the likelihood of suffering from the disease.
18Geography
Directions : The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code :
Statement I :
Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism.
Statement II :
Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Bioaccumulation is the process by which chemicals or pollutants are taken up by an organism at a rate faster than they can be metabolized or excreted, leading to a progressive increase in the concentration of the substance within the organism's tissues over its lifespan. This process primarily depends on the lipophilic nature of the substance and the physiological characteristics of the organism. Statement I is therefore a scientifically accurate definition.
Statement II describes biomagnification, which is the increase in the concentration of persistent, fat-soluble toxins as they move up the food chain through successive trophic levels. In a pond ecosystem, pesticides initially absorbed by planktons become increasingly concentrated in the larger predatory fishes that consume organisms from lower trophic levels. While both statements are individually true, Statement II describes a consequence of these processes across a food web rather than providing the causal mechanism or explanation for the individual-level process of bioaccumulation defined in Statement I.
19Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?
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Answer: (D) Flying fish
Explanation
Flying fish belong to the family Exocoetidae within the class Actinopterygii, which comprises the ray-finned fishes. In the biological system of classification, true fishes are cold-blooded aquatic vertebrates that breathe through gills and possess fins and scales. Flying fish meet all these criteria as members of the superclass Pisces and the phylum Chordata. They are specifically known for their modified pectoral fins, which allow them to glide over the water surface to escape predators, but taxonomically, they are teleost fishes. Unlike many other organisms with fish in their common names, flying fish possess a backbone and a complex skeletal structure characteristic of true bony fishes.
20Science and Technology
In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?
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Answer: (A) Adipocyte
Explanation
Adipocytes are the primary cells that compose adipose tissue, a specialized type of loose connective tissue found throughout the animal body. The main function of these cells is to store energy in the form of triglycerides within a large central lipid droplet. In white adipose tissue, this fat droplet occupies most of the cell volume, displacing the cytoplasm and nucleus to the edge of the cell. Beyond acting as an energy reservoir, these fat-storing tissues provide essential thermal insulation to maintain body temperature and serve as a mechanical cushion to protect vital organs from injury.
21Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Nereis : Pseudopodia
Explanation
Nereis is a genus of polychaete worms belonging to the phylum Annelida. Its primary organs for locomotion are parapodia, which are paired, lateral, fleshy appendages used for both swimming and crawling. Pseudopodia, or false feet, are temporary cytoplasmic protrusions used for movement and feeding by certain unicellular protozoans like Amoeba and are not found in multicellular organisms like Nereis.
22Science and Technology
Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?
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Answer: (C) Golgi bodies
Explanation
The Golgi bodies (or Golgi apparatus) are responsible for the formation of lysosomes through a process of packaging and budding. Hydrolytic enzymes intended for lysosomes are synthesized by ribosomes on the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and then transported to the Golgi bodies. Within the Golgi complex, these enzymes undergo further modification and sorting. They are specifically tagged with mannose-6-phosphate molecules, which ensures they are directed into the correct vesicles. These vesicles then pinch off from the trans-face of the Golgi apparatus to become primary lysosomes.
23Science and Technology
A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?
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Answer: (C) 4
Explanation
To reach the inner thylakoid space from a ribosome bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), a protein must cross several distinct biological membranes. Each of these membranes is a phospholipid bilayer, often referred to as a double-layered membrane.
The protein first undergoes co-translational translocation, where it passes through the ER membrane to enter the ER lumen. From the ER, the protein is transported to the chloroplast. To enter the chloroplast, it must pass through the chloroplast envelope, which consists of two separate lipid bilayers: the outer chloroplast membrane and the inner chloroplast membrane. After entering the chloroplast stroma, the protein must then cross the thylakoid membrane to reach its final destination, the inner thylakoid space (lumen).
The total number of membrane crossings is as follows:
Endoplasmic Reticulum membrane (1)
Outer Chloroplast membrane (1)
Inner Chloroplast membrane (1)
Thylakoid membrane (1)
Summing these gives a total of 4 double-layered membrane layers.
24Geography
Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?
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Answer: (C) Expansion and compression of the air
Explanation
Adiabatic temperature changes occur when the temperature of a gas changes without any exchange of heat with the surrounding environment. This process is primarily driven by the expansion and compression of air parcels as they move vertically through different pressure levels in the atmosphere. According to the first law of thermodynamics, dQ = dU + dW, where dQ is the heat added, dU is the change in internal energy, and dW is the work done. In an adiabatic process, dQ = 0, so dU = -dW. When an air parcel rises, it encounters lower atmospheric pressure and expands. To expand, the parcel performs work on its surroundings, which consumes its internal energy and leads to a drop in temperature. Conversely, when an air parcel descends, it is compressed by the increasing pressure of the surrounding atmosphere. Work is done on the parcel, which increases its internal energy and results in a rise in temperature.
25Geography
Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?
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Answer: (A) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
Explanation
The collision-coalescence process is the primary mechanism for precipitation formation in warm clouds, which are clouds that exist entirely at temperatures above 0°C and therefore do not extend beyond the freezing level. In these clouds, droplets of varying sizes exist due to the presence of different types of cloud condensation nuclei. Because larger droplets have a higher terminal velocity than smaller ones, they fall faster through the cloud, colliding with smaller droplets in their path. Upon impact, these droplets merge or coalesce, increasing the mass of the falling drop. This process continues until the drops become heavy enough to overcome updrafts and fall to the ground as rain. This mechanism is particularly dominant in tropical maritime air masses where cloud tops remain below the freezing level.
26Geography
Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?
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Answer: (B) Leh
Explanation
During the winter season, the temperature in Northern India and the Trans-Himalayan region drops significantly as the sun moves towards the Southern Hemisphere. Atmospheric pressure is inversely proportional to temperature; as the air cools, it becomes denser and heavier, leading to increased pressure.
Leh, located in the Ladakh region, experiences the lowest temperatures among the given options, often plummeting to -20°C or lower. This extreme cold results in the formation of a high-pressure cell over the region. In meteorological terms, when pressures are reduced to Mean Sea Level (MSL) to compare different locations, the coldest areas exhibit the highest atmospheric pressure. The presence of this high-pressure center in the north and the Trans-Himalayas drives the offshore North-East monsoon winds across the Indian subcontinent toward the relatively lower pressure areas over the surrounding oceans.
27Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Hypothesis/Theory) (Proponent)
A. Planetesimal hypothesis
1. Kober
B. Thermal contraction
2. Chamberlin theory
C. Geosynclinal Orogen
3. Daly theory
D. Hypothesis of sliding
4. Jeffreys continent
Code:
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 4 1 3
Explanation
The Planetesimal hypothesis was formulated by Thomas Chrowder Chamberlin and Forest Ray Moulton to explain the formation of the solar system through the accretion of small solid particles called planetesimals. Harold Jeffreys proposed the Thermal contraction theory, which posits that the Earth is cooling and shrinking over time, causing its crust to wrinkle and form mountain ranges. Leopold Kober developed the Geosynclinal Orogen theory, describing how mountain building occurs through the compression and folding of sediments within long, narrow, sinking marine troughs known as geosynclines. The Hypothesis of sliding continents was advanced by Reginald Aldworth Daly, who suggested that gravitational forces cause large continental masses to slide over the underlying layers of the Earth, contributing to the formation of major mountain chains and tectonic features. These associations correctly match A with 2, B with 4, C with 1, and D with 3.
28Science and Technology
Bright light is found to emit from photographer's flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?
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Answer: (B) Xenon
Explanation
Xenon is the noble gas used in electronic flash lamps and strobe lights because it emits an intense, brilliant white light when an electric discharge is passed through it. The spectral output of a xenon flash tube closely mimics the continuous spectrum of natural daylight, which is essential for photographers to achieve accurate color balance in their images. These flashguns work by storing energy in a capacitor and then releasing it rapidly through the xenon gas, causing the atoms to become excited and emit a high-intensity pulse of light in a fraction of a second.
29Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?
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Answer: (A) Composition is variable.
Explanation
Compounds are substances formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements in a definite and fixed proportion by mass, as governed by the Law of Constant Proportions. This means that a specific compound always contains the same elements in the exact same ratio regardless of its source or method of preparation. For instance, a molecule of water (H₂O) always contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom chemically bonded together. Because this ratio is chemically fixed, the composition of a compound is never variable.
30Science and Technology
Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?
1. Mg(HCO₃)₂
2. Ca(HCO₃)₂
3. CaCl₂
4. MgSO₄
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
Temporary hardness in water is specifically caused by the presence of dissolved bicarbonate minerals, namely calcium bicarbonate Ca(HCO₃)₂ and magnesium bicarbonate Mg(HCO₃)₂. This type of hardness is termed temporary because it can be easily removed by boiling the water. When heated, these soluble bicarbonates decompose into insoluble carbonates or hydroxides, such as calcium carbonate CaCO₃ and magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)₂, which precipitate out as a solid scale. The chemical reaction for calcium bicarbonate is Ca(HCO₃)₂ → CaCO₃ ↓ + H₂O + CO₂. Because substances 1 and 2 are the bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium, they are the specific agents responsible for the temporary hardness of water.
31Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?
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Answer: (D) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons
Explanation
Isobars are atoms of different chemical elements that possess the same mass number A but different atomic numbers Z. The mass number is determined by the formula A = p + n, where p represents the number of protons and n represents the number of neutrons. Since the calcium atom in the question has a mass number of 40, any isobar of this atom must also have a mass number of 40. An element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons results in a mass number A = 18 + 22 = 40. Because this element has a different atomic number (Z = 18) than calcium (Z = 20) but shares the same mass number, it is classified as an isobar.
32Science and Technology
Which of the following represents a relation for 'heat lost = heat gained'?
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Answer: (C) Principle of calorimetry
Explanation
The principle of calorimetry, often referred to as the law of mixtures, is a direct application of the law of conservation of energy. It states that in an isolated system where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings, the heat energy lost by a hot body is equal to the heat energy gained by a cold body when they are brought into thermal contact. Mathematically, this is expressed as Qₗₒₛₜ = Q𝓰ₐᵢₙₑ₀. For two substances with masses m₁ and m₂, specific heat capacities c₁ and c₂, and initial temperatures T₁ and T₂ reaching an equilibrium temperature T, the relation is m₁c₁(T₁ - T) = m₂c₂(T - T₂). This principle is the fundamental basis for measuring heat changes and determining the specific heat capacity of substances using a calorimeter.
33Science and Technology
Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R . If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes
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Answer: (C) 5/4 R
Explanation
The resistance of a metallic wire is given by the formula R = ρ L/A = ρ L/(πr²), where ρ is the resistivity, L is the length, A is the cross-sectional area, and r is the radius. Since both wires are made of copper and have the same length, the resistance is inversely proportional to the square of the radius, R ∝ 1/r².
Given that the radius of wire 1 (r₁) is half that of wire 2 (r₂), we have r₂ = 2r₁. The resistance of wire 1 is R₁ = R. We can express the resistance of wire 2 as:
R₂ = ρ L/(πr₂²) = ρ L/(π(2r₁)²) = 1/4 (ρ L/(πr₁²))
Substituting R₁ = R into this expression, we get R₂ = R/4. When two resistors are joined in series, the total resistance is the sum of their individual resistances. Therefore, the total resistance is:
Rₜₒₜₐₗ = R₁ + R₂ = R + R/4 = 5/4 R
34Science and Technology
When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is
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Answer: (D) scattering of light
Explanation
The reddish appearance of the Sun near the horizon is caused by Rayleigh scattering. According to Rayleigh's law, the intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength, given by I ∝ 1/λ⁴. During sunrise and sunset, sunlight travels through a much thicker layer of the Earth's atmosphere compared to when it is overhead. As the light passes through this extended path, shorter wavelengths like blue and violet are scattered away in all directions by atmospheric molecules and small particles. Because red light has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum, it is scattered the least. Consequently, the light that reaches the observer's eyes is predominantly composed of longer wavelengths, making the Sun and the surrounding sky appear red or orange.
35Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Cloud) (Characteristic)
A. Cirrus
1. Rain-giving
B. Stratus
2. Feathery appearance
C. Nimbus
3. Vertically growing
D. Cumulus
4. Horizontally spreading
Code :
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Answer: (C) A B C D 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes and are composed of ice crystals, which gives them a distinctively thin, wispy, and feathery appearance. Stratus clouds are low-level clouds that appear as large, uniform, and featureless layers covering the sky, indicating they are horizontally spreading in nature. Nimbus clouds are dense, dark clouds that typically bring continuous precipitation, as the Latin word nimbus translates to rain-cloud. Cumulus clouds are characterized by their heaped, cotton-wool-like shape with flat bases and rounded tops, formed through convection which results in significant vertical growing within the atmosphere.
36Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
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Answer: (D) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables
Explanation
Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area where the coastal state has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing natural resources, whether living or non-living. However, these rights do not extend to total control over all maritime activities. According to Article 58 of UNCLOS, all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the freedoms of navigation and overflight, as well as the freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines within the EEZ of another nation. Because these activities are considered international freedoms of the high seas that persist within the EEZ, they are not exclusive rights of the coastal nation.
37Geography
In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?
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Answer: (C) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
Explanation
The Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project was initiated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) with support from the World Bank to promote sustainable management of Indias coastal and marine resources. The pilot phase of this project, managed by the Society for Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM), was specifically implemented in the states of Gujarat, Odisha, and West Bengal. These states were selected for pilot investments to develop and demonstrate the methodologies required for integrated planning and management of coastal areas. Key components included the demarcation of the hazard line, the establishment of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), and state-level investments such as conservation of mangroves, coastal erosion control, and livelihood improvement for coastal communities in specific stretches like the Gulf of Kachchh, the Odisha coast, and the Sundarbans.
38Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?
1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The National Water Academy (NWA) was established by the Ministry of Water Resources under the Central Water Commission (CWC) to serve as a premier national-level institution for capacity building in the water sector. Its primary objective is to function as a Centre of Excellence for training in-service engineers and professionals from Central and State government organizations, as well as other stakeholders, in all aspects of water resource planning, development, and management. While the Central Water Commission is headquartered in New Delhi, the National Water Academy itself is located in Khadakwasla, Pune, Maharashtra. The academy conducts specialized programs covering technical, social, and environmental dimensions of water management to ensure the sustainable development of India's water resources.
39Science and Technology
A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P . If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be
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Answer: (C) > P
Explanation
Power dissipated in a conductor is given by the formula P = I²R. The resistance R of a wire is determined by the expression R = ρ l/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material, l is the length, and A is the cross-sectional area. By substituting R into the power equation, we obtain P = I² ρ l/A. Given that the current I, length l, and area A are constant for both wires, the power dissipation is directly proportional to the resistivity of the material (P ∝ ρ). Aluminium possesses a higher electrical resistivity than copper; the resistivity of aluminium is approximately 2.65 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m, whereas that of copper is approximately 1.68 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m. Therefore, because the aluminium wire has a higher resistivity, it will have a higher resistance than the copper wire of identical dimensions, resulting in a power dissipation greater than P.
40Science and Technology
The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P₀ + ρgh , where ρ is the fluid density. This expression is associated with
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Answer: (A) Pascal's law
Explanation
Pascal's law states that any pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of the containing vessel. A fundamental consequence of this principle in a static fluid is that the pressure increases linearly with depth. The expression P = P₀ + ρgh quantifies this, where P is the total pressure at depth h, P₀ is the pressure at the surface, and the term ρgh represents the hydrostatic pressure exerted by the weight of the fluid column above that point. This relationship describes how the external pressure P₀ is transmitted through the fluid and combined with the weight of the fluid to determine the total pressure at any given level.
41Geography
Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere :
1. Argon
2. Neon
3. Helium
4. Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?
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Answer: (C) 4-2-3-1
Explanation
The approximate volume percentages of these gases in the atmosphere are: Argon (1) ≈ 0.934%, Carbon dioxide (4) ≈ 0.04%, Neon (2) ≈ 0.0018%, and Helium (3) ≈ 0.00052%. In ascending order of volume percentage: Helium → Neon → Carbon dioxide → Argon, corresponding to the sequence 3-2-4-1. Among the given options, (c) correctly identifies Argon as the most abundant of these four gases.
42Geography
Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population?
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Answer: (A) Mizoram
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census of India, Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to its total population among all Indian states, with approximately 94.4% of its residents identified as belonging to tribal communities. The demographic profile of the state is characterized by a significant majority of indigenous ethnic groups, predominantly the Mizos, who are legally recognized as Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution of India. This exceptionally high proportion makes Mizoram the most concentrated state in terms of tribal population percentage.
43Geography
Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains?
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Answer: (D) Himalayas
Explanation
The Himalayas are the result of a continent-continent collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. Unlike subduction zones where an oceanic plate slides beneath a continental plate, this collision involves two thick, buoyant continental masses. The absence of an ongoing subducting oceanic slab means there is no significant flux melting to generate large volumes of magma. Furthermore, the continental crust in the Himalayan region is exceptionally thick, reaching up to 70 to 80 kilometers. This immense thickness prevents any magma generated at depth from migrating all the way to the surface to form extrusive volcanoes. Instead, the igneous activity in the Himalayas is characterized by intrusive formations, such as leucogranites, which cool and solidify deep within the crust without erupting.
44Geography
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?
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Answer: (D) Ling nut
Explanation
Ling nut, also known as the water chestnut or Singhara, is an aquatic plant that grows in shallow freshwater bodies such as lakes, ponds, and marshes. In the Kashmir Valley, it is primarily harvested from water bodies like the Wular Lake. Karewas are elevated tablelands or plateaus composed of lacustrine deposits of clay, sand, and silt, providing a terrestrial environment with specific drainage properties. Because Ling nut requires a completely submerged aquatic habitat to thrive, it is not suitable for cultivation in the soil-based highland formations of the Karewas.
45Geography
Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :
1. Gandak
2. Kosi
3. Ghaghara
4. Gomti
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?
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Answer: (B) 2-1-3-4
Explanation
The spatial distribution of the left-bank tributaries of the Ganga follows a distinct longitudinal pattern. The Kosi River is the easternmost among the listed tributaries, originating in the Himalayas and joining the Ganga in the Katihar district of Bihar. Moving westward, the Gandak River flows through the Indo-Nepal border and the Valmiki National Park before meeting the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna. Further to the west is the Ghaghara River, which originates from the Mapchachungo glacier and joins the Ganga near Chhapra. The Gomti River, an alluvial river originating from the Gomat Taal in Pilibhit, is located the furthest west among these four, joining the Ganga near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh. Therefore, the correct sequence from east to west is Kosi (2), Gandak (1), Ghaghara (3), and Gomti (4).
46Geography
Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?
1. Keoladeo National Park
2. Sundarbans National Park
3. Kaziranga National Park
4. Ranthambore National Park
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage list in 1985 because it is a man-made wetland of international importance and serves as a major wintering ground for a vast number of migratory waterfowl. Kaziranga National Park in Assam was designated in 1985 as it represents an outstanding example of ongoing ecological and biological processes and provides a critical habitat for the world's largest population of the Great Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros. Sundarbans National Park in West Bengal was added to the list in 1987 for hosting the world's largest area of mangrove forests and maintaining a unique ecosystem that supports endangered species such as the Royal Bengal Tiger. These three sites meet UNESCO's natural criteria for their significant biological diversity and conservation value.
47Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Railway Zone) (Headquarters)
A. North Central
1. Secunderabad
B. North Eastern
2. Jabalpur
C. West Central
3. Gorakhpur
D. South Central
4. Allahabad
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Answer: (A) A B C D 4 3 2 1
Explanation
North Central Railway (NCR) is headquartered at Allahabad (now Prayagraj); it was inaugurated in 2003 to manage the high-density traffic along the Golden Quadrilateral. North Eastern Railway (NER), headquartered at Gorakhpur, serves as a vital transport link for the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Uttarakhand. West Central Railway (WCR) has its headquarters at Jabalpur and was established in 2003 by reorganizing sections of the Central and Western Railways. South Central Railway (SCR) is headquartered at Secunderabad and covers a vast network across the Deccan plateau, primarily serving the states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Maharashtra.
48Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?
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Answer: (A) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.
Explanation
Lymph is formed when blood plasma filters out from the thin-walled blood capillaries into the interstitial spaces between tissue cells due to hydrostatic pressure. This extravasated fluid, known as interstitial or tissue fluid, carries nutrients and oxygen to the cells. While the majority of this fluid is reabsorbed back into the venous end of the capillaries, the remaining portion, which includes leaked proteins and metabolic waste, enters the lymphatic capillaries. Once this fluid enters the lymphatic system, it is called lymph. It serves as a vital medium for returning escaped fluid and proteins back to the bloodstream, ensuring the maintenance of fluid balance within the body.
49Science and Technology
Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?
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Answer: (B) Amphibia and Reptilia
Explanation
Amphibians and reptiles are characterized by having a three-chambered heart, which consists of two atria and one ventricle. In amphibians, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs or skin, while the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body. Both atria empty into a single ventricle where some mixing of blood occurs before it is pumped to the respiratory organs and the rest of the body. Similarly, most reptiles possess a three-chambered heart with two atria and a ventricle that is partially partitioned by an incomplete septum. This partial division helps to further reduce the mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood compared to the amphibian heart. Although crocodilians are an exception within the class Reptilia as they possess a fully four-chambered heart, the general anatomical standard for the classes Amphibia and Reptilia is the three-chambered configuration.
50Science and Technology
Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?
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Answer: (A) Lactic acid
Explanation
During high-intensity physical activities like sprinting, the oxygen demand of the muscles exceeds the available supply. To compensate, muscle cells perform anaerobic respiration, where glucose is partially broken down to produce energy. The chemical process follows the simplified equation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₃H₆O₃ + 2 ATP. The resulting lactic acid accumulates in the muscle tissue, causing a decrease in local pH and interfering with muscle fiber contractions. This metabolic buildup is the primary factor responsible for muscle fatigue and the occurrence of cramps during or immediately after strenuous exercise.
51Economy
Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.
Explanation
Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are structured to provide higher liquidity and lower costs compared to traditional mutual funds. Because ETFs trade on stock exchanges like individual shares, they offer intraday liquidity, allowing investors to buy and sell them at market prices throughout the trading day. In contrast, mutual fund shares can only be redeemed at the end of the day at the closing Net Asset Value (NAV).
Furthermore, ETFs typically have lower fees because they are generally passively managed—they aim to track the performance of a specific index rather than outperforming it through active stock picking. This reduces management costs and administrative expenses (expense ratios) significantly. Mutual funds, particularly those that are actively managed, involve higher operating costs and management fees, making them more expensive for the investor than a typical ETF. Therefore, claiming that an ETF has lower daily liquidity and higher fees is factually incorrect.
52Economy
Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?
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Answer: (C) 65 years
Explanation
In late 2017, the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) increased the maximum age for joining the National Pension System (NPS) under the Private Sector (All Citizens Model and Corporate Model) from 60 years to 65 years. This policy change allowed any Indian citizen, whether resident or non-resident, between the ages of 18 and 65 to open an NPS account. Under these revised guidelines, subscribers joining the NPS after the age of 60 are also permitted to continue their NPS account up to the age of 70 years, providing greater flexibility for retirement planning for those entering the workforce late or wanting to extend their pension contributions.
53Economy
The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by
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Answer: (D) Y. M. Deosthalee
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted a High-level Task Force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) in October 2017 under the chairmanship of Y. M. Deosthalee, the former Chairman and Managing Director of L&T Finance Holdings. The committee was tasked with reviewing the existing availability of information on credit and suggesting a roadmap for developing a comprehensive digital database of all credit contracts in India. The goal of the PCR is to provide a single point of truth for credit information, capturing data on both retail and corporate loans, including details like defaults and legal suits. The task force submitted its report in 2018, recommending the establishment of a registry to improve the credit culture, facilitate better risk assessment for lenders, and support the supervisory functions of the RBI.
54Economy
In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1·1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through
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Answer: (A) Iran
Explanation
In October 2017, India dispatched its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan via the Chabahar Port in Iran. This transit route was established to provide India with a reliable alternative for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia, effectively bypassing the land restrictions imposed by Pakistan. The shipment was transported from the Kandla port in Gujarat to the Shahid Beheshti terminal at Chabahar, and subsequently moved by road to Afghanistan. This operationalization of the Chabahar port was a significant milestone in regional connectivity, fulfilling India's commitment to provide 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to the people of Afghanistan on a grant basis.
55Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?
1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.
2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) was incorporated on August 17, 2016, as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 2013. It is 100% owned by the Government of India through the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications. Regarding its operations, IPPB launched its pilot phase on January 30, 2017, with the opening of two pilot branches located in Raipur (Chhattisgarh) and Ranchi (Jharkhand), not Hyderabad and Varanasi. The bank's primary objective is to drive financial inclusion by leveraging the extensive network of over 1.55 lakh post offices and 3 lakh postal employees across the country.
56Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights
2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim
3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are laid down in Section 12 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Commission is empowered to inquire into violations of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violations by a public servant, either on its own initiative (suo motu) or based on a petition presented by a victim or any person on their behalf.
Additionally, the NHRC is authorized to visit jails and other institutions under the control of State Governments where people are detained for treatment, reformation, or protection, specifically to study the living conditions of inmates and make necessary recommendations. The Act also mandates the Commission to undertake and promote research in the field of human rights, spread human rights literacy among various sections of society, and encourage the efforts of non-governmental organizations working in the field of human rights. All these activities constitute the core statutory responsibilities of the Commission to ensure the protection and promotion of human rights in India.
57Polity and Governance
A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person
1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
2. is an undischarged insolvent
3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Constitution of India, under Article 102, specifies the grounds for disqualification of a Member of Parliament. Article 102(1) states that a person is disqualified if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State (unless the office is exempted by Parliament), if they are of unsound mind and have been so declared by a competent court, or if they are an undischarged insolvent. Furthermore, Article 102(2) provides for disqualification on the grounds of defection as per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, which was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985. These provisions collectively ensure that representatives fulfill certain legal, financial, and ethical criteria to hold office in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
58Polity and Governance
According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a 'National Party', a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?
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Answer: (C) At least four States
Explanation
According to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, issued by the Election Commission of India, a political party is eligible to be recognized as a National Party if it fulfills any one of three specific conditions. One of these primary conditions is that the party must be recognized as a State Party in at least four states. The recognition as a State Party itself depends on meeting specific performance criteria in terms of vote share or seats won in either the Legislative Assembly or Lok Sabha elections within a particular state. If a party successfully attains this status in four or more states, it qualifies for the status of a National Party, which grants it benefits such as a reserved election symbol nationwide and free airtime on public broadcasters.
59Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct?
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Answer: (B) It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
Explanation
Antrix Corporation Limited was incorporated in September 1992 as a wholly-owned Government of India company and is a Miniratna Category-I Public Sector Enterprise. It functions as the commercial and marketing arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and is under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS). The corporation is responsible for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and the transfer of technologies developed by ISRO to various industrial partners and international customers.
60Art and Culture
Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?
1. Bijak in Varanasi
2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan
3. Adi Granth Sahib
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The compositions of Kabir were preserved across several regional and religious traditions. The Bijak is the authoritative compilation of the Kabir Panth, the sect that follows his teachings, and is traditionally centered in Varanasi. The Kabir Granthavali is another major collection associated with the Dadu Panthi tradition in Rajasthan, reflecting the popularity of Kabir's message in Western India. Furthermore, the Adi Granth Sahib, which is the central religious text of Sikhism, contains over five hundred verses attributed to Kabir, integrated into the scripture alongside the works of the Sikh Gurus and other medieval saints. These three sources constitute the most authentic and widely recognized repositories of Kabir’s poetic and philosophical output.
61History
Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify
1. continuous link between the master and disciple
2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The term Silsila literally means a chain, signifying a continuous link between the Sufi master (Sheikh or Pir) and the disciple (Murid). This institutionalization established an unbroken spiritual genealogy that traced the lineage of spiritual authority and wisdom back to the Prophet Muhammad, usually through his companions like Ali ibn Abi Talib. Through this genealogical chain, it was believed that spiritual power and divine grace, known as Barakat, were transmitted from the Prophet through successive masters to the initiates and devotees. By the twelfth century, these silsilas became the structural basis for Sufi orders, formalizing the method of spiritual instruction and the transmission of esoteric knowledge within the Islamic world.
62History
In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?
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Answer: (A) Surya Sukta
Explanation
The Surya Sukta, also known as the Vivaha Sukta, is found in the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda as Hymn 85. This hymn describes the wedding of Surya, the daughter of the Sun god, to Soma, the Moon. It serves as the foundational liturgical text for Vedic marriage ceremonies, containing the original mantras for rituals like Panigrahana (taking the bride's hand) and the bridal procession to the husband's home. The verses emphasize the sacred bond of the couple, their mutual duties, and blessings for a long, prosperous life together, making it the primary source for understanding marriage customs in the Rigvedic period.
63History
Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct?
1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.
2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.
3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.
4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) successfully expanded the social base of the Indian national movement by incorporating diverse social groups, including non-Brahmin lower castes in the Madras and Bombay Presidencies. In Maharashtra, the influence of the Satyashodhak Samaj facilitated the mobilization of non-Brahmin peasants and urban groups against the colonial administration. In the Madras Presidency, while the elite leadership of the Justice Party was often at odds with the Congress, the actual masses belonging to non-Brahmin lower castes participated heavily in the movement's activities. This was particularly evident in the widespread picketing of liquor shops, the boycott of foreign cloth, and various rural agitations, which marked a significant shift as the movement permeated deeper into the social hierarchy of these regions.
64Economy
Which one of the following was a focus country of the 'World Food India', a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?
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Answer: (B) Japan
Explanation
Japan was designated as the focus country for the inaugural World Food India event held in New Delhi in November 2017. Organized by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, the event aimed to showcase investment opportunities across the entire food value chain in India. Japan's participation as the focus country underscored its strategic partnership with India, particularly in the areas of food processing technology, cold chain infrastructure, and storage solutions. The Japanese delegation included numerous companies interested in the Indian market, facilitating discussions on collaborative ventures and technological transfers to modernize the Indian food sector. This status highlighted Japan's significant role in supporting India's goals of reducing food waste and increasing the income of farmers through industrial value addition.
65Science and Technology
Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?
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Answer: (C) Goa
Explanation
The Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 was hosted by the state of Goa in February 2018. The event was organized by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) of the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, in partnership with Nobel Media. The exhibition, themed Science Impacts Life, was held at the Kala Academy in Panaji and aimed to stimulate interest in science among students and the general public. It featured the participation of several Nobel Laureates who engaged with students and researchers to foster a culture of innovation and scientific inquiry in the country.
66Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for schoolchildren called 'Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana'. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
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Answer: (B) philately
Explanation
The Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana, where SPARSH stands for Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude and Research in Stamps as a Hobby, was launched by the Department of Posts under the Ministry of Communications. The primary objective of this pan-India scholarship scheme is to increase the reach of philately among school children from Class VI to IX. By providing financial incentives, the government aims to encourage the hobby of collecting, studying, and performing research on postage stamps. Philately is promoted as an educational tool that helps students gain knowledge about history, culture, and famous personalities depicted on stamps. To be eligible for the scholarship, students must have a good academic record and demonstrate their interest in the hobby through a philately quiz and project work.
67Art and Culture
Which one of the following temples of India has won the 'UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017' for cultural heritage conservation?
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Answer: (B) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
Explanation
The Sri Ranganathaswami Temple in Srirangam, Tamil Nadu, was conferred with the UNESCO Asia-Pacific Award of Merit in 2017 for its exemplary cultural heritage conservation efforts. The restoration project was recognized for its massive scale and the meticulous use of traditional construction materials and techniques to preserve the temple's structural integrity. This initiative involved the renovation of 21 gopurams, numerous sub-shrines, and ancient water bodies within the temple complex, which is one of the largest functioning Hindu temples in the world. The UNESCO jury highlighted the successful collaboration between the temple administration, the state government, and private donors in maintaining the site's historical authenticity while accommodating modern pilgrims. This award marked the first time a temple in Tamil Nadu received such international recognition for heritage conservation.
68History
Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women's Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?
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Answer: (B) China
Explanation
India clinched the 2017 Women's Hockey Asia Cup title by defeating China in a closely contested final held in Kakamigahara, Japan. The match ended in a 1-1 draw during regulation time, with Navjot Kaur scoring for India and Tiantian Luo equalizing for China. In the subsequent penalty shootout, India emerged victorious with a 5-4 scoreline. This win marked India's second Asia Cup title, their first since 2004, and also earned the team a direct qualification for the 2018 Hockey World Cup in London.
69Economy
Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.
Explanation
The Maritime Agenda 2010-2020, formulated by the Ministry of Shipping, set an ambitious target to expand India's port capacity to approximately 3130 MT by the year 2020. This objective was intended to handle an expected cargo traffic of about 2495 MT. The figure of 300 MT is significantly lower than the actual capacity goals and even the existing capacity at the time the agenda was released. The agenda aimed at massive infrastructure investment to modernize ports and improve efficiency to support India's growing share in global trade.
70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
Explanation
The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) is a biennial summit involving the leaders of the Commonwealth nations. The meeting in Malta, which was the 24th CHOGM, actually took place from November 27 to 29, 2015, not in 2016. Because these summits are held every two years, there was no CHOGM session conducted in 2016. The subsequent meeting, the 25th CHOGM, was held in London, United Kingdom, in April 2018.
71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?
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Answer: (A) 91st Amendment
Explanation
The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003, introduced Article 75(1A) and Article 164(1A) to limit the size of the Council of Ministers at both the Union and State levels. It stipulates that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Union Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister in the State Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) or the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively. For States, the amendment also provided a minimum floor, stating that the number of ministers shall not be less than twelve. This provision was primarily aimed at preventing the creation of oversized cabinets for political convenience and curbing the practice of using ministerial berths as an inducement for political defections.
72Polity and Governance
Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?
1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
3. Coastal security in territorial waters
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Director General of the Indian Coast Guard functions as the Offshore Security Coordination Authority (OSCA), a body responsible for formulating policies and coordinating security measures for offshore installations and artificial islands in the Exclusive Economic Zone. Following the restructuring of the national security architecture after the 2008 Mumbai attacks, the Indian Coast Guard was designated as the Lead Intelligence Agency (LIA) for coastal and sea borders, tasked with consolidating and sharing maritime intelligence across various stakeholders. Furthermore, the ICG was formally mandated to handle coastal security in India's territorial waters, including areas to be patrolled by the State Marine Police, effectively making it the primary agency for ensuring the security of the nation's immediate maritime boundaries.
73Science and Technology
Which one of the following is India's first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?
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Answer: (C) Nirbhay
Explanation
Nirbhay is India's first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile, produced by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is a nuclear-capable missile with a strike range of approximately 1,000 kilometers and travels at speeds between 0.7 and 0.9 Mach. The missile is characterized by its terrain-hugging capability, which allows it to fly at very low altitudes to evade enemy radar detection. Designed for multi-platform deployment, Nirbhay can be launched from land-based mobile launchers, sea-based platforms, and potentially from air platforms. It utilizes a solid rocket booster for takeoff and a turbofan engine for its sustained cruise phase, guided by an advanced inertial navigation system combined with GPS/GLONASS.
74Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?
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Answer: (D) Shri P. D. Siwal
Explanation
The Ministry of Power constituted a high-level committee to investigate the causes of the boiler blast that occurred at the 500 MW Unit 6 of the Feroze Gandhi Unchahar Thermal Power Plant in November 2017. Shri P. D. Siwal, who served as the Member (Thermal) of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), was appointed as the Chairman of this four-member probe committee. The committee was mandated to investigate the reasons behind the sudden buildup of pressure in the furnace that led to the accident and to suggest remedial measures to prevent the recurrence of such incidents in thermal power plants across the country.
75Art and Culture
In November 2017, an Indian short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?
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Answer: (B) Dheeraj Jindal
Explanation
Dheeraj Jindal is the director of the acclaimed Indian short film The School Bag. The film is a poignant narrative based on the tragic 2014 Peshawar school massacre in Pakistan, focusing on the relationship between a young boy and his mother, played by Rasika Dugal. The story follows the child's simple wish for a new school bag for his birthday, leading up to the events of the terrorist attack. It received significant international recognition and was awarded the Best Short Film prize at the South Asian Film Festival of Montreal (SAFFM) in November 2017.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the subjects is not included in the Union List?
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Answer: (C) Concurrent List
Explanation
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India divides legislative powers into three distinct lists: the Union List (List I), the State List (List II), and the Concurrent List (List III). The Union List comprises subjects of national importance where the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws. The Concurrent List is not a subject matter found within the Union List; rather, it is a separate classification of subjects upon which both the Parliament and the State Legislatures can exercise legislative authority. As a distinct tier of power distribution defined under Article 246, it stands independent of the specific entries enumerated in the Union List.
77Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is/are correct?
1. The NHRC is a statutory body
2. The NHRC is a constitutional body
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory public body constituted on October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. A statutory body is an organization that has been created and formalized by an Act of Parliament, which defines its specific powers, functions, and organizational structure. Because the NHRC was established through this legislative process rather than being explicitly provided for within the text of the Constitution of India, it is classified as a statutory body and not a constitutional body. The commission serves as the watchdog of human rights in the country, ensuring the protection of rights relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual.
78Science and Technology
Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?
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Answer: (B) H. S. Prannoy
Explanation
H. S. Prannoy secured the Men's Singles title at the 82nd Senior National Badminton Championships held in Nagpur in November 2017. In the final, he defeated the top-seeded Kidambi Srikanth with a scoreline of 21-15, 16-21, 21-7. This victory was particularly significant as it was Prannoy's first national title, achieved by overcoming a opponent who had won four Superseries titles earlier that same year.
79History
Which of the following statements about the usage of the term 'barbarian' is/are correct?
1. It is derived from the Greek word 'barbaros' which means a non-Greek.
2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The word barbarian is derived from the Greek term barbaros, which was an onomatopoeic word used by ancient Greeks to mimic the sounds of foreign languages that were unintelligible to them, sounding like bar-bar. Originally, the term was used neutrally to refer to any person who did not speak Greek or follow Greek customs. Later, the Roman Empire adopted the term to describe various ethnic groups and tribes living outside the imperial borders who were perceived as lacking Roman civilization and legal structures. This included the Germanic tribes, the Gauls, and the Huns, whom the Romans viewed as external threats to the stability and culture of the empire. Both statements accurately reflect the historical etymology and application of the term in classical antiquity.
80History
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Hujwiri's conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.
Explanation
Ali Hujwiri (also known as Data Ganj Bakhsh), the 11th-century author of the foundational Sufi treatise Kashf al-Mahjub, was not impressed by the Yogic theory of the division of the human body. In his writings, he records an encounter with a Yogi in Lahore who questioned him about the physical and anatomical divisions of the body (such as the number of veins and limbs). Hujwiri provided a standard physiological response but followed it with a sharp spiritual critique, arguing that such physical knowledge was a veil (hijab) and entirely irrelevant to the true knowledge of God (Ma'rifat). He maintained that the Yogic preoccupation with the physical self and its divisions was a distraction compared to the Sufi focus on the heart and the internal purification of the soul.
Al-Biruni, in his work Kitab fi Tahqiq ma l'il-Hind (Indica), actively sought parallels between Sufi concepts and Indian philosophy. He explicitly equated the Sufi concept of fana (annihilation of the self) and mahabbah (divine love) with the teachings of the Bhagavad Gita and the path to Moksha. He also recognized strong similarities between Sufi theories of the soul and the dualistic concepts found in Patanjali's Yoga Sutra, which he translated into Arabic. Furthermore, the Hatha Yogic text Amrita Kunda (The Pool of Nectar) was translated into Persian and Arabic (as Hauz al-Hayat) and had a significant influence on Sufi practices, particularly within the Shattari order, regarding breath control and meditation.
81History
Consider the following statement :
So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.
Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?
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Answer: (A) Francisco Pelsaert
Explanation
Francisco Pelsaert was a Dutch traveler and an official of the Dutch East India Company who lived in Agra for several years during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. In his account titled Remonstrantie, he provided a vivid and critical description of the socio-economic conditions in the Mughal Empire. He observed a massive disparity between the luxurious lifestyle of the ruling nobility and the extreme poverty of the common people. Pelsaert documented the intense exploitation of the peasantry and artisans by the state officials and governors, who extracted maximum surplus through heavy taxation and coercive measures. His statement regarding the peasants having scarcely enough for dry bread underscores the high revenue demands that left the actual producers with little more than bare subsistence, illustrating the structural hardships within the Mughal agrarian economy during the early 17th century.
82Art and Culture
What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?
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Answer: (A) Ginan
Explanation
The literary genre developed by the Khoja community is known as Ginan. The term is derived from the Sanskrit word jnana, which signifies contemplative knowledge or wisdom. These are devotional hymns and poems composed by Ismaili Pirs (preachers) starting around the 12th century to propagate Ismaili teachings among the local populations of South Asia, particularly in Sindh, Punjab, and Gujarat. Written in various Indic languages and using the Khojki script, Ginans blend Islamic concepts with local cultural and linguistic idioms to express spiritual themes, ethical guidance, and devotion to the Imam. This corpus of literature remains central to the religious and cultural identity of the Nizari Ismaili Khojas.
83Art and Culture
Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?
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Answer: (A) Alvars
Explanation
The Nalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil hymns composed by the twelve Alvars, who were Vaishnavite poet-saints of South India. These saints lived and wrote their devotional poetry between the 5th and 10th centuries CE, expressing profound bhakti toward Lord Vishnu and his various incarnations. While the individual Alvars lived across different periods of the early medieval era, their collective works were eventually gathered, edited, and organized into the canonical form we recognize today by the theologian Nathamuni during the 10th century. This compilation, often referred to as the Dravida Veda, represents the core of the Tamil Vaishnava scriptural tradition and remains central to the religious and liturgical life of the Sri Vaishnava community.
84Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?
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Answer: (C) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
Explanation
In the Indian Air Force hierarchy, the rank of Wing Commander is lower than that of Group Captain. A Wing Commander is equivalent to a Lieutenant Colonel in the Army, while a Group Captain is equivalent to a Colonel. Since the sequence provided in this option places Group Captain before Wing Commander, it fails to maintain the correct ascending order of seniority. The proper progression should be Squadron Leader, followed by Wing Commander, and then Group Captain.
85Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.
3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
The Attorney General of India is not a whole-time counsel for the Government. Unlike typical government employees, the Attorney General is not a full-time government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice. The Attorney General can continue to represent private clients in legal matters as long as such representation does not involve cases against the Government of India or require the individual to advise against the Government's interests. Furthermore, the remuneration of the Attorney General is determined by the President rather than being a standard salary prescribed for permanent civil servants or whole-time officials. This status allows the Attorney General to maintain a professional legal career outside of their official duties to the state.
86Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?
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Answer: (B) 36th
Explanation
The Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975, officially admitted Sikkim as the 22nd state of the Indian Union. This legislation was enacted following a referendum in April 1975, in which the people of Sikkim voted overwhelmingly to abolish the institution of the Chogyal and seek full integration with India. The amendment modified the First Schedule of the Constitution to include Sikkim as a state and inserted Article 371F, which contains special provisions to preserve the existing laws and rights of the Sikkimese people. This act also repealed the 35th Amendment, which had previously granted Sikkim the temporary status of an associate state.
87Polity and Governance
Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of 'one country, two systems'?
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Answer: (B) Hong Kong
Explanation
Hong Kong was returned to Chinese sovereignty on July 1, 1997, after more than 150 years of British colonial rule. The transfer was conducted under the framework of the Sino-British Joint Declaration signed in 1984, which established the constitutional principle of one country, two systems. This arrangement allowed Hong Kong to become a Special Administrative Region (SAR) of the People's Republic of China while maintaining its own capitalist economic system, common law legal framework, and administrative autonomy for a period of at least 50 years.
88Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
Explanation
According to Article 239AA(4) of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991, the Council of Ministers for the National Capital Territory of Delhi shall consist of not more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. Given that the Delhi Legislative Assembly has 70 seats, the maximum number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, is limited to 7. This specific provision for Delhi differs from the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which set a limit of 15 percent for the Union Council of Ministers and the Councils of Ministers in other States. The governance of Delhi is uniquely regulated by Article 239AA, making the 15 percent threshold inapplicable to its administration.
89Geography
Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031:
1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
3. The NWAP has ten components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) for the period 2017-2031 is the third such plan formulated by India, following the first plan (1983-2001) and the second plan (2002-2016). It is the first time that a National Wildlife Action Plan has specifically recognized and addressed the impacts of climate change on wildlife by including a dedicated chapter titled Integrating Climate Change in Wildlife Conservation Planning. This chapter focuses on developing climate-resilient habitats and disaster management for wildlife. Regarding its structure, the NWAP 2017-2031 is organized around 17 distinct themes rather than ten components. these themes cover a wide range of issues including landscape-level conservation, recovery of threatened species, and mitigation of human-wildlife conflict.
90Economy
Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?
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Answer: (A) Natural gas
Explanation
During the financial year 2015-2016, the production of natural gas in India recorded a negative growth rate of approximately -4.2 percent. This decline was largely due to reduced output from the Krishna Godavari (KG-D6) basin and other aging offshore fields. While sectors like fertilizers, coal, and refinery products maintained positive growth trajectories during this period, natural gas along with crude oil faced significant production challenges, leading to a contraction in their respective indices within the eight core industries framework.
91Polity and Governance
eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by
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Answer: (B) Infosys Technologies Limited
Explanation
The eBiz project was initiated as India's first Government-to-Business (G2B) portal to provide a single-window clearing system for various business-related services across central, state, and local governments. To execute this large-scale Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan, the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) selected Infosys Technologies Limited as the technical partner. Under a Public-Private Partnership model, Infosys was tasked with the end-to-end development, operation, and maintenance of the platform for a period of ten years. The portal facilitates electronic filing of forms, online payments, and tracking of applications, thereby reducing the physical interface between businesses and the government to improve the ease of doing business.
92Geography
Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Olive ridley turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are the smallest and most numerous of all sea turtles found in the world, typically reaching lengths of only 60 to 70 cm. They inhabit the warm tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans, migrating long distances between feeding and nesting grounds. These turtles are famous for their unique synchronized mass nesting behavior known as Arribada. In India, the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary in Odisha is the largest mass nesting site globally. Geographically, this nesting site is located on the Odisha coast (Northern Circars), whereas the Coromandel Coast refers to the southeastern coastline of India primarily in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, only the descriptions of their size, abundance, and general oceanic distribution are accurate.
93History
Consider the following statement :
A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.
The above statement is attributed to
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Answer: (C) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi viewed the human body as a vehicle for the soul and a tool for service. In his writings on health and self-discipline, such as in Key to Health, he emphasized that physical fitness is not merely about muscular strength but about the body's ability to obey the will and the spirit. He believed that a body disciplined through right living, diet, and self-control becomes a refined instrument that does not hinder spiritual progress but instead facilitates it. This perspective aligns with his broader philosophy of Satyagraha and Brahmacharya, where the physical self is entirely subordinated to the higher moral and spiritual purpose of the individual.
94History
Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?
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Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi founded the Phoenix Settlement in 1904 on a 100-acre plot of land near Durban, South Africa. The settlement was established after Gandhi read John Ruskin’s Unto This Last, which profoundly influenced his philosophy regarding the dignity of manual labor and the virtues of simple communal living. Gandhi aimed to create a space where individuals lived as a community, sharing work and resources while practicing self-reliance. It served as the experimental ground for his socio-political ideologies and was the site where his newspaper, Indian Opinion, was published to advocate for the rights of the Indian community in South Africa.
95History
Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.
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Answer: (A) Mahanavami Dibba
Explanation
The Mahanavami Dibba is a massive three-tiered stone platform located in the Royal Centre of Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. Rising to a height of about 40 feet with a base area of approximately 11,000 square feet, it served as a central stage for grand state rituals and public ceremonies. The kings of Vijayanagara used this structure primarily during the ten-day Mahanavami festival, which celebrated the victory of good over evil. During these celebrations, the platform was the focal point where the king performed religious rituals, worshipped the state horse, and offered sacrifices. It also functioned as a royal viewing stand from which the monarch observed military parades, wrestling matches, and cultural performances, while receiving tributes from subordinate chiefs and governors to demonstrate his power and sovereignty. This significance is corroborated by the detailed accounts of contemporary foreign travelers like Domingo Paes.
96History
The idea of 'Farr-i Izadi', on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?
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Answer: (A) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi
Explanation
Shihabuddin Suhrawardi was the founder of the Ishraqi (Illuminationist) school of philosophy, which first developed the concept of Farr-i Izadi. This Persian term refers to a divine light or radiance that emanates from God and is bestowed upon a chosen sovereign. Suhrawardi’s philosophy, which viewed God as the Light of Lights (Nur al-Anwar), argued that this divine effulgence granted the monarch spiritual authority and a unique insight into the governance of the world. Abu’l Fazl, the court historian of Emperor Akbar, extensively borrowed Suhrawardi’s ideas to formulate the Mughal theory of kingship. By integrating the concept of Farr-i Izadi, Abu’l Fazl positioned the emperor as the recipient of this divine light, thereby elevating the ruler's status to a divinely inspired guide who occupied a unique station in the hierarchy of being, superior to other mortals and religious authorities.
97History
Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?
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Answer: (D) Mahavamsa
Explanation
The Mahavamsa is a major historical chronicle written in the Pali language that provides a detailed account of the history of Sri Lanka and the development of Buddhism. It is one of the most significant non-canonical Buddhist texts for understanding the life and reign of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. The text elaborates on Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism, his role in convening the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra, and his extensive efforts to spread the religion beyond the Indian subcontinent. Specifically, it records the diplomatic and religious missions Ashoka sent to various regions, including the mission led by his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to introduce Buddhism to Sri Lanka.
98Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?
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Answer: (C) They were located in rural areas.
Explanation
Buddhist stupas were strategically established near major urban centers and busy commercial intersections rather than being primarily located in rural areas. Their placement was designed to maximize visibility and accessibility for the laity, including wealthy merchants, travelers, and pilgrims who traversed the primary trade routes of ancient India. For instance, the Great Stupa at Sanchi was located near the prosperous city of Vidisha, and the Amaravati stupa was situated near the capital of the Satavahanas. This proximity to centers of population and commerce was essential for securing royal and private patronage and for facilitating the congregational nature of Buddhist worship, which required connectivity to the social and economic hubs of the time.
99Polity and Governance
Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?
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Answer: (A) West Bengal
Explanation
West Bengal has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly among the given options, with a total of 294 constituencies. The number of seats in a State Legislative Assembly is determined based on the population of the state according to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, with the current seat distribution based on the 1971 Census data as per the 84th Amendment Act. Nationally, West Bengal ranks third in terms of the total number of assembly seats, trailing only Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. Bihar has 243 seats, Tamil Nadu has 234 seats, and Madhya Pradesh has 230 seats.
100Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?
1. It is a discretionary power.
2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Ordinance-making power of the Governor under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution is not a discretionary power. It can only be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. This principle was affirmed by the Supreme Court, notably in the RC Cooper case (1970). Furthermore, Article 213(2)(b) specifically provides that an Ordinance promulgated by the Governor may be withdrawn by him at any time. Like the power of promulgation, the power of withdrawal is also exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
101Economy
Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?
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Answer: (A) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985
Explanation
The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) was founded in 1973 by a group of 239 banks from 15 countries to establish a common language for financial transactions. Although the organization was formed in the early 1970s, its global electronic messaging system was officially inaugurated and became operational in 1977. By 1985, the SWIFT network was already well-established and was processing millions of secure messages annually for a vast network of international financial institutions. Therefore, the year 1985 is incorrectly matched with the inauguration of the SWIFT system.
102Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP):
1. ITBP was raised in 1962.
2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.
3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.
4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was established on 24 October 1962, specifically in response to the Sino-Indian War, to secure the Himalayan borders. It is primarily a mountain-trained force, with personnel specialized in high-altitude operations, mountaineering, and skiing, as they guard the border from Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh. Under the One Border One Force policy recommended by the Group of Ministers, the ITBP took over the border guarding responsibilities in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh from the Assam Rifles during 2004-2005. Regarding its strength, by 2018, the force had grown beyond the mentioned 52 service battalions, having a sanctioned strength of 56 service battalions along with additional specialized units.
103Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?
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Answer: (D) Declaration on the Right to Development
Explanation
The Declaration on the Right to Development was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1986. Within the framework of international law, a declaration is distinct from a treaty, covenant, or convention. While treaties are legally binding agreements between states that require formal ratification, a declaration is a non-binding instrument that sets out principles or aspirations. It reflects the political and moral consensus of the international community but does not impose the same level of legal obligation or enforcement mechanisms as a formal international human rights treaty.
104Polity and Governance
In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?
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Answer: (C) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
Explanation
The full form of VVPAT is Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail. It is an independent verification system used in Indian elections that allows voters to confirm that their votes have been recorded accurately. When a voter casts their vote on an Electronic Voting Machine (EVM), the VVPAT unit prints a paper slip containing the serial number, name, and election symbol of the candidate chosen. This slip is visible to the voter through a glass window for seven seconds, providing a physical confirmation of the electronic entry before the slip automatically falls into a sealed ballot compartment. The system serves as an audit trail that can be manually counted to cross-verify the electronic results in case of a dispute. VVPAT was first introduced in India during the 2013 by-election in the Noksen Assembly constituency of Nagaland.
105Economy
Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?
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Answer: (D) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities
Explanation
The objective of protecting farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities is the primary mandate of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), which is a crop insurance scheme launched in 2016. PMFBY provides financial support and risk coverage to farmers to stabilize their income in the event of unforeseen disasters. In contrast, the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is focused exclusively on the creation of physical infrastructure for irrigation, the expansion of cultivable area under assured irrigation through the slogan Har Khet Ko Pani, and the promotion of water-use efficiency through the principle of Per Drop More Crop. PMKSY integrates water sources, distribution networks, and field-level application to ensure sustainable water management, but it does not function as an insurance or direct disaster compensation mechanism.
106Economy
Which one of the following statements about 'Niryat Bandhu Scheme' is correct?
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Answer: (A) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
Explanation
The Niryat Bandhu Scheme was launched by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry as part of the Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14. The primary objective of the scheme is to mentor and guide first-generation entrepreneurs and new exporters into the world of international trade. Given the complexities of foreign trade policies, global market trends, and documentation requirements, the scheme acts as a handholding initiative where DGFT officers function as mentors. Through outreach programs, counseling sessions, and seminars, the government provides necessary training and assistance to help these entrepreneurs navigate global supply chains and enhance India's export performance.
107Economy
Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?
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Answer: (A) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.
Explanation
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a placement-linked skill training initiative under the Ministry of Rural Development, but it is not exclusively for rural girls. The programme targets rural youth from poor families within the age group of 15 to 35 years. While it mandates a minimum of 33 percent participation for women, it also includes specific targets for other groups such as SC/ST (50 percent), minorities (15 percent), and persons with disabilities (3 percent). The scheme is designed to cater to all eligible rural youth to enhance their employability in the formal sector, regardless of gender.
108Geography
Where is Hambantota Port located?
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Answer: (B) Sri Lanka
Explanation
The Hambantota International Port is a strategic deep-water maritime facility located in the southern district of Hambantota in Sri Lanka. Positioned along the major east-west international shipping lanes, the port was developed with significant financial and technical assistance from China. In late 2017, the Sri Lankan government entered into a 99-year lease agreement with China Merchants Port Holdings to manage and operate the port, a move primarily aimed at restructuring the country's external debt. This facility serves as a critical infrastructure hub for trade and logistics in the Indian Ocean region.
109Economy
Which one of the questions is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?
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Answer: (A) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985
Explanation
The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) was founded in 1973 to create a shared worldwide data processing and communications link and a common language for international financial transactions. The SWIFT system was officially inaugurated and became operational in 1977, with the first message sent under the patronage of Prince Albert of Belgium. Since 1977 is the year of its functional launch and inauguration, the year 1985 is an incorrect match for this event.
110Geography
Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. Reproduction is by internal fertilization.
3. They live in warm waters of Pacific, slightly different from the Indian Ocean.
4. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Olive ridley turtles are the smallest extant sea turtles in the world, generally reaching lengths of only 60 to 70 centimeters and weighing between 35 and 50 kilograms. They are also the most abundant sea turtle species globally, with a wide distribution throughout the tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Indian, and Atlantic Oceans. In terms of their biological reproduction, they utilize internal fertilization, a characteristic shared by all sea turtle species. Mating typically takes place in the coastal waters near nesting beaches during the breeding season, after which the females come ashore to lay their eggs.
111History
Which one of the following statements about the usage of the term 'barbarian' is/are correct?
1. It is derived from the Greek word 'barbaros' which means a non-Greek.
2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The word barbarian originated from the Ancient Greek word barbaros, which was initially used as an onomatopoeic term to describe the speech of foreigners that sounded like bar-bar to Greek ears. In this context, it was a collective label for all non-Greek speakers, including groups like the Persians and Egyptians, signifying those outside the Greek cultural and linguistic sphere.
The Romans subsequently adopted the term to classify peoples who lived outside the borders of the Roman Empire or lacked Greco-Roman education and customs. They famously applied this designation to the Gauls during the early expansion of the Republic, the various Germanic tribes such as the Goths and Vandals who occupied central and northern Europe, and the Huns, a nomadic group from Central Asia whose invasions in the 4th and 5th centuries pressured the imperial frontiers.
112Polity and Governance
The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to
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Answer: (A) sexual harassment in the workplace
Explanation
The Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan (1997) judgment is a landmark case in Indian jurisprudence concerning sexual harassment in the workplace. In the absence of specific domestic laws at the time, the Supreme Court utilized international conventions, such as the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), to lay down the Vishaka Guidelines. These guidelines recognized sexual harassment as a violation of the fundamental rights to equality, life, and liberty under Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Constitution of India. The Court mandated that every employer must provide a mechanism for redressal, including the formation of an Internal Complaints Committee. This framework governed workplace safety for women until the formal enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act in 2013.
113Economy
The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at
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Answer: (B) Sanya
Explanation
South Africa was officially invited to join the grouping in December 2010, which led to the expansion of BRIC into BRICS. The 3rd annual summit, held on April 14, 2011, in Sanya, China, was the first gathering where South Africa participated as a full member. This meeting marked the first time the bloc represented five major emerging national economies from four different continents, emphasizing the group's commitment to enhancing cooperation among developing nations and advocating for reforms in global financial institutions.
114History
Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?
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Answer: (D) James Prinsep
Explanation
James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts in 1838. This achievement was a turning point in Indian archaeology and history as it enabled the reading of the oldest inscriptions in India. Through his study of Indo-Greek coins and Ashokan pillars, Prinsep recognized that the title Piyadassi mentioned in the records referred to the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. His work provided the key to understanding the political history and dharma of the Mauryan period, transforming the study of ancient South Asian civilization.
115History
Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?
1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.
2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.
3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Brahmadeya grants were tax-exempt land gifts given to Brahmanas during the early medieval period. When the state created these grants, it renounced its claim over the land revenue and other potential taxes, transferring these fiscal rights entirely to the Brahmana donees. This meant the state gave up both existing revenue from settled land and potential revenue from any future improvements on that land.
These grants were highly flexible in scale and not restricted to a specific size. Inscriptions from the Pallava, Chola, and other contemporary dynasties confirm that a grant could range from a small, individual plot of land to a large territory encompassing several villages. While some land grants were used to expand the agricultural frontier, the vast majority of Brahmadeya settlements were established in already settled, fertile, and well-irrigated regions, particularly in river valleys like the Kaveri and Krishna, to consolidate the socio-political and religious influence of the ruling dynasties within the heartland.
116Art and Culture
Who is the author of Manimekalai?
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Answer: (B) Sathanar
Explanation
Manimekalai is one of the five great epics of Tamil literature, composed by Kulavanigan Chithalai Sathanar. He was a Buddhist grain merchant from Madurai and a contemporary of Ilango Adigal. The epic serves as a sequel to Silappathikaram, focusing on the life of Manimekalai, the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi, and her journey toward spiritual enlightenment and conversion to Buddhism. Sathanar utilized this literary work to elaborate on Buddhist philosophy, logic, and ethics, making it a significant religious and cultural text of the post-Sangam period.
117Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?
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Answer: (D) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.
Explanation
The Elephanta Caves, located on Gharapuri Island, are primarily dedicated to Lord Shiva and are deeply rooted in the traditions of the Pashupata sect of Shaivism. This religious affiliation is confirmed by the presence of a Lakulisa sculpture in the main cave (Cave 1). Lakulisa is traditionally regarded as the historical founder or the 28th avatar of Shiva associated with the Pashupata system, which was a dominant Shaivite school in Western India during the 6th and 7th centuries when the caves were excavated. The iconography of the site, including the iconic Trimurti (Sadashiva) and various depictions of Shiva as a yogi and ascetic, reflects the specific theological and philosophical tenets of Pashupata Shaivism, which emphasized the path of the Lord (Pashupati) to liberate the soul (Pasha) from bondage.
118History
Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?
1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.
2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.
3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen's rights.
4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan viewed India not as a unified nation of individual citizens but as a collection of distinct communities or qaums. He believed that these groups, defined by shared lineage, history, and social status, constituted the fundamental building blocks of Indian society. This perspective led him to advocate for the protection of the interests of these specific communities rather than pursuing a model of representative democracy based on individual rights, which he feared would marginalize the Muslim minority.
The primary objective of the Aligarh Movement was to modernize the Muslim community through the synthesis of Western and Eastern knowledge. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College, established in 1875, implemented a curriculum that intentionally blended European empirical sciences and literature with traditional Islamic theology and religious studies. Sir Syed aimed to produce a generation of Muslims who were well-versed in modern rationalist thought and Western education, enabling them to navigate the British colonial administration while maintaining their religious identity.
119Economy
Consider the following statements about impact of tax :
1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.
2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The economic incidence of a tax depends on the relative price elasticities of supply and demand. The general principle of tax shifting states that the burden of a tax falls more heavily on the party that is less responsive to price changes, which is the party with the more inelastic curve.
Statement 1 is correct because when the demand for a product is inelastic relative to its supply (E_d < E_s), consumers are less sensitive to price increases. This allows producers to increase the market price to cover the tax without a significant loss in the quantity demanded, effectively shifting the tax burden forward to the consumers.
Statement 2 is correct because when the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand (E_s < E_d), producers are less able to adjust their production levels or exit the market in response to price changes. Because consumers are more price-sensitive, any attempt to raise prices will lead to a sharp decline in demand. Consequently, the producers must accept a lower net price for their goods, meaning the tax burden is shifted backward to the producers (or absorbed by them).
The mathematical relationship of the tax incidence can be expressed as:
Burden on Consumer/Burden on Producer = E_s/E_d
This formula confirms that as E_d decreases relative to E_s, the consumer's share of the tax increases, and as E_s decreases relative to E_d, the producer's share of the tax increases.
120Economy
According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to
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Answer: (B) diminish
Explanation
The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility is a fundamental principle in microeconomics which states that as the consumption of a specific commodity increases, the marginal utility derived from each additional unit tends to decrease. This occurs because the first few units of a good satisfy the most urgent needs, and as those needs are met, the intensity of desire for further units of the same good diminishes. In mathematical terms, if TU represents total utility and Q represents the quantity consumed, marginal utility is given by MU = ΔTU/ΔQ. While total utility continues to rise as long as MU is positive, it does so at a decreasing rate because the MU values themselves are declining with each successive unit consumed. This law assumes that the consumer is rational, the units of the good are identical, and consumption takes place within a specific time period.