Which one of the following is considered as 'good cholesterol' with reference to individuals facing the risk of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension?
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Answer: (A) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
Explanation
High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) is widely recognized as good cholesterol because of its protective role in cardiovascular health. It facilitates a process known as reverse cholesterol transport, where it scavenges and collects excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and the inner walls of the arteries. HDL then carries this cholesterol back to the liver, where it is broken down and eliminated from the body. By preventing the accumulation of cholesterol in the arteries, high levels of HDL help reduce the formation of arterial plaques, thereby lowering the risk of atherosclerosis, heart attacks, and hypertension.
2Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease is / are correctly matched ?
1. Vitamin A : Rickets
2. Vitamin B₁ : Beriberi
3. Vitamin C : Scurvy
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Vitamin B1, also known as Thiamine, is an essential nutrient that serves as a coenzyme in the catabolism of sugars and amino acids. A chronic deficiency of Vitamin B1 leads to Beriberi, which can manifest as dry beriberi, affecting the nervous system with symptoms like numbness and confusion, or wet beriberi, which affects the cardiovascular system and can cause heart failure. Vitamin C, or Ascorbic acid, is necessary for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine during the synthesis of collagen, a protein vital for the structural integrity of skin, bones, and blood vessels. Lack of Vitamin C results in Scurvy, a condition characterized by the breakdown of connective tissue, leading to bleeding gums, loose teeth, and poor wound healing.
3Science and Technology
The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant :
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Answer: (C) force
Explanation
Newton's Second Law of Motion states that the rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and occurs in the direction of that force. If p is the linear momentum of a body, defined as the product of its mass m and velocity v, the relationship is expressed mathematically as F = dp/dt. This derivative represents the instantaneous rate of change of momentum with respect to time. In cases where the mass of the body remains constant, the equation simplifies to F = m dv/dt, which is equivalent to F = ma, where a is the acceleration of the body. This establishes that the resultant force is the physical quantity responsible for changing the state of motion or momentum of an object over time.
4Science and Technology
After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because :
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Answer: (D) water has large latent heat of vaporisation
Explanation
Water possesses a very high latent heat of vaporisation, which is the amount of heat energy required to change a unit mass of a liquid into vapour without a change in temperature. For water, this value is approximately 2260 kJ/kg or 540 cal/g. When water is sprinkled on a hot roof-top, it absorbs a large amount of thermal energy from the surface of the roof to undergo evaporation. This significant removal of heat from the roof material leads to a rapid decrease in its temperature, providing a cooling effect to the building. This phase-change cooling is far more effective than simple sensible heat transfer because of the magnitude of energy required for the liquid-to-gas transition.
5Geography
Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of :
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Answer: (D) Lesser Himalaya
Explanation
The Pir Panjal Range is the longest and most significant mountain range within the Lesser Himalayas, which is also referred to as the Himachal or Middle Himalayas. Located in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent, it stretches across the states of Himachal Pradesh and the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. This range runs from the Jhelum River to the upper Beas River and serves as a geographic divider between the Kashmir Valley and the plains of the Jammu region. It maintains an average elevation ranging from 3,500 meters to 5,000 meters. The range is characterized by its steep, rugged terrain and includes several critical mountain passes, such as the Banihal Pass and the Rohtang Pass, which facilitate movement through the middle portion of the Himalayan mountain system.
6Geography
Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India :
1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour
2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash
3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Laterite soils are formed as a result of intense leaching due to tropical rains in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. Statement 1 is correct because the red colour of laterite soil is primarily due to the presence of iron oxides, such as goethite and hematite, which remain in the soil after silica is leached away. Statement 4 is correct because, while these soils are generally poor in organic matter and certain nutrients, they are very responsive to the application of fertilizers and manures. In states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh, red laterite soils are extensively used for the cultivation of plantation crops, specifically cashew nuts and tapioca, which thrive in these well-drained conditions.
7Geography
Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is / are correct ?
1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer
2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate
3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Precipitation in the Mediterranean climate is largely a winter phenomenon. This occurs because, during the winter months, the planetary wind belts shift equatorward, allowing the moisture-bearing Westerlies to bring cyclonic rainfall to these regions. Conversely, in the Monsoon climate, precipitation is concentrated in the summer months when the intense heating of the land creates a low-pressure zone that draws in moisture-laden winds from the surrounding oceans.
The annual range of temperature is generally higher in the Mediterranean climate than in the Monsoon climate. This is primarily attributed to latitudinal differences; Mediterranean regions are located further from the equator (30° to 45° N/S) compared to Monsoon regions (10° to 30° N/S). Higher latitudes experience a more significant variation in the angle of solar radiation and day length between summer and winter, leading to a wider temperature range. Additionally, the heavy cloud cover and rainfall during the Monsoon summer provide a cooling effect that limits the annual maximum temperature.
Both climates are characterized by the presence of distinct rainy and dry seasons. The Mediterranean climate features a unique dry summer and a wet winter, while the Monsoon climate is characterized by a wet summer and a dry winter. This clear alternation between a period of heavy precipitation and a period of aridity is a fundamental characteristic shared by both climatic types, distinguishing them from the more uniform precipitation patterns found in equatorial or maritime temperate climates.
8Science and Technology
The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made nonconductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is :
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Answer: (D) Bakelite
Explanation
Bakelite, chemically known as polyoxybenzylmethylenglycolanhydride, was developed by the Belgian-American chemist Leo Baekeland in 1907. It is recognized as the first fully synthetic plastic because it was synthesized entirely from chemicals—phenol and formaldehyde—rather than being a modified natural substance. Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer, meaning once it is molded and set through heat and pressure, it cannot be remelted or reshaped. This characteristic, along with its excellent heat insulation properties and high resistance to electricity, makes it the standard material for the handles of kitchen utensils like pressure cookers, ensuring they remain cool and safe to touch even when the vessel is at high temperatures.
9Science and Technology
Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of :
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Answer: (D) Pesticides
Explanation
The Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) plant in Bhopal was specifically established for the manufacture of carbamate pesticides. Methyl Isocyanate (MIC), which has the chemical formula CH₃NCO, was a critical intermediate chemical used in the production of carbaryl, a broad-spectrum insecticide marketed under the trade name Sevin. The production process involved the reaction of MIC with 1-naphthol to synthesize the final pesticide product. The 1984 disaster resulted from an exothermic reaction triggered by water entering a storage tank containing MIC, leading to the massive atmospheric release of the toxic gas.
10Science and Technology
The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals. Germplasm is the :
1. genetic resources
2. seeds or tissues for breeding
3. egg and sperm repository
4. a germ cell's determining zone
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Answer: (B) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Germplasm is the living genetic resource that contains the hereditary material (DNA) of an organism. In the context of agriculture and animal husbandry, it represents the entire collection of diverse alleles of all genes in a particular crop or animal species. For plants, this typically includes seeds, pollen, or vegetative tissues that can be grown into new plants for breeding and research. For animals, germplasm consists of the genetic material required for reproduction, which is often managed through repositories of eggs and sperm used in cryopreservation and artificial breeding techniques. These genetic resources are essential for maintaining biodiversity, developing improved varieties, and ensuring the continued propagation of species.
11Science and Technology
Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in blood of patient by :
1. interfering in the process of platelet production in bone marrow
2. infecting endothelial cells
3. binding with platelets
4. accumulating platelets in intestine
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Dengue virus causes a significant reduction in platelet count through several distinct biological mechanisms. First, the virus infects hematopoietic progenitor cells in the bone marrow, which suppresses the activity of megakaryocytes and interferes with the production of new platelets. Second, the virus infects vascular endothelial cells, leading to cellular activation and dysfunction that causes platelets to adhere to the blood vessel walls, thereby increasing their peripheral consumption. Third, the virus can bind directly to platelets or promote the formation of immune complexes where anti-dengue antibodies cross-react with platelet surface proteins. This marking leads to the destruction of platelets by the immune system through phagocytosis in the spleen and liver.
12Science and Technology
The SI unit of mechanical power is :
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Answer: (B) Watt
Explanation
Power is defined as the rate at which work is performed or energy is transferred over time. The mathematical formula for mechanical power is P = W/t, where W represents work done and t represents the time interval. In the International System of Units (SI), work is measured in Joules (J) and time is measured in seconds (s), making the unit of power Joules per second (J/s). This derived unit is officially named the Watt (W) in honor of James Watt. One Watt is equal to the power produced by a force of one Newton acting through a distance of one meter in one second. In terms of SI base units, it is expressed as kg · m² · s⁻³.
13Science and Technology
Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if :
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Answer: (C) there is no heat flow between them
Explanation
Thermal equilibrium is defined as the state in which there is no net exchange of thermal energy between two systems when they are placed in thermal contact. According to the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics, if two systems are in thermal equilibrium, they must possess the same temperature. Since heat flow is driven by a temperature gradient, the condition T₁ = T₂ ensures that the net heat transfer Q is zero. In this state, the macroscopic variables of the systems remain constant over time as long as they are not disturbed by external influences.
14Science and Technology
'German silver' is used to make decorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments etc. The name is given because :
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Answer: (C) its appearance is like silver
Explanation
German silver, also known as Nickel silver, is a non-ferrous alloy typically composed of approximately 60% copper, 20% nickel, and 20% zinc. It contains no elemental silver (Ag) despite its name. The name is derived entirely from its physical appearance, as the combination of nickel and zinc with copper results in a lustrous, silvery-white finish that closely resembles the color and shine of precious silver. This visual similarity makes it an ideal, cost-effective substitute for silver in the manufacturing of decorative articles, ornaments, and tableware. The term German refers to the 19th-century German metalworkers who perfected and popularized the alloy for commercial use.
15Science and Technology
Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol etc., which very closely resemble cholesterol. These plant sterols are referred as :
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Answer: (A) Phytosterols
Explanation
Phytosterols are a group of naturally occurring steroid alcohols found in plants that serve as essential structural components of plant cell membranes. They function similarly to cholesterol in animal cells by regulating the fluidity and permeability of the cell membrane. The term is derived from the Greek word phyto, which means plant. This broad category includes specific compounds such as β-sitosterol, stigmasterol, and campesterol. While chemically very similar to cholesterol, phytosterols differ primarily in the carbon side chains attached to the steroid nucleus. They are abundant in vegetable oils, nuts, seeds, and legumes.
16Polity and Governance
With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Sutluj rivers ?
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Answer: (B) China
Explanation
India and China have entered into specific bilateral agreements for the exchange of hydrological information regarding the Brahmaputra and Sutlej rivers, both of which originate in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. The first Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the Brahmaputra River was signed in 2002, under which China agreed to provide hydrological data such as water level, discharge, and rainfall from three stations in Tibet during the flood season to help India in flood forecasting. For the Sutlej River, a similar MoU was signed in 2005 for the provision of hydrological data during the monsoon season. These MoUs are periodic and have been renewed multiple times, including in 2013 and 2015, to ensure continued cooperation on trans-boundary river data sharing for disaster mitigation in downstream Indian states.
17Geography
Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level ?
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Answer: (C) South Western Railway
Explanation
The South Western Railway (SWR) is headquartered in Hubballi, Karnataka. The city is situated on the Deccan Plateau at the divide between the Malenadu hill region and the eastern plains, resulting in a mean elevation of approximately 627 meters (2,057 feet) above sea level. This high altitude is a consequence of its geographical position within the interior peninsular plateau and its proximity to the Western Ghats. Among the specified railway zones, the Hubballi-Dharwad region provides the highest topographic relief, as the other headquarters are located in lower-lying coastal areas or riverine floodplains.
18Geography
Stalactites and stalagmites are features of:
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Answer: (C) karst topography
Explanation
Karst topography consists of distinct landforms created by the chemical dissolution of soluble rocks such as limestone, dolomite, and gypsum. As rainwater percolates through the soil, it absorbs carbon dioxide to form a weak carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which dissolves the calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) in the bedrock to form underground caverns. Stalactites and stalagmites are depositional features, known as speleothems, formed within these caves. When mineral-rich water drips from the cave ceiling, it loses carbon dioxide or evaporates, causing the calcium carbonate to precipitate. Stalactites grow downward from the ceiling like icicles, while stalagmites build upward from the cave floor at the point where the droplets land. Over long geological periods, these formations can grow toward each other to eventually form solid columns or pillars.
19Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter) ?
The planets in our solar system vary significantly in size, and the correct sequence in increasing order of their equatorial diameter is Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth, and then Uranus. Mercury is the smallest planet with a diameter of approximately 4,879 km, followed by Mars which measures about 6,779 km. Venus and Earth are often referred to as sister planets due to their similar sizes, with Venus having a diameter of about 12,104 km and Earth being slightly larger at approximately 12,756 km. Uranus, being one of the Jovian planets or ice giants, is substantially larger than the terrestrial planets, possessing a diameter of roughly 51,118 km. This progression accurately reflects the transition from the smaller rocky inner planets to the much larger outer gas and ice giants.
20Science and Technology
In artificial insemination (AI) process, which of the following is / are introduced into the uterus of the female ?
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Answer: (C) Sperm only
Explanation
Artificial insemination is a fertility treatment where specially prepared sperm is collected and then manually introduced into the female's reproductive tract, most commonly the uterus, to facilitate fertilization. This procedure, often referred specifically to as Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) when the uterus is the target, is designed to increase the density of sperm that reach the fallopian tubes. By bypassing the cervix and reducing the travel distance for the sperm, the technique enhances the likelihood that a sperm will naturally encounter and fertilize the egg that has been released by the female's ovaries. Consequently, the only biological material introduced during this specific process is the sperm.
21Science and Technology
Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to :
1. introduction of new DNA
2. removal of existing DNA
3. introduction of RNA
4. introduction of new traits
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Genetically modified (GM) crops are organisms whose genetic material (DNA) has been altered using genetic engineering techniques to achieve specific desired outcomes. This modification occurs through several primary mechanisms:
Introduction of new DNA: This is the most common method, often referred to as transgenesis. Scientists insert specific genes from other species (bacteria, viruses, or other plants) into the crop's genome. A classic example is Bt cotton, which contains DNA from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis to produce a protein toxic to certain pests.
Removal of existing DNA: Genetic material can also be modified by deleting or silencing specific internal genes. This is known as gene knockout or antisense technology. For instance, the Flavr Savr tomato was modified by silencing the gene responsible for producing polygalacturonase, an enzyme that causes the fruit to soften and rot.
Introduction of new traits: The fundamental definition of a GM crop is the deliberate alteration of its genome to incorporate novel traits that do not occur naturally in the species. These traits—such as herbicide tolerance, drought resistance, or increased nutritional content (like Vitamin A in Golden Rice)—are the functional results of the physical modifications made to the DNA.
While RNA interference (RNAi) is a technique used to silence genes, the modification to the genetic material of the crop involves inserting a DNA construct that codes for the specific RNA. In plants, the permanent, heritable genetic material is DNA, not RNA.
22Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct ? The velocity of sound :
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Answer: (D) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases
Explanation
The velocity of sound is determined by the formula v = √(E/ρ), where E represents the elastic modulus of the medium and ρ is its density. Sound travels fastest in solids because they have a high modulus of elasticity compared to liquids and gases; the atoms in a solid are tightly packed, allowing the mechanical vibrations to transfer rapidly between adjacent particles. In contrast, gases are highly compressible and have much lower elastic moduli, resulting in the slowest speed of propagation. Typically, sound travels at approximately 5000 m/s in steel, 1500 m/s in water, and only about 343 m/s in air at room temperature, confirming that the speed is maximum in solids and minimum in gases.
23Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Sound waves having frequency below 20Hz are known as ultrasonic waves
Explanation
Sound waves are categorized based on their frequency relative to the human audible range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Waves with frequencies below 20 Hz are defined as infrasonic waves. Ultrasonic waves are specifically those with frequencies higher than the upper limit of human hearing, which is 20,000 Hz. Therefore, identifying waves with frequencies below 20 Hz as ultrasonic is scientifically incorrect.
24Science and Technology
Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting ?
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Answer: (D) Vitamin K
Explanation
Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that serves as an essential cofactor for the enzyme gamma-glutamyl carboxylase. This enzyme is responsible for the post-translational modification of several proteins involved in the blood coagulation cascade, specifically clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X. During this process, glutamic acid residues on these proteins are converted into gamma-carboxyglutamic acid, which allows the proteins to bind to calcium ions. This calcium binding is a prerequisite for the activation of these factors on phospholipid surfaces, enabling the formation of a blood clot to prevent excessive bleeding after an injury.
25Science and Technology
Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency causes pernicious anemia. Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B₁₂. Humans must obtain all their vitamin B₁₂ from their diet. The complexing metal ion in vitamin B₁₂ is :
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Answer: (C) Co3+ (Cobalt ion)
Explanation
Vitamin B₁₂ is a complex organometallic compound known as cobalamin. It features a central cobalt ion, specifically in the Co³⁺ oxidation state, coordinated within a corrin ring. This macrocyclic ring system is structurally related to the porphyrin ring found in heme, but with a specific connectivity that stabilizes the cobalt ion. The cobalt atom is octahedrally coordinated by four nitrogen atoms of the corrin ring, a nitrogen from a dimethylbenzimidazole group, and a sixth variable ligand such as a methyl or cyano group. The presence of the cobalt atom is essential for the biological function of the vitamin as a cofactor in crucial enzymatic reactions, including DNA synthesis, fatty acid metabolism, and the formation of red blood cells. Because cobalt is the defining central component of the molecular structure, the entire class of these compounds is named after the metal.
26Geography
Consider the following statements :
1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas
2. The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Peninsula was an integral part of the southern supercontinent known as Gondwanaland. This massive landmass encompassed present-day South America, Africa, Antarctica, and Australia, along with Madagascar and the Indian subcontinent. Geological evidence, such as the continuity of the Karoo-Gondwana rock sequences and the widespread distribution of the Glossopteris flora fossils, provides conclusive proof of this shared history. Approximately 180 million years ago, during the Mesozoic Era, the supercontinent began to fragment, leading the Indian plate to separate and drift northward across the Tethys Ocean until it eventually collided with the Eurasian plate.
27Geography
The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in :
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Answer: (D) Port Blair
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park, also known as Wandoor Marine National Park, is situated at Wandoor on the southwestern coast of the Andaman Islands, which is approximately 29 km from Port Blair. Established in 1983 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, the park covers an area of about 281.5 square kilometers and comprises 15 islands and several open sea creeks. It was specifically created to protect marine life, including diverse coral reefs and significant nesting sites for sea turtles like the Green sea turtle and the Leatherback turtle. The park falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the South Andaman district, headquartered at Port Blair.
28Geography
Which of the following statements is / are correct ?
1. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3
2. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4
3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4
4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Earth orbits the Sun in an elliptical path, causing the distance between them to fluctuate throughout the year. Perihelion refers to the orbital point where the Earth is closest to the Sun, at a distance of approximately 147 million kilometers, which typically occurs around January 3. Aphelion refers to the point where the Earth is at its farthest distance from the Sun, approximately 152 million kilometers, occurring around July 4. These specific points are defined by the geometry of the Earth's orbit and the gravitational relationship between the two celestial bodies.
29Geography
Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin ?
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Answer: (A) Reunion island
Explanation
Reunion Island is a volcanic island located in the Indian Ocean, situated over the Reunion hotspot. The island was formed by basaltic volcanic activity that began approximately two million years ago. It is home to Piton de la Fournaise, one of the most active shield volcanoes in the world, which frequently produces lava flows that expand the island landmass. The entire geological structure of the island is the result of successive volcanic eruptions from the ocean floor, distinguishing it as a primary example of an oceanic volcanic island.
30Science and Technology
Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is Glucose ?
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Answer: (A) Carbohydrate
Explanation
Glucose is a simple sugar with the molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆ and is classified as a carbohydrate. Specifically, it is a monosaccharide, which represents the most basic unit of carbohydrates that cannot be further hydrolyzed into simpler sugars. Carbohydrates are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, typically following the empirical formula Cₙ(H₂O)ₙ. In biological systems, glucose acts as a primary energy source; it is metabolized during cellular respiration to produce Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP), which provides the chemical energy necessary for various cellular functions.
31Science and Technology
The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of :
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Answer: (D) Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles
Explanation
Protoplasm is the living substance of the cell, a term coined by J.E. Purkinje in 1839. It encompasses everything within the cell membrane, including the cytoplasm and the nucleus (nucleoplasm). The cytoplasm consists of a semi-fluid matrix called cytosol and various specialized structures known as organelles, such as mitochondria, ribosomes, and the Golgi apparatus. The nucleoplasm is the protoplasm specifically contained within the nucleus. Because protoplasm represents the sum of all living components required for cellular activity, it is described as being composed of the cytoplasm, the nucleoplasm, and the various organelles suspended within them.
32Economy
Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in :
1. development of high-yielding crops.
2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure.
3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Norman Borlaug, widely recognized as the Father of the Green Revolution, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his pioneering work in agricultural science that helped avert global famine. His primary contribution was the development of high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of wheat. By breeding semi-dwarf, disease-resistant wheat strains, he created plants that could support a much larger grain head without collapsing, a problem known as lodging that affected traditional taller varieties. These high-yielding crops were the central technological breakthrough of the Green Revolution, as they possessed the genetic potential to produce several times more grain per acre than previous varieties when grown under optimal conditions. The successful dissemination of these seeds to countries like Mexico, India, and Pakistan led to a massive increase in food production and is credited with saving over a billion people from starvation.
33Science and Technology
A myopic person has a power of -1.25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his lens ?
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Answer: (D) 80 cm and concave lens
Explanation
The focal length f of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its optical power P, expressed by the formula f = 1/P. When power is given in Dioptres (D), the focal length is initially calculated in meters.
Substituting the given value:
f = 1 / -1.25 = -0.8 meters
To convert the focal length into centimeters:
f = -0.8 × 100 = -80 cm
In the Cartesian sign convention used in optics, a negative focal length and negative power always indicate a diverging lens, which is a concave lens. Myopia (nearsightedness) is a condition where the eye's refractive power is too strong, causing light rays to focus in front of the retina. A concave lens is used to diverge the incoming light rays so that they can be correctly focused on the retina.
34Science and Technology
A piece of ice, 100g in mass is kept at 0°C . The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0°C is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6J/g ):
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Answer: (C) 33360 J
Explanation
The amount of heat Q required to melt a substance of mass m without changing its temperature is determined by the formula Q = m · L, where L is the latent heat of fusion for that substance. In this case, the mass of the ice m is 100g and the latent heat of melting L is 333.6J / g. Substituting these values into the formula yields Q = 100g × 333.6J / g = 33360J. This quantity of heat energy is consumed specifically to change the state of the substance from solid to liquid by breaking the hydrogen bonds in the ice lattice while maintaining a constant temperature of 0°C.
35Science and Technology
Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?
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Answer: (C) Insulin
Explanation
Insulin is a peptide hormone comprising two polypeptide chains: the A-chain (21 amino acids) and the B-chain (30 amino acids), linked by disulfide bridges. It is produced by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans and regulates blood glucose levels. Cortisone (d) is a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol and does not contain a peptide chain. Oxytocin and Corticotropin also contain peptide chains, but Insulin is the classic example of a peptide hormone with distinct chain structure.
36Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an example of chemical change ?
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Answer: (A) Burning of paper
Explanation
Burning of paper is a combustion reaction where the cellulose in the paper reacts with oxygen in the atmosphere. This process results in the formation of entirely new chemical substances, primarily carbon dioxide, water vapor, and solid ash (carbon). Because the molecular structure of the original material is fundamentally altered through the breaking and forming of chemical bonds, the identity of the matter changes. Such transformations are characteristic of chemical changes, which are generally irreversible through simple physical means because the chemical properties of the products differ from those of the reactants.
37Geography
Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?
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Answer: (D) Melting of ice sheets
Explanation
The melting of ice sheets is a primary cause of long-term eustatic sea-level change, which refers to global shifts in the total volume of water within the ocean basins. Ice sheets, such as those covering Antarctica and Greenland, are massive reservoirs of freshwater stored on land. When these continental ice masses melt due to sustained increases in global temperatures, the resulting meltwater flows into the oceans, directly increasing the total mass and volume of sea water. This process results in a significant and persistent rise in sea levels over centuries and millennia. Unlike floating ice, the addition of water from terrestrial sources represents a net increase in the ocean's inventory, making it a fundamental driver of sea-level fluctuations throughout Earth's geological history.
38Geography
Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra :
1. Lohit
2. Tista
3. Subansiri
4. Sankosh
Arrange the above rivers from west to east:
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Answer: (A) 2-4-3-1
Explanation
The Brahmaputra river system features several major tributaries that join it along its course from the Tibetan plateau through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Arranging these from West to East involves tracking their entry points and confluences. The Tista (Teesta) originates in the Tso Lhamo Lake in Sikkim and flows through West Bengal before joining the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh, making it the westernmost of the group. Moving eastward, the Sankosh river flows from Bhutan and forms the boundary between West Bengal and Assam before its confluence. Further east, the Subansiri, which is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra, originates in the Himalayas in Tibet and flows through Arunachal Pradesh to join the river in Assam. Finally, the Lohit river is located in the far eastern reach of the basin, originating in the Zayal Chu range in Tibet and entering India through the Mishmi Hills in eastern Arunachal Pradesh. Therefore, the sequence from West to East is Tista (2), Sankosh (4), Subansiri (3), and Lohit (1).
39Geography
Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left ?
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Answer: (D) Rotation of the Earth
Explanation
The deflection of wind is caused by the Coriolis effect, which is a direct result of the rotation of the Earth on its axis. As the Earth rotates from west to east, different latitudes possess different linear velocities, being highest at the equator and zero at the poles. When air moves across these latitudes, it maintains its initial momentum, which creates an apparent deflection relative to the moving surface beneath it. According to Ferrel's Law, this Coriolis force deflects moving objects and fluids to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The magnitude of this force is expressed by the formula F = 2mvω sin φ, where v is the velocity of the wind, ω is the Earth's angular velocity, and φ is the latitude. This rotation-induced force is responsible for the counter-clockwise flow in southern hemispheric anticyclones and the clockwise flow in southern hemispheric cyclones.
40Geography
The 'eye' of the cyclone has :
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Answer: (A) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
Explanation
The eye of a tropical cyclone is a roughly circular area of comparatively light winds and fair weather found at the center of a severe storm system. It is the region where the lowest atmospheric pressure of the entire cyclone is recorded. This central area is characterized by a warm-core structure, meaning the temperatures within the eye are significantly higher than those in the surrounding regions at the same altitude. This abnormally high temperature is caused by the adiabatic warming of air. As air from the upper troposphere sinks into the eye (a process known as subsidence), it is compressed by the increasing atmospheric pressure, which leads to a rise in temperature. This descending air also inhibits the formation of clouds, resulting in the clear skies or light cloud cover typical of the eye.
41Geography
Which of the following statements is / are correct ?
1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone
2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to acid rain
3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Acid rain contains sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃) formed from atmospheric pollutants. These acids react with the calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) in limestone and marble to produce calcium sulfate (CaSO₄), carbon dioxide, and water. This chemical reaction leads to the erosion and pitting of stone structures, often referred to as stone leprosy.
Burning coal that contains sulfur impurities releases sulfur dioxide (SO₂) into the atmosphere. This SO₂ undergoes oxidation to form sulfur trioxide (SO₃), which then reacts with water vapor to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), a major constituent of acid rain.
Eutrophication is not a pollution control measure but rather a process of water pollution. It occurs when water bodies become overly enriched with nutrients like nitrates and phosphates, leading to excessive algal growth, oxygen depletion, and the death of aquatic life. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
42Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct ?
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Answer: (C) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, two new bar magnets are formed
Explanation
Magnetic poles always exist in pairs because magnetism at the macroscopic level is the result of aligned atomic-scale magnetic moments or domains. When a bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the internal alignment of these magnetic domains is preserved throughout the material. The cross-sectional surface of the cut on the side of the original North pole automatically becomes a new South pole, and the cross-sectional surface on the side of the original South pole becomes a new North pole. This process ensures that each resulting piece remains a complete dipole, effectively creating two separate bar magnets from the original one. While the magnetic length of each new magnet is half that of the original, the pole strength m remains the same as the parent magnet.
43Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Hydrogen has no isotopes
Explanation
Hydrogen possesses three naturally occurring isotopes, which are atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers. The most common isotope is Protium (¹H), which has no neutrons in its nucleus. The second is Deuterium (²H or D), often called heavy hydrogen, which contains one neutron. The third is Tritium (³H or T), a radioactive isotope containing two neutrons. Because these distinct isotopic forms exist, the claim that hydrogen has no isotopes is factually incorrect.
44Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons
Explanation
Atoms of the same element that possess different numbers of neutrons are called isotopes. While the identity of an element is determined by its atomic number, which is the fixed number of protons in its nucleus, the number of neutrons can vary between atoms of that same element. For instance, the element Hydrogen has three isotopes: Protium, which has no neutrons; Deuterium, which has one neutron; and Tritium, which has two neutrons. Similarly, Carbon-12 has six neutrons while Carbon-14 has eight neutrons. This variation in neutron count results in different mass numbers for atoms of the same element, making the statement that they always have the same number of neutrons incorrect.
45Economy
Which of the following statements regarding chemical industry in India is / are correct ?
1. Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India
2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry
3. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The chemical industry is recognized as one of the oldest industries in India, with its modern roots dating back to the late 19th century and the formal establishment of Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works in 1901. Within the broader chemical sector, the dyestuff industry is a vital and mature segment that contributes significantly to the national GDP and international trade. This sector is heavily driven by demand from the textile industry, which is the largest consumer of dyestuffs in the country. Approximately 70 percent to 80 percent of the total domestic consumption of dyes is utilized by the textile sector for the coloring and finishing of various natural and synthetic fibers.
46Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about India's scientific and research mission in Antarctica is / are correct?
1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri
2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp
3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
India initiated its Antarctic research program in 1981, which led to the establishment of Dakshin Gangotri in 1983-84 as the nation's first permanent scientific base station. By 1990, Dakshin Gangotri was decommissioned after being submerged under layers of ice and snow, and it was subsequently repurposed to serve as a supply base and transit camp for ongoing expeditions. Maitri, the second permanent station, was commissioned in 1989 in the rocky, ice-free Schirmacher Oasis. Maitri is a year-round facility equipped with laboratories and life-support systems, enabling continuous scientific monitoring and research in various disciplines throughout the Antarctic seasons. All three statements correctly describe the evolution and operational status of India's presence on the continent.
47Economy
The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for domestic and industrial purposes. Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?
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Answer: (A) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of different industries
Explanation
The transition from natural rubber to synthetic rubber is primarily driven by the massive and ever-increasing demand from global industries, particularly the automotive, aerospace, and construction sectors. Natural rubber production is biologically limited by the growth cycle of the Hevea brasiliensis tree, which requires specific tropical climatic conditions and several years of growth before tapping can begin. This creates an inelastic supply that cannot scale rapidly to match the fluctuations and growth of modern industrial requirements. Synthetic rubber, being a petroleum-based product, allows for large-scale industrial manufacturing that is independent of geographical and climatic constraints, ensuring a consistent supply chain capable of meeting the high-volume needs of global markets.
48Science and Technology
A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 s . If the sound moves with a speed of 340 m / s , how far is the wall from him?
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Answer: (C) 51 m
Explanation
The phenomenon of an echo occurs because sound travels to a reflecting surface and returns to the observer. Therefore, the total distance traveled by the sound is twice the distance between the person and the wall. Using the basic kinematic formula:
Distance = Speed × Time
Since the sound travels to the wall and back, we use 2d for the total distance, where d is the distance to the wall:
2d = v × t
Substituting the given values, where the speed of sound v = 340 m/s and the time interval t = 0.3 s:
2d = 340 × 0.3
2d = 102
d = 102/2
d = 51 m
49Geography
Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the mean sea level :
1. Mussoorie
2. Shimla
3. Ooty
4. Darjeeling
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Answer: (A) 3-2-4-1
Explanation
Ooty, also known as Udhagamandalam, is the highest of these hill stations with an elevation of approximately 2,240 meters above mean sea level in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu. Shimla, the capital of Himachal Pradesh, is situated at an average altitude of about 2,205 meters. Darjeeling, located in the Lesser Himalayas of West Bengal, sits at a height of roughly 2,045 meters. Mussoorie, a prominent hill station in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, has an average elevation of approximately 2,005 meters. Following these elevations, the descending order from highest to lowest is Ooty, Shimla, Darjeeling, and Mussoorie, which corresponds to the sequence 3-2-4-1.
50History
Consider the following statements :
1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society
2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi's prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
In Hind Swaraj, written in 1909, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a foundational philosophy of Swaraj, defining it not simply as political independence but as self-rule and self-mastery. He outlines a conception of the good life for individuals based on ethical conduct, the performance of duty, and mastery over the senses. For society, he proposes a model of Gram Swaraj characterized by decentralization, non-violence, and the rejection of modern industrial civilization, which he viewed as morally corrupting. This makes the work a holistic guide for both personal and collective transformation.
Regarding the context of the book, Gandhi wrote the manuscript on the ship SS Kildonan Castle while traveling from London to South Africa. While the text reflects his growing political consciousness, it was informed by his experiences with the racial struggle in South Africa and his observations of Western civilization in England. Since Gandhi did not return to India permanently until 1915, Hind Swaraj predates his prolonged struggle against the Colonial Raj in India.
51Polity and Governance
Which of the following is / are Constitutional Body / Bodies ?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
2. National Commission for Women
3. National Commission for Minorities
4. National Human Rights Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body established under Article 338A of the Constitution of India. This article was inserted through the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which partitioned the previous combined commission into the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. Conversely, the other bodies mentioned are statutory rather than constitutional. The National Commission for Women was established under the National Commission for Women Act of 1990. The National Commission for Minorities was created via the National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993. Since these three commissions derive their powers from parliamentary legislation and not directly from the Constitution, only the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes qualifies as a constitutional body.
52History
Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct ?
1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the world's population sent delegates
2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors' dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia
3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People's Republic of China and the United States
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Bandung Conference of 1955 was a landmark meeting of 29 newly independent nations from Asia and Africa, representing over half the global population at the time. It was organized by the Colombo Powers—India, Pakistan, Burma (Myanmar), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), and Indonesia—to foster regional cooperation and resist the pressures of the Cold War. The sponsoring nations were deeply dissatisfied with the Western powers' tendency to exclude Asian leaders from decisions involving Asian security and political interests, especially in the context of military alliances like SEATO. Furthermore, the conference aimed to ease international friction, specifically addressing the high-stakes tensions between the United States and the People's Republic of China to prevent the region from becoming a battlefield for superpower rivalries.
53History
Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture ?
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Answer: (A) Amalananda Ghosh
Explanation
Amalananda Ghosh, during his archaeological explorations in the Bikaner region of Rajasthan between 1951 and 1953, identified the Sothi culture. He was the first scholar to recognize that the pottery and material remains of this pre-Harappan phase exhibited significant similarities and continuity with the Mature Harappan culture. By highlighting these commonalities, Ghosh provided the first concrete evidence for the indigenous and evolutionary origin of the Indus Valley Civilization, suggesting that the urban Mature Harappan phase developed directly from earlier local cultures such as Sothi rather than being an abrupt or imported phenomenon.
54Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram ?
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Answer: (B) Both are carved out from solid rocks
Explanation
The Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora was built during the Rashtrakuta dynasty (8th century CE) and is a monolithic rock-cut temple, excavated entirely from a single basalt hillside — the largest monolithic rock-cut structure in the world. The Shore Temple at Mamallapuram was constructed by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II (Rajasimha) in the 8th century CE. Both temples date to the 8th century and represent Dravidian temple architecture. Neither is an example of Nagara (north Indian) architecture (a), nor from the Gupta period (c).
55Art and Culture
Which of the following is / are not depicted in the Rajput paintings ?
1. The stories of Krishna
2. Ragas and Raginis
3. The deeds of Hamza
4. The deeds of Babur
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The deeds of Hamza and the deeds of Babur are subjects that belong to the Mughal school of painting rather than the Rajput school. The Hamzanama, which chronicles the legendary adventures of Amir Hamza, was a massive project commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to establish the imperial atelier. Similarly, the Baburnama illustrations were created to document the historical memoirs and military exploits of the first Mughal Emperor, Babur. These works are characterized by a focus on historical biography, Persian literary influence, and naturalistic narrative styles. Rajput paintings, conversely, are rooted in indigenous traditions and primarily depict Hindu devotional themes such as the life of Krishna, the Ramayana, and the personification of musical melodies through Ragamala series. Therefore, the historical and legendary deeds of Mughal figures are not depicted in the Rajput artistic tradition.
56Economy
Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation ?
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Answer: (A) Fourth Plan (1969-74)
Explanation
The Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-74) was formulated with the primary objectives of growth with stability and the progressive achievement of self-reliance. This emphasis on stability was a direct response to the economic volatility experienced during the mid-1960s, a period marked by two major wars (1962 and 1965), consecutive years of severe drought (1965-66 and 1966-67), and the devaluation of the Indian Rupee in 1966. These events had triggered high inflationary pressures and severe food shortages, leading to the suspension of five-year planning for three years (1966-69). Consequently, the Fourth Plan prioritized bringing inflation under control and stabilizing the price level to create a conducive environment for sustained economic development. It focused on building buffer stocks of food grains and implementing fiscal measures to ensure that the growth process did not compromise economic stability.
57Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is / are true with respect to Phillips Curve ?
1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation
2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run
3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Phillips Curve describes the inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of inflation within an economy. Statement 1 is correct because the curve illustrates a trade-off where lower levels of unemployment are typically associated with higher rates of inflation.
Statement 2 is correct because this downward-sloping trade-off is generally observed only in the short run. According to the expectations-augmented Phillips curve developed by Milton Friedman and Edmund Phelps, workers and firms eventually adjust their expectations to match actual inflation. As these inflation expectations rise, the short-run Phillips curve shifts upward, nullifying the initial gains in employment.
In the long run, the Phillips Curve is vertical at the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment (NAIRU), rather than horizontal. This indicates that there is no permanent trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the long term, as the economy returns to its natural rate of unemployment regardless of the inflation rate.
58Economy
Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union ?
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Answer: (D) Uzbekistan
Explanation
Uzbekistan was not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) in 2016. The organization was formally established on January 1, 2015, following the signing of the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union, which aimed to facilitate the free movement of goods, services, capital, and labor among its member states. Uzbekistan did not join the union at its inception or in the immediate years following, as it maintained a policy of strategic autonomy regarding regional economic integration and did not sign the accession treaties. It was not until late 2020 that Uzbekistan was granted observer status, and it has not attained full membership status since then.
59Economy
BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in :
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Answer: (C) Fortaleza, Brazil (2014)
Explanation
The agreement to establish the New Development Bank (NDB) was signed on July 15, 2014, during the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil. At this summit, the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa signed the Agreement on the New Development Bank, which defined the purpose, governance, and capital structure of the institution. The bank was established with an initial authorized capital of 100 billion US dollars and an initial subscribed capital of 50 billion US dollars, shared equally among the founding members. Alongside the NDB agreement, the member nations also signed the treaty to create the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) to provide protection against global liquidity pressures.
60Economy
Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of :
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Answer: (B) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA).
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) was launched by the Government of India in 2015 to provide funding to the non-corporate, non-farm small and micro enterprises. These loans are classified into three products—Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun—to signify the stage of growth and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit or entrepreneur. Shishu covers loans up to ₹50,000, aimed at start-ups and initial stage businesses. Kishor covers loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh, designed for units that have already started operations and require additional funds for expansion. Tarun covers loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh, catering to the requirements of more established small business units. MUDRA operates as a refinancing institution, providing financial support to banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) that lend to these micro enterprises.
61Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 93 of the Constitution provides that the Lok Sabha shall choose two members of the House to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker respectively. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha, not appointed by the President. Furthermore, under Article 94, the Speaker can be removed from office only by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, not by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 95(1) specifies that while the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker. Additionally, Article 95(2) states that during the absence of the Speaker from any sitting of the House, the Deputy Speaker shall act as Speaker. The Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha also ensure that the Deputy Speaker discharges the functions of the Speaker whenever the latter is unable to do so due to absence or illness, ensuring the continuity of the constitutional office.
62Polity and Governance
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with :
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Answer: (A) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance
Explanation
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was established on August 31, 2005, under the chairmanship of Veerappa Moily to suggest measures to achieve a proactive, responsive, accountable, sustainable, and efficient administration at all levels of government. Its mandate was comprehensive, covering 15 distinct areas including organizational structure, ethics in governance, local governance, and citizen-centric administration. The commission primary objective was to overhaul the existing institutional arrangements to ensure they are better equipped to deliver good governance and meet the developmental needs of a modern democratic state. This involved suggesting systemic changes to improve transparency, efficiency, and accountability within the Indian administrative framework.
63Polity and Governance
As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order :
1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority
2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court or a quasi-judicial body to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice. This writ is essentially preventive in nature, as it is issued while the proceedings are pending in the lower court to stop them from continuing. It ensures that judicial and quasi-judicial authorities do not usurp a jurisdiction with which they are not legally vested or act in excess of their legal powers. Under the Indian Constitution, this writ is specifically directed against bodies performing judicial or quasi-judicial functions and is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private individuals.
64History
Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti?
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Answer: (B) Accomplished sculptor
Explanation
The Prayag Prashasti, also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, was composed by Samudragupta's court poet Harishena. The inscription provides a detailed account of the king's personality, conquests, and talents. It describes Samudragupta as a man of sharp and polished intellect who was well-versed in the shastras. It also extols his musical skills, stating that he put to shame the celestial musicians Narada and Tumburu with his performances. Furthermore, the text labels him Kaviraja or the king of poets, highlighting his genius in composing poetry. While the inscription characterizes him as a great patron and practitioner of various arts and sciences, it makes no mention of him being an accomplished sculptor.
65History
Kamandaka's Nitisara is a contribution to:
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Answer: (C) Political morality
Explanation
Kamandaka's Nitisara, also known as the Kamandakiya Nitisara, is an ancient Sanskrit treatise on statecraft and polity composed around the 4th to 8th century CE. It is widely regarded as an abridged version or a summary of Kautilya's Arthashastra, focusing specifically on the science of government and the moral conduct of a ruler. The text elaborates on the saptanga theory, which defines the seven essential elements of the state, and provides detailed instructions on diplomacy, internal administration, and the ethical responsibilities of a king toward his people. It serves as a comprehensive manual on political morality and the practical application of political wisdom in ancient India.
66Art and Culture
The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on:
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Answer: (A) Mathematics
Explanation
The Lilavati is a comprehensive treatise on mathematics and arithmetic written by the 12th-century Indian mathematician Bhaskara II (also known as Bhaskaracharya). It constitutes the first volume of his larger work, the Siddhanta Shiromani, which was completed around 1150 AD. The text covers a broad spectrum of mathematical topics, including basic arithmetic operations, fractions, interest calculations, progressions, plane and solid geometry, and combinations. A distinctive feature of the work is its presentation of mathematical problems through poetic verses and puzzles addressed to a young woman, traditionally identified as his daughter, Lilavati. The text served as a primary mathematical curriculum in India for centuries and was eventually translated into Persian by the poet Faizi at the request of Emperor Akbar in 1587.
67Economy
Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the concept of 'EFFICIENCY' as used in mainstream economics?
1. Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganisation of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off
2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
4. The terms such as 'Pareto Efficiency', 'Pareto Optimality' and 'Allocative Efficiency' are all essentially one and the same which denote 'efficiency in resource allocation'
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Efficiency in mainstream economics is fundamentally tied to the concept of Pareto efficiency, which occurs when it is impossible to rearrange production or distribution to make one person better off without making at least one other person worse off. This condition defines Statement 1. In graphical terms, the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) illustrates the maximum output combinations an economy can achieve. Any point located inside the frontier indicates that resources are underutilized or misallocated, representing clear inefficiency as stated in Statement 2. Conversely, for an economy to be considered efficient at a minimum level of productive capacity, it must operate on the frontier itself, which validates Statement 3. Furthermore, in the study of welfare economics and general equilibrium, the terms Pareto Efficiency, Pareto Optimality, and Allocative Efficiency are used to describe an optimal state where resources are allocated such that the marginal rate of substitution equals the marginal rate of transformation (MRS = MRT). While they focus on different aspects of optimization—production, exchange, and product mix—they collectively denote the standard for efficiency in resource allocation as described in Statement 4. Since all four statements represent core tenets of economic efficiency, they are all true.
68Polity and Governance
The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in:
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Answer: (B) Suva
Explanation
The Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his visit to Fiji in November 2014. The inaugural FIPIC summit took place in Suva, the capital of Fiji, on November 19, 2014. This initiative was part of India's Act East Policy, aimed at strengthening ties with 14 Pacific Island nations: Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. The summit focused on developmental assistance, cooperation in disaster management, and mitigating the effects of climate change in the region.
69Polity and Governance
Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month of August 2015?
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Answer: (C) Sri Lanka
Explanation
Sri Lanka conducted its parliamentary elections on August 17, 2015. These elections were held to elect 225 members to the 15th Parliament of Sri Lanka. The polls followed the victory of Maithripala Sirisena in the January 2015 presidential election, which led to a shift in the political landscape. The United National Party (UNP), under the leadership of Ranil Wickremesinghe, emerged as the largest party in the legislature. The election was characterized by a high voter turnout of approximately 77 percent and was widely observed as a crucial step in the country's democratic consolidation and constitutional reform process.
70Economy
Which one of the following nations has faced severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?
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Answer: (B) Greece
Explanation
In June 2015, Greece became the first advanced economy to default on a repayment to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The nation failed to make a 1.5 billion Euro payment after negotiations with international creditors over bailout conditions and austerity measures stalled. This default was a critical point in the long-running Greek government-debt crisis, leading to the temporary closure of Greek banks and the implementation of capital controls to prevent a total financial collapse. The situation underscored the severe economic distress faced by the country as it struggled to manage its massive sovereign debt within the framework of the Eurozone.
71Polity and Governance
Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
3. H.D. Deve Gowda
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Viswanath Pratap Singh was the first Prime Minister of India to be defeated by a vote on the floor of the Lok Sabha on November 7, 1990, after the Bharatiya Janata Party withdrew its support from the National Front government.
H.D. Deve Gowda headed the United Front government and was defeated in a vote of confidence on April 11, 1997, when the Indian National Congress, which was providing external support, withdrew its backing.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee's second government fell on April 17, 1999, when he lost a vote of confidence by the narrowest possible margin of just one vote (269 to 270) following the withdrawal of support by the AIADMK.
Morarji Desai is excluded because although a no-confidence motion was moved against his government in July 1979, he resigned from his office before the motion could be put to a vote in the Lok Sabha, thereby avoiding a defeat on the floor of the house.
72Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is / are correct?
1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories
3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 80 of the Constitution of India prescribes the maximum permissible strength of the Rajya Sabha as 250 members. Within this total capacity, 12 members are nominated by the President from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. The remaining 238 members are representatives of the States and the Union Territories. These 238 members are elected indirectly; specifically, the representatives of each State are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, while representatives from Union Territories are chosen in a manner prescribed by Parliament. These provisions establish the Rajya Sabha as a permanent body representing the interests of the states within the federal structure.
73Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?
1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session
3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency
4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community
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Answer: (B) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President of India possesses the judicial power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in specific cases. This power extends to all cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial, cases involving offences against Union laws, and all instances of death sentences. Additionally, as per the constitutional provisions applicable in 2016 under Article 331, the President had the authority to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if he was of the opinion that the community was not adequately represented in the House. This ensured that the interests of this specific minority group were protected in the legislative process.
74Art and Culture
The followers of Gorakhnath were called :
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Answer: (B) Nath-Panthis
Explanation
Gorakhnath was the influential founder and principal proponent of the Nath Sampradaya, a Shaivite sub-tradition of yoga-practicing ascetics that emerged around the 11th century. His followers are formally known as Nath-Panthis, a name derived from their adherence to the Nath Panth, or the Path of the Masters. This religious movement advocated for the practice of Hatha Yoga, physical discipline, and intense meditation as the primary means to achieve spiritual liberation and union with the ultimate reality. The Nath-Panthis were notable for their rejection of orthodox Brahmanical rituals and the rigid caste system, which helped their teachings gain widespread popularity among the common masses in Northern and Western India. They are also historically recognized for their distinctive identity as Kanphata ascetics, characterized by the large earrings worn through the centers of their ears as a mark of their initiation into the order.
75History
What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ?
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Answer: (A) Misl
Explanation
The term Misl refers to the sovereign states of the Sikh Confederacy that rose to power in the Punjab region during the 18th century following the decline of Mughal authority. Derived from the Arabic word meaning equal or example, the Misls were twelve independent administrative units that functioned as a democratic commonwealth. These units were unified under the military command of the Dal Khalsa to resist external threats from the Mughals and Afghans. Each Misl was headed by a chief known as a Misldar or Sardar and possessed its own territory and armed forces. The prominent Misls included the Ahluwalia, Bhangi, Phulkian, Sukerchakia, and Ramgarhia, among others. This decentralized structure remained the primary form of Sikh political organization until Maharaja Ranjit Singh, leader of the Sukerchakia Misl, unified the various states into the centralized Sikh Empire at the beginning of the 19th century.
76Polity and Governance
Which of the statements given below is / are correct ?
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set up under the Constitution of India in 1950
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is accurate as Article 44 within the Directive Principles of State Policy explicitly mentions that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Statement 2 is correct because the writ jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is wider in scope than the Supreme Court jurisdiction under Article 32. While the Supreme Court can only issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the High Courts can issue them for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal right. Furthermore, High Courts possess the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their jurisdiction under Article 227. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court of India was established under the Constitution and inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It replaced both the Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council, becoming the final court of appeal and the first fully independent apex court for the sovereign nation.
77Economy
Which of the following is / are the example(s) of Transfer Payment(s) ?
1. Unemployment Allowance
2. Payment of Salary
3. Social Security Payments
4. Old age Pension
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Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Transfer payments are unilateral payments made by the government or other entities for which no goods or services are provided in exchange. They represent a redistribution of income rather than a payment for productive activity. Unemployment allowances are provided to support individuals during periods of joblessness. Social security payments are disbursements made to provide a safety net for vulnerable populations. Old age pensions are provided to the elderly to ensure financial security in post-working life. These categories are excluded from the calculation of National Income because they do not reflect any current production or value addition in the economy.
78Art and Culture
The Erawan shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August 2015, is located at :
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Answer: (B) Bangkok
Explanation
The Erawan Shrine, formally known as the Thao Maha Phrom Shrine, is a prominent Hindu shrine located at the Ratchaprasong intersection in the Pathum Wan District of Bangkok, Thailand. It houses a statue of Phra Phrom, the Thai representation of the Hindu god Brahma. On August 17, 2015, the shrine was the site of a major terrorist bombing that resulted in 20 deaths and more than 120 injuries, making it one of the most significant security incidents in the city's recent history. The shrine is a major tourist attraction and a central place of worship for both locals and visitors in the heart of Bangkok's commercial district.
79History
Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015 ?
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Answer: (B) Saina Nehwal
Explanation
Saina Nehwal achieved a historic milestone in Indian sports by becoming the first Indian player to reach the final of the BWF World Championships during the 2015 edition held in Jakarta, Indonesia. After defeating Indonesia's Lindaweni Fanetri in the semifinals, she secured her place in the gold medal match against Spain's Carolina Marin. Although she settled for the silver medal after a hard-fought final, her achievement surpassed the previous best performances of Indian shuttlers, including the bronze medals won by Prakash Padukone in 1983 and P.V. Sindhu in 2013 and 2014. Her performance in 2015 marked the first time any Indian, male or female, had ever competed in the gold medal match of this prestigious tournament.
80Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles / Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils ?
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Answer: (C) Sixth Schedule
Explanation
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It mandates the creation of Autonomous District Councils to facilitate self-governance and protect the social, cultural, and land rights of tribal communities. These councils are granted significant autonomy, including the power to legislate on specific subjects such as land management, forest regulation, inheritance of property, and marriage laws. They also possess judicial powers to constitute village courts for resolving disputes and have the authority to manage local resources and collect certain taxes within their jurisdiction.
81Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to UID / Aadhar Card are correct?
1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all residents of India
2. It is an identity number along with the biometric information of the individuals
3. It is a national identity and citizenship card
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identification number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to any individual residing in India who undergoes the enrollment process. It serves as a centralized identity database that stores both demographic data and biometric information, including iris scans and fingerprints, to establish a unique identity for every resident. This biometric linkage ensures the authenticity of the holder during the verification of services and subsidies. However, the Aadhaar Act of 2016 and subsequent government notifications clarify that while Aadhaar is a proof of identity and residence, it is not a proof of citizenship or domicile. It does not grant the holder any rights associated with national citizenship, distinguishing it from documents like a citizenship card.
82Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term
2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India
3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity
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Answer: (A) 1,2 and 4
Explanation
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148. Statement 1 is correct as the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, specifies that the CAG holds office for a term of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Statement 2 is correct because the office is created by the Constitution, and Article 149 specifically authorizes the CAG to exercise powers and perform duties in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States as prescribed by Parliament. Statement 4 is correct because Article 148(1) provides the CAG with security of tenure by mandating that removal can only occur in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which involves an address by both Houses of Parliament supported by a special majority on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CAG is a single-member body, not a multi-member one.
83Economy
Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by:
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Answer: (C) UNDP
Explanation
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has published the Human Development Report (HDR) annually since its inception in 1990. The report was established to promote a new approach for advancing human well-being, shifting the focus of development from purely economic metrics like gross domestic product to a more holistic view of human capabilities. It features the Human Development Index (HDI), which evaluates countries based on three basic dimensions: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living. By providing data-driven analysis and policy recommendations, the UNDP uses this report to influence global development agendas and monitor social and economic progress across nations.
84Art and Culture
Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct?
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Answer: (C) The obverse generally had king's portrait and reverse had an image of a deity or a motif
Explanation
Gupta coinage, particularly the gold Dinars, reached a high level of artistic and iconographic sophistication. The obverse side of these coins generally featured a portrait of the reigning monarch in various thematic representations, such as the King as an archer, a musician playing the lyre, a hunter, or a performer of the Ashvamedha sacrifice. These depictions were usually accompanied by Sanskrit legends in Brahmi script around the periphery, extolling the king's virtues. The reverse side typically depicted an image of a deity or a religious motif rather than a date. Common deities included Goddess Lakshmi seated on a lotus or a throne, Goddess Ganga on a makara, or Kartikeya on a peacock. Specific motifs, such as the Garuda, were also common, especially on silver coins. While silver coins introduced by Chandragupta II sometimes included dates in the Saka era, the primary characteristic of the vast majority of Gupta numismatics was the king-deity combination.
85History
The agrahara in early India was:
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Answer: (A) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins
Explanation
In early India, an agrahara was a specific type of land grant or an entire village bestowed by monarchs or members of the royal family upon Brahmins. These grants were intended to provide a permanent source of livelihood for the priestly and scholarly class, allowing them to focus on religious duties, rituals, and teaching without the need for manual labor. Agrahara lands were typically hereditary and were usually accompanied by significant tax exemptions or total immunity from royal administrative interference. This practice became particularly widespread during the Gupta period and continued through the medieval era across various Indian kingdoms, serving as a primary mechanism for the spread of Vedic culture and the settlement of learned communities in rural areas.
86Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?
1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980
2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments
3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The responsibility for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, rests with the State and Union Territory governments. These governments are required to constitute various administrative bodies, including the State Level Monitoring Committee, District Level Committee, and Sub-Divisional Level Committee, to process, verify, and approve the claims for forest rights. Furthermore, the core objective of the Act is to recognize and vest forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. It serves to legally acknowledge the tenure and access rights of these communities who have been residing in and depending on forest ecosystems for generations, thereby addressing the historical injustice resulting from the non-recognition of their rights during earlier forest settlement processes.
87Art and Culture
Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with:
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Answer: (C) Martina Hingis
Explanation
Leander Paes teamed up with Swiss tennis legend Martina Hingis to win the 2015 US Open mixed doubles title. In the final, the duo defeated the American pair of Bethanie Mattek-Sands and Sam Querrey with a score of 6–4, 3–6, [10–7]. This victory was historic as it made Paes and Hingis the first mixed doubles team in the Open Era to win three Grand Slam titles in a single calendar year, following their successes at the Australian Open and Wimbledon earlier in 2015. For Paes, this triumph marked his 17th Grand Slam title and his ninth in the mixed doubles category.
88Economy
Who among the following is the winner of the World Food Prize (year 2015)?
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Answer: (C) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed
Explanation
Sir Fazle Hasan Abed of Bangladesh was awarded the 2015 World Food Prize for his unparalleled work in building BRAC, which is recognized as one of the world's largest and most effective non-governmental organizations. Under his leadership, BRAC significantly improved food security and decreased poverty for millions of people across Asia and Africa. By integrating agricultural development with healthcare, microfinance, and education, he created a holistic model for rural development that empowered the poor, particularly women, to escape the cycle of hunger and poverty. His approach focused on scalable solutions that transformed the lives of over 150 million people through sustainable agricultural practices and social empowerment.
89Polity and Governance
In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the 'rarest of rare' principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?
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Answer: (A) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
Explanation
The 'rarest of rare' principle was established by the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980). In this judgment, the court upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty but mandated that it should be awarded only in exceptional cases where the crime is so heinous that it shocks the collective conscience of society. The court ruled that for a case to fall within this category, the life imprisonment alternative must be' unquestionably foreclosed. Judges are required to weigh both aggravating circumstances related to the crime and mitigating circumstances related to the offender, ensuring that the death sentence is the exception rather than the rule in capital offenses.
90Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the President of India:
1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information
2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 78 of the Indian Constitution defines the duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President. Under Article 78(a), it is the constitutional duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President. This ensures that the President, as the formal head of the executive, is kept informed of all significant executive actions and legislative intents. Additionally, Article 78(b) empowers the President to call for any information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation, and the Prime Minister is obligated to furnish such information. These provisions establish a formal mechanism through which the President exercises the right to be informed about the governance and legislative agenda of the country.
91Polity and Governance
In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India ?
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Answer: (B) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
Explanation
In the landmark case of Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001), a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986. The Court ruled that the Act does not violate Articles 14, 15, or 21 of the Constitution. Through a purposive interpretation, the Court held that Section 3(1)(a) of the Act requires a Muslim husband to make a reasonable and fair provision for the future of his divorced wife, including her maintenance, and that this entire amount must be paid within the iddat period. The Court clarified that the husband's liability to provide for his divorced wife extends beyond the iddat period and continues until she remarries, thereby balancing the statutory provisions with the constitutional mandate of gender justice and social security.
92History
Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is / are true?
1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha
2. Rulers used the title Hindu Suratrana to indicate their close links with Gods
3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil
4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Vijayanagara rulers established their legitimacy by claiming to govern on behalf of the deity Virupaksha, the primary guardian god of the kingdom. Royal orders were typically signed in the name of the god to signify this divine delegation of power. The kings also adopted the title Hindu Suratrana, which translated to Hindu Sultan, to emphasize their role as protectors of the dharma and to associate themselves with the prestige of contemporary political titles. Additionally, the period introduced the practice of placing royal portrait sculptures inside temple premises. These life-sized bronze or stone statues, such as those of Krishnadeva Raya and his consorts, were installed in shrines to showcase the rulers as eternal devotees and major benefactors of the religious cults.
93History
Iqta in medieval India meant:
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Answer: (B) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers
Explanation
The Iqta system was a significant administrative and agrarian tool introduced during the Delhi Sultanate, primarily organized by Sultan Iltutmish. It involved the division of the empire into various territorial units known as Iqtas, which were assigned to military officers and nobles, referred to as Iqtadars or Muqtis. These assignments were not grants of land ownership but rather the right to collect and appropriate land revenue from a specific area. The Iqtadars used this revenue to maintain themselves and provide a designated contingent of troops for the Sultan’s service. This system effectively linked the military and administrative machinery with the land revenue system, ensuring the upkeep of the army and the collection of taxes across the Sultanate's territories.
94History
Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar's court ?
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Answer: (D) Tarikh-i-Alfi
Explanation
While all four works are associated with Akbar's court, the Tarikh-i-Alfi (History of the Millennium) was primarily a historical chronicle commissioned in 1582 to document the first thousand years of Islamic history. Though a few illustrated folios attributed to this work survive in museum collections, the Tarikh-i-Alfi was fundamentally a text-based historiographical project and was NOT conceived or produced as an illustrated manuscript in the same manner as the other three. The Hamzanama (~1,400 large-scale paintings on cloth, 1562-1577), Razmnama (lavish Persian Mahabharata illustrations, 1580s), and Baburnama (multiple illustrated editions from 1589 onward) were all deliberately commissioned as illustrated manuscripts in Akbar's royal atelier. Option (d) is the correct answer.
95Economy
Which of the following is not a 'Public Good' ?
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Answer: (A) Electricity
Explanation
Electricity is classified as a private good or a public utility because it does not meet the two essential criteria of a public good: non-excludability and non-rivalry. It is excludable because the supply can be restricted to only those who pay for it through metering and grid management; providers can simply disconnect the service for non-payment. It is also rivalrous in consumption, meaning that the electricity used by one consumer is not available for use by another, and the total capacity of the generation and distribution system is limited. In contrast, a public good must be available to everyone without the possibility of exclusion and its use by one individual must not diminish its availability for others. Because electricity is both excludable and rivalrous, it is not a public good.
96Economy
Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61) ?
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Answer: (C) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports
Explanation
The Second Five Year Plan, covering the period from 1956 to 1961 and based on the Mahalanobis Model, focused primarily on rapid industrialization with an emphasis on heavy and basic industries. While it aimed for a significant increase in national income, the expansion of employment opportunities, and the reduction of inequalities in income and wealth, the specific goal of achieving self-sufficiency in food grains and increasing agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports was the principal objective of the Third Five Year Plan (1961-66). The Second Plan had actually shifted investment priority away from agriculture toward the industrial sector, leading to food shortages that necessitated the focus on agricultural self-reliance in the subsequent plan.
97Polity and Governance
The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age of :
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Answer: (D) 18 years
Explanation
The National Policy for Children, 2013, adopted by the Government of India, explicitly defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years. This definition is consistent with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC), to which India is a signatory. The policy provides a framework for the protection, development, and participation of all individuals within this age group, emphasizing their rights to survival, health, nutrition, and education while ensuring protection from exploitation and violence.
98Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?
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Answer: (B) 100 percent girls' enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020
Explanation
The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) initiative, launched in January 2015, established specific monitorable targets to track progress across its selected districts. While the scheme aims to improve girls' education, the official monitorable target for secondary education was set to increase the enrolment of girls to 79 percent by the year 2017 (relative to the 76 percent baseline in 2013-14), and later updated to 82 percent by 2018-19. Achieving 100 percent enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020 was not defined as a monitorable target in the scheme's implementation guidelines.
99Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
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Answer: (A) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions
Explanation
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Government of India in 2013 to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions. The scheme focuses specifically on state-level universities and colleges to improve their overall quality, ensure reforms in affiliation and examination systems, and correct regional imbalances. Its mandate is restricted to public-funded institutions, meaning state government-owned and state-aided institutions. Therefore, the improvement of the quality of private educational institutions does not fall under its objectives, as private unaided institutions are not eligible for funding or direct intervention under the RUSA framework.
100Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is / are correct ?
1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 of Constitution of India
2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed
3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the magistrate
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The detention of a person who is already in jail is permissible under Indian law, but it is subject to specific judicial safeguards. As established in cases like Rameshwar Shaw v. District Magistrate, Burdwan (1964), the detaining authority must demonstrate subjective satisfaction that the detention is necessary. This requires the authority to be aware that the person is already in custody and to have reliable grounds to believe that the person is likely to be released and, upon release, will engage in activities prejudicial to public order or national security. If the authority passes the order without considering these facts, it constitutes a non-application of mind, and the detenue has a right to challenge the order in court.
Regarding the other statements, Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has clarified through various judgments (such as Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India) that the fundamental rights are not mutually exclusive. A preventive detainee retains rights under Article 14 (right to equality) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty), meaning the detention procedure must be fair, just, and reasonable, extending beyond the specific procedural safeguards of Article 22(4) and (5). Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 22(3)(b) explicitly exempts preventive detention from the application of Article 22(2), which mandates production before a magistrate within twenty-four hours of arrest.
101Polity and Governance
A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member :
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Answer: (B) is expelled by the political party from which he / she had been elected to the House
Explanation
The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law, provides the grounds for disqualification of a Member of Parliament. While the law stipulates that a member is disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or vote against the party's whip, it remains silent on the issue of expulsion. In the eyes of the law and various judicial interpretations, if a political party expels a member, that member does not lose their seat in the Lok Sabha. Such an expelled member is often designated as an unattached member in the House but continues to represent their constituency for the remainder of the term, as the act of expulsion is a unilateral decision by the party and not a voluntary act or a violation of a voting directive by the member themselves.
102Polity and Governance
Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (A) English
Explanation
English is not recognized as a scheduled language under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Although English serves as an official language of the Union and is extensively used for administrative, legislative, and judicial purposes across India, it was never included in the list of languages formally recognized in this specific constitutional schedule. The Eighth Schedule focuses on major regional and classical languages of India, a list that has expanded through various constitutional amendments to include twenty-two languages, but English has remained outside this classification.
103Art and Culture
Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to ?
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Answer: (C) Vijayanagara
Explanation
The Hazara Rama Temple is a 15th-century Hindu temple located in Hampi, which served as the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. Built during the reign of King Devaraya II, it functioned as the private place of worship for the royal family. The temple is celebrated for its extensive bas-reliefs that illustrate key episodes from the Ramayana across several horizontal panels on its exterior walls. The name Hazara Rama translates to a thousand Ramas, signifying the many depictions of the deity within the complex. It represents the pinnacle of Vijayanagara architectural style, featuring highly ornate pillars and sophisticated stone craftsmanship characteristic of the empire's peak period.
104History
Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC :
1. They record gifts made to religious institutions
2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Votive inscriptions from the second century BC, extensively found at sites like Sanchi, Bharhut, and Bodh Gaya, served as formal records of donations made by lay devotees, monks, and nuns to religious institutions. These inscriptions typically identify the donor and the specific architectural element, such as a pillar, gateway, or railing, that was gifted to the Buddhist or Jaina establishment.
These records also reflect the religious philosophy of the period by documenting the practice of merit transference. Donors often specified that the spiritual merit (punya) resulting from their act of charity was intended for the welfare and enlightenment of others, such as their parents, teachers, or all living beings. This indicates a belief that the beneficial consequences of a virtuous action could be redirected to assist the spiritual progress of individuals other than the performer of the deed.
105Art and Culture
Consider the following statements :
1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems
2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Abhinavagupta, the 10th-century philosopher from Kashmir, authored the Tantraloka, which is considered the most exhaustive and systematic synthesis of the non-dualistic Shaiva Tantra. This monumental work integrates the philosophical and ritualistic teachings of the Trika and Kula systems, providing a comprehensive guide to the path of liberation through consciousness and ritual.
Haribhadra Suri was a prominent Jain monk and philosopher active in the 8th century in the region of Gujarat and Rajasthan. His work, the Samaraichchakaha, is a Prakrit religious narrative designed to illustrate the Jain doctrine of karma through the stories of two souls across multiple incarnations. While it is fundamentally a Jain didactic text, it is historically significant for its detailed depictions of the contemporary socio-religious landscape, which was deeply influenced by the Tantric movement. The text contains numerous descriptions of Tantric rituals, mandalas, and the use of mantras, reflecting how Tantric elements had become integrated into the broader religious consciousness of early medieval India.
106Economy
Which of the following is/are example(s) of 'Near Money' ?
1. Treasury Bill
2. Credit Card
3. Savings accounts and small time deposits
4. Retail money market mutual funds
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Near money, also known as quasi-money, refers to a category of financial assets that are highly liquid and can be easily converted into cash or checking deposits without significant loss of value. Treasury Bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government that are considered highly liquid and safe, making them a classic example of near money. Savings accounts and small-time deposits are also included because they can be quickly withdrawn or transferred into liquid currency, even if they are not used directly as a medium of exchange for daily transactions. Retail money market mutual funds consist of short-term, low-risk securities that provide investors with the ability to liquidate their positions almost immediately. These assets are typically included in broader monetary aggregates like M2 and M3 because of their high degree of moneyness and proximity to cash.
107Economy
Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction ?
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Answer: (B) Hedging
Explanation
Hedging is a risk management strategy used to limit or offset the probability of loss from fluctuations in the prices of commodities, currencies, or securities. It involves taking a position in a secondary market, such as through futures, options, or forward contracts, that is opposite to the position held in the primary asset. By making this counteracting transaction, a person or firm ensures that any potential losses in the original investment are balanced by gains in the hedge, thereby neutralizing the overall financial risk and providing protection against market volatility.
108Art and Culture
'Citizenfour', the 87th Academy Award winner in the category of documentary feature, is based on the life of :
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Answer: (C) Edward Snowden
Explanation
Citizenfour is a 2014 documentary film directed by Laura Poitras that chronicles the real-time events surrounding the disclosure of mass surveillance programs by the National Security Agency (NSA). The film is based on the life and whistleblower activities of Edward Snowden, a former technical assistant for the CIA and contractor for the NSA. The title of the documentary, Citizenfour, refers to the pseudonym Snowden used when he first contacted Poitras via encrypted emails to leak classified information. The film captures the clandestine meetings in a Hong Kong hotel room where Snowden handed over documents to journalists, revealing the global scale of government surveillance. At the 87th Academy Awards held in 2015, the film was honored with the Oscar for Best Documentary Feature for its portrayal of these events and their impact on digital privacy and national security.
109Economy
Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 2015-16 ?
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Answer: (C) 180 days in advance ticket booking facility for passengers
Explanation
In the Union Railway Budget 2015-16, the Ministry of Railways increased the Advance Reservation Period (ARP) for booking train tickets from 60 days to 120 days, effective from April 1, 2015. This policy was aimed at curbing the activities of touts and facilitating better planning for genuine travelers. At no point during the 2015-16 budget or subsequent notifications was a 180-day advance booking facility introduced for general passengers, as the maximum limit was strictly set at 120 days.
110Economy
Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discontinued ?
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Answer: (B) Telegram
Explanation
The Telegram service in India was officially discontinued on July 15, 2013, marking the end of a 163-year-old communication era. First introduced by the British East India Company in 1850, the service provided a vital link for urgent personal and official communication across the country. The decision to terminate the service was driven by the rapid evolution of digital communication technologies, including mobile phones, SMS, and the internet, which rendered the telegram obsolete. By the time of its closure, the service was incurring significant financial losses due to the drastic decline in users and the high costs of maintaining the specialized infrastructure.
111Polity and Governance
The category of 'Overseas Citizens of India' was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year :
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Answer: (D) 2003
Explanation
The category of Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) was formally introduced into the Citizenship Act, 1955, by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003. This amendment followed the recommendations of the High Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora, chaired by L.M. Singhvi, which advocated for a scheme to grant a limited form of dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs). The 2003 Act inserted Section 7A, which allowed individuals of Indian origin in sixteen specified countries to register as OCIs. This status grants various benefits, including a multi-purpose, multiple-entry, lifelong visa for visiting India and parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in economic and educational fields, though it specifically excludes political rights such as the right to vote or hold constitutional offices.
112Polity and Governance
The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the :
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India, which provides that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This amendment established education as a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution. It also led to the consequential enactment of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which specifies the modalities of the provision of free and compulsory education. The 86th Amendment further modified Article 45 in the Directive Principles of State Policy and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents and guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of six and fourteen years.
113History
Consider the following statements :
1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rumminde give vivid details of Ashoka's Dhamma
2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa
Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Nigalisagar (or Niglihawa) Pillar Inscription, located in the Terai region of Nepal, specifically commemorates Emperor Ashoka's visit and patronage to the stupa of Buddha Konagamana. The inscription records that in the fourteenth year of his reign, Ashoka enlarged the stupa of Buddha Konagamana to double its original size. It further notes that in his twentieth regnal year, he personally visited the site to perform worship and erected the stone pillar. This inscription is a primary historical source confirming the existence of the cult of previous Buddhas during the Mauryan era.
The Rummindei Pillar Inscription, while also established in Ashoka's twentieth regnal year, serves as a commemorative marker for the birthplace of Gautama Buddha at Lumbini. Its primary content is fiscal rather than doctrinal; it records the exemption of the village from the religious tax known as bali and the reduction of the land tribute known as bhaga to one-eighth (1/8) of the produce. It does not provide an exposition of the principles of Ashoka's Dhamma, which are instead found in the Major Rock Edicts and the seven Pillar Edicts.
114History
Consider the following statements :
1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911
2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Assam was first established as a separate administrative province under a Chief Commissioner in 1874, when it was carved out from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal. This new province was formed by separating eleven districts: the six districts of the Brahmaputra Valley (Goalpara, Kamrup, Darrang, Nagaon, Sibsagar, and Lakhimpur), the two districts of the Surma Valley (Cachar and Sylhet), and the three hill districts (Garo Hills, Khasi and Jaintia Hills, and Naga Hills). Although the province was later merged with Eastern Bengal between 1905 and 1911 following the Partition of Bengal, it was reconstituted as a separate entity in 1912. The 1911 Delhi Durbar announcement led to the restoration of its status rather than its initial creation, which historically occurred in 1874.
115History
Which of the following statements is / are true ?
1. Faxian's Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India
2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text
3. Faxian's main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Faxian (337–422 CE) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India during the Gupta period, specifically during the reign of Chandragupta II. His written account, the Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan (Record of Buddhist Kingdoms), is historically significant as the earliest surviving first-hand Chinese travelogue of the Indian subcontinent, providing detailed observations on geography, social conditions, and Buddhist practices. Faxian's primary motivation for undertaking this arduous journey was the search for complete and authentic copies of the Vinaya Pitaka, the Buddhist texts containing monastic rules. At the time, the monastic codes available in China were considered fragmentary and insufficient for the proper regulation of the Sangha. He spent years in Indian centers of learning, such as Pataliputra, where he studied Sanskrit and diligently copied various versions of the Vinaya to bring back to China for translation and implementation.
116Economy
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should relate to their income or wealth
2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from Government programmes
3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families
4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The ability-to-pay principle maintains that the tax burden should be distributed according to an individual capacity to bear it, which is typically measured through income or accumulated wealth. The benefit principle suggests that taxation should be treated as a payment for services rendered by the state, where individuals contribute in proportion to the utility or benefits they derive from public expenditures. Indirect taxes are generally characterized by lower administrative costs and higher collection efficiency because they are levied on the consumption of goods and services and collected at fewer points in the supply chain, such as during production or at the point of sale. This makes them easier to manage than direct taxes which require individual assessments. Statement 3 is incorrect because a progressive tax takes a larger share of income from rich families, whereas a regressive tax takes a larger share from poor families.
117Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is /are false ?
1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and independent members
2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature
3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The only statutory Wage Boards in India are those constituted for Journalists and Non-Journalists under the Working Journalists and Other Newspaper Employees (Conditions of Service) and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1955. All other industry-specific Wage Boards, such as those for sugar, cotton, or cement, are non-statutory and are established through executive orders. Consequently, statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is accurate because Wage Boards are fundamentally tripartite bodies composed of representatives from employers and workers in equal numbers, alongside independent members. Statement 3 is also accurate as the Second National Commission on Labour (2002) concluded that Wage Boards have lost their utility in the liberalized economic environment and recommended that wage fixation should be left to collective bargaining between employers and employees.
118Polity and Governance
The rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to :
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Answer: (B) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy
Explanation
The Indian Armed Forces maintain a functional equivalence across their rank structures for protocol and pay parity. A Major General in the Indian Army is a two-star rank officer. In the Indian Navy, the corresponding two-star rank is Rear Admiral, while in the Indian Air Force, it is Air Vice Marshal. These officers typically serve as commanders of divisions or equivalent formations and share the same level of seniority and responsibility within the unified command structure. In terms of the Pay Matrix and precedence, they are all positioned at Level 14.
119Science and Technology
Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is no :
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Answer: (D) Jupiter orbiter satellite
Explanation
As of 2016, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) maintained a robust fleet of operational satellites dedicated to various socio-economic and strategic applications. These included the INSAT and GSAT series for communication and broadcasting, the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) and Cartosat series for Earth observation, and the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), also known as NavIC, for positioning services. While India had successfully ventured into deep space exploration with the Chandrayaan-1 mission to the Moon and the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) to the Red Planet, it had not launched or operated any mission to Jupiter. Exploring the Jovian system remained outside the scope of India's operational and scientific satellite programs during that period.