Which of the following plants is not capable of manufacturing own food?
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Answer: (B) Mushroom
Explanation
Mushrooms belong to the kingdom Fungi and are characterized by the absence of chlorophyll, the green pigment essential for photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which organisms manufacture their own food by converting solar energy, water, and carbon dioxide into glucose. Because mushrooms lack this pigment, they are unable to produce their own nutrients. Instead, they are heterotrophic organisms that typically function as saprophytes, obtaining their energy by absorbing dissolved organic matter from decomposing plant or animal tissue in their surroundings.
2Geography
Which one of the following peaks is the highest?
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Answer: (C) Godwin Austen
Explanation
Godwin Austen, also known as K2, is the highest peak among the provided options, reaching an elevation of 8,611 meters (28,251 feet) above sea level. It is the second-highest mountain in the world, surpassed only by Mount Everest. Located in the Karakoram range, its massive altitude exceeds that of all other summits listed, including the highest peaks of the Himalayas within the same geographical context. Given that K2 is globally ranked second, it naturally holds the highest position when compared to the other specific mountain peaks mentioned in the selection.
3Geography
Which one of the following is the correct order in which the following cities are located from West to East?
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Answer: (A) Alwar-Gorakhpur-Ranchi-Bhagalpur
Explanation
The longitudinal positions of these cities determine their west-to-east sequence. Alwar is located in eastern Rajasthan at approximately 76° 36' E longitude. Moving further east into the Indo-Gangetic plain, Gorakhpur in eastern Uttar Pradesh is situated at approximately 83° 22' E. Continuing eastward into the Chota Nagpur plateau region, Ranchi in Jharkhand lies at approximately 85° 20' E. Finally, Bhagalpur, located in eastern Bihar along the banks of the Ganges, is the furthest east among the given options at approximately 87° 00' E. The sequence follows the natural progression across the states of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Bihar.
4Economy
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Country Currency
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Answer: (C) Cambodia Riel
Explanation
The Riel is the official currency of Cambodia. It was first introduced in 1953 and re-introduced in 1980 after the currency was abolished during the Khmer Rouge regime. While the United States dollar is widely used in the country for larger transactions and effectively serves as a secondary currency, the Riel remains the primary unit for small-scale commerce, change, and official government accounting. It is issued by the National Bank of Cambodia and is generally represented by the symbol CR or the Khmer character for Riel.
5Geography
Which waterway separates India from Sri Lanka?
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Answer: (B) Palk Strait
Explanation
The Palk Strait is a narrow stretch of water that separates the state of Tamil Nadu in India from the Mannar district of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka. It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with Palk Bay in the southwest. The strait is named after Robert Palk, who served as the Governor of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. This waterway, along with the chain of limestone shoals known as Adam Bridge or Ram Setu, constitutes the primary maritime boundary between the two countries.
6Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries is not a UN member country?
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Answer: (B) Taiwan
Explanation
Taiwan, officially the Republic of China, was a founding member of the United Nations in 1945 but lost its seat on October 25, 1971. This change occurred with the passage of UN General Assembly Resolution 2758, which recognized the People's Republic of China as the only legitimate representative of China to the United Nations and expelled the representatives of the Republic of China. Since then, Taiwan has remained outside the United Nations, as the organization recognizes the People's Republic of China as the sole legal government of China and follows the One-China policy. While Taiwan operates as a fully functional state, it lacks the formal international recognition required for UN membership.
7Geography
Consider the following statements:
The South-West Monsoon originates in India due to
1. low pressure in the Punjab plain
2. high pressure in areas South of India
3. equatorial low being filled up by descending air current
4. the Himalayas
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4
Explanation
The South-West Monsoon is primarily driven by the differential heating of land and water. During the summer months, the Punjab plains and the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent experience intense solar heating, leading to the formation of a localized low-pressure cell. This thermal low attracts moisture-laden winds from the high-pressure areas over the surrounding oceans. The Himalayas play a definitive role in this process by acting as a high-altitude physical barrier that prevents the monsoon winds from escaping into Central Asia, thereby confining the moisture to the Indian subcontinent. Additionally, the heating of the Tibetan Plateau, which is structurally linked to the Himalayan system, acts as an elevated heat source that strengthens the tropical easterly jet, further intensifying the suction of the monsoon winds towards the Indian landmass.
8Economy
Which one of the following iron and steel plants was established with the British collaboration?
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Answer: (D) Durgapur
Explanation
The Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal was established during the Second Five-Year Plan with the collaboration of a consortium of British companies known as ISCON (Indian Steelworks Construction Co. Ltd.). This partnership included prominent British engineering and industrial firms that provided the necessary technical expertise, equipment, and financial assistance to build the facility. The plant was commissioned in 1959 to enhance India's industrial base and reduce dependence on imported steel. The British involvement was part of a broader strategy during the 1950s where India sought help from various developed nations to set up large-scale public sector industries.
9Geography
Which of the following divides India into Northern and Southern parts?
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Answer: (B) Tropic of Cancer
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer is a significant latitude located at approximately 23°30' N that passes through the center of India. It bisects the country geographically, dividing it into two nearly equal halves: the northern part, which belongs to the subtropical zone, and the southern part, which lies within the tropical zone. This line traverses eight Indian states—Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram—serving as a major reference point for the country's latitudinal division and climatic categorization.
10Economy
Which one of the following is the oldest oil refinery in India?
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Answer: (C) Digboi
Explanation
Digboi refinery, located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, was commissioned on 11 December 1901, making it the oldest operating oil refinery in India and one of the oldest in the world. The discovery of oil in the region dates back to the late 19th century when traces were found during the construction of a railway line. The refinery was established by the Assam Oil Company to process crude oil from the Digboi oil field, marking the birth of the organized petroleum industry in India. It is currently managed by the Indian Oil Corporation Limited and remains a significant historical landmark in the country's industrial development.
11History
Consider the following events
1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
2. Second Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Congress Split at Surat
4. Boycott of Simon Commission
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
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Answer: (A) 3-1-4-2
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these historical events is defined by their respective years of occurrence. The Congress Split at Surat took place in 1907 during the session presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh, resulting in the separation of the Moderates and the Extremists. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre followed on April 13, 1919, when British forces under General Dyer opened fire on a crowd gathered in Amritsar to protest the Rowlatt Act. The Boycott of the Simon Commission occurred in 1928 because the commission consisted entirely of British members, leading to widespread protests across India. The Second Civil Disobedience Movement was initiated in 1932 after the failure of the Second Round Table Conference in London.
12Science and Technology
The characteristic odour of Garlic is due to which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) Sulphur-containing compounds
Explanation
The distinctive pungent odour of garlic is primarily attributed to organosulphur compounds. When a garlic clove is crushed or damaged, an enzyme called alliinase is released, which acts upon the sulphur-containing amino acid derivative alliin to produce allicin (C₆H₁₀OS₂). Allicin is a highly volatile compound and the main contributor to the characteristic smell of fresh garlic. It further breaks down into other sulphur-based molecules such as diallyl disulfide and allyl methyl sulfide, which contribute to the lingering aroma and various biological properties of the plant.
13Science and Technology
What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
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Answer: (B) Sodium azide
Explanation
Airbags contain sodium azide (NaN₃) as the primary propellant for rapid inflation during a collision. When a crash sensor is triggered, it sends an electrical impulse to an ignitor that heats the sodium azide, causing it to undergo a rapid chemical decomposition. The reaction 2NaN₃ → 2Na + 3N₂ releases a large volume of nitrogen gas (N₂), which inflates the airbag in approximately 30 to 40 milliseconds. This gas-generation process is highly efficient, as a small amount of solid sodium azide can produce enough nitrogen gas to fill a driver-side airbag, providing a cushion that prevents the driver from striking the steering wheel or dashboard.
14Science and Technology
Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?
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Answer: (D) White
Explanation
The color of thermal radiation emitted by a hot object is governed by Wiens Displacement Law, which is expressed as λₘₐₓ = b/T, where λₘₐₓ is the peak wavelength, T is the absolute temperature, and b is Wiens constant. This relationship shows that as the temperature of an object increases, the wavelength of the emitted radiation decreases.
At relatively lower temperatures, an object glows with longer wavelengths, appearing in various shades of red. As the temperature rises further, the emission spectrum broadens to include shorter wavelengths like orange, yellow, and eventually the entire visible spectrum. When an object is hot enough to emit significant intensities of all visible colors simultaneously, the human eye perceives the combined light as white. Consequently, white heat represents a significantly higher energy state and temperature than red or salmon-colored heat.
15Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correct? A concrete wall generally,
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Answer: (A) only reflects sound
Explanation
A concrete wall is a hard, dense, rigid surface — it is primarily a sound REFLECTOR, not an absorber. Soft, porous materials (foam, curtains, carpeting) absorb sound. The key says 'b' (only absorbs) but this is incorrect; concrete is one of the best sound-reflecting materials used in echo-producing spaces. The correct answer is (a) only reflects sound.
16Science and Technology
What would be the best choice for window material to keep the outside heat away?
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Answer: (D) Double-pane glass with air in between
Explanation
Double-pane glass with air trapped in between provides superior thermal insulation because air is a very poor conductor of heat. The thermal conductivity of air is approximately 0.026 W/m·K, which is significantly lower than that of solid glass, which is around 0.8 to 1.0 W/m·K. When a layer of air is sealed between two panes, it acts as an insulating barrier that resists the transfer of thermal energy via conduction. Additionally, if the gap is properly sized, it minimizes the formation of convection currents. This configuration drastically reduces the overall U-value of the window system, effectively keeping external heat from penetrating the interior space and maintaining a stable indoor temperature.
17Science and Technology
What is the pH value of pure water?
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Answer: (C) 7
Explanation
The pH value of a substance is a measure of its acidity or alkalinity, defined as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration: pH = -log₁₀[H⁺]. Pure water undergoes auto-ionization, where a small fraction of water molecules dissociate into hydrogen ions (H⁺) and hydroxide ions (OH⁻). At a standard temperature of 25°C, the concentration of hydrogen ions in pure water is exactly 1 × 10⁻⁷ moles per liter. Substituting this value into the formula gives pH = -log₁₀(10⁻⁷) = 7. Because the concentration of hydrogen ions perfectly balances the concentration of hydroxide ions, pure water is considered chemically neutral.
18Science and Technology
A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 30° with the normal at the point of incidence. The ray will be deviated from its incidence direction by what angle?
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Answer: (C) 120°
Explanation
The angle of deviation δ is the angle by which an incident ray is shifted from its original path after reflection. According to the laws of reflection, the angle of incidence i is equal to the angle of reflection r. If a ray of light were to pass straight through without the mirror, it would follow a straight line path of 180°. The deviation is the difference between this straight path and the reflected path, expressed by the formula δ = 180° - (i + r). Since i = r, this formula becomes δ = 180° - 2i. Given that the angle of incidence is 30° with the normal, the deviation is calculated as δ = 180° - 2(30°) = 180° - 60° = 120°. This can also be visualized as the ray turning away from its original direction by twice the glancing angle, where the glancing angle is 90° - 30° = 60°, resulting in 2 × 60° = 120°.
19Science and Technology
Who gave the first evidence of the Big-Bang theory?
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Answer: (A) Edwin Hubble
Explanation
Edwin Hubble provided the first empirical evidence supporting the Big Bang theory in 1929 through his observations of distant galaxies. By analyzing the light spectra of these galaxies, he discovered that they exhibited a redshift, meaning they were moving away from Earth. He formulated Hubble's Law, v = H₀d, which establishes that the velocity v at which a galaxy recedes is directly proportional to its distance d from the observer. This discovery of an expanding universe suggested that all matter and space were once concentrated in a single point, providing the foundational observational proof for the Big Bang cosmological model.
20Science and Technology
The density of water varies with temperature which helps the aquatic animals to live in cold water. At what temperature is the density of water maximum?
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Answer: (D) 4°C
Explanation
Water exhibits a unique property known as anomalous expansion. While most substances consistently increase in density as they cool and contract, water reaches its maximum density at approximately 4°C. As water cools from higher temperatures toward 4°C, the molecules move closer together, increasing density. However, below 4°C, the molecules begin to arrange themselves into a structural framework held by hydrogen bonds. This molecular arrangement is more open and takes up more space, causing the volume to increase and the density to decrease as it approaches the freezing point. This phenomenon ensures that the densest water sinks to the bottom of lakes and ponds, allowing aquatic life to survive in the liquid layer beneath the surface ice during cold weather.
21Science and Technology
Why is it difficult to see through fog?
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Answer: (B) Rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets
Explanation
Fog consists of a dense concentration of tiny water droplets suspended in the air near the Earth's surface. When light travels through this medium, the photons strike these droplets and undergo a process known as scattering. Specifically, because the size of these water droplets is typically larger than or comparable to the wavelength of visible light, they cause Mie scattering. This phenomenon deflects the light rays in multiple random directions rather than allowing them to travel in a straight line to the observer. Consequently, the intensity of the direct light from objects is significantly diminished, and the scattered light creates a uniform, hazy glare that reduces contrast and prevents the eye from forming a clear image of distant objects.
22Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Steam is more harmful for human body than the boiling water in case of burn.
Reason (R): Boiling water contains more heat than steam.
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Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false
Explanation
Steam at 100°C is more harmful to the human body than boiling water at the same temperature because of the phenomenon of latent heat of vaporization. When steam contacts the skin, it undergoes a phase change from gas to liquid, a process called condensation. During this transition, steam releases its latent heat, which is approximately 2260 kJ/kg (or 540 cal/g), in addition to the sensible heat released as its temperature drops. Boiling water only releases sensible heat as it cools. Therefore, steam delivers a significantly higher amount of total energy to the skin per unit mass, resulting in more severe burns. The assertion is true, but the reason is false because steam contains more total heat energy than boiling water at the same temperature, not less.
23Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
Reason (R): Due to osmosis, water enters into red blood cells.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Red blood cells are surrounded by a semi-permeable membrane and contain a concentrated solution of salts and proteins. When placed in pure water, which is a hypotonic environment, a concentration gradient is established. Water moves into the cells through the process of osmosis, seeking to equalize the solute concentrations. Since animal cells like red blood cells lack a rigid cell wall to provide structural support against internal pressure, the influx of water causes the cells to swell beyond their capacity. This results in the rupture of the cell membrane, a phenomenon known as hemolysis. Therefore, the osmotic entry of water is the direct mechanism that leads to the cells bursting.
24Geography
Assertion (A): The percentage of the earth's surface covered by India is 2.4%
Reason (R): On the Mercator's map of the world, India is shown much smaller than Canada.
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation
India has a total land area of approximately 3.28 million square kilometers, which accounts for about 2.4% of the total land surface area of the world. This is a physical geographic fact based on actual measurements of the Earth's crust.
The Mercator projection is a cylindrical map projection that is conformal, meaning it preserves angles and shapes of small areas but greatly distorts the size of landmasses as the latitude increases from the Equator toward the poles. Because Canada is located in high northern latitudes (roughly 41°N to 83°N) and India is located closer to the Equator (roughly 8°N to 37°N), Canada undergoes much higher areal inflation on a Mercator map. Consequently, Canada appears several times larger than India on such a map, even though its actual land area is only about three times larger. While both statements are factually accurate, the cartographic distortion described in the reason is a result of mathematical projection methods and does not serve as an explanation for the physical percentage of the Earth's surface that India occupies.
25Polity and Governance
Assertion (A): An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court.
Reason (R): Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Under Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and is final and binding. Reason (R) is also TRUE: The award is final and binding and no appeal lies in any court (Section 22). However, R is NOT the correct explanation of A — the award being a Civil Court decree arises from a statutory fiction created by Section 21, not from the finality clause. The finality is a consequence of the Civil Court decree status, not its cause. Therefore, both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Answer: (b).
26Economy
Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry?
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Answer: (C) Tea
Explanation
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has identified 17 categories of highly polluting industries that require intensive monitoring and strict compliance with environmental standards. These categories include sectors with significant environmental impact due to the nature of their waste discharge and emissions. Tea processing is not classified under these 17 highly polluting categories. The list specifically focuses on heavy industrial sectors such as chemicals, metallurgy, and large-scale organic processing units that pose higher risks of toxic effluent and hazardous waste generation compared to the relatively low-impact processing involved in the tea industry.
27Geography
Consider the following statements
1. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata.
2. The North-South Corridor will pass through Hyderabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The Golden Quadrilateral is a National Highway network connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata — NOT Bengaluru. Bengaluru is not a corner of the Golden Quadrilateral. Statement 2 is CORRECT: The North-South Corridor runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari and passes through major cities including Jalandhar, Delhi, Agra, Gwalior, Jhansi, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bangalore, and Madurai. Hyderabad is indeed on this corridor. Only Statement 2 is correct. Answer: (b).
28History
Among the following which Mughal Emperor introduced the policy of Sulh-i-Kul?
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Answer: (C) Akbar
Explanation
Akbar introduced the policy of Sulh-i-Kul, a Persian term meaning universal peace or absolute peace. This doctrine formed the cornerstone of his religious and administrative policy, aimed at maintaining harmony in a multi-religious and multi-ethnic empire. The concept emphasized religious tolerance, justice, and the rejection of bigotry, positing that a ruler must treat all subjects equally regardless of their faith. Abul Fazl, Akbar's court historian and close confidant, described Sulh-i-Kul as an essential tool for enlightened sovereignty. It moved the state away from an Islamic identity toward a more inclusive, secular framework where various groups could coexist under the protective umbrella of the emperor. This policy was further developed through Akbar's interactions with scholars of different religions in the Ibadat Khana and was central to the ideological underpinnings of his reign.
29History
Who built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri?
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Answer: (A) Akbar
Explanation
The Mughal Emperor Akbar constructed the Ibadatkhana, or House of Worship, at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575. He established this assembly hall to gather spiritual leaders and scholars for theological discussions. Initially, these debates were confined to various sects of Islam, but Akbar later expanded the circle to include representatives of other religions such as Hinduism, Jainism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism. The interactions at the Ibadatkhana were instrumental in shaping Akbar's religious policy of Sulh-i-kul (universal peace) and his personal syncretic philosophy, eventually leading to the promulgation of the Din-i-Ilahi.
30History
Malik Kafur was whose General?
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Answer: (B) Alauddin Khalji
Explanation
Malik Kafur was a prominent slave-general of Sultan Alauddin Khalji, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316. Originally a slave captured by Alauddin's general Nusrat Khan during the 1299 invasion of Gujarat, Kafur was purchased for one thousand dinars, which led to his nickname Hazar Dinari. He rose rapidly through the administrative and military ranks to become the Malik Naib, or Vice-regent, of the Sultanate. Kafur is best known for leading a series of successful military expeditions into the Deccan and South India between 1308 and 1311. During these campaigns, he defeated the Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiyas of Warangal, the Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra, and the Pandyas of Madurai, bringing vast amounts of wealth, horses, and elephants back to the treasury in Delhi.
31History
Among the following, who is given the credit of carrying Jainism in South Indian?
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Answer: (C) Bhadrabahu
Explanation
Bhadrabahu is traditionally credited with the spread of Jainism to South India during the 4th century BCE. According to Jain tradition, he predicted a severe twelve-year famine in Magadha and led a migration of approximately 12,000 monks to the south to preserve the ascetic practices of the faith. The group settled at Shravanabelagola in modern-day Karnataka. Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire, is said to have abdicated his throne and accompanied Bhadrabahu as his disciple, eventually ending his life there through the practice of Sallekhana. This migration was the primary event that firmly established the Jain religion in the Deccan and South Indian regions.
32Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not a feature of North Indian temple architecture?
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Answer: (C) Gopura
Explanation
The Gopura is a monumental entrance gateway characteristic of South Indian temple architecture, specifically the Dravidian style. While North Indian temples of the Nagara style focus on the tower directly above the sanctum, the Dravidian tradition emphasizes these grand, often multi-storied and highly decorated gateways that lead into the temple enclosure. The development of the Gopura became particularly prominent during the Chola, Pandya, and Vijayanagara periods, serving as a distinct landmark that is absent in the traditional structural layout of North Indian temples.
33History
Which one of the following was the capital of Hoysalas?
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Answer: (B) Dwarasamudra
Explanation
Dwarasamudra, modern-day Halebidu in the Hassan district of Karnataka, served as the majestic capital of the Hoysala Empire from the 12th century onwards. King Vishnuvardhana shifted the capital from Belur to Dwarasamudra, which subsequently became the center of the dynasty political and cultural activities. The city is famous for its intricate temple architecture, particularly the Hoysaleswara temple, which represents the pinnacle of the Hoysala style. It continued to be the administrative heart of the kingdom until the early 14th century, when it was sacked during the invasions of the Delhi Sultanate forces under Malik Kafur.
34History
What is the correct chronological order in which the following kings ruled in India?
1. Bimbisara
2. Mahapadma Nanda
3. Kanishka I
4. Skandagupta
Select the correct answer using the code given below
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Answer: (A) 1-2-3-4
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these rulers follows the major epochs of ancient Indian history. Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty and ruled the Magadha kingdom in the 6th century BCE, being a contemporary of Gautama Buddha. Mahapadma Nanda founded the Nanda dynasty in the 4th century BCE after the fall of the Shishunaga dynasty, shortly before the Macedonian invasion by Alexander. Kanishka I was the most prominent ruler of the Kushan Empire, generally believed to have started his reign in 78 CE, marking the beginning of the Shaka era. Skandagupta was one of the last great rulers of the Gupta Empire, reigning in the mid-5th century CE (c. 455–467 CE) and is renowned for successfully repelling the Huna invasions. This progression from the early Magadhan period to the Nanda, Kushan, and finally the Gupta period establishes the order as 1-2-3-4.
35History
Who of the following revolutionaries set up the United India House in the USA?
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Answer: (B) Taraknath Das and G.D. Kumar
Explanation
Taraknath Das and G.D. Kumar were leading Indian revolutionaries who operated in North America during the early 20th century. Following the closure of the Swadesh Sevak Home in Vancouver due to pressure from Canadian authorities, G.D. Kumar moved to Seattle in 1910. There, he joined forces with Taraknath Das to establish the United India House. This organization served as a vital political center for Indian immigrants and laborers on the West Coast, providing a platform to coordinate anti-British activities and disseminate revolutionary ideas before the formal establishment of the Ghadar Party. Through this house, they organized meetings and worked closely with the local Indian community to foster national consciousness and resistance against colonial rule.
36History
With reference to Indian freedom struggles, who among the following was labelled as 'Moderate' leader in the Congress?
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Answer: (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and a leading figure of the Moderate faction. He believed in the methodology of constitutional agitation, which involved using petitions, prayers, and protests within the legal framework to seek reforms from the British government. Gokhale emphasized the importance of gradual political progress and was known for his mastery of budgetary and economic issues. In 1905, he presided over the Banaras session of the Congress and founded the Servants of India Society to train Indians in social and political work. His approach focused on persuasion and dialogue with British officials rather than radical or direct action.
37History
During Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following happened earliest?
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Answer: (B) Gaya Session of Congress
Explanation
The Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress was held in December 1922 under the presidency of Chittaranjan Das. This session occurred in the immediate aftermath of the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement following the Chauri Chaura incident. It is a major landmark in the Indian freedom struggle as it highlighted the ideological rift between the No-changers, who supported Gandhi’s program of boycott, and the Pro-changers, who advocated for entering the legislative councils to oppose the government from within. This internal debate ultimately led to the formation of the Swaraj Party. Chronologically, this 1922 session is the earliest event among the choices, as the other mentioned historical milestones occurred between 1927 and 1939.
38History
The Rani Jhansi Regiment, the Women's Regiment of the Azad Hind Fauj, was under whose command?
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Answer: (D) Lakshmi Sehgal
Explanation
The Rani of Jhansi Regiment was the women's regiment of the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj), formed in 1943 in Singapore under Subhas Chandra Bose's leadership. It was commanded by Dr. Lakshmi Sahgal (Lakshmi Sehgal), a physician and freedom fighter. The regiment was named after the famous Rani of Jhansi, Lakshmibai, who led resistance against British rule during the 1857 uprising.
39History
What was the reason or ground for the British Empire to annex Sambalpur in 1850?
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Answer: (B) Death of its ruler without any heir
Explanation
Sambalpur was annexed by the British East India Company in 1850 through the application of the Doctrine of Lapse. This administrative policy, heavily utilized by Lord Dalhousie during his tenure as Governor-General, dictated that any princely state under the paramountcy of the British would be annexed if its ruler died without a natural male heir. In 1849, Raja Narayan Singh of Sambalpur died without leaving a biological son to succeed him. Consequently, the British authorities refused to recognize any claims of adoption and formally took control of the state in 1850, integrating it into the British provinces. This move was part of a broader strategy to consolidate British territory by reclaiming states where the direct bloodline of the ruling family had ended.
40History
At which of its Session, did the Congress officially accept, the 'socialistic pattern of society'?
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Answer: (B) Avadi Session of 1955
Explanation
The Indian National Congress officially adopted the goal of a socialistic pattern of society during its 60th session held at Avadi, near Madras, in January 1955. Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru and the presidency of U. N. Dhebar, the Congress passed a resolution stating that planning in India should aim for the establishment of a society where the principal means of production are under social ownership or control, production is progressively speeded up, and there is an equitable distribution of national wealth. This resolution marked a significant shift in India's economic policy, moving the nation toward a mixed economy with a dominant public sector, and it directly influenced the framework of the Second Five-Year Plan.
41Economy
Who of the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission?
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Answer: (C) Vijay Kelkar
Explanation
The 13th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2007 under the chairmanship of Vijay Kelkar. As a distinguished economist and former Finance Secretary to the Government of India, Kelkar led the commission in formulating recommendations for the devolution of financial resources between the Center and the States for the period spanning 2010 to 2015. The commission was specifically mandated to suggest measures to maintain a stable and sustainable fiscal environment while addressing the requirements of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework and fiscal consolidation targets.
42Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Folk Dance)
A. Bhavai
B. Thabal Chongba
C. Cheraw
D. Bhortal Nritya
List-II (State)
1. Mizoram
2. Asom
3. Manipur
4. Rajasthan
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Bhavai is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan characterized by women balancing several clay or brass pots on their heads while dancing on glass or metal edges. Thabal Chongba is a popular Manipuri folk dance performed during the Yaoshang festival where men and women dance together in a circle under the moonlight. Cheraw is the famous bamboo dance of Mizoram in which dancers step in and out of bamboo staves that are rhythmically struck together. Bhortal Nritya is a rhythmic folk dance of Asom performed with large cymbals and was originally developed by the Vaishnavite saint Narahari Burha Bhakat.
43Economy
Two Greenfield airport projects in India are being implemented on Build Own Operate Transfer (BOOT) basis. One is at Bengaluru. Where is the other one located?
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Answer: (A) Hyderabad
Explanation
The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport in Hyderabad was developed as one of the two landmark Greenfield airport projects in India under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model on a Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) basis. The project was executed by GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited (GHIAL), a consortium comprising the GMR Group, Malaysia Airports Holdings Berhad, the Government of Andhra Pradesh, and the Airports Authority of India. Located at Shamshabad, the airport was designed to replace the old Begumpet Airport and handle significant international and domestic traffic. It commenced commercial operations in March 2008, just a few months prior to the opening of the Kempegowda International Airport in Bengaluru, which was the other project implemented under a similar framework during that period.
44Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I (Institute of Indian Systems of Medicine) List-II (Location)
A. National Institute of Unani Medicines 1. Kolkata
B. National Institute of Homoeopathy 2. Jaipur
C. National institute of Ayurveda 3. Chennai
D. National Institute of Siddha 4. Bengaluru
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
The National Institute of Unani Medicine is located in Bengaluru, functioning as an autonomous body for the development of the Unani system of medicine. The National Institute of Homoeopathy is situated in Kolkata and was established in 1975 as a premier institute for homoeopathic education and research. The National Institute of Ayurveda is based in Jaipur, where it serves as an apex autonomous institute for teaching and research in Ayurveda. The National Institute of Siddha is located in Chennai, which is appropriate given that the Siddha system of medicine is historically and culturally rooted in Tamil Nadu. Matching these institutes to their respective locations results in the pair sequence A-4, B-1, C-2, and D-3.
45Geography
Consider the following statements
1. Currently three waterways have been declared as the national waterways of India.
2. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra is the longest national waterway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because, for the majority of 2008, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) recognized three established National Waterways. These were NW-1 (Allahabad to Haldia), NW-2 (Sadiya to Dhubri), and NW-3 (Kottapuram to Kollam). Although the National Waterway Acts for NW-4 and NW-5 were passed in late 2008, the existing framework throughout the preparation and conduct of the exam cycle consisted of these three primary routes.
Statement 2 is incorrect because National Waterway 1 (NW-1), which encompasses the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system from Allahabad to Haldia, is the longest national waterway in India with a total length of approximately 1620 km. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra River (NW-2) has a length of 891 km, which is significantly shorter than NW-1.
46Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is visualized as a bridging link between ASEAN and SAARC.
2. It was formerly known as the Bangkok Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
BIMSTEC serves as a strategic bridging link between South Asia and Southeast Asia, effectively connecting the member states of SAARC and ASEAN. Its membership includes five South Asian nations (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) and two Southeast Asian nations (Myanmar and Thailand), providing a platform for technical and economic cooperation across the Bay of Bengal. While the organization was established in June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, it was never known as the Bangkok Agreement. The Bangkok Agreement is actually the original name of the Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA), which was signed in 1975 and is a separate preferential trade arrangement. Thus, the identity of BIMSTEC is distinct from that of the Bangkok Agreement despite its founding location.
47Polity and Governance
Who is the Chairman of second Administrative Reforms Commission?
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Answer: (C) M. Veerappa Moily
Explanation
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on August 31, 2005, by the Government of India with M. Veerappa Moily as its Chairman. The commission was tasked with recommending measures to achieve a proactive, responsive, accountable, sustainable, and efficient administration for the country at all levels of government. Under Moily leadership, the commission produced 15 comprehensive reports on various facets of governance, including ethics in governance, Right to Information, local governance, and public order, providing a significant roadmap for administrative modernization in India. Moily served in this capacity until May 2009, when he resigned to join the Union Council of Ministers.
48Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN?
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Answer: (D) South Korea
Explanation
South Korea is an East Asian nation and does not fall within the geographical scope of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). As of 2008, the organization is strictly composed of ten member states located in Southeast Asia. While South Korea maintains deep economic and political ties with the bloc through the ASEAN Plus Three (APT) framework alongside China and Japan, it serves as a Dialogue Partner rather than a formal member state. Membership is reserved for countries that are situated in the Southeast Asian region and have acceded to the ASEAN Charter.
49Economy
Dr. C. Rangarajan Committee is associated with which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) TAX Structure
Explanation
Dr. C. Rangarajan, former Governor of RBI and Chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council, is associated with multiple government committees. The committee most prominently associated with tax structure reform chaired by Rangarajan is the reference point here. While he later chaired a committee on Pricing and Taxation of Petroleum Products (2012-14), the tax structure association in the 2008 examination context refers to his earlier advisory work on taxation policy. Answer: (c) TAX Structure.
50Science and Technology
Where is the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI) located?
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Answer: (B) Hyderabad
Explanation
The International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI) is an autonomous research and development organization under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India. Established in 1996, its primary campus is located in Balapur, Hyderabad. The centre is mandated to develop high-performance materials and processes for niche sectors, focusing on areas such as nanomaterials, ceramics, engineered coatings, and fuel cells. It acts as a bridge between laboratory research and industrial application by focusing on technology transfer and commercialization of advanced materials.
51Economy
What is 'Super 301'?
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Answer: (C) American Trade Law
Explanation
Super 301 refers to a specific provision of the U.S. Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988. It empowers the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to identify foreign countries that maintain systematic trade barriers or engage in unfair trade practices that restrict United States exports. Once a country is designated under Super 301, the USTR initiates investigations and mandatory negotiations to eliminate those trade barriers. If negotiations fail to yield a satisfactory resolution within a specific timeframe, the law authorizes the U.S. government to impose retaliatory trade sanctions, such as high tariffs on imports from the offending nation. This provision became a significant tool in American trade policy during the late 20th century to pressure trading partners to open their markets to American goods and services.
52Economy
Who is the Managing Director of IMF?
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Answer: (B) Dominique Strauss-Kahn
Explanation
Dominique Strauss-Kahn was appointed as the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund on November 1, 2007, and held the position throughout the 2008 calendar year. A French economist and politician who had previously served as France's Minister of Economy, Finance, and Industry, he led the institution during the onset of the global financial crisis. His leadership during this period focused on reforming the IMF governance structure and enhancing the fund's capacity to provide financial assistance to member countries facing severe economic instability.
53History
Which one of the following sites of the Indus Valley Civilization had an ancient dockyard?
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Answer: (B) Lothal
Explanation
Lothal, situated near the Gulf of Khambhat in present-day Gujarat, served as a vital maritime trade hub of the Indus Valley Civilization. The site is uniquely characterized by a massive brick-lined structure identified as the world's earliest known artificial dockyard. This trapezoidal basin, measuring approximately 218 meters in length and 37 meters in width, was engineered to allow ships to berth during high tides through an inlet channel connected to the ancient course of the Bhogavo River. The dockyard featured a sophisticated sluice-gate system to maintain water levels, enabling the Harappans to conduct extensive overseas trade with regions as far as Mesopotamia and the Persian Gulf. Evidence of this maritime activity includes the discovery of typical Persian Gulf seals and specialized bead-making workshops adjacent to the port area.
54Geography
How many hours of daylight does the equator experience on September equinox?
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Answer: (D) 12 hours
Explanation
The term equinox is derived from the Latin words aequus meaning equal and nox meaning night. During the September equinox, the Earth's axial tilt is neither toward nor away from the Sun, resulting in the Sun being positioned directly above the equator at noon. At this specific orbital point, the circle of illumination, which is the boundary between day and night, passes through the North and South poles and bisects the equator exactly. Since the equator is divided into two equal halves by this boundary, any point on the equator spends exactly half of the 24-hour rotation period in the sunlight. This geometric symmetry ensures that the equator experiences exactly 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness.
55Economy
What is the period covered by the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission?
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Answer: (B) Year 2005-2010
Explanation
The Twelfth Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India on November 1, 2002, under the chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan. The commission submitted its report on November 30, 2004, and its recommendations were mandated to cover the five-year period commencing from April 1, 2005, and ending on March 31, 2010. The commission is a constitutional body formed under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments. During this specific period, the commission recommended increasing the states' share in the net proceeds of shareable central taxes to 30.5 percent and emphasized fiscal consolidation for both the Centre and the States.
56Science and Technology
Which of the following nutrients is not a structural component of the plant?
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Answer: (D) Potassium
Explanation
Potassium (K) is not a structural component of plants. It exists solely as a K⁺ ion and functions in ionic regulation, stomatal movement, enzyme activation, and osmoregulation — it does not form part of any structural molecule. Nitrogen forms amino acids, proteins, and chlorophyll. Calcium is a component of cell walls (calcium pectate in the middle lamella). Phosphorus is part of DNA, RNA, ATP, and phospholipids — all structural roles in the plant.
57Science and Technology
Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
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Answer: (D) Cuttack
Explanation
The Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI) was established on April 23, 1946, at Cuttack in Odisha. The institute was founded to perform fundamental research on all aspects of the rice crop, especially following the food shortages caused by the Bengal Famine of 1943. It subsequently came under the administrative control of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 1966. The Cuttack-based facility serves as a premier research center for improving rice productivity and developing technologies to assist farmers in various ecological conditions.
58Science and Technology
Dim-vision in the evening and night results from the deficiency of which one of the following?
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Answer: (A) Vitamin A
Explanation
Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is essential for the formation of rhodopsin, a light-sensitive pigment found in the rod cells of the retina. Rod cells are responsible for vision in low-light conditions or during the night. When Vitamin A levels are deficient, the body cannot produce sufficient rhodopsin, leading to a condition known as nyctalopia, or night blindness. This manifest as a significantly impaired ability to see in dim light or during the evening, which is often the earliest clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency. In more severe cases, this deficiency can progress to xerophthalmia and permanent damage to the cornea.
59Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Noble Peace Prize is presented annually in Oslo by the king of Norway.
2. The Nobel laureate receives three things-a diploma, a medal and a document confirming the prize amount. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Nobel Prize laureate receives three distinct items: a diploma, a medal, and a document confirming the prize amount. The diploma is a unique work of art, specifically designed for each laureate. The medal is made of 18 carat green gold plated with 24 carat gold, featuring the image of Alfred Nobel. While the Nobel Peace Prize ceremony takes place in Oslo, the prize is presented by the Chairman of the Norwegian Nobel Committee, not by the King of Norway, although the King is typically in attendance. This distinction makes the second statement accurate while the first is incorrect.
60Science and Technology
Consider the following statements
1. India has 10 Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).
2. The spent fuel from the PHWRs is reprocessed into plutonium.
3. All imported reactors are under the safeguards of the international Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
India follows a closed nuclear fuel cycle as part of its three-stage nuclear power program. In the first stage, Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) utilize natural uranium as fuel. During the fission process, the fertile Uranium-238 (U²³⁸) isotope absorbs neutrons to transmute into fissile Plutonium-239 (Pu²³⁹). The spent fuel from these PHWRs is chemically reprocessed to extract this plutonium, which serves as the primary fuel for the second stage, the Fast Breeder Reactors.
As of early 2008, India had 15 operational PHWRs located across sites such as Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Narora, Kakrapar, Kaiga, and Tarapur, making the count of 10 inaccurate. Additionally, not all imported reactors were under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards during that period. For instance, the CIRUS research reactor, which was imported from Canada, remained outside the IAEA safeguards regime until its decommissioning.
61History
Who among the following won the Wimbledon Women's Tennis Championship, 2007?
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Answer: (B) Venus Williams
Explanation
Venus Williams secured the 2007 Wimbledon Women's Singles title by defeating Marion Bartoli in the final with a score of 6-4, 6-1. This victory marked her fourth Wimbledon singles championship and her sixth Grand Slam title overall. Despite entering the tournament as the 23rd seed, she showcased her grass-court prowess to become the lowest-seeded woman in the Open Era to win the prestigious trophy at the All England Club.
62Art and Culture
Adoor Gopalakrishnan, the recipient of Padma Vibhushan Award, 2006 is associated with which one of the following fields?
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Answer: (B) Art
Explanation
Adoor Gopalakrishnan is a legendary Indian filmmaker, screenwriter, and producer who is widely recognized as one of the most influential figures in Indian parallel cinema. In the classification used for the Padma awards, filmmaking and performing arts are categorized under the field of Art. He gained international acclaim for his debut film Swayamvaram in 1972 and continued to produce critically acclaimed works like Elippathayam and Mathilukal. His contribution to Indian cinema has been recognized with numerous honors, including the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2004. The Government of India conferred the Padma Vibhushan upon him in 2006 to honor his exceptional and distinguished service to the field of Art through his mastery of the cinematic medium.
63History
Consider the following statements
1. Dinosaurs roamed the earth during the Mesozoic era.
2. All Dinosaurs and other reptiles such as Ichthyosaurus and Pterosaurs became extinct due to unknown reasons in Triassic period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Mesozoic Era, spanning approximately 252 to 66 million years ago, is traditionally known as the Age of Reptiles as it was the timeframe during which dinosaurs evolved and dominated the Earth. This era is divided into three geological periods: the Triassic, the Jurassic, and the Cretaceous. Dinosaurs first appeared during the Late Triassic and remained the dominant terrestrial vertebrates until the end of the Cretaceous. Statement 2 is incorrect because the mass extinction of non-avian dinosaurs, pterosaurs, and marine reptiles like ichthyosaurs occurred at the Cretaceous-Paleogene (K-Pg) boundary, roughly 66 million years ago, rather than in the Triassic period. The Triassic period actually ended with an extinction event that favored the subsequent rise and diversification of dinosaurs throughout the Jurassic.
64Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Celestial Body)
A. Mercury
B. Pluto
C. Mars
D. Neptune
List-II (Roman God)
1. God of the Underworld and Death
2. God of Commerce, Eloquence and Skill
3. God of the Sea
4. God of War
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Mercury is named after the Roman god of commerce, eloquence, and skill, who served as the fleet-footed messenger of the gods, reflecting the planet's rapid orbital motion. Pluto received its name from the Roman god of the underworld and death, appropriate for a celestial body located in the dark, distant reaches of the solar system. Mars is named after the Roman god of war because its distinct reddish appearance reminded ancient observers of blood. Neptune is named after the Roman god of the sea due to its deep blue color, which is caused by the absorption of red light by methane in its atmosphere.
65Economy
The persons working in textile factories such as carpet weavers are exposed to which of the following occupational diseases?
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Answer: (B) Asthma and Tuberculosis
Explanation
Carpet weavers and workers in textile factories are exposed to wool, cotton, and synthetic fiber dust in enclosed environments. This exposure primarily causes respiratory diseases including Asthma (from allergic reaction to fiber dust) and Tuberculosis (from poor ventilation and prolonged indoor dust exposure). Asbestosis (a) is specifically caused by asbestos fiber inhalation — not typical of carpet/textile factories. Silicosis (c) arises from silica dust (mining, sandblasting). Siderosis (d) results from iron oxide dust (iron/steel industries). The correct occupational disease for textile workers is (b) Asthma and Tuberculosis.
66Economy
What is mixed farming?
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Answer: (C) Growing several crops and also rearing animals
Explanation
Mixed farming is an agricultural system that involves the integration of crop cultivation with the rearing of livestock on the same farm. In this system, the farm activities are complementary; for instance, crops provide fodder for animals, while animal manure is used as organic fertilizer to enhance soil fertility for crop production. This diversification helps farmers minimize risks associated with weather fluctuations or market prices by providing multiple sources of income from both plant and animal products.
67History
Who among the following was the first European to encounter the Cacao plant, from which chocolate is made?
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Answer: (A) Christopher Columbus
Explanation
Christopher Columbus was the first European to encounter cacao beans during his fourth and final voyage to the Americas in 1502. While anchored off the coast of present-day Honduras near the island of Guanaja, his crew intercepted a large Mayan trading canoe. Among the various goods found on board were cacao beans, which the Spanish initially mistook for a type of almond. Columbus observed that the indigenous people held these beans in extremely high regard, even using them as a form of currency. Although he brought samples back to Spain, the potential of cacao to produce the chocolate beverage was not immediately realized or exploited by the Spanish crown until later expeditions.
68Science and Technology
'Misch metal' is widely used in the manufacture of which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Cigarette lighters
Explanation
Misch metal is an alloy predominantly composed of rare-earth elements, typically containing about 50 percent cerium, 25 percent lanthanum, and small percentages of neodymium and praseodymium, along with approximately 5 percent iron. The defining property of this alloy is its pyrophoricity, which means it produces brilliant sparks when subjected to friction or mechanical impact. This characteristic makes it the ideal material for manufacturing the flints used in cigarette lighters and gas lighters. In these devices, a serrated steel wheel strikes the misch metal flint to produce the sparks required to ignite the fuel. It is also utilized in tracer bullets and various metallurgical processes to remove impurities like oxygen and sulfur from other metals.
69History
The 2010 Commonwealth Games will be hosted by New Delhi. Two new disciplines will be added to the games. What are they?
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Answer: (B) Tennis and Archery
Explanation
The 2010 Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi saw the inclusion of Tennis and Archery as the two sports added to the competition program. Tennis made its debut appearance in the history of the Commonwealth Games during the Delhi edition. Archery was reintroduced to the games after a significant gap, having previously featured only once in the 1982 Brisbane Commonwealth Games. These additions were part of the 17 sporting disciplines scheduled for the event, following the selection process by the Commonwealth Games Federation and the host organizing committee.
70Science and Technology
What is Jeweller's rouge?
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Answer: (A) Ferric oxide
Explanation
Jeweller’s rouge is a fine red polishing powder used to polish metals, glass, and gemstones to a high sheen. It is chemically Ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃), also known as iron(III) oxide. The red colour gives it the name ‘rouge’ (French for red). It is distinct from Ferrous oxide (FeO), which is a black compound used in different industrial applications.
71Economy
Who among the following Indian freedom fighters made an attempt to estimate the per capita income of India?
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Answer: (D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji was the first Indian leader to attempt a scientific estimation of the national income and per capita income of India. In his seminal book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, he formulated the Drain Theory, which explained how Indian wealth was being transferred to Britain without an adequate return. He estimated the per capita income for the year 1867-68 to be approximately ₹20 per annum. His calculation was primarily based on the value of agricultural production and a fixed percentage added for other sectors. This effort was crucial in providing an empirical basis for the nationalist critique of British economic policies, proving that India was being systematically impoverished by colonial rule.
72History
Which of the following vested the secretary of state for India with supreme control over the Government of India?
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Answer: (B) Government of India Act, 1858
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1858, enacted in the aftermath of the Revolt of 1857, transferred the powers of the East India Company directly to the British Crown. This act created the new office of the Secretary of State for India, a member of the British Cabinet who was made responsible to the British Parliament. The Secretary of State was vested with complete authority and supreme control over the administration of India, effectively inheriting the powers previously held by the Court of Directors and the Board of Control. To assist this official, the act also established a 15-member body known as the Council of India, ensuring that the ultimate governance of the Indian colony was centralized under the British government in London.
73History
Amongst the following, who cooperated with Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the implementation of his educational programmes?
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Answer: (B) David Hare
Explanation
David Hare, a Scottish watchmaker and philanthropist settled in Calcutta, was the most direct and prominent collaborator of Raja Ram Mohan Roy in educational programmes. Together they played a key role in establishing the Hindu College (now Presidency University) in 1817 and the Calcutta School Society. David Hare devoted his life to promoting English education in India alongside Ram Mohan Roy. Henri Derozio was a poet-teacher at Hindu College and led the Young Bengal movement but was a later figure and a follower of Ram Mohan Roy's ideals rather than a direct collaborator. Dwarkanath Tagore was Ram Mohan Roy's business partner. William Jones predated Ram Mohan Roy's active period. The correct answer is (b) David Hare.
74Art and Culture
Which Philosophical system was founded by Vallabhacharya?
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Answer: (B) Shuddhadvaita
Explanation
Vallabhacharya was a prominent devotional philosopher who propounded the Shuddhadvaita (Pure Non-dualism) school of Vedanta. This philosophical system posits that the entire universe is real and is a manifestation of Brahman, specifically identified as Krishna, without the intervention of Maya or illusion. Unlike other forms of Advaita, Vallabhacharya taught that the individual soul and the world are not separate from God but are identical in essence, much like sparks are to a fire. This doctrine serves as the theological foundation for the Pushtimarg (Path of Grace), a sect that emphasizes absolute surrender and selfless devotion to Lord Krishna as the means to attain salvation.
75History
In early medieval India, what did the term Jital refer to?
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Answer: (C) Coin
Explanation
The Jital was a standard copper or billon coin used extensively during the Delhi Sultanate period in medieval India. It served as the primary fractional currency alongside the silver Tanka. This monetary system was formalized by Sultan Iltutmish of the Slave Dynasty, who introduced the silver Tanka weighing 175 grains and the copper Jital. The Jital was essential for small-scale daily transactions and maintained a value ratio where typically 48 Jitals were equal to one silver Tanka. These coins often featured the name of the reigning Sultan in Arabic or Nagari script and remained a staple of North Indian currency through the Khilji and Tughlaq dynasties.
76History
What were the ahdis of Akbar's time?
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Answer: (D) Foot-soldiers in the army
Explanation
Ahdis (also spelled Ahadis) in Akbar's time were a special category of foot-soldiers who served directly under the Emperor without being attached to any mansabdar. They were infantry soldiers in the imperial army, personally enlisted by the Emperor. The term 'ahadi' literally referred to these individual soldiers who took personal service under the Emperor rather than through the mansabdari system. The official answer key says 'a' (village money-lenders) which is historically incorrect. The correct answer is (d) Foot-soldiers in the army.
77History
With reference to Delhi Sultanate, who was the founder fo Sayyid Dynasty?
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Answer: (A) Khizr Khan
Explanation
Khizr Khan founded the Sayyid Dynasty in 1414 by capturing Delhi and deposing Daulat Khan Lodi. He had previously served as the Governor of Multan under the Tughlaq dynasty and later gained the favor of the Central Asian conqueror Timur during his invasion of India in 1398. Upon his departure from India, Timur appointed Khizr Khan as his deputy or governor of Multan, Lahore, and Dipalpur. Utilizing the political vacuum and the weakened state of the Delhi Sultanate following the Tughlaq collapse, Khizr Khan expanded his influence and eventually seized the throne. He ruled until 1421, notably refusing to assume the royal title of Sultan, instead preferring the title Rayat-i-Ala and continuing to acknowledge the suzerainty of Timur’s successor, Shah Rukh.
78Science and Technology
Which one among the following kinds of organisms resides in the roots of pulse plants to do nitrogen fixation?
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Answer: (A) Bacteria
Explanation
Pulse plants, which belong to the family Fabaceae, engage in a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with soil-dwelling bacteria, most notably from the genus Rhizobium. These bacteria colonize the root hairs of the plant and induce the formation of specialized structures known as root nodules. Inside these nodules, the bacteria utilize the enzyme nitrogenase to catalyze the conversion of atmospheric dinitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), a form of nitrogen that the plant can readily assimilate for the synthesis of amino acids and proteins. In exchange for this fixed nitrogen, the plant provides the bacteria with carbohydrates produced through photosynthesis and a stable, low-oxygen environment necessary for nitrogenase activity. This biological nitrogen fixation is a fundamental process that enhances soil fertility and allows pulse crops to thrive in nitrogen-poor environments.
79Economy
Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts?
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Answer: (C) Flower buds
Explanation
Cloves are the dried, unopened flower buds of the evergreen tree Syzygium aromaticum, which belongs to the Myrtaceae family. These buds are harvested during the flowering season when they transition from a pale green color to a bright reddish-pink. After harvesting, they are dried in the sun or through controlled heating until they become dark brown, hard, and aromatic. The distinct flavor and medicinal properties associated with the spice are primarily due to the high concentration of volatile essential oils, particularly eugenol, stored within these floral tissues.
80Science and Technology
In the human body, Cowper's glands form a part of which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) Reproductive system
Explanation
Cowper's glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, are a pair of small exocrine glands found in the male reproductive system. Located below the prostate gland at the base of the penis, these glands play a vital role during sexual arousal. They secrete a clear, alkaline fluid called pre-ejaculate into the urethra. This secretion serves to lubricate the urethra and neutralize any acidic environment caused by residual urine, which would otherwise be harmful to sperm. By preparing the urethral tract for the safe passage of semen, Cowper's glands function as an essential accessory organ within the reproductive tract.
81Science and Technology
Which one of the following glands produces the Growth Hormone (Somatotropin)?
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Answer: (C) Pituitary
Explanation
Growth Hormone (GH), also known as Somatotropin, is produced by the somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis). It stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration. Among the options: Adrenal gland (a) produces cortisol, adrenaline (epinephrine), and aldosterone. Pancreas (b) produces insulin and glucagon. Pituitary (c) produces GH, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, prolactin, and ADH. Thyroid (d) produces thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). The official answer key marks (d) Thyroid, which is incorrect. The correct answer is (c) Pituitary.
82Science and Technology
Which one of the following groups of animals are primates?
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Answer: (C) Lemurs and Lorises
Explanation
Lemurs and lorises belong to the suborder Strepsirrhini within the order Primates. Often classified as prosimians, they represent an evolutionary lineage of primates that retained more ancestral features compared to simians. They possess characteristic primate traits including grasping hands and feet with opposable digits, flattened nails instead of claws on most fingers, and forward-facing eyes that provide stereoscopic vision. Lemurs are endemic to Madagascar, while lorises are found in the tropical forests of South and Southeast Asia as well as parts of Africa. Their taxonomic classification is based on these shared morphological characteristics and a common evolutionary ancestor.
83Geography
Which one of the following is included in the world list of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?
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Answer: (D) Sunderbans
Explanation
The Sunderbans, located in the delta region of the Padma, Meghna, and Brahmaputra river basins in West Bengal, was included in the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2001. It is the largest mangrove ecosystem in the world and serves as a critical habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger and various other endangered species. The UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme recognizes the site for its global ecological significance and the integration of biodiversity conservation with sustainable human development. As of 2008, it remained one of the prominent Indian sites on this international list.
84Science and Technology
Consider the following statements
1. Cigarette smoking exposes a person to benzene.
2. Benzene is a known carcinogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Benzene is a volatile organic compound produced during the incomplete combustion of tobacco. Cigarette smoke serves as a primary source of benzene exposure for the general population, as smokers inhale significant amounts of the chemical with each cigarette. Additionally, benzene is recognized as a potent human carcinogen by major health authorities, including the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC). Scientific research has established a clear link between benzene exposure and an increased risk of developing cancers of the blood and bone marrow, such as acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Consequently, it is well-documented that smoking exposes individuals to this hazardous substance, which is a known cancer-causing agent.
85Geography
Which of the following gases is released from rice fields in the most prominent quantities?
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Answer: (B) Methane
Explanation
Rice fields are a major anthropogenic source of methane (CH₄) due to the anaerobic conditions created by prolonged flooding. When soil is submerged, the available oxygen is rapidly depleted, facilitating the growth of methanogenic bacteria. These microorganisms decompose organic matter in the waterlogged soil through a process called methanogenesis, which produces methane as a metabolic byproduct. The gas is then released into the atmosphere primarily through the rice plants via their aerenchyma tissue, as well as through diffusion and ebullition from the soil surface. This makes rice cultivation one of the most significant contributors to global methane emissions in the agricultural sector.
86Art and Culture
Consider the following statements
1. The Gandhara art of the Peshawar Valley is known for some of the finest sculptures made in dark grey schist.
2. The Kushanas were the first Indian kings to have portraits of themselves made in their shrines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Both statements are correct. Gandhara art, centred in the Peshawar Valley (present-day Pakistan), is renowned for its sculptures carved in dark grey schist, blending Hellenistic and Indian artistic traditions under Kushana patronage. The Kushana kings were among the earliest rulers in the Indian subcontinent to commission portrait representations of themselves, a tradition particularly visible on their coinage, establishing royal iconography in the region.
87Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Name)
A. Dola Banerjee
B. Aparna Popat
C. Anuja Thakur
D. Parimarjan Negi
List-II (Game)
1. Badminton
2. Snooker
3. Chess
4. Archery
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Dola Banerjee is a prominent archer who made history by winning the gold medal in the individual recurve event at the Archery World Cup final in 2007.
Aparna Popat is one of India's most successful badminton players, having won the National Senior Women's Championship for nine consecutive years between 1997 and 2006.
Anuja Thakur is a leading figure in Indian cuesports, particularly recognized for her achievements in snooker and billiards at the national and international levels.
Parimarjan Negi is a chess prodigy who gained international fame by becoming the youngest Indian Grandmaster in 2006 at the age of 13.
88Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?
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Answer: (C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was appointed as the first Law and Justice Minister of independent India in the first cabinet headed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on August 15, 1947. A distinguished jurist and the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, he was chosen for this role due to his profound legal scholarship and his leadership as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly. During his tenure as Law Minister, he was significantly involved in drafting and advocating for the Hindu Code Bill, which aimed to modernize and reform personal laws in India. He served in this capacity until his resignation from the cabinet in 1951.
89Polity and Governance
Financial distribution between the Union and the State takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) The Finance Commission
Explanation
Financial distribution between the Union and the States is based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. Established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the Finance Commission is constituted every five years to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and States, grants-in-aid of State revenues, and other financial matters referred by the President. The National Development Council and Planning Commission are advisory bodies without constitutional authority over financial distribution.
90Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes give below the Lists
List-I (Schedule in the Constitution of India):
A. Tenth Schedule
B. Eighth Schedule
C. First Schedule
D. Ninth Schedule
List-II (Schedule in the Constitution of India):
1. Languages
2. Provisions as to disqualification on the grounds of defection
3. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
4. The States
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and contains provisions regarding disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection. The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution, which numbered 22 by 2008. The First Schedule contains the names of the States and Union Territories along with their territorial jurisdictions. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment Act of 1951 and deals with the validation of certain Acts and Regulations, primarily relating to land reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system, to protect them from judicial scrutiny. Matching these subjects results in the sequence 2 1 4 3.
91Science and Technology
As which one of the following, does carbon occur in its purest form in nature?
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Answer: (C) Diamond
Explanation
Carbon occurs in its purest form in nature as Diamond. Diamond is composed of nearly pure carbon arranged in a tetrahedral crystal lattice with sp³ hybridisation, making it the hardest naturally occurring substance. Graphite is also an allotrope of pure carbon but has a layered structure with sp² hybridisation and may contain trace impurities. Coal is a mixture of carbon with hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and other elements. Carbon black is an industrial product produced by incomplete combustion, not a naturally occurring pure form.
92Polity and Governance
In which Part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?
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Answer: (B) II
Explanation
Part II of the Constitution of India, spanning Articles 5 to 11, contains the provisions regarding citizenship. These articles define the various categories of persons who were deemed citizens of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, such as those domiciled in India, migrants from Pakistan, and persons of Indian origin residing abroad. Article 11 specifically grants the Parliament the authority to regulate the right of citizenship by law, which led to the enactment of the Citizenship Act, 1955, governing the acquisition and termination of citizenship after the Constitution's commencement.
93Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Both statements are correct. Statement 1 is TRUE: The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs does constitute Consultative Committees for various Ministries, consisting of members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is TRUE: The main purpose of these Consultative Committees is to provide an informal forum for discussion between the Government and Members of Parliament on the policies and programmes of the respective Ministries. The committees meet frequently to facilitate communication between the executive and the legislature. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.
94Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head.
2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
Statement 1 — 'The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head' — is INCOMPLETE: The Union Executive also includes the Vice-President and the Attorney General; omitting them makes Statement 1 imprecise. Statement 2 — 'The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office' — is CORRECT as per Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution. Statement 3 — 'Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister' — is INCORRECT: Article 53(1) clearly states that executive power of the Union is vested in the PRESIDENT, not the PM. The PM exercises it through the Council of Ministers aiding and advising the President. Therefore only Statement 2 is unambiguously correct. Answer: (d) 2 only.
95Polity and Governance
What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with?
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Answer: (D) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
In Arunachal Pradesh, which has a predominantly Scheduled Tribe population, no reservation for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats is mandated. This reflects the constitutional recognition of the tribal character of the state — since the state has very few Scheduled Castes among its population, mandatory SC reservation in local bodies does not apply. The Constitution provides for such exemptions for tribal-majority states in the northeastern region.
96Geography
At which one of the following places, EastWest Corridor connecting Silchar and Porbandar and North-South Corridor connecting Srinagar and Kanyakumari, intersect each other?
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Answer: (A) Jhansi
Explanation
The North-South and East-West Corridors represent the backbone of the National Highways Development Project in India. The North-South Corridor spans approximately 4,000 kilometers from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, whereas the East-West Corridor stretches about 3,300 kilometers from Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. These two major arterial routes intersect at Jhansi, located in the state of Uttar Pradesh. As the junction of these two corridors, Jhansi serves as a pivotal geographical and logistical crossroads for the country's surface transport system, ensuring connectivity between the four extremities of India.
97Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an insect borne disease?
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Answer: (A) Beriberi
Explanation
Beriberi is a nutritional deficiency disease caused by a lack of thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1, in the diet. It is common in regions where the primary food source is highly refined or polished rice, as the process of polishing removes the thiamine-rich outer hull. Because the condition results from a chemical deficiency rather than a pathogen transmitted by a vector, it is not classified as an insect-borne disease. The ailment typically manifests in two forms: dry beriberi, which affects the nervous system, and wet beriberi, which affects the cardiovascular system.
98Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Disease) | List-II (Part of Human Body Affected)
A. Conjunctivitis | 1. Eyes
B. Dermatitis | 2. Joints
C. Gout | 3. Skin
D. Meningitis | 4. Spinal Cord
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Answer: (B) 1 3 2 4
Explanation
Conjunctivitis is the inflammation of the conjunctiva, the clear membrane covering the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. Dermatitis is a broad term used to describe an inflammation of the skin, resulting in irritation and rashes. Gout is a painful condition of the joints caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals, leading to intense swelling and inflammation. Meningitis is the inflammation of the protective membranes, known as meninges, which surround the brain and the spinal cord.
99Science and Technology
Which of the following parts of blood carry out the function of body defence?
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Answer: (B) White blood cells
Explanation
White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, serve as the primary components of the immune system responsible for protecting the body against infectious diseases and foreign materials. They are specialized to identify, track, and destroy pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. These cells function through various mechanisms: some, like neutrophils and macrophages, engulf and digest invaders through a process called phagocytosis, while others, such as B-lymphocytes, produce antibodies that neutralize specific toxins or microbes. T-lymphocytes directly attack infected or cancerous cells. Because they are constantly patrolling the bloodstream and tissues to mount an immune response against any biological threat, they are considered the body's main line of internal defense.
100Science and Technology
Where is the national institute of nutrition located?
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Answer: (B) Hyderabad
Explanation
The National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) is a premier Indian public health, nutrition, and translational research center located in Hyderabad. Founded by Sir Robert McCarrison in 1918 as the Beri-Beri Enquiry Unit in Coonoor, Tamil Nadu, the institute moved to its current location in Hyderabad in 1958. It was officially renamed the National Institute of Nutrition in 1969. Operating under the aegis of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the institute conducts extensive research on various aspects of nutrition, including clinical nutrition, food chemistry, and public health policies to combat malnutrition and nutritional deficiencies in India.
101Geography
Which one of the following diagrams shows the direction and duration of wind?
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Answer: (D) Star diagram
Explanation
A Star diagram (also called a Wind Rose) displays the direction and duration of wind. Radiating spokes represent the compass directions, and the length of each spoke indicates the duration or frequency of wind from that direction. A Cartogram represents statistical data proportionally on a map. A Climogram displays climate variables such as temperature and rainfall over months. An Ergograph shows the relationship between temperature, rainfall, and crop yield or working capacity for a location.
102Geography
June 21 is the longest day of the year for those living in the Northern hemisphere. What is the shortest day of the year for those living in the Southern hemisphere?
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Answer: (D) June 21
Explanation
On June 21, the Earth is positioned in its orbit such that the Northern Hemisphere is tilted at its maximum angle toward the Sun, while the Southern Hemisphere is tilted at its maximum angle away from the Sun. This event is known as the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere and the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere. Because the Southern Hemisphere is tilted furthest from the Sun on this date, it experiences the shortest duration of daylight and the longest night of the year. The solar declination is at its northernmost point, approximately 23.5 degrees North latitude, which results in the minimum possible sunlit period for all locations south of the Equator.
103Economy
Which one of the following countries is not a founder member of OPEC?
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Answer: (A) Algeria
Explanation
OPEC was established at the Baghdad Conference held from September 10 to 14, 1960. The organization was founded by five core oil-producing nations: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Algeria did not join the organization until 1969, nearly nine years after its formation, and therefore is categorized as a member that joined subsequent to the founding agreement.
104Science and Technology
Bar is a unit of which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) Pressure
Explanation
The bar is a metric unit of pressure defined as exactly 10⁵ pascals (Pa), which is equivalent to 10⁵ newtons per square meter (N/m²). While it is not an official SI unit, it is extensively used in meteorology, oceanography, and engineering because it closely approximates standard atmospheric pressure at sea level, which is 1.01325 bar. In weather reporting, atmospheric pressure is often cited in millibars (mbar), where 1 bar equals 1000 millibars. The unit provides a convenient scale for expressing pressures that are near the magnitude of Earth's atmosphere.
105Geography
With which one of the following countries, India shares maximum length of the border?
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Answer: (A) Bangladesh
Explanation
India shares its longest land boundary with Bangladesh, stretching approximately 4,096.7 kilometers. This extensive border is characterized by a complex geography involving plains, hills, and riverine tracts. It runs along the Indian states of West Bengal, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, and Assam. The length of this border exceeds those shared with any other neighboring nation, including China and Pakistan, primarily due to the highly irregular and winding nature of the boundary line established during the partition of the subcontinent. This makes the Indo-Bangladeshi border the fifth-longest land border in the world.
106Art and Culture
Consider the following statements
1. Doris Lessing becomes the oldest person to win the Nobel Prize in Literature (2007).
2. She is a school dropout.
3. Jane Moor is the pseudonym of Doris Lessing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Doris Lessing was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2007 at the age of 88, which established her as the oldest recipient of the prize in that category. Her formal education was limited, as she dropped out of the Dominican Convent High School in Salisbury at the age of 14 and remained self-educated for the rest of her life. While she did famously use a pseudonym to publish work and test the biases of the publishing industry, that pseudonym was Jane Somers, under which she wrote novels such as The Diary of a Good Neighbour, rather than Jane Moor.
107History
Liberhan Commission has been appointed to deal with which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Demolition of Babri Masjid
Explanation
The Liberhan Commission was a one-man commission of inquiry headed by Justice M. S. Liberhan, a retired Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court. It was constituted by the Government of India on December 16, 1992, following the demolition of the Babri Masjid in Ayodhya on December 6, 1992. The commission was tasked with investigating the sequence of events that led to the destruction of the structure, identifying the individuals and organizations responsible for the acts, and examining the role of the state administration and police in failing to prevent the incident. It is recognized as one of the longest-running commissions in Indian history, spanning over 16 years and receiving numerous extensions before finally submitting its report.
108Economy
Which one of the following industries is not recommended by Investment Commission as National Thrust Area?
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Answer: (B) Information Technology
Explanation
The Investment Commission, established in 2004 under the chairmanship of Ratan Tata, was tasked with recommending policies to enhance investment across various sectors to sustain a high GDP growth rate. The Commission identified specific National Thrust Areas where India possessed a significant comparative advantage or where large-scale investment was required to generate employment and improve infrastructure. While sectors such as Tourism, Textiles, and Agro-processing were prioritized as thrust areas due to their labor-intensive nature and need for policy intervention, Information Technology was not included in this specific category. By the mid-2000s, the Information Technology industry in India was already a mature, globally competitive, and self-sustaining sector that attracted significant private and foreign investment without requiring the same level of specialized promotional thrust or structural policy shifts recommended for the other nascent or lagging sectors.
109Economy
The Kyoto Protocol commits the developed nations, including economics in transition to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases by which one of the following during the years 2008-2012?
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Answer: (D) An average of 5.2% below 1990 levels
Explanation
The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997 and entering into force in 2005, established legally binding obligations for developed nations and economies in transition (Annex I parties) to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions. For the first commitment period, which ran from 2008 to 2012, these nations collectively agreed to reduce their emissions by an average of 5.2% relative to their 1990 levels. While individual country targets varied to reflect different national circumstances—such as 8% for the European Union and 7% for the United States—the overall combined target for all participating industrialized countries was calculated at the 5.2% benchmark using 1990 as the standard base year for measuring progress.
110Economy
According to the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM). Act, 2003 and FRBM Rules, 2004, the Government is under obligation to present three statements before the Parliament along with the Annual Budget. Which one of the following is not one of them?
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Answer: (D) Statement showing Short term Fiscal Policy
Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, and the FRBM Rules, 2004, mandate the Central Government to lay three specific statements before both Houses of Parliament along with the Annual Financial Statement and Demands for Grants. These are the Macroeconomic Framework Statement, the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, and the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement. These documents are designed to ensure transparency and long-term sustainability in fiscal management by outlining the government's assessment of the economy and its medium-term fiscal goals. There is no legal provision or requirement under the FRBM Act for the presentation of a Statement showing Short term Fiscal Policy, as the statutory framework specifically focuses on medium-term planning and macroeconomic stability.
111Economy
What is an ECO-MARK?
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Answer: (B) A scheme for labelling environment friendly consumer product
Explanation
The Eco-mark scheme was established by the Government of India in 1991 to identify and certify consumer products that are environmentally friendly and meet the quality standards prescribed by the Bureau of Indian Standards. It aims to increase consumer awareness regarding the environmental impact of products and encourages manufacturers to adopt cleaner technologies. The certification is granted to finished consumer goods across various categories—such as detergents, paper, and food items—that demonstrate a reduced environmental footprint during their production, usage, and disposal. The official logo for the scheme is an earthen pot, which symbolizes the sustainable use of natural resources and the biodegradable nature of the product.
112Economy
Which among the following is the oldest board under the Department of Commerce?
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Answer: (C) The Coffee Board
Explanation
The Coffee Board is a statutory organization constituted under Section 4 of the Coffee Act, 1942. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. The board was originally established as the Indian Coffee Market Expansion Board to assist the industry during the crisis triggered by the Second World War, which had closed off traditional European markets for Indian coffee. While its precursor, the Indian Coffee Cess Committee, was formed in 1935, the formal statutory board was established in 1942. This makes it the oldest among the listed commodity boards, preceding the Rubber Board (1947), the Tea Board (1953), and the Tobacco Board (1975).
113Economy
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Hyundai : Germany
Explanation
Hyundai Motor Company is a South Korean multinational automotive manufacturer headquartered in Seoul. It was founded by Chung Ju-yung in 1967 and operates the world largest integrated automobile manufacturing facility in Ulsan, South Korea. The company is the primary subsidiary of the Hyundai Motor Group, which is a South Korean conglomerate, whereas Germany is the country of origin for manufacturers such as Volkswagen, BMW, and Mercedes-Benz.
114History
Consider the following statements
1. At the time of independence, the Government of India followed the calendar based on Saka era.
2. The National Calendar commenced on Chaitra I Saka, 1879 corresponding to March 22, 1957 AD. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The National Calendar of India is based on the Saka era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days. It was officially adopted by the Government of India on March 22, 1957, which corresponds to Chaitra 1, 1879 of the Saka era. This adoption was based on the recommendations of the Calendar Reform Committee to create a synchronized official calendar for use alongside the Gregorian calendar. At the time of independence on August 15, 1947, the Government of India continued to use the Gregorian calendar inherited from the British administration, and the transition to the Saka-based National Calendar did not occur until nearly ten years later.
115History
The Sun Temple of Konark was built by Narasimhadeva I. To which dynasty did he belong to?
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Answer: (B) Imperial Ganga dynasty
Explanation
Narasimhadeva I was a prominent ruler of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, often referred to as the Imperial Ganga dynasty, who reigned from 1238 to 1264 CE. He is most celebrated for commissioning the construction of the Sun Temple at Konark around 1250 CE, which is considered a masterpiece of Kalinga architecture. His reign marked a period of significant military success and cultural prosperity for the Kalinga region. The temple was built to commemorate his victories over the forces of the Bengal Sultanate, symbolizing the strength and devotion of the Imperial Ganga monarchs. The dynasty played a crucial role in the development of Odishan art and architecture, leaving behind several iconic structures that defined the medieval history of eastern India.
116Science and Technology
Which of the following is a rich source of energy?
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Answer: (B) Lipid
Explanation
Lipids are the most energy-dense macronutrients, providing approximately 9 kilocalories of energy per gram. This high energy yield is a result of their chemical composition, which features long hydrocarbon chains with a high proportion of carbon-hydrogen bonds and very little oxygen. During metabolic oxidation, these bonds release a substantial amount of chemical energy that is captured in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Because lipids are hydrophobic, they can be stored in a highly concentrated, anhydrous form within adipose tissue, making them the primary long-term energy reservoir for the body.
117Science and Technology
In human body, what is the number of cervical vertebrae?
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Answer: (B) 7
Explanation
The human vertebral column is divided into distinct regions, and the cervical region, which forms the bony structure of the neck, contains exactly 7 vertebrae. These are anatomically designated as C1 through C7. The first cervical vertebra (C1) is called the atlas, which supports the skull, and the second (C2) is known as the axis, which allows for head rotation. This count of seven cervical vertebrae is a consistent biological characteristic in almost all mammals, providing the necessary balance between structural support for the head and a high degree of flexibility for movement.
118Science and Technology
The terms Lubb and Dubb relate to which one of the following?
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Answer: (A) Heart
Explanation
The terms Lubb and Dubb represent the two distinct sounds produced by the heart during each cardiac cycle, which can be heard using a stethoscope. The first sound, Lubb, is a low-pitched, longer duration sound caused by the sudden closure of the atrioventricular valves—specifically the mitral and tricuspid valves—at the onset of ventricular systole. The second sound, Dubb, is a higher-pitched, shorter duration sound resulting from the closure of the semilunar valves—the aortic and pulmonary valves—at the beginning of ventricular diastole. These sounds are essential clinical indicators used to monitor the functional status of the cardiac valves and the rhythmic timing of the pumping action of the heart.
119Science and Technology
In normal adult human, what is the rate of heartbeat per minute?
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Answer: (A) 72-80
Explanation
The average resting heart rate for a healthy adult human is approximately 72 beats per minute. In standard physiological contexts and textbook definitions, the normal range is generally established as 70 to 80 beats per minute. This rate is governed by the sinoatrial node, the heart's natural pacemaker, which generates electrical impulses to trigger the contraction of cardiac muscles. A rate within the 72 to 80 range ensures optimal cardiac output and oxygen delivery to the body's tissues while the individual is in a state of physical and mental repose.
120Economy
Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible source of protein?
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Answer: (B) Soybean
Explanation
Soybean is regarded as a highly efficient and easily digestible source of protein due to its superior amino acid profile and high bioavailability. It is one of the few plant-based sources that provides all essential amino acids in proportions that closely match human requirements. According to the Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS), which is the globally recognized standard for evaluating protein quality based on both human amino acid requirements and their ability to digest it, soy protein isolate receives a maximum score of 1.0. This indicates that the protein is fully digested and utilized by the body. The molecular structure of soy protein allows for efficient enzymatic degradation in the digestive tract, ensuring that its nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream with high efficiency compared to proteins bound in complex animal fibers or connective tissues.