Statement I : El Nino is a temperature rising phenomenon over the Pacific Ocean and usually causes dry monsoon in South Asia.
Statement, II : Tsunamis are usually not noticed as the massive ocean waves move silently but assume destructive form as these travel through shallow waters of continental shelves.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
Explanation
El Nino is characterized by the unusual warming of surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean, which disrupts the normal Walker Circulation and weakens the trade winds. This atmospheric shift typically leads to a suppression of the Indian Summer Monsoon, resulting in below-average rainfall or dry conditions across South Asia.
Tsunamis are seismic sea waves generated by underwater disturbances like earthquakes. In the deep ocean, these waves have a very small amplitude and an extremely long wavelength, making them almost imperceptible to ships. As they approach the shallow waters of the continental shelves, their velocity decreases and their energy is compressed, causing the wave height to rise dramatically in a process known as shoaling. While both statements are scientifically accurate, they describe unrelated phenomena; the physical behavior of tsunamis provides no explanation for the climatic impact of El Nino.
2Geography
Statement I : Anticyclone, which is a high pressure wind system, does not bring about significant change in weather condition.
Statement II : The outward movement of wind from the high pressure centre keeps limited scope for weather disturbance.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
Explanation
Anticyclones are atmospheric systems characterized by high pressure at the center relative to the surrounding environment. In these systems, air descends from the upper levels of the troposphere toward the surface, a process known as subsidence. As the air sinks, it undergoes adiabatic warming, which lowers its relative humidity and suppresses the formation of clouds and precipitation. At the surface, this air diverges or moves outward from the high-pressure center due to the pressure gradient force. This horizontal divergence maintains the downward vertical motion of air from above, which prevents the convection necessary for atmospheric instability. Because the descending and outward-moving air creates a stable environment with clear skies and light winds, anticyclones are typically associated with settled weather and a lack of significant weather disturbances. The physical mechanism of outward wind movement and the resulting subsidence described in Statement II directly accounts for the stable, unchanging weather conditions identified in Statement I.
3History
Statement I : Annie Besant worked together with the Congress and the Muslim League during the Home Rule Movement.
Statement II : Annie Besant felt that this was necessary to get the support of the masses for the Home Rule Movement.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Explanation
Statement I is correct because Annie Besant was a key architect of the Lucknow Pact in 1916. She recognized that for the Home Rule Movement to exert significant pressure on the British government, a unified political front was essential. Consequently, she worked tirelessly to bridge the gap between the Moderates and Extremists within the Indian National Congress and to foster cooperation between the Congress and the Muslim League.
Statement II is incorrect because the Home Rule Movement was primarily an urban, middle-class movement led by the educated intelligentsia. Besant’s political strategy focused on constitutional agitation and elite-level political consensus rather than the mobilization of the masses. She was actually wary of unbridled mass participation in politics, fearing it would lead to violence, and she later opposed the mass-based Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation movements led by Mahatma Gandhi. The alliance with the Muslim League was intended to present a single National Demand for self-government to the British, not to recruit the rural or working-class masses.
4Economy
Statement I : Deficit financing does not lead to inflation if adopted in small doses.
Statement II : Deficit financing is an often used tool for financing budgetary deficits.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
Explanation
Deficit financing involves the government covering its budgetary gap through borrowing or the creation of new money. Statement I is true because when deficit financing is kept within manageable limits, the resulting increase in money supply can be matched by an increase in the production of goods and services, thereby absorbing the liquidity and preventing a sharp rise in the general price level. In such cases, the expansionary effect supports growth without triggering high inflation. Statement II is also true as it correctly identifies deficit financing as a standard fiscal instrument employed by governments to bridge the gap between total expenditure and total receipts. While both statements are factually correct, the widespread use of this tool as described in Statement II does not explain the specific economic conditions or mechanisms that allow small doses of it to remain non-inflationary as stated in Statement I.
5Geography
Statement I : Oxides of sulfur and nitrogen present in high concentration in air are dissolved in rain drops.
Statement II : Oxyacids of sulfur and nitrogen make rain water acidic.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
Explanation
Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are common atmospheric pollutants that are highly soluble in water. When these gases are present in high concentrations, they readily dissolve in falling rain drops or atmospheric moisture. Upon dissolution, these oxides undergo chemical reactions to form oxyacids; sulfur oxides react with water to form sulfurous acid (H₂SO₃) and sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), while nitrogen oxides react to form nitric acid (HNO₃). These oxyacids dissociate in the rainwater to release hydrogen ions (H⁺), which significantly lowers the pH and makes the rain acidic. Therefore, Statement II provides the chemical explanation for the acidification of rainwater that occurs as a direct result of the process described in Statement I.
6Science and Technology
Statement I : On mixing with water, Plaster of Paris hardens.
Statement II : By combining with water, Plaster of Paris is converted into Gypsum.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
Explanation
Plaster of Paris is chemically defined as calcium sulphate hemihydrate, represented by the formula CaSO₄ · 1/2H₂O. When mixed with a limited amount of water, it undergoes a hydration reaction to form calcium sulphate dihydrate, which is gypsum (CaSO₄ · 2H₂O). The chemical reaction is CaSO₄ · 1/2H₂O + 1 1/2H₂O → CaSO₄ · 2H₂O. This process is characterized by the evolution of heat and a slight expansion in volume. The hardening or setting of the plaster occurs because the newly formed gypsum creates a dense, interlocking network of needle-like crystals that transition the paste into a solid, rigid mass. Thus, the conversion into gypsum is the specific chemical reason for the physical hardening observed upon mixing Plaster of Paris with water.
7Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I : All liquids are conductors of electricity.
Statement II : Under the condition of low pressure and high voltage, liquids can be made conducting.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Explanation
Liquids are classified into conductors and insulators based on their ability to dissociate into ions. Pure liquids, such as distilled water, as well as many organic liquids like vegetable oil, honey, and alcohol, do not contain free ions or mobile electrons to carry an electric charge. Consequently, they act as insulators under normal conditions, making the assertion that all liquids conduct electricity incorrect. Conduction in liquids generally occurs only when electrolytes (salts, acids, or bases) are dissolved in them, creating ions that can move toward electrodes.
The conditions of low pressure and high voltage are specifically required for the conduction of electricity through gases, not liquids. In a gas discharge tube, lowering the pressure increases the mean free path of the gas particles, which allows electrons to accelerate sufficiently under a high voltage to ionize the gas molecules through collisions. This process creates a plasma that conducts electricity. For liquids, reducing pressure does not facilitate conduction; rather, it leads to the liquid reaching its boiling point and transitioning into the gaseous state. Conduction in the liquid phase remains dependent on ion concentration and mobility.
8Geography
Name the Continents that form a mirror image of each other
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Answer: (C) Africa and South America
Explanation
Africa and South America exhibit a remarkable geographical symmetry often described as a jigsaw fit or mirror image. This observation was a fundamental pillar of Alfred Wegener's Continental Drift theory. Specifically, the protruding eastern coastline of South America fits almost perfectly into the indentation of the western coastline of Africa, particularly along the Gulf of Guinea. This coastal correspondence suggests that these two landmasses were once joined as part of the supercontinent Pangea before they began to drift apart approximately 200 million years ago due to the process of plate tectonics. The alignment of geological structures, matching rock types, and identical fossil records across these specific coastlines further supports the conclusion that they were once a single contiguous landmass.
9Geography
How many kilometres are represented by 1° of latitude ?
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Answer: (C) 111 km
Explanation
The Earth is approximately an oblate spheroid with a meridional (polar) circumference of about 40,008 kilometres. To find the distance represented by one degree of latitude, this total circumference is divided by the 360 degrees that constitute a full circle.
Distance per degree = 40,008 km/360° ≈ 111.13 km
While the Earth's slight flattening at the poles causes the length of a degree of latitude to vary slightly—ranging from approximately 110.6 km at the equator to 111.7 km at the poles—the standard average value used in geography and navigation is 111 kilometres. This constant distance between parallels of latitude allows for consistent measurement along any meridian.
10Geography
Which one among the following rivers does not flow into the Bay of Bengal ?
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Answer: (C) Tapti
Explanation
The Tapti river is a major west-flowing river of peninsular India that originates in the Satpura Range near Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows westward for a distance of approximately 724 kilometers through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. The river follows a rift valley formed by tectonic activity, which directs its course toward the west rather than the east. Consequently, the Tapti discharges its waters into the Gulf of Khambhat in the Arabian Sea instead of flowing into the Bay of Bengal.
11Geography
Which one among the following cities never get the vertical rays of the Sun all through the year ?
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Answer: (D) Srinagar
Explanation
The vertical rays of the Sun are only received in the region between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). This zone is known as the Tropics. For a location to experience the Sun directly overhead (at the zenith), its latitude must fall within this range. Srinagar is situated at approximately 34° N latitude, placing it well north of the Tropic of Cancer and outside the tropical zone. As a result, the Sun's rays always strike Srinagar at an angle, and it never receives vertical rays at any point during the year, not even during the summer solstice when the Sun reaches its northernmost declination.
12Geography
Climate change resulting in the rise of temperature may benefit which of the countries/regions ?
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Answer: (D) Russia and Northern Europe
Explanation
Russia and Northern Europe are high-latitude regions that could experience several advantages from a rise in global temperatures. Warmer climates extend the duration of the agricultural growing season and allow for the expansion of farming into northern territories that were previously too cold for cultivation. This shift can lead to increased crop productivity and potential food surpluses in these specific zones. Furthermore, the reduction of Arctic ice facilitates the opening of the Northern Sea Route, significantly shortening shipping distances between Atlantic and Pacific ports. Lower energy requirements for heating during milder winters also present a significant economic benefit to the populations living in these sub-arctic and temperate regions.
13Geography
Which of the following statements regarding ozone layer within the atmosphere is/are correct ?
1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation found in the Sun's rays.
2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious threat to the ozone layer.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that contains relatively high concentrations of ozone (O₃). It serves as a vital protective shield by absorbing approximately 97 to 99 percent of the Sun's medium-frequency ultraviolet radiation, specifically UV-B and UV-C rays, which would otherwise cause significant biological damage to life on Earth. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are stable, synthetic compounds that do not degrade in the lower atmosphere. When they drift into the stratosphere, they are broken down by intense solar radiation, releasing free chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms act as catalysts in a destructive cycle, where a single chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone molecules by converting them into oxygen molecules (O₂), leading to the depletion of the ozone layer.
14Geography
When we consider 15° meridian on a world map or globe and count them in an eastward direction starting with Greenwich meridian (0°) , we find that the time of this meridian is
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Answer: (B) 1 hour fast
Explanation
The Earth completes one full rotation of 360° on its axis in approximately 24 hours. By dividing the total degrees by the total hours (360° / 24), we determine that the Earth rotates at a rate of 15° per hour. Because the Earth rotates from West to East, locations situated to the East of the Prime Meridian (0°) see the sun earlier and are ahead in time relative to Greenwich. Since the meridian in question is exactly 15° to the East, the time difference is calculated as 15° / 15° = 1 hour. Consequently, the time at this meridian is 1 hour fast compared to Greenwich Mean Time.
15Polity and Governance
What is the target of the Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations with respect to Universal Primary Education?
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Answer: (A) All children both boys and girls would complete a full course primary schooling by 2015
Explanation
The Millennium Development Goal 2 aims to achieve universal primary education. The specific target associated with this goal, Target 2.A, states that by the year 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, will be able to complete a full course of primary schooling. This global commitment focused on ensuring that every child has access to a complete cycle of primary education, emphasizing not just initial enrollment but the successful completion of the entire primary curriculum to ensure basic literacy and numeracy for all.
16Geography
The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in
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Answer: (D) Australia
Explanation
Broken Hill, situated in the far west of New South Wales, Australia, is renowned for harboring one of the world's largest and most prolific silver-lead-zinc mineral deposits. The deposit was discovered in 1883 by Charles Rasp and is geologically part of the Curnamona Province, hosted within the Proterozoic Willyama Supergroup. The orebody is famous for its unique shape and immense scale, which led to the establishment of the Broken Hill Proprietary Company (BHP), now a global mining giant. The site is historically significant for the development of the froth flotation process, a metallurgical breakthrough that allowed for the successful separation of lead and zinc minerals from complex ores, significantly impacting global mining practices.
17Geography
Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the following biogeographical areas in the world?
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Answer: (A) Tropical Sub-humid Forests
Explanation
Kanha National Park, situated in the Maikal range of the Satpura hills in Madhya Pradesh, is characterized by a climate and moisture regime that classifies it under the Tropical Sub-humid forest zone. The region receives an annual rainfall typically ranging from 1200 mm to 1600 mm, which facilitates the growth of luxuriant Tropical Moist Deciduous vegetation. The dominant flora includes Shorea robusta (Sal) and various bamboo species, interspersed with expansive grasslands known as maidans. This specific biogeographical categorization reflects the transition between the arid regions of western India and the wetter humid zones of the eastern coast, defining the unique ecosystem of the Central Indian Highlands.
18Geography
'El Nino' associated with the formation of the South West Monsoon of India is
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Answer: (A) an abnormally warm ocean current
Explanation
El Nino is a climate phenomenon characterized by the abnormal warming of surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. It manifests as a warm ocean current that periodically replaces the cold Peruvian (Humboldt) Current along the coasts of Ecuador and Peru. This warming occurs when the prevailing trade winds weaken, allowing warm water from the western Pacific to flow eastward. This shift in sea surface temperatures disrupts global atmospheric circulation patterns, specifically the Walker Circulation, which impacts the Indian South West Monsoon. The resulting change in pressure gradients often leads to a diversion of moisture-laden winds away from the Indian subcontinent, typically causing below-average rainfall or drought conditions during the monsoon season.
19Geography
The thermal equator is found
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Answer: (C) north of the geographical equator
Explanation
The thermal equator is a set of locations around the globe that experience the highest mean annual temperature for their respective longitudes. Its position is primarily determined by the distribution of land and water surfaces across the planet. Landmasses heat up more rapidly and reach higher temperatures than oceans under the same solar intensity. Since the Northern Hemisphere contains approximately 67 percent of the Earth's land surface compared to only 33 percent in the Southern Hemisphere, the zone of maximum heating is pulled northward. On average, the thermal equator is located at about 5° to 10° North latitude rather than coinciding with the geographical equator. This semi-permanent shift reflects the hemispheric asymmetry in continental area and the resulting thermal response of the Earth's surface.
20Geography
A nautical mile is equal to
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Answer: (D) 6080 feet
Explanation
A nautical mile is a unit of measurement used in maritime and aerial navigation, historically defined as the length of one minute (1') of arc of latitude along any meridian of the Earth. In the British Imperial system, the Admiralty nautical mile was standardized as exactly 6080 feet. While the international nautical mile is currently defined as exactly 1852 meters, which converts to approximately 6076.12 feet, the value of 6080 feet is the standard approximation used for calculations and is the figure typically referenced in navigational and geographical contexts involving Imperial units.
21Geography
Horse latitudes lie within the atmospheric pressure belts of
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Answer: (C) Sub-tropical high
Explanation
Horse latitudes are the regions located at approximately 30° to 35° north and south of the equator, which correspond to the subtropical high-pressure belts. These areas are characterized by the subsidence of air masses that have risen at the equator and cooled in the upper atmosphere. As this air descends toward the surface, it creates high atmospheric pressure, resulting in very calm winds, clear skies, and little precipitation. Historically, these regions earned their name because sailing ships frequently became becalmed in the stagnant air for long periods, leading to shortages of water and fodder that forced crews to throw horses overboard to conserve resources. This belt marks the transition between the tropical trade winds and the mid-latitude westerlies.
22Geography
The warm and dry winds that blow down the steep valleys in Japan are called
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Answer: (B) Yamo
Explanation
The Yamo is a warm and dry Foehn-type wind specific to the Japanese archipelago. These winds are generated when moist air is forced to rise over high mountain ranges; as the air descends on the leeward side into the steep valleys, it undergoes adiabatic compression. This process causes the air to warm rapidly at the dry adiabatic lapse rate while its relative humidity drops significantly. Because Japan is characterized by rugged, mountainous terrain, the Yamo wind is a frequent localized meteorological occurrence that can lead to sudden temperature spikes and dry conditions in the valley regions.
23Geography
Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct ?
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content.
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and potash.
3. They are porous and have friable structure.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Red soils develop on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall, primarily in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau. The characteristic red color is due to the wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks, specifically the presence of ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃). When these soils occur in a hydrated form, they may appear yellow. Physically, red soils are characterized by a light, sandy to loamy texture and are generally porous and friable in structure, meaning they are easily crumbled. Chemically, these soils are typically deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, lime, and organic matter or humus, making statement 2 incorrect while statements 1 and 3 are accurate geographical facts.
24Geography
According to the Census 2011, which one among the following Union Territories has the least population ?
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Answer: (C) Lakshadweep
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, Lakshadweep is the least populous Union Territory in India, with a total population of 64,473. It also holds the distinction of being the smallest Union Territory by land area, covering approximately 32 square kilometers. The population of Lakshadweep is distributed across 10 inhabited islands of the archipelago. By comparison, the other Union Territories mentioned in the options have much larger populations, with Daman and Diu having about 2,43,247 people, Dadra and Nagar Haveli having 3,43,709 people, and Puducherry having a population of 12,47,953.
25Economy
Arrange the following oil refineries of India from west to east :
1. Koyali
2. Bongaiqaon
3. Mathura
4. Haldia
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Answer: (B) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
Explanation
The West to East orientation is determined by the longitudinal positions of these refineries across the Indian subcontinent. The Koyali refinery, located in Vadodara, Gujarat (approximately 73.1° E longitude), is the westernmost refinery in this group. Moving eastward, the Mathura refinery in Uttar Pradesh is situated at approximately 77.7° E. Further east is the Haldia refinery in West Bengal, located near the Hooghly River at approximately 88.1° E. The easternmost facility among the four is the Bongaigaon refinery in Assam, positioned at approximately 90.5° E. This geographic progression follows the sequence 1 - 3 - 4 - 2.
26Geography
Which one among the following creeks is not associated with the state of Gujarat ?
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Answer: (B) Godai creek
Explanation
Godai creek is a geographical feature located along the Konkan coast in the state of Maharashtra. It is a tidal inlet situated within the Raigad district, south of the Gujarat border. While the coastal landscape of Gujarat is characterized by the marshy salt flats and deltaic channels of the Rann of Kutch, Godai belongs to the rugged coastline of the northern Konkan division, serving as a drainage point for local streams into the Arabian Sea.
27Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below: the Lists :
List I List II
(Local wind) (Area of prevalence)
A. Chinook 1. North African desert
B. Foehn 2. Rocky mountain slopes of the USA
C. Sirocco 3. Northern slopes of Alps
D. Mistral 4. Southern slopes of Alps
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 3 1 4
Explanation
Chinook is a warm, dry wind that descends the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in North America, often causing rapid temperature rises and melting snow. Foehn is a warm, dry wind that results from the adiabatic heating of air as it descends the leeward or northern slopes of the Alps. Sirocco is a hot, dry, and dust-laden wind originating in the Sahara Desert of North Africa that blows across the Mediterranean Sea. Mistral is a cold, dry, northerly wind that flows through the Rhone valley and affects the southern slopes of the Alps and the Mediterranean coast of France. These associations match Chinook with Rocky mountain slopes (A-2), Foehn with the northern slopes of the Alps (B-3), Sirocco with the North African desert (C-1), and Mistral with the southern slopes of the Alps (D-4).
28Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a formal agency of social control ?
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Answer: (C) Family
Explanation
Social control is the process by which a society maintains order and regulates individual behavior to ensure conformity to group norms. It is categorized into formal and informal agencies. The family is the primary agency of informal social control. It functions through the process of socialization, where individuals internalize moral values, social expectations, and cultural traditions from a young age. Control within the family is maintained through personal relationships, emotional bonds, and unwritten rules rather than codified laws or official institutional procedures. It utilizes non-legal mechanisms such as praise, disapproval, affection, and social pressure to guide conduct, lacking the bureaucratic structure and standardized sanctions characteristic of formal state or institutional bodies.
29Polity and Governance
The term used to describe the process by which an outsider, immigrant or subordinate group becomes indistinguishable integrated into the dominant host society, is known as
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Answer: (C) Acculturation
Explanation
Assimilation is the social process through which a minority group or an individual adopts the cultural patterns, values, and social structures of a dominant host society. The defining characteristic of this process is that the group eventually becomes indistinguishably integrated, losing its unique ethnic or cultural identity in favor of the host's identity. This typically occurs through various stages, beginning with the adoption of outward traits like language and dress, and culminating in structural integration into the primary groups and institutions of the majority. In sociology, it is viewed as a process of fusion where individuals from different heritages come to share a common set of sentiments and traditions, resulting in a single, unified social entity.
30Polity and Governance
Which among the following is/are example/examples of youth unrest in India ?
1. Naxalite movement
2. Anti-foreigners movement in Assam
3. Anti-Mandal Commission agitation
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Youth unrest in India is characterized by the collective mobilization of students and young adults against perceived social, economic, or political injustices. The Naxalite movement, which began in Naxalbari in 1967, saw widespread participation from radicalized urban students who left universities to join the rural peasantry in an armed struggle against the state. The anti-foreigners movement in Assam (1979–1985) was primarily led by the All Assam Students Union (AASU), representing a powerful student-driven agitation against illegal immigration and for the protection of regional identity. The anti-Mandal Commission agitation in 1990 was a significant instance of youth unrest where students across the country organized mass protests, strikes, and self-immolations to oppose the implementation of reservation quotas in central government jobs. Each of these movements highlights the role of the youth as a volatile and active pressure group in Indian politics and society.
31Art and Culture
Consider the following information and identify from the code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who is also remembered as a champion for a number of charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS :
She appeared in more than 50 films, and won three Oscars including one for her performance in 'Butterfield 8' and another for 'Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf?' The London-born actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorcee at 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26.
Code :
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Answer: (B) Elizabeth Taylor
Explanation
Elizabeth Taylor was a London-born British-American actress who became one of the most famous stars of classical Hollywood cinema. She won two Academy Awards for Best Actress for her roles in Butterfield 8 (1960) and Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf? (1966), and received a third Oscar, the Jean Hersholt Humanitarian Award, in 1993 for her work in the fight against AIDS. Her life followed the specific timeline described: she became a child star at age 12 in National Velvet, married and divorced her first husband at age 18, achieved legendary status as a screen goddess by 19, and was widowed at 26 following the death of her third husband, Mike Todd. Beyond her acting career, she was a pioneering activist who co-founded the American Foundation for AIDS Research (amfAR) and established the Elizabeth Taylor AIDS Foundation.
32Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
1. National Cadet Corps (NCC) is a pre-independence organization.
2. The motto of NCC is 'Unity and Discipline'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The National Cadet Corps (NCC) was officially established under the National Cadet Corps Act of 1948, which was enacted by the Parliament of independent India. While the organization has functional roots in colonial-era entities such as the University Corps (1917) and the University Training Corps (1920), the statutory body specifically known as the NCC was formed after the country gained independence. The official motto of the NCC is Unity and Discipline (Ekta aur Anushasan). This motto was formally adopted in October 1980 by the Central Advisory Committee to define the core principles of the organization, which aims to develop character, comradeship, and the ideal of selfless service among school and college students.
33Polity and Governance
On 15th March 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed to reach an agreement on military action against Libya because :
1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought by Britain and France
2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach consensus
3. United Nations has been non-supportive for any kind of action against Libya
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The G8 foreign ministers meeting held in Paris on March 15, 2011, concluded without an agreement on military action or the implementation of a no-fly zone in Libya. France and the United Kingdom were the leading proponents of establishing flight restrictions to prevent the Libyan government from using its air force against the civilian population. This French-led attempt for a no-fly zone failed to reach a consensus among the member nations primarily because Germany and Russia expressed strong opposition. Germany and Russia blocked the proposed flight restrictions sought by their British and French counterparts, citing the risks of becoming embroiled in a civil war and the potential for unintended military escalation. This lack of unanimity within the G8 prevented a collective endorsement of military force, highlighting the deep divisions regarding the appropriate international response to the Libyan crisis.
34Geography
South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the east of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its west. The reason for this shifting is to
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Answer: (C) facilitate trade with Australia and New Zealand
Explanation
Samoa decided to shift its position across the International Date Line to align its calendar with its most significant trading partners, specifically Australia, New Zealand, and China. Before the change, Samoa was nearly a full day behind these regional neighbors, which created a major hurdle for commerce. When it was Monday in Samoa, it was already Tuesday in Australia and New Zealand; conversely, when it was Friday in Australia, it was only Thursday in Samoa. This discrepancy meant that the island nation effectively lost two working days every week for international business. By moving to the west of the date line, Samoa synchronized its business week with its closest economic allies, facilitating smoother trade and financial communication.
35Polity and Governance
Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal after the end of monarchy ?
1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become official seat of government of Nepal
2. Narayanhtiy Royal Palace has been turned into a public museum
3. King's portrait in Nepalese banknotes, was replaced by the image of Pashupatinath Temple
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The abolition of the monarchy in 2008 led to significant institutional transformations in Nepal. The Narayanhiti Royal Palace, which had served as the residence of the Shah monarchs for over a century, was vacated and converted into a public museum. This transition was officially marked when the museum opened to the public in February 2009, symbolizing the shift from a kingdom to a republic. Additionally, Singha Durbar was formally designated as the official seat of the executive government of the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal. While it had historically served as a secretariat, the transition of power established it as the primary hub for the Office of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, representing the consolidation of sovereign authority within the republican administrative framework and the final removal of executive functions from the royal palace.
36Polity and Governance
Which of the following changes have been brought in Egypt after the recent popular uprising that overthrew President Hosni Mubarak ?
1. Adopting a new constitution
2. Reducing presidential terms from 6 years to 4 years
3. Limiting the president to two terms
4. Presidential candidate must be over 40 years
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Following the 2011 Egyptian revolution and the resignation of Hosni Mubarak, a constitutional referendum was held in March 2011 to approve several amendments to the existing framework. These changes were aimed at preventing the long-term authoritarian rule that characterized the previous regime. Under the approved amendments to Article 77, the presidential term was significantly reduced from six years to four years. Furthermore, the amendments introduced a strict limit on the presidency, restricting any individual to serving a maximum of two terms. Article 75 was also amended to stipulate that a presidential candidate must be an Egyptian citizen born to Egyptian parents, must not hold dual nationality, and must be at least 40 years of age. While a completely new constitution was eventually drafted and adopted in 2012, the immediate legal changes following the 2011 uprising focused on these specific constitutional amendments and an interim constitutional declaration rather than the immediate adoption of a permanent new constitution.
37Science and Technology
Which of the following statements regarding Global-INK (Indian Network of Knowledge) is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) The network is being developed by Reliance Communication
Explanation
Global-INK was established as a joint initiative of the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs and the Confederation of Indian Industry through the Overseas Indian Facilitation Centre. This electronic platform was designed to facilitate engagement between the Indian diaspora and domestic development projects by acting as a bridge for knowledge and technical expertise. The development and management of the network are handled by these governmental and industry bodies to leverage the intellectual capital of overseas Indians, and it is not an initiative developed by Reliance Communication.
38Polity and Governance
In the era of globalization, international migration is one of the biggest challenges of 21st century. To deal with this, which of the following steps have been taken by the government of India?
1. Establishment of 24/7 helpline to provide information to jobseekers
2. Undertaking steps to ratify the UN Convention on Transnational Organized Crime and its protocols
3. Implementing e-Governance in emigration management to detect instances of misrepresentation, forgery etc. through real time validation of information on public-private partnership basis
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs established the Overseas Workers Resource Centre (OWRC) in 2008 as a 24/7 helpline to provide information and assistance to Indian workers migrating abroad for employment. In May 2011, India ratified the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) along with its protocols on human trafficking and migrant smuggling to strengthen the legal framework against organized migration crimes. Furthermore, the government initiated the e-Migrate project under an e-governance framework to automate emigration clearances. This project was developed on a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model to ensure real-time validation of information, which helps in detecting forged documents and prevents the exploitation of migrant workers by unauthorized intermediaries.
39Polity and Governance
Which one of the following teams won the maximum number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 held in Jharkhand ?
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Answer: (B) Services
Explanation
The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) secured the top position in the medal tally of the 34th National Games held in Jharkhand in 2011. Services won a total of 70 gold medals, along with 50 silver and 42 bronze medals, making a grand total of 162 medals. By finishing first in the gold medal count, they were awarded the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy, which is presented to the overall champions of the National Games. Their performance was notably strong in disciplines such as athletics, boxing, and shooting, allowing them to maintain a significant lead over other competing states and units.
40Art and Culture
Who among the following was chosen for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 ?
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Answer: (A) K. Balachander
Explanation
K. Balachander was conferred with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 in recognition of his monumental contribution to the development of Indian cinema. An eminent filmmaker, screenwriter, and producer, he was a dominant figure in the Tamil film industry and directed over 100 films across multiple languages including Telugu, Malayalam, and Hindi. Known for his unconventional themes and exploration of complex social issues and interpersonal relationships, he is often credited with mentoring legendary actors like Rajinikanth and Kamal Haasan. The award was presented to him at the 58th National Film Awards ceremony held in 2011.
41Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about National Knowledge Commission :
1. It is an advisory body to the Prime Minister constituted as per the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. Mr. Sam Pitroda is the Chairman of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The National Knowledge Commission was established on 13 June 2005 as a high-level advisory body to the Prime Minister of India. It was created as an executive body via a government notification and was not established under the provisions of the Constitution of India, making it a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. Mr. Sam Pitroda served as the Chairman of the Commission during its functional period from 2005 to 2009. The commission was tasked with recommending reforms in the knowledge sector, including education, science and technology, and intellectual property rights, to help India transition into a knowledge society.
42Polity and Governance
The 'Shillong Declaration', in news recently, was on
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Answer: (D) Right to Information Act
Explanation
The Shillong Declaration was adopted during the 5th National Convention on the Right to Information (RTI) held in Shillong, Meghalaya, in October 2010. Organized by the Central Information Commission (CIC) and the Government of Meghalaya, the convention focused on assessing the impact of the RTI Act five years after its enactment. The declaration called for strengthening the implementation of the Act, ensuring the protection of RTI activists and whistleblowers, and enhancing proactive disclosure by public authorities under Section 4 of the Act. It emphasized the need for a more transparent and accountable administrative system to empower citizens and deepen democratic processes in India.
43Science and Technology
In the case of nuclear disaster which of the following options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted ?
1. Pumping of water to the reactors.
2. Use of boric acid.
3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling pond.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
In the event of a nuclear disaster where the primary cooling systems fail, pumping water into the reactor core is the most critical immediate action to remove decay heat and prevent the fuel cladding from melting. During the Fukushima Daiichi disaster in 2011, sea water was pumped into the reactors as a last resort to provide this necessary cooling.
Boric acid is simultaneously used by mixing it with the cooling water because boron is an effective neutron absorber. It captures neutrons produced by spontaneous fission or delayed neutron emission, ensuring the reactor remains in a subcritical state and preventing a restart of the nuclear chain reaction, known as recriticality, which could occur if the fuel geometry is compromised.
Removing fuel rods from the reactor core and placing them in a cooling pond is not a viable option during an active disaster. The high temperatures, intense radiation fields, and potential physical deformation of the fuel assemblies make the use of standard refueling machinery impossible. Cooling ponds are designated for the long-term storage of spent fuel that has already been safely extracted during normal operations.
44Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Euthanasia :
1. It refers to the practice of ending the life in a manner which relieves pain and suffering.
2. In the case involving Aruna Shanbaug, the Supreme Court of India has suggested that passive Euthanasia be legalized through the Supreme Court monitored mechanism only.
3. Active voluntary Euthanasia is legal in Belgium, Luxembourg and the Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Euthanasia refers to the practice of ending a life to relieve pain and suffering, typically in the context of a terminal or incurable illness. Statement 1 accurately defines the core concept of the practice. Statement 3 is also correct as the Netherlands became the first country to legalize active voluntary euthanasia in April 2002, followed by Belgium in May 2002, and Luxembourg in March 2009. Statement 2 is incorrect because in the landmark case of Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011), the Supreme Court legalized passive euthanasia but specified that the monitoring mechanism must involve the High Courts. The Court ruled that an application for passive euthanasia must be made to the High Court, which would then constitute a medical board and a bench of at least two judges to decide on the matter, rather than the Supreme Court monitoring the process directly.
45Geography
Which one among the following is not an important factor of climate of an area ?
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Answer: (B) Longitude
Explanation
Longitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth's surface relative to the Prime Meridian. Its primary function is the determination of time zones and precise mapping locations. Unlike other geographic factors, longitude does not influence the intensity of solar radiation received, atmospheric pressure, or the distribution of temperature and precipitation. Because climatic variations are driven by the angle of the sun, elevation, and proximity to moisture sources, longitude has no physical impact on the atmospheric conditions or the long-term weather patterns of a specific area.
46Polity and Governance
Which of the following condition/ conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India ?
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, provides for the registration of Indian citizens living abroad as overseas electors. Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, an eligible NRI must apply for registration by submitting Form 6-A to the Electoral Registration Officer of the constituency where their place of residence in India, as mentioned in their passport, is located. Furthermore, the legal framework requires that an overseas elector must be physically present at the polling station in India to exercise their franchise. At the time of voting, they are required to produce their original passport for identification purposes, as provisions for postal ballots or proxy voting were not available to NRIs under the regulations existing in 2011.
47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Peace- keeping Force is/are correct ?
1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.
2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security Council.
3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India to Liberia.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The United Nations Emergency Force I (UNEF I) was the first armed United Nations peacekeeping force, established in 1956 to address the Suez Crisis in Egypt. While earlier missions like UNTSO and UNMOGIP used military observers, UNEF I was the first to deploy armed troop units to maintain peace. Peacekeeping operations are established and mandated by the United Nations Security Council, which holds the primary responsibility for international peace and security under the UN Charter, making these forces directly accountable to the Council. India made a landmark contribution to international peacekeeping in 2007 by deploying the first-ever all-female Formed Police Unit (FPU) to the United Nations Mission in Liberia (UNMIL). This unit was instrumental in restoring peace and served as a global model for the inclusion of women in security and peacekeeping operations.
48Polity and Governance
The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the
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Answer: (C) Simon Commission
Explanation
The appointment of the all-white Simon Commission in 1927 to review political reforms in India led to widespread protests and a challenge from Lord Birkenhead, the Secretary of State for India. Birkenhead challenged Indian politicians to produce a constitution that would be acceptable to all sections of Indian society. In response to this challenge, the All Parties Conference appointed a committee chaired by Motilal Nehru in 1928. This committee drafted the Nehru Report, which represented the first major Indian effort to frame a constitution. The report specifically outlined a constitutional framework for India based on the principle of Dominion Status, including provisions for a parliamentary system and a list of fundamental rights.
49Polity and Governance
The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by the then
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Answer: (B) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and, work to rejuvenate the party
Explanation
K. Kamaraj, while serving as the Chief Minister of Madras, introduced the Kamaraj Plan in 1963 as a strategy to revitalize the Indian National Congress. The plan proposed that senior Congress leaders who held ministerial positions in the Union and State governments should resign and dedicate their efforts to party organizational work. This initiative was intended to counter the perception that Congress leaders were more interested in power than in serving the party and the public. Under this plan, six Union Ministers and six Chief Ministers, including Kamaraj himself, resigned to work toward rejuvenating the party's grassroots presence.
50Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (C) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
Explanation
The Constitution of India in 1950 classified states into four categories based on their previous administrative status. Part A states were the former governors provinces of British India, led by an appointed Governor and an elected legislature. Part B states consisted of former princely states or unions of princely states, where the executive head was known as the Rajpramukh, often a former ruler. Part C states included former Chief Commissioners provinces and some smaller princely states, which were administered centrally by the President through a Chief Commissioner or a Lieutenant Governor. Part D specifically referred to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which were also administered by a Chief Commissioner appointed by the Union government. This classification remained in place until the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which abolished these categories in favor of states and union territories.
51Polity and Governance
The Constituent Assembly of India was chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946. With the withdrawal of the Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly it turned out that majority of the Assembly members were also members of the Congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given a broader social basis?
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Answer: (C) By nominating independent members of different castes, religious groups and women and also by taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India sought to be a microcosm of the nation by ensuring that various social, religious, and political strands were represented beyond the results of the restricted franchise of 1946. To achieve a broader social basis, the Assembly included independent members and experts from diverse backgrounds, including different castes, religious minorities such as Sikhs, Parsis, and Christians, and 15 women members. The inclusion of representatives from the Princely States further expanded its geographical and political reach. Most significantly, the Assembly adopted a consultative approach by inviting written submissions, suggestions, and memoranda from the public at large, ensuring that the drafting process incorporated the aspirations and criticisms of the common citizens who were not directly represented in the chamber.
52History
What was the 'privy purse' in the context of the history of Modern India?
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Answer: (C) A grant given by the Government of India to the erstwhile Princes of India
Explanation
The privy purse was a payment made by the Government of India to the former rulers of the princely states after they agreed to integrate their territories into the Union of India following independence in 1947. These payments were part of the Covenants of Accession negotiated by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to ensure a peaceful transition and provide financial security to the royal families in exchange for surrendering their sovereign rights, administrative powers, and state revenues. The specific amounts were determined based on the previous revenue of the respective states and were constitutionally guaranteed under Articles 291 and 362. This arrangement remained in effect until the privy purses and the special privileges of the erstwhile princes were abolished by the 26th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1971.
53History
Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah's military campaign in Delhi ?
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Answer: (D) Use of superior military technology by the invading army
Explanation
The success of Nadir Shah's invasion was essentially a failure of the Mughal state's leadership and administration rather than a result of inferior technology. The Mughal military was technically well-equipped with advanced gunpowder weapons and heavy artillery that matched the contemporary standards of the time. The Persian victory at the Battle of Karnal was instead driven by superior tactical coordination, the high mobility of their light cavalry, and the deep-seated factionalism among Mughal nobles. The Mughals' inability to mount an effective defense was rooted in the incompetence of the central government and the total neglect of frontier security, making technology a secondary factor compared to these systemic collapses.
54History
Which one among the following was not true about the Kerala king Martanda Varma ?
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Answer: (C) He gave heavy bribes to the European officers to maintain peace
Explanation
Martanda Varma, the ruler of Travancore from 1729 to 1758, was a powerful and strategic monarch who established his authority through military prowess and administrative reform rather than by paying bribes to European powers. He is most famous for defeating the Dutch East India Company at the Battle of Colachel in 1741. This victory was a landmark event in Indian history, marking the first time an Asian power had decisively defeated a European naval force, eventually leading to the decline of Dutch influence in the region. Rather than seeking peace through financial concessions, he captured Dutch officers like Eustachius De Lannoy and employed them to modernize the Travancore army with European-style training and weaponry. His reign focused on the expansion of his kingdom and the centralization of power by crushing the influence of local feudal lords and temple trustees.
55History
Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the success of European trading companies in South India during the 17th Century ?
1. The presence of the Mughals in the south was not as much as in the north
2. The Vijaya Nagar kingdom had been overthrown in the late 16th Century
3. The south had many small and weak states
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The political landscape of 17th-century South India was characterized by fragmentation, which facilitated the establishment and growth of European trading companies. The Mughal Empire, which maintained a strong centralized grip on Northern India, did not extend its direct administrative and military control into the deep South until the late 17th century under Aurangzeb. This lack of a formidable central authority allowed European companies to operate with greater autonomy than they could in the North. Furthermore, the collapse of the Vijayanagara Empire following the Battle of Talikota in 1565 had removed the primary stabilizing power in the region. In its wake, the South was divided into numerous small and relatively weak successor states, such as the Nayakas of Madurai, Tanjore, and Ginjee. These smaller entities often engaged in internal rivalries and lacked the naval or military strength to resist European maritime dominance, enabling the companies to secure trade monopolies, build fortified settlements, and intervene in local politics to further their commercial interests.
56History
Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18th Century ?
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Answer: (D) Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French Government
Explanation
The French East India Company was a state-controlled enterprise that functioned as a department of the French government rather than an independent commercial body. Unlike the English East India Company, which was a private joint-stock company with substantial capital and administrative autonomy, the French company was heavily dependent on the French treasury for subsidies and direction. This structural dependence meant that the company lacked the commercial spirit and financial flexibility of its British counterpart. Decision-making was often slowed by bureaucratic interference from Paris, and the company's fortunes were tied to the fluctuating priorities and fiscal health of the French monarchy. During the 18th century, the French government's focus on European continental wars often led to the neglect of its naval power and colonial interests, leaving the French forces in India underfunded and poorly supported compared to the well-financed and autonomously operated English company.
57History
Which one among the following was the result of the First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775-82 ?
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Answer: (C) There was no victory for either side
Explanation
The First Anglo-Maratha War concluded with the Treaty of Salbai in 1782, which followed a series of military engagements where neither the British East India Company nor the Maratha Confederacy could achieve a decisive advantage. The treaty mandated a mutual restitution of territories captured during the conflict, with the British retaining only Salsette. By recognizing Madhavrao II as the rightful Peshwa and pensioning off Raghunath Rao, the agreement restored the status quo and established a period of peace between the two powers that lasted for twenty years. Because both sides failed to secure significant territorial or political gains over the other, the war is historically regarded as having ended without a clear victory for either side.
58History
Which one among the following is correct about the Doctrine of Lapse ?
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Answer: (D) It made the annexation of India state compulsory if the adoption of heir had not been approved by the British authorities
Explanation
The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy applied extensively by Lord Dalhousie between 1848 and 1856. It was based on the principle that the British East India Company, as the paramount power in India, had the right to approve or withhold consent for the succession of an adopted heir to the throne of a dependent princely state. If a ruler died without a natural male heir, the state would lapse to the British unless the ruler had obtained prior permission from the British authorities to adopt a successor. While rulers were free to adopt heirs for their private property, the political right to rule the state was contingent upon British recognition. This policy led to the annexation of several prominent states, including Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur, as the British frequently refused to validate such adoptions.
59History
In 1856 Awadh would not have been annexed with the British Empire if the Nawab of Awadh had
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Answer: (B) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by the British
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in 1856 specifically on the grounds of maladministration and misgovernance. Unlike other states annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse due to the absence of a natural heir, Awadh was governed by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, who had legitimate successors. The British maintained that the Nawab had failed to fulfill the obligations of the Subsidiary Alliance of 1801, which required him to provide an administration that ensured the welfare of his subjects. The Governor-General justified the annexation by claiming that the Nawab had persistently ignored British advice and refused to implement administrative, judicial, and revenue reforms suggested by the British Residents. By asserting that the state of Awadh was in a condition of chronic anarchy that only British rule could remedy, Dalhousie used the Nawab's failure to adopt recommended reforms as the primary legal and moral pretext for the takeover.
60History
Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda are correct?
1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational.
2. He criticized his countrymen for having lost touch with the outside world.
3. He condemned the caste system.
4. He considered the Veda to be infallible.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Swami Vivekananda was a proponent of Neo-Vedanta, which he presented as a logical and rational philosophy that aligned with modern scientific principles. He argued that the spiritual truths of the Upanishads were not based on blind faith but were verifiable through reason and personal experience. Regarding the social condition of India, he criticized the isolationist mindset of his countrymen, asserting that India had declined because it closed itself off from the rest of the world. He believed that for India to progress, it needed to exchange its spiritual knowledge for the material and scientific advancements of the West. Vivekananda also launched a vigorous attack on the rigid caste system and the practice of untouchability, which he termed don't-touchism. He maintained that these social evils were a perversion of true religion and prevented the manifestation of the inherent divinity in every human being. While he respected the Vedas as a source of wisdom, the specific doctrine of absolute Vedic infallibility is historically associated with Swami Dayananda Saraswati and the Arya Samaj rather than Vivekananda's Vedantic approach, which prioritized internal realization and reason.
61History
Which of the statements given below about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct?
1. It was related to Indigo plantations.
2. It started because the European planters oppressed the Zamindars.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first civil disobedience movement in India, specifically addressing the plight of indigo farmers in Bihar. The movement centered on the tinkathia system, a forced cultivation practice where European planters compelled the peasantry to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land holdings. The conflict arose because the planters oppressed the tenant farmers (ryots) through illegal exactions, high rents, and physical intimidation as the demand for natural indigo declined due to German synthetic dyes. It was a struggle of the exploited peasantry against the European commercial planters rather than a matter of planters oppressing the Zamindars.
62History
Consider the following statements about the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918:
1. It was related to a dispute between the workers and the European mill owners regarding hours of work.
2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 was a dispute between the mill workers and the local Indian mill owners, such as Ambalal Sarabhai, over the withdrawal of the Plague Bonus and a demand for a 35 percent wage hike to address high inflation. Mahatma Gandhi intervened in the conflict at the request of Anasuya Sarabhai. After conducting an inquiry into the workers' conditions and the mills' financial health, Gandhiji advised the workers to go on a strike and adhere to the principles of non-violence. When the workers' resolve began to weaken, Gandhiji undertook his first fast unto death in India, which successfully pressured the mill owners to accept a settlement through arbitration.
63History
Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term 'drain theory' as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji in his work 'Poverty and un-British Rule in India'?
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Answer: (A) That a part of India's national wealth or total annual, product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material returns
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, first conceptualized the drain of wealth theory in his 1867 paper and later elaborated on it extensively in his seminal work Poverty and un-British Rule in India. He defined the drain as a unilateral transfer of Indian resources and national wealth to Britain for which India received no proportionate economic or material return. This mechanism operated through various channels including home charges, interest payments on the Indian public debt, salaries and pensions of British civil and military officials, and the repatriation of profits by British private capital. By siphoning off India's economic surplus, the British colonial administration prevented domestic capital formation and stunted industrial growth, which Naoroji identified as the fundamental cause of India's systemic poverty and recurring famines. The essence of the theory is the continuous export of India's total annual product without any reciprocal inflow of wealth.
64History
Which among the following was the most immediate factor for the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the last century ?
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Answer: (C) Curzon's partition of Bengal
Explanation
The partition of Bengal, announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905 and implemented on October 16, 1905, was the immediate catalyst for the spread of the Swadeshi and Boycott movement. Although the British government cited administrative convenience as the justification for dividing the large province, the move was widely recognized as a political masterstroke intended to weaken the nerve center of Indian nationalism by splitting the Bengali population on communal lines. In response to this decision, a formal proclamation of the Swadeshi movement was made on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall. This led to the organized boycott of British goods, particularly textiles, and the promotion of indigenous products as a primary method of political resistance against colonial rule.
65History
Which of the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement is/are correct ?
1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts of the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.
2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights on land.
3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement could never be removed under any circumstance.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Permanent Settlement, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793, was primarily concentrated in the Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha regions. It designated Zamindars as the legal owners of the land, granting them rights that were both hereditary and transferable. This policy aimed to create a stable class of landlords who would support British administration. However, the ownership was contingent upon the strict fulfillment of revenue obligations. If a Zamindar failed to pay the fixed revenue to the state by sunset on a specified day, the Sunset Law authorized the government to auction the land to recover the arrears, meaning landlords could indeed be removed for defaulting.
66History
Gandhiji led the Indian nationalist movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy, and not a specific movement ?
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Answer: (B) Swadeshi Movement
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi integrated Swadeshi into his core philosophy not merely as a political tool for protest, but as a continuous movement for economic independence and moral upliftment. While the Non-cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, and Quit India Movement were specific, time-bound mass agitations with definite start and end dates aimed at particular political milestones, Swadeshi was a lifelong principle of self-reliance. Gandhi promoted the daily use of Khadi and the revival of village industries as a permanent duty, or Swadharma, for every Indian. This made Swadeshi a continuous socio-economic movement that ran parallel to and persisted beyond the specific phases of political struggle against British rule, forming the basis of his Constructive Programme for the regeneration of India.
67History
The Jainas believe that Jainism is the outcome of the teachings of twenty four Tirthankaras. In the light of this statement which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana Mahavira ?
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Answer: (C) He was the last and twenty fourth Tirthankara, who was not considered as the founder of the new faith but as a reformer of the existing religious sect
Explanation
Vardhamana Mahavira was the twenty-fourth and final Tirthankara in the Jain tradition. According to Jain belief, the religion is eternal and is periodically revived by Tirthankaras, starting with Rishabhanatha, the first Tirthankara and the traditional founder. Mahavira was born into a social and religious milieu where the teachings of the twenty-third Tirthankara, Parshvanatha, were already established. He is considered a great reformer who codified these existing doctrines and added the fifth great vow of celibacy (brahmacharya) to the four-fold path prescribed by Parshvanatha. By organizing the monastic order and refining the philosophical framework of the faith, Mahavira acted as a consolidator and propagator of a pre-existing religious sect rather than the founder of an entirely new one.
68History
The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories of the various birth of Buddha are
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Answer: (D) Jatakas
Explanation
The Jatakas are a voluminous body of literature native to India concerning the previous births of Gautama Buddha in both human and animal form. These stories are part of the Pali Canon and represent some of the earliest Buddhist literature, detailing how the future Buddha (Bodhisattva) performed virtuous deeds and cultivated various perfections (paramitas) across numerous lifetimes to eventually achieve enlightenment. Each story typically features the Bodhisattva in a different incarnation, such as a king, an ascetic, or even an animal like a monkey or a deer, to illustrate moral lessons and the principles of karma. These narratives served as essential tools for teaching Buddhist ethics and are frequently depicted in early Buddhist art and architecture, such as the reliefs at Sanchi and Bharhut.
69History
Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans?
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Answer: (B) They were acquainted with the use of iron
Explanation
The Rig-Vedic Aryans belonged to the Early Vedic period (c. 1500–1000 BCE), which was a Copper-Bronze Age culture. During this time, they were primarily settled in the Sapta-Sindhu region and their metallurgical knowledge was limited to metals like gold (hiranya) and copper or bronze, referred to in the Rig-Veda as ayas. The use of iron is a defining characteristic of the Later Vedic period (c. 1000–600 BCE), following the migration of Aryan tribes into the iron-rich Gangetic valley. Iron, known in later texts as shyama ayas (black metal), was not known to the people of the Rig-Vedic age, making the acquaintance with iron a historically inaccurate characteristic for that period.
70Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about United Nations organs is correct?
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Answer: (D) The Trusteeship Council has been suspended since 1 November 1994
Explanation
The Trusteeship Council, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, formally suspended its operations on 1 November 1994. This suspension occurred following the independence of Palau on 1 October 1994, which was the last remaining United Nations Trust Territory. Since the primary mission of the Council was to supervise the administration of Trust Territories and ensure their transition to self-government or independence, the Council amended its rules of procedure to drop the obligation to meet annually. It now only meets as and when the occasion requires, such as by its own decision or at the request of its President, the General Assembly, or the Security Council.
71Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about South Asia is not correct?
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Answer: (A) All the countries in South Asia are currently democracies
Explanation
The assertion that all countries in South Asia are currently democracies is inaccurate because the region features a complex mix of political systems with varying degrees of democratic stability. While nations like India and Sri Lanka have sustained democratic governance since independence, others such as Pakistan have a history marked by frequent military interventions and institutional instability. Furthermore, although countries like Bhutan and Nepal transitioned toward democratic frameworks near 2008, the consolidation of these systems was still in its early stages as of 2011. The diversity of political structures, ranging from constitutional monarchies to nascent republics with strong military influence, prevents the region from being classified as entirely democratic.
72Polity and Governance
Which among the following statements about European Union (EU) are correct?
1. The EU is the world's largest economy.
2. The EU has its own flag, anthem and currency.
3. The EU's combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.
4. The EU has its own Constitution.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The European Union (EU) functioned as the world's largest economy in 2011, with a combined Gross Domestic Product (GDP) that was slightly larger than that of the United States. As a supranational organization, it possesses several symbols of statehood, including its own flag featuring twelve gold stars, its anthem based on Beethoven's Ode to Joy, and its own currency, the Euro, which is used by a majority of its member states. Furthermore, the EU's combined armed forces, when aggregating the military capabilities and expenditures of all member nations, are ranked as the second largest in the world.
73Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?
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Answer: (B) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do
Explanation
The fundamental difference between these two entities lies in their primary objective regarding governmental authority. Political parties are organizations that participate in the electoral process with the specific aim of capturing political power, winning elections, and forming the government to implement their manifesto. In contrast, pressure groups are formed by people with common interests who seek to influence government policy and decision-making from the outside. They do not contest elections or attempt to capture formal political power directly; instead, they exert pressure on those in power to safeguard or promote their specific interests or causes.
74Polity and Governance
Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Local governments: Residuary powers
Explanation
Under Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, residuary powers of legislation—which include the authority to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List—are vested exclusively in the Union Parliament. Local governments, such as Panchayats and Municipalities, function as institutions of self-government with powers and responsibilities delegated to them by State legislatures under the 11th and 12th Schedules. They do not possess the constitutional authority to exercise residuary powers, as that jurisdiction remains solely with the Central government.
75Polity and Governance
There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?
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Answer: (D) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country
Explanation
Power sharing is a fundamental principle of democracy intended to ensure political stability and inclusivity by distributing authority among various social groups and branches of government. However, the assertion that power sharing speeds up the decision making process is factually incorrect. In a system where power is shared, multiple stakeholders and diverse interests must be consulted to reach a consensus or compromise. This requirement for deliberation and negotiation inherently makes the decision-making process more time-consuming and complex compared to centralized or majoritarian systems where a single authority can act unilaterally. While this slower pace is a trade-off for making policies more acceptable and sustainable, the delay itself is not an argument in favour of the efficiency of the system.
76Economy
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel.
2. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.
3. History of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle.
4. Nowhere is this more obviously the case of war and struggle than in West Asia and Central America.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The global economy throughout the 20th century was fundamentally dependent on petroleum because its high energy density and ease of transport made it an indispensable fuel for the industrial and transport sectors. The strategic necessity of oil and the massive revenues it generates have historically led to intense political maneuvering and internal power struggles within and among nations seeking to control these resources. Consequently, the history of the oil industry is deeply intertwined with a legacy of warfare and geopolitical conflict, as states have frequently resorted to military force to secure access to oil-rich regions and protect vital supply chains.
77Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
Explanation
The right to property was originally a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution of India. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, deleted this right from the list of Fundamental Rights. It was subsequently converted into a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution, which states that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. As a result, the freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property is no longer a guaranteed fundamental freedom under Article 19.
78Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may:
1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 200 of the Constitution of India details the legislative powers of the Governor regarding Bills passed by the state legislature. When a Bill is presented to the Governor, they have four distinct options. They may grant assent to the Bill, at which point it becomes law. They may withhold assent, which prevents the Bill from becoming an Act. They may also reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President, a step that is mandatory if the Bill significantly derogates from the powers of the High Court. Finally, under the first proviso of the Article, the Governor may return a Bill that is not a Money Bill to the House or Houses with a message requesting reconsideration of the Bill or specific provisions. If the Bill is passed again by the legislature, with or without amendments, and presented back to the Governor, the Governor is constitutionally obligated to give assent. Therefore, withholding assent, reserving the Bill for the President, and returning a non-Money Bill for reconsideration are all valid constitutional actions under Article 200.
79Polity and Governance
Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4
Explanation
The Right against Exploitation is a fundamental right enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution of India. Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings, begar, and other similar forms of forced labour, ensuring that no person is compelled to work against their will or subjected to illegal trade. Article 24 specifically prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous occupations, aiming to protect children from exploitation and ensure their physical and mental well-being. These two provisions together constitute the constitutional framework designed to protect vulnerable individuals from coercive and harmful labor practices.
80Polity and Governance
In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?
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Answer: (C) S. R. Bommai case
Explanation
The S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) judgment is a landmark case regarding the use and misuse of Article 356 of the Constitution, which allows the Central government to impose President's Rule in a state. The Supreme Court ruled that federalism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and that the power of the President to dismiss a state government is not absolute but subject to judicial review. The verdict established that the majority of a state government must be proved on the floor of the Legislative Assembly rather than through the Governor's subjective opinion. This significantly curtailed the arbitrary dismissal of state governments by the ruling party at the Centre, thereby strengthening the federal character of the Indian polity and providing a direct check on Centre-State administrative relations.
81Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India:
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The executive and legislative powers of the President are defined under various articles of the Indian Constitution. Article 78 prescribes the duties of the Prime Minister, which include communicating all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President. This article also empowers the President to call for any information regarding the administration or legislative proposals and to direct that a decision taken by an individual Minister be placed before the Council of Ministers for collective consideration. Additionally, Article 86 grants the President the right to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together and to send messages to either House with respect to a Bill then pending in Parliament or otherwise, ensuring the President's role in the legislative process is maintained. All four statements accurately reflect these constitutional provisions.
82Polity and Governance
With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to
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Answer: (B) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
Explanation
Closure is a parliamentary procedure that allows a member to move a motion to cut short the debate on a matter being discussed in the House. If the motion is approved by the House, the debate stops immediately and the matter is put to a vote. This mechanism is used to manage the time of the House and ensure that legislative business can be concluded. In the Indian Parliament, closure can take several forms, including simple closure, closure by compartments, kangaroo closure, and the guillotine, all of which serve the primary purpose of terminating further discussion so that a decision can be reached by the members.
83Economy
India's market regulator SEBI is on course to relax investment norms for sovereign wealth funds, the investment vehicles which are directly controlled by the government of a country. The main reason behind this move is
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Answer: (A) the desire of the government of India to attract more foreign investment
Explanation
The Indian government and SEBI sought to relax investment norms for sovereign wealth funds primarily to increase the inflow of stable, long-term foreign capital into the country. Unlike many hedge funds or private equity players that seek short-term gains, sovereign wealth funds typically have a longer investment horizon, making them ideal for funding capital-intensive sectors like infrastructure. In the period leading up to 2011, India required significant foreign investment to manage its current account deficit and sustain high economic growth rates. By easing the regulatory hurdles and registration processes for these government-controlled entities, India aimed to position itself as a preferred destination for global sovereign capital, thereby strengthening the domestic financial markets and ensuring a steady supply of foreign exchange.
84Economy
A recent survey (by Bloomberg) shows that the USA has fallen behind emerging markets in Brazil, China and India as the preferred place to invest. Why is it so?
1. Unstable economic situation of the USA which the global investors feel not likely to improve in the near future.
2. Global investors are finding Brazil, China and India to be actually more amenable to foreign investment.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
During the period around 2011, the United States was grappling with the lingering effects of the 2008 financial crisis, characterized by high unemployment, a slow recovery, and significant fiscal concerns, including the 2011 debt-ceiling crisis that led to the first-ever downgrade of the U.S. credit rating. These factors created a perception of an unstable economic situation among global investors. Simultaneously, emerging economies like Brazil, China, and India were experiencing rapid industrialization and high GDP growth rates, often in the range of 7 to 10 percent. These nations were also implementing policy reforms to attract foreign capital and improve ease of doing business, making them more amenable to foreign investment compared to the saturated and struggling markets of the developed world. Bloomberg surveys from this era confirmed that investors prioritized the high-growth potential and improving regulatory environments of these emerging markets over the fiscal uncertainties of the U.S. economy.
85Polity and Governance
According to the Administrative Tribunal Act 1985, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are
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Answer: (A) appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the defence forces
Explanation
The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, as authorized by Article 323A of the Indian Constitution. It exercises jurisdiction over recruitment and service matters for persons appointed to civil services of the Union, all-India services, and civil posts under the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government of India. Section 2 of the Act explicitly limits this jurisdiction by excluding certain classes of persons. These exclusions include any member of the naval, military, or air forces or any other armed forces of the Union, as well as officers and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Court and the secretarial staff of Parliament or State Legislatures. Because the tribunal is specifically designed for civil service matters of the Union, it handles the grievances of Union public servants while excluding members of the defense forces.
86Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.
3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Indian Constitution establishes a single integrated judicial system, which stands in contrast to the dual system of courts found in the United States where federal and state laws are adjudicated by separate sets of courts. In India, the Supreme Court, High Courts, and subordinate courts form a unified hierarchy that enforces both central and state laws. While the top tiers consisting of the Supreme Court and High Courts are uniform across the country, the organization and nomenclature of the subordinate judiciary are governed by the respective state governments and High Courts under Articles 233 to 237. This allows for slight variations in the structure, hierarchy, and designations of lower courts from one state to another.
87Polity and Governance
Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee, and the Committee on Public Undertakings are the three primary financial standing committees of the Parliament of India. The Public Accounts Committee is responsible for examining the appropriation accounts and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India to ensure that public money is spent as per parliamentary sanctions. The Estimates Committee examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies, improvements in organization, or administrative reforms to ensure efficiency in public expenditure. The Committee on Public Undertakings scrutinizes the reports and accounts of specified public sector enterprises to ensure they are being managed according to sound business principles and prudent commercial practices. These committees are essential instruments of parliamentary oversight, composed of members elected by the Parliament from among its own ranks to ensure the executive remain accountable for the management of public finances and state-owned enterprises.
88Polity and Governance
The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
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Answer: (C) for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Explanation
The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is governed by the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. According to Section 4 of this Act, the CEC holds office for a term of six years from the date on which they assume charge. However, if the CEC attains the age of sixty-five years before the completion of the six-year term, they must vacate the office on the day they reach that age. This specific provision of six years or sixty-five years of age, whichever is earlier, is designed to ensure the independence of the Election Commission by providing a fixed tenure while also maintaining a standard retirement age similar to that of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
89Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction is 50 paise.
2. Coins below 50 paise is not a legal tender for payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Government of India, through a notification issued under the Coinage Act, 1906, withdrew all coins in denominations of 25 paise and below from circulation effective from June 30, 2011. From this date onwards, these coins ceased to be legal tender for any payment or account. Consequently, the 50 paise coin became the lowest denomination coin that remains valid as legal tender in the Indian economy. Under the current regulations, while 50 paise coins are restricted to payments not exceeding ten rupees, they are the minimum denomination acceptable for transactions. All other coins with a lower value, including the 25 paise coin, have been completely phased out of the legal monetary system.
90Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct?
1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal data to the law enforcement authorities.
2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency mandated to implement the network in all the states.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India, initiated in 2009. The primary objective of CCTNS is to create a nationwide integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing by adopting e-governance principles. This includes the creation of a national database and a networked infrastructure that allows law enforcement authorities real-time access to digitized, classified criminal data across various states and union territories. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is the designated central nodal agency responsible for the planning, implementation, and monitoring of this network across the country. Through this system, police stations are connected to a centralized database, facilitating seamless information sharing for crime prevention and investigation.
91Polity and Governance
The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to
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Answer: (A) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India from Articles 36 to 51, function as constitutional directives or positive instructions to the State. They are inspired by the Instrument of Instructions mentioned in the Government of India Act 1935 and are intended to provide the social and economic foundations of a welfare state. While Fundamental Rights act as negative obligations that restrict the State from encroaching upon individual liberties, the Directive Principles represent positive obligations that guide the State to proactively create a social order characterized by justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Article 37 explicitly states that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and that it is the duty of the State to apply these principles when framing laws and policies at all levels, including the Union, State, and local government bodies. Their primary objective is to ensure that the State moves toward achieving the socio-economic goals envisioned in the Preamble.
92Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Five year plan) | List II (Emphasis)
A. First | 1. Food security and women empowerment
B. Second | 2. Heavy industries
C. Fifth | 3. Agriculture and community development
D. Ninth | 4. Removal of poverty
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) prioritized the primary sector to address the food shortage and inflation caused by World War II and partition, focusing heavily on agriculture and community development.
The Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), based on the P.C. Mahalanobis model, aimed for rapid industrialization with a specific focus on the development of heavy and basic industries to provide a strong base for the Indian economy.
The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-78) was characterized by the objective of Garibi Hatao, emphasizing the removal of poverty and the attainment of self-reliance through various employment and social welfare programs.
The Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002) targeted growth with social justice and equality, specifically highlighting food security and the empowerment of women as essential components of human development and social equity.
93Economy
Consider the following statements about Sinking Fund:
1. It is a method of repayment of public debt.
2. It is created by the government out of budgetary revenues every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
A Sinking Fund is a specific financial mechanism established by a government or a corporation for the systematic redemption of public debt. Statement 1 is correct because the fund's primary objective is to accumulate a sufficient sum of money over time to pay off a bond issue or a loan at the time of its maturity, thereby preventing a sudden fiscal strain on the treasury. Statement 2 is correct because the government builds this fund by making regular annual contributions from its budgetary revenues. These periodic allocations are typically invested in safe securities, and the interest earned is reinvested within the fund. By the time the debt becomes due, the total accumulation in the Sinking Fund is used to retire the debt, ensuring a smooth and planned repayment process that enhances the creditworthiness and fiscal stability of the state.
94Science and Technology
When you pull out the plug connected to an electrical appliance, you often observe a spark. To which property of the appliance is this related?
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Answer: (B) Inductance
Explanation
The occurrence of a spark when pulling out a plug is primarily due to the property of Inductance. According to Faraday's Law of Induction and Lenz's Law, any change in the current flowing through an inductor results in an induced electromotive force (EMF) that opposes that change. The magnitude of this induced voltage is given by the formula V = L di/dt, where L is the inductance and di/dt is the rate of change of current. When the plug is pulled, the current drops from its operating value to zero almost instantaneously, making the rate of change di/dt extremely large. This sudden change generates a very high induced voltage across the opening contact points. This voltage is sufficient to ionize the air in the small gap between the plug and the socket, creating a conductive path that results in a visible spark. Most electrical appliances contain components like motors, transformers, or coils that possess significant inductance, which triggers this effect during the interruption of the circuit.
95Science and Technology
The focal length of a convex lens is
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Answer: (B) shorter for blue light than for red
Explanation
According to the Lens Maker's Formula, the focal length f of a lens is determined by the relation 1/f = (n - 1) (1/R₁ - 1/R₂), where n is the refractive index of the lens material. Cauchy’s equation, n ≈ A + B/λ², states that the refractive index n is inversely related to the wavelength λ of the incident light. In the visible spectrum, blue light has a shorter wavelength than red light (λ_(blue) < λ_(red)), which means the lens material possesses a higher refractive index for blue light than for red light (n_(blue) > n_(red)). Because the focal length f is inversely proportional to (n - 1), the higher refractive index for blue light causes the lens to bend the rays more sharply, resulting in a focal length for blue light that is shorter than the focal length for red light.
96Science and Technology
If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is kept open, what will be the net effect on the room?
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Answer: (B) It will heat the room
Explanation
A refrigerator operates as a heat engine in reverse, following the principles of the First Law of Thermodynamics. It extracts heat from its interior compartment and exhausts it into the surrounding environment through the condenser coils located at the back or bottom. The total heat released into the room Qₒᵤₜ is equal to the sum of the heat absorbed from the interior Qᵢₙ and the electrical work W performed by the compressor motor, expressed as Qₒᵤₜ = Qᵢₙ + W. When the refrigerator door is kept open in a closed room, the device attempts to cool the entire room, essentially drawing heat from the room air and pumping it back into the same space. Since the electrical energy W consumed by the motor is also converted into heat due to mechanical friction and electrical resistance, the net energy added to the room is positive. This continuous addition of energy causes the average kinetic energy of the air molecules to increase, leading to a rise in the overall temperature of the room.
97Science and Technology
When a ball drops onto the floor it bounces. Why does it bounce?
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Answer: (A) Newton's third law implies that for every action (drop) there is a reaction (bounce)
Explanation
The bouncing of a ball is explained by Newton's Third Law of Motion, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. When a ball strikes the floor, it exerts a downward force on the ground. According to this law, the floor simultaneously exerts an equal and opposite upward force on the ball. This upward reaction force decelerates the ball, stops its downward motion, and then accelerates it in the opposite direction, resulting in the bounce. In this context, the impact force of the ball is the action, and the upward force from the floor is the reaction.
98Economy
Renewable energy can be obtained from
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Answer: (C) Biomass
Explanation
Biomass refers to organic matter derived from plants and animals, which contains stored energy from the sun through the process of photosynthesis. It is classified as a renewable energy source because plant matter can be regrown in a relatively short period of time, and waste materials are produced continuously through biological processes. Common sources include wood, energy crops, agricultural residues, and organic municipal waste. Because these resources can be replenished sustainably on a human timescale, biomass is considered a renewable alternative to finite energy sources. When biomass is utilized for energy, it releases carbon that was recently absorbed from the atmosphere, facilitating a contemporary carbon cycle.
99Science and Technology
A body has a mass of 6kg on the Earth; when measured on the Moon, its mass would be
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Answer: (D) 6kg
Explanation
Mass is a fundamental and intrinsic property of matter that represents the quantity of substance in a body. Unlike weight, which is the force of gravity acting on an object (W = m · g) and varies depending on the local gravitational field, mass remains constant regardless of the object's location in the universe. While the Moon's gravitational pull is approximately one-sixth that of Earth's, which would cause the weight of the 6kg body to decrease, its mass remains unchanged at 6kg.
100Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not included in the basic functions of operating system?
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Answer: (D) Data management
Explanation
Data management refers to the systematic organization, storage, and retrieval of data records and their logical relationships, which is the primary responsibility of a Database Management System (DBMS) or specialized application software. While an operating system performs file management by handling the storage and retrieval of files on a disk, it does not manage the internal structure or semantic content of the data within those files. The basic functions of an operating system include memory management, which handles the allocation of primary storage, and process management, which encompasses job scheduling and job control. Job scheduling determines the order in which processes access the CPU, while job control involves the starting, stopping, and monitoring of system tasks.
101Science and Technology
Transformer is a kind of appliance that can
1. increase power
2. increase voltage
3. decrease voltage
4. measure current and voltage
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
A transformer is a static electrical device that transfers energy between two or more circuits through electromagnetic induction. According to Faraday law of induction, the ratio of the primary voltage Vₚ to the secondary voltage Vₛ is equal to the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil Nₚ to the number of turns in the secondary coil Nₛ, expressed as Vₛ / Vₚ = Nₛ / Nₚ.
In a step-up transformer, the number of turns in the secondary winding is greater than in the primary winding, resulting in an increase in output voltage. Conversely, in a step-down transformer, the secondary winding has fewer turns, which decreases the output voltage. While the voltage levels are modified, the ideal transformer operates on the principle of conservation of energy where power remains constant, represented by the relation P = Vₚ Iₚ = Vₛ Iₛ. This means an increase in voltage is accompanied by a proportional decrease in current, and a decrease in voltage leads to an increase in current.
102Science and Technology
What is the main constituent of a Pearl?
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Answer: (A) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
Explanation
Pearls are biogenic gemstones formed within the soft tissue of living shelled mollusks. Chemically, they are primarily composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) and magnesium carbonate (MgCO₃), which together account for approximately 80% to 90% of the pearl's weight. The calcium carbonate typically exists in the crystalline form of aragonite or calcite. These mineral layers are held together by an organic protein called conchiolin, which acts as a biological binder, along with a small percentage of water. The combination of these inorganic carbonates and the organic matrix gives pearls their characteristic strength and iridescent luster.
103Geography
From which one among the following water sources, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride?
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Answer: (A) Ground water
Explanation
Fluoride contamination in water primarily occurs through the natural weathering and leaching of fluoride-rich minerals from the Earth's crust into the subsurface water table. Groundwater is the most significant source of this contamination because it remains in prolonged contact with geological formations containing minerals such as fluorite (CaF₂), fluoroapatite, and cryolite. As water percolates through these rocks and soil, fluoride ions dissolve and accumulate in the aquifers. This geochemical process is particularly pronounced in arid and semi-arid regions where low rainfall and high evaporation rates further concentrate the dissolved solids. In many parts of India, deep groundwater extracted for drinking purposes frequently exceeds the World Health Organization's safety limit of 1.5 mg/L, posing significant risks of dental and skeletal fluorosis to the population.
104Science and Technology
Which one among the following will you put into pure water in order to pass electric current through it?
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Answer: (C) Lemon juice
Explanation
Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity because it lacks a sufficient concentration of free ions to carry an electric charge. For a liquid to conduct electricity, it must contain electrolytes that dissociate into positive and negative ions when dissolved. Lemon juice contains citric acid, which is a chemical compound that acts as a weak electrolyte. When lemon juice is added to pure water, the citric acid molecules dissociate to release hydrogen ions H⁺ and citrate ions into the solution. These mobile ions serve as charge carriers that allow the flow of electric current through the medium.
105Science and Technology
Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to
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Answer: (A) decrease the rate of setting of cement
Explanation
Gypsum (CaSO₄ · 2H₂O) is added to cement clinker during the final grinding stage to act as a chemical retarder. Its primary function is to control the rate of hydration of tricalcium aluminate (C₃A), which is the most reactive component in cement. Without gypsum, C₃A reacts instantly with water, causing the cement to harden immediately in a process called flash set. When gypsum is present, it reacts with C₃A to form ettringite crystals (C₃A · 3CaSO₄ · 32H₂O), which create a temporary barrier around the aluminate particles. This process effectively decreases the rate of setting of the cement, ensuring the mixture remains plastic and workable for a sufficient duration to allow for proper mixing, transportation, and application at construction sites.
106Science and Technology
Sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) solution is used in photography to
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Answer: (C) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble silver thiosulfate complex
Explanation
In the photographic process, sodium thiosulfate (Na₂S₂O₃), commonly referred to as hypo, acts as a fixing agent to stabilize the developed image. Its primary function is to remove the unexposed and undecomposed silver bromide (AgBr) from the photographic emulsion. This is achieved through a chemical reaction where sodium thiosulfate reacts with AgBr to form a stable, water-soluble coordination complex known as sodium dithiosulfatoargentate(I). The chemical equation for this process is AgBr + 2Na₂S₂O₃ → Na₃[Ag(S₂O₃)₂] + NaBr. By converting the insoluble silver halides into this soluble complex, the excess salts can be easily washed away, preventing the photograph from darkening further when exposed to light.
107Science and Technology
Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon of
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Answer: (C) Chemiluminescence
Explanation
Fireflies produce light through a biochemical process known as bioluminescence, which is a specific form of chemiluminescence occurring within a living organism. This phenomenon involves a chemical reaction where the pigment luciferin is oxidized in the presence of the enzyme luciferase, oxygen, and adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The reaction creates an electronically excited molecule that releases energy as visible light when it returns to its ground state. This process is exceptionally efficient, converting nearly all of the energy into light with negligible heat production, which is why the emission is referred to as cold light.
108Science and Technology
The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of scientists due to its
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Answer: (D) Rustlessness
Explanation
The Iron Pillar of Delhi, dating back to the 4th century CE during the Gupta Empire, is a metallurgical wonder that has intrigued scientists for decades because of its extraordinary resistance to corrosion. Despite being exposed to the open air and high humidity for over 1,600 years, the pillar has not rusted. Scientific studies, particularly those by metallurgists like R. Balasubramaniam, have revealed that the rustlessness is due to the high phosphorus content in the iron and the formation of a passive protective film on the surface. This film, composed of crystalline iron hydrogen phosphate hydrate (FePO₄ · H₃PO₄ · 4H₂O), acts as a kinetic barrier against further oxidation, showcasing the advanced proficiency of ancient Indian ironsmiths in forge welding and smelting techniques.
109Science and Technology
Sacrificial anode protects iron of ships, underground pipelines etc. from rusting, a process known as cathodic protection. Which one of the following metals cannot be used as a sacrificial anode?
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Answer: (A) Tin
Explanation
Sacrificial protection is an electrochemical process where a more reactive metal is used to protect a less reactive metal from corrosion. For a metal to serve as a sacrificial anode for iron, it must have a higher oxidation potential (or a more negative standard reduction potential) than iron. In the reactivity series, Iron (Fe) has a standard reduction potential of approximately -0.44 V. Tin (Sn), however, has a standard reduction potential of approximately -0.14 V, making it more noble and less reactive than iron. Consequently, Tin cannot act as a sacrificial anode because it will not oxidize preferentially to iron. If a coating of Tin on Iron is breached, the Iron will actually undergo accelerated corrosion to protect the Tin, which is the opposite of the intended cathodic protection.
110Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Acid) (Source)
A. Lactic acid 1. Tamarind
B. Tartaric acid 2. Orange
C. Oxalic acid 3. Tomato
D. Citric acid 4. Sour curd
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Lactic acid is produced in sour curd through the bacterial fermentation of lactose. Tartaric acid is a white crystalline organic acid that occurs naturally in many plants, most notably in tamarind and grapes. Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid found naturally in various vegetables, with tomatoes being a well-known source. Citric acid is a weak organic acid that is a natural preservative and is found in high concentrations in citrus fruits such as oranges.
111Science and Technology
Which one among the following will be absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive system?
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Answer: (C) Raw alcohol taken as a drink
Explanation
Alcohol is absorbed with exceptional speed because it is a small, uncharged molecule that is soluble in both water and lipids. These properties allow it to cross the epithelial cell membranes of the digestive tract through simple diffusion. Unlike most ingested substances that require transit to the small intestine for absorption, alcohol begins to enter the bloodstream directly through the mucosal lining of the stomach. Since it requires no enzymatic digestion or active transport mechanisms, its rate of diffusion into the portal circulation is primarily limited only by gastric emptying and blood flow, making its absorption faster than that of complex organic molecules or substances requiring intestinal processing.
112Science and Technology
One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is
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Answer: (C) silicosis
Explanation
Silicosis is a chronic and irreversible lung disease caused by the prolonged inhalation of crystalline silica dust. In industries such as ceramics, pottery, and glass manufacturing, workers are frequently exposed to silica because it is a fundamental raw material used in the form of sand, quartz, and clay. Processes like grinding, mixing, and cutting generate fine respirable particles that penetrate deep into the alveolar sacs of the lungs. Over time, these particles cause inflammation and the development of progressive nodular fibrosis or scar tissue, which severely impairs the ability of the lungs to exchange gases. Silicosis is recognized as one of the most prevalent occupational respiratory hazards for workers in environments where silica-containing materials are processed.
113Science and Technology
It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial quantity of calcium through urine during space flight. This is due to
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Answer: (B) microgravity
Explanation
In the microgravity environment of space, the lack of mechanical stress and weight-bearing activity on the skeletal system leads to a significant increase in bone resorption. On Earth, gravity provide constant mechanical loading that stimulates bone-forming cells to maintain bone density. Without this gravitational pull, the body begins to break down bone tissue, releasing large amounts of calcium into the bloodstream. This excess calcium is subsequently filtered by the kidneys and excreted through the urine, a condition known as hypercalciuria. This physiological process begins shortly after entering space and continues throughout the duration of the flight, potentially leading to decreased bone mineral density and an increased risk of developing kidney stones.
114Science and Technology
If we sprinkle common salt on an earthworm, it dies due to
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Answer: (A) osmotic shock
Explanation
The skin of an earthworm functions as a semi-permeable membrane that is vital for maintaining internal fluid balance and facilitating cutaneous respiration. When common salt is sprinkled on the earthworm, it creates a highly concentrated hypertonic environment on the surface of the skin. Due to the principle of osmosis, water moves from the region of higher water potential inside the earthworm's body to the region of lower water potential outside to equalize the concentration. This rapid and massive exit of water, known as exosmosis, leads to severe dehydration and cellular shrinkage. This physiological crisis is referred to as osmotic shock, which causes the earthworm to shrivel and die quickly as its internal systems fail due to the sudden loss of essential body fluids.
115Science and Technology
Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of
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Answer: (A) sulfur in the cell
Explanation
Onions naturally absorb sulfur from the soil, which is sequestered within their cells in the form of amino acid sulfoxides. When the onion is cut or peeled, the mechanical damage ruptures the cell membranes, releasing an enzyme called alliinase. This enzyme reacts with the sulfur-containing sulfoxides to produce sulfenic acids. A secondary enzyme, lachrymatory-factor synthase, then converts these acids into a volatile gas known as syn-propanethial-S-oxide (C₃H₆OS). This sulfur-based gas rapidly diffuses through the air and, upon contact with the moisture on the surface of the eyes, reacts to form mild sulfuric acid. The presence of this acid irritates the nerve endings in the cornea, triggering the lacrimal glands to produce tears as a protective mechanism to dilute and wash away the chemical irritant.
116Science and Technology
The anti-malarial drug Quinine is made from a plant. The plant is
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Answer: (D) Cinchona
Explanation
Quinine is a natural alkaloid that has been used for centuries as a primary treatment for malaria. It is extracted from the bark of various species of the Cinchona tree, which is native to the Andean forests of South America. The medicinal properties of the bark were discovered by the Quechua people and later introduced to Europe in the 17th century. Quinine works by interfering with the growth and reproduction of the Plasmodium parasites within the human bloodstream, specifically by inhibiting the detoxification of heme by the parasite.
117Science and Technology
Endosulfon, which has been in news these days, is
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Answer: (A) a pesticide
Explanation
Endosulfan is an organochlorine insecticide and acaricide that belongs to the cyclodiene group. It was extensively used in agriculture to control a wide range of pests, including whiteflies, aphids, and beetles, on crops such as cotton, cashew, and tea. In 2011, the Supreme Court of India passed a nationwide interim ban on its manufacture, sale, and use due to its hazardous impact on human health and the environment, particularly documented in the Kasaragod district of Kerala. During the same year, endosulfan was added to the list of persistent organic pollutants under the Stockholm Convention, an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods.
118Science and Technology
The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human or any other animal. It is because the cat
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Answer: (A) can immediately adjust itself to land on all four paws and bend the legs to absorb the impact of falling
Explanation
Cats possess a specialized righting reflex that allows them to orient their bodies mid-air using their vestibular system and a highly flexible spine. This enables them to land on all four paws, distributing the impact force across a wider area of the body. Upon contact with the ground, a cat utilizes its limbs as natural shock absorbers by bending its joints. This musculoskeletal flexion dissipates the kinetic energy of the fall through the muscles and tendons, significantly reducing the deceleration forces transmitted to the vital organs and the skeletal frame. This combination of aerial orientation and impact absorption provides a mechanical advantage that minimizes injury from heights.
119Science and Technology
Development of Goitre (enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of
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Answer: (B) Iodine
Explanation
The thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize essential hormones like thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃), which regulate metabolism, growth, and development. When there is a deficiency of iodine in the diet, the thyroid gland cannot produce sufficient amounts of these hormones. In response, the pituitary gland increases the secretion of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) to compensate for the low hormone levels. This constant overstimulation by TSH causes the thyroid gland cells to multiply and the gland itself to enlarge in an attempt to trap as much iodine as possible from the bloodstream, a condition clinically known as goitre.
120Science and Technology
To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young individual, which one among the following symptoms is mostly associated with?
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Answer: (C) Chronic diarrhoea
Explanation
Chronic diarrhoea is recognized as one of the major clinical signs used to suspect HIV/AIDS, especially when it persists for more than one month without a known cause. According to the clinical case definitions established for surveillance and diagnosis in resource-limited settings, the combination of significant weight loss, prolonged fever, and chronic diarrhoea forms the triad of primary symptoms associated with progression to AIDS. In young, otherwise healthy individuals, the presence of persistent watery diarrhoea is frequently linked to opportunistic infections by protozoan parasites such as Cryptosporidium, Isospora belli, or Microsporidia. These pathogens cause severe gastrointestinal distress primarily when the immune system is significantly compromised, leading to a drop in CD4+ T-cell counts. Consequently, unexplained chronic diarrhoea serves as a major diagnostic red flag that prompts clinical investigation for underlying HIV infection.