Which one among the following has been included as a parameter for the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based on Central Pollution Control Board and IIT, Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits and practices?
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Answer: (C) Ozone
Explanation
The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) were revised and notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests in November 2009, replacing the previous standards from 1994. This revision was based on comprehensive research conducted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in collaboration with IIT Kanpur, while also incorporating the World Health Organization (WHO) air quality guidelines and European Union limits. Ozone (O₃) was introduced as a new parameter for the first time under these 2009 standards to address its significant impact on respiratory health and its role as a secondary pollutant in urban environments. While pollutants like sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, and carbon monoxide were already regulated under the earlier 1994 standards, Ozone was part of the set of five new gaseous pollutants and five new heavy metals/chemicals added during the 2009 update to make the monitoring framework more robust and aligned with international health benchmarks.
2Economy
Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March 2012, deliberated on the challenges faced by India for sustainable growth. Which one among the following is not a part of the formulated challenges?
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Answer: (D) Development in the agricultural sector
Explanation
The Fourth BRICS Summit held in New Delhi in March 2012 focused on the theme of partnership for global stability, security, and prosperity. During this period, the BRICS Report was released, which highlighted specific structural challenges India needed to address to maintain sustainable and high economic growth. The primary challenges identified for India included the massive deficit in physical infrastructure, the requirement for more inclusive growth to ensure that the benefits of development reached all layers of society, and the need for significant improvements in public sector management to enhance efficiency and transparency in governance. While development in the agricultural sector is a critical component of the Indian economy and food security, it was not explicitly formulated as one of the core cross-cutting challenges for sustainable growth in the specific context of the 2012 New Delhi Summit deliberations.
3Economy
ONGC Videsh (the State-owned oil and gas company of India) recently (September 2012) signed a definitive agreement with
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Answer: (B) Azerbaijan
Explanation
In September 2012, ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) signed a definitive agreement with Hess Corporation to acquire its 2.72 percent participating interest in the Azeri, Chirag and the deepwater portion of Guneshli (ACG) Fields and a 2.36 percent interest in the Baku-Tbilisi-Ceyhan (BTC) Pipeline. These assets are located in Azerbaijan. The deal was valued at approximately 1 billion USD and represented a strategic move by India to secure energy assets in the Caspian Sea region. The ACG field is one of the largest offshore oil fields in the world, and the BTC pipeline is a critical piece of infrastructure for transporting crude oil from the Caspian Sea to the Mediterranean coast.
4Polity and Governance
Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct?
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Answer: (B) An integral part of the United Nations
Explanation
The G-20 is an informal intergovernmental forum and is not an integral part of the United Nations. It lacks a permanent secretariat, a formal headquarters, or a legal charter under the UN system. It operates instead through a rotating presidency and functions as a non-institutionalized platform for economic cooperation among major economies, remaining structurally independent of the United Nations' organizational hierarchy.
5Polity and Governance
Which one among the following countries initiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition?
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Answer: (C) Tunisia
Explanation
The Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition is a term used by political scientists to describe the wave of pro-democracy uprisings known as the Arab Spring. This process was initiated in Tunisia following the self-immolation of Mohamed Bouazizi in December 2010, an act that triggered the Jasmine Revolution. The resulting mass protests against corruption, economic hardship, and political repression led to the ousting of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali in January 2011. Tunisia's successful transition to a provisional government and its subsequent move toward constitutional democracy served as the primary catalyst and model for similar democratic movements across the Middle East and North Africa.
6History
Some atheists, skeptics and non-believers called to celebrate 'December 25' as Newtonmas Day instead of observing Christmas Day. The reason they propose that
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Answer: (B) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
Explanation
Isaac Newton was born on December 25, 1642, according to the Julian calendar (Old Style) which was the official calendar in England at the time of his birth. Although the modern Gregorian calendar marks his birth date as January 4, 1643, the use of the December 25 date serves as the primary justification for skeptics and atheists to celebrate Newtonmas. This celebration is intended as a secular alternative to Christmas, focusing on the celebration of science, mathematics, and the laws of universal gravitation rather than religious tradition. The practice gained popularity within the skeptic community as a way to honor one of history's most significant scientific figures on a day already widely observed as a public holiday.
7Polity and Governance
European Union's Annual Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought for 2012 has been won by
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Answer: (B) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran
Explanation
The 2012 Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought was jointly awarded by the European Parliament to Iranian activists Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi. Nasrin Sotoudeh, a prominent human rights lawyer, was recognized for her tireless work defending opposition activists, journalists, and women despite facing imprisonment and a ban on her legal practice. Jafar Panahi, an internationally acclaimed film director, was honored for his cinematic resistance and commitment to depicting social realities in Iran despite being sentenced to a six-year prison term and a twenty-year ban on filmmaking. The award emphasized the European Union's support for those advocating for fundamental freedoms and civil liberties under repressive regimes.
8Geography
The Rohingya are the minorities of
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Answer: (C) Myanmar
Explanation
The Rohingya are an ethno-religious minority group who primarily inhabit the Rakhine State, formerly known as Arakan, in Myanmar. Most Rohingya are Muslims who have lived in the region for generations, yet they have faced long-standing systemic discrimination and a lack of legal recognition from the Myanmar government. Under the 1982 Citizenship Law, they were denied full citizenship rights, which effectively rendered them one of the largest stateless populations in the world. Tensions between the Rohingya and the majority Buddhist population in Rakhine State led to significant communal violence and displacement, particularly during the 2012 Rakhine State riots, which brought their humanitarian situation to global attention by the time of the 2013 period.
9History
Consider the following statements:
During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done primarily to
1. place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque compound
2. confirm the prevailing suspicion that Israel had poisoned him
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The exhumation of Yasser Arafat's remains on November 27, 2012, was conducted specifically to facilitate a forensic investigation into his cause of death. This action followed the discovery of high levels of radioactive polonium-210 on his personal effects by a Swiss laboratory earlier that year. Palestinian authorities and Arafat's family sought to confirm the long-standing suspicion that he had been poisoned, a charge frequently directed toward Israel. International teams of forensic experts from Switzerland, France, and Russia took samples of his remains for analysis. After the samples were collected, his body was immediately reburied in the same limestone mausoleum within the Muqata presidential compound in Ramallah with full military honors, rather than being moved to a mosque.
10History
Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated
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Answer: (C) Novak Djokovic
Explanation
Rafael Nadal defeated Novak Djokovic in the 2012 French Open men's singles final to claim his seventh title at Roland Garros. The match was historic as it was the first time two players met in four consecutive Grand Slam finals. Held over two days due to rain delays, Nadal eventually won with a score of 6–4, 6–3, 2–6, 7–5. This victory allowed Nadal to surpass Björn Borg's previous record of six French Open titles and halted Djokovic's bid to become the first man since Rod Laver in 1969 to hold all four Grand Slam titles simultaneously.
11Art and Culture
Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO?
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Answer: (A) Western Ghats
Explanation
The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri mountain range, was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List during the 36th session of the World Heritage Committee held in Saint Petersburg, Russia, in 2012. Recognized as one of the world eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity, the site consists of a chain of 39 individual components, including national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and reserve forests across the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Maharashtra. These mountains are older than the Himalayas and represent geomorphic features of immense importance with unique biophysical and ecological processes. The region is globally significant for the conservation of biological diversity and contains a large number of endemic species. It also plays a critical role in influencing the Indian monsoon weather pattern by intercepting the rain-bearing westerly winds.
12Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012?
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Answer: (C) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor
Explanation
The Companies Bill 2012, which subsequently became the Companies Act 2013, introduced a strict ceiling on the number of audits an individual can perform to ensure audit quality and professional standards. Under Section 141(3)(g), a person is disqualified from being appointed as an auditor if they are already holding appointments as an auditor in more than twenty companies at the time of such appointment or reappointment. This cap applies to individual auditors as well as partners in audit firms, marking a significant regulatory limit that did not exist in such a restrictive form previously.
13Economy
FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is now permitted in India subject to
1. a ceiling of 51%
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor is US $ 100 million
3. at least 50% of the procurement of manufactured/ processed products should be sourced from 'small industries'
4. retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of more than 10 lacs
Select the correct condition/ conditions using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Government of India permitted Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in September 2012 with a maximum ceiling of 51 percent. To ensure substantial capital inflow, the policy mandated that the minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor must be US $100 million. Additionally, retail sales outlets were permitted to be set up only in cities with a population of more than 10 lakh as per the 2011 Census, although states without such cities could identify largest cities for the purpose. A crucial condition for local sourcing required that at least 30 percent of the value of procurement of manufactured or processed products be sourced from Indian small industries (those with total investment in plant and machinery not exceeding US $1 million). Because the sourcing requirement was 30 percent rather than 50 percent, only conditions 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
14Economy
Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex-economic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently?
He was appointed as
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Answer: (D) the Chief Economist of the World Bank
Explanation
Kaushik Basu was appointed as the Senior Vice President and Chief Economist of the World Bank in September 2012, taking over the role from Justin Yifu Lin. Before this appointment, he had served as the Chief Economic Adviser to the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. He was the first Indian to be appointed to this high-ranking position at the World Bank, and he officially assumed his duties on October 1, 2012. This appointment made him one of the most prominent Indian economists on the global stage during that period.
15Polity and Governance
Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2012?
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Answer: (A) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
Explanation
The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2012 was conferred upon Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, who served as the President of Liberia. She was selected by an international jury chaired by the then Vice President of India, M. Hamid Ansari, for her exceptional leadership in the restoration of peace and democracy in Liberia following years of devastating civil war. The award recognized her tireless efforts toward the socio-economic development of her country, her commitment to the cause of African renaissance, and her global advocacy for women's rights and empowerment. Having previously been a co-recipient of the 2011 Nobel Peace Prize, her selection for this prestigious Indian honor further acknowledged her role as a symbol of hope and reconciliation in Africa.
16Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Malala Yousafzai :
1. In November 2012, she was awarded with the Bravery Award by the World Peace and Prosperity Foundation.
2. The United Nations declared November 10 as 'Malala Day' in honour of her contribution in the field of girls' education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
In November 2012, Malala Yousafzai was honored with the Bravery Award by the World Peace and Prosperity Foundation. This award was presented by the foundation's chairman, Prince Ali Khan, in recognition of her courage and dedication to advocating for girls' education despite the grave threats she faced in the Swat Valley.
The United Nations Special Envoy for Global Education, Gordon Brown, declared November 10, 2012, as Malala Day to commemorate the one-month anniversary of the assassination attempt on her. This day was designated as a global day of action to support the right of all children, especially girls, to attend school and to deliver a massive petition to the Pakistani government. While her birthday, July 12, was later established as an annual international observance by the United Nations following her 2013 speech, the initial declaration of November 10 as Malala Day was a significant milestone in the global campaign for education equality in late 2012.
17History
The President of India on 20th November, 2012 released a commemorative postage stamp on the occasion of Ramgopal Maheswari's birth centenary year celebration. Which of the following statements regarding Ramgopal Maheswari is/are correct?
1. He is regarded as a doyen of journalism in India.
2. He was a trusted aide of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and helped him in mobilizing the forces of Indian National Army in Kohima.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Ramgopal Maheswari was a distinguished veteran journalist and the founder-editor of the prominent Hindi daily newspaper Nava Bharat. Due to his extensive career and significant contributions to the field of media for over sixty years, he is widely recognized as a doyen of journalism in India. His journalistic endeavors were deeply intertwined with social causes and the Indian independence movement. He played an active role in the Quit India Movement of 1942, which led to his incarceration by the British authorities. The commemorative postage stamp released by the President of India in 2012 honored his legacy as a pioneer in Hindi journalism and his commitment to nationalistic values and social reform through the press.
18History
Mention the odd man out.
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Answer: (B) Oliver Kahn
Explanation
Oliver Kahn is the odd man out because he is the only goalkeeper in the group, whereas the other individuals are outfield players. Furthermore, by the year 2013, he was the only person listed who had already retired from professional football, having ended his career in 2008.
19History
Why was Australian cricketer Michael Clarke in news recently?
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Answer: (B) He broke Sir Don Bradman and Ricky Ponting's records by scoring four 200 plus runs in test cricket in a calendar year
Explanation
In the calendar year 2012, Michael Clarke achieved the record-breaking feat of scoring four double centuries in Test cricket. His scores included 329 not out and 210 against India, followed by 259 not out and 230 against South Africa. By recording his fourth double century within a single year, Clarke surpassed the previous world record of three double centuries in a calendar year, which was jointly held by Sir Don Bradman (1930) and Ricky Ponting (2003). This performance made him the first batsman in the history of Test cricket to achieve four scores of 200 or more in one calendar year, a milestone that was widely reported in sports media leading into 2013.
20Economy
The Government of India has recently made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. Which of the following is/are the likely consequence/consequences of the policy?
1. Lower India's dependence on fossil oil
2. Reduce fuel import bill
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Ethanol is a renewable biofuel primarily produced in India from sugarcane molasses. By mandating a 5% blend of ethanol with petrol, the Government of India aims to substitute a portion of the petroleum-based fuel with a domestically produced alternative. This substitution directly reduces the total volume of crude oil needed to satisfy the nation's energy demand, thereby lowering India's structural dependence on fossil fuels. Furthermore, because India relies heavily on imports to meet its crude oil requirements, any reduction in the quantity of petroleum used leads to a corresponding decrease in the volume of imported oil. This results in a significant saving of foreign exchange and a reduction in the overall fuel import bill, contributing to the country's macroeconomic stability and energy self-reliance.
21Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding e-courts, launched recently in India:
1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via videoconferencing.
2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid out for the bench for hearing appeals in an open court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project was initiated to implement Information and Communication Technology in the Indian judiciary to enhance judicial productivity and make the justice delivery system affordable and transparent. It facilitates the hearing of cases through videoconferencing, which is extensively used for the examination of witnesses and the production of undertrial prisoners from jails, thereby reducing logistical delays and security risks. Furthermore, e-courts operate as a digital extension of the existing judicial infrastructure rather than a separate legal entity. They follow the same statutory procedures and protocols laid out for the bench for hearing cases and appeals in an open court, as mandated by the Code of Civil Procedure and the Code of Criminal Procedure. This ensures that the transition to digital platforms upholds the legal standards of transparency and procedural fairness required in a traditional open court setting.
22History
Who among the following is the author of the book, Sachin: Born to Bat-The Journey of Cricket's Ultimate Centurian?
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Answer: (A) Khalid AH Ansari
Explanation
Khalid AH Ansari is the author of the book Sachin: Born to Bat-The Journey of Cricket's Ultimate Centurion, which was released in 2012. The book serves as a comprehensive tribute to Sachin Tendulkar's illustrious career, specifically commemorating his milestone of scoring 100 international centuries. Ansari, a veteran sports journalist and the founder-editor of the Mid-Day newspaper, compiled this work to document Tendulkar's evolution from his early days in Mumbai to becoming one of the greatest batsmen in the history of the sport.
23Art and Culture
Who among the following is/are the Indian writer(s) short-listed for the DSC Prize for South Asian Literature for the year 2013?
1. Amitabh Ghosh
2. Jeet Thayil
3. Uday Prakash
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The shortlist for the 2013 DSC Prize for South Asian Literature featured six books, three of which were written by Indian authors. Amitav Ghosh was nominated for River of Smoke, a historical fiction novel set during the Opium Wars. Jeet Thayil was shortlisted for his debut novel Narcopolis, which centers on the drug subculture of Bombay. Uday Prakash was included for The Walls of Delhi, a collection of stories translated from Hindi that explores the lives of the marginalized in the capital. All three writers represented India on the final shortlist for that year, with Jeet Thayil ultimately winning the award at the Jaipur Literature Festival in January 2013.
24Economy
Consider the following statement :
Rich countries have largely cheated the developing countries of the 30 billion dollar of funds they had committed to transfer to the poor ones between 2010 and 2012.
Which one among the following relating to the above statement is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The developed nations only provided one-third of the total funding
Explanation
The research report by Oxfam, titled The Climate Fiscal Cliff (2012), analyzed the $30 billion Fast Start Finance (FSF) commitment made for the 2010–2012 period and found that developed nations had actually reported mobilizing a total of $33.3 billion, surpassing the original pledge. The core of the cheating allegation mentioned in the statement was not that the nations failed to provide the total volume of money, but rather that the nature and quality of the funds were misleading. Oxfam's analysis revealed that only 33% (one-third) of the reported funds could be identified as new and additional climate finance, while the remaining two-thirds were either recycled from existing overseas aid budgets or provided in the form of loans that required repayment. Therefore, it is factually incorrect to state that developed nations only provided one-third of the total funding, as the full amount was technically delivered, but only one-third met the criteria for being newly allocated grants.
25Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about Barack Obama is not correct?
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Answer: (D) He is the only American President who won the Nobel Peace Prize
Explanation
Barack Obama is not the only American President to have won the Nobel Peace Prize. Three other U.S. Presidents have received this honor. Theodore Roosevelt was the first to receive it in 1906 for his role in negotiating the end of the Russo-Japanese War. Woodrow Wilson was awarded the prize in 1919 for his efforts in establishing the League of Nations after World War I. Additionally, Jimmy Carter was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2002 for his decades of work in international conflict resolution and the promotion of democracy and human rights. Since multiple Presidents have been laureates, the claim that Obama is the sole winner among American Presidents is factually incorrect.
26Economy
During the last part of November 2012, there was a severe fire accident which took away the lives of more than hundred people in Bangladesh. The accident occurred inside a
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Answer: (A) textile factory
Explanation
The fire occurred at the Tazreen Fashions factory in the Ashulia district on the outskirts of Dhaka on November 24, 2012. This facility was a readymade garment manufacturing unit, which is a core part of the textile industry in Bangladesh. The disaster resulted in the deaths of at least 117 workers and injured over 200 others, making it one of the most significant industrial tragedies in the history of the global apparel sector. The incident drew international attention to the poor safety standards and lack of emergency exits in the country's textile manufacturing hubs.
27Polity and Governance
Who among the following was declared as the immediate future President of China in the 18th National Congress of the Communist Party of China held in November 2012?
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Answer: (B) Xi Jinping
Explanation
The 18th National Congress of the Communist Party of China, convened in November 2012, served as the formal venue for the decadal leadership transition within the Chinese government. During the first plenary session of the 18th Central Committee, Xi Jinping was elected to the highest positions of General Secretary of the Communist Party and Chairman of the Central Military Commission. Under the political convention of the People's Republic of China, the individual holding the party's General Secretary ship is the paramount leader and the designated successor to the state presidency. This appointment confirmed Xi Jinping as the immediate future President, a role he officially assumed in March 2013 at the National People's Congress, succeeding Hu Jintao.
28Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements about Grigori Perelman is not correct?
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Answer: (C) He works in the area of Cosmology
Explanation
Grigori Perelman is a renowned Russian mathematician who specialized in the fields of geometric analysis, Riemannian geometry, and geometric topology. His most significant achievement was the proof of the Thurston geometrization conjecture, which effectively solved the Poincaré conjecture, one of the most famous problems in mathematics. While his mathematical work on the shape of three-dimensional spaces has profound implications for theoretical physics and the understanding of the universe, he is not a cosmologist by profession. By 2013, he was equally well-known for his reclusive nature, having turned down faculty offers from elite American universities like Princeton and Stanford, and for becoming the first person to refuse both the Fields Medal in 2006 and the one-million-dollar Millennium Prize in 2010.
29Science and Technology
Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2012 was given for the work on
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Answer: (A) G-protein coupled receptors
Explanation
The 2012 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded jointly to Robert J. Lefkowitz and Brian K. Kobilka for their groundbreaking discoveries regarding the inner workings of G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). These receptors are a large family of proteins that span the cell membrane and act as gatekeepers, allowing cells to sense and respond to external signals such as light, odors, flavors, and hormones like adrenaline. Lefkowitz began the research in the late 1960s by using radioactivity to track cell receptors, eventually isolating the beta-adrenergic receptor. Kobilka joined the research in the 1980s and successfully identified the gene coding for this receptor. His work revealed that the receptor had a structure similar to rhodopsin, the light-detecting receptor in the eye, leading to the realization that an entire family of receptors exists with a similar structure and function. This discovery is fundamental to modern medicine, as a significant portion of all pharmaceutical drugs achieve their effects through G-protein-coupled receptors.
30Geography
Global Dimming' means
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Answer: (C) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the earth surface
Explanation
Global dimming refers to the gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance reaching the Earth's surface. This phenomenon is primarily driven by the accumulation of anthropogenic aerosols, such as sulfate particles, soot, and dust, in the atmosphere. These pollutants interfere with solar radiation in two main ways: they directly reflect and absorb incoming sunlight, and they alter the optical properties of clouds. By acting as cloud condensation nuclei, aerosols lead to the formation of clouds with a higher number of smaller water droplets, which increases the clouds' reflectivity, or albedo. Consequently, a larger fraction of solar energy is reflected back into space, leading to a measurable decrease in the intensity of sunlight at the surface. This effect was notably observed and recorded across various geographical regions between the 1950s and the 1990s.
31History
Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm who expired on 1st October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is
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Answer: (D) Interesting Times: A Twentieth-Century Life
Explanation
Interesting Times: A Twentieth-Century Life, published in 2002, is the autobiography of the renowned British Marxist historian Eric Hobsbawm. In this work, Hobsbawm chronicles his personal journey through the major historical events of the 20th century, beginning with his birth in Alexandria in 1917. The memoir details his formative years in Vienna and Berlin, where he witnessed the collapse of the Weimar Republic and the rise of the Nazi Party, experiences that shaped his political outlook and prompted his lifelong membership in the Communist Party. The narrative extends through his academic career in England, his involvement with the Communist Party Historians Group, and his analysis of global political shifts up to the end of the millennium, providing a unique synthesis of personal memory and professional historical analysis.
32Economy
Which of the following institutions was/were asked by the Government of India to provide official estimates of black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad?
1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
2. National Council of Applied Economic Research
3. National Institute of Financial Management
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In March 2011, the Central Board of Direct Taxes, functioning under the Ministry of Finance, commissioned a comprehensive study to estimate the quantum of unaccounted income and wealth generated both within and outside India. The government officially mandated three premier research institutions to conduct this study independently: the National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP), the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER), and the National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM). These institutes were tasked with identifying the key sectors responsible for black money generation, estimating the total volume of such wealth, and suggesting legislative and administrative measures to detect and prevent its accumulation. The collective involvement of these three bodies was intended to provide a more reliable and scientific assessment of the shadow economy compared to previous fragmented estimates.
33Economy
The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as
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Answer: (B) effective revenue deficit
Explanation
Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12 to provide a more refined measure of the government's fiscal health. It is calculated by subtracting grants for the creation of capital assets from the revenue deficit. While these grants are accounted for as revenue expenditure in the budget, they are used to build infrastructure and create physical assets, such as roads and bridges, which are capital in nature. By adjusting for these specific expenditures, the concept of Effective Revenue Deficit helps in identifying the actual amount of borrowed funds that are being used purely for consumption purposes rather than for productive investment. The formula is expressed as ERD = Revenue Deficit - Grants for Creation of Capital Assets.
34Economy
Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission?
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Answer: (B) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
Explanation
The Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was restructured into the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) in June 2011 by the Ministry of Rural Development. This shift marked a transition from a traditional subsidy-based poverty alleviation scheme to a more comprehensive, mission-mode approach focused on the universal mobilization of rural poor households into Self-Help Groups (SHGs). The program, which was also known as Aajeevika at the time of restructuring, aims to provide sustainable livelihood opportunities by facilitating credit linkages, skill development, and market access for the rural poor. By organizing households into federated institutions, the mission seeks to empower rural communities to access formal financial services and diversify their income sources effectively.
35Economy
Which of the following are included in the category of direct tax in India?
1. Corporation Tax
2. Tax on Income
3. Wealth Tax
4. Customs Duty
5. Excise Duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Direct taxes are those where the liability to pay and the ultimate economic burden of the tax fall on the same entity, meaning the tax cannot be shifted to another person. In India, Corporation Tax is a direct tax levied on the profits of domestic and foreign companies. Income Tax is another primary direct tax imposed on the annual earnings of individuals and Hindu Undivided Families. Wealth Tax, which was in effect in 2013, was a direct tax charged on the market value of specified assets held by taxpayers. In contrast, Customs Duty and Excise Duty are categorized as indirect taxes because they are levied on the production or movement of goods, and their cost is ultimately recovered from the consumers of those goods. Therefore, the category of direct taxes includes Corporation Tax, Tax on Income, and Wealth Tax.
36Economy
Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run?
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Answer: (A) Insurance on buildings
Explanation
Fixed costs are those expenses that do not change with the level of output produced by a firm in the short run. Insurance on buildings is a contractual obligation that must be paid regardless of whether the firm is operating at full capacity or is completely idle. Since the premium is typically a predetermined amount based on the value and risk of the physical asset rather than the volume of production, it remains constant over the accounting period. These costs are often referred to as sunk costs or overheads because they persist even when production is zero. Other examples of such costs include rent, interest on long-term loans, and salaries of permanent administrative staff.
37Economy
The government can influence private sector expenditure by
1. taxation
2. subsidies
3. macroeconomic policies
4. grants
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Taxation serves as a primary tool to regulate private expenditure by adjusting the disposable income of individuals and the retained earnings of corporations. Higher taxes generally contract private spending, while tax breaks or credits stimulate investment. Subsidies reduce the cost of production or consumption, effectively increasing the purchasing power of the private sector and encouraging spending in specific industries. Macroeconomic policies, which include fiscal and monetary actions, influence the broader economic climate; for instance, lower interest rates set through monetary policy reduce the cost of capital, prompting private investment and consumption. Grants represent direct financial transfers from the government to private entities or research organizations, providing them with the necessary capital to undertake projects and expenditures. All four mechanisms are fundamental instruments used by the state to modulate the level and direction of private sector economic activity.
38Economy
Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts?
1. Manufacturing
2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply
4. Mining and quarrying
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
In the classification used for National Income Accounting by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), the secondary sector comprises activities that involve the processing of raw materials into finished goods and the creation of infrastructure. This sector specifically includes Manufacturing, Construction, and Electricity, Gas, and Water Supply. Manufacturing involves the physical or chemical transformation of materials or components into new products, whether the work is performed by power-driven machines or by hand. Construction covers the assembly and erection of buildings and civil engineering works such as roads, bridges, and dams. Electricity, Gas, and Water Supply involves the generation, transmission, and distribution of energy and essential utilities. These three components represent the industrial core of the economy where value is added through production and construction processes.
39Economy
The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to
1. fight to safety by foreign investors
2. meltdown in European markets
3. inflation in emerging market economies
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The depreciation of the rupee in 2011 was driven by a combination of global and domestic macroeconomic factors. The Eurozone sovereign debt crisis caused a meltdown in European markets, leading to extreme global risk aversion. This triggered a flight to safety where foreign investors pulled capital out of emerging markets like India to invest in safe-haven assets like US Treasuries, putting downward pressure on the rupee. Domestically, India faced high persistent inflation compared to its trading partners, which eroded the currency's internal purchasing power and worsened the trade balance. Furthermore, the Reserve Bank of India had undertaken a series of interest rate hikes to curb inflation; the lag effect of this monetary policy tightening began to slow down industrial growth and dampen investor sentiment by late 2011, further contributing to capital outflows and currency weakness.
40Economy
The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011-2012 was primarily due to
1. environmental restrictions
2. non-availability of forestry clearance
3. poor law and order situation in coal-producing States
4. excessive rainfall in coalmining areas
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Coal production in India during the 2011-2012 period was hampered by a combination of regulatory, security, and climatic factors. The Ministry of Environment and Forests enforced strict Go/No-Go classifications, which stalled numerous projects by denying environmental and forestry clearances in ecologically sensitive zones. In the coal-bearing regions of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, the prevailing law and order situation, particularly the influence of left-wing extremism, frequently disrupted mining activities and evacuation logistics. Additionally, the fiscal year saw exceptionally heavy and extended monsoon rainfall that flooded several large open-cast mines, leading to a significant loss of production days. These cumulative factors led to a marked slowdown in the growth of coal output as reflected in the Economic Survey of that period.
41Economy
Human Poverty Index [HPI] developed by UNDP is based on which of the following deprivations?
1. Income deprivation
2. Literacy deprivation
3. Social services deprivation
4. Employment deprivation
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Human Poverty Index (HPI), introduced by the UNDP in 1997, is divided into two indices to reflect different socio-economic realities: HPI-1 (for developing countries) and HPI-2 (for selected high-income OECD countries). Together, these indices incorporate all four listed deprivations.
Literacy deprivation (2) is a core component of both indices, measured by the adult illiteracy rate in HPI-1 and the percentage of adults lacking functional literacy skills in HPI-2. Social services deprivation (3) is central to HPI-1, which measures a decent standard of living through access to safe water, access to health services (in its original formulation), and the nutritional status of children (underweight children under five).
Income deprivation (1) and Employment deprivation (4) are specific components of HPI-2. In developed countries, the standard of living dimension is measured by the percentage of people living below the poverty line (income deprivation, specifically below 50% of the median adjusted household disposable income), while social exclusion is measured by the rate of long-term unemployment (employment deprivation). Thus, the HPI framework as a whole encompasses deprivations in income, literacy, social services, and employment.
42Art and Culture
In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, Brihat Samhita. It was a treatise on
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Answer: (A) Astronomy
Explanation
Varahamihira was a distinguished astronomer and mathematician who flourished in the court of the Gupta emperor Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) at Ujjain. His work, the Brihat Samhita, is a monumental Sanskrit encyclopedia that primarily focuses on astronomy and astrology. It provides detailed descriptions of planetary movements, solar and lunar eclipses, and the characteristics of stars. In the context of the three branches of Jyotisha (Hindu astrology/astronomy), the Brihat Samhita belongs to the Samhita branch, which studies the influence of celestial bodies on the earth and collective human destiny. Beyond celestial observations, the text also serves as a scientific compendium covering diverse subjects like meteorology, hydrology, and geology as they relate to astronomical patterns.
43Art and Culture
The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of
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Answer: (A) Chunar near Mirzapur
Explanation
The Ashokan pillars were monolithic structures carved from single pieces of fine-grained, buff-coloured sandstone. This specific stone was exclusively quarried from the Chunar hills located near Mirzapur in present-day Uttar Pradesh. The Mauryan artisans preferred this sandstone for its durability and its ability to take a high degree of polish, which resulted in the characteristic lustrous, mirror-like finish seen on the pillars. From these quarries, the massive blocks of stone were transported over great distances, sometimes hundreds of miles, to the various locations where the pillars were eventually erected and inscribed with Ashoka's Dhamma edicts.
44Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements with regard to the National Security Council (NSC) of India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) RAW and Intelligence Bureau (India) report to NSC
Explanation
The Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) and the Intelligence Bureau (IB) do not report to the National Security Council (NSC). Administratively, RAW reports to the Cabinet Secretariat, which is under the direct jurisdiction of the Prime Minister, while the Intelligence Bureau reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs. The NSC is a deliberative and advisory body rather than an executive authority with direct reporting lines from intelligence agencies.
The NSC is a three-tiered organization established in 1998, consisting of the Strategic Policy Group (SPG), the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB), and the National Security Council Secretariat. Its membership includes the Prime Minister as the Chairman, the Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs, and Finance, and the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission (during the period up to 2013). The National Security Advisor (NSA) serves as the Secretary to the NSC and coordinates with various agencies, but the formal reporting structure of the agencies remains within their respective administrative ministries or the Cabinet Secretariat.
45History
The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Sirajud-daulah, as
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Answer: (B) an attack upon his sovereignty
Explanation
Siraj-ud-daulah became the Nawab of Bengal in 1756 and immediately sought to assert his authority over the European trading companies. The British East India Company, anticipating a conflict with the French as part of the Seven Years War, began to repair and strengthen the fortifications of Fort William in Calcutta without obtaining the Nawab's permission. To a sovereign ruler, the construction of military defenses by a foreign commercial entity within his domains constituted a direct challenge to his political power and territorial jurisdiction. Siraj-ud-daulah interpreted this unauthorized military activity as an act of defiance and a violation of the terms under which the British were allowed to trade, viewing it fundamentally as an attack upon his sovereignty. This provocation, combined with the misuse of trade privileges and the sheltering of political fugitives like Krishnadas, led the Nawab to march on Calcutta in June 1756.
46History
Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that
1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers
2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth
3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-nabi or Vice-Regent of the Empire
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The campaigns led by Malik Kafur between 1309 and 1311 against the Kakatiyas of Warangal, the Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra, and the Pandyas of Madurai represented a landmark in the military history of the Delhi Sultanate. These expeditions demonstrated the boldness of the Khalji regime as they were the first to successfully penetrate the deep south beyond the Vindhyas. The primary significance was economic, as the invaders returned with legendary amounts of wealth, including gold, silver, jewels, and thousands of elephants and horses, which replenished the Delhi treasury. Geographically, these marches opened up the southern peninsula to the northern administration, providing detailed knowledge of routes, kingdoms, and topography that was previously unknown. Consequently, Malik Kafur's military genius and successful consolidation of these victories led Ala-ud-din Khalji to appoint him as Malik-naib or Vice-Regent, granting him supreme authority over the state administration and the military.
47History
Ibn Batuta's work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is
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Answer: (A) an autobiography
Explanation
Ibn Battuta's Rihla, formally titled Tuhfat al-Anzar fi Ghara'ib al-Amsar wa 'Aja'ib al-Asfar, is classified as an autobiography in the form of a travelogue. It was dictated by Ibn Battuta to the scholar Ibn Juzayy at the court of the Sultan of Morocco, Abu Inan Faris, around 1355. The work is a first-person narrative that details his life, personal experiences, and observations during his thirty years of travel across Africa, Asia, and Europe. Because it records his personal history and his tenure in various official positions, such as a Qazi in the Delhi Sultanate, it serves as an autobiographical record of his career and travels.
48History
Several socio-political organizations were formed in the 19th and 20th Centuries in India. Arjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam founded in the year 1914 was
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Answer: (A) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
Explanation
The Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam, translated as the All India Muslim Ladies Conference, was established in February 1914 in Aligarh. It was founded as a dedicated platform to address the social, educational, and cultural issues facing Muslim women in India. The organization was spearheaded by prominent reformers, including Sultan Jahan Begum, the Begum of Bhopal, who presided over its inaugural session. The conference played a significant role in advocating for female literacy, the improvement of women's status within the community, and the modernization of social practices. By providing a forum for elite and middle-class Muslim women to organize and voice their demands, it became a central institution for the early 20th-century women's reform movement in the Indian subcontinent.
49History
British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new cities. Calcutta, now Kolkata, was one of the first cities. Which of the following villages were amalgamated to form the city of Calcutta?
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Answer: (C) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
Explanation
The city of Calcutta was established through the amalgamation of the three villages of Sutanuti, Kalikata, and Gobindapur. In 1690, Job Charnock, an agent of the English East India Company, chose Sutanuti as the site for a British trading post due to its strategic location on the banks of the Hooghly River. By 1698, the British East India Company secured the zamindari rights for these three villages from the local landlords, the Sabarna Roy Choudhury family, for a sum of 1,200 rupees. This administrative consolidation allowed the British to establish a fortified settlement, eventually leading to the construction of Fort William and the growth of Calcutta as a major commercial and political center, serving as the capital of British India until 1911.
50History
What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis?
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Answer: (A) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints for seeking barkat (spiritual grace)
Explanation
Ziyarat translates literally to visit and refers to the Sufi practice of pilgrimage to the graves or tombs of saints, known as dargahs. This practice is based on the Sufi belief that the saint possesses a spiritual power or grace called barkat, which remains present at their burial site even after their physical death. By visiting these shrines, particularly on the death anniversary of the saint known as the Urs, which symbolizes the union of the soul with God, devotees seek to receive this spiritual blessing and divine intervention for their worldly and spiritual needs. This tradition became a central feature of Sufi devotional life in the Indian subcontinent, fostering a culture of popular piety that attracted people from all levels of society.
51History
Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha's life?
1. Kanthaka
2. Alara Kalama
3. Channa
4. Goshalo Maskariputra
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Answer: (B) 4 only
Explanation
Goshalo Maskariputra, commonly known as Makkhali Gosala, was the founder of the Ajivika school of philosophy and a prominent contemporary of Gautama Buddha. He proposed the doctrine of Niyati, or absolute fatalism, which maintained that human effort has no impact on the cycle of rebirth and that all events are entirely predestined. While his philosophical interactions and rivalry with the Buddha are documented in texts like the Digha Nikaya, he was an independent religious leader. Unlike the other figures who served as Siddhartha Gautama's personal companions, domestic staff, or direct spiritual mentors during his early journey toward enlightenment, Goshalo remained an external historical figure and ideological opponent.
52History
Statement I:
There was great exodus of Jaina monks under the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following severe famine in the Ganga Valley towards the end of Chandragupta's reign.
Statement II:
Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order as a monk.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
According to Jain tradition, a catastrophic twelve-year famine occurred in the Magadha region towards the end of the 4th century BCE. To preserve the monastic community and their practices, the Jain saint Bhadrabahu led a significant group of monks to South India, specifically to the Deccan and Shravanabelagola in modern Karnataka. This migration is historically recognized as Statement I describes. Parallel to this event, Jain literary sources such as the Parishishtaparvan and various inscriptions at Shravanabelagola state that Emperor Chandragupta Maurya abdicated his throne in favor of his son Bindusara and entered the Jain fold as a monk. He became a disciple of Bhadrabahu and eventually ended his life through the ritual of Sallekhana, which involves fasting unto death. While both statements are individually true based on these historical traditions, Statement II does not explain Statement I because the reason for the exodus of the monks was the severe famine and the need for survival, not the King's personal decision to join the order.
53History
Statement I: Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirganthas.
Statement II:
The sect was founded 200 years earlier by Parsva.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Vardhamana Mahavira was born into a family that already followed the teachings of Parshvanatha, the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism. When Mahavira renounced his worldly life at the age of 30, he entered the existing ascetic order known as the Nirganthas (meaning free from bonds), which had been established by Parshvanatha. Historical evidence and Jain tradition place Parshvanatha approximately 250 years before Mahavira, roughly in the 8th century BCE, making the Nirgantha sect a well-established religious path long before Mahavira's time. Statement II identifies the origin and founder of the sect mentioned in Statement I, providing the historical context and explanation for the group that Mahavira initially joined. While Mahavira eventually expanded the four-fold teachings of Parshvanatha into a five-fold path, his initial spiritual journey was rooted in this pre-existing tradition.
54Art and Culture
Statement I:
Lomash Rishi and Sudama caves in the Barabar Hills, modelled on wooden architectural prototypes, are examples of the earliest cave architecture in India.
Statement II:
Barabar Hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
Statement I is correct because the Barabar Hill caves, including the Lomas Rishi and Sudama caves, represent the beginning of the rock-cut architectural tradition in India during the 3rd century BCE. These structures were meticulously carved to replicate the prevailing wooden and thatched architecture of the time, featuring detailed representations of timber beams, rafters, and lattice work in stone.
Statement II is incorrect because the Barabar caves were dedicated to the Ajivika sect by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, not Chandragupta Maurya. Inscriptions found within the Sudama and Visvakarma caves confirm they were gifted by Ashoka in the 12th and 19th years of his reign. While the nearby Nagarjuni Hill caves were also dedicated to the Ajivikas, those were commissioned by Ashoka's grandson, Dasaratha.
55Art and Culture
Statement I:
Sculptures of the Gandhara School stylistically are typically linked to the Graeco- Roman and the Parthian art of Iran.
Statement II:
The earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat Valley pre- dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well- established in the pre- Kushana period.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is true because the Gandhara School of Art, which developed in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent, was a unique fusion of Buddhist themes with Hellenistic, Roman, and Iranian stylistic elements. The use of blue-grey schist, the depiction of the Buddha with wavy hair, realistic musculature, and heavy, folded drapery resembling a Roman toga directly reflect Graeco-Roman influence, while certain ornamental details and architectural motifs show Parthian and Persian artistic traditions.
Statement II is also true as archaeological excavations in the Swat Valley, particularly at sites like Butkara I, have unearthed stone carvings and reliefs depicting the Buddha that date back to the late first century BCE or early first century CE. These findings indicate that the anthropomorphic representation of the Buddha and specific iconographic conventions began to emerge during the late Saka-Parthian period, prior to the major expansion of the Kushana Empire. While both statements are factually accurate, the chronological origin of the images in the Swat Valley described in Statement II does not serve as the causal explanation for the specific Graeco-Roman and Parthian stylistic characteristics mentioned in Statement I.
56History
Statement I:
The Permanent Zarnindari Settlement of land created a new class of landlords.
Statement II:
The new class of landlords became strong political allies of the British and were interested in the continuance of British dominion.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The Permanent Settlement introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 transformed the traditional revenue collectors into a new class of landlords by granting them absolute proprietary rights over the land. This legal change made land a transferable and heritable property, which was a fundamental shift from the previous agrarian structure. The British implemented this specific settlement with the strategic objective of creating a wealthy and influential class that would be socially and economically dependent on the colonial administration for its existence. By anchoring the status and wealth of the Zamindars to British legal codes, the Company ensured that this class would remain loyal to the Crown and act as a political buffer against local unrest. Consequently, the Zamindars generally supported British interests to protect their own landholding privileges, which they believed would only be secure under the continuance of British rule.
57Geography
Statement I:
Chlorine radicals (Cl) initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion.
Statement II:
Gaseous hypochlorous acid and chlorine are photolyzed by sunlight.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Chlorine radicals (Cl·) act as catalysts in the stratospheric ozone depletion cycle. Statement I is true because a single chlorine radical can destroy thousands of ozone molecules through a chain reaction where it reacts with O₃ to form ClO and is subsequently regenerated. Statement II is also true and provides the correct explanation for the initiation of this process. During the polar winter, reservoir species like hydrogen chloride (HCl) and chlorine nitrate (ClONO₂) react on the surfaces of polar stratospheric clouds to form molecular chlorine (Cl₂) and hypochlorous acid (HOCl). When sunlight returns in the spring, these molecules undergo photolysis (Cl₂ + hν → 2Cl and HOCl + hν → OH + Cl), releasing the chlorine radicals that trigger the catalytic destruction of the ozone layer.
58History
Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom?
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Answer: (D) Sodium chloride
Explanation
Sodium chloride, commonly known as salt (NaCl), served as a powerful symbol of defiance against British colonial rule during the Indian independence movement. Mahatma Gandhi strategically chose salt for the Salt Satyagraha of 1930 because it was a basic necessity for every human being, regardless of caste, religion, or economic status. Under the British Salt Act of 1882, the colonial government held a monopoly on salt production and imposed a heavy tax on its consumption, which disproportionately affected the poor. By leading the Dandi March and symbolically picking up a handful of salt from the shores of Gujarat, Gandhi violated the law and launched the Civil Disobedience Movement. This act transformed a simple chemical compound into a unifying force that mobilized the masses and highlighted the injustice of British exploitation.
59Geography
Which one among the following is responsible for the expansion of water in the ocean?
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Answer: (A) Carbon dioxide
Explanation
Carbon dioxide is the most significant greenhouse gas contributing to the enhanced greenhouse effect. It traps heat within the Earth's atmosphere, leading to a steady increase in global mean temperatures. The oceans absorb a vast majority of this excess heat. When water warms up, the kinetic energy of its molecules increases, causing them to move more and occupy more space. This physical process is known as thermal expansion. As the global temperature rises due to the accumulation of carbon dioxide, the warming of ocean waters results in their expansion, which is one of the primary drivers of global sea-level rise.
60Science and Technology
Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc because
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Answer: (C) zinc is more reactive than tin
Explanation
Zinc is more reactive than tin as it occupies a higher position in the electrochemical or reactivity series of metals. Food items, particularly fruits and vegetables, contain organic acids that would readily react with a zinc coating. This chemical reaction would lead to the formation of toxic compounds and the release of hydrogen gas, making the food unfit for consumption. Tin is relatively unreactive and does not react with food acids, which ensures that the food remains uncontaminated and safe for long-term storage inside the can.
61Science and Technology
Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three-dimensional structures?
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Answer: (C) Diamond
Explanation
In diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and forms strong covalent bonds with four other carbon atoms arranged in a regular tetrahedral geometry. This bonding pattern repeats throughout the entire crystal, resulting in a continuous and rigid three-dimensional network. This dense, interconnected lattice structure is what gives diamond its exceptional hardness and high melting point, as the atoms are locked into a fixed position within the spatial framework.
62Science and Technology
What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction?
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Answer: (A) It increases the rate of reaction
Explanation
A positive catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It achieves this by providing an alternative reaction pathway or mechanism that has a lower activation energy (Eₐ) compared to the uncatalyzed reaction. According to the Arrhenius equation, k = Ae⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ, a decrease in the activation energy leads to an exponential increase in the rate constant k. This lower energy barrier allows a larger fraction of reactant molecules to possess sufficient kinetic energy to undergo successful collisions and transform into products at a given temperature, thereby accelerating the overall speed of the reaction.
63Science and Technology
Why hard water does not give lather with soap?
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Answer: (A) Hard water contains Ca and Mg ions which form precipitate with soap
Explanation
Hard water contains a high concentration of dissolved multivalent metallic cations, primarily calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) ions. Soap is chemically the sodium or potassium salt of long-chain fatty acids, such as sodium stearate (C₁₇H₃₅COONa). When soap is added to hard water, the Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions react with the soap molecules to form insoluble precipitates, commonly referred to as scum. The chemical reaction can be represented as 2C₁₇H₃₅COONa + Ca²⁺ → (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca ↓ + 2Na⁺. Because the soap molecules are consumed in the formation of these insoluble calcium and magnesium salts, they are unavailable to lower the surface tension of the water and create lather. Lather will only begin to form once all the calcium and magnesium ions in the water have been precipitated out.
64Science and Technology
Which one among the following metals is used in fireworks to make a brilliant white light?
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Answer: (B) Magnesium
Explanation
Magnesium is the primary metal used in pyrotechnics to create an intense, dazzling white light. When magnesium metal burns, it reacts with oxygen in the air to form magnesium oxide through the exothermic reaction 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO. This combustion process releases a tremendous amount of energy, producing a flame temperature that can exceed 3000 K. The high temperature results in the emission of a broad spectrum of visible light that the human eye perceives as a brilliant white. Because of this property, magnesium is the standard ingredient for white sparks, flash powder, and strobe effects in fireworks.
65Geography
Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are responsible for acid rains?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of carbon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of oxides of sulphur (SOₓ) and nitrogen (NOₓ) into the atmosphere. These gases undergo chemical reactions with water vapour, oxygen, and other oxidants in the air to form acidic compounds. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) reacts with water to form sulphurous acid (H₂SO₃) or is oxidized to sulphur trioxide (SO₃), which then reacts with water to produce sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄). Similarly, nitrogen oxides, particularly nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), react with water to form nitric acid (HNO₃) and nitrous acid (HNO₂). While carbon dioxide reacts with water to form a weak carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), this is a natural process that maintains normal rainwater at a pH of about 5.6; the term acid rain specifically refers to precipitation with a pH lower than this baseline, driven by the anthropogenic pollutants of sulphur and nitrogen.
66Science and Technology
Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood?
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Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide
Explanation
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that possesses an extremely high affinity for hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. This affinity is approximately 200 to 250 times greater than that of oxygen. When inhaled, carbon monoxide readily binds to the iron atom in the heme group of hemoglobin to form a stable complex called carboxyhemoglobin (COHb). This binding is largely irreversible under normal physiological conditions and effectively prevents hemoglobin from transporting and releasing oxygen to the body's tissues. The formation of carboxyhemoglobin reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, leading to tissue hypoxia even at low concentrations of the gas.
67Science and Technology
In human, which one among the following, with reference to breathing, is correct?
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Answer: (C) During inhalation, intra-pleural pressure becomes more negative
Explanation
Breathing is driven by pressure changes within the thoracic cavity according to Boyle's law, which states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. During inhalation, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, which increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. This expansion causes the intra-pleural pressure—the pressure in the fluid-filled space between the visceral and parietal pleura—to drop and become more negative relative to atmospheric pressure. Typically, intra-pleural pressure decreases from approximately -4 mmHg to about -6 or -8 mmHg during inspiration. This increased negative pressure creates the necessary suction to pull the lungs outward, expanding the alveoli and allowing air to flow into the lungs from the higher-pressure external environment.
68Science and Technology
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is used to measure
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Answer: (B) bone density
Explanation
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA or DXA) is the gold standard clinical technique for measuring bone mineral density (BMD). It utilizes two X-ray beams with different energy levels that are aimed at the patient's bones, typically the spine, hip, or forearm. Because bone and soft tissue absorb these two X-ray beams at different rates, the machine can subtract the soft tissue absorption to calculate the bone mineral density with high precision. This measurement is essential for diagnosing osteoporosis and osteopenia, as well as for predicting the risk of future bone fractures. The density is compared against standard references to provide a T-score, which indicates the degree of bone loss.
69Science and Technology
Human blood is a viscous fluid. This viscosity is due to
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Answer: (A) proteins in blood
Explanation
The viscosity of human blood is primarily determined by the concentration of plasma proteins, specifically fibrinogen, globulins, and albumin. These large macromolecules increase the internal friction of the fluid as layers of blood move past one another. Fibrinogen is particularly significant in this regard due to its large, elongated molecular structure, which creates substantial resistance to flow. While the cellular components of blood also contribute to its overall thickness, the presence of these dissolved proteins is the fundamental factor that establishes the viscosity of the plasma medium, ensuring the proper regulation of blood pressure and hemodynamic stability.
70Science and Technology
Cancer is more common in older people because
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Answer: (D) they have accumulated more mutations
Explanation
The development of cancer is a multi-step process characterized by the progressive accumulation of genetic damage within a single cell lineage. Throughout a person's life, their DNA is constantly exposed to mutagenic factors, including metabolic byproducts, errors during DNA replication, and environmental carcinogens such as ultraviolet radiation and chemicals. Because these mutations are cumulative and irreversible in the somatic genome, the probability that a cell will acquire the specific combination of hits in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes required for malignant transformation increases significantly over time. Consequently, the longer an individual lives, the greater the statistical likelihood that their cells have accumulated enough mutations to bypass cellular control mechanisms and initiate tumorigenesis.
71Science and Technology
What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)?
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Answer: (B) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is decreased
Explanation
The reduction in the pH of human blood, making it more acidic, triggers the Bohr effect. This physiological principle states that the oxygen-binding affinity of hemoglobin is inversely related to both acidity and the concentration of carbon dioxide. When pH decreases, the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) increases, which leads to the protonation of specific amino acid residues in the hemoglobin protein. This change promotes a structural transition in the hemoglobin molecule that stabilizes its deoxygenated state and reduces its affinity for oxygen. As a result, the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, meaning that hemoglobin is less effective at picking up oxygen in the lungs and more prone to releasing it, which effectively decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
72Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements about blood transfusion is correct? Blood group B can give blood to
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Answer: (B) blood groups B and AB, and receive from group B
Explanation
Blood group compatibility in the ABO system is determined by the presence of specific antigens on red blood cells and corresponding antibodies in the plasma. Individuals with blood group B have B antigens on their red blood cells and anti-A antibodies in their plasma. During transfusion, the donor's antigens must not be incompatible with the recipient's antibodies. Group B can donate to individuals with blood group B because the antigens match and to those with blood group AB because AB individuals are universal recipients lacking both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Conversely, group B individuals can safely receive blood from other group B donors because their anti-A antibodies will not react with the B antigens of the donated blood. While group B can also receive from group O, the statement provided in the correct option accurately reflects a set of compatible transfusion paths.
73Science and Technology
Confirmation of the presence of Higgs boson will justify
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Answer: (D) the mass of the fundamental particles
Explanation
The Higgs boson is the fundamental particle associated with the Higgs field, which according to the Standard Model of particle physics gives mass to other elementary particles such as quarks and leptons. This process occurs through the Brout-Englert-Higgs mechanism, wherein particles acquire mass based on the strength of their interaction with the Higgs field that permeates the entire universe. Without the existence of this field and its corresponding boson, these fundamental particles would remain massless and travel at the speed of light, making the formation of atoms and stable matter impossible. The experimental confirmation of the Higgs boson at the Large Hadron Collider validated the theoretical mechanism that explains why fundamental particles possess mass.
74Science and Technology
The gastrointestinal hormones namely secretin and cholecystokinin secreted by duodenal epithelium activate respectively which organs to discharge their secretions?
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Answer: (A) Pancreas and gallbladder
Explanation
Secretin is a hormone produced by the S-cells of the duodenal epithelium in response to the presence of acidic chyme entering from the stomach. Its primary physiological role is to stimulate the pancreatic duct cells to secrete a fluid high in bicarbonate ions, which neutralizes the acidity in the small intestine. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by the I-cells of the duodenum and upper jejunum, mainly in response to fats and proteins. It acts on the gallbladder, causing it to contract and release stored bile into the duodenum to facilitate the emulsification and digestion of lipids. While CCK also stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes, the functional pairing often emphasized in digestive physiology links secretin to pancreatic bicarbonate and cholecystokinin to gallbladder contraction.
75Economy
Milk is unique in its nutritive value. However, it is a poor source of
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Answer: (B) iron
Explanation
Milk is considered a nearly complete food because it contains high-quality proteins, fats, carbohydrates in the form of lactose, and essential minerals like calcium and phosphorus. However, it is notably deficient in iron. The concentration of iron in cow milk is approximately 0.2 to 0.5 mg per liter, which is insufficient to meet human physiological needs. Because of this significant lack, an exclusive milk diet over a long period can lead to iron-deficiency anemia, often referred to as milk anemia in infants. Milk is also recognized for being a poor source of Vitamin C and dietary fiber.
76Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding antibiotics:
1. They are used to destroy disease-causing bacteria.
2. They can be applied to the skin, swallowed or injected to fight microorganisms inside the body.
3. They are effective against disease-causing viruses.
4. The first antibiotic to be discovered was tetracycline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Antibiotics are chemical substances produced by microorganisms or synthesized chemically that specifically target and kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria. They function by interfering with essential bacterial processes such as cell wall synthesis, protein production, or DNA replication. Because viruses lack these bacterial structures and metabolic pathways, antibiotics are completely ineffective against viral infections.
To combat infections effectively, antibiotics are administered through various routes depending on the severity and location of the ailment. They can be applied topically to the skin for localized infections, swallowed as pills or liquids for systemic distribution via the gastrointestinal tract, or injected directly into the muscles or bloodstream to treat serious internal infections. Penicillin, discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928, was the first true antibiotic, appearing well before the development of tetracycline in the 1940s.
77Science and Technology
In terms of magnetic properties, oxygen belongs to
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Answer: (C) paramagnetic materials
Explanation
Oxygen (O₂) is classified as a paramagnetic material due to the presence of two unpaired electrons in its molecular structure. This property is accurately described by Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT). According to the electronic configuration of the oxygen molecule, electrons fill the molecular orbitals as σ1s² σ1s² σ2s² σ2s² σ2p_z² (π2p_x² = π2p_y²) (π2p_x¹ = π2p_y¹).
The two electrons in the highest occupied molecular orbitals (the antibonding π* orbitals) remain unpaired and have parallel spins in accordance with Hund's rule. These unpaired electrons create a permanent magnetic dipole moment. Consequently, oxygen molecules are weakly attracted toward the poles of a magnetic field, which is the hallmark of paramagnetism. This phenomenon is most visibly demonstrated when liquid oxygen is poured between the poles of a powerful magnet and remains suspended there.
78Science and Technology
Light-emitting diode [LED] converts
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Answer: (B) electrical energy into light energy
Explanation
A Light-Emitting Diode (LED) is a semiconductor p-n junction device that operates on the principle of electroluminescence. When the diode is forward-biased, an electric current flows through the junction, causing electrons from the n-region to move toward the p-region and holes from the p-region to move toward the n-region. As these charge carriers cross the junction, they undergo recombination. During this process, electrons in the higher energy conduction band fall into holes in the lower energy valence band, releasing energy in the form of photons. The energy of the emitted photon E corresponds to the bandgap energy E₈ of the semiconductor material, as defined by the relation E = hν, where h is Planck's constant and ν is the frequency of light. This direct emission of light as a result of electrical excitation ensures that the LED functions by converting electrical energy into light energy.
79Science and Technology
The Celsius temperature is a/an
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Answer: (A) relative temperature
Explanation
The Celsius scale is classified as a relative temperature scale because its zero point is arbitrarily defined based on the freezing point of pure water at standard atmospheric pressure. Unlike absolute temperature scales, such as the Kelvin scale, where zero represents the total absence of thermal energy (absolute zero), the Celsius scale uses the physical properties of water as a reference. Since 0°C corresponds to approximately 273.15 K, a temperature reading in Celsius indicates how much hotter or colder an object is relative to the freezing point of water rather than relative to the fundamental limit of thermodynamic coldness.
80Science and Technology
The gas used in a refrigerator is
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Answer: (D) cooled down when expanded
Explanation
Refrigeration systems operate on the principle of the vapor compression cycle, where the primary cooling effect is achieved through the rapid expansion of a refrigerant. When a high-pressure liquid or gas is forced through an expansion valve or a capillary tube into a region of lower pressure, it undergoes adiabatic expansion. According to the Joule-Thomson effect, as the gas expands, it does work against internal intermolecular forces. This work is performed at the expense of its internal kinetic energy, which leads to a significant decrease in the temperature of the gas. In the evaporator coils of a refrigerator, this chilled refrigerant absorbs heat from the interior compartment, thereby lowering the temperature inside. This physical process confirms that the gas is cooled down when expanded.
81Science and Technology
If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact
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Answer: (B) the total charge on the two spheres is conserved
Explanation
The principle of conservation of charge states that the total electric charge in an isolated system remains constant, regardless of the internal changes or interactions taking place within that system. When two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought into contact, charge flows from the sphere at a higher potential to the sphere at a lower potential until they reach a common electrostatic potential. During this redistribution process, while electrons move from one conductor to the other, no net charge is created or destroyed. Consequently, the algebraic sum of the charges on the two spheres before contact is exactly equal to the algebraic sum of the charges after contact, which can be expressed as Qᵢₙᵢₜᵢₐₗ = Q₁ + Q₂ = Q'₁ + Q'₂ = Q_(final).
82Science and Technology
Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for how of ink?
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Answer: (A) Fountain pen
Explanation
A fountain pen functions through the combined principles of capillary action and gravity. The pen consists of an ink reservoir and a feed system with very narrow channels or slits. When the nib of the pen touches the paper, the ink is drawn from the reservoir through these microscopic channels in the feed and down the slit of the nib to the paper's surface. This movement is driven by capillary action, which is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces without the assistance of, or even in opposition to, external forces like gravity. Simultaneously, gravity helps maintain a downward pressure on the ink supply to ensure a continuous flow toward the feed mechanism, while the capillary system regulates the flow and allows air to enter the reservoir to replace the consumed ink.
83Geography
Nearly 30% of the solar radiations return back to the space without contributing anything to the earth's surface temperature. This amount of radiation is known as
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Answer: (C) earth's albedo
Explanation
Earth's albedo is the measure of the reflectivity of the Earth's surface and atmosphere. It represents the fraction of incoming shortwave solar radiation that is reflected back into space before it can be absorbed and converted into heat. On average, approximately 30 percent of the total solar energy reaching the top of the atmosphere is reflected away by clouds, atmospheric particles, and reflective surfaces like snow and ice. Because this energy is reflected directly back to space, it does not participate in the planetary energy heating process, thus playing a crucial role in determining the Earth's global energy balance and surface temperature.
84Science and Technology
The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease due to the effect of
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Answer: (B) ozone concentration
Explanation
At high cruising altitudes, typically between 30,000 and 40,000 feet, the aircraft flies through the lower stratosphere where the concentration of atmospheric ozone (O₃) is naturally much higher than at sea level. Aircraft ventilation systems draw in this outside air to pressurize the cabin. Ozone is a highly reactive gas and a potent respiratory irritant that acts as a powerful oxidant. Prolonged or repeated exposure to even low concentrations of ozone causes inflammation of the lung lining, coughing, and shortness of breath. For aircrews and frequent passengers, this chronic exposure can damage the respiratory tract and exacerbate conditions similar to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease by reducing overall lung function and elasticity.
85Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Agent) List-II (Disease)
A. Arsenic 1. Fluorosis
B. Fluoride 2. Melanosis
C. Dust 3. Presbycusis
D. Noise 4. Silicosis
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Arsenic exposure is a primary cause of Melanosis, which manifests as dark spots or hyperpigmentation on the skin due to chronic toxicity. Fluoride ingestion in excessive amounts through drinking water leads to Fluorosis, which is characterized by the mottling of tooth enamel or permanent skeletal deformities. Inhalation of silica-rich Dust, common in mining and construction industries, causes Silicosis, a progressive fibrotic lung disease resulting from the inflammation and scarring of lung tissue. Prolonged exposure to high levels of Noise is associated with auditory impairment; although Presbycusis is technically defined as age-related hearing loss, it is categorized here as the pathological condition related to the degradation of the auditory system.
86Economy
Which of the following statements regarding recycling is/are correct?
1. Recycling is just the collection and separation of the waste materials.
2. Recycling is the collection and separation of the materials from the waste stream and their subsequent processing to produce a marketable product.
3. Recycling leads to reduction of waste disposal cost.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Recycling is a comprehensive process involving the recovery of materials from the waste stream and their subsequent transformation into new, usable products. This cycle ensures that resources are conserved and returned to the economic market rather than being permanently discarded. Additionally, by diverting materials such as paper, plastic, glass, and metal away from landfills and incinerators, recycling significantly decreases the total volume of waste that must be managed. This reduction in waste volume leads to a direct decrease in disposal costs, including transportation expenses and landfill tipping fees, making it an economically beneficial component of integrated waste management systems.
87Geography
Which one among the following Indian rivers originates in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast?
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Answer: (C) Krishna
Explanation
The Krishna River originates in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1,337 metres near Mahabaleshwar in the Satara district of Maharashtra. It flows for a total length of approximately 1,400 kilometres before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Its course takes it through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh (noting that in 2013, Telangana was still part of Andhra Pradesh). After flowing through these three states, the river reaches its delta and empties into the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi on the Andhra coast. It is one of the most important peninsular rivers in India, supporting extensive agriculture and hydroelectric projects across its basin.
88Geography
The planetary winds that blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts to the Equator are known as
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Answer: (D) trade winds
Explanation
Trade winds are permanent planetary winds that blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts, located at approximately 30° North and South latitudes, toward the equatorial low-pressure belt. Driven by the pressure gradient force and deflected by the Coriolis effect, these winds blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere. They are characterized by their consistent direction and velocity, traditionally serving as crucial routes for sailing ships engaged in global commerce. In the tropics, these winds facilitate the transport of moisture and influence the formation of tropical weather systems as they converge near the equator.
89Geography
Which one among the following Indian rivers originates in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast?
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Answer: (C) Krishna
Explanation
The Krishna River originates in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1,337 metres near Mahabaleshwar in the Satara district of Maharashtra. It flows eastward for approximately 1,400 kilometres across the Indian peninsula. The river travels through the states of Maharashtra and Karnataka before entering the territory that, in 2013, constituted the unified state of Andhra Pradesh. It eventually reaches the Bay of Bengal, discharging its waters at Hamsaladeevi on the Andhra coast. The Krishna basin is the second-largest east-flowing peninsular river basin, covering significant portions of these three states.
90Science and Technology
90. Which one among the following statements about blood transfusion is correct? Blood group B can give blood to
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Answer: (B) blood groups B and AB, and receive from group B
Explanation
The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells and antibodies in the plasma. Individuals with blood group B have B antigens on their red blood cells and anti-A antibodies in their plasma. In blood transfusion, compatibility depends on ensuring the donor antigens do not react with the recipient antibodies. Since group B individuals possess anti-A antibodies, they can safely receive blood from group B donors (which have no A antigens) or group O donors (the universal donor). Furthermore, because group B individuals have B antigens, they can donate blood to other group B individuals or to group AB individuals. Group AB is known as the universal recipient because it lacks both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, allowing it to accept blood from any ABO group without an immune reaction. Therefore, it is correct that group B can give blood to both B and AB groups and can receive blood from group B.
91Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Agent) List-II (Disease)
A. Arsenic 1. Fluorosis
B. Fluoride 2. Melanosis
C. Dust 3. Presbycusis
D. Noise 4. Silicosis
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Arsenic exposure, primarily through contaminated drinking water, leads to various skin disorders including hyperpigmentation and dark spots known as melanosis. Fluoride ingestion in excessive amounts causes fluorosis, which manifests as the mottling of dental enamel and skeletal deformities. Inhalation of mineral dust, specifically crystalline silica, leads to silicosis, a form of occupational lung disease characterized by inflammation and scarring in the lungs. Noise is the physical agent associated with hearing impairment, and in the context of this list, it is paired with presbycusis, which refers to the clinical condition of hearing loss.
92Science and Technology
Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink?
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Answer: (A) Fountain pen
Explanation
The fountain pen operates on the principle of capillary action combined with the force of gravity. Ink is held in a reservoir and travels through a feed system to the nib. The feed contains microscopic channels that act as capillaries, using surface tension to pull the ink from the reservoir toward the tip of the pen. When the nib comes into contact with paper, the paper fibers exert an even stronger capillary pull, drawing the ink out of the nib slit. While gravity ensures the ink moves toward the bottom of the pen, capillary action is the primary force that regulates the flow and prevents the ink from simply leaking out or failing to reach the writing surface. This mechanism allows for a consistent and continuous supply of ink during the writing process.
93Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Agent) List-II (Disease)
A. Arsenic 1. Fluorosis
B. Fluoride 2. Melanosis
C. Dust 3. Presbycusis
D. Noise 4. Silicosis
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Arsenic exposure through contaminated groundwater or industrial environments leads to Melanosis, a condition characterized by abnormal skin pigmentation and keratosis. Fluoride ingestion in excessive quantities results in Fluorosis, which manifests as the mottling of tooth enamel and skeletal deformities. Dust, particularly crystalline silica dust, causes Silicosis, an occupational lung disease marked by inflammation and scarring in the form of nodular lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Noise is associated with Presbycusis in the context of auditory health; while Presbycusis specifically refers to age-related hearing loss, it represents the hearing impairment category linked to noise as an environmental stressor in this matching set.
94Geography
Which one among the following statements about the international Date Line is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The difference in time to the extent of one day on either side of the International Date Line is caused by inclined axis of the earth
Explanation
The 24-hour time difference across the International Date Line is a direct consequence of the Earth rotating 360 degrees on its axis over a 24-hour period, leading to a change of 15 degrees of longitude per hour. The inclined axis of the Earth, which is tilted at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees relative to its orbital plane, is responsible for the occurrence of seasons and the varying lengths of day and night throughout the year. It has no causal relationship with the convention of the International Date Line or the standard one-day time jump, which is strictly a function of longitudinal position and the Earth's rotation from west to east.
95Geography
If the time of a place located on 165° E meridian is 11:00 p.m. on Sunday, what would be the time at the place located on 165° W meridian?
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Answer: (C) 1:00 a.m. on Sunday
Explanation
The time difference between two meridians is calculated based on the Earth rotation rate of 15° per hour. For a place at 165° E and another at 165° W, the total longitudinal gap via the Prime Meridian is 165° + 165° = 330°. Dividing this by 15° per hour gives a time difference of 22 hours. Since the 165° W meridian is west of the 165° E meridian, its time is behind. Subtracting 22 hours from 11:00 p.m. on Sunday results in 1:00 a.m. on Sunday. This can also be verified using Greenwich Mean Time (GMT): 165° E is 11 hours ahead of GMT (165 / 15 = 11), making GMT 12:00 noon on Sunday. Because 165° W is 11 hours behind GMT, subtracting 11 hours from 12:00 noon results in 1:00 a.m. on Sunday.
96Geography
Which one among the following is not an igneous rock?
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Answer: (D) Gneiss
Explanation
Gneiss is a high-grade metamorphic rock formed by the transformation of pre-existing igneous or sedimentary rocks under conditions of extreme heat and pressure. This process, known as regional metamorphism, causes the minerals within the parent rock to recrystallize and segregate into characteristic alternating dark and light mineral bands, a texture referred to as foliation or gneissose banding. Unlike igneous rocks, which form from the cooling and solidification of molten magma or lava, gneiss is the result of solid-state chemical and structural changes occurring deep within the Earth's crust.
97Geography
The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits?
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Answer: (C) Lacustrine
Explanation
Karewas are the thick lacustrine deposits found in the valley of Kashmir and the Bhadarwah Valley of the Jammu Division. These formations consist of sand, silt, clay, shale, mud, lignite, gravel, and loessic sediments. Geologically, they represent the sediments of an ancient lake that existed during the Pleistocene period. The lake was formed when the upliftment of the Pir Panjal range blocked the natural drainage of the region. As the Jhelum River eventually breached the mountain barrier at Baramulla, the lake drained out, leaving behind these elevated, flat-topped terraces. These deposits are highly fertile and are world-famous for the cultivation of saffron, particularly the Zafran variety, as well as orchards for almonds and walnuts.
98Art and Culture
On which one among the following islands does the Negrito tribe called 'the Onge' live?
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Answer: (B) Little Andaman
Explanation
The Onge are one of the indigenous Negrito tribes of the Andaman Islands and are primarily settled on the island of Little Andaman. As a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), their traditional territory encompasses the entire island of Little Andaman, which is the southernmost island of the Andaman group. Currently, the Onge population is mainly concentrated in two designated settlements on the island, specifically at Dugong Creek and South Bay. Their socio-economic lifestyle historically revolved around hunting and gathering within the tropical forests and coastal waters of this specific island. While other islands in the archipelago house different Negrito or Mongoloid tribes, the Onge are uniquely associated with the geography and ecology of Little Andaman.
99Geography
Velconda Hills, which is a part of Eastern Ghats, is situated in
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
The Velconda Hills, also known as the Velikonda Range, are a low mountain range that constitutes a part of the Eastern Ghats system in India. They are located in the southeastern region of Andhra Pradesh, stretching primarily across the districts of Nellore and Kadapa. These hills are characterized by ancient folded rock structures and form the eastern flank of the Cuddapah Basin. The range lies to the north of the Nagari Hills and helps define the physical geography of the Rayalaseema region, serving as a significant topographical feature that influences the drainage and climate of the local area within the state.
100Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Cement Production Centre) List-II (State)
A. Sikka 1. Karnataka
B. Andrawati 2. Jharkhand
C. Ranchi 3. Gujarat
D. Kurnool 4. Andhra Pradesh
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Answer: (A) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Sikka is a prominent cement manufacturing center located in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat, known for its proximity to coastal transport. Andrawati is associated with the cement production clusters found in Karnataka, which utilizes the state's extensive limestone deposits. Ranchi is the capital of Jharkhand and acts as a central hub for the mineral-based cement industry within the Chota Nagpur plateau. Kurnool is a major limestone-bearing district in Andhra Pradesh that hosts numerous large-scale cement plants, making it a vital production center in South India.
101Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. In any nation, human development outcomes are a function of economic growth, social policy and poverty reduction measures at the macro-level.
2. The expansion of human development in terms of health and education attainment, reduction of income poverty and economic growth is linked in a synergistic manner.
3. Investment in health and education can enhance human functioning which can eventually alleviate income poverty by improving employability.
4. Resources generated through income poverty reduction and economic growth can be used to enhance human development.
Which of the statements given above are logical and correct?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Human development is a holistic process where macro-level variables such as economic growth, social policy frameworks, and poverty alleviation strategies collectively determine the well-being of a population. There is a synergistic relationship between economic growth and human development indicators; growth provides the financial resources necessary for public services, while improved health and education levels create a more productive workforce that drives further growth. Specifically, investments in health and education enhance human functioning and capabilities, which increases an individual's employability and income-earning potential, thereby reducing poverty. Simultaneously, the resources generated through higher incomes and economic expansion are often reinvested into social sectors, creating a virtuous cycle of sustainable development. All four statements accurately reflect these interconnected principles of development economics as advocated by the United Nations Human Development Reports and the capability approach.
102Economy
Whether India is experiencing inclusive growth in the true sense can be assessed by looking at
1. the economic growth indicators of the different States of India
2. whether different social groups like the SCs, STs and Minorities are getting excluded from the development process
3. whether the government's various flagship programmes are reaching the socially excluded
4. State-by-State human development profile
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Inclusive growth, as emphasized in the 11th and 12th Five Year Plans, refers to a growth process that is broad-based and ensures that the benefits of development are shared across all sections of society. The assessment of whether growth is inclusive in the true sense relies on measuring the social and human impact of economic progress. Statement 2 is a fundamental metric as it checks the participation of marginalized social groups like SCs, STs, and Minorities in the development process, ensuring they are not excluded. Statement 3 evaluates the success of governance and administrative mechanisms in delivering the benefits of flagship welfare programmes to the intended beneficiaries. Statement 4 utilizes the Human Development Index parameters, such as health and education levels across states, to provide a qualitative assessment of growth beyond mere GDP figures. These three factors collectively capture the social, administrative, and developmental dimensions of inclusivity.
103Polity and Governance
Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India?
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Answer: (B) Executing major policy decisions
Explanation
The execution and implementation of major policy decisions is the primary responsibility of the Executive branch of government, which includes the Council of Ministers and the permanent bureaucracy. Under the Indian constitutional framework, the Parliament functions as a legislative and deliberative body that authorizes policies and oversees the government through various mechanisms of accountability, but it does not directly perform the administrative task of execution. The operationalization of laws and the management of public affairs on a daily basis are administrative acts that fall outside the scope of parliamentary functions, which are centered on representation, legislation, constituent matters, and financial control.
104Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Punishments can be prescribed by a State legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
Explanation
Article 35 of the Constitution of India expressly provides that the power to make laws for prescribing punishments for acts declared to be offences under Part III vests exclusively in the Parliament. This article specifically excludes the State Legislatures from exercising such power, even if the subject matter of the law might otherwise fall within the legislative competence of the State. This centralisation of power is intended to ensure uniformity in the nature of fundamental rights and the penalties for their infringement across all states and union territories of India. Therefore, for offences like untouchability under Article 17 or forced labour under Article 23, only the Parliament can enact penal statutes like the Protection of Civil Rights Act or the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act.
105Polity and Governance
The Government of India Act, 1919
1. established a bicameral legislature at the Centre
2. introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive
3. introduced a federal system of government in India
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced a bicameral legislature at the central level. This reform replaced the previous unicameral Imperial Legislative Council with two houses: the Council of State as the upper house and the Legislative Assembly as the lower house. This structural change established the principle of direct elections for a majority of the members in both houses. Additionally, the Act introduced the system of dyarchy in the provincial executive. This system divided provincial administrative subjects into two distinct categories: Transferred and Reserved. Transferred subjects were administered by the Governor with the assistance of ministers who were responsible to the provincial Legislative Council. In contrast, Reserved subjects were administered by the Governor and his executive council without any responsibility to the legislature, effectively creating a dual system of governance within the provinces.
106Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Explanation
The Fundamental Duties of citizens are enumerated in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution of India, which was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Specifically, Article 51A(d) states that it is the duty of every citizen of India to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. This obligation reflects the responsibility of citizens to contribute to the security and sovereignty of the nation, emphasizing that rights and duties are correlative. While most Fundamental Duties relate to civic or ethical conduct, this particular duty underscores the commitment required from citizens during times of national exigency or for the advancement of national interests.
107History
Who among the following was not associated with the foundation of the All India Trade Union Congress?
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Answer: (C) V. V. Giri
Explanation
The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established on October 31, 1920, in Bombay to represent Indian labor at the International Labour Organization (ILO). The foundation was led by prominent figures such as Lala Lajpat Rai, who served as the first President of the organization, Joseph Baptista, who was the Vice-President, and N.M. Joshi, who acted as the General Secretary. While V.V. Giri was a stalwart of the trade union movement in India and eventually served as the President of the AITUC in 1926 and 1942, his active leadership within the organization began after its initial founding year. He was not among the primary office bearers or organizers responsible for the creation of the AITUC in 1920.
108Polity and Governance
India's Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the post-Cold War watershed changes in the international geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy
1. reflects both historical imperatives and contemporary compulsion of the post-Cold War new world order
2. seeks to optimize India's synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood
3. has led to India's participation in Asia-Pacific forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit, BIMSTEC and other institutions
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
India launched the Look East Policy in 1991 to redefine its foreign policy in the post-Cold War era, moving away from its traditional focus on the Soviet bloc toward the dynamic economies of Southeast Asia. This shift reflected historical imperatives by reviving civilizational ties and contemporary compulsions driven by the 1991 economic crisis and the emergence of a unipolar world. The policy sought to optimize India's economic and strategic synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighborhood to facilitate domestic development and regional security. This strategic reorientation directly led to India becoming a full dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1995, a member of the ASEAN Regional Forum in 1996, and a founding member of the East Asia Summit in 2005. It also fostered the creation of sub-regional institutions like BIMSTEC to bridge the gap between South and Southeast Asia.
109History
In his lectures on nationalism, Rabindranath Tagore argued that
1. nationalism frees men and women from narrow loyalties and bonds, and connects them to wider and better community of fellowship
2. nationalism will foster a feeling of rootedness and cultural belonging, and put an end to warmongering
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore was a profound critic of nationalism, viewing it as a mechanical and soulless organization of politics and commerce for the pursuit of power. In his lectures on the subject, he argued that nationalism is an expression of collective egoism and organized selfishness, which inevitably leads to imperialism and global conflict rather than ending warmongering. He believed that the concept of the Nation is an artificial construct that stifles individual moral freedom and replaces the natural, social bonds of humanity with a geographical demon. Tagore maintained that nationalism narrows the human perspective by creating barriers between people, thus hindering the realization of a universal human fellowship. Instead of connecting individuals to a wider and better community, he felt nationalism forced them into a state of constant competition and suspicion against other nations, advocating instead for internationalism and the spiritual unity of mankind.
110History
Several nationalist leaders in India wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita to argue the case for an ethical foundation to Indian nationalism. Who among the following is an exception to it?
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Answer: (D) Ramnanohar Lohia
Explanation
Rammanohar Lohia was a prominent socialist leader and thinker who focused his intellectual work on social justice, the eradication of the caste system, and the development of an indigenous socialist ideology. Unlike the other leaders mentioned, Lohia did not write a formal commentary or a dedicated philosophical treatise on the Bhagavad Gita to establish an ethical or spiritual basis for Indian nationalism. While he frequently referenced Indian mythology and culture to connect with the masses, his primary contributions involved the Four-Pillar State theory and the Saptakranti (Seven Revolutions). The practice of utilizing the Gita as a foundational text for nationalist ethics was specifically characteristic of the earlier generation of leaders like Tilak, Gandhi, and Aurobindo, who sought to mobilize the independence movement through spiritual reinterpretations of the scripture.
111Polity and Governance
Which one among the following Committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Estimates Committee
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is a standing committee of the Parliament of India that consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected by the Lok Sabha from among its own members. It is the only financial committee where the Rajya Sabha has no representation. The committee is tasked with examining the budget estimates and suggesting economies, improvements in organization, or administrative reforms consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. Since the Lok Sabha has the ultimate authority over financial matters and the budget, the membership is drawn exclusively from the lower house to ensure direct accountability. Members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
112Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a constitutional body in India?
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Answer: (D) National Human Rights Commission
Explanation
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It was established on October 12, 1993, under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Statutory bodies are created by an Act of Parliament and can be modified or abolished by ordinary legislative processes. Since there is no specific Article in the Constitution of India that mandates the creation or defines the powers of this commission, it does not carry constitutional status. Its authority and functions are derived entirely from the legislative framework enacted by the Union Parliament to protect and promote human rights within the country.
113Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The anti-defection law bans an elected member from voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party.
2. The anti-defection provisions do not apply if one-third of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the party and constitute themselves as 'a separate party.'
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985, provides for the disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection. Statement 1 is correct because Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule stipulates that a member of a House shall be disqualified if they vote or abstain from voting in the House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which they belong, or by any person or authority authorized by it, without obtaining prior permission.
Statement 2 is incorrect because while the original 52nd Amendment Act allowed for an exception in the case of a split involving one-third of the members of a legislative party, this provision was subsequently deleted. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 removed the protection for splits to curb frequent defections. Since that amendment, the law only recognizes a merger as an exception, which requires at least two-thirds of the members of a legislative party to agree to the merger with another political party to avoid disqualification.
114Polity and Governance
The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the Committee?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of Assam
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas Sub-Committee was chaired by Gopinath Bordoloi under the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly. The committee recommended a unique administrative setup to ensure the protection of tribal land, customs, and culture while integrating these areas into the provincial administration of Assam. These recommendations directly led to the drafting of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, which provides for the administration of tribal areas in the state through the establishment of Autonomous District Councils. These councils were designed to possess significant legislative, judicial, and executive powers to manage local affairs, such as land allotment, forest management, and the administration of justice according to tribal laws. While the Fifth Schedule was designed for tribal areas in the rest of India, the Bordoloi Committee specifically advocated for the Sixth Schedule framework to provide a higher degree of autonomy to the hill districts of Assam.
115Polity and Governance
How does participatory budgeting seek to make the functioning of local governance institutions more transparent and accountable?
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over the distribution of public resources
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be spent
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important decision-making venues
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Participatory budgeting is a democratic process that enables community members to directly decide how to spend part of a public budget. It fosters transparency and accountability by requiring local governments to open their financial books and decision-making processes to public scrutiny. By engaging in deliberation and negotiation, citizens move beyond passive observation to actively determine the distribution of public resources based on collective priorities. This direct role in deciding the specifics of how and where funds are allocated ensures that public spending aligns with the actual needs of the residents. Additionally, the process is specifically designed to promote social equity by providing historically excluded and marginalized citizens with structured access to decision-making venues. By empowering these groups to influence policy and resource allocation, participatory budgeting breaks down traditional barriers to governance and holds local institutions directly accountable to the entire community.
116Polity and Governance
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) was proposed by the Central Government under the overall umbrella of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Which of the following are the objectives of the scheme?
1. Provision of better diet for pregnant women from BPL families
2. To reduce overall maternal mortality ratio and infant mortality rate
3. To provide cash assistance with antenatal care during the pregnancy period
4. To provide institutional care during delivery and immediate postpartum period in a health centre
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Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), launched in April 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), is a safe motherhood intervention aimed at reducing maternal and neonatal mortality. Its primary objective is to decrease the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) by incentivizing pregnant women to opt for institutional deliveries rather than at-home births.
The scheme operates as a conditional cash transfer program where eligible pregnant women receive financial assistance integrated with at least three antenatal care (ANC) check-ups. This cash incentive is designed to cover costs associated with travel and medical needs, thereby encouraging women from low-income backgrounds to seek professional medical attention during the pregnancy period. Furthermore, the scheme focuses on providing institutional care during the critical windows of delivery and the immediate postpartum period within a health center. This ensures that skilled birth attendants are available to manage complications, which is the core strategy for achieving the program's mortality reduction targets.
117Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following was put on trial for genocidal war at the United Nations International War Crime Tribunal?
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Answer: (C) Slobodan Milosevic
Explanation
Slobodan Milosevic, the former President of Serbia and the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia, was the first sitting head of state to be indicted for war crimes by an international tribunal. He was brought before the International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia (ICTY), a United Nations body established by the Security Council. His trial at The Hague began in 2002, where he faced charges of genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes for his role in the conflicts in Bosnia, Croatia, and Kosovo during the 1990s. Specifically, the genocide charges were related to the mass killings of Bosnian Muslims, most notably the Srebrenica massacre. He died in his cell in 2006 before a verdict could be reached.
118Polity and Governance
Which one among the following countries redefined the principles of Pancasihla' for the purpose of domestic politics?
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Answer: (C) Indonesia
Explanation
Pancasila is the official foundational philosophical theory of the Indonesian state. Formulated by Sukarno in 1945, it comprises five principles: belief in one God, just and civilized humanity, the unity of Indonesia, democracy through deliberation, and social justice. While it originated as a unifying framework for a diverse nation, it was extensively redefined for domestic political purposes during President Suharto's New Order regime. Under Suharto, Pancasila was transformed into a mandatory state ideology known as asas tunggal (sole basis), requiring all political parties and social organizations to adopt it. This redefinition allowed the government to enforce ideological conformity, maintain political stability, and delegitimize any religious or political opposition that deviated from the state-sanctioned interpretation of these principles.
119Polity and Governance
The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Law popularly known as PESA Law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA Law is not correct?
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Answer: (B) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
Explanation
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, popularly known as the PESA Law, was specifically designed to empower Gram Sabhas rather than disempower them. Enacted based on the recommendations of the Bhuria Committee, the law aims to extend the panchayat system to tribal areas under the Fifth Schedule while ensuring that local communities retain control over their traditions and resources. The Act mandates that every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions, customs, cultural identity, and community resources of the tribal people. It grants Gram Sabhas the power of mandatory consultation in land acquisition, management of minor water bodies, and control over minor forest produce and local markets. By placing the Gram Sabha at the center of self-governance, the PESA Law ensures that decision-making power rests with the local tribal community instead of being concentrated in higher administrative levels.