If the magnification produced by a lens is +2 , then the image is:
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Answer: (C) erect, virtual and larger than the object.
Explanation
The magnification m produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the height of the image h' to the height of the object h, given by the formula m = h'/h. A positive sign in magnification indicates that the image is erect relative to the object. For a single lens, an erect image is always virtual. Furthermore, since the numerical value of the magnification is |2|, which is greater than 1, the height of the image is twice the height of the object, meaning the image is enlarged or larger than the object. Such a configuration occurs in a convex lens when the object is placed between the optical center and the principal focus.
2Science and Technology
What is the correct sequence of resistivity of silver, nichrome and glass at room temperature?
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Answer: (A) Silver < Nichrome < Glass
Explanation
Resistivity is a fundamental property of a material that measures its resistance to the flow of electric current. At room temperature, materials are classified into three categories based on this property: conductors, alloys, and insulators. Silver is a pure metal and an excellent conductor, possessing a very low resistivity of approximately 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ Ω · m. Nichrome, which is an alloy of nickel, chromium, and iron, is designed to have a higher resistivity than pure metals to facilitate its use in heating elements, with a value of about 1.1 × 10⁻⁶ Ω · m. Glass is an insulator and lacks free electrons for conduction, resulting in an extremely high resistivity typically ranging from 10¹⁰ to 10¹⁴ Ω · m. Consequently, the correct sequence from lowest to highest resistivity is Silver, followed by Nichrome, and then Glass.
3Science and Technology
At the time of short-circuit, the current in the circuit:
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Answer: (C) increases heavily.
Explanation
According to Ohm's law, the current I flowing through a circuit is determined by the formula I = V / R, where V is the voltage and R is the electrical resistance. A short-circuit occurs when a path of extremely low resistance is created between two points of different potential, often due to damaged insulation or an accidental connection between live and neutral wires. As the resistance R effectively drops toward zero, the current I inversely increases to a very high magnitude. This sudden and heavy increase in current generates excessive heat in the circuit, which can lead to sparks, fires, or the tripping of safety devices like fuses and circuit breakers.
4Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
Explanation
In standard domestic electrical wiring, color-coding is used to differentiate between wires for safety and maintenance. The wire with green insulation is designated as the Earth wire, which is a safety wire connected to a metal plate deep in the earth to provide a low-resistance path for leakage current. The live wire, which carries the high-voltage electric current, is traditionally insulated with red or brown color. Because the green wire is the ground/earth wire and not the live wire, the statement is incorrect.
5Science and Technology
A boy completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 30 s . What will be the displacement at the end of 3 minutes and 45 seconds?
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Answer: (C) 200 m
Explanation
The total time duration is 3 minutes and 45 seconds, which is equivalent to 225 s calculated as (3 × 60) + 45 = 225. The number of rounds completed by the boy is determined by dividing the total time by the time taken for one round: n = 225 s / 30 s = 7.5 rounds.
Displacement is defined as the shortest straight-line distance between the initial and final positions. After completing 7 full rounds, the boy returns to his starting point, resulting in zero displacement for that portion of the motion. The additional 0.5 round (half a circle) means the boy ends up at the point diametrically opposite to his starting position. The straight-line distance between these two points is equal to the diameter of the circular track. Given the diameter is 200 m, the displacement at the end of the specified time is 200 m.
6Science and Technology
What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if the mass of one object is doubled and the distance between them is also doubled?
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Answer: (C) The force would be halved
Explanation
Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation states that the gravitational force F between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers. This relationship is expressed by the formula:
F = G (m₁ m₂)/r²
In this scenario, if the mass of one object is doubled (m₁' = 2m₁) and the distance between them is also doubled (r' = 2r), the new gravitational force Fₙₑᵥᵥ can be calculated by substituting these values into the original equation:
Fₙₑᵥᵥ = G ((2m₁) m₂)/(2r)²
Fₙₑᵥᵥ = G (2 m₁ m₂)/(4 r²)
Fₙₑᵥᵥ = 2/4 (G (m₁ m₂)/r²)
Fₙₑᵥᵥ = 1/2 F
The factor of 2 introduced by doubling the mass is divided by the factor of 4 resulting from squaring the doubled distance. Consequently, the magnitude of the gravitational force becomes exactly half of the original value.
7Science and Technology
The number of moles of oxygen gas used in the complete combustion of 1 mole of glucose is:
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Answer: (C) 6
Explanation
The complete combustion of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) involves its reaction with oxygen (O₂) to produce carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O). The balanced chemical equation for this process is:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O
According to the stoichiometry of this reaction, one mole of glucose requires six moles of oxygen gas for complete oxidation. This is determined by balancing the atoms on both sides of the equation. Glucose contains 6 carbon atoms, which require 6 molecules of CO₂ (containing 12 oxygen atoms), and 12 hydrogen atoms, which require 6 molecules of H₂O (containing 6 oxygen atoms). The total oxygen required on the product side is 18 atoms. Since glucose itself provides 6 oxygen atoms, the remaining 12 atoms must come from 6 moles of diatomic oxygen gas (O₂).
8Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an example of an oxidation reaction?
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Answer: (B) A white substance is formed when an aqueous solution of barium chloride is mixed with sodium sulphate solution
Explanation
The reaction between barium chloride and sodium sulphate is a double displacement reaction, specifically categorized as a precipitation reaction. The chemical equation is:
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
In this process, the barium ions (Ba²⁺) react with sulphate ions (SO₄²⁻) to form an insoluble white precipitate of barium sulphate. Upon examining the oxidation states, Barium remains +2, Sodium remains +1, Chlorine remains -1, and the Sulphur in the sulphate group remains +6. Since there is no exchange of electrons or any change in the oxidation numbers of the constituent elements, the reaction involves no oxidation or reduction components. It is purely an exchange of ions between the two reacting salts in an aqueous medium.
9Science and Technology
Methanoic acid is normally found in:
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Answer: (C) ant stings
Explanation
Methanoic acid, commonly known as formic acid (HCOOH), is the simplest carboxylic acid and occurs naturally in the venom of several insects. It is most famously found in the stings of ants and bees. When an ant bites or stings, it injects methanoic acid into the skin, which results in the characteristic burning sensation, pain, and localized swelling. The name formic acid is actually derived from the Latin word formica, meaning ant, as it was historically obtained by the distillation of ant bodies. It is also found in the stinging hairs of certain plants like the stinging nettle (Urtica dioica).
10Science and Technology
What is the number of moles of ³He in 104 g of helium gas ?
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Answer: (B) 26
Explanation
The number of moles of a substance is determined by the formula n = m/M, where n represents the number of moles, m is the given mass of the substance, and M is its molar mass.
Helium (He) has an atomic mass of approximately 4 u, which means its molar mass is 4 g/mol. Although helium has multiple isotopes, the standard molar mass used in chemical calculations for helium gas is 4 g/mol, corresponding to the most abundant isotope, ⁴He.
Given:
Mass of helium (m) = 104 g
Molar mass of helium (M) = 4 g/mol
By substituting the values into the formula:
n = 104 g / 4 g/mol = 26 moles
The calculation yields 26 moles of helium gas.
11Science and Technology
While burning hydrocarbon fuels, if we see a yellow flame with lots of black smoke, it means that the fuel is :
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Answer: (B) made of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Explanation
Unsaturated hydrocarbons, such as alkenes and alkynes, possess a higher carbon-to-hydrogen ratio than saturated hydrocarbons. When these fuels burn in air, the atmospheric oxygen is usually insufficient to achieve complete combustion of the high carbon content. This leads to incomplete combustion, which produces unburnt carbon particles. These particles glow within the flame, giving it a characteristic yellow appearance, and are subsequently released as black smoke or soot.
12Science and Technology
The number of saturated and unsaturated bonds in cyclohexane are :
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Answer: (C) 18 and 0 respectively.
Explanation
Cyclohexane is a cycloalkane with the molecular formula C₆H₁₂. Its structure consists of six carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal ring, where each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and forms single covalent bonds with two adjacent carbon atoms and two hydrogen atoms. To find the total number of saturated bonds, we count the carbon-carbon (C-C) bonds and the carbon-hydrogen (C-H) bonds. There are 6 C-C single bonds forming the ring and 6 × 2 = 12 C-H single bonds attached to the ring carbons, resulting in a total of 6 + 12 = 18 saturated bonds. Because cyclohexane is a saturated hydrocarbon, it contains no double or triple bonds, meaning the number of unsaturated bonds is 0.
13Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is true when non-metals are dissolved in water ?
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Answer: (B) They produce acidic oxides.
Explanation
Non-metals typically react with oxygen to form covalent oxides that possess acidic properties. When these non-metal oxides are dissolved in water, they undergo a chemical reaction to form acids. For example, sulfur trioxide (SO₃) dissolves in water to produce sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), and phosphorus pentoxide (P₄O₁₀) reacts with water to form phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄). These acids increase the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) in the solution, resulting in an acidic pH. This formation of acidic species is a fundamental chemical property of non-metallic elements.
14Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to genetically modified organisms ?
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Answer: (B) This technique has applications only in plants.
Explanation
Genetic engineering and the creation of genetically modified organisms are not limited to the plant kingdom but are widely applied across bacteria, fungi, and animals. In the field of medicine, transgenic bacteria and yeast are standard tools for the commercial production of human insulin, vaccines, and various therapeutic proteins. Within the animal kingdom, genetic modification has led to the development of transgenic livestock for improved traits, laboratory animals like knockout mice for medical research, and even animals approved for human consumption, such as the AquaAdvantage salmon. The technology is also used in environmental bioremediation where modified microorganisms are used to clean up pollutants. Therefore, the application of this technique is diverse and spans multiple domains of life.
15Science and Technology
Suppose, due to an accident, the delicate lining of the mouth and the oesophagus of a person is injured. In this case, which one of the following tissues will be affected ?
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Answer: (C) Squamous epithelium
Explanation
The lining of the mouth and the esophagus is composed of squamous epithelium. In these regions, the tissue is specifically classified as stratified squamous epithelium, where cells are arranged in multiple layers to provide protection against mechanical stress and abrasion while remaining thin and flat. This delicate lining acts as a barrier and is the outermost cellular layer susceptible to injury when the surface of these organs is damaged. Since the question specifies the delicate lining of these structures, the squamous epithelial tissue is the primary tissue affected.
16Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct about the cell membrane ?
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Answer: (C) It is flexible and enables the cell to engulf many materials.
Explanation
The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, is a dynamic and fluid structure primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer and embedded proteins. This structural composition provides the membrane with significant flexibility, allowing it to bend and fold. This characteristic property enables the cell to perform endocytosis, a process where the membrane invaginates or extends to engulf external materials, such as nutrients or foreign particles, and bring them into the cytoplasm within a vesicle. This is a vital mechanism for many cells, such as an Amoeba, to acquire food from its environment.
17Science and Technology
Plants prepare glucose in the process of :
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Answer: (B) photosynthesis
Explanation
Photosynthesis is the fundamental biochemical process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During this process, plants use chlorophyll to capture sunlight, which provides the energy needed to convert carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil into glucose, a simple sugar. The overall chemical reaction can be represented by the equation 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. The glucose produced serves as a primary energy source for the plant's growth and development, while oxygen is released into the atmosphere as a byproduct. This process occurs within the chloroplasts, specifically in the thylakoid membranes and the stroma, through a series of light-dependent and light-independent reactions.
18Science and Technology
The disease rickets develops in children due to the deficiency of :
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Answer: (B) Vitamin D
Explanation
Vitamin D plays a critical role in the maintenance of calcium and phosphorus homeostasis in the body. It promotes the intestinal absorption of these minerals, which are essential for the proper mineralization of the bone matrix. In children, a deficiency in Vitamin D leads to rickets, a condition characterized by soft and weak bones. This lack of mineralization results in skeletal deformities such as bowed legs, knock knees, and a projected breastbone, as the skeletal structure cannot support the child's weight or growth requirements. Vitamin D is primarily synthesized in the skin upon exposure to ultraviolet B radiation from sunlight and is also found in a limited number of dietary sources like egg yolks and fatty fish.
19Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I(Blood Vessel) List II(Function)
A. Pulmonary artery 1. Carries blood from lungs to heart
B. Capillaries 2. Carries blood to heart muscle
C. Coronary artery 3. Connection between arteries and veins
D. Pulmonary vein 4. Carries blood from heart to lungs
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The pulmonary artery (A-4) is responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. Capillaries (B-3) are microscopic, thin-walled vessels that facilitate the exchange of gases and nutrients by acting as the functional connection between the arterial and venous systems. The coronary artery (C-2) supplies oxygenated blood specifically to the tissues of the heart muscle to maintain its rhythmic contractions. The pulmonary vein (D-1) carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart to be pumped to the rest of the body.
20Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to a greenhouse?
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Answer: (A) The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the Sun can enter into the greenhouse while longer wavelength infrared radiations from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse cannot pass back out through the glass.
Explanation
The operation of a greenhouse is based on the selective transparency of glass to different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation. According to Wien's Displacement Law, λₘₐₓ = b/T, the wavelength of maximum emission is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the source. Because the Sun is extremely hot, it emits radiation primarily in the form of visible light and short-wave infrared radiation. Glass is transparent to these shorter wavelengths, allowing solar energy to enter and heat the plants and soil inside. These interior objects, being at much lower temperatures, re-emit energy as long-wave infrared radiation (thermal radiation). Glass is opaque to this long-wave radiation, trapping the heat within the structure and causing the internal temperature to rise.
21Science and Technology
An object weighs 9 N on the surface of the Earth. What would be its weight, when measured on the surface of a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 9 times that on the surface of the Earth?
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Answer: (C) The weight would become 9 times
Explanation
The weight of an object is the gravitational force acting on it, defined by the formula W = mg, where m is the mass of the object and g is the acceleration due to gravity at its location. While the mass of an object is a constant scalar quantity that does not change with location, weight is directly proportional to the local acceleration due to gravity.
On Earth, the weight is Wₑₐᵣₜₕ = m ⋅ gₑₐᵣₜₕ = 9 N. On the target planet, the acceleration due to gravity is given as gₚₗₐₙₑₜ = 9gₑₐᵣₜₕ. By substituting this into the weight formula, the new weight Wₚₗₐₙₑₜ is calculated as:
Wₚₗₐₙₑₜ = m ⋅ gₚₗₐₙₑₜ = m ⋅ (9gₑₐᵣₜₕ) = 9 ⋅ (m ⋅ gₑₐᵣₜₕ)
Since m ⋅ gₑₐᵣₜₕ is the weight on Earth (9 N), the weight on the planet becomes 9 × 9 N = 81 N. This result is exactly 9 times the original weight measured on the surface of the Earth.
22Science and Technology
The twinkling of a star is due to:
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Answer: (B) atmospheric refraction of starlight.
Explanation
Stars are point sources of light located at immense distances from Earth. As starlight enters the Earth's atmosphere, it undergoes atmospheric refraction due to the varying refractive indices of the different layers of air. The atmosphere is dynamic, with constant changes in temperature and density caused by wind and thermal currents. These fluctuations cause the light to bend continuously in unpredictable ways as it travels towards the observer. Consequently, the apparent position of the star shifts slightly, and the amount of light reaching the eye varies over time. This rapid variation in apparent position and brightness is what we perceive as twinkling. Since planets are closer and appear as extended sources rather than points, the refractive effects from different parts of their disks average out, which is why they generally do not twinkle like stars.
23Science and Technology
A convex lens has a focal length of 15 cm . At what distance should an object be placed in front of the lens to get a real image of the same size of the object?
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Answer: (C) 30 cm
Explanation
For a convex lens to produce a real image that is the same size as the object, the object must be placed at the center of curvature, which is at a distance of 2f from the optical center of the lens. In this position, the magnification m = v/u = -1, indicating that the image is real, inverted, and of equal height to the object.
Given that the focal length f is 15 cm, the required object distance u is calculated as:
u = 2 × f
u = 2 × 15 cm = 30 cm
When the object is placed at 30 cm from the lens, the image is formed at 30 cm on the other side of the lens, satisfying the condition for a real image of the same size.
24Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about biogas is not correct?
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Answer: (B) It is a non-renewable source of energy.
Explanation
Biogas is classified as a renewable source of energy because it is produced from organic materials such as agricultural waste, animal dung, municipal waste, and plant matter. These biological raw materials are naturally replenished through ongoing ecological and agricultural processes, allowing for a continuous and sustainable supply. Unlike fossil fuels, which are finite and take millions of years to form, biogas is part of the short-term carbon cycle and can be generated indefinitely as long as organic waste is available.
25Science and Technology
Which of the following mineral acids is found in human stomach?
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Answer: (A) Hydrochloric acid
Explanation
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong mineral acid produced by the parietal cells of the gastric glands in the stomach lining. It is a critical component of gastric juice, maintaining the stomach's pH at a highly acidic level, typically between 1.5 and 3.5. This acidity is essential for the conversion of the inactive proenzyme pepsinogen into the active enzyme pepsin, which initiates protein digestion. Furthermore, hydrochloric acid serves a protective role by destroying most bacteria and other microorganisms that enter the digestive tract along with food and water.
26Science and Technology
Which one of the following living organisms gives litmus?
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Answer: (C) Lichen
Explanation
Litmus is a natural dye and one of the oldest forms of pH indicators, primarily extracted from various species of lichens such as Roccella tinctoria and Lecanora tartarea. Lichens are complex life forms resulting from a symbiotic partnership between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacteria. The coloring matter is obtained by treating the lichen extracts with ammonia, potash, and lime in the presence of air. In laboratory settings, litmus is used to distinguish between acidic and basic solutions, as it turns red in acidic conditions (pH below 4.5) and blue in alkaline conditions (pH above 8.3).
27Geography
Which one of the following is the main reason of acid rains?
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Answer: (A) Dissolution of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in rain
Explanation
Acid rain is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), which are released during the combustion of fossil fuels in power plants, industrial facilities, and internal combustion engines. Once these gases enter the atmosphere, they react with water vapor, oxygen, and other trace chemicals to form sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃). When these acidic compounds dissolve in rainwater, they lower its pH level significantly below the natural equilibrium of 5.6. While normal rain is slightly acidic due to the dissolution of atmospheric carbon dioxide forming weak carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), the presence of dissolved sulphur and nitrogen oxides results in much stronger mineral acids, which define the phenomenon of acid rain.
28Science and Technology
Mutation in a virus is caused due to a change in its:
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Answer: (B) genetic material.
Explanation
A mutation is defined as a permanent alteration in the nucleotide sequence of the genome of an organism or virus. In the case of viruses, the genetic material consists of either DNA or RNA, which carries the instructions for replication and the production of viral proteins. During the replication process within a host cell, errors often occur when copying this viral genome. These changes in the genetic code—whether they are substitutions, deletions, or insertions of nucleotides—modify the viral blueprint. Because the genetic material dictates all structural and functional characteristics of the virus, any modification to this sequence constitutes a mutation, which can potentially change the virus's behavior, transmissibility, or resistance to vaccines and treatments.
29Science and Technology
Yeast, which is used to make bread, belongs to the group:
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Answer: (B) Fungi
Explanation
Yeast is a eukaryotic, single-celled microorganism that belongs to the kingdom Fungi. Unlike multicelluar fungi such as mushrooms or molds, yeasts exist primarily as individual cells, though they share the fundamental characteristics of the fungal kingdom, including a heterotrophic mode of nutrition and cell walls composed of chitin. Species such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are essential in baking and brewing because they perform fermentation, converting sugars into carbon dioxide and ethanol. This biological process is what causes bread dough to rise, making yeast a critical component in food production.
30Science and Technology
Hyphae are:
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Answer: (B) thin threads formed by many fungi.
Explanation
Hyphae are the tubular, thread-like filaments that make up the mycelium, or vegetative body, of most fungi. These microscopic structures grow by extending at their tips and branching out to create an expansive network. This morphology is optimized for the absorption of nutrients, as the high surface-area-to-volume ratio allows for the efficient secretion of extracellular enzymes and the subsequent uptake of decomposed organic matter from the surrounding substrate. The structural integrity of these threads is maintained by a rigid cell wall primarily composed of chitin.
31Geography
Which one of the following is the first urban settlement in the world to reach a population size of one million (million-plus city)?
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Answer: (A) London
Explanation
London became the first urban settlement in the world to reach a population of one million people around the year 1810. This milestone was a direct consequence of the Industrial Revolution, which began in Great Britain and led to significant advancements in production, trade, and transport. The city served as the heart of the British Empire and a global hub for commerce and finance, attracting a massive influx of people from rural areas and other regions seeking employment in its expanding industries and services. By 1800, London was already the most populous city in Europe, and its continued growth throughout the early 19th century set the precedent for the modern phenomenon of the million-plus city.
32Geography
Which one of the following climatic types (Köppen's Scheme) is best suited to describe the climate of the western fringe of Rajasthan?
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Answer: (C) Bwhw
Explanation
The western fringe of Rajasthan is classified as Bwhw under Köppen's climatic scheme, which represents a Hot Desert climate. In this nomenclature, the capital letter B denotes an arid climate where potential evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation. The second capital letter W signifies a desert (Wüste) environment. The lowercase h indicates that the climate is hot, with a mean annual temperature exceeding 18°C, and the lowercase w indicates that the dry season occurs during the winter months. This region, which includes the Thar Desert and districts such as Jaisalmer, Bikaner, and western Barmer, is characterized by extremely low and erratic rainfall, high summer temperatures, and sparse xerophytic vegetation, all of which are defining traits of the Bwhw type.
33Geography
Where are the Bermuda Islands located?
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Answer: (B) North Atlantic Ocean
Explanation
Bermuda is a British Overseas Territory located in the North Atlantic Ocean. It consists of an archipelago situated approximately 1,035 kilometers east-southeast of Cape Hatteras, North Carolina, and about 1,236 kilometers south of Halifax, Nova Scotia. Geographically, it is positioned on the western edge of the Sargasso Sea and is distinct from the Caribbean, lying significantly further north than the West Indies. The islands are formed on the summit of a volcanic mountain rising from the ocean floor, which has been capped by a layer of marine limestone and coral.
34Geography
Which one of the following States/Union Territories has the highest percentage of forest area to the total geographical area?
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Answer: (B) Lakshadweep
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, which was the latest data available in 2022, Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its total geographical area at 90.33 percent. The Forest Survey of India (FSI) defines forest cover as all land with a tree canopy density of more than 10 percent and an area of more than one hectare, regardless of the legal status of the land. While several North-Eastern states like Mizoram also have very high proportions of forest cover, Lakshadweep remains the leading administrative unit in India in terms of percentage area under forest.
35Economy
In India, the period of steady population growth refers to the decade(s) of :
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Answer: (C) 1921-1951
Explanation
The period from 1921 to 1951 is defined as the era of steady population growth in India. This phase followed the Year of Great Divide in 1921, which marked a transition from a period of stagnant growth to one of consistent increase. During these three decades, improvements in public health measures, sanitation, and famine relief led to a significant decline in the crude death rate. However, because the birth rate remained high, the natural increase in population became steady and positive. This period is distinct from the subsequent phase of population explosion, as the growth rates, while constant, were relatively moderate compared to the post-independence surge.
36Science and Technology
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for :
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Answer: (B) Geothermal energy.
Explanation
Manikaran is located in the Parvati Valley of the Kullu district in Himachal Pradesh and is famous for its natural hot springs. These springs are a significant source of geothermal energy, which is the thermal energy generated and stored within the Earth's crust. The water at Manikaran emerges at high temperatures, often reaching up to 96°C, due to the geothermal gradient and the presence of deep-seated faults that allow meteoric water to circulate deep into the Earth and return to the surface. Because of this high thermal potential, the site was selected for an experimental geothermal power plant by the Geological Survey of India to demonstrate the feasibility of harnessing heat from the Earth for power generation and other direct-use applications.
37Economy
Who among the following, first mooted the idea of deficit financing ?
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Answer: (C) John Maynard Keynes
Explanation
John Maynard Keynes revolutionized economic thought during the Great Depression by challenging the classical belief in self-correcting markets. In his 1936 work, The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money, he argued that during periods of low private demand and high unemployment, the government should deliberately incur a budget deficit to increase aggregate demand. This approach, known as compensatory fiscal policy or deficit financing, suggests that increased public spending funded by borrowing can stimulate economic activity, create jobs, and lead to a recovery. Keynes posited that such intervention is necessary when an economy is stuck in a liquidity trap or a recessionary gap, as the multiplier effect of government spending helps restore full employment.
38Geography
Which of the following is/are the function(s) of environment ?
1. Supplying resources
2. Sustaining life
3. Providing aesthetic services
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The environment performs four vital functions necessary for the existence and development of life and economic activity. First, it supplies resources, which include both renewable resources like trees and fish, and non-renewable resources like fossil fuels and minerals. Second, it sustains life by providing essential ecological services, including genetic and biological diversity, and maintaining the quality of air, water, and soil necessary for survival. Third, it provides aesthetic services, which encompass the recreational and psychological benefits derived from natural beauty, landscapes, and scenery. Additionally, the environment functions to assimilate waste generated by production and consumption activities. Because the statements regarding supplying resources, sustaining life, and providing aesthetic services all describe recognized functions of the environment, they are collectively correct.
39Economy
Who among the following formulated the concept of poverty as a measurable development indicator in the Indian subcontinent ?
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Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, was the first to conceptualize and quantify poverty as a measurable development indicator in the Indian subcontinent. In his seminal work, Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, he sought to demonstrate the economic impact of colonial rule by calculating the national income and the minimum subsistence requirements of the population. He pioneered the concept of a poverty line by using the jail cost of living as a proxy for the minimum consumption needs of an individual. By determining the cost of a basic diet consisting of items like rice or flour, dal, ghee, and salt, he established a numerical benchmark to identify those living in absolute poverty. This methodology allowed him to provide a statistical basis for his Drain of Wealth theory, making poverty a central metric in Indian economic discourse.
40Economy
Which one of the following terms denotes the inputs in terms of tools, machines, buildings, raw materials and money in hand required at any stage of production ?
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Answer: (C) Physical capital
Explanation
Physical capital represents the variety of inputs required at every stage during the production of goods and services. It is a primary factor of production and is categorized into two distinct types. The first type is fixed capital, which includes durable assets like tools, machines, and buildings that can be used in the production process over many years. The second type is working capital, which consists of raw materials and money in hand that are essential for day-to-day operations and are used up during production. Since the question includes both durable equipment and liquid assets required for production, physical capital is the comprehensive term that denotes all these inputs.
41Economy
Which one of the following inputs is required in less quantity in case of non-farming activities?
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Answer: (A) Land
Explanation
In economic structures typical of rural areas, land is the most critical and extensively used factor of production for farming. Agriculture is inherently land-intensive, requiring vast spatial areas to achieve economies of scale. Conversely, non-farming activities such as small-scale manufacturing units, retail shops, and repair services can be operated from a single room or a small plot. While these enterprises require labour, capital investment for machinery or stock, and raw materials, the physical land footprint is negligible compared to the large areas required for crop cultivation. Consequently, land is the input required in the smallest quantity for non-farming sectors.
42Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is correct?
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Answer: (D) This is implemented only in rural areas of India.
Explanation
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005, was enacted with the specific objective of enhancing livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. As defined by the Act's preamble and its operational guidelines, the scheme's jurisdiction is strictly limited to rural districts and rural areas of India. The implementation mechanism relies on Gram Panchayats for planning and executing works, reinforcing its status as a program dedicated exclusively to the rural workforce and rural infrastructure development.
43Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) Health Emergency
Explanation
The Constitution of India, under Part XVIII, specifically provides for only three types of emergencies through Articles 352 to 360. Article 352 deals with National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Article 356 provides for the imposition of President Rule in a State, often referred to as a State Emergency, in case of the failure of constitutional machinery. Article 360 provides for a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. There is no provision or mention of a Health Emergency within the constitutional framework. Public health crises or pandemics are typically managed using statutory laws such as the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897, and the Disaster Management Act, 2005, rather than through a specific constitutional emergency power.
44Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a provision related to a Money Bill?
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Answer: (C) Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose
Explanation
Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines the scope of a Money Bill. While Article 110(1) lists the specific matters that qualify a bill as a Money Bill, Article 110(2) explicitly mentions certain exclusions. According to this clause, a bill is not deemed to be a Money Bill simply because it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or services rendered. Additionally, any bill providing for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes is excluded from the definition of a Money Bill. Therefore, matters involving fines or local taxation for local purposes do not constitute a Money Bill.
45Economy
Which one of the following items is not covered under GST?
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Answer: (D) Petrol
Explanation
Petrol is specifically excluded from the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework under current constitutional provisions. Article 279A(5) of the Constitution of India provides that the GST Council shall determine the date on which GST is to be levied on five specific petroleum products: petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit (commonly known as petrol), natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel. Until the GST Council makes a formal recommendation to include these items, they remain outside the GST net and are subject to the previous tax regime. This means petrol is currently taxed through Central Excise Duty levied by the Union Government and Value Added Tax (VAT) levied by individual State Governments, which allows both levels of government to retain autonomy over fuel tax revenues.
46Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Committee on Estimates is an ad hoc committee of the Parliament.
2. Committee on Railway Convention is a standing committee of the Parliament.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Committee on Estimates is a permanent financial standing committee of the Parliament, first established in 1950. It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha, who are elected annually from amongst its members. As it is a permanent body with a continuous existence, it is classified as a standing committee. The Railway Convention Committee is an ad hoc committee of the Parliament. It is constituted from time to time, usually after the constitution of a new Lok Sabha, based on a resolution adopted by the Lok Sabha and concurred in by the Rajya Sabha. Its primary function is to review the rate of dividend payable by the Railways to the General Revenues and suggest other financial adjustments. It does not have the permanent status associated with standing committees.
47Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an Indian form of Socialism?
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Answer: (B) Radical Socialism
Explanation
Radical socialism is a form of revolutionary socialism that advocates for the total nationalization of all means of production and the forceful abolition of private property, typically through state coercion or non-democratic upheaval. This model is not an Indian form of socialism because the Indian socialist tradition is fundamentally built upon democratic and evolutionary principles. As interpreted by the Supreme Court and defined in the Preamble of the Constitution, Indian socialism is democratic socialism, which seeks to achieve social justice, end poverty, and reduce inequality through parliamentary legislation and a mixed economy. This approach emphasizes a synthesis of Marxist and Gandhian ideologies, prioritizing social welfare while maintaining individual liberties and democratic pluralism, which stands in direct contrast to the revolutionary and authoritarian characteristics of radical socialism.
48Economy
Which one of the following best describes BRICS?
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Answer: (C) A group of five major emerging economies
Explanation
BRICS is an acronym representing five of the world's leading emerging market economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The grouping was originally conceived to highlight the collective economic potential of these nations, which are characterized by rapid economic growth, significant natural resources, large populations, and increasing influence in global affairs. Collectively, these five nations represent about 42 percent of the global population, 23 percent of the global GDP, and approximately 18 percent of global trade. The association focuses on enhancing cooperation in areas such as trade, finance, and sustainable development, while advocating for a more representative and multipolar international financial and political architecture.
49Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian Federalism?
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Answer: (A) The federating units consented to form a union
Explanation
The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement or consent among the federating units, a point explicitly clarified by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly. Unlike the United States, where independent states came together through a compact to form a federation, the Indian states were organized for administrative convenience and have no right to secede from the Union. This is why Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a Union of States rather than a Federation of States, signifying that the Union is indestructible and did not emerge from a voluntary contractual arrangement between pre-existing sovereign entities.
50Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about sculptures at Sanchi is/are correct?
1. In some sculptures there is representation of Shalabhanjika.
2. The figure of Shalabhanjika is represented by a woman surrounded by lotuses and elephants.
3. The Shalabhanjika motif was not directly inspired by Buddhist ideas.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The sculptures at the Sanchi Stupa include depictions of the Shalabhanjika, most famously on the brackets of the toranas or gateways. The Shalabhanjika is portrayed as a woman standing near or holding the branch of a tree, which was a popular folk motif representing fertility and prosperity. According to local traditions of the time, it was believed that the touch of such a woman could cause trees to blossom and bear fruit. This motif was not directly inspired by Buddhist religious ideas or scriptures but was an auspicious secular symbol integrated into the monument's design to reflect prevailing cultural beliefs. The iconography involving a woman surrounded by lotuses and elephants represents Gajalakshmi, a distinct motif from the Shalabhanjika. Thus, the presence of Shalabhanjika at Sanchi and its origins in non-Buddhist folk traditions make statements 1 and 3 correct.
51History
In which one of the following years was the first telegraphic connection established between Europe and India?
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Answer: (C) 1865
Explanation
The first telegraphic connection between Europe and India was established in 1865. This milestone in global communications was achieved through a combination of overland telegraph lines across Europe and the Ottoman Empire, linked to a submarine cable laid through the Persian Gulf to Karachi. The project was managed by the Indo-European Telegraph Department of the British government. This connection drastically reduced the time required for communication between London and Calcutta from several weeks by sea to just a few hours or days, significantly enhancing the administrative and commercial coordination of the British Empire.
52History
Who among the following was the founder of the Virashaiva Movement in Karnataka?
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Answer: (A) Basavanna
Explanation
Basavanna was a 12th-century philosopher, statesman, and social reformer who pioneered the Virashaiva movement in Karnataka. He challenged the existing social order by preaching against the caste system and ritualistic practices, advocating instead for a direct, personal relationship with Lord Shiva. He established the Anubhava Mantapa, an academy of mystics and philosophers, which served as a platform for discussing spiritual and social issues. His teachings were disseminated through Vachanas, which are simple poetic compositions in Kannada that emphasized social equality and the dignity of labor (Kayaka). Under his leadership, the Virashaiva tradition emphasized the wearing of the Ishtalinga, symbolizing a constant connection with the divine.
53History
The ruins of Hampi were brought to light by which of the following British officers of the East India Company?
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Answer: (A) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
Explanation
Colonel Colin Mackenzie, an engineer and antiquarian serving in the East India Company, is credited with bringing the ruins of Hampi to light in 1800. He conducted the first systematic topographical survey of the site and prepared its initial survey map. His work was based on personal observations supplemented by the oral traditions and memories of the priests of the Virupaksha temple and the shrine of Pampadevi. This pioneering effort laid the groundwork for the future historical reconstruction of the Vijayanagara Empire. Mackenzie's career culminated in his appointment as the first Surveyor General of India in 1815, where he continued his extensive collection of manuscripts and local histories across Southern India.
54Art and Culture
Which one of the following works was composed by Krishnadevaraya on statecraft in Telugu?
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Answer: (A) Amuktamalyada
Explanation
Krishnadevaraya, the prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, composed the epic poem Amuktamalyada in Telugu. While the primary narrative follows the story of Andal, one of the Alwar saints, the work is highly significant for its extensive section on statecraft known as Rajaneeti. In the fourth canto of the poem, Krishnadevaraya provides detailed instructions on governance, emphasizing the king duty toward his subjects, the importance of a strong judicial system, the management of the treasury, and the strategic defense of the kingdom. This makes Amuktamalyada a key literary source for understanding the administrative ideals and political philosophy of the Vijayanagara period.
55Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Soil Type) (Salient Characteristic)
A. Entisols 1. Soils having weakly or quickly developed horizons
B. Inceptisols 2. Weakly developed soils with no horizons
C. Histosols 3. These soils are very old and highly weathered
D. Oxisols 4. These soils have very high quantity of organic matter in the upper layers
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Entisols are defined as soils of recent origin that lack any diagnostic horizons, representing the most basic stage of soil development where the parent material has undergone minimal change.
Inceptisols are soils that exhibit the beginning or inception of soil profile development; they show weakly developed horizons that are more advanced than those of Entisols but lack the complexity of more mature soil orders.
Histosols are organic soils that form in environments where the rate of accumulation of organic matter exceeds the rate of decomposition, typically in wetlands, resulting in very high organic content in the upper layers.
Oxisols are the most highly weathered and oldest soils in the USDA soil taxonomy, primarily found in tropical and subtropical regions where intense leaching has removed most minerals, leaving behind a residue of iron and aluminum oxides.
56Geography
A peripediment in a desert or semi-desert region is also known as:
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Answer: (C) Bajada
Explanation
In arid and semi-arid geomorphology, a peripediment is the depositional landform that develops at the foot of a pediment. It is synonymous with a bajada, which is formed by the lateral coalescence of multiple alluvial fans along a mountain front. While the pediment is a gently sloping erosional surface carved into bedrock, the peripediment or bajada represents the accumulation of detritus and sediment transported from the mountain slopes and across the pediment. This process creates a continuous, sloping apron of alluvium that connects the highland erosion zones to the central basin floor.
57Geography
Individual lava flows are normally only a few feet thick, but over a long period of time, repeated flows may build up a volcano. Such volcanoes are termed as:
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Answer: (A) Shield volcano.
Explanation
Shield volcanoes are constructed primarily from the accumulation of numerous basaltic lava flows characterized by low viscosity. This high fluidity allows the lava to travel long distances from the central vent or flank fissures and spread out in thin layers, typically ranging from a few feet to several meters in thickness. Over geological time scales, thousands of these successive, relatively thin flows build a massive, broad volcanic landform with gently sloping sides, resembling a warrior's shield laid on the ground. The Hawaiian Islands, including Mauna Loa, are the most prominent examples of shield volcanoes formed by this specific process of repeated, fluid lava deposition.
58Geography
Isohalines are lines joining equal:
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Answer: (D) salinity.
Explanation
The term isohaline is derived from the Greek words isos, meaning equal, and hals, meaning salt. In oceanography and physical geography, isohalines are lines drawn on a map or chart that connect points having the same salinity or salt concentration in the ocean or other bodies of water. Salinity is generally expressed in parts per thousand (ppt) or Practical Salinity Units (PSU). These lines are crucial for mapping the distribution of salt content across different marine regions, which helps in identifying water masses, understanding ocean currents, and analyzing the impacts of evaporation, precipitation, and freshwater runoff from rivers.
59Economy
Which one of the following would be considered as Foreign Direct Investment?
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Answer: (D) A foreign entity setting up an educational institution in India
Explanation
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is defined as an investment made by a foreign entity or individual to establish a lasting interest and acquire significant control or management influence over an enterprise in another country. This typically involves setting up a new business operation, such as a factory, office, or educational institution, known as greenfield investment, or through the acquisition of existing assets. Unlike portfolio investments which involve passive ownership of financial assets on stock exchanges, setting up an educational institution involves a long-term commitment of capital, the creation of physical infrastructure, and direct involvement in the day-to-day operations and governance of the entity. In India, 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route for the education sector, allowing foreign entities to establish and operate institutions directly.
60Economy
Which one of the following does not influence quantity demanded for a good?
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Answer: (D) Prices of inputs into production of the good
Explanation
Prices of inputs into production, such as wages, raw materials, and energy costs, are determinants of supply rather than demand. In microeconomic theory, the demand for a good is a function of variables that affect a consumer's willingness and ability to purchase, typically expressed as Q_d = f(P, Pₛ, P꜀, Y, T), where P is the good's own price, Pₛ and P꜀ are the prices of substitute and complementary goods, Y is consumer income, and T represents tastes and preferences. Input prices determine the cost of production and influence the producer's side of the market. While a change in input prices shifts the supply curve and may eventually lead to a change in the equilibrium price and quantity, they are not direct parameters in the demand function and do not influence the consumer's underlying demand behavior.
61Economy
Infant mortality ratio of which one of the following countries is comparable to that of India?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is defined as the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births. According to data available through 2022, including reports from the Sample Registration System (SRS) and international health organizations, India's IMR was approximately 28 per 1,000 live births. In comparison, the countries listed in the other options—China, the United States, and Sri Lanka—maintained significantly lower IMRs, generally falling between 5 and 7 per 1,000 live births. Sri Lanka, while a regional neighbor, has historically maintained health indicators that are much stronger than India's. Because the IMR of India is nearly four times higher than the rates found in China, the United States, or Sri Lanka, none of these countries provide a comparable statistical match for India's infant mortality figures.
62Economy
Which of the following factors signify monopolistic competition?
1. Differentiated products
2. Large number of buyers and sellers
3. Barriers to entry
4. Homogeneous products
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of buyers and sellers, which ensures that no single firm can significantly influence the market price through its actions alone. A fundamental signify of this market type is product differentiation, where firms offer goods or services that are similar but not identical. This differentiation is achieved through variations in branding, quality, design, or location, giving each firm a limited degree of monopoly power over its specific product version. Because the products are substitutes rather than identical, firms compete by distinguishing their offerings from those of their rivals, often relying on advertising and marketing to maintain consumer loyalty. In the long run, this structure also assumes relatively easy entry and exit, allowing the market to remain competitive despite the individualized nature of the products.
63Polity and Governance
Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
3. To acquire and dispose property
4. To move freely throughout the territory of India
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution guarantees several fundamental freedoms to citizens. These include the freedom of speech and expression under 19(1)(a), the right to assemble peaceably and without arms under 19(1)(b), and the right to move freely throughout the territory of India under 19(1)(d). Originally, Article 19(1)(f) protected the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property; however, this specific right was omitted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 and was instead shifted to Article 300A as a legal right. As a result, the amended Article 19(1) currently consists of six freedoms, of which the rights to speech, assembly, and movement are integral parts.
64Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Election Commission is not correct?
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Answer: (B) An Election Commissioner can be removed from his office without the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Explanation
Under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India, while the President has the power to appoint Election Commissioners, a specific constitutional safeguard exists regarding their removal. The proviso to this article states that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This provision is designed to protect the independence of the Election Commissioners from arbitrary executive action and ensures that the Chief Election Commissioner’s input is a mandatory prerequisite for their removal from office.
65Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the Preamble to the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Equality of status and equality of opportunity find mention in the Preamble.
2. The expression 'unity and integrity of the Nation' was not there in the Preamble since the beginning.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly mentions equality of status and of opportunity as one of its core objectives for all citizens. This ensures the removal of barriers based on birth or status and provides a level playing field for individual development. The expression unity and integrity of the Nation was not present in the original Preamble adopted in 1949. The word integrity was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which modified the existing phrase unity of the Nation. This amendment also introduced the terms socialist and secular to the Preamble, reflecting the evolving priorities of the Indian state regarding national cohesion and social structure.
66Polity and Governance
In Part-IVA of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not mentioned as a duty of every citizen of India?
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Answer: (C) To value and preserve a unitary national culture
Explanation
Article 51A(f) of the Constitution of India specifies that it shall be the duty of every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. The term composite culture refers to the syncretic and pluralistic nature of Indian civilization, which has evolved through the fusion of various religious, linguistic, and regional traditions. It emphasizes the co-existence of diverse cultural elements rather than a single, monolithic, or unitary identity. Therefore, the requirement to preserve a unitary national culture is not part of the Fundamental Duties listed in Part-IVA, as the constitutional mandate specifically recognizes and protects the diversity inherent in the nation's heritage.
67History
Which of the following terms were used in the Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period to denote a peasant?
1. Raiyat
2. Asami
3. Muzarian
4. Majur
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Indo-Persian sources from the Mughal era, such as the Ain-i-Akbari and various revenue records, categorized the rural population using specific terminology. The term Raiyat, or its plural form riaya, was the most common designation for peasants and subjects of the state. Muzarian was a Persian term specifically denoting a cultivator or tiller of the soil. In the context of village administration and revenue registers, the term Asami was frequently used to refer to individual cultivators or land-holding peasants who were responsible for paying taxes. These three terms are often found in historical texts to describe the same social and economic class of agriculturalists. The term Majur, however, was generally applied to laborers or wage earners who did not have the same status or land-holding relationship as the peasants designated by the other terms.
68History
Who among the following pioneering Bengali women serialised her autobiography Amar Katha between 1910 and 1913?
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Answer: (A) Binodini Dasi
Explanation
Binodini Dasi, a pioneering actress of the 19th-century Bengali stage often referred to as Nati Binodini, wrote her autobiography titled Amar Katha (My Story). The work was serialized in various installments between 1910 and 1913 before being published as a book. In this memoir, she provides a candid and poignant account of her life, detailing her journey from a marginalized background to becoming a celebrated performer, the betrayals she faced from the theater establishment, and the social stigmas attached to her profession. Her writing is considered a landmark in Bengali literature as one of the first autobiographical accounts by a professional woman from the subaltern classes.
69History
Arrange the following events chronologically starting from the earliest:
1. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Foundation of the Satyagraha Sabha
4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
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Answer: (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917 as Mahatma Gandhi's first major civil disobedience movement in India, focusing on the plight of indigo farmers. This was followed by the Ahmedabad Mill Strike in February and March 1918, where Gandhi intervened in a dispute between mill owners and workers over the plague bonus, marking his first hunger strike. In early 1919, Gandhi formed the Satyagraha Sabha in February to organize nationwide resistance against the restrictive Rowlatt Act. This movement eventually led to widespread protests, culminating in the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on 13 April 1919, when British troops opened fire on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar. Therefore, the chronological order is 1917, 1918, February 1919, and April 1919.
70History
The year 1916 is important in Indian history for:
1. Lucknow Session of the Congress
2. Congress - League Pact
3. Formation of Home Rule League
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The year 1916 was a landmark period in the Indian independence movement characterized by unprecedented political unity. The Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress, presided over by Ambica Charan Mazumdar, facilitated the reunion of the Moderates and the Extremists who had been divided since the Surat Split of 1907. This session also saw the formalization of the Congress-League Pact, popularly known as the Lucknow Pact, where the Congress and the All-India Muslim League agreed on a common political program and joint demands for constitutional reforms. Furthermore, 1916 marked the inception of the Home Rule League movement, with Bal Gangadhar Tilak launching his league in April at Belgaum and Annie Besant establishing her league in September at Madras, both aimed at attaining self-government for India through constitutional agitation.
71Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Railway Zone) (Headquarters)
A. South-Eastern 1. Secunderabad
B. South-Central 2. Kolkata
C. South-Western 3. Bilaspur
D. South-East-Central 4. Hubli
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4
Explanation
South-Eastern Railway (A) is matched with Kolkata (2) because its zonal headquarters is based in Garden Reach. South-Central Railway (B) is headquartered at Secunderabad (1), which serves as its primary administrative center. South-Western Railway (C) has its headquarters in Hubli (4), while South-East-Central Railway (D) is headquartered in Bilaspur (3). The sequence 2-1-4-3 corresponds to the pairings for the four railway zones.
72Geography
Ten Degree Channel is found between:
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Answer: (C) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar.
Explanation
The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime passage that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. It is approximately 150 kilometers wide and lies along the 10° N parallel of latitude, which gives the channel its name. Specifically, it is located between Little Andaman, the southernmost island of the Andaman group, and Car Nicobar, the northernmost island of the Nicobar group. This channel serves as a major geographical divider between the two island chains and is a critical navigation route for ships traveling in the Indian Ocean.
73Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Waterfall) (State)
A. Barkana 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Dudhsagar 2. Odisha
C. Duduma 3. Karnataka
D. Kiliyur 4. Goa
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2
Explanation
Barkana Falls is located on the Seetha River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka.
Dudhsagar Falls is situated on the Mandovi River in the state of Goa near the border with Karnataka.
Duduma Falls is located on the Machkund River in the Koraput district of Odisha.
Kiliyur Falls is situated in the Shevaroy Hills of the Salem district in Tamil Nadu.
74Geography
Which one of the following is not a resultant of the El Nino effect?
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Answer: (B) Flow of the South-East Trade Winds towards the Indian Ocean
Explanation
El Niño is characterized by a significant weakening or reversal of the South-East Trade winds due to changes in atmospheric pressure across the Pacific Ocean. Under normal climatic conditions, known as the Walker Circulation, these trade winds blow strongly from the high-pressure zone in the eastern Pacific towards the low-pressure zone in the western Pacific and the Indian Ocean. During an El Niño event, the pressure over the Indian Ocean and the western Pacific rises while the pressure over the eastern Pacific falls. This reduction in the pressure gradient causes the South-East Trade winds to slacken or even reverse direction to become westerlies. Consequently, the sustained flow of trade winds towards the Indian Ocean is a feature of normal years or La Niña conditions and is diminished or disrupted, rather than produced, by the El Niño effect.
75Polity and Governance
According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of all Members of Parliament and all Members of all State Legislatures.
Explanation
Article 54 of the Constitution of India specifies that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting only of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. The statement is incorrect because it uses the term all members, which would erroneously include nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies, as well as members of State Legislative Councils (MLCs) in bicameral states, none of whom are permitted to vote in the Presidential election. Under the constitutional framework, nominated members and members of the upper house of state legislatures are strictly excluded from the electoral college to maintain the federal character and democratic legitimacy of the office.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India requires the Prime Minister of India to furnish information related to decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President of India?
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Answer: (A) Article 78
Explanation
Article 78 of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President. It establishes the Prime Minister as the primary channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the President. Specifically, Article 78(a) mandates that the Prime Minister must communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President. Additionally, Article 78(b) requires the Prime Minister to furnish any information relating to such administrative affairs or legislative proposals that the President may call for. This ensures the President is kept informed of the executive actions and legislative intent of the government.
77Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the House of People.
Explanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, introduced Article 75(1A) to the Constitution of India. This article specifies that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent (15%) of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The ten percent (10%) limit mentioned is factually incorrect for the Union Government; such a limit is only applicable to the Council of Ministers for the National Capital Territory of Delhi under Article 239AA of the Constitution.
78Polity and Governance
The issue, 'whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is violative of Articles 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India' was decided in which one of the following cases?
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Answer: (D) Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others
Explanation
The Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others (2009) was a landmark decision by the Delhi High Court which held that Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, to the extent it criminalized consensual sexual acts between adults in private, was unconstitutional. The court ruled that the section violated Article 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) because the right to privacy is an integral part of personal liberty. It also found the provision violative of Article 14 (Right to Equality) and Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination) as it unfairly targeted a specific group based on their sexual orientation, which the court interpreted as being included under the ground of sex in Article 15. This case was the first to successfully challenge the colonial-era law on these specific constitutional grounds.
79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following writs means 'you may have the body'?
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Answer: (A) Habeas Corpus
Explanation
The term Habeas Corpus is a Latin expression that literally translates to you may have the body. It is a fundamental legal instrument or writ used by the judiciary to protect an individuals personal liberty against unlawful or arbitrary detention by the state or a private entity. When this writ is issued, the court directs the person or authority who has detained another to produce the body of the prisoner before the court so that the legal grounds for the detention can be examined. If the court determines that the detention is illegal, unauthorized, or lacks sufficient cause, it commands the immediate release of the person. In the Indian legal system, the power to issue this writ is vested in the Supreme Court under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution.
80History
Who among the following belonged to Serampore Mission?
1. William Carey
2. Joshua Marshman
3. William Ward
4. David Hare
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Serampore Mission was established in 1800 at Serampore by the Baptist Missionary Society. It is most famously associated with the Serampore Trio, which consisted of William Carey, Joshua Marshman, and William Ward. William Carey was a pioneer in translating the Bible into numerous Indian languages and served as a professor at Fort William College. Joshua Marshman was an educator and linguist who played a vital role in establishing schools and translating scriptures. William Ward was a skilled printer who managed the Serampore Mission Press, which became one of the most important publishing houses in India for vernacular literature. Together, they established Serampore College in 1818 to provide education in both the arts and sciences. David Hare, while a significant figure in the Bengal Renaissance, was a secular philanthropist and watchmaker who focused on Western education through institutions like the Hindu College and was not a member of the missionary group.
81History
Consider the following statements:
1. In the 19th century, peasants in various parts of India rose in revolt against moneylenders and grain dealers.
2. In May 1875, at village Supa in Poona District in the Bombay Deccan, peasants attacked shopkeepers, burnt the bahi khatas (account books), looted grain shops and set fire to the houses of Sahukars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The 19th century in India was marked by significant agrarian distress caused by high land revenue demands and the rigid collection policies of the British administration. To meet these demands, peasants were forced to rely on moneylenders and grain dealers, who charged usurious interest rates. This resulted in widespread indebtedness and land alienation, triggering various peasant uprisings against these intermediaries across the subcontinent, such as the Santhal Rebellion and the Indigo Revolt.
The Deccan Riots of 1875 specifically began in the village of Supa in the Poona district of the Bombay Deccan. Driven by the falling price of cotton and a sharp increase in land revenue, the ryots rose against the Sahukars (moneylenders). The peasants targeted the moneylenders' account books, known as bahi khatas, as these documents represented the legal basis of their exploitation. They looted grain shops, destroyed debt bonds, and set fire to the houses of the Sahukars to erase the records of their debt. The movement eventually spread to approximately 30 villages in the region, leading the colonial government to enact the Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act in 1879 to provide some protection to the indebted peasantry.
82Polity and Governance
Which one of the following was not a part of Kautilya's Saptanga Theory of the State?
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Answer: (D) Dhamma
Explanation
Dhamma is not included in Kautilya's Saptanga theory because the theory specifically defines the state as an organic entity composed of seven distinct structural elements: Swami (the King), Amatya (the Ministers), Janapada (the Territory and Population), Durga (the Fort), Kosha (the Treasury), Danda (the Army), and Mitra (the Ally). While Dhamma refers to righteousness, moral duty, or cosmic order and was central to Ashokan governance, Kautilya's framework in the Arthashastra focuses on the secular, material, and administrative components required for a state's functional sovereignty. Therefore, Dhamma falls outside the specific classification of the seven prakritis or limbs of the state.
83History
Consider the following statements about Ashoka's faith in Buddhism:
1. Rummindeii Pillar Inscription and Nigali Sagar Pillar Inscription provide clear evidence of Ashoka's faith in Buddhism.
2. Minor Rock Edict-I gives evidence of a sudden change in Ashoka's faith in Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Rummindeii Pillar Inscription, located at Lumbini, records Ashoka's visit to the birthplace of Gautama Buddha in the twentieth year of his reign. To honor the Buddha, he exempted the village of Lumbini from the religious tax (bali) and reduced the land revenue (bhaga) to one-eighth. Similarly, the Nigali Sagar Pillar Inscription records that Ashoka enlarged the stupa of the Konakamana (Kanakamuni) Buddha to double its original size and later visited the site to offer prayers. These inscriptions serve as definitive archaeological evidence of his personal pilgrimage and devotion to the Buddhist faith.
Minor Rock Edict-I does not support the idea of a sudden change; instead, it provides a specific timeline that indicates a gradual deepening of his commitment. In this edict, Ashoka explicitly mentions that he had been a lay follower (upasaka) for more than two and a half years, during which time he did not make much progress. It was only after he approached the Sangha (sangham upayite) about a year prior to the edict that he became truly zealous and exerted himself in the faith. This clarifies that his transition into an active and ardent practitioner was an evolutionary process rather than an instantaneous transformation.
84Geography
Which of the following variable(s) is/are displayed in population pyramids?
1. Age-groups
2. Sex indicators (male and female)
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
A population pyramid, also known as an age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration used to visualize the distribution of various age groups within a population. The vertical axis typically displays age-groups, often categorized in five-year cohorts, while the horizontal axis measures the number or percentage of people in each group. The diagram is split vertically, with one side representing the male population and the other representing the female population, thereby integrating both age and sex indicators to provide a comprehensive demographic profile of a society.
85Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Lake) (State)
A. Kaliveli 1. Sikkim
B. Khajjiar 2. Kerala
C. Khecheopalri 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Vembanad 4. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Kaliveli is a major coastal wetland and one of the largest brackish water lakes in South India, located in the Viluppuram district of Tamil Nadu.
Khajjiar is a high-altitude lake situated in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, often called the Mini Switzerland of India.
Khecheopalri is a sacred mountain lake in the West Sikkim district of Sikkim, considered holy by both Buddhist and Hindu communities.
Vembanad is the longest lake in India and the largest in Kerala, serving as the core of the state backwaters and hosting the Nehru Trophy Boat Race.
86Geography
Which one of the following is the most important factor for the formulation of smog?
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Answer: (B) Formation of an inversion lid
Explanation
The formation of an inversion lid is the primary meteorological mechanism responsible for the formulation of smog. In a typical atmosphere, temperature decreases with height, allowing surface air to rise and disperse pollutants. However, during a temperature inversion, a layer of warm air sits above cooler air near the ground, creating a stable atmospheric barrier that prevents vertical mixing. This lid traps pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), volatile organic compounds, and sulfur dioxide (SO₂) in high concentrations close to the surface. In the presence of sunlight or high humidity, these trapped substances react to form photochemical or industrial smog. Without this inversion layer to concentrate the pollutants, they would simply disperse into the upper atmosphere, preventing the formation of dense smog.
87Geography
Mount Thullier (642 m) is an important mountain peak of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located in :
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Answer: (D) Great Nicobar
Explanation
Mount Thullier, with an altitude of 642 meters, is the highest peak in the Nicobar Islands chain. This mountain is located on Great Nicobar Island, which is the largest of the Nicobar Islands and the southernmost major island of India. It represents the highest elevation in the southern part of the Union Territory and is a prominent geographical feature within the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve, characterized by its dense tropical evergreen forests and unique biodiversity.
88Geography
Which one of the following land surfaces has the highest albedo ?
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Answer: (A) A snow covered mountain
Explanation
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface, defined as the ratio of reflected solar radiation to the total incident solar radiation. It is expressed as a value between 0 and 1, or as a percentage. Surfaces that are light-colored and smooth tend to have high albedo because they reflect a large portion of incoming sunlight rather than absorbing it. A snow-covered mountain has the highest albedo among the given surfaces, typically reflecting between 80% and 90% of incident solar radiation. This high reflectivity is primarily due to the physical properties of ice crystals and the white color of the snow, which efficiently scatters and reflects visible light back into the atmosphere.
89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following terms represents the maxim, 'no man/person shall be condemned unheard' ?
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Answer: (D) Audi Alteram Partem
Explanation
Audi Alteram Partem is a fundamental principle of natural justice which translates literally from Latin as hear the other side. It embodies the concept that no person should be condemned, punished, or have any legal right deprived by a judicial or quasi-judicial body without being afforded a fair opportunity to be heard and to present their case. This rule ensures that a deciding authority considers all perspectives before making a decision, thereby preventing bias and ensuring procedural fairness in legal and administrative proceedings.
90Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) He may, at any time, resign by writing his resignation to the President of India.
Explanation
According to Article 94(b) of the Constitution of India, a member holding office as Speaker of the House of the People may resign from their office at any time by writing under their hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker. This is a reciprocal arrangement where the Speaker submits their resignation to the Deputy Speaker, and the Deputy Speaker submits their resignation to the Speaker. The President of India is not the authority to whom the Speaker addresses their resignation letter.
91Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about a Bill for Amendment of the Constitution of India is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Joint sitting can be resorted to for passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India.
Explanation
Article 368 of the Constitution of India outlines the specific procedure for constitutional amendments, which requires that a bill for this purpose must be passed in each House of Parliament separately by a special majority. This special majority consists of a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. Unlike ordinary bills, there is no provision under Article 108 or Article 368 for convening a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill. If one House rejects the bill or does not pass it with the required majority, the bill simply fails.
92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following methods is followed in electing the President of India?
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Answer: (C) Proportional Representation and the Single Transferable Vote System
Explanation
According to Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and the voting is conducted by secret ballot. In this system, members of the electoral college (consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories) cast their votes by marking preferences for the candidates. A candidate must secure a specific quota of votes to be declared elected, which is determined by the formula: Quota = (Total number of valid votes polled / (1 + 1)) + 1. This mechanism ensures that the President is elected by an absolute majority and represents the collective will of the Union and the States, reflecting the federal character of the Indian polity.
93History
From among the following Mahajanapadas, identify the gana/sangha (oligarchy):
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Answer: (B) Vajji
Explanation
The Vajji Mahajanapada, centered at its capital Vaishali, was a prominent gana-sangha or oligarchic republic in ancient India. Unlike systems where a single ruler held absolute authority, Vajji was governed by a confederation of several clans, most notably the Licchavis, the Videhans, and the Jnatrikas. In this political structure, power was shared among a group of leaders known as rajas, who were typically the heads of the ruling kshatriya families. These rajas met regularly in a common assembly hall called the santhagara to deliberate on state policies, legislation, and judicial matters. Decisions were made through collective discussion and consensus, characterizing a participatory form of governance that relied on group leadership rather than a centralized hereditary crown.
94History
The provision for separate electorate for Muslims was given in
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Answer: (A) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Explanation
The Morley-Minto Reforms, also known as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, introduced the system of communal representation for Muslims by providing them with separate electorates. Under this arrangement, Muslim members were to be elected to the legislative councils exclusively by Muslim voters. This measure was a response to the demands of the Shimla Deputation of 1906 and the newly formed Muslim League, effectively legalizing communalism in the Indian political structure. Consequently, Lord Minto became known as the Father of Communal Electorate for formalizing religion-based political division in colonial India.
95History
Which of the following was/were the founder member(s) of Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in September, 1928?
1. Bhagat Singh
2. Jatindranath
3. Ajoy Ghosh
4. Phanindranath Ghosh
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA), formerly known as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), was established during a historic meeting held on September 9-10, 1928, at Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi. This reorganization was driven by a shift toward socialist ideology among Indian revolutionaries.
Bhagat Singh was a primary architect of this transition and a key founder. Phanindranath Ghosh attended the meeting as the representative from Bihar and played a crucial role in the initial organizational structure. Ajoy Ghosh was another prominent leader from the United Provinces who was a founding member and later served on the HSRA Central Committee. Jatindranath Das, while originally associated with the Anushilan Samiti in Bengal, was recruited by Bhagat Singh during the formation phase of the HSRA to provide technical expertise in manufacturing bombs and participated in the group's revolutionary activities immediately following its establishment. Other significant figures involved in the founding and early leadership included Sukhdev Thapar, Shiv Verma, Bejoy Kumar Sinha, and Kundan Lal.
96History
Who among the following did not belong to the group of 'No-Changers'?
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Answer: (B) Vithalbhai Patel
Explanation
Vithalbhai Patel was a prominent leader of the Pro-Changers (Swarajists) within the Indian National Congress. Following the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922, a debate arose regarding the future strategy of the national movement. While the No-Changers advocated for sticking to the Gandhian program of constructive work and boycotting legislative councils, the Pro-Changers, including Vithalbhai Patel, C.R. Das, and Motilal Nehru, argued for entering the councils to wreck the 1919 Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms from within. Vithalbhai Patel's commitment to this parliamentary strategy was further evidenced by his election as the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925, representing the Swaraj Party's objective of challenging the British government through legislative obstruction.
97History
The headquarters of Ghadar Movement/Party were at
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Answer: (A) San Francisco
Explanation
The Ghadar Party was an international revolutionary movement founded in 1913 by expatriate Indians, primarily from the Punjabi community, to overthrow British rule in India through armed rebellion. The organization established its headquarters at Yugantar Ashram, located at 436 Hill Street in San Francisco, California. This center served as the primary hub for the party's administrative activities and the publication of their revolutionary journal, also named Ghadar. The choice of San Francisco as the base allowed leaders like Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna to mobilize the significant Indian immigrant population along the Pacific Coast of North America.
98History
Which one of the following pairs of Newspaper and Editor is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Voice of India - Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation
The newspaper Voice of India was founded and edited by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1883 in London. Its purpose was to advocate for Indian interests and provide a platform for Indian opinions to reach the British public and political leaders. Gopal Krishna Gokhale was not the editor of this publication; he was instead associated with editing the journal Sudharak and the quarterly journal of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. Since Dadabhai Naoroji is the individual correctly associated with the Voice of India, the pairing with Gokhale is incorrect.
99History
Which one of the following was not included in the terms and conditions of Subsidiary Alliance System of Lord Wellesley?
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Answer: (B) The ally was free to enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare.
Explanation
The Subsidiary Alliance System, established by Lord Wellesley, was a strategic tool used to bring Indian states under British control by depriving them of their external sovereignty. Under the terms of this system, the Indian ruler was strictly prohibited from maintaining independent diplomatic relations. The ruler could not enter into any alliance or agreement with any other power, nor could they declare or engage in warfare against any other state, without the prior mediation and consent of the British. By accepting the alliance, the ruler effectively surrendered the right to conduct an independent foreign policy, making the assertion that they were free to enter into agreements or engage in warfare contrary to the actual restrictive conditions of the treaty.
100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) He may, at any time, resign by writing his resignation to the President of India.
Explanation
According to Article 94(b) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign from his office at any time by writing under his hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The resignation is not submitted to the President of India. This reciprocal arrangement requires the Speaker to resign to the Deputy Speaker and the Deputy Speaker to resign to the Speaker, keeping the resignation process of the presiding officers within the legislature.
101Economy
Recently, the term 'two-pillar solution/two-pillar package' often seen in the news, refers to
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Answer: (C) Minimum global corporate tax
Explanation
The two-pillar solution is a major international tax reform framework coordinated by the OECD and the G20 to address the challenges of a digitalized global economy. Pillar One aims to ensure a fairer distribution of profits and taxing rights among countries by requiring large multinational enterprises to pay taxes in the jurisdictions where they conduct business and generate revenue, regardless of their physical presence. Pillar Two introduces a global minimum corporate tax rate, set at 15%, which is designed to prevent a race to the bottom in corporate taxation and discourage multinational firms from shifting profits to low-tax jurisdictions or tax havens. This package was agreed upon by over 130 countries to bring stability and fairness to the international tax system.
102Science and Technology
Consider the following pairs of vaccine and category/type:
1. Covaxin : Inactivated pathogen-based vaccine
2. Covishield : mRNA vaccine
3. Sputnik V : Viral vector-based vaccine
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Covaxin is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research. It utilizes a whole-virion inactivated platform where the SARS-CoV-2 virus is treated with chemicals to ensure it cannot replicate while remaining capable of triggering an immune response. Sputnik V is a viral vector-based vaccine developed by the Gamaleya Research Institute in Russia. It uses two different human adenovirus vectors, rAd26 and rAd5, to deliver the genetic material for the spike protein of the virus. Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is also a viral vector vaccine based on the ChAdOx1 chimpanzee adenovirus platform; it does not use mRNA technology, which is the method used by vaccines such as Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna.
103Economy
What is 'Unicorn Company' often mentioned in Indian news?
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Answer: (A) Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion
Explanation
A unicorn company is defined as a privately held startup with a current valuation of $1 billion or more. The term was popularized by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013 to represent the rarity of such high-value ventures at the time. These entities are characterized by being in the growth stage and have not yet listed their shares on a public stock exchange via an Initial Public Offering (IPO). In the Indian business landscape, the number of unicorns crossed the 100 mark in 2022, reflecting a robust venture capital environment and the rapid scaling of technology-driven businesses in sectors like fintech, e-commerce, and edtech. The valuation of these companies is typically derived from funding rounds where investors estimate the future potential and market share of the startup based on its disruptive capabilities and growth trajectory.
104Geography
A global initiative popularly known as '30 x 30 target' is often seen in the news. Which one of the following statements best reflects this initiative?
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Answer: (A) At least 30% of the planet should be protected by 2030.
Explanation
The 30 x 30 target is a global initiative aimed at halting the accelerating loss of species and protecting vital ecosystems. It was formally adopted as part of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The goal requires nations to designate at least 30% of the Earth's terrestrial, inland water, and marine areas as protected zones or under other effective area-based conservation measures by 2030. Supported by the High Ambition Coalition (HAC) for Nature and People, which India joined in 2021, this initiative seeks to restore degraded ecosystems, preserve carbon-rich habitats to mitigate climate change, and ensure the long-term health of global biodiversity.
105Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding LOFAR (Low Frequency Array)?
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Answer: (A) It is the world's most powerful radio antenna.
Explanation
LOFAR (Low Frequency Array) is a revolutionary radio telescope network primarily located in the Netherlands, with additional stations spread across several European countries. It operates as a large-scale interferometric array consisting of approximately 20,000 small, inexpensive antennas rather than traditional large parabolic dishes. These antennas are organized into stations and connected via a high-speed fiber-optic network to a central supercomputer. By using digital signal processing and aperture synthesis, LOFAR functions as a single, massive virtual radio telescope with an effective diameter of hundreds of kilometers. This design makes it the world's most sensitive and powerful radio antenna system for observing the universe at low frequencies, specifically between 10 MHz and 240 MHz, allowing astronomers to study the Epoch of Reionization, solar activity, and deep-space radio sources with high resolution.
106Polity and Governance
In the recently formed grouping of countries generally known as 'Middle-East Quad', in addition to India, which of the following are other members?
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Answer: (B) Israel, UAE and USA
Explanation
The grouping frequently referred to as the Middle-East Quad is formally known as the I2U2 Group. This international forum was established following a virtual meeting of the foreign ministers of India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States in October 2021. The name I2U2 is an abbreviation representing the initials of its member nations: India and Israel (I2), and the United States and the United Arab Emirates (U2). The primary objective of this partnership is to foster joint investments and initiatives in six critical sectors: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security. By combining the technological expertise of Israel and the USA, the investment capital of the UAE, and the manufacturing capacity and market size of India, the group seeks to address global challenges and enhance regional economic integration.
107Science and Technology
The terms 'Pinaka and Smerch' mentioned in news recently refer to
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Answer: (C) Rocket launcher systems
Explanation
Pinaka is an indigenous multi-barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army, capable of firing a salvo of 12 rockets in 44 seconds to saturate a large area. Smerch, specifically the BM-30 Smerch, is a heavy multiple rocket launcher system of Russian origin designed to neutralize personnel, armored targets, and artillery batteries at long ranges. Both systems are categorized as Multiple Rocket Launcher Systems (MRLS) and serve as critical assets in the Indian Army's artillery arsenal for providing high-volume suppressive fire. They appeared frequently in news reports during 2021-2022 regarding their strategic deployment at high-altitude regions along the Line of Actual Control and ongoing indigenous procurement contracts.
108History
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. India had accorded recognition to Bangladesh even before the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971.
2. In March 2021, both India and Bangladesh had decided to celebrate 6 December as Maitri Diwas.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
India formally recognized Bangladesh as an independent and sovereign state on December 6, 1971. This recognition occurred ten days before the official liberation of Bangladesh, which took place on December 16, 1971, following the surrender of the Pakistani military forces in Dacca. India was one of the first countries to establish diplomatic ties with Bangladesh during its struggle for independence.
During Prime Minister Narendra Modi's state visit to Bangladesh in March 2021, both India and Bangladesh agreed to commemorate December 6 as Maitri Diwas (Friendship Day). This decision was taken to honor the historical significance of the day India recognized Bangladesh in 1971 and to celebrate the 50th anniversary of the establishment of bilateral diplomatic relations between the two nations. Maitri Diwas is now observed annually in both countries and in several other capitals across the world.
109Science and Technology
Recently India signed a contract for the manufacture of nearly 6 lakh AK-203 rifles with which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) Russia
Explanation
In December 2021, India and Russia finalized a contract for the manufacture of approximately 6.01 lakh AK-203 assault rifles. These rifles are produced in India through a joint venture named Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL), which involves the Russian firms Rosoboronexport and Kalashnikov along with Indian state-owned defense entities. The production facility is located at Korwa in the Amethi district of Uttar Pradesh. The AK-203 is a modernized version of the AK-200 series and is intended to replace the aging INSAS (Indian Small Arms System) rifles currently used by the Indian Army, providing improved ergonomics, reliability, and accuracy.
110Polity and Governance
In December 2021, who among the following succeeded Angela Merkel as the Chancellor of Germany?
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Answer: (A) Olaf Scholz
Explanation
Olaf Scholz was officially elected as the Chancellor of Germany by the Bundestag on December 8, 2021, succeeding Angela Merkel who had held the position for sixteen years. Scholz, a member of the Social Democratic Party (SPD), assumed leadership after successfully negotiating a three-party coalition agreement known as the traffic light coalition, comprising the SPD, the Greens, and the Free Democratic Party (FDP). Prior to his appointment as Chancellor, he served as the Vice Chancellor and Federal Minister of Finance in the previous coalition government from 2018 to 2021. His transition to the chancellery followed the SPD's victory as the largest party in the federal election held in September 2021.
111Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Nilamoni Phukan Jr. is the 56th Jnanpith Award winner.
2. Damodar Mauzo is the 57th Jnanpith Award winner.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Jnanpith Selection Board announced the recipients for the 56th and 57th Jnanpith Awards simultaneously. Nilamani Phukan Jr., an eminent Assamese poet known for works such as Surya Henu Nami Ahe Ei Nodiyedi and Gulapi Jamur Lagna, was conferred with the 56th Jnanpith Award for his outstanding contribution to Indian literature. Damodar Mauzo, a renowned Konkani novelist and short story writer famous for his novel Karmelin and significant contributions to the Konkani literary movement, was awarded the 57th Jnanpith Award. Phukan became the third Assamese writer to receive this honor, while Mauzo became the second Konkani writer to be recognized with India's highest literary award.
112Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about Anil Menon is correct?
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Answer: (C) He is a physician selected by NASA to be an astronaut.
Explanation
Anil Menon is a Lieutenant Colonel in the United States Air Force and an emergency medicine physician who was selected by NASA in December 2021 to join the 2021 Astronaut Candidate Class. Before his selection as an astronaut candidate, he served as the first flight surgeon for SpaceX, where he helped lead the medical efforts for the company's first human spaceflights and served as a crew flight surgeon for various NASA expeditions to the International Space Station. He was one of ten candidates chosen from a pool of over 12,000 applicants to train for future missions under the Artemis program, which aims to land the first woman and the next man on the Moon.
113Science and Technology
India's maiden human space mission will be launched in 2023. What is its name?
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Answer: (D) Gaganyaan
Explanation
Gaganyaan is the flagship program of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) designed to demonstrate indigenous human spaceflight capability. The mission objective is to send a three-member crew into a Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of approximately 400 km for a duration of three days, followed by a safe return to Earth with a splashdown in Indian territorial waters. At the time of 2022, the project was scheduled to conduct its first crewed mission in 2023, following two preparatory uncrewed flights intended to validate systems like the orbital module, life support, and the crew escape system. The mission utilizes the GSLV Mk III (LVM3) launch vehicle, which has been human-rated to ensure the safety of the astronauts, known as Vyomanauts. This mission represents a significant milestone in India's space exploration history, aiming to establish the nation as the fourth to independently launch humans into space.
114Polity and Governance
Which one of the following teams won the Senior Women's National Football Championship, 2021?
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Answer: (A) Manipur
Explanation
Manipur clinched the title of the 26th Senior Women's National Football Championship 2021-22 by defeating Railways in the final held at the EMS Stadium in Kozhikode, Kerala. After the match remained goalless through regulation and extra time, Manipur won the penalty shootout with a score of 2-1. This victory marked Manipur's 21st title in the history of the competition, maintaining their status as the most successful team in the tournament's history. The championship was organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF) and featured teams from across the country competing in a league-cum-knockout format.
115Geography
Which of the following about Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary is/are correct?
1. It is recently declared as a Ramsar Site (wetlands of international importance)
2. It is located in Uttar Pradesh
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary, situated in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat, was officially designated as a Ramsar site of international importance in February 2022. This unique wetland ecosystem is characterized by the presence of both freshwater and saltwater habitats, created where the Ruparel and Kalindri rivers meet the saline waters of the Gulf of Kutch. It serves as a vital breeding and nesting ground for more than 300 species of migratory and resident birds, including several globally threatened species like the Dalmatian pelican and the Indian skimmer. The recognition as a Ramsar site acknowledges its ecological significance in maintaining biodiversity and providing a stopover point along the Central Asian Flyway.
116Polity and Governance
Which one among the following countries has announced a plan that sets a goal of having fewer than 5% of its populace smoking by 2025?
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Answer: (C) New Zealand
Explanation
New Zealand launched the Smokefree Aotearoa 2025 Action Plan in December 2021 with the specific objective of reducing daily smoking prevalence to less than 5% across all population groups by the year 2025. This ambitious target involves several regulatory measures, including significantly reducing the amount of nicotine allowed in smoked tobacco products, restricting the number of retailers authorized to sell tobacco, and implementing a smoke-free generation policy that prohibits the sale of tobacco to anyone born after a specific year. The initiative is part of a broader public health strategy to eliminate the harm caused by tobacco and move toward a tobacco-free society.
117Science and Technology
Who among the following won the FIDE World Chess Championship, 2021?
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Answer: (B) Magnus Carlsen
Explanation
Magnus Carlsen successfully defended his title in the FIDE World Chess Championship 2021 held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. He defeated the challenger by a score of 7.5 to 3.5. The match concluded in the 11th game of the scheduled 14 games after Carlsen achieved an insurmountable lead. This victory secured Carlsen's fifth world title, continuing his tenure as the world champion since he first claimed the crown in 2013. The 2021 championship featured the longest game in the history of the tournament, with game 6 lasting 136 moves before Carlsen secured a win, breaking the previous record for marathon encounters in world championship play.
118Geography
With reference to Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhwana Wetland, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. All of them are Ramsar sites.
2. All of them are naturally formed wetlands.
3. All of them are birding sites.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary, and Wadhwana Wetland were all designated as Ramsar sites in August 2021. This designation identifies them as wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. All four locations are renowned birding sites that support a vast diversity of resident and migratory bird species, especially those traveling along the Central Asian Flyway.
While they share Ramsar status and ecological significance for avifauna, they are not all naturally formed. Bhindawas is a human-made freshwater wetland and the largest of its kind in Haryana. Thol Lake is an artificial reservoir originally constructed for irrigation in 1912, and Wadhwana is also a century-old man-made tank created to provide irrigation. Since these sites include artificial or human-made structures, the claim that they are all naturally formed is incorrect.
119Science and Technology
To study which one of the following was a spacecraft launched that would be farthest from the Sun and would run exclusively on solar power?
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Answer: (A) Jupiter's Trojan asteroids
Explanation
The Lucy mission, launched by NASA in October 2021, is the first space mission dedicated to studying Jupiter's Trojan asteroids. These asteroids are remnants of the early solar system trapped in stable orbits at the L4 and L5 Lagrange points of Jupiter's orbit. Lucy is a technologically significant mission because it is designed to operate exclusively on solar power at extreme distances from the Sun. According to the inverse-square law, the solar intensity I at a distance d from the Sun is I ∝ 1/d². At the distance of the Trojan asteroids (approximately 5.7 AU at its farthest point), the sunlight is nearly 30 times weaker than it is at Earth. To harvest enough energy, Lucy is equipped with two massive solar arrays, each with a diameter of about 7.3 meters. This configuration allows Lucy to function as the solar-powered spacecraft traveling the farthest from the Sun for a science mission.
120History
Recently, archaeological studies at which one among the following revealed that by 1200 BCE there was a flourishing agrarian civilization and the cultivation of rice was well-established at this place?
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Answer: (D) Vicinity of Thamirabarani river
Explanation
Recent archaeological excavations at Sivagalai in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu, located along the Thamirabarani river (also known as the Porunai), have provided scientific evidence of an ancient agrarian civilization. Carbon dating of carbonized rice grains found within burial urns at the site, conducted by the Beta Analytic Testing Laboratory in Miami, USA, yielded a date of 1155 BCE. This discovery indicates that a flourishing society with well-established rice cultivation existed in the Thamirabarani river valley by approximately 1200 BCE. These findings, announced in 2021, push the antiquity of the Iron Age and sedentary agricultural life in South India back significantly, establishing the Porunai river civilization as one of the oldest recorded agrarian cultures in the region.