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CDS I 2019 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
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6
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3832%
  • Polity and Governance3025%
  • Geography1815%
  • History1714%
  • Economy1412%
  • Art and Culture33%
1History
Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions?
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Answer: (A) Fort William College

Explanation

Henry Thomas Colebrooke was appointed as the Professor of Sanskrit and Hindu Law at Fort William College in 1805. Established in Calcutta by Governor-General Lord Wellesley in 1800, the college was designed to provide British civil servants with a comprehensive education in Indian languages, laws, and customs to improve colonial administration. Colebrooke's tenure at the institution was marked by his significant contributions to the systematic study of Sanskrit and the codification of Hindu legal principles. His scholarship helped bridge the gap between traditional Indian learning and European academic research, making Fort William College a primary center for orientalist studies during the early nineteenth century.

2Polity and Governance
The Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives?
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Answer: (D) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants

Explanation

The Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879 was enacted based on the recommendations of the Deccan Riots Commission, which investigated the agrarian unrest of 1875. The Act aimed to mitigate the distress of the peasantry by providing legal protection against the exploitative practices of moneylenders. It empowered the judiciary to go behind the written bonds or contracts to determine the actual history of the debt and the amount of principal truly borrowed, allowing the court to reduce exorbitant interest rates. Furthermore, the Act prohibited the imprisonment of agriculturalists for non-payment of debt and provided for the discharge of debts for insolvent peasants through a simplified legal process. By introducing these measures, the colonial government sought to prevent the widespread dispossession of land and provide a form of legal relief to farmers who were unable to meet their financial obligations.

3History
The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities?
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Answer: (A) Santals

Explanation

The Damin-i-Koh was a large area of land demarcated by the British colonial government in the Rajmahal Hills of present-day Jharkhand around 1832-33. This territory was specifically carved out to settle the Santals, who had been migrating into the region from areas like Cuttack and Manbhum. The British aimed to transform the hilly forest tracts into settled agricultural land to ensure a steady source of land revenue. Unlike the local Paharias who practiced shifting cultivation and were difficult to subdue, the Santals were seen as industrious settlers willing to use the plough. By providing them with land in the Damin-i-Koh, the British encouraged the Santals to clear forests and establish permanent villages under specific grant conditions, leading to a massive increase in the Santal population in the region by the mid-19th century.

4History
The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?
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Answer: (B) Loan bonds signed between moneylender and Ryots would have validity only for three years.

Explanation

The Limitation Act of 1859 was introduced by the British administration to curb the exploitation of the peasantry by moneylenders, particularly in regions like the Deccan. The law mandated that loan bonds signed between moneylenders and ryots would remain legally valid for only three years. This was intended to prevent the indefinite accumulation of interest over decades, which often left the debtor in perpetual servitude. By restricting the validity period, the government aimed to force moneylenders to settle accounts more frequently. In practice, however, the law backfired as moneylenders compelled ryots to sign fresh bonds every three years, incorporating the unpaid interest into a new, larger principal sum, thereby intensifying the debt trap.

5History
Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as 'Danka Shah'?
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Answer: (B) Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah

Explanation

Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 in the Awadh region, was popularly known as Danka Shah, which translates to the Maulavi with the drum. This name was given to him because he traveled in a palanquin preceded by drumbeaters who announced his arrival to the public. Originally from Madras, he moved to northern India and became a charismatic figure who preached jihad against British rule, urging both sepoys and civilians to rise up. He played a crucial role in the siege of Lucknow and the Battle of Chinhat, where his forces defeated the British under Henry Lawrence. His ability to mobilize large masses and his persistent resistance made him one of the most formidable adversaries of the British during the uprising.

6History
The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions?
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Answer: (B) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land.

Explanation

The Summary Settlement of 1856 was implemented in Awadh immediately after its annexation by the British East India Company. It was based on the premise that the Talukdars were not the legitimate owners of the land but were instead interlopers and middlemen who had usurped power from the village communities. British officials, heavily influenced by the revenue theories applied in the North-Western Provinces, believed that the Talukdars lacked any permanent or hereditary stakes in the soil. They viewed these landlords as parasitic elements who intercepted the revenue that should ideally flow between the state and the actual cultivators. Consequently, the settlement sought to bypass the Talukdars entirely and establish direct revenue agreements with the village-level proprietors, leading to the dispossession of many Talukdars from their ancestral estates and traditional social authority.

7Polity and Governance
The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of
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Answer: (B) Sarkaria Commission

Explanation

The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India to facilitate coordination between the Union and the States. The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, appointed in 1983, recommended the setup of a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation. In pursuance of these recommendations, the council was established by a Presidential Order on May 28, 1990. It is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislative assemblies, as well as administrators of Union Territories without assemblies and several Union Cabinet Ministers.

8Polity and Governance
Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal?
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Answer: (D) Certiorari

Explanation

Certiorari is a writ issued by a superior court to a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial body to transfer the records of a case for review and to quash an order if it is found to be illegal. It serves a curative purpose, meaning it is invoked after an order or judgment has been delivered. This writ is typically issued on grounds such as a lack or excess of jurisdiction, violation of the principles of natural justice, or an error of law apparent on the face of the record. Under the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts exercise this power to ensure that subordinate judicial and quasi-judicial authorities act within their legal boundaries. By quashing the order, the superior court effectively nullifies the decision, preventing any further legal effect from being derived from the flawed ruling.

9Polity and Governance
Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation

The doctrine of Basic Structure was established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973). The Court ruled that while Article 368 grants Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, this power is not absolute and does not extend to the alteration or destruction of the essential features that form the Constitution's basic structure. This means the power to change the basic structure falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. Furthermore, the Parliament is a constituted body created by the Constitution, and its constituent power under Article 368 is a limited one; therefore, the authority to change the fundamental identity of the Constitution does not fall within its constituent powers. Such a radical change would necessitate the exercise of original constituent power, which resides with the people and can theoretically be exercised only through representatives gathered in a new Constituent Assembly to draft a new organic document.

10Polity and Governance
When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except
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Answer: (A) Article 20 and Article 21

Explanation

Under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, the President is authorized to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. However, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted this power by stipulating that the President cannot suspend the enforcement of rights guaranteed under Article 20 and Article 21. Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences, while Article 21 ensures the protection of life and personal liberty. Consequently, even during a Proclamation of Emergency, an individual retains the constitutional right to approach the judiciary to seek remedy if these specific Fundamental Rights are infringed upon.

11Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds?
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Answer: (B) Article 15

Explanation

Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Specifically, Article 15(2)(b) mandates that no citizen shall be denied the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public. This provision serves as a safeguard against social exclusion and ensures that public amenities are accessible to all citizens without discrimination, reinforcing the principle of social equality.

12Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?
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Answer: (C) B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation (AISCF) in July 1942 at the All India Depressed Classes Conference held in Nagpur. This organization was established as the first pan-India political party specifically dedicated to the interests of the Scheduled Castes. It aimed to secure political rights and representation for the Dalit community during the constitutional negotiations with the British government. The federation played a crucial role in advocating for social justice and served as a precursor to the Republican Party of India, which Ambedkar envisioned later in his life.

13Science and Technology
Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of
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Answer: (C) Microsoft

Explanation

Paul Allen (1953–2018) co-founded Microsoft in 1975 along with his childhood friend Bill Gates in Albuquerque, New Mexico. He is credited with naming the company, which was a combination of the words microcomputer and software. Allen played a pivotal role in the early development of the company, most notably by negotiating the purchase of the QDOS operating system, which became MS-DOS and served as the foundation for Microsoft dominance in the personal computer industry. Although he stepped down from his executive position in 1983 following a cancer diagnosis, he remained a major shareholder and served on the board of directors for several decades, contributing significantly to the technology landscape and global philanthropy until his death in October 2018.

14Polity and Governance
The mobile app 'cVIGIL' is helpful in
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Answer: (D) reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States

Explanation

The cVIGIL (Citizens' Vigil) mobile application was launched by the Election Commission of India to empower citizens to report violations of the Model Code of Conduct and expenditure during elections. It serves as a user-friendly platform where individuals can capture live photos or videos of electoral malpractices, such as the distribution of money, liquor, or prohibited posters, and upload them directly to the authorities. The app automatically captures the GPS location of the incident, allowing flying squads to reach the spot quickly. The Election Commission ensures a time-bound response, typically aiming to address and update the status of the complaint within 100 minutes, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability in the democratic process.

15Science and Technology
'Prahaar' is
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Answer: (B) a surface-to-surface missile

Explanation

Prahaar is a short-range, solid-fueled, surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. It was specifically designed to provide the Indian Army with a highly mobile, extremely accurate, and quick-reaction weapon system to bridge the gap between the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher and the Prithvi series of ballistic missiles. With a strike range of approximately 150 km and a flight time of about 250 seconds, it is capable of carrying different types of warheads and can be launched from a road-mobile Transporter Erector Launcher (TEL), allowing it to be deployed effectively in various combat scenarios.

16Polity and Governance
Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018?
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Answer: (B) S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli

Explanation

The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for 2018 was jointly conferred upon Virat Kohli and Saikhom Mirabai Chanu by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Virat Kohli, then the captain of the Indian cricket team, was recognized for his prolific run-scoring and leadership across all formats of international cricket. Saikhom Mirabai Chanu, a weightlifter, received the honor following her exceptional performance in the 48 kg category, where she won the gold medal at the 2017 World Weightlifting Championships in Anaheim and secured another gold medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games held in Gold Coast. This award represents the highest sporting honor in India, granted for spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years.

17Geography
Pakyong Airport is located in
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Answer: (A) Sikkim

Explanation

Pakyong Airport is a greenfield airport located in Pakyong town near Gangtok, the capital of Sikkim. Inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in September 2018, it holds the distinction of being the first airport in the state of Sikkim and the 100th operational airport in India. It is a significant engineering achievement, constructed as a tabletop airport at an elevation of approximately 4,500 feet above sea level, providing much-needed aerial connectivity to the Himalayan state.

18Polity and Governance
The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on
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Answer: (D) 15th October

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly established the International Day of Rural Women through resolution 62/136 on 18 December 2007. It was first observed on 15 October 2008 to recognize the critical role and contribution of rural women, including indigenous women, in enhancing agricultural and rural development, improving food security, and eradicating rural poverty. The day highlights the fact that rural women make up a significant portion of the agricultural labor force worldwide and are essential to the sustainability of rural households and communities.

19Art and Culture
Who among the following is the first Indian to win Pulitzer Prize?
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Answer: (B) Gobind Behari Lal

Explanation

Gobind Behari Lal was an Indian-American journalist and independence activist who became the first Indian to win the Pulitzer Prize. In 1937, he was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Reporting, an honor he shared with four other journalists for their comprehensive coverage of science during the Harvard University tercentenary celebrations. Born in Delhi, he moved to the United States to study and eventually became a prominent science editor for the Hearst Newspapers. He was also a founding member of the Ghadar Party, an organization dedicated to liberating India from British colonial rule. His career was marked by his ability to make complex scientific developments accessible to the general public, establishing him as a pioneer in the field of science journalism.

20Science and Technology
Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports?
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Answer: (B) Shooting

Explanation

Saurabh Chaudhary is a highly distinguished Indian athlete specializing in the 10m Air Pistol event within the discipline of shooting. He gained international acclaim in 2018 by winning the gold medal at the Asian Games in Jakarta, which made him the youngest Indian gold medalist in the history of the games at that time. Throughout late 2018 and 2019, he continued his dominance by securing gold medals at the Youth Olympic Games and multiple ISSF World Cups, frequently setting new world records in both junior and senior categories.

21Economy
Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand?
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Answer: (C) Consumers are affected by demonstration effect.

Explanation

The law of demand operates under the ceteris paribus assumption, which means all other factors influencing demand are held constant to isolate the relationship between price and quantity demanded. These standard assumptions include constant consumer income, fixed tastes and preferences, and unchanged prices of substitute and complementary goods. The demonstration effect, a concept introduced by James Duesenberry, suggests that consumers' spending habits are influenced by the consumption patterns of others. Since the law of demand requires that a consumer's preferences remain stable and independent of external social influences, the existence of a demonstration effect would represent a change in preferences. Therefore, the assertion that consumers are affected by this effect is a violation of the underlying assumptions rather than a requirement for the law to hold.

22Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average utility are equal to each other.

Explanation

Statement d is incorrect because marginal utility (MU) and average utility (AU) are not equal when total utility (TU) is at its maximum. According to the relationship between total and marginal utility, TU reaches its maximum at the point of satiety, where the addition to total utility from the last unit consumed is zero (MU = 0). At this same point, average utility is calculated as AU = TU/Q. Since TU is at its peak positive value and the quantity Q is positive, AU must be a positive value. Therefore, at the point of maximum total utility, MU is zero while AU remains positive, making them unequal. Equality between MU and AU generally only occurs during the consumption of the very first unit.

23Economy
Consider the following statements about indifference curves: 1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin. 2. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction. 3. Two indifference curves cut each other. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation

Indifference curves are convex to the origin due to the principle of Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS). The MRSₓᵧ is the rate at which a consumer is willing to substitute good X for good Y while maintaining a constant level of total utility, expressed as MRSₓᵧ = -ΔY/ΔX. As a consumer increases the consumption of good X, the marginal utility of X decreases relative to the marginal utility of Y. Consequently, the consumer is willing to give up fewer and fewer units of Y for each additional unit of X, resulting in a curve that bows inward toward the origin.

A higher indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction based on the assumption of monotonicity of preferences. Monotonicity implies that a consumer always prefers a bundle that contains more of at least one good and no less of the other. Since a higher indifference curve lies further to the right and above a lower one, the bundles on the higher curve represent larger quantities of goods. Therefore, according to the more-is-better principle, these bundles provide a greater level of total utility to the consumer.

24Economy
Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company: 1. It has a legal existence. 2. There is limited liability of shareholders. 3. It has a democratic management. 4. It has a collective ownership. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

A joint-stock company is an artificial legal person created by law, which gives it a legal existence separate from its members; it can sue, be sued, and own property in its own name. The liability of shareholders is limited to the extent of the unpaid amount on the shares held by them, ensuring their personal assets are not at risk for company debts. It features democratic management because the shareholders, who are the owners, elect a Board of Directors to oversee operations, with major decisions made through resolutions. Additionally, it is characterized by collective ownership as its capital is divided into transferable shares held by numerous individuals who jointly own the entity.

25Economy
When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is
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Answer: (C) vertical

Explanation

A vertical supply curve represents perfectly inelastic supply, where the price elasticity of supply is zero (Eₛ = 0). When the quantity of a good or productive factor is completely fixed in amount and cannot be increased or decreased regardless of price changes, the quantity supplied remains constant at all price levels. In a standard coordinate system where price is plotted on the vertical axis and quantity on the horizontal axis, a constant quantity results in a straight line parallel to the vertical axis. This scenario occurs when the supply is non-responsive to price signals, which is often the case with unique resources like land in a specific location, rare collectibles, or in the very short run where production cannot be adjusted.

26Art and Culture
Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?
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Answer: (A) H. St. Clair Wilkins

Explanation

Captain Henry St. Clair Wilkins, an officer of the Royal Engineers, designed the Old Secretariat building in Bombay. Constructed between 1867 and 1874, the building is a prominent example of the Venetian Gothic architectural style that was favored for civic structures during the British Raj. Wilkins was a distinguished architect of the period who also designed other landmark structures in the city, such as the Public Works Department Office. The Secretariat's design features intricate stone carvings, arcaded verandas, and a massive facade made of buff-colored Porbandar stone, reflecting the Victorian era's emphasis on grand administrative architecture intended to symbolize imperial authority.

27History
Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?
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Answer: (A) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini

Explanation

Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini, a Maratha lady originally named Gangabai, founded the Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta in 1893. After being involved in the 1857 resistance, she dedicated herself to the cause of women's education through a traditional lens. The institution was established to provide Hindu girls with an education rooted in the Shastras and Vedic principles, focusing on moral and religious training alongside basic literacy. Her goal was to preserve Indian cultural values and prepare women for their roles in society without the heavy influence of Western missionary education. The school received significant support from nationalist leaders who viewed it as a vital institution for cultural and national revival.

28History
Which European ruler had observed, Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world ... he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe?
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Answer: (B) Peter the Great of Russia

Explanation

Peter the Great of Russia recognized the immense strategic and economic value of Indian trade during his reign in the late 17th and early 18th centuries. He believed that the wealth generated from controlling the trade routes to India was the key to global hegemony and the mastery of Europe. This philosophy drove his geopolitical ambitions, leading him to seek expansion towards the Caspian Sea and Central Asia in an attempt to establish a direct commerce link between Russia and the Indian subcontinent, thereby bypassing the dominance of Western European maritime powers in the Indian Ocean.

29History
Which European traveller had observed, A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers?
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Answer: (D) Abbe J. A. Dubois

Explanation

Abbe Jean-Antoine Dubois, a French missionary who lived in Southern India for over thirty years between 1792 and 1823, recorded this observation in his famous work, Hindu Manners, Customs and Ceremonies. Dubois was known for his deep immersion into Indian society, adopting local dress and customs to better study the social fabric of the regions now comprising Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. In his writings, he commented extensively on the high standards of public decorum and the respectful treatment of women in Indian society. He noted that the modest conduct of the people and the prevailing social norms ensured that a woman could navigate public spaces with a sense of security and without being subjected to the harassment or verbal jests common in other parts of the world during that era.

30History
Who was the author of the book, Plagues and Peoples?
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Answer: (D) William H. McNeill

Explanation

William H. McNeill was a prominent Canadian-American historian who published Plagues and Peoples in 1976. The book is considered a groundbreaking work in the field of world history and environmental studies because it was one of the first major scholarly efforts to examine the impact of infectious diseases on the development of human civilizations. McNeill argued that pathogens played a role equal to or greater than that of politics, economics, or warfare in shaping historical outcomes, such as the collapse of the Roman Empire and the Spanish conquest of the Americas. By introducing the concept of microparasitism, he provided a new framework for understanding how the interaction between humans and microbes has dictated the rise and fall of societies throughout history.

31History
Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the 'cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe'?
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Answer: (A) Ashis Nandy

Explanation

Ashis Nandy, in his seminal works such as The Intimate Enemy and various essays on secularism, argues that the modern, organized, and homogenized version of Hinduism is a colonial construct. He posits that traditional Indian society functioned through a fluid, decentralized way of life rather than a rigid religion in the Western sense. This shift toward a monolithic identity was a defensive response by the Indian middle class to the cultural arrogance of post-Enlightenment Europe, which pathologized the diversity and perceived lack of structure in indigenous traditions. Nandy maintains that this process of syndication sought to make Hinduism more legible and respectable to the Western gaze by mimicking the Semitic and institutional characteristics of European Christianity, thereby eroding the pluralistic essence of the original faith.

32Economy
'Sub-prime crisis' is a term associated with which one of the following events?
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Answer: (A) Economic recession

Explanation

The subprime crisis refers to the collapse of the United States housing market starting around 2007, which was triggered by a sharp rise in defaults on subprime mortgages—loans issued to borrowers with low credit ratings. These high-risk loans were bundled into complex financial products like mortgage-backed securities and sold to investors globally. When the housing bubble burst and defaults surged, the value of these securities plummeted, leading to a massive liquidity crisis and the failure of major financial institutions. This contagion spread rapidly through the global financial system, resulting in the Global Financial Crisis of 2008. This crisis was the primary cause of the Great Recession, a period of significant global economic contraction, rising unemployment, and declining industrial production.

33History
Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
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Answer: (C) The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed.

Explanation

The Indian Independence Act of 1947 abolished the sovereignty and responsibility of the British Crown over India. By declaring India an independent dominion, the Act transferred the ultimate source of authority to the Constituent Assembly, which was recognized as a fully sovereign body with the power to frame any constitution and even repeal the Independence Act itself. Under Section 7 of the Act, the British Government in the United Kingdom relinquished all responsibility for the governance of the Indian territories. The Act also abolished the title of Emperor of India from the royal style and titles of the British monarch and removed the King's power to veto or reserve laws for his approval. While the Governor-General remained the formal representative of the monarch, the office became that of a nominal constitutional head acting strictly on the advice of the dominion's council of ministers, rather than as an agent of the Crown's authority.

34Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State Legislature?
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Answer: (C) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.

Explanation

Under Article 171(3)(a) of the Constitution of India, the composition of the Legislative Council is specified such that one-third of the total number of its members shall be elected by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards, and such other local authorities in the State as Parliament may by law specify. The fraction of one-twelfth is constitutionally inaccurate for this specific category of representation, as that proportion is reserved for members elected by graduates residing in the State and members elected by teachers under clauses (b) and (c) of the same Article.

35Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings.

Explanation

According to Article 243C(4) of the Constitution of India, the Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat, whether or not they are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area, possess the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats. This constitutional provision ensures that the voting rights of the Chairperson are not contingent upon the mode of their election. While the members of Panchayats at all levels are chosen by direct election, Article 243C(5) specifies that the Chairperson at the intermediate and district levels must be elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members. Despite this indirect election at higher tiers, the Chairperson maintains the right to vote in meetings, making the assertion that direct election is a prerequisite for exercising voting rights legally incorrect.

36Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?
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Answer: (C) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

Explanation

According to Article 323A(2)(d) of the Constitution of India, the law enacted by Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals may exclude the jurisdiction of all courts except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136. Article 136 provides the Supreme Court with the discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal in India. Therefore, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to entertain special leave petitions is constitutionally protected and cannot be excluded by a law establishing these tribunals. Furthermore, the Supreme Court in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997) held that the power of judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution, ensuring that orders of these tribunals remain subject to the writ jurisdiction of High Courts and the Supreme Court.

37Economy
A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as
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Answer: (C) monopolistic competition

Explanation

Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of sellers who offer products that are close substitutes but are not identical. This phenomenon is known as product differentiation, where firms distinguish their goods through branding, quality, packaging, or physical attributes. Because the products are similar but not perfectly interchangeable, each firm retains some control over its pricing, functioning as a monopoly for its specific brand while still facing significant competition from other firms in the industry. This environment encourages non-price competition, such as advertising and marketing, to establish brand loyalty among consumers.

38Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18. 2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2017-18 and data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, headline inflation measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) remained under control and averaged 3.6 percent during the 2017-18 financial year. This was a decline from 4.5 percent in 2016-17, reflecting a trend of moderate inflation within the Reserve Bank of India’s target range of 4 percent plus or minus 2 percent.

The primary driver for this low inflation was the significant deceleration in food inflation, measured by the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI). During 2017-18, food inflation averaged around 1.8 percent. This decline was particularly sharp in the prices of pulses and vegetables. Pulses witnessed negative inflation throughout much of the year due to a record production of approximately 23.13 million tonnes in 2016-17, while vegetable prices remained subdued for a significant portion of the period, contributing heavily to the overall reduction in the cost of the food basket.

39Economy
Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual's consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual?
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Answer: (C) Life Cycle Hypothesis

Explanation

The Life Cycle Hypothesis, developed by Franco Modigliani and his colleagues, posits that individuals plan their consumption and savings behavior over their entire lifetime to achieve a smooth consumption pattern. According to this model, consumption is not merely a function of current income but depends on the total resources available over an individual's life, which include accumulated wealth and expected future earnings. The individual's age is a critical variable because it determines the remaining years of work and the expected duration of retirement, thereby dictating how much should be consumed or saved at any point. Furthermore, the rate of return on capital influences the present value of future resources and the growth of savings, directly affecting the optimal level of consumption. The relationship can be expressed by the consumption function C = αW + βY, where wealth W and income Y are weighted by parameters that vary based on the individual's stage in the life cycle.

40Economy
According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon
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Answer: (C) effective demand

Explanation

According to John Maynard Keynes, the level of employment in a capitalist economy is determined by the principle of effective demand. Effective demand represents the specific point where the aggregate demand price equals the aggregate supply price. It is the total amount of money that entrepreneurs actually expect to receive from the sale of output produced by a given number of workers. In Keynesian theory, since aggregate supply is considered relatively stable or fixed in the short run, fluctuations in the level of employment are primarily driven by changes in effective demand. When effective demand increases, entrepreneurs find it profitable to hire more workers to increase production, thereby raising the level of employment until it reaches the point of full employment.

41Economy
Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?
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Answer: (D) Canon of fiscal adequacy

Explanation

The canon of fiscal adequacy is a modern principle of taxation that was not part of the four original canons established by Adam Smith in his seminal work, The Wealth of Nations (1776). Smith identified only four canons: equality, certainty, convenience, and economy. The canon of fiscal adequacy, which asserts that the tax system should be productive enough to yield sufficient revenue to cover the government's total expenditure, was developed by later economists such as Adolph Wagner and C.F. Bastable to address the growing financial requirements of modern states. Smith's classical framework focused primarily on the fairness of the tax burden and the efficiency of the collection process rather than the total revenue capacity relative to state spending.

42Science and Technology
Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm?
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Answer: (A) Al-Khwarizmi

Explanation

The mathematical term algorithm is derived from the Latinization of the name of the 9th-century polymath Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi. His name was transliterated into Latin as Algoritmi, which eventually evolved into the Middle English word algorisme and finally into algorithm. Al-Khwarizmi served in the House of Wisdom in Baghdad and wrote the influential book Al-Kitab al-mukhtasar fi hisab al-jabr wa'l-muqabala, which introduced systematic, step-by-step procedures for solving linear and quadratic equations. His work on the Hindu-Arabic numeral system was translated into Latin in the 12th century, effectively introducing the concepts of positional notation and decimal arithmetic to the Western world, cementing his name as the linguistic and conceptual origin of the discipline.

43History
Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854?
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Answer: (A) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not.

Explanation

The Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854, championed by Senator Stephen A. Douglas, fundamentally altered the legal landscape regarding the expansion of slavery in the United States. Its most significant provision was the formal repeal of the Missouri Compromise of 1820, which had prohibited slavery in the Louisiana Purchase territory north of the 36° 30' latitude line. In its place, the Act established the principle of popular sovereignty, granting the settlers of the newly created Kansas and Nebraska territories the authority to determine for themselves through democratic vote whether their states would enter the Union as free or slave-holding entities. This shift in policy effectively transferred the power of decision-making from the federal government to the local populations of those territories.

44Polity and Governance
Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007?
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Answer: (A) India has 'advance right to reprocess' US-origin safeguarded spent fuel.

Explanation

The Indo-US Nuclear Agreement, also known as the 123 Agreement, was finalized in 2007 and signed in 2008. A landmark provision of this treaty is Article 6, which grants India the advance right to reprocess spent fuel of US origin that is under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards. To operationalize this, India agreed to establish a dedicated, state-of-the-art national reprocessing facility specifically for such safeguarded materials. This inclusion was a major diplomatic breakthrough because the United States traditionally avoids granting such reprocessing rights to foreign nations to maintain strict control over nuclear proliferation. This right allows India to close the fuel cycle, which is essential for its three-stage nuclear power program.

45Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct? 1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, an eminent jurist and member of the Drafting Committee, was a strong proponent of the Supreme Court's role as the final arbiter of the Constitution. He believed that in a federal system, a high judicial tribunal was necessary to interpret the law and maintain the sanctity of the constitutional framework. Ayyar specifically argued that the Supreme Court must navigate the complex intersection of individual rights and the state's power to enact social reform. By drawing the line between liberty and social control, the Court would ensure that the Constitution remained a living document capable of facilitating social engineering while protecting the essence of democratic freedom. His vision focused on a judiciary that acted as a safety valve, balancing the competing demands of private citizens and the collective needs of a developing society.

46Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations? 1. Stabilization 2. Peace consolidation 3. To extend support to a losing State in a war Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Multidimensional peacekeeping operations are comprehensive missions deployed by the United Nations to manage complex peace agreements and facilitate the transition from conflict to sustainable peace. Stabilization is a critical core function that involves establishing a secure environment, restoring public order, and supporting the extension of state authority throughout a territory. Peace consolidation encompasses a broad range of activities aimed at preventing the recurrence of conflict, such as the disarmament, demobilization, and reintegration of former combatants, strengthening the rule of law, protecting human rights, and providing electoral assistance. These operations are governed by the fundamental principle of impartiality, focusing on the implementation of peace mandates rather than intervening to provide military support to any specific belligerent or to influence the military outcome for a state involved in a war.

47Polity and Governance
The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries? 1. China 2. Vietnam 3. Malaysia 4. Indonesia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The South China Sea dispute is a complex territorial and maritime conflict involving several nations with overlapping claims to various island groups and sea zones. China claims the largest portion of the territory through its nine-dash line, asserting sovereignty over almost the entire sea. Vietnam maintains extensive claims over both the Paracel and Spratly Islands based on historical records and proximity. Malaysia claims several islands and reefs in the southern portion of the Spratly archipelago that fall within its continental shelf and maritime territory as defined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. These three countries are primary territorial claimants involved in the long-standing geopolitical struggle for control over the region's natural resources and strategic trade routes.

48Geography
The Kyoto Protocol' is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in
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Answer: (B) greenhouse gases emission

Explanation

The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement that was adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005, functioning as an extension of the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Its primary objective is to combat global warming by reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. The treaty places a heavier burden on developed nations under the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities, mandating specific, binding targets for the reduction of emissions of six main gases: carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆). By setting these legal obligations, the protocol aimed to mitigate the anthropogenic interference with the climate system.

49Polity and Governance
The 'Beijing Declaration' is concerned with which one of the following issues?
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Answer: (B) Rights of women

Explanation

The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted by the United Nations at the Fourth World Conference on Women held in September 1995. It is recognized as the most comprehensive global policy framework and blueprint for advancing the rights of women and achieving gender equality. The declaration outlines strategic objectives to remove obstacles to women's active participation in all spheres of public and private life. It specifically addresses twelve critical areas of concern, including women and poverty, education and training of women, women and health, violence against women, and the girl child. By adopting this declaration, participating nations committed to ensuring that women and girls can exercise their freedoms and realize their full potential without discrimination.

50Polity and Governance
The 'Gujral Doctrine' relates to which one of the following issues?
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Answer: (A) Build trust between India and its neighbours

Explanation

The Gujral Doctrine is a set of five fundamental principles propounded by Inder Kumar Gujral, who served as India's Minister of External Affairs and later as Prime Minister in the mid-1990s. It represents a milestone in India's foreign policy, specifically aimed at managing relations with its immediate neighbours in South Asia. The core philosophy of the doctrine is that India, being the largest country in the region in terms of size, population, and economy, should not insist on reciprocity but rather give what it can in good faith to neighbours like Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. By promoting unilateral concessions, non-interference in internal affairs, and the peaceful resolution of bilateral disputes, the doctrine seeks to build a climate of trust and regional cooperation, ultimately ensuring a stable and peaceful neighbourhood necessary for India's own developmental goals.

51Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Compound/Molecule) List-II (Shape of Molecule) A. CH₃F 1. Trigonal planar B. HCHO 2. Tetrahedral C. HCN 3. Trigonal pyramidal D. NH₃ 4. Linear Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The shape of these molecules is determined by the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and the hybridization of the central atom.

CH₃F (Methyl fluoride) features a central carbon atom bonded to three hydrogen atoms and one fluorine atom. With four sigma bonds and no lone pairs, the carbon is sp³ hybridized, resulting in a tetrahedral geometry.

HCHO (Formaldehyde) has a central carbon atom forming sigma bonds with two hydrogen atoms and a double bond (one sigma and one pi bond) with an oxygen atom. The three electron domains around the carbon atom lead to sp² hybridization and a trigonal planar shape.

HCN (Hydrogen cyanide) consists of a carbon atom triple-bonded to nitrogen and single-bonded to hydrogen. The carbon atom has two electron domains and is sp hybridized, which dictates a linear shape.

NH₃ (Ammonia) has a central nitrogen atom bonded to three hydrogen atoms with one lone pair of electrons. While the electron geometry is based on sp³ hybridization, the presence of the lone pair reduces the bond angles and results in a trigonal pyramidal molecular shape.

Matching these characteristics: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

52Science and Technology
Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using
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Answer: (C) centrifugation

Explanation

Centrifugation is the most effective technique for separating very small insoluble particles that are suspended in a liquid and do not settle easily under the influence of gravity. When the mixture is rotated at high speeds in a centrifuge, centrifugal force acts on the particles, pushing the denser insoluble solids toward the bottom of the tube. This allows the clear liquid, known as the supernatant, to be easily separated from the concentrated solid mass. This method is commonly used in laboratory and industrial settings for tasks such as separating blood cells from plasma, extracting cream from milk, and clarifying cloudy suspensions where the particle size is too small for effective filtration or simple sedimentation.

53Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by Lassaigne's test?
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Answer: (D) F

Explanation

Lassaigne's test involves the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium to convert covalently bonded elements into water-soluble ionic sodium salts. To detect halogens, the resulting sodium fusion extract is acidified and treated with silver nitrate (AgNO₃). Fluorine cannot be detected using this method because silver fluoride (AgF) is highly soluble in water. Since the test relies on the formation of a visible precipitate to confirm the presence of a halogen, the solubility of AgF ensures that no precipitate forms, making the identification of fluorine impossible through this standard analytical procedure.

54Science and Technology
In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?
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Answer: (C) Alkyl halides

Explanation

Alkyl halides, represented by the general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₁X (where X is a halogen), do not exhibit functional group isomerism because there is no alternative functional group that can be formed using the same set of atoms. Since the halogen atom is monovalent and connects to the carbon skeleton via a single covalent bond, it lacks the structural flexibility to rearrange into a different functional class. While alkyl halides can demonstrate chain isomerism by varying the carbon backbone or position isomerism by changing the halogen's attachment point, the functional group itself remains an alkyl halide across all such isomers. There is no distinct arrangement of these atoms that would result in a different chemical category.

55Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation.

Explanation

The Fischer projection is a two-dimensional representation of a three-dimensional molecule where the horizontal bonds project toward the viewer and the vertical bonds project away. This specific spatial arrangement corresponds to an eclipsed conformation of the molecule. In organic chemistry, the eclipsed conformation is generally the least stable state because it maximizes torsional strain and steric hindrance between substituents on adjacent carbon atoms. The most stable conformation for most acyclic molecules is the staggered conformation, specifically the anti-periplanar arrangement, where substituents are positioned as far apart as possible to minimize repulsive forces and potential energy. Therefore, representing a molecule in its Fischer projection identifies its highest energy or least stable orientation rather than its most stable one.

56Science and Technology
The monomer/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is/are
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Answer: (B) caprolactam

Explanation

Nylon 6 is synthesized through the ring-opening polymerization of caprolactam (C₆H₁₁NO). When caprolactam is heated with a small amount of water at approximately 533–543 K, the cyclic ring opens to form ε-aminocaproic acid, which then undergoes self-condensation to form the polyamide chain. The numeric designation 6 in Nylon 6 refers to the six carbon atoms present in the single monomer unit, caprolactam. This distinguishes it from other types of nylon, such as Nylon 6,6, which are formed from the condensation of two different monomers.

57Science and Technology
Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth?
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Answer: (D) Proxima Centauri

Explanation

Proxima Centauri is a red dwarf star located in the constellation of Centaurus and is the closest known star to the Sun at a distance of approximately 4.246 light-years. It is part of the Alpha Centauri triple star system, which also includes the binary pair Alpha Centauri A and Alpha Centauri B. Because of its proximity, it is the primary focus for astronomical studies regarding stellar neighbors and potential habitable exoplanets, such as Proxima Centauri b. While the Sun is technically the nearest star to Earth, among the choices provided and for all stars outside our solar system, Proxima Centauri holds the record for being the nearest.

58Science and Technology
Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass?
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Answer: (D) Mercury

Explanation

Mercury is the least massive planet among the eight planets in our solar system. Its mass is approximately 3.3011 × 10²³ kg, which represents about 0.055 Earth masses (M⊕). Following the 2006 International Astronomical Union (IAU) definition of a planet, Mercury holds the distinction of being both the smallest planet by physical size and the one with the lowest total mass. Its mass is significantly lower than the other terrestrial planets and the much larger gas and ice giants.

59Science and Technology
Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver)
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Answer: (B) the silver piece will weigh more

Explanation

The weight of an object when completely immersed in water is its apparent weight (Wₐₚₚ), which is defined as the weight in air (Wₐᵢᵣ) minus the buoyant force (B). This is expressed by the formula:

Wₐₚₚ = Wₐᵢᵣ - B

The buoyant force is given by B = V ⋅ ρ_w ⋅ g, where V is the volume of the object and ρ_w is the density of water. The weight in air is Wₐᵢᵣ = V ⋅ ρ ⋅ g, where ρ is the density of the material. Substituting these into the apparent weight formula:

Wₐₚₚ = V ⋅ ρ ⋅ g - V ⋅ ρ_w ⋅ g = V ⋅ g ⋅ (ρ - ρ_w)

Given that the apparent weights of the gold and silver pieces are equal (Wₐₚₚ, ₚ = Wₐₚₚ, ₛ), we have:

V_g ⋅ (ρ_g - ρ_w) = V_s ⋅ (ρ_s - ρ_w)

Since the density of gold is greater than the density of silver (ρ_g > ρ_s), it follows that (ρ_g - ρ_w) > (ρ_s - ρ_w). For the equation to remain balanced, the volume of silver (V_s) must be greater than the volume of gold (V_g).

Because the silver piece has a larger volume, it displaces more water and experiences a larger buoyant force (B_s > B_g). Since Wₐᵢᵣ = Wₐₚₚ + B and Wₐₚₚ is the same for both pieces, the silver piece (which has the larger buoyant force) must have a greater weight in air.

60Science and Technology
If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λᵤᵥ , λᵥᵢₛ and λᵢᵣ respectively, then which one of the following gives the correct relationship among these wavelengths?
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Answer: (D) λᵤᵥ < λᵥᵢₛ < λᵢᵣ

Explanation

In the electromagnetic spectrum, the energy and frequency of radiation are inversely proportional to its wavelength, as defined by the relation λ = c/f and E = hf = hc/λ, where c is the speed of light, h is Planck's constant, f is frequency, and λ is wavelength.

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation has the highest frequency and shortest wavelength among the three, typically ranging from approximately 10 nm to 400 nm. Visible light (VIS) follows with wavelengths ranging from about 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red). Infrared (IR) radiation has the lowest frequency and the longest wavelength of the three, extending from approximately 700 nm to 1 mm. Therefore, the wavelengths increase in the order of ultraviolet, visible, and then infrared, leading to the relationship λᵤᵥ < λᵥᵢₛ < λᵢᵣ.

61Science and Technology
An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Vₑ and Vₚ respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct?
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Answer: (A) Vₑ > Vₚ

Explanation

When a charged particle is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V, the work done by the electric field is converted into kinetic energy K. This relation is given by K = qV, where q is the magnitude of the charge of the particle. For both an electron and a proton, the magnitude of the charge q is equal to the elementary charge e. Since both particles are accelerated through the same potential difference V = 100 kV, they both acquire the same amount of kinetic energy K = eV.

The classical formula for kinetic energy is K = 1/2mv², which gives the speed v = √(2K/m). This expression shows that for a constant kinetic energy, the final speed of the particle is inversely proportional to the square root of its mass v ∝ 1/√m. The mass of a proton mₚ is approximately 1836 times greater than the mass of an electron mₑ. Because mₑ < mₚ, it follows that the final speed of the electron Vₑ will be significantly greater than the final speed of the proton Vₚ. Even if relativistic effects are considered due to the high voltage, the qualitative result remains the same because the lighter particle will always reach a higher velocity to possess the same energy as the heavier particle.

62Science and Technology
If two vectors A and B are at an angle θ ≠ 0° , then
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Answer: (B) |A| + |B| > |A + B|

Explanation

The magnitude of the resultant vector R = A + B is given by the formula: |A + B| = √(|A|² + |B|² + 2|A||B| cos θ)

The magnitude of the individual vectors added as scalars is simply |A| + |B|. To compare these, we square the scalar sum: (|A| + |B|)² = |A|² + |B|² + 2|A||B|

For any angle θ ≠ 0°, the cosine of the angle cos θ is strictly less than 1. This leads to the inequality: 2|A||B| cos θ < 2|A||B|

Adding |A|² + |B|² to both sides of the inequality: |A|² + |B|² + 2|A||B| cos θ < |A|² + |B|² + 2|A||B|

Taking the square root of both sides: √(|A|² + |B|² + 2|A||B| cos θ) < √((|A| + |B|)²) |A + B| < |A| + |B|

This result is a fundamental property of vectors known as the triangle inequality. It states that the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is always less than or equal to the sum of their individual magnitudes, with equality holding only when the vectors are in the same direction (θ = 0°). Since the condition θ ≠ 0° is specified, the sum of the magnitudes must be strictly greater than the magnitude of the vector sum.

63Science and Technology
Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
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Answer: (C) Synthesis of protein

Explanation

Protein synthesis is a biological process that requires ribosomes to translate messenger RNA into polypeptide chains. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is structurally defined by the absence of ribosomes on its membrane surface, which is the primary reason it cannot perform this function. Instead, protein synthesis is the specialized role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where ribosomes are physically attached to the cytosolic side of the membrane to facilitate the production of membrane-bound or secretory proteins. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum focuses on alternative metabolic processes such as lipid and steroid synthesis, detoxification, and the intracellular transport of various substances.

64Science and Technology
Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes?
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Answer: (C) Lysosome

Explanation

Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus. They function as the primary storehouse of digestive enzymes in the cell, containing a wide array of hydrolytic enzymes such as proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, phosphatases, and sulfatases. These enzymes, collectively known as acid hydrolases, are optimally active at an acidic pH of approximately 5.0. Lysosomes utilize these enzymes to break down macromolecules, cellular debris, and foreign substances through intracellular digestion, effectively acting as the waste disposal system of the cell.

65Science and Technology
Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant?
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Answer: (D) Lateral meristem

Explanation

Lateral meristems are tissues located on the lateral sides of stems and roots, running parallel to the longitudinal axis. They are responsible for secondary growth in plants, which results in an increase in the thickness or girth of the plant body. The two primary types of lateral meristems are the vascular cambium, which produces secondary xylem and secondary phloem, and the cork cambium (phellogen), which develops the periderm or bark. Unlike apical and intercalary meristems that contribute to the longitudinal growth of the plant, lateral meristems facilitate radial expansion, providing structural support and increasing the diameter of the plant as it matures.

66Science and Technology
Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition?
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Answer: (A) Agaricus

Explanation

Agaricus is a genus of fungi commonly known as mushrooms. These organisms lack chlorophyll and are unable to perform photosynthesis to manufacture their own food. Instead, they derive their energy and nutrients from dead and decaying organic matter found in environments such as soil rich in humus, leaf litter, and manure. They function as saprophytes by secreting digestive enzymes into the surrounding substrate to break down complex organic polymers into simpler, soluble forms, which they subsequently absorb. This process of extracellular digestion and absorption of nutrients from non-living organic sources characterizes the saprophytic mode of nutrition.

67Science and Technology
Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization?
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Answer: (C) Nereis

Explanation

Nereis is a genus of polychaete worms belonging to the phylum Annelida. Organisms in this phylum exhibit bilateral symmetry, where the body organization allows for only one specific longitudinal plane to divide the animal into two identical mirror-image halves, namely the left and right sides. This symmetry is fundamentally linked to triploblastic development and cephalization, the concentration of nervous tissue and sensory organs at the anterior end. Such an arrangement is highly advantageous for active movement and directional navigation, characteristics that are prominent in the predatory or burrowing lifestyle of Nereis.

68Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm-blooded?
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Answer: (D) Peacock and Camel

Explanation

Peacocks belong to the class Aves (birds) and Camels belong to the class Mammalia (mammals). Both birds and mammals are homeothermic, commonly known as warm-blooded animals. These organisms are capable of maintaining a nearly constant internal body temperature through internal metabolic processes, regardless of fluctuations in the external environment. This thermoregulation is supported by high basal metabolic rates and specialized physical structures, such as the feathers of a peacock or the insulating fur and physiological adaptations of a camel, which help conserve or dissipate heat as needed.

69Geography
Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan

Explanation

The Central Water Commission (CWC) operates a vast network of flood forecasting stations across India, primarily covering major river basins such as the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, and various peninsular rivers. As of the reporting period ending in 2019, the CWC flood forecasting network extended to 23 States and Union Territories that were deemed highly vulnerable to riverine flooding. Rajasthan, characterized largely by an arid and semi-arid climate with ephemeral river systems like the Luni or the upper reaches of the Chambal, was not included in the list of states serviced by the CWC's dedicated flood forecasting stations. While other Himalayan states and North-Eastern states like Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Tripura required intensive monitoring due to perennial rivers and high rainfall, Rajasthan's hydrological profile did not necessitate the establishment of these specific CWC forecasting facilities within the national grid at that time.

70Geography
The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in
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Answer: (A) Colombia

Explanation

Cartagena, formally known as Cartagena de Indias, is a major port city situated on the northern coast of Colombia within the Bolivar Department. It is historically and diplomatically significant as the namesake of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. This international agreement, which functions as a supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), was negotiated in this city in February 1999. The protocol establishes a set of international rules to ensure the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology, specifically focusing on transboundary movements to prevent adverse effects on biological diversity and human health.

71Geography
Which one among the following is the most populated State in India as per Census 2011?
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Meghalaya recorded a total population of 2,966,889. This figure makes it the most populous state among the given options. During the 2001-2011 census decade, Meghalaya witnessed a significant decadal population growth rate of 27.95 percent. In comparison to the other states provided, Meghalaya demographic size is substantially larger, as the other three states in the selection all have populations well below the two million mark, with Sikkim being the least populous state in the entire country.

72Geography
Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through?
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Answer: (B) Bolivia

Explanation

Bolivia is a landlocked country in South America that lies entirely within the tropics, positioned north of the Tropic of Capricorn. The Tropic of Capricorn is located at approximately 23° 26' S latitude. The southernmost geographic point of Bolivia is located at roughly 22° 54' S latitude in the Potosí Department. Since the country's territorial boundaries do not extend south to the 23.5° S parallel, the line does not pass through any part of Bolivian territory.

73Geography
Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea?
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Answer: (C) It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current.

Explanation

The Sargasso Sea is a unique region in the North Atlantic Ocean defined by its surrounding ocean currents rather than land boundaries. It is bounded on the west by the Gulf Stream, on the east by the Canary Current, on the north by the North Atlantic Current, and on the south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current. Therefore, the Sargasso Sea is located to the east of the Gulf Stream and to the west of the Canary Current. The statement provided in the option reverses these relative positions, making it geographically incorrect.

74Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I(City) List-II(Product) A. Detroit 1. Motorcar B. Antwerp 2. Diamond cutting C. Tokyo 3. Steel D. Harbin 4. Shipbuilding Code :
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Answer: (D) A B C D 1 2 4 3

Explanation

Detroit is globally recognized as the Motor City due to its historical status as the center of the American automobile industry, housing the headquarters of major manufacturers like Ford and General Motors. Antwerp is the world premier center for the diamond industry, where a vast majority of the worlds rough diamonds are traded and processed through its specialized diamond cutting district. Tokyo, situated in the Keihin Industrial Region, has long been a leading global hub for heavy industries, particularly shipbuilding. Harbin, located in the industrial heartland of Northeast China, serves as a significant base for metallurgy and the production of steel and heavy machinery.

75Geography
Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway?
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Answer: (A) Satna

Explanation

The Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway, historically designated as National Highway 7, is a major north-south corridor that traverses several states, including Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Within Madhya Pradesh, the highway follows a specific path that connects Rewa directly to Katni and continues south through Jabalpur. Satna is located in the same region of northern Madhya Pradesh but is positioned to the west of this primary axis. It is situated on National Highway 75 (renumbered as NH 39), which serves the east-west route connecting Rewa to Gwalior. Because the Varanasi-Kanyakumari route moves directly from Rewa toward Katni, it bypasses the city of Satna.

76Geography
Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting?
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Answer: (C) Gully plug

Explanation

Gully plugs are small structures built across natural drainage gullies using locally available materials like stones, earth, or brushwood. Their primary purpose is to reduce the velocity of surface runoff, trap silt, and prevent soil erosion in hilly or undulating rural terrains. While they facilitate groundwater recharge by slowing down water flow, they are specifically designed for natural landscapes where soil erosion is a significant concern. In urban environments, the topography is modified by extensive paving and built-up structures, and drainage is managed through engineered networks rather than natural gullies. Therefore, gully plugs are considered a rural watershed management technique and are not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting, which focuses on capturing runoff from rooftops and paved surfaces.

77Geography
If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon? 1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. 2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers. 3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves. 4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The negative relationship between tank and well irrigation is primarily driven by the geological and hydrological characteristics of the region. Tank irrigation is dominant in the Peninsular plateau of India, where the terrain consists of impervious hard rock surface layers. These layers prevent the downward percolation of rainwater, making groundwater recharge extremely difficult and thus limiting the potential for well irrigation. Instead, these impervious surfaces facilitate the collection of surface runoff in natural or artificial depressions to form tanks. On the other hand, well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves and a high water table, which are typically found in regions with soft, porous alluvial soils such as the Indo-Gangetic plains. In these areas, the ease of extracting groundwater makes wells the more viable option, whereas the high soil permeability makes surface tank storage less efficient. Consequently, the physical factors that promote tank irrigation simultaneously hinder well irrigation, resulting in their mutually exclusive spatial distribution.

78Science and Technology
When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from?
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Answer: (D) Thermosetting

Explanation

Thermosetting plastics are characterized by their ability to maintain structural integrity and shape when exposed to heat. During their initial molding process, these polymers undergo a chemical reaction that creates extensive cross-linking between the molecular chains, forming a rigid three-dimensional network. These covalent bonds are strong enough to prevent the chains from sliding past each other, meaning the material does not melt or soften upon reheating. This property distinguishes them from thermoplastics, which lack such cross-links and deform easily under thermal stress. Therefore, a bottle that does not soften when filled with hot water exhibits the defining property of a thermosetting plastic.

79Science and Technology
Which of the following is/are state function/functions? 1. q + w 2. q 3. w 4. H - TS Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

State functions are thermodynamic properties whose values depend solely on the current state of the system and are independent of the path taken to reach that state. According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, the change in internal energy is expressed as ΔU = q + w. Since internal energy (U) is a state function, the sum of heat (q) and work (w) represents the change in a state function and is therefore independent of the path. Additionally, the term H - TS defines the Gibbs free energy (G). Because Enthalpy (H), Temperature (T), and Entropy (S) are all fundamental state functions, their mathematical combination H - TS also results in a state function. Thus, both q + w and H - TS satisfy the criteria for being state functions.

80Science and Technology
For a certain reaction, ΔGᶿ = -45 kJ/mol and ΔHᶿ = -90 kJ/mol at 0°C . What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that ΔHᶿ and ΔSᶿ are independent of temperature?
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Answer: (C) 546 K

Explanation

The spontaneity of a chemical reaction is determined by the Gibbs free energy change equation: ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

Given the values at 0°C (273 K): ΔGᶿ = -45 kJ / mol ΔHᶿ = -90 kJ / mol T = 273 K

First, calculate the entropy change (ΔSᶿ) using the values at 273 K: -45 = -90 - (273 × ΔSᶿ) 273 × ΔSᶿ = -90 + 45 273 × ΔSᶿ = -45 ΔSᶿ = -45/273 kJ / (mol · K)

A reaction is spontaneous when ΔG < 0. The transition between spontaneity and non-spontaneity occurs at equilibrium, where ΔG = 0. To find this threshold temperature (T): 0 = ΔHᶿ - TΔSᶿ T = ΔHᶿ/ΔSᶿ

Substitute the values: T = -90/(-45 / 273) T = (90 × 273)/45 T = 2 × 273 T = 546 K

Since both ΔH and ΔS are negative, the reaction is spontaneous at temperatures below this threshold. The value 546 K represents the temperature limit derived from the thermodynamic parameters of the reaction.

81Science and Technology
The PCl₅ molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be
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Answer: (D) dsp³

Explanation

The steric number (SN) for the central phosphorus atom in PCl₅ is calculated using the formula SN = 1/2(V + M - C + A), where V is the number of valence electrons of the central atom, M is the number of monovalent atoms, C is the cationic charge, and A is the anionic charge. For phosphorus (Z=15), the valence electron count V is 5. With five monovalent chlorine atoms (M=5) and no net charge, the steric number is SN = 1/2(5 + 5) = 5.

A steric number of 5 requires five hybrid orbitals, which are formed by the mixing of one 3s, three 3p, and one 3d orbital (specifically the d_z² orbital). This results in dsp³ (or sp³d) hybridization. These five hybrid orbitals arrange themselves in a trigonal bipyramidal geometry to minimize electron-pair repulsion, characterized by three equatorial bonds at 120° angles and two axial bonds at 90° to the equatorial plane. This configuration perfectly accounts for the five P-Cl sigma bonds in the molecule.

82Science and Technology
In spherical polar coordinates (γ, θ, α), θ denotes the polar angle around z-axis and α denotes the azimuthal angle raised from x-axis. Then the y-component of P is given by
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Answer: (A) P sin θ sin α

Explanation

In spherical polar coordinates, the position vector P of magnitude P is decomposed into components based on the polar angle θ and the azimuthal angle α. The projection of the vector P onto the z-axis is P cos θ, while its projection onto the xy-plane is P sin θ. To find the y-component, we take this projection in the xy-plane and further project it onto the y-axis. Since α is the angle measured from the x-axis in the xy-plane, the component along the y-axis is obtained by multiplying the xy-projection by sin α. Therefore, the y-component Pᵧ is expressed as P sin θ sin α.

83Science and Technology
For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements does not hold true?
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Answer: (A) The speed of all gas molecules is same.

Explanation

According to the Kinetic Theory of Gases, molecules in an ideal gas are in continuous, random motion and undergo frequent elastic collisions with one another and the container walls. These collisions lead to a constant redistribution of velocity and energy among the particles. As a result, the speeds of individual molecules follow the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, which shows that molecules possess a wide range of speeds at any given temperature. While macroscopic properties like temperature define the average kinetic energy through the relation 1/2mv² = 3/2kT, the individual speeds v vary from zero to very large values. Thus, the assumption that all molecules travel at the same speed is fundamentally incorrect.

84Science and Technology
What is a constellation?
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Answer: (B) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky

Explanation

A constellation is an identifiable group of stars that forms a perceived pattern or shape in the night sky as seen from Earth. While these stars appear to be close to one another on the two-dimensional celestial sphere, they are actually situated at significantly different distances from the Earth and are usually not physically associated with each other. Their perceived grouping is a result of the specific perspective from our solar system. The International Astronomical Union (IAU) formally recognizes 88 such constellations, which serve as a coordinate system for mapping the sky and naming celestial objects. Examples include Ursa Major, Orion, and Cassiopeia.

85Science and Technology
The Hooke's law is valid for
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Answer: (A) only proportional region of the stress-strain curve

Explanation

Hooke's law states that the stress (σ) applied to a material is directly proportional to the strain (ε) produced within it, provided the limit of proportionality is not exceeded. This relationship is mathematically expressed as σ = Eε, where E represents the Modulus of Elasticity. On a typical stress-strain curve, the proportional limit is the specific point up to which the material exhibits this linear relationship and the curve remains a straight line. While the elastic region extends slightly further to the elastic limit (the point beyond which permanent deformation occurs), the strict mathematical proportionality required by Hooke's law is lost once the curve begins to bend. Therefore, the law is strictly valid only within the proportional region of the stress-strain curve.

86Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct?
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Answer: (B) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA.

Explanation

Histones are highly alkaline proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei that pack and order the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes. They are the chief protein components of chromatin, acting as spools around which DNA winds. The basic repeating unit of chromatin, the nucleosome, consists of approximately 146 base pairs of DNA wrapped around an octamer of four core histone proteins: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. A fifth histone, H1, serves as a linker protein that helps stabilize the structure. This association is essential for compacting the large eukaryotic genome to fit within the confines of the nucleus and plays a critical role in gene regulation and DNA replication.

87Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct?
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Answer: (B) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation

Haemoglobin is a complex iron-containing metalloprotein found in red blood cells that is essential for the transport of respiratory gases. It performs a dual function by binding with oxygen in the lungs to form oxyhaemoglobin, which is then delivered to the various tissues of the body. In addition to oxygen transport, haemoglobin also plays a significant role in the removal of metabolic waste. Approximately 20% to 25% of carbon dioxide produced by tissues binds to the globin portion of the haemoglobin molecule to form carbaminohaemoglobin (HbNHCO₂), which is then transported back to the lungs for expiration. This enables haemoglobin to serve as a carrier for both oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously.

88Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope?
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Answer: (C) Condenser-Objective lens-Body tube-Eyepiece

Explanation

In a compound microscope, light from the source is first directed through the condenser, which concentrates and focuses the light rays onto the specimen. The light passing through the specimen then enters the objective lens, which forms a magnified real image of the object. This light travels through the body tube, a hollow cylinder that maintains the correct optical distance between the lenses, before finally reaching the eyepiece. The eyepiece further magnifies the image formed by the objective lens, allowing the observer to see a highly enlarged virtual image of the specimen.

89Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Urea is produced in liver.

Explanation

Urea (NH₂CONH₂) is the primary nitrogenous waste product in humans, synthesized in the liver through a series of biochemical reactions known as the urea cycle or the ornithine cycle. This metabolic process involves the conversion of highly toxic ammonia, which is generated during the deamination of excess amino acids derived from protein metabolism, into the less toxic and water-soluble compound urea. The synthesis requires carbon dioxide (CO₂), ammonia (NH₃), and energy in the form of ATP. Once produced within the hepatocytes of the liver, urea is released into the systemic circulation and transported to the kidneys, where it is filtered from the blood and excreted as a component of urine.

90Geography
Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion?
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Answer: (B) Chambal

Explanation

The Chambal River valley is the most prominent example of intensive gully erosion in India, leading to the formation of extensive badlands known as the Chambal Ravines or Bihads. This phenomenon occurs when surface runoff water concentrates into narrow channels, carving deep, vertical incisions into the soft alluvial soil of the region. The lack of dense vegetative cover and the semi-arid climatic conditions facilitate this severe soil degradation, resulting in a highly dissected topography that is unsuitable for cultivation. This badland topography is a defining geographic feature of the Chambal basin across parts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.

91Geography
Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones?
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Answer: (A) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds.

Explanation

Temperate cyclones, also known as extratropical cyclones, originate in the mid-latitudes between 35 and 65 degrees. They are steered by the prevailing planetary wind system known as the westerlies, which results in their characteristic movement from west to east. Tropical cyclones, which form over warm tropical waters at lower latitudes, are primarily influenced by the trade winds. These easterly winds drive the movement of tropical cyclones from east to west across the oceans.

92Economy
The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is located at
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Answer: (B) Yokohama

Explanation

The International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes the sustainable management and conservation of tropical forests and the expansion and diversification of international trade in tropical timber from sustainably managed and legally harvested forests. It was established under the International Tropical Timber Agreement (ITTA), 1983, which was negotiated under the auspices of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). The ITTO became operational in 1986 and is headquartered in Yokohama, Japan. It functions as a forum where producer and consumer member countries discuss and develop policies related to the international timber trade and the management of tropical forest resources.

93Geography
Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity?
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Answer: (D) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

Explanation

Humidity is the general term used to describe the amount of water vapor present in the air at any given time and location. It specifically refers to the gaseous state of water, which is invisible, as opposed to liquid droplets like clouds or fog. The moisture content in the atmosphere is a critical factor in determining weather patterns and climatic conditions, as it influences evaporation rates, condensation processes, and the potential for precipitation. Because the capacity of air to hold water vapor is strictly dependent on temperature, the humidity level varies significantly across different geographic regions and altitudinal layers of the atmosphere.

94Art and Culture
The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of
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Answer: (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

The Shompen are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) who inhabit the interior of Great Nicobar Island in the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They belong to the Mongoloid race, distinguishing them from the Negrito tribes found in the Andaman group of islands. Historically, the Shompen have remained relatively isolated, living as semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers within the dense tropical rainforests of the Biosphere Reserve. Their population is quite small, and they rely on forest produce, hunting, and fishing for their subsistence. They are protected under the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956, which restricts unauthorized entry into their tribal reserve.

95Polity and Governance
Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India?
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Answer: (B) Jorhat

Explanation

The Smart Cities Mission was launched by the Government of India in June 2015 with the objective of developing 100 cities across the country to improve infrastructure and the quality of life for citizens. The selection of these 100 cities was carried out through five rounds of competition between 2016 and 2018. Jorhat, a city in Assam, was not among the 100 cities selected for this mission. While several other cities from the North-Eastern states and Union Territories were included in later rounds—such as Silvassa and Kavaratti in Round 4 (January 2018) and Itanagar in the final list (June 2018)—Jorhat remained outside the scope of the project. In Assam, only Guwahati was selected as a designated Smart City under this specific national mission.

96Geography
Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011.
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Answer: (B) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, the population figures for the four largest Urban Agglomerations (UA) in the country are as follows: Greater Mumbai UA recorded a population of 18,414,288, making it the most populous urban region. Delhi UA followed with a population of 16,349,831. Kolkata UA ranked third with 14,057,991 inhabitants, and Chennai UA was the fourth largest with 8,653,521 people. These figures correspond to the specific definitions of Urban Agglomerations used by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which include the primary city along with its continuous urban outgrowths and satellite towns. The descending order of these major metros by population size is thus Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, and Chennai.

97Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Type of Lake) (Example) A. Tectonic 1. Lonar Lake B. Crater 2. Gangabal Lake C. Glacial 3. Purbasthali Lake D. Fluvial 4. Bhimtal Lake Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 4 1 2 3

Explanation

Tectonic - Bhimtal Lake: Formed by the structural movements and crustal faulting within the Kumaon Himalayan range. Crater - Lonar Lake: Created by a meteorite impact in basaltic rock, resulting in a classic circular crater lake in Maharashtra. Glacial - Gangabal Lake: An alpine lake situated at the foothills of Mount Harmukh in Kashmir, formed through glacial erosion and meltwater accumulation. Fluvial - Purbasthali Lake: An oxbow lake in West Bengal formed by the abandoned meander of the Bhagirathi river due to fluvial processes.

98Geography
The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes?
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Answer: (B) 10° N latitude

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is the geographical feature that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. This channel is approximately 150 kilometers wide and is situated precisely along the 10° N latitude. It serves as a major maritime boundary, separating Little Andaman to the north from Car Nicobar to the south, effectively dividing the two distinct volcanic island arcs that comprise the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

99Geography
Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in
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Answer: (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Explanation

The Damanganga Reservoir Project, also known as the Madhuban Dam project, is a multi-purpose irrigation and water supply scheme situated on the Damanganga River. While the dam structure is located near Madhuban on the border of Gujarat and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, the project's extensive network of over 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is specifically designed to provide irrigation to the command areas within Dadra and Nagar Haveli. It is a joint venture between the Government of Gujarat and the Union Territory administrations, aimed at fulfilling the agricultural water requirements of the tribal-dominated regions of the UT and providing industrial and domestic water to Daman and the surrounding areas.

100Economy
Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited : 1. It is designated as a 'Maha Ratna' company under the Ministry of Coal. 2. It is the single largest coal-producing company in the world. 3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Coal India Limited (CIL) is a Maharatna public sector enterprise under the Ministry of Coal, a designation it received in 2011 to provide it with enhanced financial and operational autonomy. CIL is recognized as the single largest coal-producing company in the world, accounting for the vast majority of India's coal output. While it has several subsidiaries operating in different states, the corporate headquarters of Coal India Limited is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, rather than Ranchi. Ranchi serves as the headquarters for one of its subsidiaries, Central Coalfields Limited.

101Polity and Governance
Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India's foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers?
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Answer: (C) J. L. Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru, as India's first Prime Minister and the architect of its foreign policy, placed immense importance on Afro-Asian solidarity to counter the hegemony of colonial powers and the Cold War blocs. He spearheaded the Asian Relations Conference in New Delhi in 1947 and was a driving force behind the 1955 Bandung Conference in Indonesia. This landmark gathering of 29 newly independent states from Africa and Asia promoted economic and cultural cooperation and paved the way for the establishment of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). Nehru believed that the collective voice of these two continents was essential for global peace, decolonization, and the pursuit of an independent foreign policy for the Global South.

102Polity and Governance
The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?
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Answer: (A) The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)

Explanation

The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established in January 1948 by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. Since its inception, the fund has been managed and operated entirely by the Prime Minister's Office (PMO). The Prime Minister serves as the Chairman of the fund and is assisted by officers and staff of the PMO on an honorary basis. The fund is recognized as a Trust under the Income Tax Act and is supported entirely by voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations, receiving no budgetary support from the government. All disbursements are made at the discretion of the Prime Minister to provide immediate relief to families affected by natural calamities, major accidents, or for medical treatment of various diseases.

103History
Which one of the following statements with regard to India's surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct?
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Answer: (C) It was not given any name.

Explanation

The surgical strike carried out by India against terrorist launch pads in Pakistan Occupied Kashmir occurred on September 29, 2016. This operation was executed by the Special Forces of the Indian Army in response to the Uri terror attack. A distinct feature of this mission was that it was not assigned a formal codename or operation name by the Indian Army or the Ministry of Defence, which was confirmed in various official communications following the event. This distinguishes it from other major military actions that are typically designated with names such as Operation Vijay or Operation Meghdoot.

104Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct?
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Answer: (D) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Explanation

According to Section 19 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Instead, it is guided by the principles of natural justice and has the statutory power to regulate its own procedure. This flexibility is intended to ensure the expeditious disposal of environmental cases without the technicalities and delays often associated with formal civil court proceedings. Furthermore, the Tribunal is also not bound by the rules of evidence contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, allowing it to consider a broader range of scientific and environmental data in its decision-making process.

105Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted.

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, which omitted the Right to Property (Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) from the list of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution, was not extended to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Under the special status provided by Article 370 and the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, the right to property continued to be a Fundamental Right for the residents of the State. While the right became a mere legal right under Article 300A for the rest of India, it retained its status as a Fundamental Right in Jammu and Kashmir until the constitutional changes of 2019. Therefore, the assertion that Article 19(1)(f) had been omitted with regard to the State is factually incorrect.

106History
In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor?
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Answer: (D) South India

Explanation

In September 1921, Mahatma Gandhi undertook an extensive tour of South India to promote the Non-Cooperation Movement and the use of Khadi. While traveling through the Madras Presidency, he observed that many poor Indians could not afford the amount of Khadi required for a full set of clothing. On September 22, 1921, in Madurai, Gandhi decided to shave his head and adopt the simple loincloth as his permanent attire. This transformation was a deliberate symbolic gesture intended to bridge the gap between himself and the impoverished masses, ensuring he lived in the same manner as the poorest citizens of the country he sought to lead.

107History
Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of
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Answer: (C) Anglo-Gurkha War

Explanation

The origins of Simla as a strategic hill station are rooted in the Anglo-Gurkha War of 1814–1816. During this conflict, the British East India Company fought the Gurkhas of Nepal for control of the Himalayan foothills. Upon the conclusion of the war and the signing of the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816, the British retained various territories in the hills, including the area where Simla is located. The British identified the site as an ideal location for billeting troops and establishing a military frontier post due to its temperate climate, which was better suited for European soldiers than the heat of the Indian plains. It subsequently served as a vital base for guarding the northern borders and coordinating military campaigns in the region.

108History
Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan that would mean Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere?
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Answer: (B) Sikandar Hayat Khan

Explanation

Sikandar Hayat Khan, the Premier of Punjab and leader of the Unionist Party, was a major proponent of a decentralized, federal India that preserved the unity of provinces like Punjab. Although he was involved in the initial stages of the Lahore Resolution in 1940, he strongly disagreed with the idea of a total communal partition. In a landmark speech before the Punjab Legislative Assembly in March 1941, he explicitly stated his opposition to any scheme that would result in a Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere. He feared that such a division would lead to the partition of Punjab itself and trigger massive communal violence, as it would replace the existing system of inter-communal cooperation with exclusive religious majoritarianism. His vision focused on regional autonomy where different communities could coexist without the creation of separate, sovereign communal states.

109History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Author) A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay B. Sarvepalli Gopal C. David Hardiman D. Gyanendra Pandey List-II (Book) 1. Jawaharlal Nehru : A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947 2. From Plassey to Partition : A History of Modern India 3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Sekhar Bandyopadhyay is the author of From Plassey to Partition: A History of Modern India (2), a widely used textbook that analyzes the transition from the decline of the Mughal Empire to the independence of India.

Sarvepalli Gopal wrote the comprehensive multi-volume work Jawaharlal Nehru: A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947 (1), which serves as a definitive historical account of Nehru's early life and political evolution.

David Hardiman, a noted subaltern historian, is the author of Gandhi in His Time and Ours (4), a critical examination of Gandhi's philosophy and his global influence.

Gyanendra Pandey authored The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934 (3), which investigates the social base and mobilization strategies of the Indian National Congress in the United Provinces during a crucial period of the nationalist struggle.

110Polity and Governance
Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of 'Saubhagya Scheme'. Which one of the following is not among them?
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Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh had approximately 45 lakh unelectrified households when the Saubhagya Scheme was inaugurated in September 2017, placing it among the states that required significant work to achieve universal electrification. It did not belong to the initial group of eight states that had already surpassed the 99 percent electrification mark at the time of the scheme's launch. Through the implementation of the Saubhagya Scheme, Madhya Pradesh accelerated its progress and was officially declared as having achieved 100 percent household electrification in October 2018.

111Polity and Governance
In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of
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Answer: (C) three years

Explanation

India was elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) in October 2018 for a three-year term beginning on January 1, 2019. In the elections held at the UN General Assembly, India secured 188 votes in the Asia-Pacific category, which was the highest number of votes among all candidates. The UNHRC consists of 47 member states elected by the General Assembly, and according to the established rules of the council, all members serve for a period of three years. Members are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms, ensuring a rotation of representation among UN member states.

112Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI): 1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). 2. It has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). Established under the administrative control of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, BPPI oversees the procurement, supply chain, and monitoring of Jan Aushadhi Kendras to provide affordable generic medicines. The organization is registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It was formed by the collaboration of various Central Pharma PSUs, such as Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL) and Hindustan Antibiotics Limited (HAL), to function as a professional body for coordinating the national generic medicine campaign.

113Economy
Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India: It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension/ return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI). Identify the scheme.
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Answer: (B) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a dedicated pension scheme for senior citizens aged 60 years and above, launched to provide social security and financial stability in old age. It protects elderly individuals against future decreases in interest income caused by fluctuating market conditions by offering an assured rate of return on their investment for a period of 10 years. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI) is the exclusive administrator of the scheme. The Government of India guarantees the returns, committing to pay the difference as a subsidy if the actual interest earned by LICI on the deposited funds is lower than the assured rate promised to the subscribers. Participants can choose to receive their pension on a monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, or annual basis depending on the purchase price paid.

114Science and Technology
Who among the following won India's first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina?
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Answer: (C) Jeremy Lalrinmunga

Explanation

Jeremy Lalrinmunga made history at the 2018 Summer Youth Olympics in Buenos Aires, Argentina, by becoming the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in the history of the Youth Olympic Games. Competing in the men's 62 kg weightlifting category, he recorded a combined lift of 274 kg, which included 124 kg in the snatch and 150 kg in the clean and jerk. His performance secured the gold medal and marked a significant breakthrough for India at this international multi-sport event, as the country had not won a gold medal in the previous two editions of the Youth Olympics in 2010 and 2014.

115Science and Technology
E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the
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Answer: (D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Explanation

The E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy was instituted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 1999 to promote and encourage excellence in the field of taxonomy. The award is named in honor of Dr. Edavaleth Kakkat Janaki Ammal, a pioneering Indian botanist and the first Indian woman to obtain a doctorate in botany in the United States. She is best known for her work on sugarcane and the eggplant. The ministry confers these awards annually across three categories: Plant Taxonomy, Animal Taxonomy, and Microbial Taxonomy. Each award consists of a cash prize, a scroll, and a medallion, recognizing researchers whose taxonomic studies significantly contribute to the documentation and conservation of India's biological diversity.

116Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs of military training institute of India and location is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Army Air Defence College : Pune

Explanation

The Army Air Defence College (AADC) is located in Gopalpur-on-Sea in the Ganjam district of Odisha, not in Pune. It serves as the primary training center for the Corps of Army Air Defence, providing specialized training in ground-based air defense systems and tactics. The college was originally part of the School of Artillery in Deolali but was established as an independent training facility at its current location in Odisha in 1989 to provide a dedicated environment for air defense training and live firing exercises.

117Science and Technology
Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park?
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Answer: (A) Canine Distemper Virus

Explanation

In late 2018, the Gir National Park in Gujarat witnessed a significant outbreak that led to the death of over 20 Asiatic lions within a short period. Laboratory investigations conducted by the National Institute of Virology and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute confirmed that the deaths were primarily caused by the Canine Distemper Virus (CDV). This highly contagious viral pathogen affects the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems of various wild and domestic animals. In the Gir ecosystem, the virus was likely transmitted to the lions from feral dogs or other carnivores in the vicinity. The impact of the virus was further exacerbated in some lions by a co-infection of Babesiosis, a tick-borne protozoal disease, leading to high mortality in the concentrated population of the world's only wild Asiatic lions.

118Polity and Governance
Till 2018, which of the following countries have legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis? 1. America 2. Canada 3. Nigeria 4. Uruguay Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Uruguay legalized the recreational use, possession, and cultivation of cannabis at the national level in December 2013 under Law 19.172, becoming the first country in the world to do so. Canada followed by legalizing recreational cannabis nationwide through the Cannabis Act, which officially came into effect on October 17, 2018. Both nations established comprehensive federal legal frameworks for the regulation of the substance for adult use within their respective territories by the end of 2018.

119Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)? 1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in times of need 2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care services 3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to ₹ 5,00,000 per family per year 4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) provides a health cover of ₹ 5,00,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. Beneficiaries can avail free treatment at all public hospitals and empanelled private hospitals across India, as the scheme is portable nationwide. It provides cashless and paperless access to health services at the point of care, significantly reducing out-of-pocket expenditures for the bottom 40 percent of the population. A key feature of PM-JAY is that it covers all pre-existing conditions from the very first day of the policy, ensuring that beneficiaries are not denied treatment for illnesses they had before joining the scheme.

120Polity and Governance
The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by
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Answer: (C) Brazil

Explanation

The 11th BRICS Summit was held on November 13 and 14, 2019, in Brasília, Brazil. Brazil assumed the rotational presidency of the BRICS group (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) for the year 2019, succeeding South Africa, which hosted the 10th summit in 2018. The summit in Brasília focused on the theme BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future, emphasizing cooperation in science, technology, innovation, and the digital economy. As per the established rotation cycle based on the acronym BRICS, Brazil was the designated host country for this annual meeting of the heads of state.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2D
  3. 3A
  4. 4B
  5. 5B
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8D
  9. 9B
  10. 10A
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13C
  14. 14D
  15. 15B
  16. 16B
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24D
  25. 25C
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29D
  30. 30D
  31. 31A
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37C
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42A
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46D
  47. 47C
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51B
  52. 52C
  53. 53D
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56B
  57. 57D
  58. 58D
  59. 59B
  60. 60D
  61. 61A
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66A
  67. 67C
  68. 68D
  69. 69A
  70. 70A
  71. 71C
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75A
  76. 76C
  77. 77B
  78. 78D
  79. 79A
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82A
  83. 83A
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86B
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89A
  90. 90B
  91. 91A
  92. 92B
  93. 93D
  94. 94D
  95. 95B
  96. 96B
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100B
  101. 101C
  102. 102A
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105C
  106. 106D
  107. 107C
  108. 108B
  109. 109B
  110. 110D
  111. 111C
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114C
  115. 115D
  116. 116C
  117. 117A
  118. 118B
  119. 119B
  120. 120C

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