CDS2018 (II)General Knowledge✓ Every question solved

CDS II 2018 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 121 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

121
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6
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3831%
  • Polity and Governance2823%
  • History2017%
  • Geography1714%
  • Economy1412%
  • Art and Culture43%
1Science and Technology
Two reactants in a flask at room temperature are producing bubbles of a gas that turn limewater milky. The reactants could be
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Answer: (B) magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid

Explanation

The reaction between a metal carbonate and an acid at room temperature typically produces a salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas. Magnesium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid according to the chemical equation: MgCO₃ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂. Carbon dioxide is the specific gas that turns limewater milky. This occurs because carbon dioxide reacts with the calcium hydroxide in limewater to form a white precipitate of calcium carbonate, as shown by the equation: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O. This reaction is a standard chemical test for identifying the presence of carbonate ions or carbon dioxide gas.

2Science and Technology
How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 2-0 mole of CH4 with 2-0 mole of O2 according to the equation given below? CH4(g) + 1/2 O2 → CO + 2H2
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Answer: (A) 2-0

Explanation

The balanced chemical equation CH₄ + 1/2 O₂ → CO + 2H₂ indicates a stoichiometric ratio where 1 mole of CH₄ reacts with 0.5 moles of O₂ to produce 1 mole of CO. To find the amount of CO produced, we first identify the limiting reagent. Given 2.0 moles of CH₄ and 2.0 moles of O₂, we calculate the required amount of oxygen for the available methane: 2.0 moles of CH₄ × 0.5 = 1.0 mole of O₂. Since 2.0 moles of O₂ are provided, O₂ is in excess and CH₄ is the limiting reagent. The production of CO is governed by the limiting reagent; as 1 mole of CH₄ yields 1 mole of CO, 2.0 moles of CH₄ will react to produce 2.0 moles of CO.

3Science and Technology
Reaction between which of the following two reactants will produce hydrogen gas?
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Answer: (A) Magnesium and hydrochloric acid

Explanation

Magnesium is a reactive metal situated above hydrogen in the reactivity series. When magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, it undergoes a single displacement reaction. In this process, magnesium atoms displace hydrogen ions from the acid, resulting in the formation of magnesium chloride salt and the liberation of hydrogen gas. The chemical equation for this reaction is:

Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂ ↑

The hydrogen gas is evolved as colorless and odorless bubbles. It can be identified by the characteristic pop sound it produces when a burning splinter is brought near the mouth of the test tube. This reaction illustrates the general principle that active metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas.

4Science and Technology
Which of the following characteristics is common to hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide?
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Answer: (B) They are all gases at room temperature.

Explanation

Hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide all exist in the gaseous state at standard room temperature (approximately 25 °C) and atmospheric pressure. This physical property is shared because the boiling points of these substances are significantly lower than typical ambient temperatures. Hydrogen has a boiling point of approximately -252.9 °C, nitrogen boils at -195.8 °C, and oxygen boils at -183 °C. Carbon dioxide does not have a liquid phase at standard atmospheric pressure and instead undergoes sublimation at -78.5 °C. At room temperature, the thermal energy is sufficient to overcome the weak intermolecular van der Waals forces between these molecules, ensuring they remain in the gas phase.

5Science and Technology
The compound C7H7NO2 has
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Answer: (A) 17 atoms in a molecule of the compound

Explanation

The total number of atoms in a molecule of a compound is determined by summing the subscripts of each element present in its chemical formula. For the compound C₇H₇NO₂, the formula indicates the presence of 7 carbon atoms, 7 hydrogen atoms, 1 nitrogen atom, and 2 oxygen atoms. By adding these constituent atoms together (7 + 7 + 1 + 2), the total count is exactly 17 atoms per molecule.

6Science and Technology
Which of the following is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons?
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Answer: (A) CnH2n + 2

Explanation

Saturated hydrocarbons, commonly referred to as alkanes, are organic compounds where all carbon-carbon bonds are single bonds. This chemical structure ensures that the carbon atoms are bonded to the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms, effectively saturating the carbon skeleton. In any acyclic (open-chain) alkane with n carbon atoms, each carbon atom is typically associated with two hydrogen atoms, and two additional hydrogen atoms are required to terminate the ends of the molecular chain. This relationship is expressed through the general mathematical formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂, where n is a positive integer representing the number of carbon atoms.

7Science and Technology
A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line from rest. The percentage increase in displacement during sixth second compared to that in fifth second is about
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Answer: (B) 22%

Explanation

The displacement of a particle in the nth second of its motion is given by the formula Sₙ = u + a/2(2n - 1), where u is the initial velocity and a is the uniform acceleration. Since the particle starts from rest, u = 0, the formula simplifies to Sₙ = a/2(2n - 1).

To find the displacement in the fifth second (n = 5): S₅ = a/2(2 × 5 - 1) = 9a/2

To find the displacement in the sixth second (n = 6): S₆ = a/2(2 × 6 - 1) = 11a/2

The percentage increase in displacement during the sixth second compared to the fifth second is: Percentage Increase = (S₆ - S₅)/S₅ × 100 Substituting the values: Percentage Increase = (11a/2 - 9a/2)/(9a/2) × 100 = 2/9 × 100 200/9 ≈ 22.22%

8Science and Technology
If two miscible liquids of same volume but different densities P1 and P2 are mixed, then the density of the mixture is given by
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Answer: (A) (P1 + P2) / 2

Explanation

The density of a mixture is defined as the total mass divided by the total volume of the mixture. Let the volume of each miscible liquid be V. The mass of the first liquid is m₁ = ρ₁V and the mass of the second liquid is m₂ = ρ₂V. The total mass of the mixture is M = m₁ + m₂ = ρ₁V + ρ₂V. Assuming the volumes are additive, the total volume of the mixture is Vₜₒₜₐₗ = V + V = 2V. The density of the resulting mixture ρₘᵢₓ is calculated as:

ρₘᵢₓ = M/Vₜₒₜₐₗ = (ρ₁V + ρ₂V)/2V

Factoring out V from the numerator gives:

ρₘᵢₓ = V(ρ₁ + ρ₂)/2V = (ρ₁ + ρ₂)/2

This shows that when equal volumes of two liquids are mixed, the density of the mixture is the arithmetic mean of the individual densities.

9Science and Technology
The position vector of a particle is r = 2t^2 x̂ + 3t ŷ + 4 ẑ. Then the instantaneous velocity v and acceleration a respectively lie
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Answer: (D) on xy-plane and along x-direction

Explanation

The instantaneous velocity v is the first derivative of the position vector r with respect to time t. Given r = 2t² x̂ + 3t ŷ + 4 ẑ, the velocity is calculated as:

v = dr/dt = d/dt(2t² x̂ + 3t ŷ + 4 ẑ) = 4t x̂ + 3 ŷ

Since the velocity vector has components only along the x̂ and ŷ directions and the ẑ component is zero, the velocity vector v lies in the xy-plane.

The instantaneous acceleration a is the derivative of the velocity vector v with respect to time t:

a = dv/dt = d/dt(4t x̂ + 3 ŷ) = 4 x̂

The acceleration vector has only an x̂ component, which means it is directed entirely along the x-direction. Therefore, the velocity lies on the xy-plane and the acceleration acts along the x-direction.

10Science and Technology
Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal direction. The tension required to completely straighten the rope is (g = 10 m/s^2)
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Answer: (D) infinitely large

Explanation

Consider a mass m suspended at the midpoint of a rope. Let T be the tension in the rope and θ be the angle the rope makes with the horizontal. For the system to be in vertical equilibrium, the sum of the vertical components of the tension must balance the weight of the mass. The equilibrium equation is 2T sin(θ) = mg.

To find the tension required, we rearrange the formula as T = mg/(2 sin(θ)). To completely straighten the rope, it must be perfectly horizontal, which means the angle θ must be 0°. Substituting this into the equation, we get T = mg/(2 sin(0°)). Since sin(0°) = 0, the tension T becomes mg/0, which is infinitely large. Physically, this means that as long as the mass has weight, there must be a vertical component of tension to support it, which is only possible if the rope deviates from the horizontal.

11Science and Technology
Which one of the following does not convert electrical energy into light energy?
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Answer: (A) A candle

Explanation

A candle generates light through the process of combustion, which is a chemical reaction between the fuel (wax) and oxygen in the air. When the wick is lit, the heat melts and vaporizes the wax, breaking the hydrocarbon chains and releasing energy. This process converts the chemical potential energy stored in the wax into thermal energy and radiant light energy. Because this transformation relies entirely on chemical processes and does not involve the flow of electrons or an external power source, it does not convert electrical energy into light.

12Science and Technology
Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/organs of plants?
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Answer: (C) Root and leaf only

Explanation

The roots serve as the primary organ for the intake of water and essential mineral nutrients from the soil medium, utilizing root hairs to maximize the surface area available for osmosis and active transport. The leaves function as the principal organs for the absorption of atmospheric gases, specifically carbon dioxide (CO₂) required for photosynthesis and oxygen (O₂) for respiration, which enter the plant through microscopic pores known as stomata. Additionally, leaves facilitate the uptake of moisture and dissolved substances from the atmosphere through foliar absorption. These two organs together provide the necessary liquid, mineral, and gaseous inputs required for the metabolic and physiological functions of the plant.

13Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a primary function of a green leaf?
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Answer: (D) Conduction of food and water

Explanation

The conduction of food and water throughout the plant body is the primary function of the stem and the specialized vascular system consisting of xylem and phloem tissues. While the leaf contains veins that house these vascular tissues to facilitate local transport, its primary biological roles are centered on photosynthesis for the manufacture of food, the interchange of gases like carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata, and the process of transpiration, which involves the evaporation of water to create suction for nutrient uptake and to regulate temperature. In contrast, the stem acts as the main highway for the long-distance translocation of water from the roots and the distribution of glucose to non-photosynthetic parts of the plant.

14Science and Technology
Which one of the following denotes a 'true' fruit?
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Answer: (D) When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit

Explanation

A true fruit, scientifically referred to as a eucarp, is a fruit that develops exclusively from the mature, ripened ovary of a flower following fertilization. During this developmental process, the wall of the ovary transforms into the pericarp, which consists of the exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp, while the ovules within the ovary develop into seeds. The defining characteristic of a true fruit is that no other floral parts, such as the thalamus, calyx, or receptacle, participate in the formation of the fruit structure. Common botanical examples of true fruits include mangoes, grapes, and peas.

15Science and Technology
In which one of the following physiological processes, excess water escapes in the form of droplets from a plant?
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Answer: (B) Guttation

Explanation

Guttation is the physiological process in plants characterized by the exudation of water in the form of liquid droplets. This phenomenon typically occurs through specialized structures called hydathodes, which are located at the margins or tips of the leaves. Guttation is primarily driven by root pressure; when soil moisture is high and the rate of transpiration is low, such as during the night or early morning, the pressure within the xylem sap increases. This positive pressure forces excess water out of the vascular system and through the hydathodes to the surface of the leaf. Unlike water loss through vapor, guttation water contains dissolved organic and inorganic substances.

16Science and Technology
If the xylem of a plant is mechanically blocked, which of the following functions of the plant will be affected?
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Answer: (B) Transport of water and solutes

Explanation

Xylem is the specialized vascular tissue in plants that functions as the primary conduit for the upward movement of water and dissolved inorganic minerals, which are collectively termed solutes. This transport process, known as the ascent of sap, moves substances from the root system to the stems and leaves to support physiological processes like photosynthesis and transpiration. Because the minerals are dissolved within the water being moved through the tracheids and vessel elements, a mechanical blockage of the xylem tissue directly prevents the delivery of both the water and the essential mineral solutes to the aerial parts of the plant.

17Geography
Which one of the following agents does not contribute to propagation of plants through seed dispersal?
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Answer: (B) Fungus

Explanation

Fungi primarily function as decomposers, parasites, or symbiotic organisms within ecosystems. They lack the mobility or structural mechanisms required to transport seeds from a parent plant to a new environment. While they play a vital role in breaking down organic matter and assisting in nutrient uptake through mycorrhizal networks, they do not serve as vectors for the physical movement and propagation of seeds. Their biological role is centered on nutrient cycling and interaction with plant roots rather than the mechanical or behavioral transport of reproductive units across distances.

18Science and Technology
The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is
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Answer: (D) light

Explanation

The electromagnetic spectrum comprises the entire range of electromagnetic radiation, classified according to wavelength or frequency. The specific segment that is detectable by the human eye is defined as visible light, or simply light. This narrow band typically ranges from wavelengths of approximately 400 nanometers to 700 nanometers. When electromagnetic radiation within this range enters the eye, it triggers nerve impulses in the retina, which the brain interprets as visual images and colors. Therefore, the term light serves as the standard scientific designation for the visible portion of the broader electromagnetic spectrum.

19Geography
Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States in terms of their population density as per Census 2011?
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Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh-Mizoram-Sikkim-Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

Based on the 2011 Census of India, the population density is defined as the number of persons per square kilometer of area. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density in the country, recorded at 17. It is followed by Mizoram, which has the second lowest density among Indian states at 52. Sikkim ranks higher with a density of 86, and Himachal Pradesh has a population density of 123. Therefore, the sequence of Arunachal Pradesh (17), Mizoram (52), Sikkim (86), and Himachal Pradesh (123) correctly represents the ascending order of population density according to the official 2011 data.

20Geography
The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade declined over the previous decade (1991-2001) in all of the following States, except
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Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu registered a decadal population growth rate of 15.61 percent in the 2001-2011 period, marking a distinct increase compared to its 1991-2001 growth rate of 11.72 percent. While the national trend and most other states showed a deceleration in population growth during this time, Tamil Nadu's growth rate accelerated by approximately 3.89 percentage points. This reversal of the declining trend is primarily attributed to significant net in-migration from other states driven by Tamil Nadu's rapid industrialization and economic growth, as well as shifts in the age-structure and stabilized fertility levels across various districts.

21Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of coral reefs is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Coral can grow abundantly in freshwater.

Explanation

Coral reefs are formed by colonies of polyps that are stenohaline, meaning they can only survive within a narrow range of salinity, typically between 27 and 40 parts per thousand. Because they are strictly marine organisms, they cannot survive in freshwater environments. Freshwater lacks the necessary salt concentration and chemical balance required for coral polyps to maintain their physiological functions and build their calcium carbonate skeletons. The presence of freshwater, such as near the mouths of large rivers or during heavy terrestrial runoff, causes osmotic stress and inhibits coral growth, which is why reef development is restricted to saline oceanic waters.

22Polity and Governance
As per Census 2011, the concentration of Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste population to total population of the State) is the highest in the State of
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Answer: (C) Punjab

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the state of Punjab records the highest concentration of Scheduled Caste population when measured as a percentage of the total population of the state. The Scheduled Caste population in Punjab constitutes approximately 31.94 percent of its total inhabitants. While other states may have larger absolute numbers of Scheduled Caste individuals due to larger total populations, the proportional representation is most significant in Punjab, making it the state with the highest density of this demographic group relative to its size.

23Geography
Which one of the following States has more than two major ports?
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu is the only state in India that hosts three major ports, which are the Chennai Port, the Kamarajar Port at Ennore, and the V.O. Chidambaranar Port at Tuticorin. The Chennai Port is an all-weather artificial harbor and one of the oldest ports on the East Coast. Kamarajar Port, situated north of Chennai, is significant for being the first major port in the country to be registered as a company rather than a trust. V.O. Chidambaranar Port, located in the southern part of the state near the Gulf of Mannar, serves as an important gateway for international trade in the Indian Ocean region. These facilities are classified as major ports because they are under the administrative jurisdiction of the Central Government, whereas smaller or intermediate ports are managed by state maritime boards.

24Science and Technology
The equivalent weight of Ba(OH)2 is (given, atomic weight of Ba is 137.3)
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Answer: (A) 85.7

Explanation

The equivalent weight of a base is calculated by dividing its molecular weight by its acidity, which is the number of replaceable hydroxyl (OH⁻) ions per molecule. For Barium hydroxide, Ba(OH)₂, the dissociation in aqueous solution is Ba(OH)₂ → Ba²⁺ + 2OH⁻, meaning its acidity (n-factor) is 2.

The molecular weight (M) of Ba(OH)₂ is calculated using the atomic weights of its constituent elements: Ba = 137.3, O = 16.0, and H = 1.0. M = 137.3 + 2 × (16.0 + 1.0) = 137.3 + 34.0 = 171.3

The equivalent weight (E) is given by the formula: E = Molecular Weight/Acidity E = 171.3/2 = 85.65

Rounding to one decimal place as per the given options, the equivalent weight is 85.7.

25Science and Technology
Which one of the following nitrogen oxides has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen?
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Answer: (D) N2O5

Explanation

The oxidation state of nitrogen in each oxide is calculated by assigning oxygen an oxidation state of -2. In N₂O, it is +1; in NO, it is +2; in NO₂, it is +4; and in N₂O₅, it is +5. N₂O₅ (dinitrogen pentoxide) therefore contains nitrogen in its highest possible oxidation state of +5, which is also the maximum oxidation state nitrogen can achieve. Among the given options, N₂O₅ has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen.

26Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not true for the form of carbon known as diamond?
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Answer: (C) It is a better electric conductor than graphite.

Explanation

Diamond is an electrical insulator and a poor conductor of electricity, whereas graphite is an excellent conductor. In diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and forms four strong covalent bonds with neighboring atoms in a rigid, three-dimensional tetrahedral lattice. Since all four valence electrons of every carbon atom are involved in these localized bonds, there are no free or delocalized electrons available to move through the crystal and carry an electric current. In contrast, carbon atoms in graphite are sp² hybridized, leaving one valence electron per atom delocalized, which allows graphite to conduct electricity effectively.

27Science and Technology
In which one of the following reactions, the maximum quantity of H2 gas is produced by the decomposition of 1 g of compound by H2O / O2 ?
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Answer: (A) CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2

Explanation

The quantity of hydrogen gas produced is determined by calculating the moles of H₂ generated per gram of the primary reactant. In the steam reforming of methane, represented by the equation CH₄ + H₂O → CO + 3H₂, one mole of methane reacts to produce three moles of hydrogen gas. The molar mass of methane (CH₄) is 12 + (4 × 1) = 16 g/mol. By dividing the moles of H₂ by the mass of the reactant, we find that 1 g of CH₄ yields 3 / 16 = 0.1875 moles of H₂. This yields the maximum quantity of gas because methane has the highest hydrogen-to-carbon ratio of any hydrocarbon, and the reaction with water allows for the extraction of additional hydrogen atoms from the H₂O molecule itself, significantly increasing the total output per unit mass of the carbonaceous compound.

28Science and Technology
When a convex lens produces a real image of an object, the minimum distance between the object and image is equal to
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Answer: (C) four times the focal length of the convex lens

Explanation

According to the lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f, where u is the object distance, v is the image distance, and f is the focal length. For a real image formed by a convex lens, the object and image are on opposite sides of the lens. Let the distance between the object and the image be D = |u| + |v|. By applying the sign convention, where u is negative and v is positive, the formula becomes 1/v + 1/|u| = 1/f.

Substituting |u| = x and |v| = D - x, the equation becomes 1/(D-x) + 1/x = 1/f. Simplifying this yields the quadratic equation x² - Dx + fD = 0. For the distance x to be real, the discriminant of this quadratic equation must be greater than or equal to zero, which means D² - 4fD ≥ 0. This inequality simplifies to D(D - 4f) ≥ 0. Since the distance D must be positive, it follows that D ≥ 4f. Therefore, the minimum distance between a real object and its real image is four times the focal length of the convex lens, occurring when the object is placed at 2f.

29Science and Technology
The direction of magnetic field at any location on the earth's surface is commonly specified in terms of
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Answer: (C) both field declination and field inclination

Explanation

The direction of the Earth's magnetic field at any point is determined by two angular components known as magnetic elements. Magnetic declination is the angle between the geographic meridian and the magnetic meridian, which provides the horizontal direction of the field relative to true north. Magnetic inclination, also known as magnetic dip, is the angle that the total magnetic field vector makes with the horizontal plane at that location, providing the vertical orientation. Together, these two angles uniquely specify the orientation of the magnetic field vector in three-dimensional space at any given coordinate on the Earth's surface.

30Science and Technology
A circuit has a fuse having a rating of 5 A. What is the maximum number of 100 W-220 V bulbs that can be safely connected in parallel in the circuit?
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Answer: (C) 11

Explanation

The current drawn by a single bulb can be calculated using the power formula P = V × I, where P is power, V is voltage, and I is current. For a 100 W bulb connected to a 220 V supply, the current I is 100/220 Amperes. In a parallel circuit, the total current is the sum of the currents passing through each individual component. If n bulbs are connected in parallel, the total current Iₜₒₜₐₗ drawn from the source is n × (100/220). To prevent the fuse from blowing, this total current must be less than or equal to the fuse rating of 5 A. The relationship is expressed as n × (100/220) ≤ 5. Solving for n, we get n ≤ (5 × 220) / 100, which simplifies to n ≤ 1100 / 100. This calculation shows that n ≤ 11, meaning a maximum of 11 bulbs can be safely operated simultaneously.

31Science and Technology
Which one of the following can extinguish fire more quickly?
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Answer: (B) Boiling water

Explanation

Boiling water extinguishes fire more quickly because it is already at its boiling point of 100°C, allowing it to convert into steam almost instantaneously. The effectiveness of water in firefighting is largely due to the latent heat of vaporization, which is approximately 2260 kJ/kg. Boiling water absorbs this energy immediately upon contact with the heat source without the delay required to raise its temperature. Additionally, the rapid conversion from liquid to gas results in a volumetric expansion of about 1,600 times. This creates a blanket of steam that displaces oxygen and smothers the fire much faster than water at lower temperatures, which would take longer to reach the phase change state.

32Science and Technology
In which of the following, heat loss is primarily not due to convection?
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Answer: (D) Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament

Explanation

Heat transfer from the hot filament of an incandescent bulb to its glass surface is primarily governed by radiation rather than convection. The filament operates at extremely high temperatures, typically between 2500 K and 3000 K. According to the Stefan-Boltzmann Law, the energy radiated per unit time is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature, E = σeAT⁴. Due to this T⁴ dependency, radiation is the dominant heat transfer mechanism at such high temperatures. Additionally, many bulbs are either evacuated or filled with inert gases at specific pressures to reduce convective and conductive losses, further ensuring that radiation is the primary method by which energy reaches the glass envelope. In contrast, the other scenarios listed involve the bulk movement of fluid masses driven by temperature-induced density differences, which is the fundamental process of convection.

33Science and Technology
Which one of the following features is an indication for modification of stem of a plant?
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Answer: (A) Presence of 'eye' on potato

Explanation

Potato is a modified underground stem known as a tuber. The eyes found on the surface of a potato are technically nodes that contain axillary buds. In botany, the presence of nodes, internodes, and buds is a primary morphological characteristic that distinguishes stems from roots. These buds have the potential to sprout and develop into new leafy shoots, facilitating vegetative propagation. This structural feature serves as a clear indication that the potato is a modified stem specialized for the storage of nutrients and asexual reproduction.

34Science and Technology
Which of the following roles is/are played by epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male reproductive system of human?
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Answer: (B) Maturation and motility of sperms

Explanation

The epididymis is the primary site where sperm undergo physiological maturation and acquire the capacity for independent movement. The vas deferens facilitates the transport of these sperm towards the ejaculatory duct. The seminal vesicles and the prostate gland contribute specific secretions that make up the bulk of the semen; these fluids provide essential nutrients and an alkaline environment that activate and maintain the motility of the sperm cells. Collectively, these accessory structures are responsible for the functional maturation and the motility of sperm following their production in the testes.

35Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the special type of milk produced by a lactating mother, essential for the development of immune response of newborn baby in human?
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Answer: (C) Colostrum

Explanation

Colostrum is the initial form of breast milk produced by the mammary glands during late pregnancy and the first few days after childbirth. It is a thick, yellowish fluid that is exceptionally rich in antibodies, particularly secretory Immunoglobulin A (sIgA), which provides the newborn with passive immunity. These antibodies coat the infant's gastrointestinal tract, preventing the attachment of pathogens and protecting against infections while the baby's own immune system is still developing. Additionally, colostrum contains high concentrations of leukocytes, lactoferrin, and growth factors that stimulate the maturation of the infant's gut and prime the neonatal immune response.

36Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements explains higher mutation rate and faster evolution found in RNA virus?
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Answer: (A) RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA.

Explanation

RNA is chemically less stable and more reactive than DNA because the ribose sugar in RNA contains a hydroxyl (-OH) group at the 2' carbon position, making it more susceptible to hydrolysis. Furthermore, the enzymes responsible for replicating the viral genome, known as RNA-dependent RNA polymerases, generally lack the proofreading mechanisms (3' to 5' exonuclease activity) inherent in most DNA polymerases. Because these replication errors are not corrected, RNA viruses accumulate mutations at a much higher frequency than DNA-based organisms. This high mutation rate creates a diverse genetic pool that allows the virus to adapt rapidly to host immune responses and environmental changes, leading to faster overall evolution.

37Geography
Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)?
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra—Kerala—Mizoram—Goa

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, the urbanization levels in terms of the percentage of the total population residing in urban areas are as follows: Maharashtra at 45.22%, Kerala at 47.70%, Mizoram at 52.11%, and Goa at 62.17%. Among all Indian states, Goa is the most urbanized, while Mizoram has the second-highest percentage. Among larger states, Tamil Nadu (48.40%) and Kerala (47.70%) follow Maharashtra (45.22%) in the ranking of urban proportions. This sequence accurately places the states in an increasing order based on their urban population percentage as recorded in the 2011 decennial census.

38Geography
Which one of the following places does not fall on leeward slope?
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Answer: (D) Mangaluru

Explanation

Mangaluru is located on the western coast of India in Karnataka, situated on the windward side of the Western Ghats. During the monsoon season, the moisture-laden South-West Monsoon winds strike the Western Ghats directly, forced to rise and cool, which results in heavy orographic rainfall in coastal cities like Mangaluru. In contrast, locations on the leeward side or in the rain shadow region receive significantly less rainfall as the air descends and warms after crossing the mountain crest. Mangaluru's geographical position ensures it experiences the full impact of the incoming maritime winds, making it a windward location rather than a leeward one.

39Geography
South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) North-east monsoon

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The North-east monsoon, which prevails from October to December, is the primary source of rainfall for the state of Tamil Nadu. Coastal and interior districts such as South Arcot and Ramanathapuram are located on the Coromandel Coast, which remains in the rain shadow region of the Western Ghats during the South-west monsoon. During the retreating phase of the monsoon, the winds blow from the North-east towards the Bay of Bengal, where they pick up significant moisture. Upon reaching the Tamil Nadu coast, these winds cause heavy precipitation, accounting for more than 50 percent to 60 percent of the total annual rainfall for these specific regions. This seasonal rainfall is vital for the cultivation of Samba rice and other major crops in the state.

40Geography
The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following?
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Answer: (B) Lakshadweep from Maldives

Explanation

The Eight Degree Channel is a maritime boundary located at 8° N latitude in the Indian Ocean. It serves as the geographical divider between the Indian island of Minicoy, which is the southernmost part of the Lakshadweep archipelago, and the Republic of Maldives. This channel is a significant international maritime route and marks the southern limit of Indian sovereign territory in this region of the Arabian Sea.

41Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Classification of Town) (Example) A. Industrial Town 1. Vishakhapatnam B. Transport Town 2. Bhilai C. Mining Town 3. Singrauli D. Garrison 4. Ambala Cantonment Town Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

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Industrial towns like Bhilai are established primarily around large-scale manufacturing units, such as the Bhilai Steel Plant. Transport towns are defined by their role as hubs for trade and movement, which is exemplified by the major port city of Vishakhapatnam. Mining towns develop in regions rich in mineral resources, as seen in Singrauli, which is a major center for coal mining in India. Garrison or cantonment towns are built for military purposes and the housing of troops, a function served by Ambala Cantonment.

42Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to the land-use situation in India is/are correct? 1. There has been a tremendous decline in area under forest in recent years. 2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural use. 3. Land use such as barren and wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops have experienced decline in recent years. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The area under non-agricultural use, which includes land dedicated to urban settlements, industrial development, and physical infrastructure like roads and railways, has registered the highest rate of increase among all land-use categories in India. This growth reflects the economic transformation and increasing urbanization observed over the recent decades. Simultaneously, there has been a recorded decline in categories such as barren and unculturable wasteland, permanent pastures and other grazing lands, and area under miscellaneous tree crops and groves. This reduction is primarily due to the intense pressure on land resources, which necessitates the reclamation of marginal lands for intensive agriculture and the diversion of common grazing lands for developmental purposes to support a growing population.

43Economy
Which one of the following was not a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase food grain production in India immediately after Independence?
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Answer: (C) Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds

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The adoption of high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds was the defining feature of the Green Revolution, which did not commence in India until the mid-1960s. Specifically, the intensive use of these seeds, starting with semi-dwarf Mexican wheat varieties and later rice, began during the Annual Plans (1966-1969) following the food crises of the mid-1960s. Immediately after Independence in 1947, the technological and biological advancements necessary for HYV seeds were not yet available in the Indian agricultural sector, nor were they part of the early policy focus of the First or Second Five-Year Plans. This specific technological intervention occurred nearly twenty years after Independence, whereas early post-independence strategies focused on land reforms and traditional expansion methods.

44Geography
Which one of the following is a west-flowing river?
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Answer: (D) Narmada

Explanation

The Narmada is the largest west-flowing river of peninsular India. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of approximately 1,057 meters. While most major peninsular rivers flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal due to the general eastward tilt of the Indian plateau, the Narmada flows westward because it occupies a structural rift valley. This rift valley was formed by the subsidence of a land block between two parallel faults, situated between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. The river traverses a distance of about 1,312 km through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.

45Art and Culture
Khasi language is included in
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Answer: (B) Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family

Explanation

The Khasi language, primarily spoken in the state of Meghalaya, belongs to the Mon-Khmer branch of the Austro-Asiatic language family. This linguistic family is one of the oldest in South and Southeast Asia. In the Indian context, the Austro-Asiatic family is traditionally divided into two main groups: the Munda branch, found in central and eastern India, and the Mon-Khmer branch, which includes Khasi and the Nicobarese languages. Khasi is a significant linguistic island in Northeast India; while most neighboring languages belong to the Sino-Tibetan family, Khasi maintains its Austro-Asiatic identity, sharing structural and genetic roots with languages like Khmer in Cambodia and Mon in Myanmar and Thailand.

46Geography
The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in
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Answer: (C) Kolkata

Explanation

The Metro Railway, Kolkata, is the only metro system in India that is categorized as a separate administrative zone of the Indian Railways. It became the 17th zone of the Indian Railways on December 29, 2010. Unlike other metro networks in India that are managed by special purpose vehicles or joint ventures between the central and state governments, the Kolkata Metro is directly owned and operated by the Ministry of Railways. The headquarters of this zone is located at Metro Bhavan, Jawaharlal Nehru Road, Kolkata.

47Geography
Which one among the following is not a tributary of river Luni?
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Answer: (D) Banas

Explanation

The Banas River originates in the Khamnor Hills of the Aravalli Range near Kumbhalgarh in the Rajsamand district of Rajasthan. It flows towards the east and serves as a major tributary of the Chambal River, which is part of the Yamuna-Ganga drainage basin that eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal. In contrast, the Luni River is an ephemeral river that flows westwards into the Rann of Kutch. While the Sukri, Jawai, and a specific stream named Khari are significant left-bank tributaries that join the Luni in the arid regions of western Rajasthan, the Banas belongs to an entirely different drainage system and does not contribute to the Luni's flow.

48Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Major Dam) List-II (State) A. Cheruthoni Dam 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Indira Sagar Dam 2. Tamil Nadu C. Krishnarajasagar 3. Karnataka Dam D. Mettur Dam 4. Kerala Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 1 3 2

Explanation

Cheruthoni Dam is a concrete gravity dam located in the Idukki district of Kerala, forming part of the Idukki Hydroelectric Project alongside the Idukki Arch Dam and Kulamavu Dam. Indira Sagar Dam is a major multipurpose project constructed on the Narmada River at Narmadanagar in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. Krishnarajasagar Dam, built across the Kaveri River, is situated in the Mandya district of Karnataka and was a pioneering engineering project designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya. Mettur Dam is one of the largest dams in India, located across the Kaveri River in the Salem district of Tamil Nadu, where it serves as a critical reservoir for the irrigation of the Cauvery Delta.

49Geography
Which one among the following Union Territories of India shares the shortest length of National Highways?
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Answer: (A) Chandigarh

Explanation

According to the data released by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) for the 2017-2018 period, Chandigarh possesses the shortest length of National Highways among the given options, with a total stretch of approximately 15 kilometers. As a planned city with a small geographical area of roughly 114 square kilometers, its transport infrastructure is predominantly composed of an internal grid of sectoral roads and state highways, resulting in a very limited portion of the National Highway network falling within its administrative boundaries.

50Geography
Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh?
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Answer: (A) Lanak La

Explanation

Lanak La is a high mountain pass located in the Aksai Chin region of the Himalayas. Historically, it served as a significant transit point on the traditional trade route connecting the Ladakh region with Tibet. Situated at the eastern end of the Chang Chenmo Valley, the pass marks the boundary that linked Leh, the capital of Ladakh, directly with Lhasa. It was a primary route for caravans and travelers moving between the Tibetan plateau and the high-altitude desert of Ladakh before the geopolitical shifts in the mid-20th century.

51Economy
According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on State finances, capital spending is maximum on
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Answer: (A) rural development

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) annual report titled State Finances: A Study of Budgets provides a detailed breakdown of state-level expenditures, distinguishing between revenue and capital spending. According to the studies available up to 2018, Rural Development accounts for the maximum capital spending among the listed options. Capital spending refers to the funds used by the government to acquire, build, or improve physical assets such as infrastructure. While Education usually receives the largest share of the overall state budget, nearly all of that allocation is classified as revenue expenditure, primarily used for paying salaries and meeting administrative costs. In contrast, the Rural Development sector involves significant investment in fixed assets and infrastructure projects, leading to a much higher capital outlay. Statistical data from these RBI reports confirm that capital expenditure on Rural Development consistently surpasses the capital allocations for Urban Development and Water Supply and Sanitation.

52Economy
According to the World Bank's Doing Business Report, 2018, India's ranking has improved in 2018 as compared to 2017 in which of the following areas? 1. Paying taxes 2. Resolving insolvency 3. Starting a business 4. Getting electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

In the World Bank’s Doing Business Report 2018, India’s overall ease of doing business ranking jumped 30 places, from 130 in the 2017 report to 100. This progress was driven by significant improvements in specific sub-indices. In the area of Paying Taxes, India’s rank improved from 172 to 119, reflecting reforms that simplified the process of paying taxes and reduced the administrative burden on businesses. In Resolving Insolvency, India’s rank improved from 136 to 103, a change largely attributed to the implementation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which streamlined the legal framework for corporate insolvency and debt recovery.

In contrast, India did not see a rank improvement in the other two areas mentioned in the 2018 report. In the Starting a Business category, India’s rank shifted from 155 in 2017 to 156 in 2018, and in Getting Electricity, the rank moved from 26 in 2017 to 29 in 2018. While India maintained a strong position in electricity compared to previous years, the specific comparison between the 2017 and 2018 reports showed improvements only in Paying taxes and Resolving insolvency among the listed options.

53Polity and Governance
The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the States: 1. Income distance 2. Population 3. Demographic changes 4. Area Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights.
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Answer: (B) 1-2-4-3

Explanation

The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned the following weights to the criteria for horizontal distribution of tax proceeds among states: Income Distance (50 percent), Population (17.5 percent), Area (15 percent), and Demographic Changes (10 percent). Income Distance measures the distance of a state’s per capita GSDP from the state with the highest per capita GSDP, serving as a proxy for fiscal capacity. Population was based on the 1971 census to ensure that states that successfully implemented family planning were not penalized. Area reflects the requirement for higher expenditure in states with larger geographic expanses. Demographic Changes utilized the 2011 census data to account for the current population needs while balancing it against the 1971 data. Arranging these based on their relative significance in the formula yields the descending sequence of 1, 2, 4, and 3.

54Economy
The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by
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Answer: (A) Milton Friedman

Explanation

Milton Friedman introduced the natural rate of unemployment hypothesis in his 1968 presidential address to the American Economic Association. He argued that there is no permanent trade-off between inflation and unemployment, contradicting the then-prevalent interpretation of the Phillips Curve. According to Friedman, the natural rate is the level of unemployment determined by real structural forces in the labor and product markets, such as market imperfections, stochastic variability in demands and supplies, and the cost of gathering information about job vacancies. He posited that while monetary policy could temporarily lower unemployment below this rate by creating unanticipated inflation, in the long run, expectations would adjust, shifting the short-run Phillips Curve upward and returning unemployment to its natural level. This conceptual framework established that the long-run Phillips Curve is vertical at the natural rate of unemployment.

55History
The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the following major sites of that civilization?
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Answer: (B) Mohenjo-daro

Explanation

Kot Diji is located in the Khairpur district of the Sindh province in Pakistan, situated on the east (left) bank of the Indus River. Geographically, it is positioned approximately 40 to 50 kilometers across the river from Mohenjo-daro, which is located in the Larkana district on the west (right) bank. The site is critical in Indus Valley studies as it provided evidence of a pre-Harappan culture that directly preceded and eventually integrated into the Mature Harappan phase. Its close proximity to Mohenjo-daro facilitated cultural and economic exchange, and the stratigraphic evidence at Kot Diji shows a transition that helps archaeologists understand the evolution of urbanism in the Sindh region.

56Art and Culture
The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?
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Answer: (D) Pali

Explanation

The Gandatindu Jataka is one of the stories included in the Jataka tales, which comprise a voluminous body of literature concerning the previous births of Gautama Buddha. These stories are a fundamental part of the Buddhist Pali Canon, specifically located within the Khuddaka Nikaya of the Sutta Pitaka. Written in the Pali language, the Gandatindu Jataka describes the suffering of subjects under a wicked and oppressive king, providing insights into ancient social and political life. As with the vast majority of early Theravada Buddhist scriptures, the linguistic medium used for preserving these moral and didactic stories is Pali.

57History
According to the Tamil Sangam texts, who among the following were the large landowners?
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Answer: (D) Vellalars

Explanation

In the ancient Tamil region during the Sangam period, society was categorized into distinct groups based on land ownership and the nature of their labor. The Vellalars were the wealthy, large landowners who occupied the highest tier of the rural social hierarchy. Due to their economic status and control over land, they wielded significant political and social influence, frequently serving as administrative officers or military commanders under the Chola, Chera, and Pandya rulers. This classification is explicitly documented in Sangam literature, which distinguishes these elite landowners from ordinary ploughmen and landless laborers.

58History
According to the Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth through which of the following means?
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Answer: (C) Token of affection

Explanation

According to the Manusmriti, the legal framework for property ownership distinguished between the means of acquiring wealth for men and women. For women, the text identifies six specific types of property known as Stridhana. These include gifts received before the nuptial fire, gifts received during the bridal procession, and those given as a token of affection (Pritidatta) by her husband, mother, father, or brothers. While the Manusmriti lists seven traditional ways for men to acquire wealth—such as inheritance, finding, purchase, conquest, investment, work, and acceptance of gifts from the pious—women’s wealth was primarily restricted to these specific categories of gifts and tokens of affection received from their kin.

59History
The dialogue on Varna between king Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the following Buddhist texts?
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Answer: (A) Majjhima Nikaya

Explanation

The dialogue between King Avantiputta of Madhura and the Buddha's disciple Kachchana is found in the Madhura Sutta, which is part of the Majjhima Nikaya. In this discourse, which takes place after the Buddha's death, King Avantiputta approaches Kachchana to discuss the Brahmanical claim that Brahmins are the highest caste and others are low. Kachchana argues against this hierarchy by demonstrating that varna is a mere social convention. He points out that a wealthy person of any varna can command the services of members of other varnas, and that the law of karma and the rules of the monastic order apply equally to everyone regardless of their birth. This sutta is a key text in illustrating the Buddhist position on the fundamental equality of all human beings and the vanity of caste-based pride.

60History
In the first century AD, which among the following was not a major item of Indian exports to Rome?
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Answer: (D) Nutmeg

Explanation

Nutmeg is native to the Banda Islands in the Moluccas of modern-day Indonesia and was not a major item in the maritime trade between India and Rome during the 1st century AD. Historical accounts from this period, most notably the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea and the writings of Pliny the Elder, provide detailed lists of commodities exported from Indian ports such as Muziris and Barygaza. These lists highlight pepper, medicinal plants, aromatic oils, and animal products as the primary exports. Nutmeg and other fine spices from the Indonesian archipelago did not become significant features of the Indo-Roman trade network until much later in history, as the 1st-century trade was dominated by black pepper and indigenous Indian aromatics.

61History
Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct? 1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. 2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. 3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Government of India Act 1858, also known as the Act for the Better Government of India, transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues from the East India Company to the British Crown. This made it the first statute enacted by the British Parliament for the direct administration of India. The Act replaced the previous system of dual control with a Secretary of State for India who possessed complete authority over the Indian administration, assisted by a Council of India. This framework was characterized by absolute imperial control, as it focused on administrative efficiency and accountability to the British Parliament without providing any role for popular participation or representation of Indians in the government.

62Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct? 1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor-General's Executive Council. 2. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General. 3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced a representative or popular element by providing for the nomination of non-official members to the Governor-General's Council for legislative purposes. In 1862, Lord Canning nominated three Indians—the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao—to the council. The functions of these legislative councils were strictly limited to the consideration of legislative measures placed before them by the Governor-General. They were not permitted to discuss the budget, ask questions about administration, or interfere with the executive. The Governor-General remained the ultimate legislative authority, as he possessed the power to veto any bill passed by the council and could issue ordinances with the force of law during emergencies for a period of six months.

63Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct? 1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages. 2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge. 3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, and it served as the guiding blueprint that inspired the shaping of the Constitution throughout all its subsequent stages. Nehru explicitly stated that the resolution was more than a formal motion; it was a declaration, a firm resolve, and a solemn pledge to the nation. Furthermore, it established the underlying philosophy of the Indian Constitution by articulating fundamental commitments to sovereignty, democracy, justice, and equality. These principles were ultimately distilled into the Preamble, ensuring that the vision outlined in the resolution remained the bedrock of the entire constitutional framework and provided the ideological basis for the governance of independent India.

64Polity and Governance
The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018 between
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Answer: (A) External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts

Explanation

The inaugural 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue was held in New Delhi on September 6, 2018, between the Indian Ministers of External Affairs and Defence and their counterparts from the United States, the Secretary of State and the Secretary of Defense. This high-level engagement was established to provide a strategic vision for the India-US relationship and to strengthen cooperation on diplomatic and security fronts. A key outcome of this specific dialogue was the signing of the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA), which facilitates the transfer of specialized equipment for encrypted communications between the militaries of both nations, thereby enhancing interoperability and maritime domain awareness in the Indo-Pacific region.

65Polity and Governance
Who is the Chairman of the Defence Planning Committee set up in April 2018?
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Answer: (B) The National Security Advisor

Explanation

The Defence Planning Committee (DPC) was constituted by the Ministry of Defence in April 2018 as a permanent body to facilitate a comprehensive and integrated approach to national security planning. The National Security Advisor (NSA) serves as the ex-officio Chairman of this committee. The DPC is tasked with the preparation of drafts for national security strategy and doctrine, defining military capability development plans, and streamlining the defense procurement process. By placing the NSA at the helm, the government aimed to bridge the gap between various ministries and the armed forces, ensuring that defense acquisitions and strategic objectives are aligned with the country's overall security and budgetary priorities.

66Science and Technology
'Tejas' is the name of which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) Light combat aircraft

Explanation

The Tejas is a fourth-generation, multi-role light combat aircraft designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency in collaboration with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. It is a single-engine, delta-wing, supersonic fighter developed for the Indian Air Force and the Indian Navy to replace the aging fleet of MiG-21 aircraft. The program originated in the 1980s as the Light Combat Aircraft project and the aircraft was officially named Tejas by the Indian government in 2003. It is notable for being the smallest and lightest multi-role supersonic fighter in its class, utilizing a high percentage of carbon-fiber composites to achieve a lightweight and high-strength structure. The first squadron of Tejas aircraft was formally inducted into the Indian Air Force in July 2016.

67Economy
As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route up to which one of the following limits?
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Answer: (D) 49 percent

Explanation

As per the foreign investment policy prevailing in 2018, Foreign Direct Investment in the defence sector was permitted up to 49 percent through the automatic route. Under the automatic route, foreign investors do not require prior approval from the Government of India or the Reserve Bank of India, which significantly simplifies the investment process. This policy was part of a broader strategy to boost the Make in India initiative, aiming to attract global capital and advanced manufacturing technologies to strengthen the domestic defence industrial base. While investments beyond 49 percent were possible up to 100 percent, they required prior government approval and were typically reviewed based on the potential for providing access to modern or state-of-the-art technology.

68Science and Technology
The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is not among the four segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic partnership route?
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Answer: (A) Artillery guns

Explanation

Artillery guns were not included in the four segments identified by the Ministry of Defence for the Strategic Partnership model approved in May 2017. The policy, incorporated as Chapter VII of the Defence Procurement Procedure 2016, focused on creating long-term partnerships between Indian private firms and global equipment manufacturers for a limited set of high-technology platforms. Artillery systems were excluded from this framework, as their acquisition and induction are managed through other procurement categories such as Buy and Make (Indian) or through indigenous development by the Ordnance Factory Board and the Defence Research and Development Organisation. This specific strategic route was reserved for platforms requiring massive capital investment and complex global technology transfers not covered under standard procurement tracks.

69Polity and Governance
The acronym 'CAATSA' refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) United States of America

Explanation

CAATSA stands for the Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act, which is a United States federal law enacted in August 2017. The legislation was designed to strengthen and codify existing sanctions against Iran, North Korea, and Russia. Specifically, Section 231 of the act targets countries that engage in significant transactions with the Russian defense or intelligence sectors, allowing the U.S. government to impose secondary sanctions on those nations. This act became a major focal point in international diplomacy, particularly concerning defense procurement and strategic partnerships involving Russian military equipment.

70Economy
Who among the following is the Convener of the 'Task Force' set up in November 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct tax law?
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Answer: (C) Arbind Modi

Explanation

The Government of India, through the Ministry of Finance, constituted a Task Force in November 2017 to review the decades-old Income-tax Act, 1961, and draft a modern Direct Tax Law. Arbind Modi, who was then a Member (Legislation) of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), was designated as the Convener of this expert committee. The Task Force was mandated to draft a legislation that aligns with international best practices, ensures tax certainty, and addresses the contemporary economic requirements of India. Arbind Modi led the initial deliberations and drafting process until his retirement from the CBDT in September 2018.

71Economy
With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops?
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Answer: (A) Jowar (Hybrid)

Explanation

In July 2018, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Kharif crops for the 2018-19 season, adhering to the principle of providing a return of at least 50 percent over the cost of production. For Jowar (Hybrid), the MSP was increased from ₹1700 per quintal in 2017-18 to ₹2430 per quintal in 2018-19.

The percentage increase is calculated using the following formula: Percentage Increase = (MSP₂₀₁₈₋₁₉ - MSP₂₀₁₇₋₁₈)/MSP₂₀₁₇₋₁₈ × 100

Substituting the specific values for Jowar (Hybrid): Percentage Increase = (2430 - 1700)/1700 × 100 = 730/1700 × 100 ≈ 42.94%

This increase of approximately 42.94 percent represents the maximum relative growth in support price for the crops listed in the question. While certain crops achieved a higher percentage return over their specific cost of production, Jowar (Hybrid) saw the largest year-on-year jump in the absolute MSP value in percentage terms. The policy aimed to encourage the cultivation of coarse grains and improve the income of farmers in rain-fed areas.

72Economy
Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement I: The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017- 2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year. Statement II: Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017- 2018 compared to 2016- 2017.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The consolidated Gross Fiscal Deficit of Indian states reached 3.1 percent of GDP in 2015-16, 3.5 percent in 2016-17, and remained at 3.1 percent in 2017-18 based on the Revised Estimates. This period marked three successive years where the fiscal deficit stayed above the 3 percent threshold mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act. This trend was primarily driven by the implementation of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) and the salary revisions following the 7th Pay Commission.

Special Category States also experienced an increase in their fiscal deficits during 2017-18, rising to 3.8 percent of their GSDP from 3.4 percent in 2016-17. This increase is attributed to higher capital outlays and administrative expenditures. The overall fiscal deficit of Indian states is predominantly influenced by Non-Special Category States, which contribute the vast majority of the national GSDP and total fiscal deficit. The specific fiscal performance of Special Category States is a localized trend and is not the causal factor behind the national-level breach of the FRBM limit.

73Economy
Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement I: There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007- 2008 to 2015- 2016. Statement II: There has been a fall in household and public savings.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

India's Gross Savings Rate reached a historic peak of approximately 36.8 percent of GDP in 2007-08. Following the global financial crisis and subsequent domestic economic shifts, this rate entered a period of decline, reaching roughly 31.1 percent to 32.3 percent by 2015-16. This significant contraction in the overall savings rate is primarily attributed to the performance of its constituent sectors.

Gross savings in the Indian economy are comprised of household savings, private corporate savings, and public sector savings. During the period between 2007-08 and 2015-16, the household sector, which is the largest contributor to national savings, experienced a substantial decline, particularly in physical and financial savings. Simultaneously, public sector savings remained subdued or declined due to increased fiscal deficits and lower surpluses from public authorities. While private corporate savings showed some resilience, they were insufficient to offset the losses in the other two sectors. Therefore, the decline in the aggregate savings rate is directly explained by the falling contributions from the household and public sectors.

74Economy
Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement I: Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India. Statement II: Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is true because the government sector in India has historically been the primary driver of research and development, accounting for approximately 60 to 70 percent of the Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD). In contrast, private sector investment in India is notably low compared to developed economies where private entities often contribute the majority of research funding. Statement II is also true as research activities in India are heavily concentrated in specialized autonomous institutions and government departments such as the Department of Atomic Energy, the Department of Space, and the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). Consequently, the higher education sector, including universities, contributes a disproportionately small share to the national research output and expenditure compared to countries like the United States or the United Kingdom. While both statements accurately describe the structural features of India's science and technology sector as noted in the 2017-18 Economic Survey, the institutional distribution of research is an independent characteristic from the source of investment, and thus Statement II does not provide the causal explanation for Statement I.

75Economy
Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code: (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement I: Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment. Statement II: There has been no decline in volatility of agricultural growth in India.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is correct because agriculture continues to be the largest employer in India, providing livelihoods to approximately 44 to 49 percent of the total workforce during the mid-2010s. This high employment share persists even as the sector's contribution to the national Gross Domestic Product has declined significantly over the decades. Statement II is correct because agricultural growth in India is characterized by significant annual fluctuations due to a heavy reliance on the monsoon and the variability of rainfall across different regions. This lack of a steady growth trajectory confirms that volatility remains a persistent challenge and has not seen a substantial decline. The two statements are independent facts. The high percentage of the population engaged in farming is a result of structural rigidities and the slow growth of labor-intensive employment opportunities in the manufacturing and services sectors. Growth volatility is a separate phenomenon driven by climatic factors and productivity constraints, rather than being the reason for the high share of employment in the sector.

76History
Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?
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Answer: (B) Manucci

Explanation

Niccolao Manucci was an Italian traveler who reached India in 1656 and remained there for the rest of his life, spanning over sixty years. He initially served as an artilleryman in the army of the Mughal prince Dara Shikoh and later transitioned into a career as a physician and diplomat. Throughout his long residency, he lived in various parts of the Indian subcontinent, including the Mughal court, Goa, and eventually Madras and Pondicherry. He authored the monumental work Storia do Mogor, which provides an exhaustive account of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Aurangzeb. Manucci died in India around 1717 without ever returning to his native Venice or any other part of Europe.

77History
The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?
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Answer: (D) Military Commanders

Explanation

The Amara-Nayaka system was a key political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire, drawing inspiration from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were assigned territories, known as amara, by the Raya or the king. They were responsible for collecting taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons, and traders in their respective areas. These commanders used a portion of the collected revenue for their personal expenses and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. This military force was essential for the Vijayanagara kings, as it provided them with a ready and effective fighting force for territorial expansion and defense. Additionally, the Amara-Nayakas sent annual tribute to the king and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to demonstrate their loyalty and subordinate status.

78History
The important source for Akbar's reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?
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Answer: (A) Arif Qandahari

Explanation

Muhammad Arif Qandahari, a contemporary scholar and official who served under Bairam Khan and later Emperor Akbar, authored the Tarikh-i-Akbari. Completed around 1580, this Persian work is recognized as one of the earliest comprehensive accounts of Akbar's reign. It provides detailed contemporary descriptions of the political and military events of the first twenty-four years of the Mughal administration. The text is particularly significant for its early observations on administrative structures and the emperor's initial conquests, serving as an important primary source for subsequent historians like Nizamuddin Ahmad and Abul Fazl.

79History
The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of which Mughal Emperor?
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Answer: (B) Jahangir

Explanation

Muqarrab Khan, originally named Shaikh Hasan, was a prominent noble and the personal physician of Emperor Jahangir. He rose to high favor due to his surgical skills and administrative capability, eventually being granted the title Muqarrab Khan. Jahangir placed immense trust in him, appointing him to several critical positions such as the Governor of Gujarat and Bihar. He is historically significant for his role as a middleman between the Mughal court and European traders; he was the primary official dealing with William Hawkins and the British East India Company. Muqarrab Khan frequently procured rare curiosities, exotic plants, and animals from the Portuguese at Goa to satisfy Jahangir's well-known interest in natural history, an intimacy that is extensively documented in the Emperor's memoirs, the Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri.

80History
Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century?
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Answer: (A) Nawab Safdarjung

Explanation

Safdarjung, originally named Abul Mansur Khan, succeeded his uncle Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk as the ruler of Awadh in 1739. In 1748, the Mughal Emperor Ahmad Shah Bahadur appointed Safdarjung as the Wazir (Prime Minister) of the Mughal Empire. This appointment marked the beginning of the tradition where the rulers of Awadh held the dual responsibility of the governorship of the province and the prime ministership of the empire. Consequently, Safdarjung became the first ruler of Awadh to be formally designated as the Nawab Wazir, a title that became hereditary for his successors until the mid-19th century.

81History
According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of
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Answer: (D) brick and stone

Explanation

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, the 17th-century French traveller and gem merchant, visited Benares during his extensive travels in India. In his accounts, he noted that the architecture of Varanasi was distinct because the houses were for the most part built of brick and stone. He observed that these structures were significantly higher than those in other Indian cities, with some reaching several storeys, which reflected the urban density and the relative prosperity of the city as a major religious and commercial hub. Tavernier also commented on the narrowness of the streets, but he remained impressed by the durability and scale of the residential buildings constructed from these materials.

82Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the duties of the Governor is/are correct? 1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament. 2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President's rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Governor of a State performs a dual role as the constitutional head of the State and as a representative of the Union Government. Under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha (specifically Rule 352), the conduct of persons in high authority, which includes Governors, cannot be questioned or debated in the House except upon a substantive motion. This ensures that the routine duties of the Governor, performed as the constitutional head acting on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers, remain outside the purview of ordinary parliamentary debate to maintain federal etiquette.

However, this immunity is not absolute. When a Governor acts independently of the Council of Ministers using discretionary powers or functions as the Chief Executive of the State during President's Rule under Article 356, they act as an agent of the Union. Since the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament, any action taken by the Governor in these capacities is subject to parliamentary scrutiny. This is most evident when the Governor's report recommending the imposition of President's Rule is laid before both Houses of Parliament for discussion and approval.

83Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the special provision with respect to the State of Assam?
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Answer: (B) Article 371B

Explanation

Article 371B contains special provisions for the State of Assam and was added to the Constitution of India by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969. This article empowers the President of India to establish a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from the tribal areas specified in the Sixth Schedule. The President is also authorized to define the functions of this committee and specify the number of other members from the Assembly who should serve on it. This constitutional arrangement was designed to safeguard the interests of tribal communities and provide them with a dedicated platform within the state legislature to manage affairs related to their specific regions.

84Polity and Governance
Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
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Answer: (B) Article 370

Explanation

Article 370 provided the constitutional basis for the special status of Jammu and Kashmir within the Indian Union. It mandated that the Parliament power to make laws for the state was restricted to matters specified in the Instrument of Accession or those concurred with by the state government. While Article 1 defined the state as a part of the territory of India, Article 370 facilitated the application of other constitutional provisions to the state through Presidential Orders, such as the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954. This arrangement ensured that the state maintained a distinct legal and administrative framework compared to other Indian states.

85Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?
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Answer: (D) Sixth Schedule

Explanation

The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India, under Articles 244(2) and 275(1), provides for the administration of tribal areas in the four North-Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. This schedule specifically mandates the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) to protect the rights and interests of tribal populations. These councils are granted significant autonomy, including legislative powers to make laws on subjects like land, forests, and social customs, executive powers to manage local infrastructure, and judicial powers to constitute village courts for resolving disputes according to tribal laws. The primary objective is to allow these communities a degree of self-governance while preserving their unique cultural and social identity within the Indian constitutional framework.

86Economy
In which one of the following States was 'DEFEXPO 2018' held in April 2018?
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

DefExpo 2018, the tenth edition of the biennial Land, Naval, and Internal Homeland Security Systems Exhibition, was held from April 11 to 14, 2018, at Thiruvidanthai in the Kancheepuram district of Tamil Nadu. Organized by the Ministry of Defence, the event featured the theme India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub. It served as a major platform to showcase the country's indigenous defence production capabilities and to promote the Make in India initiative by facilitating partnerships between domestic and international defence firms. This was the first time the exhibition was hosted in the state of Tamil Nadu.

87Science and Technology
The two defence industrial corridors announced by the Finance Minister in his 2018 Budget speech are coming up in which of the following States?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Explanation

During the presentation of the Union Budget 2018-19, the Finance Minister announced the government's decision to develop two Defence Industrial Corridors in the country to bolster the Make in India initiative in the defense sector. These corridors are designed to encourage domestic manufacturing of defense platforms and components by providing specialized infrastructure and a business-friendly ecosystem. The two states selected for these corridors were Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. The Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor includes nodes at Aligarh, Agra, Jhansi, Kanpur, Chitrakoot, and Lucknow, while the Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor focuses on Chennai, Hosur, Coimbatore, Salem, and Tiruchirappalli. These regions were chosen due to their existing industrial base and the presence of numerous defense manufacturing units and research institutions.

88Science and Technology
What is India's first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) called?
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Answer: (A) Vikrant

Explanation

INS Vikrant, designated as Indigenous Aircraft Carrier 1 (IAC-1), is the first aircraft carrier designed and built entirely in India. The design work was led by the Indian Navy's Directorate of Naval Design and the construction was carried out at Cochin Shipyard Limited. The keel was laid in 2009 and the ship was launched into the water in August 2013. The carrier shares its name with the historic INS Vikrant, which was India's first aircraft carrier and a key asset during the 1971 war. As of 2018, the ship was in the advanced stages of its construction and outfitting, representing India's entry into a select group of nations capable of designing and building such complex naval vessels.

89Science and Technology
Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in upgradation of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzer under the project 'Dhanush'?
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Answer: (B) Ordnance Factory Board

Explanation

The Dhanush howitzer is an indigenized and upgraded version of the 155 mm FH77 Bofors gun, developed and manufactured by the Ordnance Factory Board. Specifically, the Gun Carriage Factory in Jabalpur led the project to enhance the original 39 calibre design to a 45 calibre system, increasing the range from 27 km to approximately 38 km. The project utilized the original design documents obtained during the Bofors deal in the 1980s to create a modern artillery piece featuring an electronic gun-firing system, inertial navigation-based sighting, and an auto-laying facility. The Ordnance Factory Board successfully conducted extensive trials in various terrains, including deserts and high-altitude regions, leading to the induction of these units into the Indian Army as the first long-range artillery guns produced domestically.

90Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games?
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Answer: (D) Miraitowa

Explanation

Miraitowa was officially unveiled as the mascot for the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games in July 2018. The character was designed by artist Ryo Taniguchi and was selected through a unique voting process involving over 16,000 elementary schools across Japan. The name Miraitowa is a portmanteau of the Japanese words mirai, which means future, and towa, which means eternity. This nomenclature was chosen to represent the concept of a future filled with eternal hope in the hearts of people worldwide. The mascot features an indigo-blue checkered pattern known as Ichimatsu Moyo, which serves as a tribute to both traditional Japanese craftsmanship and the modern, high-tech identity of contemporary Japan.

91Polity and Governance
'Mission Satyanishtha', a programme on ethics in public governance, was launched recently by the
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Answer: (A) Indian Railways

Explanation

Mission Satyanishtha was launched by the Indian Railways on July 27, 2018, as a significant initiative to promote ethics, integrity, and transparency among its workforce. It was the first of its kind in the government sector to be implemented on such a massive scale, aiming to sensitize all railway employees about the need for probity in public life and the importance of ethical conduct in governance. The programme involved a series of workshops and training modules designed to improve the work culture and ensure that employees adhere to a high standard of professional and personal ethics while performing their duties. It was inaugurated by the Minister of Railways at a function held at the National Rail Museum in New Delhi.

92History
The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals?
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Answer: (C) Richard Wellesley

Explanation

Lord Richard Wellesley established the College of Fort William in Calcutta on July 10, 1800. The primary objective behind founding this institution was to provide systematic training to junior civil servants of the East India Company. Wellesley recognized that for effective administration, British officers needed to be proficient in Indian languages, laws, history, and local customs. The college served as a center for learning and translation, significantly contributing to the development of modern Indian languages and literary prose. Although the Court of Directors in London later preferred a training center in England, leading to the establishment of the East India College at Haileybury, the College of Fort William remained an important linguistic and cultural center in India until its eventual closure in 1854.

93Economy
The Economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan-Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is
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Answer: (B) Amiya Kumar Bagchi

Explanation

Amiya Kumar Bagchi utilized the statistical surveys conducted by Francis Buchanan-Hamilton between 1807 and 1814 to provide a quantitative basis for the de-industrialization thesis in 19th-century India. In his research, Bagchi analyzed Buchanan-Hamilton's data concerning the number of people employed in the industrial sector—specifically hand-spinning and weaving—across several districts in Bihar, including Patna-Gaya, Shahabad, Bhagalpur, and Purnea. By comparing these early 19th-century figures with the occupational data from the 1901 Census, Bagchi demonstrated a significant decline in the proportion of the population dependent on secondary industry. This empirical analysis served to show that the influx of British factory-made textiles led to the displacement of traditional Indian artisans, forcing them to revert to agricultural labor and resulting in the ruralization of the Indian economy.

94History
Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by
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Answer: (C) Robert Fortune

Explanation

Robert Fortune was a Scottish botanist and traveler commissioned by the British East India Company in 1848 to infiltrate China's tea-producing regions. At the time, China held a monopoly on tea production and kept its cultivation and processing methods a closely guarded secret. Fortune disguised himself to enter forbidden areas, successfully smuggling over 20,000 tea plants and thousands of seeds, along with hiring Chinese tea experts to teach the manufacturing process in India. His successful introduction of Chinese tea varieties to the Himalayan foothills, particularly in Darjeeling and the Kumaon region, fundamentally enabled the large-scale commercial success and international competitiveness of the Indian tea industry during the mid-19th century.

95History
Subhas Chandra Bose started the 'Azad Hind Radio' in which of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Germany

Explanation

Subhas Chandra Bose established the Azad Hind Radio (Free India Radio) in Berlin, Germany, in early 1942. It was a key component of the Free India Centre (Zentrale Freies Indien) and served as a propaganda platform to broadcast nationalist messages and mobilize Indian support against British colonial rule. The first official broadcast was made on February 19, 1942, where Bose addressed the Indian people and declared his commitment to the struggle for independence. The radio broadcasts were delivered in several languages, including English, Hindi, Tamil, and Bengali, to reach a wide audience across the Indian subcontinent. While its operations later expanded to Singapore and Rangoon following Bose move to Southeast Asia, the inception of the service took place in Germany with the assistance of the German Foreign Office.

96History
Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?
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Answer: (C) The Muslim League

Explanation

The Muslim League formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on June 6, 1946. Despite the plan's explicit rejection of a sovereign Pakistan, the League's leadership, headed by Muhammad Ali Jinnah, saw the proposed three-tier structure as a strategic advantage. They interpreted the compulsory grouping of provinces into three sections as containing the seeds of a future Pakistan. Specifically, the League believed that the autonomy granted to Section B (northwest provinces) and Section C (northeast provinces) would eventually allow these Muslim-majority groups to secede from the Union. This acceptance was a tactical move to demonstrate the League's willingness to negotiate while keeping the goal of a separate state viable through the plan's internal provisions.

97History
The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was
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Answer: (A) Sahajananda Saraswati

Explanation

The eighth annual session of the All India Kisan Sabha was held at Bezwada, modern-day Vijayawada, in March 1944. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati, the pioneering leader of the peasant movement in India and the founder-president of the organization, was elected to preside over this session. During this meeting, the Sabha addressed the catastrophic consequences of the Bengal Famine and reiterated the demand for the complete abolition of the landlordism system. Under the leadership of Sahajanand Saraswati, the Vijayawada session saw the organization reach a peak membership of over half a million, solidifying its position as the primary representative body for Indian peasants during the national movement.

98Polity and Governance
Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is correct?
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Answer: (B) Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election

Explanation

The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. According to Paragraph 2, sub-paragraph (6A) of the Sixth Schedule, the elected members of a District Council shall hold office for a term of five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the general elections. This ensures that the five-year tenure is calculated from the formal commencement of the Council's functions rather than the date of the election itself. Under certain circumstances, such as a Proclamation of Emergency, the Governor may extend this term for a period not exceeding one year at a time.

99Polity and Governance
Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be audited?
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Answer: (A) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Explanation

According to Paragraph 7 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which governs the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the constitutional authority responsible for auditing the accounts of Autonomous District and Regional Councils. Paragraph 7(3) explicitly states that the Comptroller and Auditor General shall cause these accounts to be audited in such manner as he may think fit. Additionally, the form in which these accounts are maintained is prescribed by the Comptroller and Auditor General with the approval of the President of India. Once the audit is complete, the reports are submitted to the Governor of the state, who ensures they are laid before the respective District or Regional Council.

100Polity and Governance
Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils?
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Answer: (A) The Governor

Explanation

Under Paragraph 15 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Governor is empowered to annul or suspend any act or resolution of a District or Regional Council. This authority is exercised if the Governor is satisfied that such an act or resolution is likely to endanger the safety of India or is prejudicial to public order. Furthermore, the Governor can take additional steps, including the suspension of the Council itself and the assumption of its powers, to ensure that such acts are not implemented or continued. This provision serves as a constitutional safeguard to maintain national security and public order within the autonomous tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

101Polity and Governance
The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to
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Answer: (A) the President

Explanation

Article 151(1) of the Constitution of India mandates that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President. Once these reports are submitted, the President causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. This constitutional provision ensures that the audit findings of the CAG, who serves as the guardian of the public purse and an independent authority, are formally communicated to the executive head before being presented for legislative scrutiny. The reports typically include the Appropriation Accounts, Finance Accounts, and Public Undertakings reports, which are subsequently examined by the Public Accounts Committee.

102Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?
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Answer: (A) Diplomatic and military powers

Explanation

Diplomatic and military powers are sovereign functions vested exclusively in the President of India as the head of the Union. Under the Constitution, the President represents India in international forums, appoints ambassadors and high commissioners, and negotiates international treaties and agreements. Furthermore, according to Article 53(2), the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President, who alone has the power to declare war or conclude peace. The Governor, acting as the constitutional head of a State, is entrusted with executive, legislative, financial, and judicial powers pertaining to state administration, but does not possess any authority over the nation's foreign policy or its military forces.

103Polity and Governance
Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?
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Answer: (A) To discuss State matters

Explanation

The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 58 regarding Adjournment Motions, stipulate that any matter brought for discussion must be the primary responsibility and concern of the Union Government. India follows a federal structure under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which divides legislative and executive powers into the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Subjects such as public order and police fall under the State List, making them the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Governments. Therefore, the Parliament generally does not have the procedural authority to discuss matters that are strictly within the domain of a State, as doing so would infringe upon the constitutional autonomy of the State Legislatures and violate the established federal distribution of powers.

104Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?
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Answer: (D) Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission

Explanation

Under Article 324(4) of the Constitution of India, the power to appoint Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission is vested in the President of India. While the President is required to consult with the Election Commission before making such appointments to help the Commission perform its functions, the actual authority of appointment lies with the executive head of the country rather than with the Election Commission itself. This ensures that the administrative framework for conducting elections is established by the President as per constitutional provisions.

105Polity and Governance
Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?
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Answer: (D) At least twenty years as a SubJudicial Magistrate

Explanation

The qualifications for the appointment of a Judge of the Supreme Court are laid down in Article 124(3) of the Constitution of India. According to this Article, a person must be a citizen of India and must have served as a Judge of a High Court for five years, or as an advocate of a High Court for ten years, or be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. The Constitution does not prescribe any criteria or length of service related to the position of a Sub-Judicial Magistrate or any other role in the subordinate judiciary for eligibility to be appointed as a Supreme Court Judge.

106Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Minister?
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Answer: (C) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report

Explanation

Article 167 of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Chief Minister in relation to the Governor. Under this article, the Chief Minister is required to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers and provide information on state administration or legislative proposals specifically to the Governor. The Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state and the primary link to the Union government. There is no constitutional requirement for the Chief Minister to communicate administrative decisions or submit monthly reports directly to the President of India. Reporting to the President, especially concerning the governance of the state under Article 356, is a function performed by the Governor rather than the Chief Minister.

107Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States?
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Answer: (D) The Chief Minister

Explanation

According to Article 168 of the Constitution of India, the Legislature of a State consists of the Governor and the House or Houses of the Legislature. In states where there is only one House, it is the Legislative Assembly, and in states where there are two Houses, they are the Legislative Council and the Legislative Assembly. The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, which forms the executive branch of the state government under Articles 163 and 164. While the Chief Minister is required to be a member of the State Legislature to hold office beyond six months, the position itself is an executive role and is not defined as a constituent part of the Legislature's structure.

108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

Explanation

Under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor exercises the power to promulgate ordinances strictly on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. This is a constitutional requirement and not a discretionary function of the Governor. The Supreme Court in the Krishna Kumar Singh case (2017) reaffirmed that the satisfaction of the Governor to issue an ordinance is in fact the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers. Thus, the Governor cannot declare an ordinance without the formal recommendation and assistance of the cabinet.

109Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Explanation

Article 17 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) explicitly recognizes the Right to Property as a human right. It states that everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others and that no one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property. This provision ensures that individuals are protected from state interference regarding their personal and collective holdings. While the Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300A, it remains an integral part of the UDHR adopted by the United Nations in 1948.

110Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct?
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Answer: (A) It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN.

Explanation

The United Nations Human Rights Council is not composed of all member states of the United Nations. It is a subsidiary body of the UN General Assembly consisting of 47 UN Member States. These members are elected by the majority of the members of the General Assembly through a direct and secret ballot. The seats are distributed based on equitable geographical representation among regional groups: 13 for Africa, 13 for Asia-Pacific, 8 for Latin America and the Caribbean, 7 for Western Europe and other States, and 6 for Eastern Europe. Members serve for three-year terms and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms. While all UN member states can participate as observers in the Council's sessions, the decision-making authority and membership are restricted to the 47 elected states.

111Science and Technology
Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in
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Answer: (B) Javelin throw

Explanation

Neeraj Chopra is a prominent Indian track and field athlete who specializes in the javelin throw. He rose to international prominence after winning the gold medal at the 2016 IAAF World U20 Championships in Bydgoszcz, Poland, where he set a world junior record with a throw of 86.48 meters. In 2018, he solidified his reputation by winning gold medals at two major multi-sport events: the Commonwealth Games in Gold Coast, Australia, and the Asian Games in Jakarta, Indonesia. His performance at the 2018 Asian Games included a national record-breaking throw of 88.06 meters, confirming his status as an accomplished player in the javelin throw discipline.

112Economy
According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the following is not ahead of India?
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Answer: (C) France

Explanation

According to the World Bank's global GDP rankings for 2017 released in 2018, India was positioned as the sixth-largest economy in the world with a total output of approximately $2.597 trillion. France trailed India in these statistics, recording a GDP of approximately $2.582 trillion, which placed it at the seventh spot globally. Because India occupied the sixth rank and France occupied the seventh, France was positioned behind India in the economic hierarchy of that year.

113Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is correct about 'Aaykar Setu'?
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Answer: (B) With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes.

Explanation

Launched by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in July 2017, Aaykar Setu is a digital initiative aimed at enhancing taxpayer services and reducing physical interface between the department and the public. As a mobile-responsive Android application and website module, it acts as a single-window interface for various income tax-related tasks. It facilitates the online payment of taxes through integration with mobile platforms, allows users to link their Aadhaar with their PAN, track Tax Deducted at Source (TDS), calculate tax liability using built-in calculators, and address grievances through the e-Nivaran module. The name translates to Income Tax Bridge, signifying its role in bridging the gap between the tax authorities and taxpayers by providing round-the-clock access to essential direct tax services.

114Science and Technology
SWAYAM is
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Answer: (B) a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform

Explanation

SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is a national platform initiated by the Government of India to provide Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs). Launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) in 2017, the platform is designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy: access, equity, and quality. It provides an integrated platform for online courses using an indigenous IT system, covering subjects from Class 9 to post-graduation. The courses on SWAYAM follow a four-quadrant approach, which includes video lectures, specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded or printed, self-assessment tests through quizzes, and an online discussion forum for clearing doubts. It aims to bridge the digital divide for students who have remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.

115Polity and Governance
Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has not been identified as a religious site for development?
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Answer: (B) Haridwar (Uttarakhand)

Explanation

The Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism in the 2014-15 fiscal year to focus on the holistic development of identified pilgrimage destinations. As of 2018, Haridwar was not among the sites identified for development under this specific scheme. While the list of cities included places such as Ajmer in Rajasthan, Velankanni in Tamil Nadu, and Somnath in Gujarat, the designated site for the state of Uttarakhand under the PRASAD scheme during that period was Kedarnath.

116History
Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 2018).
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Answer: (C) Sachin Tendulkar

Explanation

Sachin Tendulkar was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame on July 18, 2019, during the ICC Annual Conference in London. He became the sixth Indian cricketer to receive this honor. Since his induction occurred approximately one year after the July 2018 timeline specified in the question, he was the only player among the choices who had not yet been inducted into the Hall of Fame by that date.

117Science and Technology
The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the following entities for flood forecasting?
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Answer: (B) Google

Explanation

In June 2018, the Central Water Commission signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Google to collaborate on flood forecasting and the dissemination of flood-related information. This partnership utilizes Google's advanced artificial intelligence, machine learning, and geospatial mapping capabilities to process hydrological data provided by the commission. The collaboration aims to provide more accurate, localized, and timely flood alerts, including high-resolution inundation maps that show the extent of expected flooding. These warnings are disseminated directly to citizens through Google Search, Google Maps, and Android notifications, facilitating better disaster preparedness and emergency response across India.

118Art and Culture
The tagline 'Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India' is associated with the logo for
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Answer: (D) Geographical Indications (GI) of India

Explanation

The tagline Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India, along with its official logo, was launched by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in 2018 for Geographical Indications (GI) of India. A Geographical Indication is an intellectual property right used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities, reputation, or characteristics that are essentially attributable to that place of origin. The introduction of this unified logo and tagline was intended to increase awareness about GIs, protect the interests of genuine producers, and promote Indias diverse heritage and unique regional products in both domestic and international markets.

119History
Who took over the 'Eka Movement' started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922?
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Answer: (B) Madari Pasi

Explanation

The Eka Movement, also known as the Unity Movement, emerged in late 1921 in the northern districts of Awadh, including Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur. While the movement was initially encouraged by Congress and Khilafat leaders as an offshoot of the Non-Cooperation Movement, its leadership was soon taken over by Madari Pasi, a radical leader from a lower-caste background. Under Madari Pasi, the movement focused on agrarian grievances such as the extraction of high rents, the practice of shared cropping, and the imposition of illegal cesses by Taluqdars. His leadership marked a shift toward more militant grassroots mobilization, which eventually led to the movement distancing itself from the non-violent path prescribed by the national Congress leadership.

120History
Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?
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Answer: (D) Hindu Mahasabha

Explanation

The Hindu Mahasabha was established at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in April 1915. Originally formed as the Sarvadeshak Hindu Sabha, it aimed to provide a unified national platform for various local Hindu sabhas that had been active in regions like Punjab and the United Provinces. Under the leadership of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya and other prominent figures, the organization was founded to protect the social, cultural, and political rights of the Hindu community in British India. The 1915 session at Haridwar served as the inaugural gathering of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha, focusing on promoting communal unity, advocating for the preservation of Hindu traditions, and addressing the political representation of Hindus during the nationalist movement.

121Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a part of the 'National Policy on Education 1986'?
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Answer: (C) NPE 1986 was the first policy to introduce the concept of 'Common School System'

Explanation

The concept of the 'Common School System' was first recommended by the Education Commission (1964-66), commonly known as the Kothari Commission, and was subsequently adopted by the first National Policy on Education in 1968. While the National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986 reaffirmed the commitment to this system to ensure that all students have access to education of a comparable quality regardless of caste, creed, or sex, it was not the policy that introduced the concept. The 1986 policy document explicitly mentions that effective measures would be taken in the direction of the Common School System as recommended in the 1968 policy. Therefore, the statement that NPE 1986 was the first to introduce this concept is historically incorrect and does not reflect the provisions of the policy.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13D
  14. 14D
  15. 15B
  16. 16B
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19B
  20. 20A
  21. 21A
  22. 22C
  23. 23D
  24. 24A
  25. 25D
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28C
  29. 29C
  30. 30C
  31. 31B
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37C
  38. 38D
  39. 39B
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42C
  43. 43C
  44. 44D
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48D
  49. 49A
  50. 50A
  51. 51A
  52. 52B
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55B
  56. 56D
  57. 57D
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62A
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73A
  74. 74B
  75. 75B
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78A
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83B
  84. 84B
  85. 85D
  86. 86C
  87. 87D
  88. 88A
  89. 89B
  90. 90D
  91. 91A
  92. 92C
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99A
  100. 100A
  101. 101A
  102. 102A
  103. 103A
  104. 104D
  105. 105D
  106. 106C
  107. 107D
  108. 108D
  109. 109C
  110. 110A
  111. 111B
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114B
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117B
  118. 118D
  119. 119B
  120. 120D
  121. 121C

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