As per the Budget Estimates of 2019-20, the following are some of the important sources of tax receipts for the Union Government :
1. Corporation Tax
2. Taxes on Income other than Corporation Tax
3. Goods and Services Tax
4. Union Excise Duties
Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the foresaid tax receipts as a percentage of GDP?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3, 2, 4
Explanation
As per the Union Budget 2019-20 Budget Estimates (BE), Corporation Tax was the largest contributor to the tax revenue, estimated at approximately 3.4 percent of the GDP. This was followed by the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which accounted for about 3.1 percent of the GDP. Taxes on income other than Corporation Tax (Personal Income Tax) followed at approximately 2.6 percent of the GDP. Union Excise Duties constituted the smallest portion among the given categories at roughly 1.1 percent of the GDP. These estimates reflect the government's revenue projections for the fiscal year where direct taxes like Corporation Tax remained the single largest component, followed by the consolidated indirect tax regime of GST.
2Economy
As per the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Ranking, India's rank has improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019. During this period, in which of the following parameters has India's rank deteriorated?
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Answer: (C) Registering property
Explanation
In the World Bank's Doing Business 2015 report, which reflected the data for 2014, India was ranked 121st in the Registering Property indicator. By the Doing Business 2020 report, which reflected the data for 2019, India's rank in this specific parameter had slipped to 154th. While India made significant strides in other areas such as Getting Electricity and Paying Taxes through systemic reforms and digitisation, the Registering Property parameter saw a deterioration because the procedures remained cumbersome and the time taken for property registration and mutation did not decrease as effectively as in other categories. This indicator measures the steps, time, and cost involved in registering a property, and India's performance in this metric failed to keep pace with the rapid improvements seen in its overall Ease of Doing Business score.
3Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Food Security Act is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories.
Explanation
The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, has been fully implemented in all 36 States and Union Territories of India since November 2016. While the legislation was enacted in 2013, states were granted time to modernize their Targeted Public Distribution System and identify beneficiaries according to the specified criteria. With Kerala and Tamil Nadu adopting the Act in late 2016, the implementation became nationwide, ensuring that the legal entitlement to highly subsidized food grains is available across the entire country.
4Economy
Which one of the following statements about Indian economy during 2019-20 is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Fiscal deficit as percentage of GDP has been as per the Budget Estimates.
Explanation
The fiscal deficit for the financial year 2019-20 significantly exceeded the targets set in the Budget Estimates. Initially, the Union Budget 2019-20 projected a fiscal deficit of 3.3% of GDP. However, the actual fiscal deficit rose to 4.6% of GDP by the end of the year. This breach of the target was primarily due to a substantial shortfall in tax revenues, exacerbated by the pre-pandemic economic slowdown and the corporate tax rate cut, as well as the early expenditures related to the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020. Consequently, the government had to invoke the escape clause under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act to deviate from the original budgetary targets.
5Economy
As per the Budget Estimates of expenditure on major subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum expenditure was likely to be on
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Answer: (C) food subsidy
Explanation
According to the Union Budget 2019-20 Budget Estimates, the total expenditure on major subsidies was projected at approximately ₹ 3,01,694 crore. The food subsidy constituted the largest share of this expenditure, with an allocation of ₹ 1,84,220 crore, representing over 60 percent of the total major subsidy bill. This allocation is primarily utilized to implement the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and other welfare schemes, covering the gap between the economic cost of food grains incurred by the Food Corporation of India and the central issue prices at which grains are sold to the targeted population.
6Geography
Which one of the following Indian places receives minimum rainfall in a year?
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Answer: (B) Leh
Explanation
Leh is situated in the Trans-Himalayan region of Ladakh, which functions as a high-altitude cold desert. It lies in the rain shadow area of the Great Himalayan range, which acts as an orographic barrier to the moisture-laden Southwest Monsoon winds. As these winds ascend the southern slopes of the Himalayas, they cool and release their moisture, leaving very little water vapor for the northern leeward side. Consequently, Leh receives extremely low annual precipitation, typically averaging around 102 mm. The majority of this moisture is received as snow during the winter months rather than liquid rainfall during the monsoon season.
7Geography
Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions?
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Answer: (D) Tundra region
Explanation
The Tundra region is characterized by extremely low temperatures and a permanently frozen subsoil layer known as permafrost. These harsh climatic conditions, combined with a very short growing season where temperatures rarely rise above 10°C, prevent the physiological processes necessary for tree growth. The presence of permafrost restricts deep root penetration, while the high winds and physiological drought caused by frozen water further inhibit the development of tall, woody plants. Vegetation in this biome is limited to low-growing species such as mosses, lichens, sedges, and dwarf shrubs that can survive the extreme cold and nutrient-poor soils. Therefore, the Tundra exists beyond the latitudinal tree line, where timber vegetation cannot be sustained.
8Geography
Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was highest in India in the year
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Answer: (C) 1971
Explanation
The decadal growth rate of the Indian population reached its historical peak during the period 1961–1971. According to census data, the growth rate recorded for this decade was approximately 24.80 percent. This surge was primarily driven by a significant decline in the death rate due to advancements in medical technology, improved control over famines, and better public health measures, while birth rates remained high. This phase is often described as the period of population explosion in India's demographic transition, and the growth rate has been on a gradual decline in every subsequent census since 1971.
9Geography
The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in almost two equal parts in the month of January, is
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Answer: (D) 20°C
Explanation
During the month of January, which represents the peak of the winter season in India, the 20°C isotherm passes through the central part of the country. This line runs roughly parallel to the Tropic of Cancer and effectively bisects the Indian subcontinent into two nearly equal geographical halves. It serves as a climatic boundary separating the northern part of India, where mean temperatures remain below 20°C due to the influence of continental winds and higher latitudes, from the southern peninsular region, which remains warmer and maintains a tropical character with mean temperatures exceeding 20°C even in winter.
10Geography
Which one of the following indicates the Tropical Savannah climate?
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Answer: (A) Aw
Explanation
The Köppen climate classification system uses the letter code Aw to represent the Tropical Savannah climate. In this classification, the uppercase letter A denotes a tropical megathermal climate where the mean temperature of the coldest month remains 18°C or higher, ensuring year-round warmth. The lowercase letter w signifies a distinct dry season during the winter or the period of low sun. This climate type is characterized by a pronounced seasonal rhythm of rainfall, with a wet season occurring during the summer months when the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts over the region, and a dry season occurring when the subtropical high-pressure belts dominate. This moisture regime typically supports the growth of tall grasses and scattered deciduous trees, distinguishing it from the continuously wet tropical rainforests.
11Geography
The largest geographical area of India is covered by which one of the following types of soils?
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Answer: (A) Inceptisols
Explanation
Inceptisols are the most extensive soil order in India, covering approximately 39.74 percent of the country's total geographical area. These soils are characterized by an initial stage of soil profile development and are widely distributed across various physiographic divisions. They occur predominantly in the Indo-Gangetic plains, the Brahmaputra valley, the Himalayan region, and parts of the peninsular plateau. Their dominance is attributed to the vast stretches of alluvial deposits and diverse climatic zones that facilitate the formation of these moderately developed soils, making them the largest geographical soil group in the Indian subcontinent according to the ICAR and USDA soil taxonomy.
12Geography
Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator?
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Answer: (B) Singapore
Explanation
Singapore is situated at a latitude of approximately 1.35° North. This geographical position puts the city-state just 137 kilometers north of the Equator, making it the city with the minimum angular distance from the 0° latitude line among the choices provided. Because of this extreme proximity, Singapore experiences an equatorial climate characterized by uniform temperatures, high humidity, and consistent daylight hours throughout the year.
13Polity and Governance
Who among the following gave evidence before the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, 1919 in favour of female franchise?
1. Mrs. Annie Besant
2. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
3. Mrs. Hirabai Tata
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In 1919, during the deliberations of the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, several prominent women leaders traveled to London to advocate for the inclusion of women in the new franchise. Annie Besant, representing the National Home Rule League, and Sarojini Naidu, representing the Indian National Congress and the Women's Indian Association (WIA), gave powerful testimonies arguing that Indian women were prepared for and deserving of the right to vote. Hirabai Tata, along with her daughter Mithan Tata, was specifically sent to London by the WIA and the Bombay Women's Committee to present a memorandum and give oral evidence. Their combined efforts emphasized that the franchise should be based on equality and that Indian social customs did not pose an insurmountable barrier to women's political participation. While the Joint Select Committee did not directly grant the vote to women in the 1919 Act, it accepted the principle by allowing provincial legislatures to decide on the matter.
14History
In which one of the following places was the Ahmadiyya Movement started by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad?
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Answer: (D) Gurdaspur
Explanation
The Ahmadiyya Movement was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889 at Qadian, which is a town located in the Gurdaspur district of Punjab. The movement was established as a messianic and reformist initiative within Islam, aiming to promote religious universalism and a spiritual revival. Mirza Ghulam Ahmad claimed to be the Mujaddid (divine reformer), the promised Mahdi, and the Messiah, emphasizing the peaceful spread of Islam and the rejection of violent jihad. The movement gained significant influence for its focus on modern education and its defense of Islamic principles through theological debate and literature.
15History
With whom did Subhas Chandra Bose form an alliance to destroy the Holwell Monument in Calcutta during 1939-40?
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Answer: (B) The Muslim League
Explanation
In 1940, Subhas Chandra Bose launched a significant agitation for the removal of the Holwell Monument in Calcutta, which stood as a symbol of British colonial narrative regarding the Black Hole tragedy. To broaden the base of the movement and demonstrate Hindu-Muslim unity against imperialist symbols, Bose formed an alliance with the Muslim League. This collaboration was strategically aimed at the provincial government of Bengal, then headed by A.K. Fazlul Huq in a coalition. Although Bose was arrested on July 2, 1940, shortly before the scheduled protest, the joint pressure from his followers and the Muslim League successfully forced the government to dismantle the monument and relocate it to the graveyard of St. John's Church.
16History
Who among the following created the first All India Trade Union Congress in 1920?
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Answer: (C) N. M. Joshi
Explanation
N. M. Joshi was the primary architect and founder of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), which was established in Bombay on October 31, 1920. He served as the first General Secretary of the organization, while Lala Lajpat Rai was elected as its first President. Joshi played a critical role in formalizing the trade union movement in India, coordinating various labor groups to form a national body that could effectively advocate for workers' rights and represent Indian labor at international forums such as the International Labour Organization.
17History
Which one among the following was India's first trade union in the proper sense of the term?
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Answer: (C) Madras Labour Union
Explanation
The Madras Labour Union (MLU), established on April 13, 1918, is widely regarded as the first trade union in India organized in the proper sense of the term. It was founded by B.P. Wadia, an associate of the Theosophical Society, along with V. Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar. While earlier organizations like the Bombay Mill Hands Association existed, they functioned primarily as philanthropic associations or ad-hoc grievance committees. The MLU was the first to adopt a modern organizational structure, featuring a formal membership roll, the collection of regular monthly subscriptions, and a systematic approach to collective bargaining. Primarily representing the textile workers of the Buckingham and Carnatic Mills in Madras, the union marked the transition of the Indian labour movement from unorganized protests to a structured and permanent institutional form.
18History
Who among the following formed the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association in 1914?
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Answer: (D) Shri Ram Bajpai
Explanation
Shri Ram Bajpai established the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association in 1914 at Allahabad. This organization was formed because the official Boy Scouts Association, led by Robert Baden-Powell, was initially restricted to Europeans and Anglo-Indians and did not permit native Indians to join. Bajpai founded this indigenous scouting body under the auspices of the Seva Samiti to provide Indian youth with training in discipline, physical culture, and social service. The association played a significant role in the development of the scouting movement in India and was later instrumental in the formation of the Bharat Scouts and Guides after independence.
19Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not correct about the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (D) The Secretary General passes orders in the name of the Speaker.
Explanation
The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the administrative head of the Lok Sabha Secretariat and functions under the overall direction and control of the Speaker. While the Secretary General exercises delegated authority and performs various functions on behalf of the Speaker—such as communicating with members regarding the summoning and prorogation of the House—the administrative orders pertaining to the Secretariat staff and internal operations are issued by the Secretary General in his or her own name and capacity. This reflects the Secretary General’s status as the permanent officer and the appointing authority for the Secretariat, where orders are authenticated by the officer directly rather than being formally expressed in the name of the Speaker. This procedural distinction separates the administrative functions of the Parliament's secretarial staff from the executive branch's requirement to issue orders in the name of the President of India.
20History
Who among the following moved the motion of Secret Sitting Session of the Assembly (1942)?
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Answer: (A) M. S. Aney
Explanation
M. S. Aney, serving as the Leader of the House in the Central Legislative Assembly, moved the motion for a secret sitting of the Assembly on February 27, 1942. This rare procedure was invoked to discuss the grave war situation and the defense of India during World War II. The session was conducted in private, with the galleries cleared of the public and the press, to allow members to deliberate on sensitive matters of national security and the impending threat of invasion without compromising classified information.
21Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements pertaining to the President's term of office is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Explanation
According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may resign from office before the expiration of the five-year term by writing under his or her hand addressed to the Vice-President of India. While Article 56(2) specifies that any such resignation must be communicated by the Vice-President to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha forthwith, the formal act of resignation is legally directed to the Vice-President. Consequently, the statement claiming the President addresses the resignation letter to the Speaker is constitutionally incorrect.
22Polity and Governance
Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19?
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Answer: (A) Article 31A and Article 31C
Explanation
Articles 31A and 31C are specifically designed as constitutional exceptions to the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 14 and 19. Article 31A, which was inserted by the 1st Amendment Act of 1951, saves laws related to the acquisition of estates, the taking over of management of property, and the amalgamation of corporations from being challenged on the grounds of violating the right to equality or the fundamental freedoms. Similarly, Article 31C was introduced by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971 to protect laws that give effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy mentioned in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c). It explicitly states that such laws cannot be declared void for inconsistency with the rights conferred by Article 14 or Article 19. This legal principle is often summarized by the judicial observation that where Article 31C comes in, Article 14 goes out, ensuring that socio-economic legislation aimed at the common good is not hindered by individual right claims.
23Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not the necessary condition for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto?
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Answer: (C) The office must not be a substantive one.
Explanation
The writ of Quo Warranto is a judicial remedy used to challenge the legality of a person's claim to a public office. A mandatory prerequisite for the issuance of this writ is that the office in question must be a substantive public office. A substantive office is defined as one that is independent in character and possesses a permanent nature, having been established by either the Constitution or a statute. The writ is specifically designed to address the wrongful occupation of such significant public positions and cannot be applied to roles that are merely ministerial, private, or non-substantive. Because the law requires the office to be substantive for the writ to be maintainable, the assertion that the office must not be a substantive one is a misstatement of the actual legal requirements.
24Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Commissions is related to Article 338A?
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Answer: (B) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Explanation
Article 338A of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. This specific article was inserted through the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate constitutional bodies to ensure more focused attention on the protection, welfare, and development of tribal communities. The Commission is a constitutional body consisting of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members appointed by the President. Its primary functions include investigating and monitoring matters relating to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution or any other law, inquiring into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of tribal rights, and participating in the planning process for the socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes while evaluating the progress of their development under the Union and any State.
25Art and Culture
August 12 is celebrated as
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Answer: (D) the International Youth Day
Explanation
International Youth Day is observed annually on August 12 to bring youth issues to the attention of the international community and celebrate the potential of youth as partners in today's global society. This date was designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 1999 following a recommendation made by the World Conference of Ministers Responsible for Youth held in Lisbon. The day serves as a platform to acknowledge the contributions of young people to education, community development, and environmental protection, while also highlighting the unique challenges and legal issues they face in the modern world. It encourages governments and the public to engage with youth in creating sustainable solutions for global progress.
26Geography
Which one of the following countries had chosen the name 'Nisarga' for the cyclone which devastated the coastline of Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020?
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Answer: (B) Bangladesh
Explanation
The name Nisarga was suggested by Bangladesh and means nature in the Bengali language. The naming of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region is managed by a panel of thirteen countries under the World Meteorological Organization and the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific. Bangladesh is a member of this panel and contributed the name as part of a pre-defined list used to identify storms in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. This naming system helps the scientific community, disaster managers, and the media to identify individual cyclones easily and raise awareness about their arrival. Nisarga was the first name used from the updated list of names released in April 2020.
27Art and Culture
Who among the following played the role of Shakuntala Devi in the biopic movie based on the life of the famous mathematician?
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Answer: (D) Vidya Balan
Explanation
Vidya Balan played the lead role in the biographical film Shakuntala Devi, which was released in 2020. The movie highlights the life of the world-renowned mathematician often called the Human Computer for her remarkable mental arithmetic skills. The narrative follows her life from being a child prodigy to achieving global fame and setting a Guinness World Record. Balan's performance captures the mathematician's vibrant spirit and her efforts to manage the complexities of her career and personal life.
28Polity and Governance
G. C. Murmu, who was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in August 2020, was the Lieutenant Governor/Administrator of which one of the following Union Territories prior to this appointment?
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Answer: (B) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation
Girish Chandra Murmu served as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir from October 31, 2019, until August 2020. His tenure began when the Union Territory was formally created following the reorganization of the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Upon his resignation from this administrative post, he was appointed by the President of India as the 14th Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India on August 8, 2020, succeeding Rajiv Mehrishi in the constitutional role defined under Article 148.
29Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States is planned to host the Khelo India Youth Games (4th Edition)?
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Answer: (B) Haryana
Explanation
The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports announced in July 2020 that Haryana would host the fourth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games. The games were scheduled to be held in Panchkula following the Tokyo Olympics. The decision to award the hosting rights to Haryana was influenced by the state's strong sporting culture and its consistent performance in previous editions, having won the inaugural trophy in 2018 and finishing second in both 2019 and 2020. This multi-sport event is a joint initiative between the Central Government and the host state to identify and nurture young sporting talent across India.
30Geography
Which one among the following is not a coral reef island?
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Answer: (D) Kyushu Island, Japan
Explanation
Kyushu is the third-largest of the four main islands of Japan and is geologically classified as a volcanic island. It is situated in a tectonically active zone where the subduction of the Philippine Sea Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate has created significant volcanic activity. The island features several prominent active volcanoes, including Mount Aso, which possesses one of the largest calderas in the world. Coral reef islands, or cays, are typically low-lying landforms composed of organic sediment derived from the calcium carbonate skeletons of coral polyps and other marine organisms. Kyushu, however, is a massive landmass with high-relief mountainous terrain formed by tectonic uplift and igneous processes. While the warm Kuroshio Current supports coral communities in the marine environment off the southern coast of Kyushu, the island's fundamental geological structure is volcanic and continental rather than coralline in origin.
31Economy
Since 2014-15, India has consistently run trade surplus with which one among the following countries?
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Answer: (C) USA
Explanation
India has consistently maintained a trade surplus with the USA since the 2014-15 fiscal year. The United States is one of the few major economies with which India regularly exports more than it imports. This positive trade balance is sustained by significant Indian exports in key sectors including information technology services, pharmaceutical products, precious stones, and textiles. According to data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the USA became India's top trading partner in 2018-19, and the surplus has persisted as Indian goods and services find a large market in the American economy, outweighing India's imports of energy, aircraft, and electronic goods from the US.
32Economy
Arrange the following countries in descending order as per the Global Human Development Index, 2019:
1. Germany
2. USA
3. South Africa
4. India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation
The Human Development Report 2019, released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), ranks countries based on the Human Development Index (HDI) using indicators of life expectancy, education, and per capita income. In the 2019 report, Germany was ranked 4th globally with an HDI score of 0.939, while the USA was ranked 15th with a score of 0.920. Both these nations were classified in the Very High Human Development category. South Africa was ranked 113th with an HDI score of 0.705, placing it in the High Human Development category. India was ranked 129th with an HDI score of 0.647, which placed it in the Medium Human Development category. Consequently, the descending order of these countries by HDI value is Germany (1), USA (2), South Africa (3), and India (4).
33Economy
As per the use-based classification of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the maximum weight has been assigned to
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Answer: (A) primary goods
Explanation
In the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) with the 2011-12 base year, primary goods hold the highest weightage at 34.05 percent. This category encompasses essential items like mining products, electricity, and fuels which serve as the basic inputs for industrial activity. The use-based classification was designed to track the performance of goods based on their end-use, and primary goods are prioritized with the largest weight because they represent the foundational stage of the production cycle. Consequently, the production volume of these goods has the most significant impact on the total IIP compared to any other use-based group.
34Economy
Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand curve when
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Answer: (A) price of a commodity falls
Explanation
In microeconomics, a distinction is made between a movement along the demand curve and a shift of the demand curve. A movement along the curve, known as a change in quantity demanded, occurs solely due to a change in the price of the commodity itself, ceteris paribus. When the price of a commodity falls, consumers increase their quantity demanded, resulting in a downward movement along the existing demand curve rather than creating a new one. In contrast, a shift in the demand curve, known as a change in demand, is caused by changes in non-price determinants such as consumer income, tastes and preferences, population size, or the prices of related goods. Because a change in the price of the commodity only alters the quantity demanded at different points on the same curve, it does not cause the curve to shift its position.
35Economy
A market, in which there are a large number of firms, homogeneous product, infinite elasticity of demand for an individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as
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Answer: (D) perfect competition
Explanation
Perfect competition is a market structure defined by several specific conditions that eliminate market power for individual participants. A large number of buyers and sellers ensures that no single firm has a significant market share. The products offered by all firms are homogeneous or perfectly standardized, meaning there is no product differentiation in the eyes of the consumer. Because products are identical, the individual firm acts as a price taker, accepting the equilibrium price established by the intersection of total market supply and demand. This results in an individual firm facing a horizontal demand curve, which represents an infinite price elasticity of demand (ε = ∞). Mathematically, the firm's marginal revenue (MR) and average revenue (AR) are equal to the market price (P), such that P = MR = AR. Since the firm can sell any quantity at the market price but nothing at a higher price, it has absolutely no control over the price of its product.
36Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to ozone is not correct?
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Answer: (C) 16th November is celebrated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.
Explanation
The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is observed annually on 16 September, not 16 November. This date was designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 1994 to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, which occurred on 16 September 1987. The day is intended to spread awareness about the depletion of the ozone layer and the global efforts to protect it through the regulation of ozone-depleting substances.
37Geography
Sea of Azov is connected to
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Answer: (A) Black Sea
Explanation
The Sea of Azov is connected to the Black Sea via the Kerch Strait, which is a narrow passage approximately 4 kilometers wide at its narrowest point. This strait serves as the only natural outlet for the Sea of Azov, making it a northern extension of the Black Sea basin. Geographically, the Sea of Azov is bounded by Ukraine to the north and west and by Russia to the east, with the Crimean Peninsula forming its southern boundary along the strait.
38Geography
Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is located in
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Answer: (B) USA
Explanation
The Climax mine is a major molybdenum mine located near Leadville, Colorado, in the United States. Situated at an elevation of approximately 11,360 feet on Fremont Pass, it sits atop a massive porphyry molybdenum deposit within the Colorado Mineral Belt. For much of the 20th century, it was the primary global source of molybdenum, an element essential for alloying steel to increase strength and corrosion resistance. Operated by Freeport-McMoRan, the facility includes both open-pit and underground mining operations along with a dedicated milling and processing plant to produce molybdenum concentrate.
39Geography
Which one among the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in geographical area?
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Answer: (D) Lakshadweep
Explanation
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands scattered over the Arabian Sea. The total land area of this Union Territory is approximately 32 km². It consists of 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks, and ten inhabited islands. The administrative headquarters is located in Kavaratti, which is also one of the primary islands of the group. Due to its small geographical footprint, it remains the most compact administrative unit in the country.
40Geography
Buenos Aires and Montevideo are situated across the banks of
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Answer: (A) River Plate
Explanation
The Rio de la Plata, commonly referred to in English as the River Plate, is a large estuary formed by the confluence of the Parana and Uruguay Rivers. It serves as a natural boundary between Argentina and Uruguay. Buenos Aires, the capital of Argentina, is situated on the southern shore of the estuary, while Montevideo, the capital of Uruguay, is located on the northern shore. This body of water is a vital maritime gateway for both nations, facilitating significant trade and transportation before emptying into the South Atlantic Ocean.
41Geography
The largest barrier reef system in the world is found at
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Answer: (A) East Australian Coast
Explanation
The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest coral reef system, comprising over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for over 2,300 kilometres. It is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia. This vast biological structure is situated along the East Australian Coast, running parallel to the shoreline from the northern tip of Queensland down to the southern coastal regions near Bundaberg. Its position on the eastern continental shelf provides the shallow, warm, and clear waters necessary for the growth of the diverse coral species that form the reef.
42History
During the 19th century, who among the following wrote Satapatra Series?
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Answer: (D) G. H. Deshmukh
Explanation
Gopal Hari Deshmukh, widely recognized by his pen name Lokhitwadi, was a prominent 19th-century social reformer from Maharashtra. He authored the Satapatra series, also known as Shatapatre (literally meaning hundred letters), which actually comprised 108 essays published in the Marathi weekly journal Prabhakar between 1848 and 1850. Through these letters, Deshmukh conducted a scathing critique of the social and religious conditions of the time, targeting the rigid caste system, priestly dominance, and superstitious practices. He advocated for a modern, rational society based on Western education, scientific thought, and social equality. His writings were pivotal in initiating the social reform movement in Western India, urging people to embrace progress and self-reliance to improve the nation's condition.
43History
Which one of the following was not a demand made by the Congress moderates?
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Answer: (A) Universal adult franchise
Explanation
The Moderates within the Indian National Congress, representing the early phase from 1885 to 1905, did not demand universal adult franchise. Their political strategy was rooted in the belief that India needed a period of political training and gradual constitutional progression under British guidance. Consequently, they sought limited reforms such as the expansion and reform of the Legislative Councils and the inclusion of more Indian representatives through a restricted franchise based on criteria like education, property, or tax-paying status. They believed the Indian masses were not yet politically conscious or prepared for a system of universal suffrage, and thus they focused their efforts on securing a larger role for the educated middle class in the governance of the country.
44History
Who among the following founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association (1893)?
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Answer: (C) Theodore Beck
Explanation
Theodore Beck, the Principal of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh, founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association of Upper India in 1893. Beck served as the secretary of this association, which was established to safeguard the political rights of the Muslim community and to foster a spirit of loyalty toward the British government. The formation of the association was a strategic move to counter the rising influence of the Indian National Congress and to discourage Muslims from participating in the nationalist movement, thereby aligning Muslim political interests closely with British administrative support.
45History
After the First World War, the Triveni Sangh was formed by
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Answer: (D) the Ahirs and Kurmis
Explanation
The Triveni Sangh was an influential socio-political coalition formed in the early 1930s in the Shahabad district of Bihar, representing the growing political consciousness among backward castes after the First World War. It was primarily a solidarity pact between the Ahirs (Yadavs), Kurmis, and Koeris, who sought to challenge the traditional social and economic hegemony of upper-caste landed elites. The organization advocated for social reform, educational advancement, and greater political representation for the middle-peasantry. By uniting these numerically significant agrarian communities, the Triveni Sangh laid the foundational groundwork for modern social justice movements and backward class politics in North India.
46History
Who among the following was the first to accept a ministerial position in the Central Provinces in October 1925?
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Answer: (C) S. B. Tambe
Explanation
S. B. Tambe was a leader of the Swaraj Party in the Central Provinces who accepted an appointment as a member of the Governor's Executive Council in October 1925. This act was the first instance of a Swarajist taking up a ministerial-level position in the colonial administration, signaling a shift toward the policy of Responsive Cooperation. His acceptance of the post was seen as a breach of the party's official stance of wrecking the councils from within, and it served as the immediate cause for the open split between the orthodox Swarajists and the Responsivist faction.
47History
Who among the following formed the National Liberation Federation (Liberal Party)?
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Answer: (C) T. B. Sapru and M. R. Jayakar
Explanation
The National Liberation Federation, also known as the Indian National Liberal Federation, was formed in 1919 by moderate leaders who left the Indian National Congress after the adoption of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. Tej Bahadur Sapru and M. R. Jayakar were the most distinguished leaders of this party. They believed in constitutional agitation and collaboration with the British government to gradually achieve self-government for India. The party played a significant role as a mediating force during political stalemates, and its leaders were key participants in the Round Table Conferences held in London to discuss constitutional reforms for India.
48Polity and Governance
The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Ministry of
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Answer: (B) Home Affairs
Explanation
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, established through the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is mandated to lay down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management to ensure a timely and effective response to disasters. The NDMA functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Prime Minister of India serves as its ex-officio Chairperson, overseeing a multi-tiered institutional mechanism that includes State Disaster Management Authorities and District Disaster Management Authorities to streamline disaster risk reduction and relief operations across the country.
49History
The socialist idea of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) was proposed by
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Answer: (A) Ram Manohar Lohia
Explanation
The socialist idea of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) was proposed by Ram Manohar Lohia. He was a prominent socialist thinker and political leader who envisioned a comprehensive transformation of society through seven simultaneous revolutions. These revolutions targeted gender inequality, racial discrimination, caste-based hierarchies, foreign colonial rule, economic inequality, encroachment on individual privacy by the state, and the reliance on weapons in favor of non-violent civil disobedience. Lohia believed that traditional class-based socialist struggles were insufficient for the Indian context, necessitating this broader approach to achieve total justice, social equality, and human dignity.
50Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a character of a secular State?
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Answer: (C) A State in order to be secular must be democratic.
Explanation
Secularism is defined by the separation of religious institutions from the state and the neutrality of the government toward religious beliefs. This political arrangement does not inherently require a specific form of government. While secularism is a common feature of modern liberal democracies, it can also exist in non-democratic or authoritarian regimes. A state is considered secular if it does not have an official religion and keeps its legislative and executive functions independent of religious authority, regardless of whether the political power is derived through democratic processes or other means.
51Polity and Governance
A special address by the Governor refers to the address delivered by the Governor
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Answer: (C) at the commencement of the first session after general election and at the first session of each year
Explanation
Under Article 176 of the Constitution of India, the Governor delivers a special address to the State Legislature at two specific junctures. The first is at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly, and the second is at the commencement of the first session of every year. In the case of a bicameral legislature, the Governor addresses both Houses assembled together. This address is used to inform the legislature of the causes of its summons and serves as a statement of the state government's policies and legislative program for the upcoming year. This procedure is analogous to the Presidential address to both Houses of Parliament under Article 87.
52Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements in relation to Panchayats is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs has nothing to do with proportion of their population.
Explanation
Article 243D of the Constitution of India provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat. The number of seats reserved for these categories must bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat as the population of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes in that Panchayat area bears to the total population of that area. This constitutional mandate ensures that representation is mathematically linked to the demographic strength of these communities within the jurisdiction.
53Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to 'protective democracy' is not correct?
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Answer: (A) It propounds that citizen participation is essential in democracies.
Explanation
Protective democracy is a classical liberal model of governance, primarily associated with thinkers such as John Locke, Jeremy Bentham, and James Mill. It conceptualizes democracy as a mechanism for protecting citizens from the arbitrary use of power by the state and for safeguarding individual liberty and private property. In this model, the role of the citizen is largely passive and instrumental; participation is not viewed as an essential virtue or a requirement for human development. Instead, it is seen as a necessary burden or a defensive tool exercised through periodic voting to ensure that the government remains accountable and does not infringe upon the private sphere.
The concept of participation being essential to the democratic process is more accurately attributed to the developmental model of democracy, championed by John Stuart Mill, or the participatory model, which argues that active involvement is necessary for personal growth and the health of the community. Protective democracy prioritizes constitutional checks, the rule of law, and a clear distinction between state and society, often favoring a representative system that minimizes mass political involvement to prevent the tyranny of the majority. It is fundamentally aligned with laissez-faire capitalism and views political equality strictly in formal terms, such as the equal right to vote, rather than through substantive or active engagement in policy-making.
54Science and Technology
In August 2020, a blast has taken place at Beirut killing about one hundred people and thousand wounded. The blast was caused by
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Answer: (B) ammonium nitrate
Explanation
The massive explosion at the Port of Beirut on August 4, 2020, was caused by the accidental detonation of approximately 2,750 tonnes of ammonium nitrate (NH₄NO₃). This chemical compound is commonly used as a high-nitrogen fertilizer and as an oxidizing agent in industrial explosives. The material had been stored unsafely in Hangar 12 for six years after being confiscated from a cargo ship in 2013. Ammonium nitrate is generally stable but can become highly explosive when contaminated or subjected to intense heat, which triggers a rapid decomposition process and a powerful supersonic shockwave. The resulting blast was one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosions in history, causing over 200 deaths and thousands of injuries.
55Science and Technology
What is 'Little Boy'?
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Answer: (A) The fission bomb dropped at Hiroshima
Explanation
Little Boy was the codename for the atomic bomb dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on August 6, 1945, during the final stages of World War II. Developed by the United States under the Manhattan Project, it was the first nuclear weapon used in active combat. It was a gun-type fission weapon that utilized enriched uranium-235 as its fissile material. The bomb was delivered by the B-29 Superfortress bomber named Enola Gay, piloted by Colonel Paul Tibbets. The weapon worked by using a conventional explosive charge to fire a sub-critical cylinder of uranium-235 into a second sub-critical mass, reaching supercriticality and initiating a nuclear chain reaction that released approximately 15 kilotons of energy.
56Science and Technology
Which one of the following Indian institutes was approved by the Drugs Controller General of India for conducting human trials of the Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine candidate?
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Answer: (C) Serum Institute of India
Explanation
The Serum Institute of India entered into a strategic partnership with the University of Oxford and the pharmaceutical firm AstraZeneca to manufacture and conduct human clinical trials for their COVID-19 vaccine candidate, ChAdOx1 nCoV-19. In August 2020, the Drugs Controller General of India approved the institute's application to proceed with Phase 2 and 3 human trials in India. This collaboration ensured that the vaccine, which was eventually branded as Covishield, would be produced at scale for the Indian population and other regions globally.
57Science and Technology
The recent explosion near OIL well in Baghjan is due to
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Answer: (A) removing the spool during the blowout control operations
Explanation
The Baghjan oil well blowout occurred at Well Number 5 in the Tinsukia district of Assam in May 2020. While Oil India Limited (OIL) was conducting workover operations to reach new producing sands, the well suddenly started emitting natural gas uncontrollably. The situation escalated into a massive fire and explosion on June 9, 2020. This disaster was triggered during the blowout control operations when experts and engineers were attempting to clear debris and remove the spool to facilitate the installation of a new Blowout Preventer (BOP) stack. The friction or sparks generated during these mechanical operations on the wellhead equipment ignited the highly flammable natural gas that had been leaking for several days, leading to a catastrophic fire that impacted the surrounding environment and the nearby Maguri-Motapung Beel.
58Art and Culture
Who among the following is the architect of the Ram Temple being constructed at Ayodhya?
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Answer: (B) Chandrakant Sompura
Explanation
Chandrakant Sompura is the lead architect of the Ram Janmabhoomi Temple in Ayodhya. He belongs to the Sompura family of Ahmedabad, which has a multi-generational legacy of temple architecture spanning over fifteen generations. His grandfather, Prabhashankar Sompura, was the architect of the Somnath Temple in Gujarat. The Ram Temple design, originally conceived in the late 1980s and later modified, adheres to the Nagara style of Hindu temple architecture, characterized by its curvilinear towers or shikharas. Chandrakant Sompura, working alongside his sons Ashish and Nikhil Sompura, developed the architectural blueprints for the three-story structure designed to be built using carved sandstone without the use of iron.
59Geography
Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn?
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Answer: (D) Uruguay
Explanation
Uruguay is situated entirely in the temperate zone of South America, with its territory extending from approximately 30° S to 35° S latitude. Since the Tropic of Capricorn is positioned at approximately 23.5° S latitude, it remains well to the north of the Uruguayan border. Uruguay lies completely south of this latitude and does not have the line passing through any part of its landmass.
60Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Active Volcano)
List-II (Location)
A. Mount Merapi 1. Hawaii
B. Sakurajima 2. Italy
C. Mount Vesuvius 3. Japan
D. Mauna Loa 4. Indonesia
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Mount Merapi is an active stratovolcano located on the border between Central Java and the Special Region of Yogyakarta, Indonesia. Sakurajima is a highly active volcano and a former island in Kagoshima Prefecture, Japan, frequently emitting ash clouds. Mount Vesuvius is located on the Gulf of Naples in Campania, Italy, and is the only volcano on the European mainland to have erupted within the last hundred years. Mauna Loa is one of the five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii, and it is traditionally considered the largest subaerial volcano in the world.
61Geography
Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate?
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Answer: (A) Saudi Arabian plate
Explanation
The Earth's lithosphere is divided into seven major tectonic plates and several minor ones based on their size and tectonic activity. The Saudi Arabian plate, often referred to simply as the Arabian plate, is classified as a minor tectonic plate. It covers approximately 5 million square kilometers, which is significantly smaller than the major plates that typically cover tens of millions of square kilometers. This plate consists primarily of the Arabian peninsula and parts of the surrounding seafloor, situated between the larger African, Eurasian, and Indian plates. In contrast, major plates like the Pacific plate or the Antarctica plate encompass entire continents or vast sections of the Earth's oceanic crust.
62Geography
Which one of the following is considered as the deepest point of the oceans?
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Answer: (B) Mariana Trench
Explanation
The Mariana Trench, located in the western Pacific Ocean, contains the Challenger Deep, which is the deepest known point in Earth's hydrosphere. Bathymetric surveys and oceanic explorations have recorded depths reaching approximately 10,994 meters below sea level. This geological feature is a result of an oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundary where the Pacific Plate is subducted beneath the Mariana Plate. The immense pressure and extreme conditions at this depth make it one of the most significant areas for geophysical and marine biological study.
63Science and Technology
The four planets closest to the Sun are called
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Answer: (A) terrestrial planets
Explanation
The four planets closest to the Sun—Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars—are classified as terrestrial planets. These inner planets are characterized by their solid, rocky surfaces and are primarily composed of silicate rocks or metals. Unlike the outer planets, terrestrial planets have a dense metallic core, usually composed of iron, and a silicate mantle. They are also defined by their relatively small sizes, high densities, and lack of extensive ring systems or numerous moons. Their proximity to the Sun during the early formation of the solar system meant that only substances with high melting points, like rock and metal, could condense into solid forms, leading to their distinct rocky composition.
64Geography
Which one of the following countries does not have Tundra vegetation?
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Answer: (A) Belarus
Explanation
Belarus is a landlocked country in Eastern Europe situated between approximately 51 degrees N and 56 degrees N latitude. Its climate is moderate continental, which supports temperate broadleaf and mixed forests rather than Arctic vegetation. The country is well-known for its extensive marshes, such as the Pripet Marshes, and dense forest tracts like the Bialowieza Forest. Tundra vegetation is characteristic of high-latitude Arctic regions or high-altitude alpine zones where the subsoil is permanently frozen (permafrost) and tree growth is hindered by low temperatures and short growing seasons. Belarus lacks both the Arctic geographical positioning and the high-elevation mountain ranges necessary to sustain a Tundra biome.
65Geography
Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform?
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Answer: (A) Cirque
Explanation
A cirque is a bowl-shaped, amphitheatre-like depression formed by the process of glacial erosion. It is typically located at the head of a mountain glacier where snow accumulates and turns into ice. The glacier deepens the floor through plucking and abrasion, while frost shattering steepens the surrounding rock walls. As a result, it is a characteristic landform of glaciated mountain regions rather than being formed by the action of running water.
66Art and Culture
In the Gandhara School of Art, initially blue schist and green phyllite were used. When did stucco completely replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School sculptors?
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Answer: (D) 5th century CE
Explanation
The Gandhara School of Art evolved significantly in its choice of materials over several centuries. During its early phase, which flourished from the 1st to the 3rd century CE, sculptors primarily utilized grey-blue schist and green phyllite stone to create Buddhist iconography. However, as the school progressed into its later phase, there was a decisive shift toward the use of stucco, a mixture of lime, sand, and plaster. Stucco offered greater flexibility for molding intricate details and was more cost-effective for large-scale production in monastic complexes. By the 5th century CE, stucco had almost entirely replaced stone as the standard material for Gandhara sculptors, marking the final artistic peak of the region before the Huna invasions led to its decline.
67Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about Gupta coins is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas were of copper.
Explanation
The Gupta Empire is renowned for issuing the largest number of gold coins in ancient Indian history, which are referred to as Dinars in various contemporary inscriptions. While the Guptas did mint silver and copper coins, the copper issues are surprisingly rare and represent only a small fraction of their total numismatic output. In contrast to the preceding Kushana period, where copper was the most common metal used for coinage to facilitate local trade, the Gupta monetary system focused heavily on high-value gold currency. Therefore, the claim that copper coins were the most numerous type issued by the Gupta kings is factually incorrect.
68History
Who among the following wrote The Philosophy of the Bomb?
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Answer: (C) Bhagwati Charan Vohra
Explanation
The Philosophy of the Bomb was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra, a prominent revolutionary and intellectual member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). It was drafted in 1930 as a direct ideological response to Mahatma Gandhi's article titled The Cult of the Bomb, which had criticized the revolutionary methods following the attempt to blow up Viceroy Lord Irwin's train in December 1929. In this manifesto, Vohra defended the use of revolutionary violence as a necessary means to achieve complete independence and establish a socialist order, arguing that such actions were not motivated by hatred but by a love for humanity and a desire for justice. The document served as a crucial ideological statement for the HSRA, clarifying their objectives and distinguishing their revolutionary philosophy from mere terrorism.
69History
At which one of the following Sessions of the Indian National Congress was the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy passed?
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Answer: (D) Karachi Session
Explanation
The Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress, held in March 1931 under the presidency of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, is significant for adopting the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Drafted primarily by Jawaharlal Nehru, these resolutions outlined the socio-economic vision of independent India. The resolution on Fundamental Rights guaranteed civil liberties such as freedom of speech, press, and assembly, as well as religious neutrality and protection of minorities. The National Economic Programme included provisions for labor rights, land reforms, and the state's role in key industries, representing a shift toward defining Swaraj in social and economic terms for the masses.
70History
Which one of the following towns was not a centre of the Revolt of 1857?
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Answer: (B) Agra
Explanation
The Revolt of 1857 was concentrated in specific regions of Northern and Central India where rebel leaders established autonomous control or designated headquarters. Delhi served as the primary symbolic and political center after mutineers proclaimed Bahadur Shah Zafar the Emperor of India. Kanpur emerged as a major stronghold under the leadership of Nana Sahib, Rao Sahib, and Tantia Tope. Ayodhya, situated in the heart of the Awadh region and adjacent to Faizabad, was a core area of the uprising led by figures such as Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah. In contrast, while Agra witnessed a mutiny of the local native infantry and significant civil disturbances, it did not become a rebel-controlled center. The British administration and the European population successfully retreated into the Agra Fort, maintaining their presence throughout the conflict. Unlike the other towns mentioned, Agra was never occupied or used as a base of operations by the revolutionary leadership.
71History
Consider the following statements :
The Azamgarh Proclamation refers to
1. the declaration by the rebels of 1857
2. the statement by the leader of the underground movement in the Revolt of 1942
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Azamgarh Proclamation was issued on August 25, 1857, during the Great Indian Revolt. It is attributed to Mirza Firoz Shah, a grandson of the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar, and acted as a manifesto to rally support from various sections of Indian society. The proclamation specifically outlined the grievances of zamindars, merchants, public servants, artisans, and religious leaders against British colonial policies, promising the restoration of their rights and interests under a revived Mughal administration. As this document is a primary source for understanding the objectives of the 1857 rebels, it bears no relation to the leadership or statements of the underground movement during the Quit India Movement of 1942. Consequently, the first statement is a correct historical attribution, while the second statement is incorrect.
72History
Ibn Batuta went to China as the envoy of which one of the following Delhi Sultans?
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Answer: (B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
Explanation
Ibn Battuta, the Moroccan traveler, arrived in India in 1333 AD during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq. Impressed by his scholarship, the Sultan appointed him as the Qazi of Delhi, a position he held for several years. In 1342 AD, Muhammad bin Tughluq appointed Ibn Battuta as his official envoy to the court of the Mongol Emperor of China, Togon Temür of the Yuan dynasty. This mission was initiated in response to a request from the Chinese emperor concerning the reconstruction of a Buddhist temple in the Himalayan region. Ibn Battuta's famous travelogue, the Rihla, records his experiences during this diplomatic journey and offers extensive insights into the administration and social conditions of the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughluq.
73History
Al-Biruni's Kitab-ul-Hind was written in which language?
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Answer: (A) Arabic
Explanation
Al-Biruni was a distinguished 11th-century scholar from Khwarizm who accompanied Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni to the Indian subcontinent. He wrote his magnum opus, Kitab-ul-Hind, in Arabic, which was the standard language for scientific and scholarly discourse across the Islamic world during the Middle Ages. The book provides an exhaustive and systematic account of Indian religion, philosophy, astronomy, social laws, and customs, reflecting Al-Biruni's mastery of the Arabic language to convey complex cross-cultural observations and his objective approach to studying foreign civilizations.
74Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct?
1. Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
2. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
3. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and criminal prosecution.
4. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of speech even in his/her private or personal capacity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Parliamentary privileges in India are governed by Article 105 for the Parliament and Article 194 for State Legislatures. According to the Supreme Court ruling in the M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha case (1959), also known as the Searchlight case, the privileges of the House are not limited by the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). The Court held that the specific constitutional provisions regarding privileges are not subordinate to the general fundamental right of free speech.
The scope of these privileges was further clarified in the Keshav Singh case (1965), where the Supreme Court held that while Article 19(1)(a) does not fetter privileges, they are subject to the fundamental rights enshrined in Articles 20, 21, and 22. This means the House cannot deprive a person of life or personal liberty without following a procedure established by law that is fair and just. Furthermore, the right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 for the enforcement of fundamental rights is a part of the basic structure and cannot be excluded by parliamentary privileges, allowing judicial review of whether the exercise of a privilege violates these specific constitutional protections.
75Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary Committees is correct?
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Answer: (D) The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Explanation
According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, a Parliamentary Committee is defined as a committee that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker or the Chairman. Specifically, Rule 254 of the Lok Sabha states that the members of a committee shall be appointed or elected by the House on a motion made and adopted, or nominated by the Speaker, as the case may be. This multiple-method approach is utilized depending on the nature of the committee. For example, members of the three Financial Committees—the Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee, and the Committee on Public Undertakings—are elected by the House through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. In contrast, members of committees such as the Business Advisory Committee, the Committee on Petitions, and the Rules Committee are nominated by the Presiding Officer of the respective House. This procedural framework ensures that the composition of committees aligns with the requirements of parliamentary oversight and representation.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a classified category of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India?
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Answer: (C) Regional Parties
Explanation
The term Regional Parties is a colloquial or academic label used to describe political parties with a localized geographic base, but it is not an official category recognized by the Election Commission of India. The Commission classifies political parties for the purpose of symbol allotment based on specific electoral performance criteria under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. In the official regulatory framework, parties are assigned specific technical designations that do not include the word regional. Any party focused on a specific region is legally classified under different nomenclature depending on its recognition status in a particular state or across the country.
77Polity and Governance
Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional Amendment, 1976?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Integrity
4. Fraternity
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, introduced significant changes to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by adding three new words: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. Before this amendment, the Preamble described India as a Sovereign Democratic Republic. The amendment modified this description to Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. Furthermore, the amendment expanded the phrase unity of the Nation to unity and integrity of the Nation. These changes were aimed at explicitly stating the socialist and secular nature of the Indian polity and stressing the importance of maintaining the country's geographical and emotional integrity. While the concept of fraternity was part of the original Preamble adopted in 1949, it was not one of the terms added by the 1976 amendment.
78Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
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Answer: (A) B. N. Rau
Explanation
Sir B. N. Rau was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in 1946. A distinguished jurist and statesman, he was responsible for preparing the initial draft of the Indian Constitution, which formed the basis for the subsequent deliberations of the Drafting Committee. Rau undertook extensive research by visiting several countries, including the United States, Canada, Ireland, and the United Kingdom, to study their constitutional frameworks and incorporate best practices into the Indian draft. His expertise and meticulous legal drafting were fundamental in shaping the structural and legal foundations of the Constitution before it was finalized by the assembly.
79Polity and Governance
In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by
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Answer: (C) the Supreme Court and High Courts only
Explanation
Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Similarly, Article 226 grants the High Courts the authority to issue these writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal purpose. Although Article 32(3) allows Parliament to authorize any other court to exercise these powers within its local limits, no such law has been enacted to extend writ jurisdiction to lower courts. Consequently, the power to issue writs is vested solely in the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
80Polity and Governance
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Part II
Explanation
Part II of the Constitution of India, encompassing Articles 5 to 11, specifically addresses the subject of citizenship. While Articles 5 to 10 define who became a citizen at the time of the Constitution's commencement on January 26, 1950, Article 11 grants the Parliament the plenary power to regulate the right of citizenship by law. This includes the authority to make provisions for the acquisition and termination of citizenship. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act is a legislative enactment passed by the Parliament under the mandate of Article 11, thereby placing the legal framework and amendments regarding citizenship squarely within the constitutional domain of Part II.
81Geography
Recently a rare kind of yellow turtle was discovered in India. The State in which it was seen is
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Answer: (B) Odisha
Explanation
In July 2020, a rare yellow turtle was discovered by residents of Sajanpur village in the Balasore district of Odisha. Wildlife experts identified the specimen as an albino Indian Flapshell turtle (Lissemys punctata). The distinct yellow coloration is caused by albinism, a genetic condition resulting from a lack of tyrosine and melanin pigment. While the Indian Flapshell turtle is widely distributed across the Indian subcontinent, this specific leucistic or albino variation is extremely uncommon in natural habitats. The turtle was subsequently handed over to the Forest Department for documentation and protection.
The ASEEM portal, which stands for Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping, was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in July 2020. This Artificial Intelligence-based platform serves as a comprehensive directory of the skilled workforce to bridge the demand-supply gap in the labor market. By mapping the profiles of workers with the specific requirements of industries, it provides a digital interface for skilled individuals to access sustainable livelihood opportunities and assists employers in identifying and recruiting the right talent based on regional and local demand patterns.
83Polity and Governance
The Government of India programme regarding 'Stay in India and Study in India' is initiated by
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Answer: (C) the Ministry of Education
Explanation
The Stay in India and Study in India initiative was launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly the Ministry of Human Resource Development) in 2020. The programme was specifically conceptualized during the COVID-19 pandemic to address the needs of Indian students who were planning to study abroad but were forced to stay in the country due to travel restrictions and health concerns. To implement this, a committee was formed under the chairmanship of the University Grants Commission (UGC) Chairman to prepare a strategy for increasing the intake of international students and ensuring that more Indian students remain in the country for higher education. The goal is to develop India into a global education hub by improving institutional capacity and providing world-class educational opportunities domestically.
84Geography
Which one of the following lakes in India has a large quantity of a substance found in the Moon?
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Answer: (A) Lonar Lake, Maharashtra
Explanation
Lonar Lake, situated in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra, is a unique saline and alkaline lake created by a hyper-velocity meteorite impact in basaltic rock during the Pleistocene Epoch. It is one of the few such craters on Earth, making its geology remarkably similar to the lunar surface, specifically the lunar maria, which are also composed of basalt. A key substance found at Lonar Lake that is also present in lunar samples is Maskelynite. Maskelynite is a type of natural glass formed when plagioclase feldspar is subjected to extreme shock pressures during a meteorite impact. While rare on Earth, it is a common constituent of lunar rocks and certain meteorites, and its presence at Lonar makes the site a significant terrestrial analogue for studying lunar cratering processes and mineralogy.
85Science and Technology
The Pragyan rover installed in Chandrayaan-2 mission had how many wheels?
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Answer: (D) 6
Explanation
The Pragyan rover of the Chandrayaan-2 mission was a six-wheeled robotic vehicle designed for lunar exploration. It employed a rocker-bogie suspension system, a mechanism specifically engineered to traverse rugged and uneven terrain by distributing weight across its six wheels. This configuration ensured that the rover maintained stability and constant contact with the ground while navigating obstacles or slopes on the Moon's surface. The rover was powered by solar energy and intended to perform in-situ chemical analysis of the lunar soil using its onboard scientific payloads.
86Science and Technology
If the linear momentum of a moving object gets doubled due to application of a force, then its kinetic energy will
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Answer: (B) increase by four times
Explanation
The relationship between the kinetic energy K and the linear momentum p of an object of mass m is expressed by the formula K = p²/2m. This expression is derived from the standard kinetic energy formula K = 1/2mv² and the definition of linear momentum p = mv. According to this relation, kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of the momentum (K ∝ p²). If the linear momentum of the object is doubled, the new momentum becomes p' = 2p. Substituting this value into the kinetic energy equation, the new kinetic energy K' is calculated as K' = (2p)²/2m = 4p²/2m = 4K. Since the energy scales with the square of the momentum, a two-fold increase in momentum leads to a four-fold increase in kinetic energy.
87Science and Technology
If the distance between two objects is increased by two times, the gravitational force between them will
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Answer: (D) decrease by four times
Explanation
According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, the force F between two objects is defined by the formula F = G m₁m₂/r², where G is the gravitational constant, m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the objects, and r is the distance between their centers. This formula shows that the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the two objects, expressed as F ∝ 1/r². If the distance r is increased by two times, the new distance becomes 2r. Plugging this into the proportionality, the new force F' becomes proportional to 1/(2r)², which simplifies to 1/4r². Because the square of the factor of increase in distance is 2² = 4, the resulting gravitational force is exactly one-fourth of the original force.
88Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about the properties of neutrons is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Neutrons revolve around the atomic nuclei.
Explanation
Neutrons are subatomic particles that, along with protons, constitute the atomic nucleus. They are bound within this central core by the strong nuclear force and do not possess the kinetic energy or physical positioning required to orbit the nucleus. The particles that revolve around the atomic nucleus in discrete energy levels or orbitals are electrons, which are held in place by electromagnetic attraction to the positively charged protons. Therefore, the assertion that neutrons revolve around the nucleus is physically inaccurate.
89Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements with regard to the ultraviolet light is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It is a longitudinal wave.
Explanation
Ultraviolet light is a component of the electromagnetic spectrum. All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, meaning the oscillations of the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of the wave's advance. Longitudinal waves are characterized by oscillations that occur parallel to the direction of propagation, a property seen in mechanical waves like sound. Since ultraviolet radiation consists of electromagnetic fields and does not require a medium for propagation, it does not possess the characteristics of a longitudinal wave.
90Science and Technology
If the speed of light in air is represented by c and the speed in a medium is v , then the refractive index of the medium can be calculated using the formula
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Answer: (B) c/v
Explanation
The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum (or air) to the speed of light in that specific medium. This value represents the factor by which the speed of light is reduced when it enters a denser medium from a vacuum. The relationship is expressed by the formula:
n = c/v
In this equation, n denotes the refractive index, c is the speed of light in air or vacuum, and v is the speed of light in the medium. Since the speed of light is greatest in a vacuum, the refractive index for any physical medium is always greater than 1. This dimensionless quantity is fundamental in optics for calculating how light rays bend (refract) when crossing the interface between two materials of different optical densities.
91Science and Technology
Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following individuals are predominantly aquatic?
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Answer: (B) Algae
Explanation
Algae are a large and diverse group of simple, thalloid, and autotrophic organisms within the Kingdom Plantae that are predominantly aquatic. They occur in a wide variety of habitats, ranging from freshwater bodies like ponds and lakes to marine environments such as oceans and seas. Their anatomical structure is relatively primitive, lacking specialized vascular tissues like xylem and phloem, which are necessary for terrestrial life. Instead, they rely on the surrounding water for physical support, nutrient absorption, and the dispersal of reproductive cells. Because their life cycle and physiological processes are fundamentally tied to water, they represent the primary aquatic lineage of the plant kingdom.
92Science and Technology
All the individuals of a particular organism, such as rose plants, belong to a taxonomic category called
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Answer: (A) species
Explanation
In the biological hierarchy of classification, a species is the fundamental and basic unit of taxonomy. It comprises a group of individual organisms that share high degrees of morphological and genetic similarity and possess the ability to interbreed among themselves under natural conditions to produce fertile offspring. When considering all individuals of a particular organism, like a specific type of rose plant, they are categorized together as a species because they represent a distinct population of individuals with common characteristics that are reproductively isolated from other such groups. This category represents the most specific level of classification for an individual organism.
93Economy
Pearls are harvested from
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Answer: (D) Oyster
Explanation
Pearls are formed within the soft tissue of bivalve mollusks, primarily those belonging to the oyster family. When an irritant, such as a parasite or a grain of sand, becomes lodged inside the shell, the mantle of the oyster secretes layers of nacre, also known as mother-of-pearl. This substance is composed of aragonite and conchiolin, which harden in concentric layers around the irritant to create the pearl. Commercial pearl harvesting relies heavily on saltwater pearl oysters from the genus Pinctada and various freshwater mussels, which are often cultivated in controlled environments to produce both natural and cultured pearls.
94Science and Technology
Wings of birds and bats are considered analogous structures because they have
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Answer: (B) different origin and common function
Explanation
Analogous structures are the result of convergent evolution, where distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar environmental challenges or functional requirements. The wings of birds and bats serve the common function of flight, but they do not share a common ancestral origin as wings. Anatomically, bird wings are supported by feathers attached to the entire forelimb, while bat wings consist of a thin membrane of skin stretched primarily across elongated digital bones. Because these structures evolved separately in different lineages to solve the same biological problem, they are defined by having different origins and a common function.
95Science and Technology
Apart from hyper acid secretion, peptic ulcers are also developed due to bacterial infection. The causative agent is
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Answer: (A) Helicobacter pylori
Explanation
Helicobacter pylori is a spiral-shaped bacterium that colonizes the gastric mucosa and is the primary cause of most peptic ulcers. It survives the harsh acidic environment of the stomach by producing the enzyme urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, effectively neutralizing the surrounding gastric acid. This process allows the bacteria to penetrate the protective mucous layer and adhere to the epithelial cells of the stomach lining. The resulting chronic inflammation weakens the mucosal defense, making the stomach and duodenal walls vulnerable to damage from digestive juices and acid, eventually leading to the formation of an ulcer. This discovery shifted the medical understanding of peptic ulcers from being purely lifestyle-related to being an infectious disease treatable with antibiotics.
96Science and Technology
A mixture of sodium chloride (salt) and ammonium chloride can be separated by
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Answer: (A) sublimation
Explanation
Sublimation is the phase transition where a substance changes directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the intermediate liquid state. This technique is specifically used to separate mixtures containing a sublimable volatile component from a non-sublimable impurity. In this mixture, ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is a volatile solid that sublimes upon heating. When the mixture is heated, the ammonium chloride molecules gain enough energy to enter the vapor phase. These vapors then solidify upon contact with a cooler surface, such as the walls of an inverted funnel, allowing for its recovery. Sodium chloride (NaCl), on the other hand, is a non-volatile salt with strong ionic bonds and a very high melting point, meaning it does not sublime and remains in the original container. This distinct difference in thermal behavior facilitates the separation.
97Science and Technology
Symbol of element was introduced by
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Answer: (C) Jons Jacob Berzelius
Explanation
Jons Jacob Berzelius introduced the modern system of chemical symbols in 1813. He proposed that elements should be represented by the first letter or the first two letters of their names, typically derived from their Latin or Greek origins. For example, he suggested H for Hydrogen, O for Oxygen, and Fe for Iron (Ferrum). This alphabetical notation replaced the earlier, more complex pictorial symbols and allowed for a simplified way to write chemical formulas and equations. His contribution forms the basis of the chemical nomenclature system currently used by scientists worldwide.
98Science and Technology
Identify the correct pair of elements among the following which are liquid at room temperature and standard pressure.
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Answer: (D) Bromine and mercury
Explanation
Mercury and bromine are the only two elements in the periodic table that are liquid at standard temperature (25°C) and pressure (1 atm). Mercury is a heavy, silvery transition metal with a melting point of approximately -38.83°C. Its liquid state is primarily due to the relativistic contraction of its 6s electron shell, which weakens the metallic bonding between atoms. Bromine is a halogen and a non-metal with a melting point of approximately -7.2°C. It exists as a diatomic molecule (Br₂), where the intermolecular London dispersion forces are strong enough to maintain a liquid state at room temperature but weak enough to allow for a high vapor pressure. While elements like gallium, cesium, and francium have melting points near room temperature, they remain solid at the standard reference point of 25°C.
99Science and Technology
Which one of the following oxides shows both acidic and basic behaviour?
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Answer: (A) Zinc oxide
Explanation
Zinc oxide (ZnO) is classified as an amphoteric oxide because it exhibits both acidic and basic characteristics. This means it can react with both acids and strong bases to form salt and water. When reacting with an acid such as hydrochloric acid (HCl), zinc oxide behaves as a base: ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂O. When it reacts with a strong base like sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it behaves as an acid to form sodium zincate: ZnO + 2NaOH → Na₂ZnO₂ + H₂O. This dual reactivity is typical of certain metallic oxides located near the metalloid boundary in the periodic table.
100Science and Technology
Silver articles turn black when kept in the open for longer time due to the formation of
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Answer: (D) Ag₂S
Explanation
Silver undergoes corrosion when exposed to air containing sulfur compounds, a process commonly referred to as tarnishing. Silver reacts with hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) present in the atmosphere in the presence of oxygen to form silver sulfide (Ag₂S). The chemical reaction can be represented as 4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O. Silver sulfide is a black, insoluble solid that deposits on the surface of the silver article, causing it to lose its luster and turn black over time. Silver sulfide is the correct chemical product because silver typically exhibits a +1 oxidation state (Ag⁺) and sulfur exhibits a -2 oxidation state (S²⁻), resulting in the formula Ag₂S.
101Science and Technology
Which of the following lenses will bend the light rays through largest angle?
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Answer: (B) Lens with power +2.5 D
Explanation
The power of a lens is a quantitative measure of its ability to converge or diverge light rays, which corresponds to the degree of bending or deviation it produces. Mathematically, the power P of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length f in meters, expressed as P = 1/f. For a light ray incident at a height h from the optical center, the angle of deviation δ is given by the relation tan(δ) = h/f = hP. For small angles, the deviation δ is approximately equal to hP.
This relationship shows that the angle through which a lens bends light rays is directly proportional to the magnitude of its power |P|. A higher absolute value of power indicates a shorter focal length and a greater capacity to refract incident light. Among the given options, the lens with a power of +2.5 D has the largest magnitude. Because this lens has the highest power, it will deviate light rays by the greatest amount, resulting in the largest angle of bending compared to lenses with lower power magnitudes.
102Science and Technology
A luminous object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a converging lens of focal length 25 cm . The image obtained in the screen is
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Answer: (C) inverted and magnified
Explanation
For a converging lens, the focal length f is +25 cm and the object distance u is -40 cm. Using the lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f, we find the image distance v:
1/v - 1/(-40) = 1/25
1/v = 1/25 - 1/40 = (8 - 5)/200 = 3/200
v = 200/3 ≈ +66.67 cm
The magnification m is given by v/u:
m = 66.67/(-40) ≈ -1.67
A negative magnification signifies that the image is real and inverted. Since the absolute value of the magnification is greater than 1, the image is magnified. This is consistent with the property that when an object is placed between the focal point f and twice the focal length 2f (i.e., 25 cm < 40 cm < 50 cm), a converging lens produces a real, inverted, and magnified image.
103Science and Technology
When a light ray enters into glass medium from water at an angle of incidence 0°, what would be the angle of refraction?
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Answer: (C) 0°
Explanation
According to Snell's Law of refraction, the relationship between the angle of incidence i and the angle of refraction r is defined by the formula n₁ sin(i) = n₂ sin(r), where n₁ and n₂ are the refractive indices of the incident and refractive media respectively. In this scenario, the light ray enters the glass medium from water at an angle of incidence i = 0°, which is known as normal incidence.
By substituting the given value into Snell's Law:
nᵥᵥₐₜₑᵣ sin(0°) = n₉ₗₐₛₛ sin(r)
Since the sine of 0° is 0, the equation simplifies to:
0 = n₉ₗₐₛₛ sin(r)
Because the refractive index of glass (n₉ₗₐₛₛ) is approximately 1.5 and cannot be zero, it follows that sin(r) must be 0. Therefore, r = 0°. This result demonstrates that when a ray of light is incident normally on the interface of two different optical media, it undergoes no deviation and continues to travel along the normal in the second medium.
104Science and Technology
Which one of the following phenomena verifies the fact that light travels much faster than sound?
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Answer: (C) Thunderstorm
Explanation
In a thunderstorm, lightning and thunder are produced simultaneously by the same electrical discharge. Lightning is a flash of light that travels at approximately 3 × 10⁸ meters per second, while thunder is a sound wave that travels at roughly 343 meters per second in air. Because of this massive disparity in speeds, the visual signal reaches an observer almost instantaneously, whereas the auditory signal arrives after a noticeable delay. The observation of seeing the flash before hearing the bang provides a direct physical verification that light travels much faster than sound.
105Science and Technology
Which one of the following combinations of source and screen would produce sharpest shadow of an opaque object?
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Answer: (A) A point source and an opaque screen
Explanation
The sharpness of a shadow is primarily determined by the size of the light source and the nature of the surface upon which it falls. A point source of light is an idealised source where all light rays originate from a single, infinitesimal point. Due to the rectilinear propagation of light, when an opaque object is placed in the path of light from a point source, the rays are either completely obstructed or they pass by the object's edges entirely. This results in a shadow consisting only of an umbra, which is a region of total darkness with perfectly defined, sharp boundaries. The absence of an extended source prevents the formation of a penumbra, the fuzzy transition region of partial shadow that typically blurs the edges. To effectively observe and define this shadow, an opaque screen is required to intercept the light rays and provide a surface that reflects or absorbs the light, thereby creating the high contrast necessary to clearly distinguish the shadow from the illuminated surroundings.
106Economy
Which one among the following is a non-conventional source of energy?
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Answer: (D) Solar energy
Explanation
Non-conventional energy sources, also known as renewable energy sources, are those that are replenished by natural processes at a rate comparable to or faster than their rate of consumption. Solar energy is a primary non-conventional source captured from sunlight using photovoltaic panels or solar thermal collectors. Unlike traditional fossil fuels, solar energy is inexhaustible, environmentally friendly, and does not produce greenhouse gas emissions during operation. It is classified as non-conventional because its large-scale exploitation and technological development for power generation occurred much later than the widespread use of traditional combustible fuels, and it represents a sustainable shift toward clean energy systems.
107Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about phloem is correct?
Phloem is a complex permanent tissue in vascular plants primarily responsible for the translocation of soluble organic compounds synthesized during photosynthesis. These photosynthetic products, mainly in the form of sucrose, are transported from the source, such as mature leaves, to various sink tissues including roots, developing fruits, and storage organs. Unlike the unidirectional flow in xylem, the movement of these materials in the phloem is bidirectional, ensuring that energy-rich nutrients reach all parts of the plant necessary for growth, metabolism, and storage.
108Science and Technology
Mature sclerenchyma cells have
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Answer: (D) lignified wall and are dead
Explanation
Sclerenchyma is a simple permanent tissue that provides mechanical strength and structural support to plants. Mature sclerenchyma cells are characterized by the presence of thick secondary cell walls that are heavily impregnated with lignin. Lignin is a complex organic polymer that makes the cell walls rigid and impermeable to water and nutrients. As a result of this extensive lignification, the internal living matter or protoplast of the cell is lost, and the cells become dead at maturity. These cells typically possess a narrow lumen and are found in parts of the plant such as the stems, the veins of leaves, and the hard coverings of seeds and nuts.
109Science and Technology
In human beings, the chromosomes that determine birth of a normal female child are
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Answer: (A) one X chromosome from mother and one X chromosome from father
Explanation
In humans, sex is determined by the 23rd pair of chromosomes, known as the sex chromosomes. Females are homogametic, possessing two identical sex chromosomes (XX), while males are heterogametic, possessing two different sex chromosomes (XY). During reproduction, an offspring inherits one chromosome of the pair from each parent. Since the mother has an XX genotype, her eggs always contribute an X chromosome. To result in a normal female child (XX), the father must contribute an X chromosome through his sperm. Therefore, the combination of one X chromosome from the mother and one X chromosome from the father determines the birth of a female.
110Science and Technology
Antibiotic such as penicillin blocks
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Answer: (A) cell wall formation in bacteria
Explanation
Penicillin is a β-lactam antibiotic that functions by inhibiting the synthesis of peptidoglycan, the primary structural component of the bacterial cell wall. It acts by binding to specific enzymes known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), which include transpeptidases responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan strands. This cross-linking is essential for providing the cell wall with the mechanical strength required to withstand high internal osmotic pressure. When penicillin blocks these enzymes, the formation of a rigid cell wall is prevented. Consequently, as the bacterium attempts to grow, the weakened cell wall ruptures due to osmotic imbalance, leading to cell lysis and death. This bactericidal action is most effective during the active growth phase of the bacteria when new cell wall material is being synthesized.
111Science and Technology
The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
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Answer: (C) tritium
Explanation
Tritium (³H or T) is the rare radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Its nucleus consists of one proton and two neutrons. Because of its unstable neutron-to-proton ratio, tritium undergoes beta decay (β⁻), emitting a low-energy electron and an antineutrino to transform into stable helium-3 (³He). The half-life of tritium is approximately 12.32 years. It is produced naturally in the upper atmosphere by the collision of cosmic rays with nitrogen atoms and is also generated as a byproduct in nuclear reactors.
112Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used for storing biological tissues?
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Answer: (A) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation
Liquid nitrogen is the standard medium used for the cryopreservation of biological tissues, cells, gametes, and other organic samples. It maintains an extremely low temperature of -196°C (77 K) at atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, biological activity is effectively suspended because there is insufficient thermal energy for chemical reactions or enzymatic processes to occur. This state of suspended animation allows for the long-term storage of genetic material and viable tissues without degradation. Liquid nitrogen is preferred in medical and research facilities because it is chemically inert, non-flammable, and provides a stable cryogenic environment necessary for maintaining cellular integrity over many years.
113Science and Technology
Which one of the following does not form oxide on reaction with oxygen?
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Answer: (D) Silver
Explanation
Silver is a noble metal located near the bottom of the reactivity series, indicating very low chemical reactivity. It does not react with molecular oxygen (O₂) even at high temperatures to form a stable oxide. The formation of silver oxide (Ag₂O) from silver metal and oxygen gas is thermodynamically unfavorable under standard conditions, and any silver oxide produced through alternative chemical methods will decompose back into metallic silver and oxygen when heated above approximately 200 degrees Celsius. While silver can tarnish in the presence of sulfur compounds to form silver sulfide, it remains chemically inert toward direct oxidation by atmospheric oxygen. This resistance to oxidation allows silver to maintain its metallic state and luster in air.
114Science and Technology
The valency of phosphorus is
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Answer: (D) 3, 5
Explanation
Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15, giving it an electronic configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³. With five electrons in its outermost shell, its valency is determined by its ability to share these electrons to achieve stability. In its ground state, phosphorus has three unpaired electrons in the 3p orbitals, allowing it to form three covalent bonds and exhibit a valency of 3, as seen in phosphorus trichloride (PCl₃). Additionally, because phosphorus is in the third period of the periodic table, it possesses vacant 3d orbitals. It can promote one electron from the 3s orbital to a 3d orbital, resulting in an excited state configuration of 3s¹ 3p³ 3d¹. This provides five unpaired electrons for chemical bonding, enabling phosphorus to form five covalent bonds and exhibit a valency of 5, as observed in phosphorus pentachloride (PCl₅).
115Science and Technology
Lead nitrate on heating gives
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Answer: (B) PbO and NO₂
Explanation
The thermal decomposition of lead(II) nitrate, Pb(NO₃)₂, occurs when the solid compound is heated strongly. This chemical reaction results in the breakdown of the salt into lead(II) oxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen gas. The balanced chemical equation for this process is:
2Pb(NO₃)₂(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)
During the reaction, lead(II) oxide (PbO) is left as a solid residue that appears yellow when cold and reddish-brown when hot. Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is observed as the evolution of characteristic reddish-brown fumes. Oxygen (O₂) is also released as a colorless, odorless gas. This decomposition is a standard laboratory method to demonstrate the production of nitrogen dioxide and is categorized as a thermal decomposition reaction where a single reactant yields multiple products upon heating.
116Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a decommissioned aircraft carrier?
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Answer: (D) INS Viraat
Explanation
INS Viraat was a Centaur-class aircraft carrier that served as the flagship of the Indian Navy for nearly three decades. Originally commissioned as HMS Hermes in the British Royal Navy in 1959, it was acquired by India and commissioned into service in May 1987. The vessel played a pivotal role in major operations such as Operation Jupiter in 1989 and Operation Vijay in 1999. After completing 2,250 days at sea and sailing approximately 5,88,288 nautical miles, it was decommissioned on March 6, 2017. At the time of its retirement, it held the Guinness World Record for being the longest-serving warship in the world.
117Art and Culture
Who among the following has won the Singles Title in Wimbledon Tennis Championship (Women) in the year 2019?
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Answer: (B) Simona Halep
Explanation
Simona Halep secured the 2019 Wimbledon Women's Singles title with a dominant 6-2, 6-2 victory in the final. This win marked her first title at the All England Club and her second career Grand Slam trophy overall. She delivered an exceptional performance in the championship match, committing only three unforced errors throughout the contest. By winning the tournament, she became the first Romanian tennis player in history to capture a Wimbledon singles title, achieving this milestone on the grass courts in London.
118Science and Technology
Recently islands of Andaman and Nicobar were connected with mainland by Submarine Optical Fibre Cable. Which one of the following islands was not connected initially?
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Answer: (A) Shaheed Island
Explanation
Shaheed Island, formerly known as Neil Island, was not one of the eight landing stations included in the Chennai-Andaman and Nicobar Islands (CANI) Submarine Optical Fibre Cable project inaugurated in August 2020. This undersea cable link, spanning approximately 2,312 kilometres, was designed to connect the mainland at Chennai to Port Blair and seven other specific islands in the archipelago. Since Shaheed Island was not designated as a primary landing point or node in the project layout, it remained excluded from the direct submarine fibre-optic connectivity provided during the initial implementation phase of the network.
119Polity and Governance
In August 2020, who among the following was administered the oath as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time?
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Answer: (C) Mahinda Rajapaksa
Explanation
Mahinda Rajapaksa was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time on August 9, 2020, following the landslide victory of the Sri Lanka Podujana Peramuna (SLPP) in the general elections. The oath was administered at the Kelaniya Raja Maha Vihara, a prominent Buddhist temple. This appointment marked his fourth stint in the office, having previously served as Prime Minister from 2004 to 2005, for a contested period in 2018, and from November 2019 leading up to the 2020 elections. He is a veteran politician who also held the presidency of Sri Lanka for two terms from 2005 to 2015. The 2020 election victory allowed him to return to the post with a strong parliamentary mandate, securing a two-thirds majority in the legislature.
120Geography
Which one of the following Indian Ocean island nations has recently declared a state of environmental emergency due to oil spill from a grounded ship?
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Answer: (B) Mauritius
Explanation
Mauritius declared a state of environmental emergency in August 2020 following a massive oil spill from the MV Wakashio, a Japanese bulk carrier. The vessel ran aground on a coral reef at Pointe d Esny in July 2020 and began leaking approximately 1,000 tonnes of fuel oil into the pristine lagoon waters a few weeks later. The spill posed a catastrophic threat to the island s fragile marine ecosystem, including the Blue Bay Marine Park and several protected mangrove forests. Prime Minister Pravind Jugnauth issued the declaration to mobilize national resources and request urgent international assistance for containment and cleanup operations to mitigate the long-term ecological and economic damage.