Answer: (A) analysis of DNA to check the presence of a particular gene in a person
Explanation
Genetic screening is a medical process used to analyze a person's DNA to identify the presence or absence of specific genes, mutations, or chromosomal variations. This procedure involves examining an individual's genetic material to detect markers associated with inherited disorders or an increased susceptibility to certain diseases. By identifying specific alleles or genetic sequences, healthcare providers can diagnose existing conditions, identify carriers of recessive traits, or predict the risk of developing late-onset diseases. Common applications include newborn screening for metabolic disorders, carrier testing for hereditary conditions like cystic fibrosis, and prenatal testing to check for chromosomal abnormalities. The primary goal of this screening is to provide individuals and clinicians with actionable genetic information for early intervention and informed reproductive decision-making.
2Geography
Which of the following are the major factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India?
1. Location
2. Thermal contrast
3. Upper air circulation
4. The Himalayan Mountains
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The monsoon climate of India is governed by a complex set of geographical and meteorological factors. India's location in the tropical and subtropical zones ensures high temperatures and determines the movement of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) over the landmass during summer. The thermal contrast, or differential heating and cooling of the vast Indian landmass compared to the surrounding Indian Ocean, creates the pressure gradients necessary to reverse wind directions seasonally. Upper air circulation, specifically the shift of the Sub-tropical Westerly Jet Stream to the north of the Himalayas and the subsequent appearance of the Tropical Easterly Jet Stream over the peninsula, is crucial for the sudden onset or burst of the monsoon. Furthermore, the Himalayan Mountains act as a formidable physical barrier that prevents cold Central Asian winds from entering the subcontinent and forces the moisture-bearing southwest monsoon winds to rise, resulting in heavy orographic rainfall across Northern and Northeastern India.
3Geography
Consider the following Indian States :
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Telangana
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand
5. Tamil Nadu
Which among, the States given above are the largest and smallest respectively (in terms of geographical area)?
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Answer: (A) 3 and 4
Explanation
Following the creation of Telangana in June 2014, the reorganized state of Andhra Pradesh retains a geographical area of approximately 160,205 square kilometers, which is the largest among the five states mentioned. Uttarakhand, with an area of roughly 53,483 square kilometers, is the smallest state in this selection. In comparison, the areas of the other states are 135,191 square kilometers for Chhattisgarh, 130,058 square kilometers for Tamil Nadu, and 112,077 square kilometers for Telangana.
4Science and Technology
Who among the following is considered as the father of genetic engineering?
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Answer: (B) Paul Berg
Explanation
Paul Berg is widely recognized as the father of genetic engineering for his groundbreaking work in molecular biology during the early 1970s. In 1972, he and his team at Stanford University successfully produced the first recombinant DNA molecule by combining DNA from the SV40 monkey virus with DNA from the lambda virus. This experiment demonstrated that DNA from entirely different species could be intentionally joined, marking the birth of modern genetic engineering technology and the recombinant DNA revolution. In recognition of his fundamental research into the biochemistry of nucleic acids and his success in gene splicing, Berg was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1980.
5Science and Technology
Which of the following cause(s) variation in the genetic material of progeny?
1. Sexual reproduction
2. Asexual reproduction
3. Mutations
4. Epigenetic changes
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Sexual reproduction leads to genetic variation in progeny through the mechanisms of meiosis and fertilization. During meiosis, crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes, resulting in the recombination of genetic material and the creation of new allelic combinations. Furthermore, the independent assortment of chromosomes ensures that gametes receive a random mix of maternal and paternal DNA. The subsequent random fusion of these unique gametes during fertilization ensures that each offspring possesses a distinct genotype. Mutations serve as the primary source of genetic variation by inducing permanent changes in the DNA sequence of germ cells. These alterations, ranging from single nucleotide substitutions to large-scale chromosomal rearrangements, are inherited by the progeny and introduce novel genetic traits into the population.
6Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Plant) List-II (Natural vegetation type)
A. Ebony 1. Moist deciduous
B. Shisham 2. Himalayan moist
C. Walnut 3. Alpine
D. Birch 4. Tropical evergreen
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Answer: (A) A B C D 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Ebony is a characteristic hardwood tree found in Tropical Evergreen forests, which are located in regions receiving more than 200 cm of annual rainfall, such as the Western Ghats and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Shisham is a commercially valuable species typical of the Moist Deciduous forests found in the foothills of the Himalayas and parts of the Deccan plateau. Walnut is a temperate tree species found in the Himalayan Moist forests at altitudes ranging from 1500 to 3000 meters. Birch is a high-altitude tree that grows near the timberline in the Himalayas, representing the Alpine vegetation zone.
7Science and Technology
Cobalt is associated with
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Answer: (B) vitamin B₁₂
Explanation
Cobalt is an essential trace element that serves as the central metal ion in the structure of Vitamin B₁₂, which is chemically referred to as cobalamin. In this coordination complex, a single cobalt atom is situated at the center of a corrin ring and is bonded to four nitrogen atoms. Vitamin B₁₂ is critical for human health as it acts as a cofactor in DNA synthesis and the metabolism of both fatty acids and amino acids. It is particularly important for the normal functioning of the nervous system via its role in myelin synthesis and for the maturation of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Because the human body cannot synthesize the corrin ring, cobalt must be ingested as part of the complete Vitamin B₁₂ molecule through dietary sources.
8Science and Technology
Absorption of water in the human body can be found in
1. renal tubule in kidney
2. hepatic cells in liver
3. large intestine
4. pancreatic duct
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Water absorption occurs significantly in the renal tubules of the kidney and the large intestine. In the renal tubules, the majority of the water filtered by the glomeruli is reabsorbed into the bloodstream to maintain osmotic balance and blood volume. This process occurs through osmosis in the proximal convoluted tubule and is further regulated in the distal segments and collecting ducts under the influence of antidiuretic hormone. In the digestive tract, the large intestine performs the critical function of absorbing water and electrolytes from the liquid chyme received from the small intestine, which facilitates the formation of solid feces and prevents excessive fluid loss from the body. These two sites are the primary locations where the human body recovers water to maintain homeostasis.
9History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Geological time scale) List-II (Life-form)
A. Pleistocene 1. Mammals
B. Paleocene 2. Human genus
C. Permian 3. Invertebrates
D. Cambrian 4. Frogs
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 1 4 3
Explanation
The Pleistocene epoch is primarily associated with the evolution and expansion of the genus Homo, or the human genus, which appeared during the transition from the Pliocene. The Paleocene epoch followed the extinction of non-avian dinosaurs and was marked by the rapid radiation and diversification of primitive mammals. The Permian period saw the dominance and diversification of early amphibians, which includes the ancestors of modern Lissamphibia such as frogs. The Cambrian period is defined by the Cambrian Explosion, a significant evolutionary event during which most major groups of marine invertebrates first appeared in the fossil record.
Pleistocene matches with Human genus because the epoch covers the world's most recent period of repeated glaciations and the rise of modern humans. Paleocene matches with Mammals as it signifies the start of the Age of Mammals. Permian matches with Frogs through the development of ancestral amphibian lineages. Cambrian matches with Invertebrates due to the sudden emergence of complex multicelluar organisms without backbones.
10Science and Technology
Measles is a disease caused by
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Answer: (B) virus
Explanation
Measles is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the measles virus, which is a member of the genus Morbillivirus within the Paramyxoviridae family. This single-stranded, negative-sense RNA virus is transmitted through respiratory droplets or direct contact with secretions from the nose or throat of an infected person. Once the virus enters the body, it infects the epithelial cells of the trachea or bronchi and subsequently spreads to the lymphatic system and the blood, leading to systemic symptoms such as fever, cough, and a characteristic skin rash.
11Science and Technology
Neutrophils and lymphocytes originate from
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Answer: (C) bone marrow
Explanation
All cellular components of the blood, including neutrophils and lymphocytes, are produced through the process of hematopoiesis. In adults, this process occurs primarily in the red bone marrow, where multipotent hematopoietic stem cells reside. These stem cells differentiate into two main lineages: the myeloid lineage, which produces neutrophils and other granulocytes, and the lymphoid lineage, which produces lymphocytes. Although lymphocytes eventually migrate to other lymphoid organs like the thymus or lymph nodes for maturation and functional specialization, their initial site of origin where they are generated from stem cells is the bone marrow.
12Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Climate) List-II (Characteristic)
A. Mediterranean 1. Temperature cycle is moderated by marine influence
B. Marine west coast 2. Warm summers and cold winters with three months below freezing. Very large annual temperature range
C. Dry mid-latitude 3. Strong temperature cycle with large annual range. Warm summers to hot and cold winters to very cold
D. Moist continental 4. Temperature range is moderate with warm to hot summers and mild winters
Code :
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Answer: (D) A B C D 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Mediterranean climate (A) is located on the western margins of continents and is defined by a moderate temperature range featuring warm to hot summers and mild, moist winters (4). Marine west coast climate (B) occurs poleward of the Mediterranean zones and is characterized by a temperature cycle heavily moderated by marine influence, resulting in cool summers and relatively mild winters for its latitude (1). Dry mid-latitude climates (C), such as the interiors of Eurasia and North America, experience a strong temperature cycle with a large annual range, characterized by warm to hot summers and cold to very cold winters due to their distance from the sea (3). Moist continental climate (D) is found in the higher mid-latitudes and is distinguished by warm summers and cold winters where temperatures remain below freezing for three or more months, leading to a very large annual temperature range (2).
13Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Weathering type) List-II (Landform/ Process)
A. Chemical weathering 1. Till
B. Mechanical weathering 2. Oxidation
C. Glacial deposits 3. Plant roots
D. Deposition by ground-water 4. Stalactite
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 3 1 4
Explanation
Chemical weathering involves the chemical transformation of rock minerals into new compounds; oxidation is a primary chemical weathering process where atmospheric oxygen reacts with minerals, such as iron-rich silicates, to form oxides like hematite or limonite. Mechanical weathering refers to the physical breakdown of rocks into smaller fragments without changing their chemical composition; plant roots contribute to this by growing into joints and crevices, exerting significant outward pressure that wedges the rock apart. Glacial deposits comprise materials picked up and transported by moving ice; till is the specific term for the unsorted, unstratified sediment deposited directly by a glacier as it melts. Deposition by groundwater occurs when dissolved minerals precipitate out of solution in underground cavities; stalactites are icicle-like features that form on the ceilings of limestone caves as calcium carbonate is deposited by dripping water.
14Polity and Governance
The mandate of the scheme entitled 'Directly Observed Treatment, ShortCourse (DOTS)' launched by WHO is to ensure that
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Answer: (C) patients complete their course of drug
Explanation
The Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course (DOTS) strategy is the internationally recommended framework for tuberculosis control launched by the World Health Organization. The central mandate of this scheme is to ensure that patients complete their full course of medication through supervised treatment. Since tuberculosis treatment requires a rigorous multidrug regimen lasting several months, patients frequently stop taking their medicine once symptoms improve but before the bacteria are completely eradicated. By requiring a health worker or trained observer to witness the patient swallow every dose, DOTS eliminates the risk of non-compliance, prevents the development of multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis, and ensures a high cure rate.
15Geography
If a ship has to go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk Strait. Why?
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Answer: (B) It is too shallow for ships to cross
Explanation
The Palk Strait and the area of Adam's Bridge (Rama Setu) between India and Sri Lanka are characterized by extremely shallow waters. The average depth in these regions ranges from approximately 1 to 10 meters, which is insufficient for the draft requirements of modern large commercial vessels, tankers, and container ships that typically need depths of 12 to 15 meters or more. Due to these natural geographical constraints and the presence of numerous sandbanks and shoals, the strait is not navigable for deep-sea shipping. This forces vessels to circumnavigate the entire island of Sri Lanka, adding approximately 400 nautical miles to the voyage between the east and west coasts of India.
16Science and Technology
Penicillin inhibits synthesis of bacterial
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Answer: (A) cell wall
Explanation
Penicillin belongs to a class of antibiotics known as β-lactams, which exert their antibacterial effect by interfering with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. Specifically, penicillin targets the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis by binding to enzymes called Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs), such as transpeptidase. These enzymes are responsible for creating the cross-links between peptidoglycan chains that provide the cell wall with its structural integrity and mechanical strength. By inhibiting these cross-linking reactions, penicillin weakens the cell wall, making the bacteria unable to withstand internal osmotic pressure. This leads to the rupture of the cell membrane and the eventual lysis and death of the bacterial cell.
17Geography
Which of the following State capitals of North-East India is/are connected by Indian Railways?
1. Imphal
2. Agartala
3. Kohima
4. Aizawl
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
Agartala, the capital of Tripura, became the second North-Eastern state capital (after Guwahati/Dispur) to be connected to the Indian Railways network when a meter gauge line reached the city in 2008. By 2015, it was the only capital among the four listed that had a functional railway station. While other state capitals in the region had railheads within their respective states, they were not located in the capital cities themselves. For instance, Manipur was served by the railhead at Jiribam, Nagaland by Dimapur, and Mizoram by Bairabi. Extension projects to bring rail connectivity directly to Imphal, Kohima (via Zubza), and Aizawl (via Sairang) were in various stages of planning or construction during this period but were not operational.
18Science and Technology
Most antibiotics target bacterial parasites interfering with various factors of growth or metabolism such as
1. synthesis of cell wall
2. bacterial protein synthesis
3. synthesis of nuclear membrane
4. mitochondrial function
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Antibiotics are antimicrobial substances designed to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria by targeting specific structural or metabolic features that differ from those of the host organism. One primary mechanism is the inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Bacteria possess a unique cell wall composed of peptidoglycan, a structure not found in human cells. Antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins interfere with the enzyme-mediated cross-linking of this layer, causing the bacteria to burst due to osmotic pressure. Another common target is bacterial protein synthesis. Bacteria utilize 70S ribosomes, which are distinct in structure and composition from the 80S ribosomes found in eukaryotic cytoplasm. This allows antibiotics like tetracyclines, macrolides, and aminoglycosides to selectively bind to bacterial ribosomal subunits and halt the production of essential proteins. Since bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, they do not possess a membrane-bound nucleus or mitochondria, making these components irrelevant as targets for antibiotic action.
19Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Region) List-II (State)
A. Baghelkhand 1. West Bengal
B. Kuttanad 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Saurashtra 3. Kerala
D. Rarh 4. Gujarat
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Baghelkhand is a historical and geographical region located in the northeastern part of Madhya Pradesh, encompassing districts such as Rewa, Satna, and Sidhi. Kuttanad is a region in Kerala known for its vast paddy fields and unique system of farming below sea level, primarily spread across Alappuzha and Kottayam districts. Saurashtra is a peninsular region in the western part of Gujarat, historically known as Kathiawar, which includes districts like Rajkot, Jamnagar, and Junagadh. Rarh is a physiographic region in West Bengal situated between the Chota Nagpur Plateau to the west and the main alluvial plains of the Ganges Delta to the east, characterized by its laterite soil.
20Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to Portland cement are correct?
1. Silica imparts strength to cement.
2. Alumina makes the cement quick setting.
3. Excess of lime increases the strength of cement.
4. Calcium sulphate decreases the initial setting time of cement.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Silica (SiO₂) reacts with lime to form dicalcium silicate and tricalcium silicate, which are the primary compounds responsible for the strength and durability of Portland cement. Alumina (Al₂O₃) acts as a flux during burning and provides the quick-setting property to the finished cement. An excess of lime is undesirable because it leads to unsoundness, causing the cement to expand and disintegrate after setting. Calcium sulphate (gypsum) is added during the grinding of clinker to act as a retarder; it increases the initial setting time, allowing for the proper handling and placement of concrete or mortar.
21Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (City) List-II (Earthquake zone)
A. Kolkata 1. Zone V
B. Guwahati 2. Zone IV
C. Delhi 3. Zone III
D. Chennai 4. Zone II
Code :
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Answer: (B) A B C D 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Kolkata is matched with Zone III because it is situated in a moderate damage risk zone according to the seismic zonation of India. Guwahati is matched with Zone V as the entire northeastern region falls under the highest seismic risk category. Delhi is matched with Zone IV because it is located in a high damage risk zone near the active Himalayan tectonic belt. Chennai is matched with Zone II as it is positioned in a relatively stable part of the Indian peninsula that is historically associated with low seismic intensity.
22Science and Technology
Red phosphorus is used in the manufacture of safety matches. This is due to the fact that
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Answer: (B) at ordinary temperature, it is less reactive than other varieties of phosphorus
Explanation
Red phosphorus is an allotrope of phosphorus that is significantly more stable and less chemically reactive than white phosphorus at ordinary temperatures. While white phosphorus is highly toxic and undergoes spontaneous combustion when exposed to air, red phosphorus is non-poisonous and does not ignite spontaneously. This relative stability ensures that safety matches do not ignite accidentally during storage or transport. The heat generated by the friction of striking the match against the chemically prepared surface is required to initiate the reaction, where a small amount of red phosphorus is converted into white phosphorus vapor that ignites and starts the combustion of the match head.
23Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Lake) List-II (Type)
A. Ashtamudi Kayal 1. Residual (sweet water)
B. Himayat Sagar 2. Lagoon
C. Dal Lake 3. Glacial
D. Tsomgo Lake 4. Artificial (sweet water)
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Ashtamudi Kayal is a large palm-shaped water body in the Kollam district of Kerala, which represents a classic estuarine system classified as a lagoon.
Himayat Sagar is an artificial freshwater lake located near Hyderabad, Telangana, created by the construction of a dam on the Esi River in 1927 for flood control and water supply.
Dal Lake in Srinagar is often termed a residual lake because it is considered to be the remnants of a larger post-glacial lake or formed from the oxbow channels of the Jhelum River system.
Tsomgo Lake, also known as Changu Lake, is a high-altitude lake in East Sikkim that was formed through glacial activity and is fed by the melting snow of the surrounding mountains.
24Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Exponent) List-II (Law)
A. John Dalton 1. Law of definite proportion by volume
B. Joseph Proust 2. Law of multiple proportion
C. Antoine Lavoisier 3. Law of definite proportion by weight
D. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac 4. Law of conservation of mass
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 3 4 1
Explanation
John Dalton proposed the Law of Multiple Proportions in 1803, which states that when two elements combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other are in a ratio of small whole numbers.
Joseph Proust formulated the Law of Definite Proportion by weight (also known as the Law of Constant Proportions) in 1799, establishing that a chemical compound always contains its component elements in a fixed ratio by mass, regardless of its source or method of preparation.
Antoine Lavoisier established the Law of Conservation of Mass in 1789, proving that in a chemical reaction, the total mass of the products is exactly equal to the total mass of the reactants, meaning matter is neither created nor destroyed.
Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac introduced the Law of Definite Proportion by volume (Gay-Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volumes) in 1808, stating that when gases react together to form other gases, the ratios of the volumes of the reactants and products can be expressed in simple whole numbers, provided temperature and pressure remain constant.
25Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Farming area) List-II (State)
A. Doab 1. Assam
B. Char 2. Karnataka
C. Maidan 3. Punjab
D. Terai 4. Uttar Pradesh
Code :
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Answer: (B) A B C D 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Doab refers to the fertile tract of land lying between two converging rivers; while found in various parts of India, the term is most historically and geographically associated with the Punjab region, which is defined by the interfluves of the Indus river system. Chars are the riverine islands or sandbars formed by silt deposition in the Brahmaputra river valley in Assam, where they serve as temporary but fertile areas for agriculture. The Karnataka Plateau is physiographically divided into the hilly Malnad region and the undulating, relatively flatter plain region known as the Maidan. Terai is the moisture-rich, marshy belt of land located at the foothills of the Himalayas, situated south of the Bhabhar tract, and it covers a significant portion of the northern plains in Uttar Pradesh.
26Geography
Which of the following is not gaseous air pollutant?
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Answer: (D) Smoke
Explanation
Smoke is classified as a particulate pollutant rather than a gaseous pollutant. It consists of a visible suspension of fine solid particles and liquid droplets in the air, primarily resulting from the incomplete combustion of organic materials such as wood, coal, or petroleum. These particles are typically composed of carbon (soot), ash, and condensed tarry vapors. In environmental chemistry, pollutants are broadly categorized into gaseous pollutants and particulate matter (aerosols). While oxides of sulfur (SO₂, SO₃), oxides of nitrogen (NO, NO₂), and various hydrocarbons exist as distinct chemical species in the gas phase, smoke represents a physical dispersion of solid or liquid aggregates within a gaseous medium.
27Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Steel mill) List-II (State)
A. Kalinganagar 1. West Bengal
B. Vijayanagar 2. Tamil Nadu
C. Salem 3. Odisha
D. Durgapur 4. Karnataka
Code :
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Answer: (C) A B C D 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Kalinganagar is an integrated industrial hub located in the Jajpur district of Odisha, which hosts major steel manufacturing facilities including those of Tata Steel. The Vijayanagar Steel Plant, operated by JSW Steel, is situated at Toranagallu in the Ballari district of Karnataka and is one of the largest single-location steel plants in India. Salem Steel Plant is a specialized unit of the Steel Authority of India Limited located in the Salem district of Tamil Nadu, primarily known for its production of high-grade stainless steel. Durgapur Steel Plant is one of the major integrated steel plants of the Steel Authority of India Limited, located in the West Bengal industrial belt and established with assistance from the United Kingdom.
28Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Density of ice is greater than that of water.
Explanation
Water reaches its maximum density at approximately 4°C. When liquid water freezes into ice at 0°C, its molecules arrange themselves into a rigid, open hexagonal crystalline lattice structure due to hydrogen bonding. This specific arrangement forces the molecules further apart than they are in the liquid phase, causing the volume to increase and the density to decrease. Consequently, the density of ice is approximately 0.917 g/cm³, while the density of liquid water is about 1.00 g/cm³, which is why ice floats on water.
29Geography
Which one of the following is the pattern of circulation around a low-pressure area in the northern hemisphere?
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Answer: (C) Counter-clockwise and towards the centre
Explanation
In a low-pressure system, also known as a cyclone, the pressure gradient force drives air from surrounding higher-pressure areas toward the center of the low. As the air moves toward the center, the Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere deflects the wind to the right of its path of motion. This interaction between the inward pressure gradient and the rightward Coriolis deflection causes the air to spiral inward in a counter-clockwise direction. Surface friction further assists this process by slowing the wind speed, which reduces the Coriolis effect and allows the pressure gradient force to pull the air across the isobars toward the center, resulting in a convergent, counter-clockwise circulation pattern.
30Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not true for diamond?
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Answer: (D) It can be used as a lubricant
Explanation
Diamond is the hardest known natural substance due to its rigid three-dimensional network where each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral geometry. This structure lacks any layers or weak intermolecular forces that would allow parts of the crystal to slide over one another. Lubricants require materials with low shear strength or layered structures held by weak van der Waals forces, such as graphite, which allow for easy sliding. Because of its extreme hardness and lack of a slippery layered structure, diamond cannot be used as a lubricant and is instead utilized for its abrasive properties.
31Geography
Which one of the following statements about the atmosphere is correct?
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Answer: (B) The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible.
Explanation
The Earth's atmosphere is a layer of gases held by gravitational attraction, which is strongest near the planet's surface. Consequently, atmospheric pressure and density are highest at sea level and decrease exponentially as altitude increases. There is no sharp physical boundary or lid that defines the end of the atmosphere; instead, the air becomes increasingly rarefied through the outermost layer, the exosphere. This transition is so gradual that the atmosphere eventually fades into the near-vacuum of interplanetary space, making it impossible to establish a definite upper limit where the gaseous envelope ceases to exist.
32Science and Technology
The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by
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Answer: (A) John Dalton
Explanation
John Dalton formulated the first modern atomic theory of matter in the early 19th century, specifically between 1803 and 1808. In his seminal work, A New System of Chemical Philosophy, he proposed that all matter is composed of extremely small, indivisible particles called atoms. His theory stated that atoms of a particular element are identical in size, mass, and other properties, whereas atoms of different elements differ in these aspects. He also established that atoms cannot be created or destroyed in chemical reactions and that they combine in fixed, simple whole-number ratios to form chemical compounds. This conceptual framework laid the scientific foundation for modern chemistry by providing a physical basis for the Law of Conservation of Mass and the Law of Definite Proportions.
33Geography
Which one among the following statements about diastrophism is correct?
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Answer: (A) The forces may be so slow and gradual that they pass unnoticed for a long period of time.
Explanation
Diastrophism, also known as tectonism, refers to the large-scale deformation of the Earth's crust through endogenic processes such as orogeny (mountain building) and epeirogeny (continental uplift or subsidence). These forces operate at an extremely slow and gradual pace over geological time scales, involving the movement of tectonic plates and the folding or faulting of rock strata. Because the rate of change is so minute, the resulting structural modifications to the Earth's surface are imperceptible to human observation over short periods and only become discernible after thousands or millions of years.
34Science and Technology
A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum. Which one of the following remains constant during the fall?
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Answer: (D) Total mechanical energy
Explanation
The principle of conservation of mechanical energy states that the total mechanical energy of an object remains constant if it is acted upon only by conservative forces and if dissipative forces, such as air resistance, are absent. In a vacuum, a body falling freely is subject solely to the conservative force of gravity. The total mechanical energy E is defined as the sum of kinetic energy K and potential energy U, expressed as E = 1/2mv² + mgh. As the body descends, its height h decreases, leading to a reduction in potential energy, while its velocity v increases due to gravitational acceleration g, leading to a corresponding increase in kinetic energy. Since there is no energy loss to the surroundings in a vacuum, the work done by gravity results in a perfect transformation of potential energy into kinetic energy, ensuring that the sum E remains invariant throughout the entire duration of the fall.
35Science and Technology
X-rays are
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Answer: (D) not deflected by an electric field or a magnetic field
Explanation
X-rays are a form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation consisting of photons. Because photons carry no net electric charge, they are fundamentally neutral particles. According to the Lorentz force principle, the force acting on a particle in electromagnetic fields is defined by F = q(E + v × B), where q is the charge of the particle. Since the charge q of an X-ray photon is zero, the resultant force exerted by both electric fields E and magnetic fields B is also zero. Consequently, X-rays travel in straight lines and do not undergo any deflection when passing through these fields.
36Geography
Which one of the following minerals contains mostly silica?
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Answer: (B) Quartz
Explanation
Quartz is a crystalline mineral composed entirely of silicon dioxide (SiO₂). It belongs to the framework silicate or tectosilicate group, where each oxygen atom is shared between two silicon-oxygen tetrahedra. This arrangement results in a three-dimensional network where the ratio of silicon to oxygen is exactly 1:2. In its pure state, it does not contain the metallic cations or complex hydroxyl ions that characterize other mineral groups, making its chemical composition essentially pure silica.
37Science and Technology
The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is about
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Answer: (D) 2.5 cm
Explanation
The focal length of the human eye lens is approximately equal to the distance between the lens and the retina, which corresponds to the diameter of the eyeball. In a normal adult, the eyeball is nearly spherical with a diameter of about 2.5 cm. When the eye is relaxed and viewing an object at infinity (u = ∞), the light rays are focused exactly on the retina.
Using the thin lens formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u, where f is the focal length, v is the image distance, and u is the object distance, we can determine the focal length. For an object at infinity, the term 1/u becomes zero, meaning 1/f = 1/v, or f = v. Since the image must be formed on the retina, the image distance v is the distance from the lens to the retina, which is approximately 2.5 cm. Therefore, the focal length of the eye lens when focusing on distant objects is about 2.5 cm. When the eye accommodates to see closer objects, the ciliary muscles contract to decrease the focal length slightly (to about 2.2 cm or 2.3 cm), but 2.5 cm remains the standard representative value for the eye's focal length.
38Geography
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (B) Cold fronts normally move faster than warm fronts and therefore frequently overtake the warm fronts.
Explanation
Cold fronts consist of dense, cold air that stays close to the ground and pushes more aggressively under warmer air masses. Because of this high density and the resulting pressure gradient, cold fronts typically move at speeds between 30 and 50 kilometers per hour, which is significantly faster than the 15 to 30 kilometers per hour typical of warm fronts. During the life cycle of a mid-latitude cyclone, the faster-moving cold front frequently overtakes the slower-moving warm front ahead of it. This interaction leads to the formation of an occluded front, where the warm air is pinched upward and forced off the surface by the meeting of two cooler air masses.
39Science and Technology
Which one of the following physical quantities is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature?
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Answer: (C) Kinetic energy
Explanation
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average translational kinetic energy of a gas molecule is directly proportional to its absolute temperature. This relationship is defined by the equation KE = 3/2 kᵦ T, where kᵦ is the Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10⁻²³ J/K) and T is the temperature measured in Kelvin. This derivation follows from the ideal gas law and the microscopic description of pressure, establishing that the thermal motion of particles is a direct consequence of the temperature of the system. Because this energy value is determined strictly by the product of a universal constant and the absolute temperature, it remains identical for molecules of all gases at the same temperature.
40Science and Technology
Newton's laws of motion do not hold good for objects
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Answer: (D) moving with velocity comparable to velocity of light
Explanation
Newtonian mechanics is based on the assumption that space and time are absolute and that the mass of an object remains constant regardless of its motion. These laws provide an excellent approximation for macroscopic objects moving at speeds significantly lower than the speed of light c. However, as an object's velocity v approaches c, the effects described by the Special Theory of Relativity become significant. In this relativistic regime, the mass of an object increases following the relation m = m₀/√(1 - v²/c²), where m₀ is the rest mass. Because the mass changes with velocity, the simple form of Newton's Second Law F = ma is no longer valid, and the classical addition of velocities fails. Instead, relativistic mechanics must be used to accurately describe the dynamics of the object.
41Geography
Which of the following elements are found in highest and lowest quantities respectively in the crust of the earth?
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Answer: (D) Oxygen and magnesium
Explanation
The Earth crust is composed primarily of eight elements that account for approximately 98.5 percent of its total mass. Oxygen is the most abundant of these elements, making up about 46.6 percent of the crust by weight. Among these eight major constituent elements, magnesium is found in the lowest quantity, comprising only about 2.1 percent of the crust. The relative abundance of these primary elements by weight is oxygen (46.6 percent), silicon (27.7 percent), aluminum (8.1 percent), iron (5.0 percent), calcium (3.6 percent), sodium (2.8 percent), potassium (2.6 percent), and magnesium (2.1 percent). Thus, oxygen represents the highest concentration and magnesium represents the lowest concentration among the primary chemical building blocks of the continental and oceanic crust.
42Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Weight and mass of a body are equal at sea level on the surface of the earth.
Explanation
Mass and weight are fundamentally different physical quantities with distinct dimensions and units. Mass is an intrinsic property of an object that measures its inertia and the amount of matter it contains, typically expressed in kilograms (kg). Weight is the gravitational force acting on that mass, expressed in Newtons (N). These quantities are related by the formula W = mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. At sea level on Earth, the value of g is approximately 9.8 m/s², which means the numerical value of an object's weight in Newtons is nearly ten times its mass in kilograms. Because they represent different physical concepts and utilize different units of measurement, they can never be equal.
43Science and Technology
A brick is thrown vertically from an aircraft flying two kilometres above the earth. The brick will fall with a
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Answer: (C) constant acceleration
Explanation
The brick falls under the influence of Earth's gravitational pull. Near the surface of the Earth, the acceleration due to gravity (g) is approximately constant at 9.8 m/s². According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the force acting on the object is F = mg, and since the mass (m) and the gravitational field (g) are constant, the acceleration (a = F/m) remains constant. While air resistance typically acts on falling objects, in standard kinematic problems of this type, such factors are neglected unless terminal velocity is specifically mentioned. At a height of two kilometres, the change in the value of g is less than 0.1%, making the acceleration effectively uniform throughout the fall.
44Geography
This item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II.
Statement I:
The Kuroshio is a warm north-flowing ocean current on the west side of the North Pacific Ocean.
Statement II:
Presence of a number of volcanoes at the bottom of the Sea of Japan is responsible for the Kuroshio becoming warm.
Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to the item using the code given below.
Code:
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
The Kuroshio Current is the western boundary current of the North Pacific subtropical gyre, originating from the North Equatorial Current. It transports warm, tropical water northward along the east coast of Asia, significantly influencing the climate of Japan and the North Pacific. Its warmth is derived from intense solar heating in the equatorial regions and the subsequent poleward transport of this heat by wind-driven circulation and the Coriolis effect. The heat source is atmospheric and solar rather than geothermal; therefore, the presence of submarine volcanoes in the Sea of Japan or elsewhere does not account for the thermal characteristics of this massive oceanic current.
45Science and Technology
The outside rearview mirror of modern automobiles is marked with warning objects in mirror are closer than they appear. Such mirrors are
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Answer: (D) convex mirrors
Explanation
Convex mirrors are used as side rearview mirrors in automobiles because they provide a much wider field of view than plane or concave mirrors. This diverging property allows drivers to monitor a larger section of the road and traffic behind them. According to the mirror formula 1/f = 1/v + 1/u and the magnification formula m = -v/u, a convex mirror (which has a positive focal length f) always produces a virtual, erect, and diminished image of a real object. Because the image size is smaller than the actual object size (|m| < 1), it subtends a smaller visual angle at the eye. The human brain typically interprets smaller images as being further away, which creates the illusion of greater distance and leads to the necessary warning that objects are actually closer than they appear in the mirror.
46Polity and Governance
A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it has any provisions dealing with
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines a Money Bill as one that contains only provisions dealing with specific financial matters. These include the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax, as well as the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. According to Article 110(2), a Bill is explicitly not deemed a Money Bill if it merely provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered. Therefore, while the regulation of taxes and the appropriation of funds from the Consolidated Fund are core criteria for a Money Bill, the imposition of fines and the collection of service fees are specifically excluded from this definition.
47History
Consider the following statements about Alauddin Khalji's market policy:
1. He placed markets under the control of a high officer called 'Shahna' for strictly controlling the shopkeepers and prices.
2. In order to ensure a regular supply of cheap food grains, he ordered the land revenue from Doab region to be paid directly to the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Alauddin Khalji established a sophisticated market control system supervised by high-ranking officials known as Shahna-i-Mandi. These superintendents were responsible for maintaining a register of merchants, enforcing state-fixed prices, and ensuring that no shopkeeper cheated on weights or measures. To guarantee a regular supply of grain at these fixed rates, the Sultan decreed that land revenue from the fertile Doab region must be collected in kind rather than cash. This grain was stored in state granaries across Delhi to ensure availability during periods of scarcity and to provide for the large standing army at stable costs.
48Economy
Which one of the following is not a part of service sector in India?
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Answer: (B) Construction
Explanation
The Central Statistics Office (CSO) in India categorizes economic activities into three primary sectors: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary. Construction is specifically classified under the Secondary sector, which also includes manufacturing, mining, and electricity, gas, and water supply. While it involves various project-based operations, the fundamental nature of construction is the creation of physical infrastructure and tangible capital assets, distinguishing it from the Tertiary or Service sector. In official economic surveys and Gross Value Added (GVA) estimations, construction is treated as a component of the industrial sector because it represents the transformation of raw materials into finished structures.
49Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national language of the Union.
2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari Script.
3. English language shall continue to be used for official purposes within States.
4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should be the official language of communication between the States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Article 343 of the Constitution of India specifically designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, not the national language. The Constitution does not define any language as the national language of India. Furthermore, Article 343 focuses on the official language of the Union and the transition period for the use of English at the Union level. Provisions regarding the official language or languages of a State are laid down in Article 345, while the language for communication between States or between a State and the Union is governed by Article 346. Since Article 343 does not address national language status, official languages within State jurisdictions, or inter-state communication protocols, the features mentioned in points 1, 3, and 4 do not belong to it.
50Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Term) List-II (Meaning)
A. Mihrab 1. Stepped pulpit
B. Mimbar 2. Direction towards the Kaba for prayer
C. Khutba 3. Arch
D. Kibla 4. Sermon
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Answer: (C) A B C D 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Mihrab is an arched niche in the qibla wall of a mosque that marks the direction of Mecca. Mimbar refers to the stepped pulpit from which the imam delivers the sermon to the congregation. Khutba is the formal religious sermon or address delivered during Friday prayers and on special festival occasions. Kibla is the sacred direction facing the Kaaba in Mecca, which determines the orientation of Muslims during their daily prayers.
51Economy
Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined
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Answer: (A) predominantly by market mechanism
Explanation
In a flexible exchange rate system, the value of a currency is established by the continuous interaction of supply and demand in the foreign exchange market. This market mechanism functions without direct government or central bank intervention to fix the rate at a specific level. The equilibrium exchange rate is reached where the quantity of currency demanded by international buyers equals the quantity supplied by domestic holders. Factors such as international trade flows, interest rate differentials, inflation rates, and investor expectations influence these market forces, causing the currency's value to fluctuate or float freely in response to changing economic conditions.
52Polity and Governance
After the general elections, the Pro tem Speaker is
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Answer: (B) appointed by the President of India
Explanation
Under Article 95(1) of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to appoint a member of the Lok Sabha to perform the duties of the Speaker when that office is vacant and there is no Deputy Speaker. After a general election, the Speaker of the previous Lok Sabha vacates the office immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected House. To facilitate the commencement of proceedings, the President appoints a Speaker Pro tem. The primary responsibilities of the Pro tem Speaker are to preside over the first sitting of the new Lok Sabha, administer the oath or affirmation to the newly elected members as required by Article 99, and conduct the election of the regular Speaker. Although by convention the President usually selects the senior-most member of the House for this temporary role, the legal authority for the appointment lies with the President.
53Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Person) List-II (Work)
A. Uddanda 1. Sudhanidhi
B. Sayana 2. Mallikamaruta
C. Yadavaprakasa 3. Malatimadhava
D. Bhavabhuti 4. Vaijayanti
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Uddanda Sastri, a 15th-century poet in the court of the Zamorin of Calicut, authored the Sanskrit drama Mallikamaruta, which was written in the Prakarana style. Sayana, the celebrated commentator on the Vedas and a minister in the Vijayanagara Empire, composed several scholarly works under the title Sudhanidhi, including the Alankarasudhanidhi and the Purusharthasudhanidhi. Yadavaprakasa, an 11th-century scholar and early teacher of Ramanuja, is the author of the Vaijayanti, a significant Sanskrit lexicon or dictionary. Bhavabhuti, a premier Sanskrit dramatist of the 8th century, wrote the famous romantic play Malatimadhava, which is one of his three major surviving works.
54Economy
Which one of the following is not correct in the context of industrial clusters development in India?
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Answer: (D) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of monopoly in the market
Explanation
Industrial clusters are geographical concentrations of interconnected businesses, suppliers, and associated institutions in a particular field. Rather than promoting monopolies, these clusters are designed to foster competition and collaboration among a large number of small and medium-scale enterprises. By providing shared infrastructure, collective marketing, and easier access to raw materials or specialized labor, clusters reduce entry barriers for new entrepreneurs. This environment encourages multiple players to coexist and compete, which drives innovation, improves efficiency, and prevents any single entity from dominating the market. Therefore, the development of industrial clusters is fundamentally aligned with promoting a competitive and pluralistic market structure rather than a monopolistic one.
55Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Leader) List-II (Party)
A. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 1. Communist Party of India
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
C. S. A. Dange 3. Swatantra Party
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 3 1 4
Explanation
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder and first president of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951, resigning from the first Nehru cabinet to form this nationalist alternative. Minoo Masani was a prominent co-founder of the Swatantra Party in 1959, which served as a major advocate for free-market economics and personal liberty in independent India. S. A. Dange was a core founding member of the Communist Party of India and a towering leader in the Indian trade union movement through the All India Trade Union Congress. Ashok Mehta was a significant socialist thinker and politician who served as a leader within the Praja Socialist Party before his later transition into government planning roles.
56History
The Rihla was written in
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Answer: (A) Arabic in the Fourteenth Century by Ibn Battuta
Explanation
Ibn Battuta, the Moroccan explorer, wrote his famous travelogue Rihla in Arabic during the fourteenth century. The work, whose full title translates to A Gift to Those Who Contemplate the Wonders of Cities and the Marvels of Travelling, documents his extensive journeys across Africa, the Middle East, India, and East Asia between 1325 and 1354. His accounts serve as a primary historical source for the socio-political conditions of the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughlaq. The text was dictated to the scholar Ibn Juzayy toward the end of Ibn Battuta's life.
57Economy
Contribution of the manufacturing sector to environmental degradation primarily occurs during
1. procurement and use of natural resources
2. industrial processes and activities
3. product use and disposal
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The manufacturing sector impacts the environment throughout the entire life cycle of a product, a concept known as Life Cycle Assessment (LCA). Environmental degradation begins with the procurement of natural resources, where activities like mining, logging, and water extraction lead to habitat loss, soil erosion, and resource depletion. During the industrial processes and activities phase, factories consume significant amounts of energy and release harmful pollutants, including greenhouse gases like CO₂, toxic chemical effluents into water bodies, and solid hazardous waste. Finally, product use and disposal contribute to degradation through energy consumption during the product's lifespan and the accumulation of non-biodegradable waste, such as plastics and electronic waste, in landfills or ecosystems after the product reaches its end-of-life stage. All three stages are integral to the total environmental footprint of industrial manufacturing.
58Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
2. Gives official status to certain religions
3. Provides freedom to profess any religion
4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
The Constitution of India establishes a secular state, which means it does not accord official status to any religion. This distinguishes the Indian state from countries that have a state religion, such as Pakistan (Islam) or Sri Lanka (Buddhism). Secularism in the Indian context implies that the state maintains a principled distance from all religions and treats them with equal respect.
The other mentioned features are fundamental to the Indian constitutional framework. Article 15 and 16 prohibit discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all individuals. Furthermore, the Indian model of secularism allows the state to intervene in religious matters to ensure equality and social reform, such as through Article 25(2)(b) which allows for the opening of Hindu religious institutions to all classes and sections of Hindus, thereby ensuring equality within religious communities.
59Art and Culture
The 'Sur Sagar' is
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Answer: (B) a poetic work of Surdas
Explanation
Sur Sagar is the most celebrated poetic work of the 16th-century blind saint-poet Surdas, a prominent figure in the Bhakti movement. Composed in the Braj Bhasha dialect, the work is a vast collection of devotional songs (padas) primarily dedicated to Lord Krishna. It vividly describes Krishna's childhood activities, his divine sports in Vrindavan, and his separation from the Gopis. Surdas was a disciple of Vallabhacharya and a leading poet of the Ashtachhap, a group of eight poets who sang the praises of Krishna. The verses in Sur Sagar are known for their lyrical quality and deep emotional expression of Shringar and Vatsalya rasas.
60Economy
Private investment in Indian agriculture is mostly on labour-saving mechanization. This could be a response to
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Answer: (C) rising wages and tighter labour market
Explanation
The shift towards labour-saving mechanization in Indian agriculture is primarily driven by the increasing cost and decreasing availability of manual labour. In the decade preceding 2015, the rural labour market in India tightened significantly due to factors such as the expansion of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and increased migration to non-farm sectors like construction. These developments led to a substantial rise in real agricultural wages and seasonal labour shortages during peak sowing and harvesting periods. To mitigate these rising operational costs and ensure timely completion of farm operations, private investors and farmers opted for capital-intensive machinery. Mechanization allows for the substitution of human and animal power with mechanical power, effectively reducing the dependency on a shrinking and more expensive rural workforce.
61Geography
Which of the following facts are related to Burma (Myanmar)?
1. It shares its borders with India, China, Bangladesh and Vietnam.
2. It is ruled by a military government.
3. The National League for Democracy was not allowed to contest the elections held in the year 2010.
4. Myanmar is a member of ASEAN.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Myanmar is a member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), having joined the organization on July 23, 1997. Regarding its political history leading up to 2015, the country was long characterized by military rule; even after the formal dissolution of the military junta in 2011, the government remained a quasi-civilian regime heavily dominated by former military officers and the military establishment under the 2008 Constitution. During the general elections held in 2010, the National League for Democracy (NLD), led by Aung San Suu Kyi, did not participate and was not allowed to contest as a legal entity because it refused to register under election laws that would have forced the party to expel its members who were then political prisoners. Geographically, Myanmar shares its land borders with five countries: India, Bangladesh, China, Laos, and Thailand, notably excluding Vietnam, which is separated from Myanmar by the territories of Laos and Thailand.
62Art and Culture
Who among the following was not a painter at Akbar's Court?
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Answer: (C) Kalyan Das
Explanation
Kalyan Das, also known as Chatarman, was a distinguished painter who flourished during the mid-17th century, primarily under the patronage of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan. His work is representative of the later Mughal style, characterized by highly refined portraiture and a more formal, static aesthetic. Chronologically, his career began several decades after the death of Akbar, meaning he was never a part of the imperial atelier that produced masterpieces like the Hamzanama or the Akbarnama during the late 16th century. While the painting workshop of the 1500s was defined by the fusion of Persian and Indian styles under early masters, Kalyan Das represents the peak of the subsequent Shah Jahani school.
63Economy
Which one of the following is the major source of gross tax revenue (GTR) for the Government of India?
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Answer: (B) Corporation tax
Explanation
Corporation tax is the tax levied on the net income or profit of both domestic and foreign companies operating in India. During the period leading up to 2015, it was the single largest component of the Government of India's Gross Tax Revenue (GTR). It consistently accounted for the highest percentage share of total tax collections among all direct and indirect tax categories. The dominance of corporation tax in the revenue profile reflected the growth and profitability of the organized corporate sector, which provided the most substantial individual contribution to the central exchequer.
64Economy
Which of the following are members of BRICS?
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Answer: (B) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Explanation
BRICS is an association of five major emerging national economies, and the acronym is derived from the first letter of each member state: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The group was originally known as BRIC before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010. These countries are characterized by their large, fast-growing economies and significant influence on regional and global affairs. By 2015, the group had established formal annual summits and created the New Development Bank to foster financial and development cooperation among the member nations.
65History
After the death of Shivaji, there was a fight for succession between
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Answer: (C) Rajaram and Shambhaji
Explanation
Following the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in April 1680, a power struggle erupted within the Maratha administration regarding the rightful heir to the throne. Sambhaji was the eldest son, but a faction of influential ministers and Shivaji’s widow, Soyarabai, attempted to bypass him in favor of her own son, Rajaram. Rajaram was briefly installed on the throne at Raigad while Sambhaji was at Panhala. However, Sambhaji secured the support of the Maratha army and key military commanders, allowing him to march on Raigad and assert his claim. He successfully deposed Rajaram and was officially crowned as the second Chhatrapati of the Maratha Empire in July 1680. This conflict between the two brothers and their respective supporters marked the first major succession crisis in Maratha history.
66Economy
Which one of the following is a non-renewable resource?
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Answer: (B) Coal
Explanation
Coal is a fossil fuel formed from the remains of ancient vegetation that lived hundreds of millions of years ago, primarily during the Carboniferous period. Through the process of coalification, organic matter was buried under thick layers of sediment and subjected to intense heat and pressure within the Earth's crust over geological timescales. Since the rate of its formation is infinitesimally slow compared to the rapid rate at which it is extracted and consumed for energy by modern industrial society, its supply is finite and exhaustible. Once these subterranean deposits are depleted, they cannot be replenished or regenerated within any timeframe relevant to human civilization.
67History
The 'Panchsheel Agreement' for peaceful coexistence was signed between
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Answer: (C) India and China
Explanation
The Panchsheel Agreement, formally known as the Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet Region of China and India, was signed on April 29, 1954. It was a bilateral treaty between Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru of India and Premier Zhou Enlai of China. The agreement codified five principles of peaceful coexistence: mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence. These principles were intended to govern the relationship between the two nations and subsequently became a cornerstone of the Non-Aligned Movement.
68History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Author) List-II (Work)
A. Somadeva 1. Malavikagnimitra
B. Kalidasa 2. Kathasaritsagara
C. Bhasa 3. Chaurapanchasika
D. Bilhana 4. Svapnavasavadatta
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Answer: (A) A B C D 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Somadeva authored the Kathasaritsagara, an extensive 11th-century collection of Indian legends and folk tales written in Sanskrit verse to entertain Queen Suryamati of Kashmir. Kalidasa composed Malavikagnimitra, a classical Sanskrit play that narrates the love story of King Agnimitra of the Shunga dynasty and the princess Malavika. Bhasa is the celebrated playwright of Svapnavasavadatta, which explores themes of love and political duty through the story of King Udayana and his queen Vasavadatta. Bilhana, a renowned Kashmiri poet, wrote the Chaurapanchasika, a poignant fifty-verse poem recounting a secret romance between a poet and a princess.
69Economy
Which one of the following is not an example of externalities?
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Answer: (B) Health hazard caused to the person due to smoking by himself/herself
Explanation
Externalities occur when the production or consumption of a good or service imposes unintended costs or benefits on third parties who are not involved in the activity. These spillover effects are not reflected in the market price of the good. When a person smokes and experiences health hazards personally, the consequences are categorized as private or internal costs. Because the individual making the choice to smoke is the same person bearing the health burden, the impact is contained within the consumer's own utility and does not constitute a spillover onto an uncompensated third party. In contrast, externalities fundamentally require an impact on someone other than the person or firm performing the action.
70Economy
'Rio + 20' is the short name for
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Answer: (B) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
Explanation
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), commonly referred to as Rio + 20, was a major international meeting held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 20 to 22 June 2012. The name Rio + 20 signifies that the event took place twenty years after the historic 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit. The primary objectives of this conference were to secure renewed political commitment for sustainable development, assess progress and gaps in the implementation of previous agreements, and address new and emerging challenges. The conference resulted in the political outcome document titled The Future We Want, which contained measures for implementing sustainable development and paved the way for the creation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
71History
Patanjali was
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Answer: (D) the author of a commentary on Panini's Sanskrit grammar
Explanation
Patanjali is the celebrated author of the Mahabhashya, which is a monumental and authoritative commentary on Panini's Ashtadhyayi, the foundational work of Sanskrit grammar. Dating back to approximately the 2nd century BCE, Patanjali is regarded as one of the three great sages (Trimuni) of the Sanskrit grammatical tradition, alongside Panini and Katyayana. In the Mahabhashya, he provides extensive linguistic analysis, clarifies Panini's rules, and offers philosophical insights into the nature of language and sound. His work was instrumental in refining the structure of classical Sanskrit and establishing the logic of the Vyakarana (grammar) system. Historically, Patanjali is often associated with the Sunga period, and his commentary remains a pillar of Indian linguistic and philosophical scholarship.
72Economy
Which of the following statements in the context of income-environment relationship is/are correct?
1. Pollution trends tend to follow an inverse-U shaped relationship across different stages of economic development.
2. In the beginning stage, pollution increases due to urbanization and industrialization.
3. In the later stage, pollution declines due to structural changes towards services sector.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) hypothesis posits that the relationship between per capita income and environmental degradation follows an inverse-U shaped trajectory. In the early stages of economic growth, known as the scale effect, pollution increases because urbanization and industrialization lead to intensified resource extraction and waste generation. As the economy matures and reaches a higher level of development, pollution begins to decline due to the composition effect and the technique effect. This transition involves structural changes where the economy shifts from pollution-intensive heavy industries toward the services sector, which has a lower environmental footprint. Additionally, higher income levels lead to increased public demand for environmental quality, stricter regulations, and the adoption of cleaner technologies, resulting in an eventual improvement in environmental quality.
73Economy
Which one of the following is not a member of MERCOSUR (Southern Common Market)?
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Answer: (D) Chile
Explanation
Chile is an Associate Member of MERCOSUR, having joined in this capacity through an Economic Complementation Agreement in 1996. Associate status allows for the establishment of a free trade area with the bloc but does not involve the same level of integration as full membership. Associate members do not participate in the common customs union, do not apply the Common External Tariff, and do not possess voting rights in the bloc's primary decision-making organs.
74History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (King) List-II (Region)
A. Shashanka 1. Assam
B. Kharavela 2. Maharashtra
C. Simuka 3. Orissa
D. Bhaskara Varman 4. Bengal
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Answer: (C) A B C D 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Shashanka was the first independent king of the Gauda Kingdom in the Bengal region, ruling during the late 6th and early 7th centuries. Kharavela was the most powerful king of the Mahameghavahana dynasty of Kalinga, which corresponds to the modern-day region of Orissa. Simuka is recognized as the founder of the Satavahana dynasty, which established its primary seat of power in the Deccan, specifically covering modern-day Maharashtra. Bhaskara Varman was the most prominent monarch of the Varman dynasty of the Kamarupa kingdom, which was located in the Assam region.
75Economy
Which one of the following represents a progressive tax structure?
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Answer: (B) Tax rate increases as income increases
Explanation
A progressive tax system is defined by a tax rate that increases as the taxable amount or income level rises. This structure is based on the principle of ability to pay, which argues that those with higher financial resources should contribute a larger percentage of their income to the government. The primary goal of a progressive tax is to promote social equity and reduce wealth concentration by applying higher marginal tax rates to higher income brackets. In this system, individuals with greater earnings bear a proportionally larger share of the tax burden, which helps in redistributing resources and providing relief to lower-income segments of the population.
76Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to
1. implementation of Directive Principles
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Right to Equality
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The freedom of thought and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution is not absolute and is constrained by several constitutional provisions and principles:
Implementation of Directive Principles: Article 31C, introduced by the 25th Amendment Act (1971), provides that laws enacted to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy specified in Article 39(b) and (c) cannot be challenged on the ground that they violate the fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 14 or Article 19. This establishes that the implementation of certain social and economic goals can take precedence over individual freedoms.
Fundamental Duties: While Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are not directly enforceable by writs, the Supreme Court has ruled in cases like Mohan Kumar Singhania v. Union of India (1992) and Javed v. State of Haryana (2003) that they are relevant in determining the constitutional validity of any law. The reasonableness of restrictions placed on freedom of expression under Article 19(2) is often interpreted through the lens of these duties, ensuring that individual liberty is balanced with collective responsibility.
Right to Equality: Under the doctrine of the Golden Triangle (Articles 14, 19, and 21) established in the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), fundamental rights are not mutually exclusive but are interdependent. Any law or action restricting freedom of expression must also satisfy the test of Article 14 (Right to Equality) to ensure it is not arbitrary or discriminatory. Consequently, the exercise of freedom of expression is subject to the overarching principle that it must not infringe upon the equal rights and status of other citizens.
77History
In ancient India, the 'Yaudheyas' were
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Answer: (C) a republican tribe
Explanation
The Yaudheyas were an ancient tribal confederation known for their republican form of government, often referred to as a Ganasangha. They flourished between the 2nd century BCE and the 4th century CE, primarily in the region comprising present-day Haryana and the Sutlej-Yamuna divide. In his work Ashtadhyayi, Panini identifies them as an Ayudhajivi Sangha, which refers to a community that supported itself through military skills and the profession of arms. Their political identity as a republic is substantiated by extensive numismatic evidence, particularly their coinage, which frequently bears the legend Yaudheya Ganasya Jaya (Victory of the Yaudheya republic) and depicts the warrior deity Kartikeya. Furthermore, the Junagadh rock inscription of the Western Kshatrapa ruler Rudradaman I characterizes them as a fierce and heroic republican people, acknowledging their significant martial reputation in northern India.
78Economy
Which one of the following is an example of a 'natural monopoly'?
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Answer: (B) Delhi Jal Board
Explanation
A natural monopoly occurs in an industry where the initial fixed costs of infrastructure are so high that it is most efficient for a single firm to serve the entire market. In such sectors, economies of scale are so significant that the average cost of production declines continuously as output increases, making it prohibitively expensive for a second competitor to enter and replicate the network. The Delhi Jal Board is an example of a natural monopoly because providing water and sewage services requires a massive, integrated network of pipelines and treatment plants. Building a duplicate set of water mains and distribution pipes by a competing firm would result in a massive waste of resources and higher costs for the public, which is why water supply is typically managed by a single utility provider.
79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a component of the Realist Theory?
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Answer: (D) Survival can be assured in cooperation with international organizations
Explanation
Realism is founded on the principle of self-help, which arises from the anarchic nature of the international system where no central global authority exists to protect states. Realist thinkers argue that states must rely on their own military and economic capabilities to ensure their security and survival because international organizations are seen as mere reflections of the prevailing distribution of power rather than independent actors capable of guaranteeing peace. While Liberalism posits that international institutions can foster cooperation and mitigate conflict, Realists maintain that states are cautious of such cooperation due to concerns over relative gains and the potential for others to cheat. Consequently, the idea that a state's survival can be reliably assured through international organizations contradicts the Realist belief that power and national interest are the only certain tools for state preservation.
80History
The Dashakumaracharita or Tales of Ten Princes' was composed by
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Answer: (D) Dandin
Explanation
Dandin, a prominent Sanskrit author and grammarian from the 6th or 7th century CE, composed the Dashakumaracharita. This prose romance chronicles the adventurous journeys and romantic pursuits of ten young princes as they travel across different regions of India. The text is highly regarded for its intricate narrative structure and its vivid descriptions of contemporary social life, customs, and courtly politics. Dandin is also celebrated for his influential work on poetics, the Kavyadarsha, which further established his status as a master of Sanskrit literature.
81Economy
What is meant by price discrimination?
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Answer: (B) A situation where the same product is sold to different consumers for different prices
Explanation
Price discrimination is a microeconomic pricing strategy where a seller charges different prices to different customers for the same good or service, even though the cost of production remains constant. This practice allows firms with market power to capture a larger portion of consumer surplus and increase total revenue. To implement price discrimination effectively, a firm must possess some degree of monopoly power, be able to segment the market into groups with different price elasticities of demand, and ensure that the product cannot be easily resold between consumers to prevent arbitrage. Examples include tiered pricing for airline tickets based on booking time, student discounts for software, and varying electricity rates for residential versus industrial users.
82Polity and Governance
Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel Kant's theory of 'perpetual peace'?
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Answer: (C) World Government
Explanation
In his 1795 essay Perpetual Peace: A Philosophical Sketch, Immanuel Kant outlined a framework for international stability based on three Definitive Articles: Republican Constitutionalism (where the civil constitution of every state is republican), a Federation of Free States (foedus pacificum), and Cosmopolitan Law (limited to conditions of universal hospitality). Kant explicitly distinguished his proposed federation of independent states from a state of nations or a World Government (Völkerstaat). He rejected the idea of a centralized global sovereign, arguing that it would be administratively unfeasible and could easily devolve into a soulless despotism or global tyranny. Instead, he advocated for a league of sovereign republics that voluntarily adhere to international law to abolish war.
While Kant believed in the moral progress of humanity, he famously argued that his structural and legal provisions for peace could work even for a race of devils, provided they were rational enough to design a constitution where selfish interests check one another. Thus, while individual moral development is a broader Kantian theme, the specific political mechanism of perpetual peace relies on institutional design rather than a World Government.
83Art and Culture
Borobudur is the site of
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Answer: (B) an enormous Stupa in Java, built in the 8th Century AD
Explanation
Borobudur is a massive Mahayana Buddhist temple located in Central Java, Indonesia, and is recognized as the largest Buddhist monument in the world. It was constructed during the 8th and 9th centuries AD, specifically between 778 and 850 AD, under the patronage of the Sailendra Dynasty. The structure is built in the form of a giant stupa, consisting of nine stacked platforms—six square and three circular—surmounted by a central dome. It features complex architecture that blends Indian Gupta art influences with indigenous Indonesian design elements. The site is adorned with 2,672 relief panels and 504 Buddha statues, serving as both a shrine to the Lord Buddha and a place for Buddhist pilgrimage to guide individuals toward enlightenment.
84Economy
What is meant by 'Public Good'?
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Answer: (B) A commodity whose benefits are indivisibly spread among the entire community
Explanation
Public goods are defined in economics by the dual characteristics of non-excludability and non-rivalry. Non-rivalry implies that the consumption of the good by one individual does not reduce the amount available for others, meaning the benefits are indivisibly spread across the entire community. Non-excludability means that once the good is provided, it is impossible or prohibitively expensive to exclude any individual from benefiting from it. Because the utility derived from such goods is shared collectively and cannot be partitioned into individual units for private sale, they are typically provided or funded by the state to overcome the free-rider problem. Examples include national defense, public parks, and street lighting, where the marginal cost of providing the good to an additional user is zero and the total benefit is shared by all.
85Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament to make new States is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.
Explanation
Article 4 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that any law referred to in Article 2 (relating to the admission or establishment of new States) or Article 3 (relating to the formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States) shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. This provision allows the Parliament to reorganize the states of the Union through the ordinary legislative process, requiring only a simple majority in both Houses. Therefore, these changes are considered outside the scope of the formal constitutional amendment procedure which typically requires a special majority and, in certain cases, ratification by state legislatures.
86Economy
Which one of the following statements with regard to India's economy between 1814 to 1860 is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Between 1814 and 1860, five commodities dominated India's exports—raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo and jute.
Explanation
Statement b is incorrect because jute was not a dominant export commodity for the period of 1814 to 1860. The emergence of jute as a major commercial export was a late development in the 19th century, specifically gaining momentum only after the mid-1850s. The first jute mill in India was established at Rishra in 1855, and the trade saw a significant surge primarily due to the Crimean War (1853 to 1856), which disrupted the supply of Russian flax to Europe and forced manufacturers to turn to Indian jute as a substitute. Throughout the majority of the specified timeframe, India's export economy was characterized by the four pillars of raw silk, opium, cotton, and indigo, whereas jute did not attain a status of dominance alongside these until much later.
87Economy
In view of the fact that kerosene is an inferior good in India, what is/are its implication(s)?
1. As households get richer, they consume less kerosene.
2. Over time there is a decline in quality of kerosene.
3. Government needs to stop subsidies on kerosene.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
In economic theory, an inferior good is defined by a negative income elasticity of demand. This means that as the income of consumers increases, the quantity demanded for that specific good decreases. In the Indian context, kerosene is utilized by low-income households primarily for cooking and lighting. As these households become wealthier and their purchasing power rises, they tend to shift their consumption patterns toward superior substitutes such as Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) or electricity. This transition occurs because these alternatives are more efficient, cleaner, and more convenient than kerosene. Consequently, the reduction in kerosene consumption as households get richer is the fundamental implication of its classification as an inferior good. This economic behavior describes the relationship between income levels and demand rather than referring to the physical degradation of the product or any specific requirement for subsidy removal.
88Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Article 9 of the Constitution of India stipulates that no person can be a citizen of India under Article 5, or be deemed a citizen under Articles 6 or 8, if they have voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. This provision underscores the principle of single citizenship and mandates the automatic loss of Indian citizenship upon the voluntary acquisition of foreign nationality. Additionally, Article 11 grants the Parliament of India comprehensive power to make any law regarding the acquisition and termination of citizenship, as well as any other related matters. While Articles 5 to 10 addressed citizenship at the time of the commencement of the Constitution, Article 11 ensures that the Parliament retains the legislative authority to regulate citizenship status through subsequent laws, such as the Citizenship Act of 1955.
89Polity and Governance
The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to
1. an enemy alien
2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
3. a foreigner
4. an overseas citizen of India
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides procedural safeguards to persons who are arrested or detained. However, Clause (3) of Article 22 specifically stipulates that the protections guaranteed under Clauses (1) and (2)—which include the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner, and the right to be produced before a magistrate within twenty-four hours—are not available to certain categories of people. These excluded categories are any person who for the time being is an enemy alien and any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. While fundamental rights like Article 22 are generally available to all persons, including foreigners and overseas citizens of India, the text of the Constitution uniquely denies these specific procedural rights to enemy aliens and those held under preventive detention statutes to protect national security and public order.
90History
Which of the following statements about the Hastings Plan of 1772 is/are correct?
1. Each district was to have a civil and a criminal Court.
2. The Judges were helped by native assessors who were skilled in Hindu and Islamic laws.
3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was mainly meant to settle mercantile cases exceeding ₹ 10,000 in value.
4. These Courts did not put into place any procedural improvements.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Warren Hastings' Judicial Plan of 1772 reorganized the judicial administration in Bengal by establishing a Mofussil Diwani Adalat (Civil Court) and a Mofussil Faujdari Adalat (Criminal Court) in every district. In the civil courts, the Collector presided and was assisted by native law officers, while the criminal courts were presided over by Kazis and Muftis. These native assessors, including Pundits for Hindu law and Maulavis for Islamic law, provided expertise to ensure that disputes were settled according to the personal laws and customs of the litigants. The plan also introduced several procedural improvements, such as the mandatory maintenance of court records, the abolition of arbitrary fines, and the establishment of a fixed schedule of court fees to prevent extortion by officials. The Sadar Diwani Adalat acted as the appellate court for civil cases involving amounts exceeding ₹ 500.
91History
Which of the following statements about the formation of the Indian National Congress are true?
1. The Indian National Congress was formed at a national convention held in Calcutta in December 1885 under the Presidency of Motilal Nehru.
2. The Safety Valve Theory regarding the formation of the Indian National Congress emerged from a biography of A. O. Hume written by William Wedderburn.
3. An early decision was that the President would be from the same region where the session was to be held.
4. W. C. Banerjee was the first President of the Indian National Congress.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Safety Valve Theory originated from William Wedderburn’s 1913 biography of Allan Octavian Hume, where he claimed that Hume founded the Indian National Congress to provide a peaceful outlet for growing Indian discontent against British rule, thereby preventing a violent uprising. This theory suggested that the organization was intended to act as a buffer or safety valve. Additionally, the first session of the Indian National Congress took place in December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, where Womesh Chandra Banerjee was elected as the first President. While the session was originally planned for Poona, it was shifted to Bombay due to a cholera outbreak. These historical facts confirm that the emergence of the Safety Valve Theory is linked to Wedderburn's writings and that W. C. Banerjee held the inaugural presidency.
92Economy
Which of the following factors led to a decline in inflation rate in India during 2014-2015?
1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices
2. Softness in global prices of tradables such as edible oils and coal
3. Tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve Bank of India
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The decline in inflation during 2014-2015 was driven by a combination of favorable external supply shocks and domestic policy measures. Global crude oil prices saw a sharp decline from over $100 per barrel in mid-2014 to around $50 per barrel by early 2015, which significantly lowered transportation and production costs. Simultaneously, global prices for tradable commodities like coal and edible oils remained soft due to weak international demand and improved supply conditions, reducing imported inflation. On the domestic front, the Reserve Bank of India maintained a tight monetary policy, keeping policy rates high to anchor inflation expectations and transition towards a formal inflation-targeting framework. These coordinated supply-side and demand-side factors collectively resulted in a substantial cooling of both Wholesale Price Index and Consumer Price Index inflation during this period.
93Polity and Governance
Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to
1. public order, morality and health
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform
3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus
4. defamation or incitement to an offence
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. However, Article 25(1) explicitly states that this right is subject to public order, morality, and health. Additionally, Article 25(2) empowers the State to make laws providing for social welfare and reform, as well as the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. The restrictions regarding defamation and incitement to an offence are applicable to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2), rather than the freedom of conscience and religion under Article 25.
94Polity and Governance
Which of the following Fundamental Rights is/are available to non-citizens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Right against Discrimination
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
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Answer: (B) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
The Constitution of India extends specific Fundamental Rights to all individuals within its territory, including non-citizens, to ensure the protection of basic human rights and the rule of law. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and the equal protection of laws to any person within the territory of India. This provision ensures that the state treats all individuals equally in its legal processes and protections, regardless of their nationality. Similarly, Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to all persons, stipulating that no individual shall be deprived of these fundamental rights except according to the procedure established by law. These rights are fundamental to the existence of any individual and are therefore applied universally to provide a safeguard against arbitrary state action and to uphold human dignity for anyone residing in or visiting India.
95Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the Princely States.
3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
The members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies in 1946, as per the framework laid out by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Seats were allotted to provinces and princely states in proportion to their respective populations, roughly in the ratio of one seat per million. To ensure the drafting process reflected the aspirations of the people, the Assembly actively solicited suggestions and petitions from the public. Various interest groups, including religious minorities, trade unions, and individual citizens, submitted their views on issues like fundamental rights and language. These external opinions were extensively debated within the committees, making the final document a product of broad public consultation and collective participation rather than just internal deliberation.
96History
Which of the following statements about Jyotirao Phule's Satyashodhak Samaj Movement in Maharashtra is/are true?
1. The Satyashodhak Samaj was set up in 1873.
2. Phule argued that Brahmins were the progeny of 'alien' Aryans.
3. Phule's focus on the Kunbi peasantry in the 1880s and 1890s led to a privileging of Maratha identity.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Jyotirao Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj, or the Truth Seekers Society, on 24 September 1873 in Pune. The primary objective of this movement was to liberate the Shudra and Ati-Shudra communities from the exploitation of Brahmanical rituals and the socio-economic hegemony of higher castes. Phule's ideological framework relied heavily on a revisionist history of India where he argued that the Brahmins were the progeny of alien Aryans who had invaded the subcontinent. He depicted the indigenous people as the original inhabitants who were subjugated through the creation of the caste system and religious myths.
During the 1880s and 1890s, Phule shifted the movement's emphasis toward the issues of the Kunbi peasantry, addressing agrarian distress caused by the colonial revenue system and local moneylenders. In works like Shetkaryacha Asud, he highlighted the shared exploitation of the cultivating classes. This strategic focus successfully mobilized the rural masses and played a critical role in the socio-political privileging of a broader Maratha-Kunbi identity. This transition effectively linked the caste-based critique of the Satyashodhak Samaj with the economic grievances of the peasantry, laying the foundation for the non-Brahmin movement in Maharashtra.
97Polity and Governance
Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 395 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the repeal of certain prior enactments. It states that the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the 1935 Act, are repealed. This was necessary to establish the Constitution as the supreme legal document of the sovereign Republic of India, replacing the colonial statutory framework. However, Article 395 specifically excludes the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949, from this repeal, allowing it to continue in force to manage the transition of judicial authority to the Supreme Court of India. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was an act passed by the Parliament of India after the Constitution came into force and was not a subject of repeal by the Constitution itself.
98History
Which of the following statements about Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah, who played an important part in the Revolt of 1857, is/are correct?
1. He was popularly known as Danka Shah or the Maulvi with a drum.
2. He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat.
3. He was killed by British troops under the command of Henry Lawrence.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was a prominent leader of the 1857 Revolt in the Awadh region. He was popularly known as Danka Shah, or the Maulvi with a drum, because he used to move from place to place with a drum beaten before him to gather audiences and preach against British rule. He played a significant role as a military leader in the Battle of Chinhat on June 30, 1857. In this engagement, the rebel forces under his tactical guidance defeated the British troops led by Sir Henry Lawrence, which forced the British to retreat and seek shelter within the Lucknow Residency, initiating the prolonged siege of the city.
99Polity and Governance
A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be issued
1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in contravention of the procedure established by law
2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a criminal charge
3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of Court or the Parliament
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Answer: (C) 1 only
Explanation
The writ of Habeas Corpus, which literally means to have the body, is a powerful tool used by the judiciary to protect the fundamental right to personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. It is issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or by High Courts under Article 226 when an individual is detained without legal justification or when the arrest and detention take place in contravention of the procedure established by law.
There are specific circumstances where the writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be issued. It is not maintainable if the detention is lawful or if the person is in custody pursuant to an order of a competent court, such as a judicial remand or a conviction. Therefore, a person imprisoned on a criminal charge by a court of law cannot typically secure release through this writ, as the detention is deemed legal. Furthermore, the writ is not issued when the detention is for contempt of a legislature or a court. In such cases, the imprisonment is considered a result of the exercise of the legal powers of those bodies, and the judiciary does not intervene via Habeas Corpus to challenge such specific commitments. Thus, the only valid ground among the provided statements for issuing the writ is the violation of legal procedure during arrest or detention.
100Art and Culture
Who among the following is the author of the autobiography entitled Aamar Katha (1913)?
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Answer: (D) Binodini Dasi
Explanation
Binodini Dasi, popularly known as Nati Binodini, was a pioneering actress of the Bengali stage during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Her autobiography, Aamar Katha, published in 1913, provides a detailed and poignant account of her life as a performer in the male-dominated world of professional theatre. The work is significant for its candid description of the social struggles, betrayals, and professional challenges she faced, as well as her association with the legendary playwright Girish Chandra Ghosh and the founding of the Star Theatre in Calcutta.
101Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Companies Act, 2013 is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It provides more opportunities for new entrepreneurs.
Explanation
The Companies Act, 2013 is a comprehensive legislation aimed at improving corporate governance, increasing transparency, and simplifying regulations for ease of doing business in India.
The Act significantly enhances corporate accountability by introducing provisions for independent directors, women directors, and the mandatory rotation of auditors. It also granted statutory status to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) and established the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) to monitor and enforce compliance with accounting and auditing standards.
A landmark feature of the Act is Section 135, which mandates Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). It requires companies meeting specific financial thresholds regarding net worth, turnover, or net profit to spend at least 2 percent of their average net profits from the preceding three financial years on social welfare activities.
The Act promotes entrepreneurship through the introduction of the One Person Company (OPC) model. This allows a single promoter to incorporate a company with limited liability, which was not possible under the previous 1956 Act. This provision, along with simplified incorporation procedures and exemptions for small companies, provides significant opportunities for new entrepreneurs.
Furthermore, the Act enables the wide application of Information Technology in corporate processes. It provides legal recognition for the maintenance of statutory records and books of accounts in electronic form. It also facilitates e-governance by allowing for the electronic filing of documents via the MCA-21 portal, electronic voting by shareholders, and the participation of directors in board meetings through video conferencing.
102Polity and Governance
Which one of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?
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Answer: (B) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India
Explanation
The voting rights for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) were granted through the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, which allowed Indian citizens living abroad to enroll in the electoral rolls. This legislative change was implemented well before the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015. The 2015 amendment specifically focused on the merger of the Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) scheme with the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, renaming the combined category as Overseas Citizen of India Cardholders and extending benefits such as lifelong visas to former PIO cardholders. Therefore, the provision regarding NRI voting is not a result of the 2015 amendment.
103History
Name the French revolutionary who wrote Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Female Citizen.
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Answer: (A) Olympe de Gouges
Explanation
Olympe de Gouges was a French playwright and political activist whose feminist writings reached a large audience during the French Revolution. In 1791, she authored the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and of the Female Citizen as a direct response to the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen from 1789, which had excluded women from the new political rights being established. Her declaration mirrored the structure of the original document to highlight its failures, arguing that women are born free and equal to men in all rights and that they should be allowed to participate equally in the formation of law and the holding of public office.
104Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Electoral Government in India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies.
Explanation
Article 329 of the Constitution of India imposes a specific bar on the interference of courts in electoral matters. Clause (a) of this Article explicitly states that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under Article 327 or Article 328, shall not be called in question in any court. This constitutional provision ensures that the orders of the Delimitation Commission, which have the force of law once published in the Gazette of India, are immune from judicial scrutiny to prevent delays in the electoral process. Therefore, the Supreme Court of India does not have the authority to scrutinize the validity of laws pertaining to the delimitation of constituencies.
105Science and Technology
The electronic voting machines are developed jointly with
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Electronics Limited
3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Election Commission of India commissioned the development and manufacturing of Electronic Voting Machines through a partnership with two specific public sector undertakings. Bharat Electronics Limited, based in Bangalore and functioning under the Ministry of Defence, and Electronics Corporation of India Limited, located in Hyderabad and operating under the Department of Atomic Energy, are the only two agencies authorized to produce these machines. These organizations collaborated with the Technical Experts Committee of the Election Commission to design a standalone, non-networked system that ensures the security and transparency of the voting process. Since their introduction, these two entities have remained the sole manufacturers responsible for the production, maintenance, and technological upgrades of the voting equipment used in Indian parliamentary and state assembly elections.
106Economy
Which one of the following is not a recommendation of the Fourteenth Finance Commission?
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Answer: (D) Sector specific grant is recommended as in the previous Finance Commissions
Explanation
The Fourteenth Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy, departed from the practices of its predecessors by not recommending any sector-specific or state-specific grants. The Commission argued that the significant increase in the vertical devolution of taxes from 32 per cent to 42 per cent provided states with sufficient fiscal space and autonomy to design and fund their own schemes based on local priorities. By removing the conditionalities associated with sectoral grants, the Commission aimed to reduce the complexity of central transfers and empower states to manage their own developmental requirements. Instead, it focused its grant recommendations solely on support for local bodies and post-devolution revenue deficit grants for states that remained in deficit after tax sharing.
107History
Khan Shaheb Osman Ali Stadium is located at
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Answer: (C) Fatullah
Explanation
Khan Shaheb Osman Ali Stadium is a prominent cricket ground located in Fatullah, Narayanganj, Bangladesh. Often referred to simply as Fatullah Stadium, it was named in honor of Khan Shaheb Osman Ali, a renowned politician and language movement activist. The venue gained international recognition after hosting matches during the 2004 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup and was subsequently granted Test status in 2006. It is situated approximately 20 kilometers from the capital city and has been a frequent site for international fixtures, including One Day Internationals and the 2014 Asia Cup matches.
108Polity and Governance
May 31 is celebrated as 'World No Tobacco Day' by the World Health Organization. Which one of the following was the theme of the 'World No Tobacco Day, 2015'?
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Answer: (B) Stop illicit trade of tobacco products
Explanation
The World Health Organization (WHO) selected Stop illicit trade of tobacco products as the theme for World No Tobacco Day on May 31, 2015. This initiative focused on the global health and security threats posed by the illegal tobacco market, which facilitates increased consumption by providing cheaper, unregulated products. The campaign emphasized that the illicit trade undermines tobacco control measures, such as price increases and health warnings, and urged member states to ratify the Protocol to Eliminate Illicit Trade in Tobacco Products to strengthen international cooperation against smuggling and counterfeit manufacturing.
109Polity and Governance
Government of which one of the following States has (in May 2015) decided to withdraw the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act from the State?
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Answer: (A) Tripura
Explanation
In May 2015, the state government of Tripura decided to completely withdraw the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act from the entire state. This decision was taken by the state cabinet on May 27, 2015, following a significant improvement in the security situation and a near-total end to separatist insurgency. The Act had been in force in Tripura since February 1997 to combat militant activities by groups like the National Liberation Front of Tripura and the All Tripura Tiger Force. The withdrawal was based on the fact that insurgency-related incidents had dropped drastically, allowing the state to maintain law and order through its own police force without the special powers granted to the central paramilitary forces and the army.
110Economy
Which of the following statements with regard to New Development Bank BRICS, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is/are correct?
1. The Headquarters of the Bank is situated at Moscow, Russia.
2. K. V. Kamath is the first President of the Bank.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly known as the BRICS Development Bank, was established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) during the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. The headquarters of the bank is located in Shanghai, China. In May 2015, K. V. Kamath, a distinguished Indian banker and former non-executive chairman of ICICI Bank, was appointed as the bank's first President for a five-year term. The agreement stipulated that the first president would be from India, the first chairman of the Board of Governors from Russia, and the first chairman of the Board of Directors from Brazil.
111Science and Technology
Weibo is a social media platform popularly used in
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Answer: (B) China
Explanation
Sina Weibo, launched by the Sina Corporation in 2009, is one of the largest and most influential microblogging platforms in China. It is often described as the Chinese equivalent of Twitter, allowing users to post short status updates, share multimedia content, and interact with celebrities and public figures. Its widespread adoption is largely due to the restriction of international social media platforms within the country, which allowed Weibo to become a primary digital hub for public discourse and news dissemination. By 2015, the platform had evolved into a massive social media ecosystem with hundreds of millions of active users, playing a critical role in the Chinese internet landscape.
112Polity and Governance
Who is the current Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
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Answer: (B) Arvind Panagariya
Explanation
Arvind Panagariya, a renowned economist and professor at Columbia University, was appointed as the first Vice Chairperson of the NITI Aayog in January 2015. The NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, to replace the decades-old Planning Commission, shifting the focus toward cooperative federalism and a bottom-up approach to economic policy. As the Vice Chairperson, Panagariya held the rank of a Cabinet Minister and was responsible for leading the daily administrative and intellectual functions of the think tank under the Chairpersonship of the Prime Minister.
113Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not provided regular budgetary support by the Ministry of Defence?
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Answer: (D) United Service Institution of India, New Delhi
Explanation
The United Service Institution of India (USI) is an autonomous, non-governmental professional body and research institution founded in 1870. It operates as a self-financing organization that generates its revenue through membership subscriptions, interest from its corpus funds, research projects, and the sale of publications. While it maintains a close relationship with the Indian Armed Forces and often collaborates on strategic studies, it is a private society registered under the Societies Registration Act and does not receive regular grants-in-aid or annual budgetary support from the Ministry of Defence. This distinguishes it from other organizations like the Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA), which is fully funded by the Ministry, or the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, which receives shared budgetary support from the Ministry of Defence and the state government.
114Polity and Governance
In April 2015, India and France agreed to conclude an inter-governmental agreement in respect of which one of the following platforms?
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Answer: (A) Rafale Medium Multirole Combat Aircraft
Explanation
During Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to France in April 2015, a landmark decision was announced for India to acquire 36 Rafale fighter jets in fly-away condition through an Inter-Governmental Agreement. This procurement shifted the acquisition process from the stalled 126-aircraft Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft tender to a direct government-to-government deal to address the urgent operational requirements of the Indian Air Force. The Rafale, manufactured by Dassault Aviation, is a versatile twin-engine platform capable of performing various missions such as air supremacy, interdiction, aerial reconnaissance, and nuclear deterrence. The agreement emphasized that the aircraft and associated systems would be delivered on the same configuration as had been tested and approved by the Indian Air Force during the earlier technical evaluation process.
115Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (A) India is the third largest importer of the defence equipment.
Explanation
According to the data released by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) in its 2015 report, India was the world's largest importer of major arms for the period 2010–2014. India accounted for 15 percent of the total global volume of arms imports during this timeframe, ranking significantly higher than other major importers such as China and Pakistan. Because India held the top position as the world's leading arms importer at that time, the statement identifying India as the third largest importer is factually incorrect.
116Science and Technology
'Arihant' is the name of
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Answer: (D) a nuclear powered submarine
Explanation
INS Arihant is the lead ship of India's first class of nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines (SSBNs), developed under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project. Launched in 2009 and beginning sea trials in 2014, it made India the only country besides the five permanent members of the UN Security Council to have independently developed a nuclear-powered submarine. The vessel is powered by an 83 MW pressurized light-water reactor and is designed to carry K-series ballistic missiles. As a nuclear-powered submarine, it can remain submerged for long periods, providing India with a survivable sea-based second-strike capability and completing the country's nuclear triad.
117Polity and Governance
Where was the 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue) held in May 2015?
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Answer: (D) Singapore
Explanation
The Shangri-La Dialogue, officially known as the Asia Security Summit, is an annual inter-governmental security forum organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS). Since its inception in 2002, the summit has been held at the Shangri-La Hotel in Singapore. The 14th edition of this dialogue took place from May 29 to May 31, 2015, bringing together defense ministers, military chiefs, and senior government officials from across the Asia-Pacific region and beyond. The 2015 meeting focused on critical regional issues such as maritime security, territorial disputes in the South China Sea, and the threat of global terrorism, with the keynote address delivered by Singaporean Prime Minister Lee Hsien Loong.
118Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not correct about the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)?
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Answer: (B) It is a network of 10 laboratories engaged in developing defence technologies
Explanation
The Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) maintains a significantly larger network than 10 laboratories. By 2015, the organization comprised more than 50 laboratories, specifically around 52, which are distributed across the country. These laboratories are specialized in various technological domains such as aeronautics, armaments, electronics, combat vehicles, missiles, and naval systems. This extensive institutional framework allows DRDO to meet the complex requirements of the Indian Armed Forces through indigenous research and development, making the count of 10 laboratories an inaccurate representation of its scale.
119Polity and Governance
'Red Flag' is the name of a joint exercise between India and which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) USA
Explanation
Exercise Red Flag is the United States Air Force's premier air-to-air combat training exercise, held periodically at Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada and Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska. It is a large-scale aerial exercise that involves the air forces of the United States and its various allied and partner nations. The Indian Air Force first participated in Exercise Red Flag in August 2008, where it deployed Sukhoi Su-30MKI aircraft to engage in complex, realistic combat scenarios. This participation facilitates high-level interoperability and the exchange of operational tactics between the air forces of India and the United States.
120Polity and Governance
In November 2014, which one of India's neighbouring countries allowed a Chinese submarine to dock at one of its ports?
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Answer: (B) Sri Lanka
Explanation
In November 2014, a Chinese nuclear-powered Han-class submarine, the Changzheng-2, docked at the Colombo International Container Terminals in Sri Lanka. This followed a previous visit by a conventional Song-class submarine to the same port in September 2014. These dockings took place during the administration of President Mahinda Rajapaksa and signaled a deepening of strategic and military ties between Colombo and Beijing. The presence of Chinese naval vessels, particularly a nuclear-powered submarine, in the Indian Ocean served as a significant point of diplomatic friction between India and Sri Lanka, as it was seen as a challenge to India's traditional role as the primary security provider in the region and an expansion of China's String of Pearls strategy.