A sprinter feels cramps and pain in the thigh muscles after a run. This is due to accumulation of
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Answer: (A) lactic acid
Explanation
During intense physical activities like sprinting, the demand for energy in the muscle cells exceeds the amount of oxygen available for aerobic respiration. To bridge this energy gap, the muscle cells perform anaerobic respiration, where glucose is converted into pyruvate and then immediately reduced to lactic acid. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle tissues leads to a decrease in pH, which interferes with muscle fiber function and causes the sensation of fatigue, soreness, and painful cramps. This metabolic pathway allows for the rapid production of ATP when oxygen levels are insufficient to support the complete oxidation of glucose into carbon dioxide and water.
2Science and Technology
A leaf was plucked from a plant on a sunny day and kept for 2 minutes in boiling water. It was subsequently immersed in boiling alcohol and treated with iodine solution. What will be the final colour of the leaf after the test?
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Answer: (C) Blue
Explanation
The procedure described is the standard laboratory test for the presence of starch in a leaf. When a leaf is plucked on a sunny day, it has undergone photosynthesis and stored glucose as starch. Boiling the leaf in water for two minutes kills the cells and breaks down the cell membranes, making them permeable to reagents. Subsequent immersion in boiling alcohol (ethanol) dissolves and removes the green pigment chlorophyll, which is necessary to clearly observe any color changes. Finally, when the decolorized leaf is treated with iodine solution, the iodine reacts with the starch present in the leaf tissues. This chemical reaction forms a starch-iodine complex that exhibits a characteristic deep blue or blue-black coloration, indicating a positive result for the starch test.
3Science and Technology
If the red blood cells (RBCs) of human blood are isolated and are diluted in normal saline (an isotonic solution to blood), what will happen to the RBCs?
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Answer: (D) No change in the diameters of the RBCs
Explanation
Normal saline, typically a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride, is specifically formulated to be isotonic with human blood and intracellular fluids. Tonicity refers to the relative concentration of solutes dissolved in solution which determine the direction and extent of diffusion. In an isotonic environment, the osmotic pressure of the external solution matches the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm within the red blood cells. While water molecules constantly move across the semi-permeable cell membrane in both directions, the rate of water influx is equal to the rate of water efflux. Because there is no net movement of water into or out of the cells, the red blood cells maintain their characteristic biconcave shape and volume, resulting in no change to their physical dimensions or diameters.
4Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding bile secreted by liver is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Bile contains enzymes for digestion of lipids.
Explanation
Bile is a unique digestive secretion produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder that does not contain any digestive enzymes. Its composition includes bile salts such as sodium glycocholate and sodium taurocholate, bile pigments like bilirubin and biliverdin, cholesterol, and phospholipids. The digestion of lipids is a two-step process where bile performs the first step, known as emulsification, which involves the physical breakdown of large fat globules into tiny droplets called micelles to increase their surface area. The second step, which is the actual chemical hydrolysis of fats into fatty acids and glycerol, is performed by lipase enzymes secreted by the pancreas and the small intestine. Since bile lacks any enzymatic components, it cannot chemically digest lipids on its own.
5Science and Technology
The blood pressure of a normal human being is found to be 120 / 80 mmHg. These numbers represent the blood pressure at
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Answer: (A) ventricular contraction and ventricular relaxation, respectively
Explanation
Blood pressure is a measurement of the force that circulating blood exerts on the walls of the arteries. The systolic pressure, represented by the higher number (120 mmHg), reflects the peak arterial pressure during the phase of the cardiac cycle known as ventricular systole, when the ventricles contract to eject blood into the systemic circulation. The diastolic pressure, represented by the lower number (80 mmHg), reflects the minimum arterial pressure during ventricular diastole, the phase when the ventricles relax and refill with blood. These two values provide a comprehensive view of cardiovascular health by monitoring the stress placed on the arterial system during both the active pumping and resting phases of the heart.
6Science and Technology
A person burned a firecracker in front of a cliff and heard its echo 5 s after it burst. The distance of the cliff from the person, if the speed of the sound is 340 m / s, is close to
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Answer: (D) 850 m
Explanation
When a sound is produced in front of a reflecting surface like a cliff, an echo is heard when the sound travels to the cliff and returns to the source. The total distance covered by the sound is twice the distance between the person and the cliff. Using the relation Distance = Speed × Time, we have 2d = v × t, where d is the distance of the cliff, v is the speed of sound, and t is the time interval.
Substituting the given values:
2d = 340 m/s × 5 s
2d = 1700 m
d = 1700/2 m
d = 850 m
7Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about the microphone and the speaker of a mobile phone :
1. The microphone converts sound to a mechanical signal.
2. The microphone converts sound to an electrical signal.
3. The speaker converts a mechanical signal to sound.
4. The speaker converts an electrical signal to sound.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 and 4
Explanation
A microphone is a transducer that converts sound energy into electrical energy. When sound waves strike the diaphragm of the microphone, it vibrates, and these vibrations are converted into an analog or digital electrical signal through electromagnetic induction or changes in capacitance.
A speaker operates on the opposite principle of a microphone, acting as a transducer that converts electrical signals back into sound waves. The electrical current flows through a coil, creating a magnetic field that interacts with a permanent magnet to move a cone or diaphragm. This movement displaces air, recreating the original sound waves for the listener.
8Science and Technology
A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of electrical energy are consumed by the bulb in 3 days? (1 unit = 1 kWh)
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Answer: (A) 3:00
Explanation
The electrical energy consumed is calculated using the formula:
Energy (in kWh) = (P × t)/1000
where P is the power in Watts and t is the total time in hours.
For a 100 W bulb used for 10 hours a day over a period of 3 days, the total time of usage is:
t = 10 hours/day × 3 days = 30 hours
Substituting the values into the energy formula:
Energy = (100 W × 30 hours)/1000 = 3000/1000 = 3 kWh
As per the given conversion rate where 1 unit equals 1 kWh, the total electrical energy consumed by the bulb is 3 units.
9Science and Technology
The area under the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration gives
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Answer: (B) its net displacement
Explanation
The velocity v of an object is defined as the rate of change of displacement s with respect to time t, which is expressed mathematically as v = ds/dt. Rearranging this relation gives ds = v dt. The total displacement over a specific time interval is calculated by integrating the velocity function: Δs = ∫ₜ₁ᵗ² v dt. Geometrically, the definite integral of a function represents the area bounded by the curve of that function and the horizontal axis. Therefore, the area under the velocity-time graph corresponds to the integral ∫ v dt, which yields the net displacement of the particle. For a particle moving with uniform acceleration a starting with initial velocity u, the velocity-time graph is a straight line, and the area under this line over time t is given by the formula ut + 1/2at², which is the kinematic expression for displacement.
10Science and Technology
The power of a lens of focal length 10 cm is
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Answer: (C) 10 dioptre
Explanation
The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length when expressed in meters. The mathematical relationship is given by the formula P = 1/f(m), where P is the power in dioptres (D). Given a focal length f of 10 cm, it must be converted to meters by dividing by 100, which gives f = 0.1 m. Substituting this value into the formula, the power is P = 1/0.1 = 10 dioptres.
11Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding burning of magnesium ribbon in air :
1. White powder of MgO is formed.
2. It is an example of combustion reaction.
3. Heat and light are produced.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The burning of magnesium ribbon in air is a chemical reaction represented by the equation 2Mg(s) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(s). In this process, magnesium reacts with atmospheric oxygen to form magnesium oxide, which is a white powdery solid. This reaction is a classic example of a combustion reaction because it involves the rapid oxidation of a fuel (magnesium) in the presence of an oxidant (oxygen). The reaction is highly exothermic, meaning it releases a significant amount of energy in the forms of both heat and a characteristic dazzling white light. All three statements accurately describe the physical and chemical changes occurring during this process.
12Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to the reaction given below are correct?
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
1. Quickline is used for whitewashing of walls.
2. The solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing of walls.
3. CaO reacts slowly with CO2 in air to form a thin layer of CaCO3 on walls.
4. Calcium hydroxide called 'slaked lime' is an inorganic compound.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 4
Explanation
The reaction CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq) + Heat describes the hydration of quicklime (calcium oxide) to form slaked lime (calcium hydroxide). The resulting solution of slaked lime is the substance used for the whitewashing of walls. After it is applied to the wall surface, it reacts with the carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere to form a thin, hard, and shiny layer of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), which provides the white finish. Additionally, calcium hydroxide is classified as an inorganic compound because it is a mineral-derived base composed of metallic calcium ions and hydroxide ions, without the presence of any carbon-hydrogen covalent bonds.
13Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to heating of lead nitrate powder over a flame are correct?
1. Brown fumes of NO are released.
2. Colourless O2 gas is released.
3. It is an example of oxidation reaction.
4. It is an example of thermal decomposition used for the production of NO2 gas.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The heating of lead nitrate Pb(NO₃)₂ is a classic example of a thermal decomposition reaction, which occurs when a single reactant breaks down into multiple products upon the application of heat. The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
2Pb(NO₃)₂(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)
In this reaction, lead nitrate decomposes into lead(II) oxide (a yellow solid residue), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), and oxygen (O₂). Oxygen is a colourless and odourless gas released during the process. Nitrogen dioxide is the substance responsible for the characteristic brown fumes observed during the experiment. This reaction is frequently used in laboratory settings to demonstrate thermal decomposition and to produce nitrogen dioxide gas for study. Thus, the emission of colourless oxygen and the classification of the reaction as a thermal decomposition used for the production of NO₂ are the correct observations.
14Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an oxidation reaction?
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Answer: (B) Opening of soda bottle
Explanation
Opening a soda bottle is a physical process involving the release of dissolved gas, rather than a chemical reaction. Soda water contains carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolved in water under high pressure. According to Henry's Law, the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid. When the bottle is opened, the internal pressure drops abruptly to match the atmospheric pressure, causing the solubility of CO₂ to decrease and the gas to escape rapidly from the solution in the form of bubbles (effervescence). Since there is no change in the oxidation states of the atoms involved and no transfer of electrons or addition of oxygen, it does not constitute an oxidation reaction.
15Geography
Consider the following clues about a State of India :
1. It is known as 'land of red river and blue hills'.
2. It contains three of the six physiographic divisions of India.
3. It covers about 2:39 percent of total areas of the country.
Identify the State on the basis of the given clues.
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Answer: (C) Assam
Explanation
Assam is famously known as the land of red river and blue hills because of the mighty Brahmaputra River, which takes on a reddish tinge due to high sediment load during monsoons, and the surrounding hills like the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills that appear blue from a distance. Geologically, it is unique as it encompasses three of the six major physiographic divisions of India: the Northern Mountains (Himalayan foothills and Patkai range), the Northern Plains (the vast Brahmaputra and Barak valleys), and the Peninsular Plateau (the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills are geological extensions of the Deccan Plateau). In terms of area, Assam covers 78,438 square kilometers, which is approximately 2.39 percent of India's total geographical area of 3,287,263 square kilometers.
16Geography
Which of the following sets of States shares boundary with Telangana?
Telangana is a landlocked state in southern India that shares its geographical boundaries with four states. It is bordered by Maharashtra to the north and northwest, Chhattisgarh to the northeast, Karnataka to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the south and east. The state's perimeter is defined by these neighbors following the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act of 2014. Its northern and northeastern borders are partially demarcated by the Godavari and Pranhita rivers, while the western border meets the plateau region of Karnataka and the extensive southern and eastern lines are shared with Andhra Pradesh.
17Geography
Rani told her friends that last year she did boating in four different lakes, namely, Loktak, Barapani, Kolleru and Pulicat. Which of the following States did she visit?
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Answer: (B) Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Explanation
Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, located in the state of Manipur, and is famous for its floating phumdis. Barapani Lake, officially known as Umiam Lake, is a major reservoir located in the state of Meghalaya, near the capital city of Shillong. Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, situated in Andhra Pradesh between the Krishna and Godavari deltas. Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India and spans across the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. By visiting these four lakes, Rani travelled through the states of Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
18Polity and Governance
According to the Census 2011, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A person who can only read but cannot write, is not literate.
2. A person aged seven years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Census of India 2011 defines literacy based on specific functional criteria. A person is considered literate if they are aged seven years or older and possess the ability to both read and write with understanding in at least one language. This definition explicitly excludes individuals who have the ability to read but lack the ability to write, classifying them as illiterate. Furthermore, children below the age of seven are automatically categorized as illiterate in the census records, regardless of any schooling or abilities they might possess, because the age of seven is established as the threshold for measuring meaningful literacy. These criteria ensure a standardized measurement of basic educational attainment across the population, focusing on the dual capability of comprehension through reading and expression through writing.
19Geography
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many coastal and landlocked States of India, respectively?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 6
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer (23° 30' N) passes through eight Indian states. Among these, Gujarat and West Bengal are coastal states as they have shorelines along the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, respectively. The remaining six states—Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Tripura, and Mizoram—are landlocked, meaning they are entirely surrounded by land and have no direct access to the sea. Thus, the count is 2 coastal and 6 landlocked states.
20Economy
Which one of the following situations can lead to inflation?
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Answer: (A) Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply
Explanation
Demand-pull inflation occurs when the aggregate demand for goods and services in an economy grows at a significantly faster rate than the aggregate supply. This imbalance typically happens when the economy is expanding rapidly, fueled by factors such as increased consumer confidence, lower interest rates, or higher government spending. When the total demand exceeds the economy's maximum potential output, it creates a supply-demand gap. Since producers cannot immediately scale up production to match the surge in demand, they respond by raising prices. This competition among buyers for limited goods and services pushes the general price level higher, leading to a sustained period of inflation.
21Economy
Which of the following policies help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?
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Answer: (D) Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy
Explanation
Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government spending or reducing taxes, which increases the budget deficit. To finance this deficit, the government increases its borrowing in the loanable funds market, driving up the demand for credit and subsequently raising the real interest rate. Simultaneously, contractionary monetary policy involves the central bank reducing the money supply or raising the policy rate, which directly increases interest rates to curb inflation.
When both policies are applied together, the interest rate rises unambiguously because both actions exert upward pressure on it. In an open economy with mobile capital, these higher domestic interest rates attract foreign investors seeking better returns. This leads to a surge in capital inflows, increasing the demand for the domestic currency in the foreign exchange market, which results in the appreciation of the currency.
22Economy
The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called
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Answer: (A) crowding out
Explanation
Crowding out occurs when increased government deficit spending leads to a rise in interest rates, which subsequently reduces private investment. When the government borrows heavily from the financial markets to fund its budget deficit, the demand for loanable funds increases. According to the law of supply and demand, this higher demand pushes up the price of money, which is the interest rate. As the cost of borrowing rises, private firms find it more expensive to finance new projects, leading to a contraction in private capital formation. This process effectively results in the public sector displacing or crowding out the private sector's access to financial resources.
23Polity and Governance
Which among the following is/are the objective/objectives of the NITI Aayog?
1. Imposing policies on the States/UTs
2. Allocation of funds at National and State levels
3. Design strategies and long-term policies and programme frameworks
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Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
NITI Aayog functions as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. One of its core objectives is to design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, while monitoring their progress and efficacy through data-driven evaluation. It operates on the principle of cooperative federalism, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation, and therefore focuses on evolving a shared vision of national development priorities with the active involvement of States. Unlike the former Planning Commission, NITI Aayog follows a bottom-up approach and serves as a platform for technical advice and evidence-based policy making rather than exercising administrative control or financial distribution powers.
24Economy
The computation of poverty in terms of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by the
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Answer: (B) Tendulkar Committee
Explanation
The Suresh Tendulkar Committee, which submitted its report in 2009, recommended a significant shift in the methodology for estimating poverty in India. It moved away from the previous calorie-consumption-based poverty line to a more comprehensive basket of goods and services. A key recommendation was the adoption of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period (MRP) instead of the Uniform Reference Period (URP). The MRP methodology records consumption data for five low-frequency non-food items—clothing, footwear, durable goods, education, and institutional health expenses—over a 365-day recall period, while the consumption of all other items is recorded over a 30-day recall period. This approach was intended to capture expenditure on infrequent items more accurately and reduce the recall bias associated with shorter timeframes for such goods.
25Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the submission/sub-missions of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)?
1. Institutional training
2. Overseas employment
3. Leveraging of public infrastructure
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Skill Development Mission (NSDM), launched in 2015, provides a formal institutional framework to drive the skilling agenda across India. The mission is implemented through seven sub-missions that target specific segments of the labor market and training infrastructure. Institutional Training focuses on improving the quality and reach of vocational education within schools and colleges. Overseas Employment is designed to prepare and certify Indian workers for international job markets, ensuring they meet global standards. Leveraging Public Infrastructure seeks to optimize the use of existing government facilities, such as schools and laboratories, for skill training during non-operational hours to enhance capacity without major capital expenditure. These sub-missions are integral to the mission's goal of creating a skilled workforce that is both locally relevant and globally competitive.
26Polity and Governance
Which of the following strategies is/are adopted for implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan?
1. Inter-sectoral convergence for better service delivery
2. Use of technology (ICT) for real-time growth monitoring of women and children
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
POSHAN Abhiyaan is implemented through a multi-ministerial convergence mission to ensure a holistic approach toward malnutrition. Inter-sectoral convergence is a central strategy, bringing together various departments such as Health and Family Welfare, Drinking Water and Sanitation, and Rural Development to synchronize services like immunization, safe drinking water, and food fortification. This ensures that the various determinants of nutrition are addressed simultaneously for the same target population.
The mission also relies heavily on the use of technology through the Poshan Tracker, a dedicated ICT-based real-time monitoring system. This platform allows Anganwadi workers to digitize records and monitor the growth and nutritional status of children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers in real time. By using mobile applications and specialized software, the government can track service delivery gaps and intervene promptly based on data-driven insights.
27Polity and Governance
Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India?
1. There should be a tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine questions affecting rights of subjects and having a duty to act judicially.
2. Such tribunal or officer has acted without jurisdiction.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The writ of certiorari is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to quash the order of a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority. The first condition is a fundamental requirement established in the landmark case of Rex v. Electricity Commissioners, which states that the writ applies to any body of persons having legal authority to determine questions affecting the rights of subjects and having the duty to act judicially. While the scope has expanded to include administrative authorities in certain cases, this remains a core prerequisite.
The second condition identifies one of the primary grounds for issuing the writ. Certiorari is granted when an inferior court or tribunal acts without jurisdiction, in excess of its jurisdiction, or fails to exercise the jurisdiction vested in it by law. Other grounds include the violation of the principles of natural justice and an error of law apparent on the face of the record. Thus, both the existence of a legally authorized body with a duty to act judicially and the occurrence of a jurisdictional error are necessary conditions for the issuance of this writ.
28Polity and Governance
Who among the following Chief Justices of India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called 'Social Justice Bench'?
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Answer: (A) Justice H. L. Dattu
Explanation
Justice H. L. Dattu, during his tenure as the 42nd Chief Justice of India, ordered the creation of a specialized Social Justice Bench in December 2014. This bench was established with the specific purpose of exclusively hearing and monitoring cases related to social issues that had been pending for a long time. The initiative aimed to ensure that matters concerning the fundamental rights of marginalized sections, such as food security, medical assistance, the welfare of women and children, and the conditions of night shelters, received dedicated judicial attention and speedier resolution. The bench held its inaugural sitting on December 12, 2014, and was initially comprised of Justice Madan B. Lokur and Justice U. U. Lalit. Through this mechanism, the Supreme Court sought to institutionalize the pursuit of socio-economic justice by streamlining the litigation process for public interest matters.
29History
Who among the following is the author of the book, Bandi Jivan?
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Answer: (D) Sachindranath Sanyal
Explanation
Sachindranath Sanyal was a prominent Indian revolutionary and a co-founder of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). He wrote the book Bandi Jivan (A Life of Captivity) while serving a life sentence in the Cellular Jail in the Andaman Islands. The book provides a detailed account of the revolutionary movement in India and the hardships faced by political prisoners. It became immensely influential among the youth and was often referred to as the bible for revolutionaries during the Indian independence struggle, significantly inspiring figures like Bhagat Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad.
30History
In the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party?
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Answer: (A) Punjab and Sind
Explanation
In the 1937 provincial elections held under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Indian National Congress contested seats across 11 provinces. While the Congress achieved significant success, securing an absolute majority in five provinces and emerging as the single largest party in Bombay, Assam, and the North-West Frontier Province, it was unable to secure the position of the single largest party in Punjab, Sind, and Bengal. In Punjab, the Unionist Party, led by Sikandar Hayat Khan, dominated the legislative assembly. In Sind, the Sind United Party emerged as the largest group, followed by other local factions. Therefore, Punjab and Sind were the specific provinces where the Congress failed to establish itself as the primary political force during these elections.
31History
Consider the following statements :
After forming the Indian National Army, Subhas Chandra Bose
1. recruited a large number of soldiers from the Indian Prisoners of War in Japanese camp
2. introduced a women's detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Subhas Chandra Bose took command of the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943 and significantly expanded its ranks by recruiting Indian Prisoners of War (POWs) who had been captured by the Japanese during the Fall of Singapore and the Malayan campaign. These soldiers formed the core strength of the reorganized Azad Hind Fauj. Furthermore, Bose demonstrated a progressive approach to military organization by establishing the Rani of Jhansi Regiment in October 1943. This was an all-female combat unit named after the heroine of the 1857 Rebellion, Lakshmibai, and it consisted of women volunteers from the Indian diaspora in Southeast Asia who were trained for infantry combat and medical services.
32Art and Culture
Which one of the following pairs denoting various forms of 'Bhakti' is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti
Explanation
The Alvars were Tamil poet-saints of South India who lived between the 6th and 9th centuries CE and were devoted to Lord Vishnu. The word Alvar means one who is immersed in the experience of God. They composed the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, a collection of four thousand hymns that are considered the Dravida Veda. Their movement was central to the development of the Vaishnava tradition in South India. Devotion to Shakti is characteristic of the Shakta tradition, which is distinct from the Vaishnavite path followed by the Alvars.
33Geography
Which two rivers flow in the region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara Hampi?
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Answer: (D) Krishna and Tungabhadra
Explanation
The region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara (Hampi) is geographically defined by the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers. Gulbarga served as the early capital of the Bahmani Sultanate, while Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. The fertile land situated between these two rivers is known as the Raichur Doab, which was a major bone of contention and a site of frequent military conflict between the two powers for centuries. The Krishna River flows to the north of this doab, while the Tungabhadra River, a major tributary of the Krishna, flows directly through Hampi to the south. Control over the resources and strategic forts within this interfluve region dictated the geopolitical dynamics of the Deccan during the medieval period.
34Polity and Governance
Which of the following is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure?
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Answer: (B) Assam Rifles
Explanation
The Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force in India that operates under a dual control structure. The administrative control of the force, which encompasses recruitment, salaries, and infrastructure, lies with the Ministry of Home Affairs. However, its operational control is vested in the Indian Army, which functions under the Ministry of Defence. This means that while the Ministry of Home Affairs provides the funding and personnel management, the Indian Army directs the force's deployment, training, and field operations. Most of the senior leadership positions in the Assam Rifles, including the Director General, are held by officers on deputation from the Indian Army. This unique arrangement reflects the force's specialized role in maintaining internal security in the North Eastern states and guarding the Indo-Myanmar border.
35Art and Culture
Which one of the following is an ethnic community of Assam?
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Answer: (C) Ahom
Explanation
The Ahom people are a prominent ethnic group in Assam, descending from the Tai people who migrated to the Brahmaputra Valley in 1228. Led by their first king, Sukaphaa, they established the Ahom Kingdom, which ruled the region for nearly 600 years until the British annexation in 1826. During their lengthy reign, the Ahoms successfully resisted numerous Mughal invasions and played a pivotal role in the unification and cultural formation of the modern state of Assam. They are primarily concentrated in the districts of Upper Assam, such as Sivasagar, Dibrugarh, and Jorhat, and their historical legacy is preserved through their unique traditions, ancestral worship practices like Me-Dam-Me-Phi, and historical chronicles known as Buranjis.
36Art and Culture
The Chevrons is the name of the cricket team of which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (D) Zimbabwe
Explanation
The Zimbabwe national cricket team is officially nicknamed The Chevrons. This name is derived from the distinctive chevron patterns found in the ancient stonework of the Great Zimbabwe ruins, which is a major national symbol and a UNESCO World Heritage site. The v-shaped pattern is often incorporated into the design of the team's jerseys and branding, representing the cultural heritage of the country in the international cricketing arena.
37Geography
Cheetahs, brought from Namibia, were introduced in India to which one of the following National Parks?
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Answer: (D) Kuno National Park
Explanation
On September 17, 2022, eight African cheetahs from Namibia were introduced into Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh as part of the worlds first inter-continental large wild carnivore translocation project. The park was selected by experts because of its appropriate landscape, consisting of grasslands and deciduous forests, and a healthy population of prey species like chital and four-horned antelope. This reintroduction aimed to restore the open forest and grassland ecosystems in India, where the Asiatic cheetah had been declared extinct in 1952. The project was managed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department.
38Science and Technology
Who among the following is not a recipient of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022?
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Answer: (C) Klaus Hasselmann
Explanation
Klaus Hasselmann was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2021, rather than 2022. He shared the 2021 prize with Syukuro Manabe and Giorgio Parisi for his work on the physical modelling of Earth's climate, quantifying variability, and reliably predicting global warming. The 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics was specifically awarded to the other three individuals listed—Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger—for their groundbreaking experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science. Therefore, Hasselmann is the correct choice as he belongs to the cohort of 2021 laureates.
39Science and Technology
Reflex arcs are evolved in animals for quick and efficient responses. Which one of the following sequences correctly represents a reflex arc?
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Answer: (A) Receptor-Sensory neuron-Relay neuron in spinal cord-Brain-Motor neuron-Effector
Explanation
A reflex arc follows the sequence: Receptor → Sensory (afferent) neuron → Relay neuron (interneuron) in the spinal cord → Motor (efferent) neuron → Effector. Option (a) correctly begins with the receptor, proceeds through the sensory neuron and relay neuron in the spinal cord, and ends with the effector. Simple spinal reflexes bypass the brain, enabling rapid, involuntary responses to stimuli without waiting for higher brain processing.
40Science and Technology
Which one of the following is essential for thyroid gland to make thyroxin?
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Answer: (D) Iodine
Explanation
Iodine is a vital trace element required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃). The thyroid gland actively absorbs iodide from the bloodstream, which is then oxidized and attached to tyrosine residues on the protein thyroglobulin. This process of organification and subsequent coupling leads to the formation of thyroxine, which chemically contains four iodine atoms per molecule. Because the human body cannot produce iodine, it must be obtained through the diet to ensure the thyroid gland can maintain normal hormonal production and metabolic regulation.
41Science and Technology
In plant cells, RNA is present in
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Answer: (D) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosomes
Explanation
RNA is found in several locations within plant cells to facilitate the flow of genetic information and the synthesis of proteins. In the nucleus, RNA is synthesized through the transcription of DNA. The cytoplasm serves as a medium for mRNA and tRNA as they participate in the translation process. Ribosomes, which are found either free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, are themselves largely composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Additionally, mitochondria and chloroplasts are considered semi-autonomous organelles because they possess their own circular DNA and the necessary machinery, including their own specific RNA molecules, to perform independent protein synthesis required for their metabolic functions.
42Science and Technology
In grasses, intercalary meristem is usually located at
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Answer: (C) base of leaves
Explanation
Intercalary meristems are a type of primary meristematic tissue derived from the apical meristem that become separated from the apex by the development of mature, permanent tissues. In grasses and many other monocotyledonous plants, these meristems are specifically located at the base of the leaves or the nodes. This anatomical placement is a vital adaptation for survival against herbivory and environmental damage. Since the growth tissue is situated at the base rather than the tip, grasses are able to rapidly regenerate and elongate their leaf blades even after the upper portions have been removed by grazing animals or mowing. This longitudinal growth contributes significantly to the overall height and biomass of the plant during its primary growth phase.
43Science and Technology
Xylem is a type of complex tissue in plants for upward conduction of water. Which one of the following xylem tissues consists of living cells?
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Answer: (C) Xylem parenchyma
Explanation
Xylem is a complex permanent tissue responsible for the transport of water and minerals in plants. It consists of four main elements: tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres, and xylem parenchyma. Among these, xylem parenchyma is the only living component of the xylem tissue at maturity. These cells are characterized by a functional protoplasm and thin cellulosic cell walls. Their primary functions include the storage of food materials such as starch and fats, and the lateral or radial conduction of water through the plant. In contrast, tracheids, vessels, and xylem fibres are dead cells with lignified walls that provide structural support and facilitate vertical transport.
44Science and Technology
Three resistors of resistances 11 Ω , 22 Ω and 33 Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is equal to
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Answer: (D) 6 Ω
Explanation
The equivalent resistance Rₑᵦ of a parallel circuit is found by summing the reciprocals of the individual resistances:
1/Rₑᵦ = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ + 1/R₃
Substituting the given values R₁ = 11 Ω, R₂ = 22 Ω, and R₃ = 33 Ω into the formula:
1/Rₑᵦ = 1/11 + 1/22 + 1/33
Finding a common denominator of 66 for the fractions:
1/Rₑᵦ = 6/66 + 3/66 + 2/66
1/Rₑᵦ = 11/66 = 1/6
By taking the reciprocal of both sides, Rₑᵦ = 6 Ω. A fundamental property of parallel circuits is that the equivalent resistance is always smaller than the resistance of the smallest individual resistor in the arrangement. Since the smallest resistor here is 11 Ω, the equivalent resistance must be less than 11 Ω.
45Science and Technology
The r.m.s. potential difference between the red live wire and black neutral wire in Indian domestic electric supply is
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Answer: (B) 220 V
Explanation
In the Indian domestic electricity distribution system, power is supplied as a single-phase alternating current (AC) with a frequency of 50 Hz. The potential difference between the live wire, typically color-coded red or brown, and the neutral wire, color-coded black or blue, is standardized to have a Root Mean Square (r.m.s.) value of 220 V. This r.m.s. voltage represents the effective value of the alternating voltage that delivers the same power to a load as a direct current (DC) voltage of the same magnitude. While the peak voltage in this system reaches approximately 311 V, calculated using the relation Vₚₑₐₖ = Vᵣₘₛ × √2, the nominal value used for technical specifications and appliance compatibility in India is 220 V.
46Science and Technology
The hydrogen bomb and the uranium bomb are based, respectively on
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Answer: (A) nuclear fusion and fission
Explanation
The hydrogen bomb operates on the principle of nuclear fusion, where light atomic nuclei like isotopes of hydrogen, specifically deuterium and tritium, fuse together to form heavier helium nuclei under conditions of extreme temperature and pressure. This process is often initiated by a primary fission device to provide the necessary thermal energy to trigger the thermonuclear reaction. The uranium bomb utilizes the principle of nuclear fission, which involves the splitting of heavy ²³⁵U nuclei into smaller nuclei after absorbing a neutron. This fission process triggers a rapid, uncontrolled chain reaction that releases an enormous amount of energy through the conversion of mass into energy as described by Einstein's equation E=mc².
47Science and Technology
Sound and light waves are
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Answer: (A) respectively longitudinal and transverse in air
Explanation
Sound waves are mechanical waves that propagate through air by the back-and-forth vibration of air molecules in the same direction as the wave travel. This creates alternating regions of high and low pressure known as compressions and rarefactions, which defines the waves as longitudinal. Light waves are electromagnetic waves that do not require a physical medium to travel and consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. These oscillations occur perpendicular to the direction of the wave's propagation, making light a transverse wave. Consequently, when traveling through air, sound is longitudinal while light remains transverse.
48Science and Technology
A car moving with a speed of 12 m/s is subjected to brakes which produces a deceleration of 6 m/s² . The car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes. What is the distance covered by the car after the application of brakes?
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Answer: (A) 12 m
Explanation
The distance s covered by an object moving with an initial velocity u and constant acceleration a over a period of time t is calculated using the second equation of motion: s = ut + 1/2at².
In this case, the car has an initial velocity u = 12 m/s and is subjected to a deceleration (negative acceleration) a = -6 m/s². The time taken to stop is t = 2 s. Substituting these values into the formula:
s = (12 × 2) + 1/2 × (-6) × (2)²
s = 24 + 1/2 × (-6) × 4
s = 24 - 12
s = 12 m
Alternatively, using the third equation of motion v² = u² + 2as, where the final velocity v = 0 m/s because the car comes to a stop:
0² = (12)² + 2 × (-6) × s
0 = 144 - 12s
12s = 144
s = 12 m
49Science and Technology
What is the chemical composition of a soda-acid type fire extinguisher?
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Answer: (A) Solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulfuric acid
Explanation
A soda-acid fire extinguisher utilizes a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) and sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) to produce carbon dioxide gas for fire suppression. The extinguisher consists of a metallic cylinder containing the bicarbonate solution and a separate glass vial or internal container holding the acid. When the mechanism is triggered, the acid reacts with the sodium hydrogen carbonate solution according to the following chemical equation:
2NaHCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O + 2CO₂
The rapid generation of CO₂ gas increases the internal pressure, forcing the water-based solution out through the discharge nozzle. The stream of liquid and gas effectively extinguishes fires by cooling the fuel and displacing the surrounding oxygen with carbon dioxide, which does not support combustion. This type of extinguisher is primarily suited for Class A fires involving solid organic materials like wood, paper, and textiles.
50Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
While diluting concentrated nitric acid solution
1. the concentration of [H₃O⁺] ions/ volume increases
2. water must be added slowly to concentrated acid
3. acid must be added slowly to water
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
The dilution of a concentrated acid is a process where the amount of solvent is increased. When water is added to nitric acid, the total volume of the solution increases, which leads to a decrease in the number of hydronium ions per unit volume, [H₃O⁺]. Regarding the safety of the procedure, the mixing of concentrated nitric acid with water is a highly exothermic reaction. If water is added directly to concentrated acid, the heat generated is so intense that it can cause the acid to flash-boil and splash out of the container, potentially causing severe chemical burns or shattering the glassware. Consequently, the correct laboratory practice is to add the concentrated acid slowly to a larger volume of water while stirring constantly, ensuring that the heat evolved is safely dissipated throughout the water.
51Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct order of pH for the given substances?
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Answer: (D) Lemon juice < Coffee < Blood < Milk of magnesia
Explanation
The pH scale measures the acidity or alkalinity of a substance, ranging from 0 (most acidic) to 14 (most basic), with 7 being neutral. Lemon juice is highly acidic due to the presence of citric acid, typically having a pH value between 2.2 and 2.4. Coffee is also acidic but much milder than lemon juice, generally falling in the pH range of 4.5 to 5.5. Human blood is slightly alkaline (basic), with a strictly regulated pH level between 7.35 and 7.45. Milk of magnesia, which is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide used as an antacid, is significantly more basic with a pH of approximately 10.5. Arranging these substances in increasing order of pH yields the sequence: Lemon juice < Coffee < Blood < Milk of magnesia.
52Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not true for anodizing process?
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Answer: (C) Clean aluminium article is the anode and oxygen gas is evolved at the cathode.
Explanation
In the anodizing process, the aluminum article to be treated is made the anode in an electrolytic bath, usually consisting of an aqueous acid solution like sulfuric acid. During electrolysis, the water in the electrolyte undergoes a redox reaction where oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode. Oxygen gas is liberated at the anode, which then reacts with the aluminum metal to form a thick, protective layer of aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃). At the cathode, hydrogen ions are reduced to produce hydrogen gas (H₂). Therefore, the statement that oxygen gas is evolved at the cathode is incorrect.
53Science and Technology
Naphthalene burns with a yellow sooty flame. This is because
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Answer: (B) there is incomplete combustion
Explanation
Naphthalene is an aromatic hydrocarbon with the chemical formula C₁₀H₈. It contains a high percentage of carbon relative to hydrogen. When naphthalene is burned in air, the atmospheric oxygen is insufficient to completely oxidize the large number of carbon atoms present in the molecule. This leads to incomplete combustion, which results in the formation of unburnt carbon particles. These particles are heated to incandescence within the flame, emitting a characteristic yellow light and appearing as soot or smoke. Unlike saturated hydrocarbons that burn with a clean blue flame, the high carbon-to-hydrogen ratio in aromatic compounds like naphthalene prevents complete oxidation under normal atmospheric conditions.
54Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are true for the reaction of Fe₂O₃ with aluminium?
1. It is known as the 'thermite reaction'.
2. The heat evolved is used for welding purpose.
3. Aluminium metal acts as an oxidizing agent.
4. Molten Fe and Al are formed at the end of the reaction.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The chemical reaction between iron(III) oxide and aluminium is known as the thermite reaction, represented by the equation:
Fe₂O₃(s) + 2Al(s) → Al₂O₃(s) + 2Fe(l) + Heat
This displacement reaction is highly exothermic, releasing a tremendous amount of thermal energy. The temperature generated is high enough to produce iron in a molten state. This molten iron is utilized in thermite welding to join railway tracks or repair heavy machine parts by pouring the liquid metal into the gaps, where it solidifies to form a strong bond.
55Geography
Vicky told his friends about his visit to Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty and Hawke Bay. Which country did Vicky visit?
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Answer: (C) New Zealand
Explanation
Stewart Island, officially known as Rakiura, is New Zealand's third-largest island and is located approximately 30 kilometres south of the South Island across the Foveaux Strait. The Bay of Plenty is a large bight and an administrative region situated on the northern coast of the North Island, stretching from the Coromandel Peninsula to Cape Runaway. Hawke Bay is a significant semi-circular bay on the eastern coast of the North Island, and the surrounding region is known as Hawke's Bay. All three locations are well-known geographical landmarks within the territory of New Zealand.
56Art and Culture
Manav is planning to visit all UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Delhi. He will be visiting
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Answer: (C) Red Fort, Qutab Minar, Humayun Tomb
Explanation
Delhi is home to three properties inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List. Humayun Tomb was designated in 1993 and is recognized as the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent, serving as a significant architectural precursor to the Taj Mahal. The Qutab Minar and its Monuments, also inscribed in 1993, includes the iconic 13th-century minaret and several other historical structures that demonstrate the early Indo-Islamic architectural style. The Red Fort Complex was added to the list in 2007, representing the pinnacle of Mughal palace architecture and urban planning under Emperor Shah Jahan. These three sites constitute the full list of UNESCO-recognized heritage locations within the city of Delhi as of 2023.
57Geography
What will be the correct sequence of cities on the bank of river Ganga if someone moves from west to east?
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Answer: (D) Kanpur, Prayagraj, Patna, Bhagalpur
Explanation
The River Ganga flows in a generally eastward direction across the Indo-Gangetic plain. Following its course from west to east, Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh is the first major city among the choices, located at approximately 80.33 degrees E longitude. Moving further downstream towards the east, the river reaches Prayagraj at the confluence with the Yamuna, situated at approximately 81.84 degrees E longitude. Continuing into the state of Bihar, the river passes through the capital city, Patna, which is positioned at approximately 85.13 degrees E longitude. Bhagalpur lies further east in Bihar at approximately 86.97 degrees E longitude, making it the easternmost city in this sequence before the river enters West Bengal.
58Geography
Which one among the following States has the longest extension in north- south direction?
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Answer: (D) Chhattisgarh
Explanation
Chhattisgarh has the longest north-south extension among the provided states, stretching approximately 700 km from its northernmost point to its southernmost tip. Geographically, the state spans a latitudinal range from about 17°46' N to 24°5' N. This latitudinal spread of more than 6 degrees is significantly larger than that of Odisha, Jharkhand, or Telangana. The state's elongated vertical shape results from its extension from the borders of Uttar Pradesh in the north down to the reaches of the Sabari river near the borders of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana in the south. Using the approximation that 1° of latitude equals roughly 111 km, Chhattisgarh's extent calculates to over 700 km, whereas the other states listed have shorter latitudinal spans.
59Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Day) (Date)
A. World Wetlands Day 1. 29 July
B. International Tiger Day 2. 22 April
C. World Water Day 3. 2 February
D. International Mother Earth Day 4. 22 March
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
World Wetlands Day is observed on 2 February to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971. International Tiger Day is celebrated on 29 July annually to raise public awareness and support for tiger conservation issues globally. World Water Day is held on 22 March each year to highlight the importance of freshwater and advocate for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. International Mother Earth Day is observed on 22 April to recognize the collective responsibility to promote harmony with nature and the Earth to achieve a balance among the economic, social, and environmental needs of present and future generations.
60Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States/UTs is not among the top five in the Performance Grading Index (PGI), published by the Ministry of Education for the year 2020-2021?
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Answer: (C) NCT of Delhi
Explanation
In the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2020-21 released by the Ministry of Education, states and Union Territories were classified into levels based on their aggregate scores out of 1,000 points. No state or UT reached the highest level (Level 1). However, seven states and UTs achieved Level 2, representing the highest performance tier for that year with scores ranging from 901 to 950. These top-tier performers were Kerala, Punjab, Chandigarh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh. The NCT of Delhi scored 899 points, placing it in Level 3 (scores between 851 and 900), thereby excluding it from the group of top-performing states and UTs that attained Level 2 status.
61Art and Culture
Consider the following statements and identify the actress:
She is a renowned film actress, director and producer, and an accomplished Indian classical dancer. She was conferred the Padma Shri in 1992 and has served as the Head of Central Board for Film Certification from 1998 to 2001. In recognition to her exemplary lifetime contribution to Indian Cinema, she was honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
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Answer: (D) Asha Parekh
Explanation
Asha Parekh is a legendary figure in Indian cinema who matches all the specified achievements. She is an accomplished Indian classical dancer, trained in Bharatanatyam, Kathak, and Odissi. The Government of India conferred the Padma Shri upon her in 1992 in recognition of her contributions to the arts. She made history as the first female Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), serving from 1998 to 2001. In 2022, she was honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2020, the highest award in Indian cinema, for her lifetime of exemplary work as an actress, director, and producer. Her career transitioned from being a top-tier leading actress in the 1960s and 70s to producing and directing successful television series such as Kora Kagaz.
62Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the venue of the UN 2023 Water Conference?
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Answer: (B) New York
Explanation
The UN 2023 Water Conference, formally known as the Midterm Comprehensive Review of the Implementation of the Objectives of the International Decade for Action, Water for Sustainable Development (2018–2028), was held at the United Nations Headquarters in New York from March 22 to 24, 2023. Co-hosted by the governments of Tajikistan and the Netherlands, this event was significant as the first major United Nations conference dedicated to water in almost fifty years. The conference sought to mobilize action across sectors and stakeholders to achieve international water-related goals, including those contained in the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It concluded with the launch of the Water Action Agenda, featuring hundreds of voluntary commitments aimed at addressing global water scarcity and improving sanitation access.
63Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Tomb of Sand, written by Geetanjali Shree, is the first book originally written in any Indian language to win the International Booker Prize.
2. Tomb of Sand is the first novel translated from Hindi to be given the International Booker Prize.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The International Booker Prize is awarded annually for a single book that is translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland. In 2022, Geetanjali Shree's novel Tomb of Sand, originally titled Ret Samadhi, became the first work originally written in any Indian language to win this award. Since the original language of the book is Hindi, it also holds the distinction of being the first novel translated from Hindi to receive this recognition. The prize money was shared equally between the author and the translator, Daisy Rockwell. This achievement marked a historic moment for South Asian literature, as previous Indian winners of the Booker Prize, such as Arundhati Roy or Salman Rushdie, had won for works originally written in English.
64Science and Technology
The eighth edition of the Exercise Garuda Shakti, a bilateral military-to-military exercise, was conducted recently between the special forces of India and
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Answer: (B) Indonesia
Explanation
Exercise Garuda Shakti is a bilateral joint special forces exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Indonesian Army. The eighth edition of this exercise commenced in November 2022 at the Sangga Buana Training Area in Karawang, Indonesia. The primary objective of the exercise is to enhance understanding, cooperation, and interoperability between the special forces of both nations, particularly in the domains of counter-terrorism operations, close-quarter combat, and basic special forces skills in varied terrain. This series of exercises serves as a significant pillar of the defense cooperation between India and Indonesia, aimed at strengthening bilateral military ties and ensuring regional security.
65Economy
Which one of the following is a measure that can be used by the Government for combatting inflation?
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Answer: (C) Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits
Explanation
To combat inflation, the authorities employ contractionary measures designed to reduce the overall liquidity and aggregate demand in the economy. Increasing the interest rates on savings and fixed deposits encourages households and individuals to postpone current consumption in favor of saving. As people deposit more money into banks and savings schemes to take advantage of higher returns, the amount of disposable income circulating in the market for goods and services decreases. This reduction in consumer demand exerts downward pressure on prices. Additionally, an increase in deposit rates is typically accompanied by a rise in the cost of borrowing, which discourages credit-financed spending and investment, further helping to stabilize the price level and control inflationary pressures.
66Economy
The sustained decrease in the general price level is called as
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Answer: (A) deflation
Explanation
Deflation is defined as a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It occurs when the annual inflation rate falls below 0 percent, effectively representing a negative inflation rate. During periods of deflation, the purchasing power of money increases, meaning that a unit of currency can buy more goods and services than it could previously. This economic condition is typically driven by a reduction in the supply of money or credit, or by a significant decline in aggregate demand or consumer spending.
67Economy
Which one of the following indicators is included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?
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Answer: (A) Years of schooling
Explanation
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), released by NITI Aayog, is a comprehensive measure that captures poverty across multiple dimensions beyond just income. It is based on three equally weighted dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living, which are further divided into 12 indicators. Years of schooling is one of the two indicators under the Education dimension. According to the methodology, a household is considered deprived in this indicator if not a single member of the household aged 10 years or older has completed at least six years of schooling. This indicator helps assess the long-term educational attainment and human capital within a family unit, reflecting a core component of non-monetary poverty.
68Economy
The unemployment that occurs due to changes in the technology or in the demand for particular products is called
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Answer: (B) structural unemployment
Explanation
Structural unemployment occurs when there is a fundamental mismatch between the skills that workers in the economy can offer and the skills demanded of workers by employers. This type of unemployment is often caused by technological advances, such as automation replacing manual labor, which renders certain skill sets obsolete. It also arises from shifts in consumer demand that cause some industries to decline while others grow. Because workers in the declining sectors often lack the specific training or geographic mobility required for newly created jobs in emerging sectors, they remain unemployed for longer periods while they attempt to retrain or relocate to align with the new economic structure.
69Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the objective/objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)?
1. Correcting regional imbalances in the availability of tertiary health care services
2. Providing universal access to public health services and universal immunization
3. Augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the country
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with the specific dual objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable and reliable tertiary healthcare services and augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the country. These goals are achieved through two main components: the establishment of new All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in various states and the upgradation of existing Government Medical Colleges (GMCs) and institutions. By setting up these specialized centers, the scheme directly addresses the lack of specialized medical infrastructure in underserved regions and increases the capacity for medical training and research. Universal access to public health services and immunization are primary healthcare objectives that fall under the scope of the National Health Mission (NHM) and specific programs like Mission Indradhanush, rather than the tertiary-care focused PMSSY.
70History
Who among the following political leaders suggested the dissolution of the Indian National Congress as a political organization and its replacement by a Lok Sevak Sangh?
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Answer: (C) M. K. Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi authored a draft constitution for the Indian National Congress on January 29, 1948, just a day before his assassination, which is often referred to as his Last Will and Testament. In this document, he expressed that the Congress, having achieved its primary objective of attaining political independence, had outlived its use as a parliamentary machine and a vehicle for political propaganda. He proposed that the organization should disband as a political party and transform into a Lok Sevak Sangh, or an Association of the Servants of the People. This new body was envisioned as a non-political, voluntary organization dedicated to social and economic reform, focusing specifically on rural development and the upliftment of the masses through constructive work at the grassroots level.
71Polity and Governance
India is the first country in the world to deploy an all-woman contingent to a UN Peacekeeping Mission. In which country did this mission operate?
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Answer: (A) Liberia
Explanation
In 2007, India became the first nation to deploy an all-woman Formed Police Unit (FPU) to a United Nations Peacekeeping Mission. This historic contingent was sent to the United Nations Mission in Liberia (UNMIL) to provide specialized support in maintaining law and order, conducting patrols, and guarding UN installations. The presence of the 105-member unit served as a significant catalyst for local women, leading to a marked increase in the number of Liberian women joining their country's security sector. This deployment lasted for nine years until the unit returned to India in 2016, establishing a successful model for gender integration in international security operations.
72Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a part of the SWAYAM programme?
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Answer: (B) Classroom lectures
Explanation
SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an indigenous IT platform developed by the Ministry of Education to provide Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) to students across the country. The programme is designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy: access, equity, and quality. To ensure a holistic digital learning experience, every course on SWAYAM is developed using a four-quadrant approach. These quadrants include video lectures, specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded or printed, self-assessment tests through quizzes, and an online discussion forum for clearing doubts. Because SWAYAM is fundamentally a digital platform meant for remote and web-based learning, it does not include traditional physical classroom lectures, which require the synchronized physical presence of instructors and students in a specific brick-and-mortar location.
73Polity and Governance
Which one among the following Departments/Authorities is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
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Answer: (C) The National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention
Explanation
The National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention (NACWC) is an administrative body established in 1997 by a resolution of the Cabinet Secretariat to fulfill India’s obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention. It serves as the primary liaison between the Indian government and the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) based in The Hague. While the Ministry of Home Affairs oversees departments related to internal security, official languages, and regional administration, the NACWC is administratively located within the Cabinet Secretariat to facilitate necessary coordination across various ministries, including Chemicals and Fertilizers, External Affairs, and Commerce.
74Polity and Governance
Who among the following is given discretionary powers under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India to set up a Tribes Advisory Council in a State which has Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas?
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Answer: (B) The President of India
Explanation
According to Paragraph 4(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, a Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) must be established in every state that contains Scheduled Areas. The same provision further specifies that the President of India may direct the establishment of a TAC in any state that has Scheduled Tribes but does not have designated Scheduled Areas. This ensures that the consultative mechanism for the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes can be extended to states where tribal populations reside even if specific geographic regions have not been formally declared as Scheduled Areas. The President's direction is the requisite authority for forming a TAC under these specific circumstances.
75Polity and Governance
Which of the following States/UTs are included in the Northern Zonal Council?
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Answer: (B) Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and NCT of Delhi
Explanation
The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, to promote interstate cooperation and coordination. The Northern Zonal Council specifically consists of the states of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, and Rajasthan, along with the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, and the National Capital Territory of Delhi. States such as Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand are members of the Central Zonal Council, which also includes Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Therefore, the grouping of Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, and the NCT of Delhi correctly identifies members belonging exclusively to the Northern Zonal Council jurisdiction.
76History
The notion of kinship projected by the Kushana rulers is best evidenced through which of the following?
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Answer: (D) Coins and sculpture
Explanation
The Kushana rulers projected a distinct notion of kingship that emphasized their divine status and authority. This ideological projection is primarily reconstructed through archaeological remains, specifically coins and sculpture. Kushana coinage was highly sophisticated, featuring portraits of the rulers on the obverse and a wide array of deities from Greek, Mesopotamian, Iranian, and Indian pantheons on the reverse, symbolizing divine endorsement of the king. Furthermore, colossal statues of Kushana emperors have been discovered in dynastic sanctuaries known as devakulas, such as those at Mat near Mathura in India and Surkh Kotal in Afghanistan. In these shrines, the rulers were portrayed in a monumental and god-like fashion, often placed alongside deities to suggest that the king was either a son of god or a divine being himself. The use of titles like Devaputra, meaning son of god, further reinforced this claim, making their physical representations in art and currency the most direct evidence of their political ideology.
77History
Who among the following were referred to as the Theris' in ancient India?
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Answer: (B) Elder nuns in Buddhism
Explanation
In the Buddhist tradition, the term Theri refers to elder nuns who have attained significant spiritual realization and seniority within the monastic community, or Sangha. The word is the feminine counterpart to the Pali term Thera, which means elder. These women were recognized for their wisdom and were often acknowledged as teachers or leaders among the Bhikkhunis.
Their historical and spiritual significance is most notably preserved in the Therigatha, or the Verses of the Elder Nuns. This text is a collection of 73 poems attributed to these enlightened women, dating back to the 6th century BCE. As part of the Khuddaka Nikaya within the Sutta Pitaka of the Pali Canon, the Therigatha provides a rare and valuable perspective on the lives, struggles, and ultimate liberation of women in ancient India. To be called a Theri, a nun usually had to have been ordained for at least ten years and displayed profound mastery of the Dhamma.
78History
Which member of the Servants of India Society founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914?
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Answer: (B) Hriday Nath Kunzru
Explanation
Hriday Nath Kunzru, a prominent leader of the Servants of India Society, founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914. The organization was established to promote social service and humanitarian work, focusing on providing relief during natural disasters such as floods, famines, and epidemics. Kunzru aimed to organize social service on a systematic and non-sectarian basis, emphasizing the training of volunteers to serve the community and advocate for civil liberties. The Seva Samiti played a significant role in improving public health and education, and it was also instrumental in the development of the scouting movement in India through the creation of the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association. Kunzru's vision for the Samiti was rooted in the ideal of selfless service to the nation, aligning with the broader reformist goals of the Servants of India Society.
79History
The First Anglo-Maratha War was concluded by which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) The Treaty of Salbai
Explanation
The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) was officially concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Salbai on May 17, 1782. The treaty was negotiated between Mahadji Shinde and David Anderson of the East India Company to settle the prolonged conflict. Under its terms, the British recognized Madhavrao II as the rightful Peshwa and granted a pension to Raghunath Rao. While the British restored most of the captured territories to the Marathas, they were allowed to retain control of Salsette. The treaty was significant as it established a period of mutual peace between the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company that lasted for twenty years, allowing the British to focus on their conflicts with Mysore and the French.
80History
Name the battle in which the Travancore King defeated the Dutch in 1741.
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Answer: (B) The Battle of Colachel
Explanation
The Battle of Colachel was fought on August 10, 1741, between the Kingdom of Travancore under King Marthanda Varma and the Dutch East India Company (VOC). This engagement is historically significant as it marked the first time an organized Asian power decisively defeated a European naval force in a major battle. The victory for Travancore effectively checked Dutch colonial expansion in the Malabar region and led to the eventual decline of their influence in India. Following the battle, the Dutch commander Eustachius De Lannoy was captured and later entered the service of the Travancore King, where he played a crucial role in modernizing the Travancore army and strengthening the kingdom's defenses.
81History
In which one of the following revolts did the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rise against the local overlord from a Mansabdar family?
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Answer: (A) The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880
Explanation
The Rampa Rebellion of 1879-1880 took place in the Godavari agency tracts of present-day Andhra Pradesh. It was primarily directed against the oppressive rule of the local Mansabdar of Rampa, who had been granted the estate by the British. This Mansabdar, acting as a middleman for the colonial government, imposed heavy taxes on the hill tribes and restricted their traditional rights to forest resources. The Koya and Konda Reddi hill chiefs, known as Mutadars, rose in revolt against the Mansabdar's illegal exactions, his monopoly over toddy tapping, and the restrictions on Podu (shifting) cultivation. The uprising was triggered by the Mansabdar's increasing demands for tribute and the colonial government's support for his authority, leading tribal leaders like Thamman Dora to organize an armed resistance against both the local overlord and the British administration.
82History
Which country won the FIFA World Cup (Men) for maximum number of times?
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Answer: (B) Brazil
Explanation
Brazil holds the record for the most FIFA World Cup titles in history, having won the tournament five times. Their first victory came in 1958 in Sweden, followed by a successful title defense in 1962 in Chile. They secured their third trophy in 1970 in Mexico, which allowed them to keep the original Jules Rimet Trophy permanently. Their fourth and fifth titles were earned in 1994 in the United States and 2002 in South Korea and Japan, respectively. Brazil remains the only nation to have participated in every single edition of the tournament since its inception in 1930.
83Art and Culture
Who among the following is the author of the famous novel, City of Joy?
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Answer: (B) Dominique Lapierre
Explanation
Dominique Lapierre is the French author who wrote the internationally acclaimed novel City of Joy, published in 1985. The book is set in the slums of Calcutta (now Kolkata) and focuses on the lives of impoverished residents, a Polish priest, and an American doctor living in a settlement called Anand Nagar. Lapierre spent years researching the daily struggles and the indomitable spirit of the people in these slums, which led to the city becoming widely known by the book's title. Following the book's success, Lapierre donated a large share of his royalties to fund humanitarian projects in India through the City of Joy Foundation.
84Polity and Governance
Who among the following is honoured with the UN Environment Programme's 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category?
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Answer: (C) Purnima Devi Barman
Explanation
Dr. Purnima Devi Barman, a wildlife biologist from Assam, India, was awarded the 2022 Champions of the Earth award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category for her leadership of the Hargila Army. This grassroots conservation movement is composed of thousands of local women dedicated to protecting the Greater Adjutant Stork, a scavenger bird that was once on the brink of extinction due to habitat loss and social stigma. By integrating environmental protection with sustainable livelihoods, Barman empowered women to create and sell traditional textiles featuring the stork's motifs, effectively turning a conservation challenge into a community-led entrepreneurial venture. Her work successfully shifted public perception of the bird from a pest to a cultural icon while providing economic stability to rural households.
85Art and Culture
The theme of India's G20 Presidency 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' or 'One Earth-One Family-One Future' is drawn from the
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Answer: (B) Maha Upanishad
Explanation
The phrase Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam is an ancient Sanskrit expression found in the Maha Upanishad, specifically in Chapter 6, Verse 71. The text belongs to the Samaveda tradition and is one of the minor Upanishads of Hinduism. Translated as the world is one family, the concept emphasizes global unity and the interconnectedness of all living beings and the environment. India adopted this as the theme for its 2023 G20 Presidency to highlight the necessity of collective action and shared responsibility in addressing global challenges, framing it in English as One Earth, One Family, One Future.
86Polity and Governance
The 16th edition of Indo-Nepal annual joint training exercise in jungle warfare and counterterrorism operations was held in December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi. What is the name of this exercise?
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Answer: (D) Surya Kiran
Explanation
Surya Kiran is the name of the annual joint military training exercise conducted between the armies of India and Nepal. The 16th edition of this exercise was hosted at the Nepal Army Battle School in Saljhandi from December 16 to December 29, 2022. The exercise focuses on evolving joint military capabilities for counter-terrorism operations in mountainous terrain and jungle warfare. It also encompasses the sharing of best practices in humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations, thereby fostering military-to-military ties and enhancing tactical-level coordination between the two nations.
87Geography
If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), then what will be the time at 90° E longitude?
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Answer: (D) 4:00 p.m.
Explanation
The Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, establishing a rotation speed of 15 degrees per hour (360 / 24 = 15). This translates to a time difference of 4 minutes for every 1 degree of longitude (60 / 15 = 4). To determine the time at 90 degrees E, we first calculate the longitudinal distance from the Prime Meridian (0 degrees), which is 90 degrees.
Using the relation for time difference:
Time Difference = Longitude Difference × 4 minutes
Time Difference = 90 × 4 = 360 minutes
Converting to hours: 360 / 60 = 6 hours.
Since the Earth rotates from West to East, places located to the East of the Prime Meridian are ahead in time compared to Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Therefore, we add the calculated 6 hours to the given GMT of 10:00 a.m. Adding 6 hours to 10:00 a.m. results in 4:00 p.m.
88Science and Technology
Which of the following groups of planets is termed as 'gas planets' as they are composed primarily of lighter ices, liquids and gases?
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Answer: (B) Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn
Explanation
The planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are categorized as the Jovian planets or outer planets of our solar system. These bodies are primarily composed of light elements and volatile compounds such as hydrogen, helium, water, ammonia, and methane. Jupiter and Saturn are the gas giants, consisting mostly of hydrogen and helium in gaseous, liquid, and metallic states. Uranus and Neptune are known as ice giants because they contain a larger proportion of heavier elements like oxygen, carbon, and nitrogen, which exist as high-pressure ices and liquids in their deep interiors. Unlike the inner rocky planets, these four outer worlds lack a well-defined solid surface and possess massive, deep atmospheres, leading to their collective classification as gas planets.
89Geography
Consider the following characteristics of a soil type:
1. These soils consist of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
2. These soils contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
3. These soils can be further classified on the basis of their age.
Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics.
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Answer: (A) Alluvial
Explanation
Alluvial soils are formed by the depositional work of rivers, primarily the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra, and are characterized by varying proportions of sand, silt, and clay. These soils are remarkably fertile as they contain adequate amounts of potash, phosphoric acid, and lime, which are essential for the cultivation of crops like sugarcane, paddy, wheat, and pulses. A distinguishing feature of alluvial soil is its classification based on age into old alluvium, known as Bhangar, and new alluvium, known as Khadar. The Bhangar soil has a higher concentration of kankar nodules, while the Khadar soil is finer and more fertile, being renewed almost every year by floods.
90Science and Technology
Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer using the code given below:
1. In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
2. Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a turbine, which spins and turns, generating electricity.
Code:
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Answer: (C) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1
Explanation
Thermal power plants generate electricity by converting the chemical energy stored in fossil fuels—primarily coal, oil, or natural gas—into electrical energy. The fundamental operation involves a boiler where the fuel is burned to produce intense heat, which is then transferred to water to create high-pressure steam. This steam is directed onto the blades of a turbine, causing it to spin at high speeds. The rotating turbine is coupled to an alternator or generator, where the mechanical motion is converted into electricity through electromagnetic induction. Therefore, Statement 1 correctly identifies the energy sources used, while Statement 2 describes the specific thermodynamic and mechanical process through which those fuels are utilized to produce power, effectively explaining the mechanism behind Statement 1.
The Indus river basin in India encompasses a total drainage area of approximately 3,21,289 square kilometers, representing nearly 9.8 percent of the country's total geographical area. According to the Central Water Commission and the Ministry of Jal Shakti, this basin extends across the Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, as well as the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. The basin is fed by the Indus main stem and its five major tributaries: the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. While the primary perennial flow is concentrated in the northern mountainous regions and the plains of Punjab, the hydrological extent and the integrated canal irrigation networks, such as the Indira Gandhi Canal fed by the Sutlej and Beas, bring the states of Haryana and Rajasthan within the functional and geographical limits of the Indus drainage system.
92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct?
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Answer: (A) The SGI is the Government's chief legal advisor.
Explanation
The Attorney General of India (AGI), not the Solicitor General of India (SGI), is the Government’s chief legal advisor and the first law officer of the country. The AGI is a constitutional appointment under Article 76 of the Constitution. The SGI is the secondary law officer (b) who assists the AGI, and is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (d). The post of SGI is a statutory position, not a constitutional one.
93Polity and Governance
Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (C) The Estimates Committee
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest standing parliamentary committee and consists of 30 members. All these members are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. Its primary function is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest economies in public expenditure, often being referred to as a continuous economy committee. It was first established in the post-independence era in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, who was the then Finance Minister.
94Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?
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Answer: (A) A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.
Explanation
Article 58 of the Constitution of India details the qualifications required for a person to be eligible for election as President. While Article 58(2) prohibits a person holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State from seeking election, the Explanation to that article specifically clarifies this rule. It states that a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit by reason only that he is the President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any State, or is a Minister either for the Union or for any State. Therefore, a Union Minister is explicitly eligible for election as the President and does not need to resign from their post to be qualified as a candidate.
95Polity and Governance
The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after
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Answer: (A) 26th January, 1950
Explanation
The Constitution of India, through Articles 5 to 11, only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement on 26th January, 1950. It does not contain permanent or elaborate provisions for the acquisition or loss of citizenship after that date. Instead, Article 11 empowers the Parliament to enact laws to regulate the right of citizenship. In exercise of this power, the Parliament passed the Citizenship Act, 1955. This Act provides for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship specifically for the period on or after the commencement of the Constitution, which is 26th January, 1950.
96Economy
According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if
1. a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished
2. the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m²
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), released by NITI Aayog, utilizes 12 indicators across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. Under the Health dimension, Nutrition is a primary indicator. A household is considered deprived in nutrition if any member—including children, adolescents, or adults—for whom nutritional information is available is found to be under-nourished. For adults, specifically women aged 15 to 49 years and men aged 15 to 54 years, the index defines under-nourishment as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) below 18.5 kg/m². For children and adolescents under 19 years, the criteria include stunting, wasting, or being underweight relative to age-specific benchmarks. Since the deprivation of even a single eligible member in the household results in the entire household being classified as deprived in the nutrition indicator, both statements correctly describe the criteria used in the National MPI.
97History
The titles of 'Rayagajakesari' and 'Dayagajakesari' were associated with which one of the following dynasties?
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Answer: (A) Kakatiya
Explanation
The titles Rayagajakesari and Dayagajakesari were adopted by the rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty, who governed the region of modern-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh between the 12th and 14th centuries. Rayagajakesari, which translates to a lion to the elephant-like kings, was a prestigious title used to signify military prowess and dominance over rival monarchs. This title is prominently found in the inscriptions and on the gold coins minted during the reigns of Ganapati Deva and his successor, Queen Rudrama Devi. The use of such titles was a common practice in the Kakatiya court to project the sovereign's authority and strength across the Deccan plateau.
98Art and Culture
Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.
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Answer: (D) Kudumiyamalai
Explanation
The Kudumiyamalai inscription, located in the Sikhagirisvara temple complex in the Pudukkottai district of Tamil Nadu, is a unique 7th or 8th-century epigraphical record dedicated to Indian classical music. Written in the Pallava Grantha script, the inscription is widely attributed to the Pallava King Mahendravarman I, a renowned patron of the arts who held titles such as Vichitrachitta and Sankirnajati. The rock-cut inscription contains musical notations organized into seven sections corresponding to specific musical modes or gramas, such as Madhyamagrama and Shadjagrama. It is particularly notable for its explicit mention that the arrangements of musical notes were created Sishya-hitartham, which translates to for the benefit of his disciples or pupils. This makes it one of the earliest documented pedagogical tools for music in Indian history, providing a systematic layout of swaras to guide students in the practice of contemporary musical scales.
99History
In the context of eighteenth century India, what was 'Dastak'?
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Answer: (C) Trade permit
Explanation
In the eighteenth century, a Dastak was a trade permit or pass that allowed the British East India Company to conduct duty-free trade in the province of Bengal. This right originated from the royal Farman issued by the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar in 1717, which exempted the Company's goods from paying internal customs duties and transit tolls. The Dastak was typically a document signed by the President of the Calcutta Council, certifying that the goods belonged to the Company and should be allowed to pass through various chowkis (toll stations) without payment. While intended for the Company's collective trade, the widespread misuse of these permits by Company officials for their private trade became a major point of contention with the Nawabs of Bengal, contributing to the deteriorating relations that preceded the Battle of Plassey.
100Economy
Which one of the following was primarily associated with 'Dadni' system?
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Answer: (A) Textile production
Explanation
The Dadni system was a predominant method of commercial production and procurement in pre-colonial and early colonial India, particularly in the Bengal region. The term is derived from the Persian word dadan, meaning advance. Under this system, merchant-middlemen or the East India Company provided cash advances to primary producers, especially weavers and artisans, to purchase raw materials and sustain themselves during the production process. In exchange for these advances, the producers were contractually obligated to supply a specific quantity of finished textile goods at a pre-determined price and within a set timeframe. This system allowed merchants to secure large volumes of cloth for the export market while keeping the weavers dependent on merchant capital.
101History
Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site :
1. It is situated on the bank of Bhima river.
2. The remains of the Kanaganahalli Stupa can be dated between 1st and 3rd centuries CE.
3. Emperor Ashoka's image was found at the site.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Kanaganahalli is a significant Buddhist archaeological site located in the Kalaburagi district of Karnataka, situated on the left bank of the Bhima River. The site features the remains of a magnificent Mahastupa, referred to in ancient inscriptions as the Adholoka Mahachaitya. The structural and sculptural remains at the site are dated to a period spanning from the 1st century BCE to the 3rd century CE, largely coinciding with the rule of the Satavahana dynasty. A landmark discovery at Kanaganahalli is a limestone relief sculpture representing Emperor Ashoka. This portrait is exceptionally rare and significant because it includes a label inscription in Brahmi script that reads Raya Asoko (King Ashoka), making it the only inscribed stone portrait of the Mauryan emperor found to date. The site also contains various other sculptures depicting Jataka stories and motifs characteristic of early Indian Buddhist art.
102Geography
Which of the following statements about volcanoes are correct?
1. The strength of a volcano is measured by the Volcanic Explosive Index.
2. Iceland and Philippines were created by volcanic activity.
3. Volcanic soils are rich, deep and fertile and allow intensive agriculture to take place.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a relative scale from 0 to 8 used to measure the intensity and magnitude of volcanic eruptions based on the volume of pyroclastic material, the height of the eruption column, and the duration of the blast. Iceland and the Philippines are prime examples of landmasses formed through volcanic processes; Iceland is situated on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and a hot spot, while the Philippines is a volcanic island arc formed by the subduction of tectonic plates. Volcanic soils, often classified as Andisols, are formed from the weathering of volcanic ash and lava. These soils are exceptionally fertile because they are rich in minerals like iron, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium, and they possess excellent water-retention properties, making them ideal for intensive agricultural practices in regions such as Indonesia and Italy.
103Geography
Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type :
1. They are born through convection.
2. Only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder and lightning.
3. They are large cauliflower-shaped towers, often 'anvil tops'.
Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics.
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Answer: (B) Cumulonimbus
Explanation
Cumulonimbus clouds are dense, towering vertical clouds associated with thunderstorms and atmospheric instability. They form through deep convection, where warm and moist air rises rapidly in an unstable atmosphere. These are the only clouds capable of producing severe weather phenomena such as lightning, thunder, and hail due to the extreme vertical updrafts and large-scale moisture content within them. Structurally, they appear as massive cauliflower-like towers that can span all altitude levels from the low-base to the high-altitude regions. When the top of the cloud reaches the tropopause, it encounters a temperature inversion and spreads out horizontally, creating the characteristic flat, anvil-shaped top known as an incus.
104Economy
Meena wants to show diagrammatically how two sets of data, namely, population size and number of services are related to each other. Which one of the following will be the most suitable for the presentation?
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Answer: (B) Scatter graph
Explanation
A scatter graph is the standard statistical tool used to display the relationship or correlation between two different sets of numerical data. By plotting population size on one axis and the number of services on the other, each data point represents a specific geographic or administrative unit. This visualization allows for the immediate identification of the nature of the association between the variables, showing whether the relationship is positive, negative, or non-existent, and whether it follows a linear or non-linear trend. It is the most effective method for bivariate analysis when the objective is to understand how one variable changes in relation to another.
105Geography
Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline?
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Answer: (B) Gujarat
Explanation
Gujarat possesses the longest coastline among all Indian states, stretching approximately 1214.7 kilometers. This extensive coastline accounts for over 22 percent of India's total mainland coastline. The significant length is primarily attributed to the state's unique and highly indented geography, which includes numerous creeks and two major inlets: the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat. These geographic features, combined with extensive tidal flats and marshes in the Rann of Kutch region, result in a coastline that is significantly longer than that of any other coastal state in the country. This geographic positioning has historically established the state as a premier gateway for maritime trade and industrial development along India's western seaboard.
106Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Visakhapatnam Port is a land-locked harbour.
2. Deendayal Port is a tidal port.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Visakhapatnam Port is a premier deep-water port on the east coast of India and is famously known as a land-locked harbour. This classification arises because the port's basin is protected by a massive hill known as the Dolphin’s Nose, which provides a natural shield against the sea's turbulence and cyclonic storms, ensuring calm waters within the harbour entrance. Deendayal Port, formerly known as Kandla Port, is situated in the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat and is a prominent tidal port. As a tidal port, its operations and water levels are significantly influenced by the rhythmic rise and fall of the sea tides within the Kandla Creek. It was strategically developed to serve as a major hub for the hinterland of North and North-Western India.
107Geography
There is an increase in forest cover area of India between 2011 and 2021. However, there is a decrease in forest cover area of India during the same period in
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Answer: (B) moderately dense forest (canopy density between 40-70 percent)
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Reports (ISFR) published by the Forest Survey of India, the category of Moderately Dense Forest (MDF) is the only major forest classification that has seen a net decrease in area between 2011 and 2021. Moderately Dense Forest is defined as all lands with tree canopy density of 40 percent and more but less than 70 percent. In the ISFR 2011, the MDF cover was measured at 320,736 sq km, which accounted for approximately 9.75 percent of the country's total geographical area. By the time of the ISFR 2021, this area had declined to 306,890 sq km, representing roughly 9.33 percent of the geographical area. This reduction of 13,846 sq km indicates a transition of these mid-density forests due to factors such as forest degradation, selective thinning, and the diversion of forest lands for developmental projects. Unlike Very Dense Forests and Open Forests, which both recorded growth during this decade, MDF consistently showed a downward trend in successive biennial assessments.
108Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements concerning the National Education Policy, 2020:
1. At least 50 percent of the learners through school and higher education system to get exposure to vocational education by 2025.
2. Secondary schools should collaborate with ITIs, Polytechnics and local industries.
3. Vocational education to be exclusively provided by NGOs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims to integrate vocational education into all school and higher education institutions in a phased manner. Statement 1 is correct as the policy sets a specific target that by 2025, at least 50 percent of learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to vocational education. This is intended to eliminate the social status hierarchy associated with vocational training and help in developing a skilled workforce.
Statement 2 is correct because the policy advocates for a Hub and Spoke model and vocational integration where secondary schools collaborate with Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Polytechnics, and local industries. This collaboration allows for the sharing of resources, equipment, and expertise, ensuring students receive practical, hands-on training and industry-relevant skills. Vocational education is treated as an integral part of the mainstream curriculum rather than being restricted to specific external providers, ensuring it is accessible through formal educational institutions.
109Polity and Governance
Which of the following sets of States is at the bottom of the Composite SDG India Index, 2020-2021 as per the NITI Aayog?
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Answer: (A) Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar
Explanation
The SDG India Index 2020-21, released by NITI Aayog, evaluates the progress of Indian states and union territories toward achieving the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals. In this edition, Bihar was ranked at the very bottom of the index with the lowest composite score of 52. Jharkhand followed as the second-worst performer with a score of 56, while Assam was the third-lowest among all states with a score of 57. These rankings reflect the challenges these states face across multiple indicators, including poverty, health, education, and infrastructure, placing them in the Performer category (scores 50-64) but at the tail end of the national list.
110Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes
Explanation
Article 51 of the Constitution of India, which outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy regarding the promotion of international peace and security, contains four specific objectives. These include promoting international peace and security, maintaining just and honourable relations between nations, fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another, and encouraging the settlement of international disputes by arbitration. The provision regarding the use of UN peacekeeping forces for the resolution of international disputes is not mentioned in the text of Article 51 or any other part of the Constitution; while India actively participates in UN peacekeeping missions, such involvement is a matter of executive policy and international commitment rather than a specific constitutional mandate under this article.
111History
Who among the following was not in the core leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its formative phase?
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Answer: (D) Fidel Castro
Explanation
Fidel Castro was not one of the Big Five founding fathers who provided the core leadership and vision for the Non-Aligned Movement during its formative phase between the 1955 Bandung Conference and the 1961 Belgrade Summit. The primary architects of the movement were Jawaharlal Nehru, Gamal Abdel Nasser, Josip Broz Tito, Sukarno, and Kwame Nkrumah. Although Cuba was the only Latin American country to participate as a full member in the first summit in 1961, Castro’s role was that of a participant rather than a founding architect. His most significant leadership influence within the movement occurred in later years, notably when he assumed the chairmanship in 1979, long after the movement's initial principles and structure had been established by the original quintet of leaders.
112History
In respect to Balutedars, which of the statements given below are correct?
1. They were village servants and artisans.
2. They were employed by individual peasant family.
3. They existed in the Medieval Deccan and Maharashtra.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Balutedars were a group of twelve hereditary village artisans and servants who provided essential services to the rural community in the Medieval Deccan and Maharashtra regions. They were considered village servants rather than private employees, as their roles were fixed by tradition and their services were directed toward the village community as a collective entity. This system, known as the Bara Balutedar, included various professionals such as the Sutar (carpenter), Lohar (blacksmith), Kumbhar (potter), and Nhavi (barber). Instead of receiving contracted wages from individual families, they were remunerated through the baluta, which was a specific portion of the grain harvest contributed by the cultivators in the village. This communal arrangement established a reciprocal relationship between the agricultural class and the artisan class, ensuring the self-sufficiency of the medieval village economy through a system of non-market exchange.
113History
Which one of the following Viceroys was the first to officially shift his Council to Simla in summer season?
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Answer: (A) John Lawrence
Explanation
John Lawrence, serving as the Viceroy of India from 1864 to 1869, was the first to officially establish Simla as the summer capital of the British Raj. In 1864, he formally moved the Supreme Council and the entire central government administration from Calcutta to Simla for the duration of the summer months. Although previous officials had used Simla as a personal retreat, Lawrence institutionalized the shift to improve administrative efficiency by escaping the debilitating heat of the plains. This practice of seasonal migration remained a defining feature of the British Indian government for the next eight decades.
114Art and Culture
Who among the following is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of working class of Bombay?
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Answer: (A) Narayan Surv
Explanation
Narayan Surve was a distinguished Marathi poet whose work primarily focused on the struggles and resilience of the urban working class in Mumbai. His 1966 collection, Maze Vidyapeeth (My University), is considered a landmark in Marathi literature for its raw and empathetic portrayal of the proletariat. In this work, Surve famously describes the streets of Bombay and the lives of the laborers as his real university, shifting the focus of Marathi poetry from traditional romanticism to the lived experiences of mill workers and the urban poor. His verses reflect a deep socialist commitment and capture the socio-economic realities of the industrial landscape of the mid-20th century.
115History
Who among the following founded the Hindu Dharma Sabha in the 19th century?
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Answer: (A) Radhakanta Deb
Explanation
Radhakanta Deb founded the Dharma Sabha in Calcutta in 1830. It was established as an orthodox Hindu society to defend traditional customs and rituals against the reformist movements led by Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the Brahmo Samaj. The Sabha was particularly active in opposing the British government's 1829 regulation that abolished the practice of Sati. It represented the conservative section of the Bengali elite, advocating for the preservation of established socio-religious traditions and providing a platform for the traditionalist response to the Bengal Renaissance during the 19th century.
116Economy
The resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 3 March, 2021 decided to celebrate the year 2023 as the International Year of
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Answer: (C) Millets
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly adopted resolution 75/263 on March 3, 2021, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. This initiative was spearheaded by India and supported by over 70 nations to raise global awareness regarding the health and nutritional benefits of millets. Millets are climate-resilient grains that require less water and can grow in poor soil conditions, making them vital for food security in the face of climate change. The year 2023 was designated to promote the sustainable production and consumption of these nutri-cereals, which are rich in minerals, fiber, and vitamins, while also encouraging research and development to enhance their productivity and value chain.
117History
Karthik Meiyappan, who secured hat-trick in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2022, represents
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Answer: (B) United Arab Emirates
Explanation
Karthik Meiyappan is an Indian-born leg-spinner who represents the United Arab Emirates in international cricket. He achieved a historic milestone during the 2022 ICC Men's T20 World Cup by taking a hat-trick against Sri Lanka in a Group A match at Geelong. He dismissed Bhanuka Rajapaksa, Charith Asalanka, and Dasun Shanaka in three consecutive deliveries during the 15th over of the innings. This was the first hat-trick by a bowler from the United Arab Emirates in a T20 World Cup and the first time an Associate nation player took a hat-trick against a Full Member side in the history of the tournament. He was only the fifth bowler overall to achieve a hat-trick in the T20 World Cup.
118Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Wassenaar Arrangement is not correct?
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Answer: (B) It is formed primarily as a nuclear weapon overseer.
Explanation
The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime that focuses on the transparency and responsibility of transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. It was established in 1996 to promote regional and international security and stability. It is not primarily a nuclear weapon overseer; rather, nuclear-related materials and technologies are governed by other international regimes like the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The Arrangement specifically monitors items that have both civilian and military applications, such as high-performance electronics, sensors, and navigation systems, to prevent the destabilizing accumulation of conventional military capabilities.
119History
Who among the following is known as 'Payyoli Express'?
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Answer: (C) P. T. Usha
Explanation
P. T. Usha is a legendary Indian track and field athlete who dominated Asian athletics for over two decades. She was born in the village of Payyoli, located in the Kozhikode district of Kerala, which earned her the famous nickname Payyoli Express. Often called the Queen of Indian track and field, she is best remembered for her performance at the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics, where she missed the bronze medal in the 400m hurdles by one-hundredth of a second. Throughout her career, she won numerous gold medals at the Asian Games and Asian Championships. In late 2022, she was elected as the President of the Indian Olympic Association, further cementing her legacy in Indian sports.
120Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II relating to Sahitya Akademi Award Winners, 2022 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Title and Genre)
A. Bhool Satya (Short Stories)
B. Tumadi Ke Shabd (Poetry)
C. Chhe Roopak (Drama)
D. Alekhun Amba (Play)
List-II (Author)
1. Kamal Ranga
2. Veena Gupta
3. Badri Narayan
4. Manoj Kumar Goswami
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Sahitya Akademi Awards 2022 recognized excellence in various Indian languages and genres. Manoj Kumar Goswami was awarded for his collection of short stories titled Bhool Satya in Assamese. Badri Narayan received the honor in the Hindi poetry category for his work Tumadi Ke Shabd. Veena Gupta was recognized for her contribution to Dogri literature with the drama collection Chhe Roopak. Kamal Ranga won the award in the Rajasthani language category for his play Alekhun Amba, which explores the mythological character of Amba from a contemporary perspective. Consequently, the correct matching of authors to their respective works results in the sequence 4, 3, 2, 1.