CDS2012 (I)✓ Every question solved

CDS I 2012 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
Questions
6
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3227%
  • Geography2420%
  • Polity and Governance2218%
  • History2118%
  • Economy1916%
  • Art and Culture22%
1Science and Technology
Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction

Explanation

The Moon has a relatively small mass, which results in a weak gravitational pull at its surface. This low gravity leads to a low escape velocity, calculated by the formula vₑ = √(2GM/R), which is approximately 2.38 km/s. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the thermal speed of molecules is given by the root mean square velocity vᵣₘₛ = √(3RT/M). At the temperatures found on the Moon, the vᵣₘₛ of common gas molecules often exceeds the Moon's escape velocity. Because the gravitational attraction is too weak to retain these high-speed particles, the molecules escape into outer space, preventing the Moon from maintaining a stable atmosphere.

2Science and Technology
Which one among the following correctly defines a unit magnetic pole in SI units? It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 newton

Explanation

The definition of a unit magnetic pole in the SI system is based on the magnetic version of Coulomb's Law, which relates the force F between two magnetic poles of strengths m₁ and m₂ separated by a distance r: F = (μ₀/4π) (m₁m₂/r²) In the International System of Units (SI), the unit of length is the metre (m) and the unit of force is the Newton (N). A unit magnetic pole is conceptually defined using these base and derived units. Specifically, it is the pole strength that, when placed at a distance of 1 metre from an equal and similar pole in air or vacuum, repels it with a force of 1 Newton. While the physical constant μ₀/4π in the modern SI system is numerically 10⁻⁷ N/A², the qualitative definition of a unit in standardized exam contexts typically refers to the interaction of unit pole strengths producing a unit force at a unit distance within the chosen system of units.

3Science and Technology
After rising a short distance, the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships, the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) turbulent flow of air

Explanation

The phenomena described, including the irregular patterns in rising smoke and the formation of eddies and vortices behind obstacles, are characteristic of turbulent flow. Turbulence occurs when a fluid's inertial forces become significantly larger than its viscous forces, typically at high velocities or when encountering physical disruptions.

In turbulent flow, the velocity of the fluid at any point undergoes irregular and random fluctuations in both magnitude and direction. This leads to the mixing of layers and the creation of transverse velocity components, which manifest as the chaotic swirls and vortices mentioned in the examples of ship wakes and wind instruments. In contrast to smooth laminar or streamline flow, turbulence is defined by this unpredictable, non-linear behavior where the fluid particles follow complex, interlocking paths rather than parallel layers.

4Science and Technology
Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency when kept under the same tension. What will happen if tension of one of the wires is slightly increased and both the wires are made to vibrate simultaneously?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Beats

Explanation

The fundamental frequency of a vibrating string is given by the formula f = 1/(2L) √(T/m), where L is the length of the string, T is the tension, and m is the mass per unit length. Since the two piano wires are identical, they have the same length and mass per unit length.

When the tension T of one wire is slightly increased, its frequency f increases proportionally to the square root of the tension. This results in two sound waves having slightly different frequencies, f₁ and f₂. When these two waves propagate simultaneously in the same medium and overlap, they undergo interference. The superposition of two waves of slightly different frequencies produces periodic variations in the intensity of sound, a phenomenon known as beats. The number of beats heard per second is equal to the absolute difference between the two frequencies, |f₂ - f₁|.

5Geography
What is the major'role of a greenhouse gas that contributes to temperature rise of the Earth's surface?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation

Explanation

Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor are largely transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation, which allows sunlight to penetrate the atmosphere and heat the Earth's surface. As the Earth warms, it emits energy back into space in the form of long-wave infrared radiation. Greenhouse gases absorb this outgoing thermal radiation and re-radiate a portion of it back toward the surface. This selective permeability—permitting the entry of solar energy while obstructing the escape of heat—effectively traps thermal energy within the lower atmosphere, causing the global temperature increase known as the greenhouse effect.

6Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing. 2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation, its GDP must be decreasing. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Per capita GDP is determined by the formula Per Capita GDP = GDP/Population. An increase in this value does not guarantee that the total GDP is growing; if a country undergoes a sharp population decline that exceeds a simultaneous decline in total GDP, the per capita figure will still rise. Thus, total GDP growth is not a necessary condition for per capita growth. Regarding inflation, negative inflation or deflation simply indicates a fall in the general price level. It does not necessitate a decrease in GDP. Real GDP can continue to grow during deflationary periods, particularly when driven by supply-side improvements, technological innovations, or increased productivity that lower production costs and prices while simultaneously boosting total output. Because neither statement holds true in all circumstances, the conclusion that neither is necessarily correct is the only valid deduction.

7Economy
Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through inflationary pressures? 1. The direct taxes should be increased. 2. The interest rate should be reduced. 3. The public spending should be increased. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

To curb inflationary pressures, the government needs to implement contractionary fiscal measures that reduce the overall level of aggregate demand in the economy. Increasing direct taxes is a primary tool for this purpose as it directly reduces the disposable income of individuals and the retained earnings of corporations. When the public has less after-tax income, their consumption expenditure declines, and businesses may scale back investment. This reduction in private spending helps to cool an overheated economy by slowing down the velocity of money and bringing aggregate demand back into balance with aggregate supply. Consequently, the upward pressure on the general price level is mitigated, helping to restore price stability within the economy.

8History
The basis of European Union began with the signing of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Maastricht Treaty

Explanation

The Maastricht Treaty, formally known as the Treaty on European Union (TEU), was signed on February 7, 1992, and came into force on November 1, 1993. It is the foundational treaty that legally established the European Union (EU) by evolving the preceding European Economic Community (EEC) into a more comprehensive political and economic union.

The treaty introduced a three-pillar structure: the European Communities (the first pillar), the Common Foreign and Security Policy (the second pillar), and Justice and Home Affairs (the third pillar). It created the concept of European citizenship, granting individuals the right to live and move freely between member states, and established the criteria and timeline for the Economic and Monetary Union (EMU), which eventually led to the adoption of the single currency, the Euro, and the establishment of the European Central Bank.

9Economy
National income ignores
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) sale of land

Explanation

National income represents the total money value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country during a specific period. The sale of land is excluded from national income calculations because it is a transfer of ownership of an existing asset and does not involve any current production of goods or services. Land is a gift of nature and is not a produced commodity; therefore, its transaction is merely a financial transfer that does not add to the current flow of output or the value-added in the economy. While the commission or brokerage fees earned by agents during such a transaction are included as they represent a payment for a productive service, the value of the land itself is ignored.

10Economy
What are G. 'arboreum, G. herbaceum, G. hirsutum and G. barbadense, whose all the four species are cultivated in India? (G = Gossypium)
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Species of cotton

Explanation

The genus Gossypium belongs to the Malvaceae family and comprises the plants that produce cotton fiber. There are four distinct species of cotton cultivated globally, and India is the only country in the world that grows all four on a commercial scale. Gossypium arboreum and Gossypium herbaceum are diploid species often referred to as Old World or Desi cottons, known for their hardiness. Gossypium hirsutum, also called American Upland cotton, and Gossypium barbadense, known as Egyptian or Sea Island cotton, are tetraploid New World species. While Gossypium hirsutum constitutes the bulk of India's cotton production, the others are cultivated to suit different agro-climatic zones and industrial requirements for fiber length and strength.

11Geography
The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) loess soil

Explanation

Loess soil is an aeolian landform consisting of fine-grained, silt-sized particles that have been transported and deposited by wind action. In arid environments, wind picks up mineral dust from the desert surface and carries it to the periphery of the desert. When the wind velocity decreases or the particles are trapped by moisture or vegetation, this dust settles and accumulates into thick, unstratified layers. These deposits are characterized by their high porosity, friable texture, and rich mineral content, often including calcium carbonate. A prominent example of this formation is the Loess Plateau in China, which resulted from the long-term accumulation of dust blown from the Gobi Desert.

12Geography
Logically; what does a continually rising air pressure indicate?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Fine and settled weather

Explanation

Rising barometric pressure indicates the approach of a high-pressure system, also known as an anticyclone. In a high-pressure area, air slowly descends from the upper atmosphere toward the surface. As this air sinks, it undergoes adiabatic warming, which increases its capacity to hold moisture and inhibits the formation of clouds and precipitation. This process leads to atmospheric stability, resulting in clear skies, dry conditions, and light winds. Consequently, a continually rising pressure trend is a reliable indicator that current weather conditions are improving or that a period of fine and settled weather is beginning.

13Economy
The TEAM-9 initiative is a techno-economic cooperation venture between India and eight countries of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) West Africa

Explanation

The Techno-Economic Approach for Africa-India Movement, known as the TEAM-9 initiative, was launched by the Government of India in March 2004. It is a specialized sub-regional cooperation mechanism involving India and eight countries from the West African region: Burkina Faso, Chad, Cote d'Ivoire, Equatorial Guinea, Ghana, Guinea Bissau, Mali, and Senegal. The primary objective of this venture is to promote socio-economic development through the transfer of Indian technology and the provision of financial assistance. Under this initiative, India committed concessional Lines of Credit to support projects in critical sectors such as agriculture, industrial development, and infrastructure. This strategic outreach allowed India to strengthen its diplomatic and economic footprint in francophone and anglophone West Africa, facilitating access to natural resources while contributing to the developmental needs of the partner nations.

14Geography
Which one among the following is the type of the Comoros Islands which lie in the Indian Ocean between Northern Madagascar and the African Coast?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Volcanic

Explanation

The Comoros Islands are a volcanic archipelago located in the Mozambique Channel of the Indian Ocean. The islands were formed by hotspot activity as the tectonic plate moved over a mantle plume, creating a chain of volcanic shields. Grande Comore, the youngest and largest island in the group, contains Mount Karthala, which is one of the world's most active shield volcanoes. The topography of the islands is characterized by steep volcanic peaks and basaltic rock formations, typical of oceanic islands created by subterranean volcanic eruptions rather than continental fragmentation or tectonic folding.

15Polity and Governance
Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The writ of quo warranto, meaning by what authority, is issued by the judiciary to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office. To issue this writ, the court requires that the office in question must be a public office created by the Constitution or a statute, rather than a private or domestic one. Furthermore, the office must be substantive, meaning it carries an independent status and is not merely a temporary employment or a position held at the pleasure of a superior officer. Finally, the petitioner must demonstrate that the appointment was made in direct violation of the law, the Constitution, or statutory rules. Because all three stated conditions are fundamental legal requirements established by judicial precedents to prevent the illegal usurpation of public office, they are all necessary for the writ to be maintainable.

16Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

Explanation

Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 under Article 51A, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Article 51A(d) explicitly states that it is the duty of every citizen of India to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. These duties serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while they enjoy fundamental rights, they also have certain basic norms of democratic conduct to observe, emphasizing the obligation to protect the sovereignty and security of the nation.

17Economy
Which one among the following statements, is correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) In spite of border problems, India's trade with China registered a quantum jump during the years 2001-2010

Explanation

During the decade from 2001 to 2010, India and China witnessed an extraordinary expansion in bilateral trade despite the continuation of unresolved border disputes and periodic diplomatic friction. Trade figures rose from approximately $3 billion in 2001 to over $60 billion by 2010, representing a massive increase in volume. This growth was facilitated by a strategic decision by both governments to prioritize economic engagement and commercial ties while maintaining a separate mechanism for addressing territorial disagreements. By the end of this period, China had become one of India's largest trading partners, demonstrating that economic interdependence could flourish even in the presence of significant geopolitical challenges and a lack of border resolution.

18Economy
Which one among the following statements about globalization is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Advocates of globalization argue that it will result in cultural homogenization

Explanation

Advocates of globalization typically focus on the positive outcomes of global integration, such as increased economic efficiency, the rapid spread of technology, and the enrichment of societies through the exchange of diverse ideas and traditions. They argue that globalization promotes cultural hybridization or glocalization, where global and local elements merge to create new cultural forms. In contrast, cultural homogenization—the idea that globalization leads to the erosion of local identities in favor of a uniform, standardized global culture—is a central argument raised by critics. Opponents of globalization use the concept of homogenization to highlight the risks of cultural imperialism and the loss of unique heritage, making the claim in the statement a criticism rather than a point of advocacy.

19Science and Technology
The best colours for a Sun umbrella will be
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) white on top and black on inside

Explanation

White is the most effective color for the top surface of a Sun umbrella because it has a high albedo, meaning it reflects the maximum amount of incident solar radiation and infrared heat away from the user. This prevents the fabric from heating up significantly through absorption. For the inner surface, black is the ideal choice because it is a perfect absorber of radiation. This allows the umbrella to absorb light and heat that is reflected from the ground or surrounding surfaces, preventing that radiation from bouncing back onto the user's face and body. This combination minimizes heat transfer from the sun above while mitigating the greenhouse effect or glare from the environment below.

20Science and Technology
Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear clearly

Explanation

Barium sulfate is used as a contrast medium in gastrointestinal X-ray examinations because barium has a high atomic number (Z = 56). The efficiency of X-ray absorption through the photoelectric effect is approximately proportional to the cube of the atomic number (Z³). Since the soft tissues of the stomach and intestines consist mainly of low atomic number elements like carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, they are relatively transparent to X-rays. By introducing a barium salt, which is highly radiopaque, the stomach effectively absorbs the X-ray photons. This creates a high-contrast silhouette or shadow on the radiographic film, allowing the internal structure, contours, and potential abnormalities of the gastrointestinal tract to appear clearly against the surrounding tissues.

21Science and Technology
The elements of a group in the periodic table
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) have similar chemical properties

Explanation

Elements in the same group of the periodic table possess the same number of valence electrons in their outermost energy level. The chemical properties and reactivity of an atom are primarily determined by these valence electrons, as they are involved in forming chemical bonds. Because elements within a vertical column share identical outer-shell configurations, they exhibit similar chemical behaviors and trends. For instance, all alkali metals in Group 1 have a single valence electron and show similar vigorous reactivity with water, while the halogens in Group 17 all require one electron to complete their octet and are thus highly electronegative.

22Science and Technology
Which one among the following polymers is used for making bulletproof material?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Polyamide

Explanation

Polyamides, specifically aromatic polyamides known as aramids, are the primary materials used in the manufacture of bulletproof vests and ballistic protection equipment. The most well-known synthetic polyamide used for this purpose is Kevlar. Chemically, these polymers consist of long molecular chains that are cross-linked with strong hydrogen bonds between the amide groups (-CO-NH-). This specific molecular arrangement provides the material with an exceptionally high tensile strength-to-weight ratio and significant thermal stability. When a high-velocity projectile impacts a polyamide fabric, the interlocked polymer chains absorb and dissipate the kinetic energy across a large surface area, effectively stopping the projectile and reducing blunt force trauma.

23Science and Technology
The pH of human blood is normally around
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 7:5-8:0

Explanation

The normal pH of human arterial blood is strictly maintained within a narrow range of 7.35 to 7.45, making it slightly basic or alkaline. The average value is typically cited as 7.4. Precise regulation of this balance is critical for protein stability, enzyme function, and overall metabolic activity. The body employs homeostatic mechanisms to sustain this level, primarily through chemical buffers like the bicarbonate-carbonic acid system, as well as physiological regulation by the lungs (controlling carbon dioxide levels) and the kidneys (managing bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion). A blood pH falling below 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH rising above 7.45 indicates alkalosis, both of which can lead to severe physiological disruption.

24Science and Technology
The pH of fresh groundwater slightly decreases upon exposure to air because
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water

Explanation

When groundwater is exposed to the atmosphere, it absorbs carbon dioxide (CO₂), which dissolves in the water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). This chemical process is represented by the equilibrium:

CO₂(g) + H₂O(l) ⇌ H₂CO₃(aq)

Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates in the aqueous solution to produce hydrogen ions (H⁺) and bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻):

H₂CO₃(aq) ⇌ H⁺(aq) + HCO₃⁻(aq)

The release of hydrogen ions increases the acidity of the water. Since pH is defined as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration (pH = -log₁₀[H⁺]), an increase in the concentration of [H⁺] results in a slight decrease in the pH value. This absorption continues until the dissolved CO₂ in the water reaches equilibrium with the partial pressure of CO₂ in the surrounding air.

25History
Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men's singles title?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Novak Djokovic

Explanation

Novak Djokovic secured the 2011 Wimbledon men's singles championship by defeating the defending champion Rafael Nadal in the final. The match concluded with a score of 6–4, 6–1, 1–6, 6–3 in favor of the Serbian player. This victory was a landmark achievement as it was Djokovic's first Wimbledon title and it mathematically confirmed his ascent to the world number one ranking for the first time in his career. This win was part of a dominant 2011 season in which he won ten titles and three of the four Grand Slam tournaments.

26Economy
Which among the following countries has recently decided to give a grant of US $ 1 billion for the reconstruction of the Nalanda University?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) China

Explanation

China announced a pledge of US $1 billion for the reconstruction and development of the Nalanda University during a meeting between the Nalanda Mentor Group and Chinese officials. This commitment was part of the collaborative initiative involving member countries of the East Asia Summit to revive the ancient Buddhist seat of learning in Bihar as a world-class international university. The funding was intended to facilitate the construction of modern infrastructure and support academic programs, emphasizing China's interest in strengthening historical and cultural ties within the Asian region through educational cooperation.

27Science and Technology
Which one among the following is the fastest Indian Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Saga-220

Explanation

Saga-220, which stands for Supercomputer for Aerospace GPU Architecture-220, was developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), a major constituent of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Commissioned in May 2011 at Thiruvananthapuram, it was built using commercially available Graphic Processing Units (GPUs) and multi-core CPUs. The system was designed to provide a theoretical peak performance of 220 Teraflops, making it the fastest supercomputer in India at the time of its inauguration. ISRO utilized this high-performance computing power to handle complex aerospace simulations, including computational fluid dynamics and structural analysis for launch vehicle designs.

28Science and Technology
The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years of Nobel Prize winning by Madam Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry—our life, our future. 2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The International Year of Chemistry 2011 was initiated by UNESCO and IUPAC with the specific unified theme Chemistry—our life, our future. This theme aimed to highlight the critical role of chemistry in solving global issues and fostering sustainable development. The timing of the celebration was chosen to commemorate the 100th anniversary of Marie Curie receiving the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1911. As a result, the global initiative placed a strong emphasis on celebrating the achievements of women in science and promoting the participation of women in chemical research to address the historical gender gap in the scientific community.

29Polity and Governance
In February 2011, which among the following countries has elected Mr. Thein Sein, a military general- turned-civilian leader, as its first President?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Myanmar

Explanation

Thein Sein was a former military general who served as the Prime Minister of Myanmar under the State Peace and Development Council. Following the 2010 general elections, which were part of the military's roadmap to a disciplined democracy, the newly convened parliament elected him as the President of Myanmar in February 2011. He was the first person to hold the presidency under the 2008 Constitution, marking a transition from direct military rule to a quasi-civilian government. His administration subsequently initiated several significant political and economic reforms, including the release of political prisoners and the relaxation of media censorship.

30Science and Technology
Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Vitamin K

Explanation

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that is essential for the process of blood coagulation. It functions as a vital cofactor for the enzyme gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which facilitates the post-translational modification of several key proteins involved in the clotting cascade. Specifically, Vitamin K is required for the carboxylation of glutamate residues on clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X. This chemical modification allows these factors to bind calcium ions, which is a necessary step for their activation and the eventual formation of a fibrin clot to stop bleeding.

31Geography
Over 90% of the world's biomass is in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) tropical rain forests.

Explanation

Global biomass is predominantly terrestrial, with land-based organisms accounting for approximately 99% of the total standing biomass on Earth according to established ecological data (such as the Whittaker and Likens studies). Specifically, terrestrial plants constitute about 80% to 90% of the total global biomass when measured by carbon weight. This organic matter is heavily concentrated in the world's forests, where the massive physical structures of trees—including trunks, branches, and roots—store the bulk of the planet's living carbon.

While tropical rain forests are the most biomass-dense ecosystems per unit area, they individually account for approximately 40% to 50% of the total global biomass, rather than the over 90% figure. The 90% statistic correctly describes the share of total biomass held by the general category of forests or terrestrial plants as a whole. Conversely, marine ecosystems (oceans), despite covering about 71% of the Earth's surface and containing high biodiversity, contribute only about 1% of the total global biomass because their primary producers (phytoplankton) have a very high turnover rate but a very low standing biomass at any given time.

32Geography
Which one among the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Wetland

Explanation

Wetlands are the largest natural source of methane (CH₄) emissions to the atmosphere globally. In these environments, the soil is frequently waterlogged, creating anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions. These conditions facilitate the activity of methanogens, which are specialized microorganisms that decompose organic matter in the absence of oxygen. As a result of this biological process, known as methanogenesis, methane is produced and released from the soil and water into the air. Natural wetlands, such as marshes, swamps, and peatlands, contribute significantly to the global methane budget, making them a primary focus in studies of greenhouse gas cycles.

33Geography
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) The primary consumers are called autotrophs

Explanation

Primary consumers are heterotrophic organisms, typically herbivores, that obtain their energy by consuming primary producers. Autotrophs, such as green plants, algae, and certain bacteria, are the organisms that occupy the first trophic level because they can synthesize their own food from inorganic substances using light or chemical energy. Since primary consumers rely on the organic matter produced by others rather than producing it themselves, they are never classified as autotrophs.

34Geography
Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) it absorbs infrared radiation

Explanation

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is classified as a greenhouse gas because its molecular structure allows it to absorb and emit long-wave thermal infrared radiation. While the Earth's atmosphere is relatively transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation, the planet's surface re-radiates this energy at longer infrared wavelengths. CO₂ molecules absorb these specific wavelengths of outgoing thermal energy, preventing it from escaping directly into space. This absorption causes the molecules to vibrate and collide with other atmospheric gases, effectively trapping heat within the troposphere and maintaining the planet's temperature. This property of selective infrared absorption is the fundamental mechanism that drives the greenhouse effect.

35Science and Technology
The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of origin of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) birds from reptiles

Explanation

Archaeopteryx is recognized as a transitional fossil that provides critical evidence for the evolutionary link between reptiles and birds. Found in Late Jurassic limestone deposits, it exhibits a mosaic of morphological characteristics from both groups. Its reptilian features include a long bony tail, jaws with sharp teeth, and three-fingered claws on its wings. Simultaneously, its avian characteristics are evidenced by the presence of aerodynamically shaped feathers, wings, and a furcula or wishbone. These traits collectively demonstrate that birds originated from reptilian ancestors, specifically from within the theropod dinosaur lineage, making Archaeopteryx the most famous intermediate form in the fossil record for avian evolution.

36Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. 2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1 and 3

Explanation

NIFTY 50 is the flagship stock market index of the National Stock Exchange (NSE), representing the weighted average of 50 of the largest and most liquid Indian company stocks across various sectors. As a benchmark index, it serves as a barometer for the Indian equity market. Statement 3 is correct because the NIFTY index is specifically composed of equity shares of these 50 firms and is not a platform or instrument for trading mutual funds. While various mutual funds and Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are designed to track the performance of the NIFTY 50, the index itself does not include mutual funds as constituents. Furthermore, the governance and regulation of stock exchanges and their indices fall under the jurisdiction of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), rather than the Reserve Bank of India.

37Economy
When the productive capacity of the economic system of a State is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) structural unemployment

Explanation

Structural unemployment occurs when the fundamental structure of an economy is unable to provide jobs for everyone who seeks them, often due to a lack of productive capacity. This is a chronic phenomenon common in developing economies where the growth of the labor force outpaces the rate of capital formation and industrial expansion. It reflects a deep-seated mismatch between the supply of labor and the availability of capital equipment, infrastructure, and technology necessary to create employment. Because the economic system lacks the physical and financial resources to expand its production frontier, it remains incapable of generating a sufficient number of jobs even when aggregate demand is high.

38Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Reduce birthrate and death rate

Explanation

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) consisted of eight specific international development targets established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. While the framework included significant health and demographic targets, such as reducing the under-five mortality rate by two-thirds and the maternal mortality ratio by three-quarters, the general reduction of birthrate and death rate was not a designated goal. The official goals focused on eradicating extreme poverty and hunger, achieving universal primary education, promoting gender equality and empowering women, reducing child mortality, improving maternal health, combating HIV/AIDS and other diseases, ensuring environmental sustainability, and building a global partnership for development. General demographic transition metrics like birthrate are outcomes of broader social and reproductive health policies rather than a standalone MDG.

39Economy
Fiscal policy in India is formulated by
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) the Finance Ministry

Explanation

Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and tax revenue collection to influence a country's economy. In India, the Ministry of Finance is the executive agency responsible for formulating and implementing fiscal policy. It carries out this function primarily through the annual Union Budget, which is presented to Parliament by the Union Finance Minister. The budget details the government's plan for taxation, public expenditure, and borrowing for the upcoming fiscal year. Within the ministry, the Department of Economic Affairs and the Department of Revenue work together to determine tax rates, manage the fiscal deficit, and allocate resources across various sectors to achieve macroeconomic objectives like price stability, full employment, and economic growth.

40Economy
Which one among the following is not a clause of World Trade Organization?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Providing financial support to the countries having deficit balance of payments

Explanation

Providing financial support to member countries experiencing deficit balance of payments is the primary function of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The IMF was specifically created at the Bretton Woods Conference to ensure the stability of the international monetary system and provide short-to-medium term loans to help countries manage liquidity crises and balance of payments adjustments. In contrast, the World Trade Organization (WTO) is a trade-regulating body that focuses on the rules of international trade, the reduction of tariffs and non-tariff barriers, and the resolution of trade disputes. While the WTO has provisions allowing countries to temporarily restrict imports to protect their reserves during a balance of payments crisis, it does not possess a financial mechanism or fund to provide credit or monetary assistance to those nations.

41Economy
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) relate to
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) the International Monetary Fund

Explanation

Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries' official reserves. The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF; rather, it represents a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Its value is based on a basket of key international currencies, which during 2012 included the U.S. dollar, Euro, Japanese yen, and British pound sterling. The IMF allocates SDRs to its member countries in proportion to their IMF quotas, providing them with a liquidity tool that can be exchanged for hard currency during balance of payments difficulties. SDRs also serve as the unit of account for the IMF and various other international organizations.

42Geography
Which one among the following is not a landlocked country in Africa?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Nigeria

Explanation

Nigeria is a coastal country located in West Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, which is a part of the Atlantic Ocean. It possesses a coastline of approximately 853 kilometers, providing it with direct maritime access and several major seaports such as Lagos, Port Harcourt, and Calabar. This geographic feature distinguishes it from landlocked nations, which are entirely surrounded by land and lack a direct outlet to the high seas.

43Geography
The imaginary line on the Earth's surface that closely follows the 180° Meridian is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) International Date Line

Explanation

The International Date Line is an internationally accepted imaginary line on the Earth's surface, located at approximately 180° longitude. It serves as the boundary where the calendar day changes as one travels across it. While it predominantly follows the 180° meridian through the Pacific Ocean, it makes several deviations or zig-zags to avoid bisecting countries or island groups. These deviations ensure that specific territories, such as the Aleutian Islands, Fiji, and Kiribati, can maintain a uniform date and time system for political and economic convenience. Crossing the line from east to west results in advancing the calendar by one day, while crossing from west to east results in repeating the same day.

44Geography
The country that shares longest border with India is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Bangladesh

Explanation

India shares its longest international land boundary with Bangladesh, which extends for approximately 4,096.7 kilometers. This border is characterized by a complex and winding geography that passes through five Indian states: West Bengal, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, and Assam. The length of this border is the result of the historical demarcation of the Radcliffe Line during the partition, which created a highly irregular perimeter around the territory of East Bengal. Even as of 2012, official records from the Ministry of Home Affairs confirmed that this stretch represents the most extensive land frontier India maintains with any of its neighboring countries.

45Geography
The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91° E and 92° E) at the Poles is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 0 km

Explanation

Longitudes, also known as meridians, are imaginary lines that run from the North Pole to the South Pole. Unlike lines of latitude, which are parallel, all meridians converge at the geographic poles. The linear distance between two consecutive degrees of longitude is greatest at the equator, where it is approximately 111 km, and it decreases as one moves toward higher latitudes. This relationship is defined by the formula d = 111.32 km × cos(φ), where φ represents the latitude. At the North and South Poles, the latitude is 90°. Because cos(90°) = 0, the mathematical distance between any two longitudes becomes zero. This reflects the physical reality that all longitudinal lines intersect at a single point at the poles, leaving no space between them.

46Geography
If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45° E)?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 1:30 PM

Explanation

The time difference between two places is determined by their longitudinal distance. Since the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, it covers 1° of longitude every 4 minutes (1440 ÷ 360 = 4). London is situated on the Prime Meridian (0° longitude), while Baghdad is located at 45° E.

To calculate the time at Baghdad, we first find the total time difference: 45° × 4 minutes = 180 minutes 180 minutes ÷ 60 = 3 hours

Because Baghdad is located to the East of the Prime Meridian, its time is ahead of London. Adding 3 hours to the broadcast time of 10:30 AM results in 1:30 PM.

47History
The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Ravi

Explanation

The archaeological site of Harappa is located in the Punjab province of Pakistan, situated on the bank of the Ravi River. Excavated initially by Daya Ram Sahni in 1921, Harappa served as a primary urban center of the Indus Valley Civilization. The river provided the necessary water for the city's advanced agricultural systems and acted as a strategic transport corridor for regional trade, facilitating the growth of its complex socio-economic structure during the mature Harappan phase.

48History
Which one among the following statements regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) He supported the Age of Consent Bill

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a staunch opponent of the Age of Consent Bill of 1891. This legislation proposed to raise the age of consent for girls from ten to twelve years. Tilak, representing the orthodox Hindu viewpoint of the time, believed that the British government had no right to interfere in the domestic and religious traditions of the Indian people. He argued that social reforms should be initiated and implemented by the community itself from within, rather than being dictated by a foreign colonial power. His intense opposition to the bill was articulated through his journals, Kesari and Mahratta, where he framed the issue as a matter of protecting cultural and religious sovereignty against imperial overreach.

49History
Which one among the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability

Explanation

The Theosophical Society was primarily a spiritual and philosophical movement founded in 1875 by H.P. Blavatsky and H.S. Olcott. Its core objectives focused on forming a nucleus of the universal brotherhood of humanity without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste, or color, and encouraging the study of comparative religion and philosophy. While the society drew heavily from Hindu and Buddhist concepts like Karma, reincarnation, and Vedantic philosophy, it did not include the eradication of untouchability as one of its fundamental propagated principles. Although leaders like Annie Besant later established schools for the depressed classes and advocated for social upliftment, the movement remained largely focused on metaphysical revival and the spiritual unity of mankind rather than direct social-political crusades against specific practices like untouchability, which were central to the agendas of other contemporary reform movements.

50History
Which one among the following statements is correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad

Explanation

During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Afzal-ud-Daula, and his influential Prime Minister, Salar Jung I, remained steadfastly loyal to the British East India Company. Despite significant pressure from local leaders and some segments of the population to join the uprising, the Hyderabad administration actively assisted the British by providing intelligence and maintaining order within the state. This stance was pivotal in preventing the revolt from gaining momentum in the Deccan region and southern India. The British later rewarded the Nizam for this loyalty by restoring certain territories and waiving substantial debts through a new treaty.

51History
Who among the following Governor- Generals formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Lord Cornwallis

Explanation

Lord Cornwallis, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793, formed the Triple Alliance in 1790 to counter the power of Tipu Sultan of Mysore. This strategic coalition brought together the British East India Company, the Maratha Empire, and the Nizam of Hyderabad. The alliance was catalyzed by Tipu Sultan attack on the Kingdom of Travancore, a British ally, which initiated the Third Anglo-Mysore War. By diplomatically securing the support of the Marathas and the Nizam, Cornwallis ensured that Tipu was isolated and forced to fight on multiple fronts. This collective military pressure eventually led to the British victory and the signing of the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792, through which Tipu Sultan was forced to cede half of his territories to the alliance partners.

52Polity and Governance
Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity

Explanation

Democracies facilitate the dignity and equal rights of women by transforming the principle of individual equality into a recognized legal and moral norm. While social struggles and discrimination may persist in practice, the democratic framework provides a legitimate basis for women to demand their rights. Unlike non-democratic systems where subordination might be culturally or legally institutionalized without recourse, a democracy enshrines the right to equality in its constitution or legal statutes. This legal standing makes it possible for individuals and movements to challenge instances of inequality through the judiciary and political processes, thereby making the realization of freedom and dignity a reachable legal objective rather than just a moral aspiration.

53Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India is republican because it
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) has no hereditary elements

Explanation

A republic is defined as a state in which the head of state is an elected official rather than a hereditary monarch. In the Indian context, the President is the head of state and is elected for a fixed term through an electoral college. This absence of a hereditary ruler signifies that political sovereignty resides with the people and that all public offices are open to every citizen without any privileged class or discrimination. By rejecting the system of monarchy and ensuring that the highest office in the land is filled through election, the Constitution establishes India as a republic.

54Polity and Governance
Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A conventional war between both the countries is inevitable under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation, what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability

Explanation

India's strategic posture is governed by its Nuclear Doctrine, formalized in 2003, which centers on Credible Minimum Deterrence and a No First Use policy. In a volatile conventional conflict under a nuclear shadow, the primary objective is to prevent the adversary from escalating to nuclear weapons. Deterrence is achieved when the adversary recognizes that any first use of nuclear weapons will be met with a massive and devastating retaliatory strike.

To make this threat of retaliation effective under a No First Use policy, India must possess a robust second-strike capability. This requires that a sufficient portion of India's nuclear forces can survive an initial enemy nuclear attack to deliver a counter-strike that causes unacceptable damage. By 2012, India focused on establishing a nuclear triad—comprising land-based missiles like the Agni series, air-delivered weapons, and sea-based assets like the INS Arihant—to ensure survivability and credibility. This capability ensures strategic stability by convincing the opponent that the costs of initiating a nuclear exchange far outweigh any potential gains, thereby maintaining the nuclear threshold even during conventional hostilities.

55Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Yudh Abhyas?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) It is an Indian military exercise with the US

Explanation

Yudh Abhyas is the largest running joint military training and defense cooperation endeavor between India and the United States. Commencing in 2004 under the US Army Pacific Partnership Program, it is an annual exercise conducted alternately in India and the United States. The primary objective of the exercise is to promote interoperability between the two armies through the sharing of techniques, tactics, and procedures, particularly in counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations. As of 2012, it represented a significant pillar of the growing strategic partnership between the two democracies, allowing personnel to train in diverse environments ranging from the plains to high-altitude mountainous terrain.

56Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) It is a large military transport aircraft

Explanation

The C-5M Super Galaxy is a modernized version of the Lockheed C-5 Galaxy, which is a heavy strategic airlifter operated by the United States Air Force. It was developed through the Reliability Enhancement and Re-engining Program (RERP), which upgraded the existing C-5 fleet with more powerful and fuel-efficient General Electric F138 turbofan engines, improved avionics, and structural enhancements. As one of the largest military aircraft in the world, it provides the capability to carry outsize and oversize cargo, such as tanks and helicopters, over intercontinental distances. The upgrades significantly increased the aircraft's payload capacity, climb rate, and overall mission readiness compared to previous variants of the C-5.

57Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : 1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to laypeople. 2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is a prestigious international award created by UNESCO in 1952. It recognizes individuals who have demonstrated exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas and research to the public, effectively bridging the gap between science and society.

While Dorairajan Balasubramanian received the award in 1997, he was not the last Indian recipient before 2012. Professor Yash Pal was awarded the Kalinga Prize in 2009 for his contributions to science communication and education in India, making him the most recent Indian winner within the timeframe of the question. Other Indian recipients of the prize include Jagjit Singh in 1963, Narender K. Sehgal in 1991, and Jayant Narlikar in 1996.

58Economy
Which one among the following companies received Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) SAIL

Explanation

Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) received the Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011. This prestigious award, instituted by the World Environment Foundation (WEF), recognized SAIL's sustained commitment to environmental conservation and its proactive efforts in implementing eco-friendly technologies across its various steel plants. SAIL was honored for its systematic approach to environmental management, which included initiatives for reducing specific CO₂ emissions, energy conservation, water management, and extensive afforestation. The award was presented at the 13th World Congress on Environment Management, highlighting the company's role as a leader in integrating sustainability with industrial growth in the public sector.

59Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Short- listed Book for DSC Prize for South Asian Literature, 2012) A. Bharathipura B. A Street in Srinagar C. Chinaman D. The Story that must not be told List-II 1. Kavey Nambisan 2. Shehan Karunatilaka 3. Chandrakanta 4. U. R. Anantha-murthy
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Bharathipura was originally written in Kannada by the Jnanpith awardee U. R. Ananthamurthy and translated into English by Susheela Punitha. A Street in Srinagar is the English translation of the Hindi novel Katha Satisar written by Chandrakanta. Chinaman: The Legend of Pradeep Mathew is a celebrated debut novel by Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka, which eventually won the 2012 DSC Prize for South Asian Literature. The Story That Must Not Be Told is a work by the Indian author Kavery Nambisan, which provides a narrative on the lives of residents in a city slum and the class divide in modern India.

60Polity and Governance
In which one among the following Latin American countries, a woman has for the first time won the presidential elections for the second term?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Argentina

Explanation

Cristina Fernández de Kirchner became the first woman in Latin American history to be re-elected to the presidency. After serving her first term from 2007 to 2011, she secured a landslide victory in the October 2011 general elections, winning over 54 percent of the vote. This victory made her the first female head of state in the region to win a second consecutive term through a popular election. Her re-election was historic as it represented the largest margin of victory in Argentina since the country's return to democracy in 1983.

61Polity and Governance
Which one among the questions is not a question of international law?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) The question of Tibet

Explanation

The question of Tibet is considered an internal matter falling within the domestic jurisdiction of the People's Republic of China. International law primarily concerns the rights, duties, and relations between sovereign states. Since the international community, including the United Nations and major sovereign powers, recognizes Tibet as an autonomous region and an integral part of China, its legal status does not constitute a dispute between sovereign entities under international law. Consequently, issues pertaining to Tibet are categorized as matters of municipal or domestic law rather than subjects of international legal governance.

62Science and Technology
The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) transpiration

Explanation

Transpiration is the process of water evaporation from the aerial parts of a plant, primarily through the stomata in the leaves. This evaporation creates a negative hydrostatic pressure or suction force known as transpiration pull. Because water molecules are linked together in a continuous column by strong cohesive forces and adhere to the walls of the xylem vessels, this tension is transmitted throughout the plant's vascular system. As water is lost to the atmosphere, the resulting pull draws water upward from the roots to the leaves. This mechanism, described by the Cohesion-Tension theory, is the primary driver for the ascent of sap, allowing plants to transport water over great heights against the force of gravity.

63Economy
Vermicompost is a/an
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) organic biofertilizer

Explanation

Vermicompost is a nutrient-rich organic supplement produced through the process of vermicomposting, which involves the breakdown of organic waste material by specific species of earthworms and microorganisms. It is classified as an organic biofertilizer because it is derived entirely from natural biological sources, such as animal manure and plant residues. The process converts complex organic debris into a finely divided, peat-like material with high porosity and water-holding capacity. As a biofertilizer, it contains beneficial soil microbes and essential plant nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium in a readily available form, which improves soil health and promotes plant growth naturally without the environmental drawbacks of chemical alternatives.

64Geography
In wildlife conservation, which one among the following best defines an 'endemic' species?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else

Explanation

In ecology and wildlife conservation, a species is defined as endemic when its natural distribution is restricted to a specific geographical area, such as a particular island, mountain range, or river system, and it is not found naturally anywhere else on Earth. This phenomenon usually occurs due to geographical isolation or unique environmental constraints that lead to localized evolution. For example, the Kangaroo is endemic to Australia, and the Lion-tailed Macaque is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. Because these species are confined to a single region, they are often highly vulnerable to habitat destruction and environmental changes, making them a high priority for conservation strategies like the identification of biodiversity hotspots.

65Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Tiger Reserve) List-II (State) A. Indravati B. Periyar C. Simlipal D. Bandipur 1. Karnataka 2. Orissa 3. Kerala 4. Chhattisgarh
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Indravati Tiger Reserve is located in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh and is named after the Indravati River which flows nearby. Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the Western Ghats of Kerala and is renowned for its significant populations of tigers and elephants around the Periyar Lake. Simlipal Tiger Reserve is part of the Mayurbhanj district in Orissa and is characterized by its vast sal forests and numerous waterfalls. Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka and was one of the first nine tiger reserves established in 1973-74 under the Project Tiger initiative.

66Geography
Duncan Passage is located between
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) South and Little Andaman

Explanation

The Duncan Passage is a strategically significant strait in the Indian Ocean that separates Rutland Island to the north and Little Andaman to the south. Rutland Island is part of the South Andaman administrative group, making the passage the primary water body between South Andaman and Little Andaman. It is approximately 48 kilometres wide and serves as a vital maritime route within the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago, connecting the Bay of Bengal in the west to the Andaman Sea in the east.

67Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere. 2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the Earth. 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. 4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation

Ozone is primarily concentrated in the stratosphere, the second layer of Earth atmosphere, where it forms the ozone layer. This region contains about 90 percent of the atmosphere ozone. The ozone layer is essential for life because it absorbs the majority of the Sun harmful ultraviolet radiation, particularly UV-B radiation. By filtering out these high-energy rays, ozone protects living organisms from DNA damage, skin cancer, and other adverse health and environmental effects.

68Geography
The main area of production of icebergs is found in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) the West Coast of Greenland

Explanation

The West Coast of Greenland is the primary source of icebergs in the Northern Hemisphere because it contains several of the world's most active calving glaciers. These glaciers serve as outlets for the massive Greenland ice sheet, which covers approximately 80 percent of the island's landmass. As the glacial ice reaches the sea, huge fragments break off into the coastal fjords through the process of calving. The Jakobshavn Glacier, located on this western coastline, is one of the most productive glaciers in the world, discharging thousands of icebergs annually into Baffin Bay and the Davis Strait. These icebergs are subsequently carried southward by the West Greenland and Labrador currents into the North Atlantic Ocean, posing a significant factor for maritime navigation in those waters.

69History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Battle) List-II (Treaty) A. The Third Carnatic War B. The Third Mysore War C. The First Maratha War D. The First Anglo-Sikh War 1. Treaty of Salbai 2. Treaty of Mysore 3. Treaty of Paris 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

A-3: The Third Carnatic War (1758–1763) ended with the Treaty of Paris (1763), which concluded the Seven Years' War and restricted French influence in India to non-fortified trading posts.

B-4: The Third Mysore War (1790–1792) was finalized by the Treaty of Srirangapatam (1792), where Tipu Sultan ceded half of his kingdom to the British and their allies and paid a heavy war indemnity.

C-1: The First Maratha War (1775–1782) concluded with the Treaty of Salbai (1782), which established the supremacy of the British in India and ensured peace with the Marathas for twenty years.

D-2: The First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846) ended with the Treaty of Lahore (labeled as Treaty 2 in the list), which resulted in the British annexation of the Jalandhar Doab and the reduction of the Sikh army's size.

70History
The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of which one among the following Princely States into Indian Union?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Hyderabad

Explanation

Operation Polo was the code name of the military action launched by the Indian Armed Forces in September 1948 to integrate the Princely State of Hyderabad into the Indian Union. At the time of India's independence in 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan, refused to accede to India and attempted to maintain an independent state. The situation escalated due to the rising power of the Razakars, a private militia that supported the Nizam and engaged in violence against the local population. To restore order and ensure the territorial integrity of the country, the Indian government initiated the operation on September 13, 1948. The mission was termed a police action and lasted five days, ending with the surrender of the Hyderabad State Forces on September 17, 1948. The operation was named Polo because Hyderabad reportedly had the highest number of polo grounds in the world at that time.

71History
The name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Kakori Conspiracy Case

Explanation

Ram Prasad Bismil was a prominent Indian revolutionary and a founding member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). He was the primary leader and mastermind behind the Kakori Conspiracy Case, which took place on August 9, 1925. Along with fellow revolutionaries such as Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, and Roshan Singh, Bismil intercepted the 8-Down train at Kakori, near Lucknow, to loot the British government treasury. The objective of this action was to secure funds for the HRA to purchase arms and support their struggle against colonial rule. Following a prolonged trial, Bismil was convicted for his role in the heist and for waging war against the British Empire. He was executed by hanging at the Gorakhpur Jail on December 19, 1927.

72History
Which one among the following was not a demand of the Prarthana Samaj?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Abolition of untouchability

Explanation

The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang, following the influence of the Brahmo Samaj. Under the leadership of figures like Mahadev Govind Ranade, R.G. Bhandarkar, and N.G. Chandavarkar, the movement focused on social and religious reform based on theistic principles. The Samaj formulated a specific four-point social agenda that defined its activities throughout the late 19th century: women education, widow remarriage, raising the age of marriage for both boys and girls, and the disapproval of the caste system.

While the Prarthana Samaj worked towards reducing the rigors of caste and promoted social equality, the specific demand for the abolition of untouchability as a formalized social and political campaign was not part of its primary 19th-century program. The organized movement for the abolition of untouchability gained prominence later in the 20th century through the efforts of leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar. Although individual members like V.R. Shinde later established the Depressed Classes Mission, the foundational demands of the Samaj remained focused on internal Hindu social reforms and the broader disapproval of caste distinctions rather than the radical abolition of untouchability.

73History
Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct? 1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants. 2. The Zamindars were recognized as the proprietors of land. 3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand. 4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793, fundamentally changed the land tenure system by recognizing Zamindars as the legal proprietors of the land. Under this system, the revenue demand of the British East India Company was fixed in perpetuity, meaning it could not be increased in the future regardless of increases in agricultural productivity or prices. The Zamindars functioned as intermediaries or middlemen, responsible for collecting rent from the peasants and paying the predetermined fixed amount to the government treasury. This arrangement essentially stripped the peasants of their traditional occupancy and proprietary rights, transforming them into tenants whose tenure was subject to the terms set by the Zamindars.

74Science and Technology
Which one among the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Acetylene

Explanation

Acetylene (C₂H₂) serves as a potent artificial ripening agent because it functions as a chemical analogue to ethylene, the natural gaseous hormone in plants. When fruits are exposed to acetylene, the gas interacts with the ethylene receptors in the fruit tissues, triggering the physiological processes associated with maturation. This interaction stimulates the synthesis and activation of specific enzymes such as polygalacturonase and pectinase, which break down cell wall components to soften the fruit, and amylases, which convert stored starch into simple sugars to increase sweetness. By mimicking the signal of natural hormones, acetylene initiates the metabolic cascade necessary for the conversion of complex carbohydrates and the degradation of chlorophyll, effectively ripening the fruit.

75Science and Technology
Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) C-12 and C-14

Explanation

Radiocarbon dating is a method used to determine the age of organic materials by measuring the ratio of the radioactive isotope ¹⁴C to the stable isotope ¹²C. In nature, ¹⁴C is produced in the atmosphere and absorbed by living organisms through photosynthesis or the food chain, maintaining a constant ratio with ¹²C during their lifetime. Upon the death of the organism, the intake of carbon stops, and the existing ¹⁴C begins to decrease through radioactive decay with a half-life of approximately 5730 years. Because ¹²C is stable and its concentration remains constant after death, the changing ratio of ¹⁴C to ¹²C serves as a chronometer. By measuring the current proportion of these two isotopes in a fossil sample, the time elapsed since the organism ceased its carbon exchange with the environment can be calculated.

76Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) All enzymes are proteins

Explanation

Enzymes are biological catalysts that accelerate chemical reactions within living organisms by lowering the required activation energy. Chemically, the vast majority of enzymes are globular proteins composed of long chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. These chains fold into unique three-dimensional structures that create specific active sites where substrate molecules bind and undergo transformations. This protein-based architecture is essential for their catalytic function and high degree of specificity. In the context of general biology and standard biochemical classifications, the defining characteristic of enzymes is their proteinaceous nature, which allows them to be regulated by changes in temperature, pH, and other cellular conditions.

77Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis

Explanation

In chemistry, a base is a substance that reacts with an acid to form salt and water. An alkali is specifically defined as a base that is soluble in water. This means that while every alkali is inherently a base, the reverse is not true because many bases do not dissolve in water. For instance, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH) are bases that dissolve easily in water, so they are classified as alkalis. However, compounds such as copper(II) hydroxide (Cu(OH)₂) and ferric hydroxide (Fe(OH)₃) are bases because they neutralize acids, but they are not alkalis because they are insoluble in water. Thus, the group of alkalis is a subset of the broader category of bases.

78Polity and Governance
Suppose a terrorist group has laid siege to the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, Kashmir. They have also taken around 80 civilians hostage. Which one among the following will be the best response by the security forces in this situation?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Negotiate with the terrorists by utilizing a local mediator to buy time and then send in special National Security Guard (NSG) commandos

Explanation

In a high-stakes hostage crisis involving a sensitive religious site like the Hazratbal Shrine, the priority of the security forces is to ensure the safety of the civilians and prevent damage to the structure, which could trigger widespread civil unrest. Negotiation is a critical component of this strategy; utilizing a local mediator helps in establishing communication, understanding the terrorists' motives, and gathering tactical intelligence. Buying time through negotiation psychologically exhausts the captors and allows for the preparation of a precise, surgical strike. The National Security Guard (NSG) is India's specialized unit for such counter-terrorism and hostage-rescue operations. Their training allows for a surgical intervention that minimizes collateral damage and civilian casualties, unlike a conventional military assault or an air raid, which would be disproportionately destructive in a densely populated or religiously significant area. This balanced approach of patience and specialized force is the established doctrine for resolving complex internal security challenges in volatile regions.

79Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about NATO is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) The US is an ex officio member of NATO

Explanation

The United States is a founding member of NATO and a full sovereign state party to the North Atlantic Treaty signed in 1949. The term ex officio refers to a person who holds a position or membership automatically by virtue of holding another office. This term is inapplicable to the membership of a nation-state in an intergovernmental organization. The US joined the alliance through formal treaty ratification and maintains its status as a permanent, primary member rather than through any secondary office or external status.

80Polity and Governance
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Union of States

Explanation

The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed the formation of a Union of India that would include both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. This Union was designed to be a central authority limited to managing only three essential subjects: Defense, Foreign Affairs, and Communications. By vesting all other subjects and all residuary powers in the Provinces and States, the plan envisioned a Union of States where the constituent units enjoyed maximum autonomy. This structure was intended to preserve the unity of the subcontinent while addressing the political demands for provincial self-governance and accommodating the interests of various political entities within a single sovereign framework.

81Polity and Governance
The National Commission for Women was created by
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) an Act passed by the Parliament

Explanation

The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. This Act was passed by the Parliament of India to create a dedicated organization aimed at protecting and promoting the interests of women. The commission is mandated to review constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances, and advise the government on all policy matters affecting women. Because its existence is derived from a specific piece of legislation, it is categorized as a statutory body.

82Polity and Governance
Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India

Explanation

Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that, notwithstanding anything in the preceding provisions of Part XVII, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language until Parliament by law provides otherwise. This constitutional mandate ensures a uniform language for the higher judiciary to maintain consistency in legal precedents and judicial communication across the country. While Article 348(2) allows the Governor of a State, with the previous consent of the President, to authorize the use of Hindi or any other language for proceedings in a High Court, this exception does not apply to the Supreme Court. Consequently, the English language remains the sole prescribed language for all proceedings, including pleadings, arguments, and judgments, within the Supreme Court of India.

83Science and Technology
Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the Sun?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Fusion reaction

Explanation

The Sun generates its energy through nuclear fusion, primarily via the proton-proton chain reaction. In the extremely high-temperature and high-pressure environment of the solar core, four hydrogen nuclei (protons) combine to form a single helium nucleus. During this process, a small amount of mass is lost; the mass of the resulting helium nucleus is approximately 0.7 percent less than the mass of the original four protons. This lost mass is converted into a vast amount of energy according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation, E = Δm c², where E is the energy, Δm is the mass defect, and c is the speed of light. This energy is released as gamma-ray photons and neutrinos, eventually reaching the Earth as heat and light.

84Science and Technology
In SONAR, we use
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) ultrasonic waves

Explanation

SONAR, which stands for SOund Navigation And Ranging, utilizes ultrasonic waves to detect and locate underwater objects or to measure the depth of the sea. Ultrasonic waves are sound waves with frequencies above 20,000 Hz, exceeding the upper limit of human hearing. These waves are used because their high frequency and short wavelength allow them to travel long distances through water with minimal divergence and to reflect accurately off even small objects. In operation, a transducer emits ultrasonic pulses that travel through the water until they strike an object or the seabed; the pulses then reflect back as echoes to be picked up by a receiver. By measuring the time interval t between the transmission and reception of the pulse, and knowing the speed of sound v in water, the distance d to the object is calculated using the formula d = (v × t)/2.

85Science and Technology
A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel up to a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) be increased to twice the earlier pressure

Explanation

The pressure at the bottom of a cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is determined by the formula P = ρgh, where ρ represents the density of the liquid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the liquid column. The total volume of the liquid V is given by V = A × h, where A is the cross-sectional area of the base. If the liquid is moved to a vessel with half the cross-sectional area (Aₙₑᵥ = A/2), the height must change to maintain the same volume. Since V = A × h = (A/2) × hₙₑᵥ, it follows that hₙₑᵥ = 2h. Substituting this new height into the pressure formula results in Pₙₑᵥ = ρg(2h) = 2(ρgh). Consequently, the pressure at the bottom of the vessel becomes twice the initial pressure.

86Science and Technology
The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 2 s

Explanation

The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π√(L/g), where L is the effective length of the pendulum (the distance from the point of suspension to the center of mass of the bob) and g is the acceleration due to gravity. This expression shows that the time period depends solely on the length of the string and the local gravitational field. It is independent of the mass, density, or material of the bob. Since the wooden bob is replaced by a metallic one of the same shape and size, the effective length L remains constant. Therefore, even though the metallic bob is twice as heavy as the wooden one, the time period remains unchanged at 2 seconds.

87Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements about an atom is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Atoms always combine to form molecules

Explanation

Atoms do not always combine to form molecules. The noble gases, which include elements like Helium (He), Neon (Ne), and Argon (Ar), have completely filled outer electron shells, making them chemically stable. Due to this stability, these elements exist naturally as monoatomic species, meaning they stay as individual atoms rather than bonding with other atoms to form molecules. Since these elements exist in nature in atomic form, the assertion that atoms always form molecules is scientifically inaccurate.

88Economy
China recently objected the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. Which one among the following is that country?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Vietnam

Explanation

In 2011 and 2012, China officially objected to the presence of India's state-owned ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) in the South China Sea. OVL had entered into an agreement with Vietnam's national oil company, PetroVietnam, to explore for oil and gas in offshore blocks 127 and 128. These blocks are located off the coast of Vietnam, within its internationally recognized Exclusive Economic Zone. However, China asserted that these areas fell within its self-defined nine-dash line, claiming sovereignty over almost the entire South China Sea. Despite the Chinese objections and the deployment of maritime surveillance vessels to the region, India and Vietnam reaffirmed their cooperation, asserting that the exploration was a purely commercial and legal activity conducted in accordance with international law and the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.

89Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements is correct? The current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr. Baburam Bhattarai is heading a
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Maoist-Madhesi coalition government

Explanation

Dr. Baburam Bhattarai, a senior leader of the United Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist), was elected as the Prime Minister of Nepal in August 2011. His government was formed through a strategic coalition between the UCPN (Maoist) and the United Democratic Madhesi Front (UDMF), which was an alliance consisting of several Madhes-based political parties. This partnership was formalized through a four-point agreement focused on concluding the peace process, integrating former Maoist combatants, and addressing the constitutional demands of the Madhesi community. During his tenure throughout 2012, this Maoist-Madhesi alliance held the majority in the Constituent Assembly, while other major political entities like the Nepali Congress and the Communist Party of Nepal (Unified Marxist-Leninist) primarily functioned as the opposition.

90Economy
An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) minerals

Explanation

South Sudan became the world's newest nation in July 2011, inheriting approximately 75% of the oil reserves of the previously unified Sudan. At the time of its formation, the country's economy was almost entirely reliant on oil production, which accounted for roughly 98% of its government revenue and the vast majority of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP). As petroleum is categorized as a mineral fuel, the economic framework and fiscal health of South Sudan are fundamentally dependent on its mineral resources.

91Science and Technology
Indian Space Research Organization and the Airport Authority of India have recently signed a memorandum of understanding to install a space-based augmentation system (SBAS) to render the Global Positioning System signal suitable for civil aviation over the Indian airspace. What is the name of the SBAS?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) GAGAN

Explanation

GAGAN, which stands for GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation, is the Space-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Airports Authority of India (AAI). It is designed to provide the high level of accuracy, integrity, and continuity required for civil aviation applications over the Indian Flight Information Region. The system works by using a network of ground-based reference stations that monitor GPS signals and calculate corrections for ionospheric delays and satellite orbit errors. These corrections are then transmitted to geostationary satellites, such as GSAT-8 and GSAT-10, which broadcast the augmented signal to aircraft receivers. This technology allows for precision approach and landing procedures at all Indian airports, including those in hilly or remote regions where traditional ground-based navigation aids are difficult to maintain.

92Art and Culture
World's first gold and jewelry-encrusted car—Gold Plus, was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of Indian jewelry making. Who among the following was the maker of the car?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Tata Motors

Explanation

The Goldplus Nano, unveiled in September 2011, was created as a tribute to 5,000 years of Indian jewelry heritage. It was a joint initiative by the Tata Group, specifically commissioned by Goldplus, which is a jewelry brand of Titan Industries. The vehicle was a Tata Nano adorned with approximately 80 kilograms of 22-carat gold, 15 kilograms of silver, and over 10,000 precious and semi-precious gemstones, including rubies and emeralds. As the manufacturer of the underlying vehicle and a key entity within the group that conceptualized the project, Tata Motors is the maker of the car.

93Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

Explanation

The term socialist was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, to formalize the state's commitment to socio-economic justice and the reduction of inequalities in income and status. In Indian constitutional jurisprudence, particularly as established in cases like D.S. Nakara v. Union of India, the word socialist is read in conjunction with provisions that aim to achieve a welfare state, such as Article 14 (Equality), Article 23 (Prohibition of exploitation), and the Directive Principles in Articles 38 and 39.

Article 25, however, guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. This article is conceptually and legally linked to the Secular character of the Constitution, which ensures the state's neutrality and protection of religious liberties. The socialist goal of the Preamble focuses on distributive justice and economic equity, which does not provide the interpretive framework for ensuring the religious freedoms guaranteed under Article 25. Therefore, there is no direct constitutional nexus between the word socialist and the enforcement of freedom of religion under Article 25.

94Polity and Governance
Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page, ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31B

Explanation

Article 31B of the Constitution of India provides a protective shield to the laws included in the Ninth Schedule. It specifically states that none of the Acts and Regulations listed in the Ninth Schedule shall be deemed void on the ground that they are inconsistent with or take away any of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.

In the case of legislation imposing restrictions on newspapers (such as page limits, price, and advertisements), which would normally be found to violate the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), inclusion in the Ninth Schedule attempts to grant it immunity from judicial scrutiny based on Part III rights. Although the Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) judgment ruled that laws in the Ninth Schedule can still be challenged if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution, Article 31B remains the specific constitutional provision that validates such legislation against direct challenges based on Fundamental Rights.

95Polity and Governance
With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement

Explanation

The Annual Financial Statement (Budget) is laid before both the Houses of Parliament as per Article 112 of the Constitution. While the Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants, which is an exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha under Article 113, it is fully empowered to discuss the Budget as a whole. After the Budget is presented in the Lok Sabha by the Finance Minister, a general discussion takes place in both Houses, allowing members of the Rajya Sabha to debate the government's fiscal policies and financial proposals.

96Economy
The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development guided the planning practice in India from the
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Second Five-Year Plan to the Seventh Five-Year Plan

Explanation

The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy was formally adopted with the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), shifting the focus of Indian planning from agriculture toward heavy industrialization and capital goods production. Developed by P.C. Mahalanobis, this model emphasized the role of the public sector and import substitution to achieve self-reliance. This industrial policy framework guided the Indian economy through successive plans until the Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990). The sequence ended when the Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) introduced the New Economic Policy, which transitioned the country toward liberalization, privatization, and globalization, fundamentally departing from the state-led Mahalanobis approach.

97Polity and Governance
While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) of one year at a time

Explanation

According to Article 83(2) of the Constitution of India, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the Parliament may by law extend the normal five-year term of the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding one year at a time. There is no maximum limit on the total number of times such extensions can be granted, provided the emergency remains in force. However, any such extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation of Emergency has ceased to operate. This provision ensures the continuity of the Union legislature during national crises when holding general elections might be difficult or impossible.

98Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Joint Naval Exercise) A. Konkan B. Malabar C. Varuna D. Indra List-II 1. India-France 2. India-United Kingdom 3. India-Russia 4. India-United States
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 2 4 1 3

Explanation

Exercise Konkan is the annual bilateral maritime exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the United Kingdom. Exercise Malabar was established in 1992 as a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the United States Navy. Exercise Varuna is the bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the French Navy, which has been conducted since 1983 and was formally named Varuna in 2001. Exercise Indra is a series of bilateral military exercises between India and Russia, with the naval component first held in 2003; the name is a portmanteau derived from India and Russia.

99Geography
If you travel along the Suez Canal from Port Said to Suez; you will come across several lakes: Which of the following lakes is not on this Canal?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Lake Gatun

Explanation

Lake Gatun is a large artificial freshwater lake located in Panama, forming a major part of the Panama Canal. It was created between 1907 and 1913 by the damming of the Chagres River to provide the water necessary to operate the canal locks and to facilitate the passage of ships across the Isthmus of Panama. Because it is located in Central America, it is not part of the Suez Canal, which is a sea-level waterway located entirely within Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

100Geography
Xerophytes represent the class of vegetation found in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) semi-arid steppes

Explanation

Xerophytes are plants specifically adapted to survive in environments with limited liquid water. Semi-arid steppes are characterized by low annual precipitation and high rates of evaporation, creating a water-stressed environment. The vegetation in these regions evolved various xeromorphic features to conserve moisture, such as reduced leaf surface area, thick waxy cuticles, and extensive root systems to maximize water uptake. These adaptations allow the flora to endure the prolonged dry seasons typical of semi-arid climatic zones, making this region the primary habitat for xerophytic vegetation compared to humid or extremely cold environments.

101Geography
What is a cloudburst?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) It refers to sudden and copious rainfall over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes

Explanation

A cloudburst is an extreme weather event involving very heavy and sudden rainfall over a limited geographical area, usually not exceeding 20 to 30 square kilometers. It is typically associated with cumulonimbus clouds and unstable atmospheric conditions where strong upward air currents prevent raindrops from falling, causing them to accumulate and grow in size. When these updrafts weaken, the collected water falls all at once, resulting in a massive deluge. According to the India Meteorological Department, a cloudburst is specifically defined as a rainfall event where the precipitation rate is 100 mm or more per hour. Its localized and intense nature leads to immediate flash floods and significant surface runoff in the affected locality.

102Geography
Which one among the following is not correct regarding Tsunami?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Tides also play an important role in the generation of Tsunamis

Explanation

Tsunamis are seismic sea waves primarily generated by the sudden displacement of water caused by underwater earthquakes, submarine landslides, or volcanic eruptions. In contrast, tides are periodic rises and falls of sea levels caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, combined with the rotation of the Earth. Tides do not play a role in the physical generation of a tsunami, as the two phenomena arise from entirely different geological and astronomical mechanisms.

103Economy
Which one among the following statements regarding India's coal is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Bituminous coal is found in both lower Gondwana rocks and in Tertiary rocks

Explanation

India's coal deposits are broadly classified into two geological categories: Gondwana coal and Tertiary coal. Gondwana coal, which accounts for the vast majority of India's reserves, is primarily of the bituminous and sub-bituminous varieties and is found in the Lower Gondwana rock systems. Conversely, Tertiary coal deposits are much younger and are characterized as lignite, also known as brown coal. While Gondwana coal is known for its high carbon content and calorific value, Tertiary coal is distinguished by its high moisture and sulfur content and lower carbonization. Therefore, the geological classification in India associates bituminous coal with the Gondwana period, while the Tertiary rocks are predominantly associated with lignite deposits rather than bituminous coal.

104Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator. 2. Coriolis effect is more towards the Poles. 3. Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 4. Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1, 2.and 3

Explanation

The Coriolis force is an inertial force that acts on objects in motion relative to a rotating reference frame. It is mathematically expressed as F꜀ = 2 ω v sin ϕ, where ω is the Earth's angular velocity, v is the velocity of the moving object, and ϕ is the latitude. Since sin 0° = 0 at the Equator, the Coriolis effect is zero there. At the Poles, where ϕ = 90°, sin 90° = 1, resulting in the maximum deflection; thus, the effect increases with latitude towards the Poles.

The physical basis for this effect is the variation in the Earth's linear rotational velocity. The linear speed of a point on Earth is given by V = ω R cos ϕ. Because the radius of rotation is greatest at the Equator and decreases toward the axis at higher latitudes, the rotational velocity decreases as latitude increases. When an object moves poleward, it maintains its higher eastward momentum from lower latitudes, causing it to deflect relative to the slower-moving surface beneath it. This confirms that the Coriolis effect is intrinsically related to the decrease in rotational velocity with increasing latitudes.

105History
The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct? 1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. 2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne. 3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Lord Dufferin, the Viceroy of India from 1884 to 1888, commissioned the construction of the Viceregal Lodge on Observatory Hill in Shimla. He was the first Viceroy to occupy the building in 1888, which was designed by the architect Henry Irwin in the Jacobethan style. The monument is historically significant for hosting three pivotal meetings that preceded India's independence: the Shimla Conference of 1945 (convened by Lord Wavell), the Cabinet Mission of 1946, and the crucial 1947 deliberations between Lord Mountbatten and Indian leaders that finalized the Mountbatten Plan and the Partition of India. These events make the Lodge a central site in the political transition from British rule to Indian independence.

106History
Who among the following Chinese travelers visited the kingdoms of Harshavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Hiuen Tsang

Explanation

Hiuen Tsang, the famous Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler, visited India in the 7th century CE during the reign of Emperor Harshavardhana. While staying at Nalanda, he received an invitation from Kumar Bhaskar Varma, the king of Kamarupa in modern-day Assam. Hiuen Tsang visited Kamarupa and stayed at the royal court as a guest of the king. Following this visit, he accompanied Bhaskar Varma to Kanauj at the request of Harshavardhana to participate in the grand religious assembly and the subsequent Quinquennial festival at Prayag. His comprehensive travelogue, the Si-Yu-Ki, provides primary historical accounts of the political, social, and religious conditions of both the Pushyabhuti and Kamarupa kingdoms during this period.

107History
Which one among the following Indus cities was known for water management?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Dholavira

Explanation

Dholavira, located in the Khadir Bet region of the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, is renowned for its sophisticated and advanced water management system. Unlike many other Indus Valley sites that relied on perennial rivers, Dholavira was situated in an arid environment and developed a complex network of reservoirs and dams to harness and store every drop of water.

Archaeological excavations have uncovered a series of 16 massive reservoirs carved into the rock, designed to collect surface runoff. The city planners constructed stone dams across the seasonal streams of the Manhar and Mansar to channel water into these large storage tanks. This elaborate hydraulic engineering allowed the inhabitants to sustain a large urban population by ensuring a steady water supply throughout the year, marking it as the most significant example of water harvesting in the ancient world.

108Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as 1. a contract 2. a sacrament 3. mutual understanding 4. indissoluble Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 2 and 4

Explanation

Under traditional Shastric Hindu Law, marriage is viewed as a Sanskara or a sacrament rather than a mere civil contract. It is considered a holy and eternal union of two souls for the performance of religious and spiritual duties, known as Dharma. This religious character distinguishes it from other personal laws where marriage is primarily a contract for procreation and legalizing sexual intercourse.

Historically, Hindu Law regarded the marital bond as indissoluble. The husband and wife were considered to be a single spiritual entity after the performance of sacred rites like Saptapadi, and this union was believed to persist even beyond death. Because of this sacramental and holy nature, the Shastras did not provide for the dissolution of marriage through divorce. While the modern Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 has introduced legal provisions for divorce and requires the consent of the parties, the fundamental legal and philosophical definition of Hindu marriage continues to emphasize its sacramental and traditionally indissoluble character in the context of personal law studies.

109History
Which one among the following States was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Satara

Explanation

Satara was the first princely state to be annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse in 1848. This policy stipulated that any Indian princely state under the suzerainty of the British East India Company would have its ruling rights terminated and be annexed into British India if the ruler was either manifesty incompetent or died without a direct male heir. Upon the death of Appa Sahib, the Raja of Satara, in 1848 without a natural male heir, the British government refused to recognize the legitimacy of his adopted son and incorporated the territory into the Bombay Presidency. This annexation preceded those of other states such as Sambalpur in 1849, Jhansi in 1853, and Nagpur in 1854.

110History
Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history (starting with the earliest) : 1. The Doctrine of Lapse 2. The Subsidiary Alliance 3. The Treaty of Lahore 4. The Pitt's India Act Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 4-2-3-1

Explanation

The chronological order of these historical events begins with the Pitt's India Act, which was passed by the British Parliament in 1784 to bring the East India Company's administration under the supervision of the British government. This was followed by the formalization of the Subsidiary Alliance system, primarily associated with Lord Wellesley, who implemented it extensively starting with the Nizam of Hyderabad in 1798. Next in the sequence is the Treaty of Lahore, which was signed on March 9, 1846, marking the end of the First Anglo-Sikh War. Finally, the Doctrine of Lapse was a policy of annexation used extensively by Lord Dalhousie during his tenure from 1848 to 1856, with the state of Satara being the first to be annexed under this policy in 1848. Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is 1784, 1798, 1846, and 1848.

111History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Social Reformer) A. Iyothee Thass B. Jyotiba Phule C. John Rathinam D. E. V. Rama- Naickar List-II (Association) 1. Satyashodhak Samaj 2. Dravida Kazhagam 3. Self-Respect Movement 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

Iyothee Thass was a prominent Dalit activist and practitioner of Siddha medicine who founded the Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1891 to advocate for the rights of the marginalized and promote the concept of Dravidian identity. Jyotiba Phule established the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 in Maharashtra to champion the cause of social equality and provide education and rights to the Shudras and Dalits. John Rathinam was a key figure who collaborated with Iyothee Thass to form the Dravida Kazhagam, also known as the Dravidian Association, in 1882 to represent the interests of non-Brahmin communities. E. V. Ramaswamy Naickar, widely known as Periyar, founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925, which aimed at achieving a society where backward castes have equal human rights and encouraged people to renounce caste-based discrimination.

112History
Which one among the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Practically all Jorwe settlements in the Northern Deccan were suddenly 'deserted

Explanation

The decline of the Jorwe Culture was a gradual process rather than a sudden desertion of all settlements. Around 1000 BCE, many settlements in the Northern Deccan were indeed abandoned due to increasing aridity and a decline in rainfall, which made agriculture difficult. However, this transition was not uniform or instantaneous across the entire region. While several sites were deserted, others, most notably Inamgaon, continued to be occupied during the Late Jorwe phase until approximately 700 BCE. During this later period, the inhabitants adapted to the changing environment by shifting from large-scale farming to a more pastoral and nomadic lifestyle, indicating a transformation and eventual fading of the culture over centuries rather than a sudden regional collapse.

113History
Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script

Explanation

The Ashokan inscriptions found at Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi, located in the northwestern part of the Mauryan Empire in modern-day Pakistan, were written in the Kharoshthi script. Unlike the Brahmi script used in most other parts of the subcontinent, Kharoshthi was written from right to left and was derived from the Aramaic script used by the Achaemenid Persians. The language employed in these specific Major Rock Edicts is a regional variant of Prakrit, often referred to as Gandhari Prakrit. This choice of script and language highlights Ashoka's administrative practice of using local writing systems to ensure that his Dhamma edicts were legible and accessible to the populations residing in the frontier provinces.

114History
Who among the following scholars were contemporary of Kanishka? 1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna 3. Va'sumitra 4. Chanakya Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Kanishka, the Kushan emperor who reigned in the 2nd century CE, was a great patron of arts and Buddhism, surrounding himself with eminent intellectuals. Ashvaghosa was a Buddhist philosopher and poet who wrote the Buddhacharita and served as Kanishka's spiritual advisor. Vasumitra was a leading Buddhist theologian who achieved prominence by presiding over the Fourth Buddhist Council held at Kundalvana in Kashmir under Kanishka's patronage. Nagarjuna, the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism and a pioneer of the Sunyavada philosophy, is also historically placed as a contemporary of the Kushans and the Satavahanas. These three figures define the intellectual landscape of Kanishka's era, which occurred several centuries after the time of Chanakya and the Mauryan Empire.

115Geography
Sabin Award is given for the conservation of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) amphibians

Explanation

The Sabin Amphibian Prize is a prestigious annual award established by the Sabin Vaccine Institute in collaboration with international conservation organizations like the Amphibian Survival Alliance and the IUCN SSC Amphibian Specialist Group. Founded by philanthropist Andrew Sabin, the award recognizes individuals who have made significant and transformative contributions to the conservation of amphibians. This group of animals faces a massive global extinction crisis due to factors such as habitat loss, climate change, and the chytrid fungus. The award often provides a financial grant to support the recipient's continued field research and conservation efforts to protect the most threatened amphibian species and their natural habitats.

116Science and Technology
'The Indian research station Himadri is located at
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Arctic Region

Explanation

Himadri is India's first permanent Arctic research station, inaugurated on July 1, 2008. It is located at Ny-Ålesund on the island of Spitsbergen in the Svalbard archipelago, Norway. The station was established to facilitate multi-disciplinary research in the Arctic region, focusing on fields such as glaciology, atmospheric sciences, and marine biology to better understand the impact of global warming and its links to the Indian monsoon system.

117Science and Technology
The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one among the following policy making bodies of the Government of India in scientific research and development?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) ICMR

Explanation

The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) was established in 1911, making 2011 its centenary year. It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research. Among the other options: ISRO was established in 1969; ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) was established in 1929; CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) was established in 1942. Only ICMR was founded in 1911, confirming option (c) as the correct answer.

118Science and Technology
In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the Moon from 'crust to core' through its
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory

Explanation

In 2011, NASA launched the GRAIL (Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory) mission to study the Moon from crust to core. GRAIL used two spacecraft (Ebb and Flow) flying in tandem to map the Moon's gravitational field, revealing details about its interior structure, crust thickness, and subsurface geology. It was launched on September 10, 2011. The other options are NASA missions focused on the Sun and Earth's magnetosphere, not the Moon. The correct answer is (a) Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory.

119Science and Technology
In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered 'BISIN', which
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) is a natural preservative and can extend food's life for several years

Explanation

Bisin is a naturally occurring antimicrobial peptide, specifically a bacteriocin, discovered in 2011 by researchers led by Dan O'Sullivan at the University of Minnesota. It is produced by certain strains of Bifidobacterium longum, which is a resident of the human gut. The substance is capable of killing a wide range of harmful Gram-negative bacteria, including E. coli, Salmonella, and Listeria. Because it is a natural preservative, its discovery was highlighted for its potential to significantly extend the shelf life of various food products such as meats, seafood, eggs, and dairy items for several years. Unlike many chemical preservatives, bisin is safe for human consumption and does not alter the nutritional quality or taste of the food.

120Science and Technology
In the year 2011, a missile named 'PRAHAR', developed by DRDO was test fired. This is a
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) short-range surface to surface missile

Explanation

Prahar is a solid-fuelled, short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). First test-fired in July 2011 from the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur, it is designed to strike targets at a range of approximately 150 km with high precision. The missile was specifically developed to bridge the operational gap between the 40-km range Pinaka multi-barrel rocket system and the longer-range Prithvi ballistic missiles. It is highly mobile and can be deployed in all-weather conditions, launched from a road-mobile Transporter Erector Launcher (TEL) to provide immediate fire support to the Indian Army on the battlefield.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4B
  5. 5D
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8A
  9. 9D
  10. 10B
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14A
  15. 15D
  16. 16C
  17. 17D
  18. 18C
  19. 19D
  20. 20B
  21. 21A
  22. 22D
  23. 23C
  24. 24A
  25. 25A
  26. 26B
  27. 27B
  28. 28C
  29. 29D
  30. 30C
  31. 31A
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38B
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42D
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48D
  49. 49D
  50. 50A
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53D
  54. 54C
  55. 55D
  56. 56B
  57. 57A
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60D
  61. 61D
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65C
  66. 66A
  67. 67B
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71C
  72. 72D
  73. 73A
  74. 74A
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79B
  80. 80D
  81. 81C
  82. 82D
  83. 83A
  84. 84A
  85. 85C
  86. 86B
  87. 87A
  88. 88D
  89. 89D
  90. 90B
  91. 91A
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94B
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97C
  98. 98D
  99. 99C
  100. 100C
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105C
  106. 106C
  107. 107D
  108. 108D
  109. 109D
  110. 110A
  111. 111C
  112. 112D
  113. 113A
  114. 114D
  115. 115A
  116. 116C
  117. 117C
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120C

Other years

Practice these questions the way the exam asks them

Timed mock tests from real previous year questions, instant scores, topic-wise analysis and an AI mentor to clear doubts — free to start.

Start practising free

Previous year papers for other exams