Statement I:
India's offshore and deep sea fish catch is very poor considering the marine potential.
Statement II:
Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
Explanation
Statement I is true because India possesses a vast Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of approximately 2.02 million square kilometers, yet its offshore and deep-sea fishing potential remains largely untapped. The majority of India's marine fish production is derived from the inner continental shelf area up to a depth of 50 meters. The deep-sea sector suffers from a lack of sophisticated trawlers, modern navigation technology, and adequate cold-storage infrastructure required for long-range operations. Statement II is false because the Indian coastline is actually rich in diverse geographical features. It includes significant gulfs such as the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Khambhat, and Gulf of Mannar, as well as numerous estuaries formed by major river systems like the Narmada, Tapi, Godavari, and Krishna. Furthermore, the western coast, particularly in Kerala, is renowned for its extensive network of backwaters and lagoons known as kayals.
2Geography
Statement I:
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.
Statement II:
Earth rotates from the West towards the East once in 24 hours with respect to the Sun.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Explanation
Statement I is correct because tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea levels resulting from the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun combined with the centrifugal force generated by the Earth's rotation. These forces create tidal bulges in the oceans, and as the Earth rotates, different coastal areas pass through these bulges, experiencing high and low tides.
Statement II is also correct as the Earth rotates on its axis from West to East, completing one full rotation relative to the Sun in approximately 24 hours, a period known as a solar day. However, Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. The primary driver of tidal patterns is the Earth's rotation relative to the Moon (the lunar day, which lasts about 24 hours and 50 minutes) rather than its rotation relative to the Sun. While Statement II describes a fundamental motion of the Earth, it does not account for the specific gravitational mechanics or the differential forces that cause the tidal phenomena described in Statement I.
3Geography
Statement I: Sidereal day is shorter than Solar day.
Statement II: The motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun is termed as revolution.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Explanation
A sidereal day is the time taken for the Earth to complete one full rotation on its axis relative to the distant stars, which is exactly 360° and lasts approximately 23 hours and 56 minutes. A solar day is the time taken for the Sun to return to the same meridian in the sky, which lasts 24 hours. Statement I is true because the sidereal day is about 4 minutes shorter than the solar day. Statement II is also true as the orbital motion of the Earth around the Sun is defined as revolution. Statement II correctly explains Statement I because as the Earth revolves around the Sun, it changes its position in space daily. After completing a 360° rotation (one sidereal day), the Earth has moved approximately 1° along its orbit. To align with the Sun again, the Earth must rotate that additional 1°, which takes approximately 4 minutes. Therefore, the Earth's revolution is the specific reason why a solar day requires more rotation time than a sidereal day.
4Science and Technology
Statement I:
When a gun is fired it recoils, i.e., it pushes back, with much less velocity than the velocity of the bullet.
Statement II:
Velocity of the recoiling gun is less because the gun is much heavier than the bullet.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Explanation
The recoil of a gun is governed by the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum. In an isolated system where no external force acts, the total momentum remains constant. Before the bullet is fired, the total momentum of the gun-bullet system is zero. Upon firing, the bullet acquires a forward momentum, and to maintain the total momentum at zero, the gun must acquire an equal and opposite momentum.
This relationship is expressed by the formula m_b v_b + m_g v_g = 0, where m_b and v_b represent the mass and velocity of the bullet, and m_g and v_g represent the mass and velocity of the gun. Solving for the recoil velocity of the gun, we get v_g = - m_b v_b/m_g. The negative sign indicates that the gun moves in the opposite direction of the bullet. Because the mass of the gun m_g is significantly larger than the mass of the bullet m_b, the magnitude of the recoil velocity v_g is proportionally smaller than the velocity of the bullet v_b. Therefore, Statement II directly explains why Statement I occurs.
5Science and Technology
In an observation, α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays have same energies. Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing order will be
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Answer: (A) α,β,γ
Explanation
The penetrating power of ionizing radiation is inversely proportional to its ionizing power. α-particles are helium nuclei consisting of two protons and two neutrons, making them relatively heavy and carrying a +2e charge. Due to their large mass and high charge, they interact strongly with the atoms of the medium, causing intense ionization and losing their energy very rapidly over a short distance, which results in the lowest penetrating power. β-particles are high-speed electrons with a much smaller mass and a charge of -1e. Their smaller size and lower charge lead to fewer interactions and lower ionizing power compared to α-particles, allowing them to penetrate deeper into matter. γ-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation with no mass and no electrical charge. Because they are photons and do not interact via electrostatic forces, they have the lowest ionizing power and can pass through significant thicknesses of material before being absorbed, giving them the highest penetrating power among the three. Thus, for particles of the same energy, the increasing order of penetrating power is α < β < γ.
6Geography
The Earth without rotational movement would result into
1. no sun-rise and sun-set.
2. no occurrence of day and night cycle.
3. only one season.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The rotation of the Earth on its axis is the primary cause of the daily transition between light and dark. As the Earth spins from west to east, different portions of its surface are exposed to sunlight, creating the phenomenon of sunrise as a region moves into the light and sunset as it moves into the shadow. This continuous spinning results in the standard 24-hour day and night cycle. If the Earth were to stop rotating, the side facing the Sun would remain in perpetual daylight while the opposite side would remain in perpetual darkness, effectively ending the occurrence of a daily cycle. Seasons are not a result of rotation but are instead caused by the 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis and its revolution around the Sun, which leads to varying intensities of solar radiation at different latitudes throughout the year. Therefore, while the daily solar transitions and the day-night cycle would cease without rotation, the seasonal cycle would technically persist due to the planet's orbital motion and axial inclination.
7Science and Technology
When hard water is evaporated completely, the white solid remains in the container. It may be due to the presence of
1. Carbonates of Ca and Mg
2. Sulphates of Ca and Mg
3. Chlorides of Ca and Mg
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Hard water contains dissolved salts of calcium and magnesium, primarily in the form of bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulphates. When hard water is evaporated completely, the water molecules transition into the gaseous phase, leaving behind these non-volatile mineral solutes as a white solid residue. The temporary hardness caused by bicarbonates (Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(HCO₃)₂) results in the formation of solid carbonates (CaCO₃ and MgCO₃) as they decompose during heating and evaporation. Permanent hardness is caused by dissolved chlorides (CaCl₂ and MgCl₂) and sulphates (CaSO₄ and MgSO₄); these salts are highly stable and do not evaporate, thus they crystallize and remain in the container once the liquid is removed. Consequently, the white residue consists of the carbonates, sulphates, and chlorides of both calcium and magnesium.
8Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is correct ?
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Answer: (B) Cell membrane is present both in plant and animal cells.
Explanation
The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, is a universal feature of all living cells, including both plant and animal cells. It consists of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins and serves as a semi-permeable boundary that regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell. In animal cells, the membrane is the outermost layer, whereas in plant cells, it is located immediately inside the rigid cell wall. This membrane is essential for maintaining cellular integrity and facilitating communication between the cell and its environment.
9Science and Technology
A person standing 1m in front of a plane mirror approaches the mirror by 40cm. The new distance between the person and his image in the plane mirror is
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Answer: (B) 1 × 2m
Explanation
In a plane mirror, the distance of the object from the mirror (u) is always equal to the distance of the image from the mirror (v), represented by the relation u = v. The initial distance of the person from the mirror is 1m, which is equal to 100cm. When the person approaches the mirror by 40cm, the new distance between the person (object) and the mirror is uₙₑ𝓌 = 100cm - 40cm = 60cm. According to the properties of reflection in a plane mirror, the image is formed at the same distance behind the mirror, so vₙₑ𝓌 = 60cm. The total distance between the person and his image is the sum of the object distance and the image distance from the mirror surface, calculated as D = uₙₑ𝓌 + vₙₑ𝓌 = 60cm + 60cm = 120cm. Converting this result into meters, we get 1.2m.
10Science and Technology
Which one among the following compounds has same equivalent weight and molecular weight ?
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Answer: (D) NaCl
Explanation
The relationship between equivalent weight (E) and molecular weight (M) is given by the formula E = M / n, where n represents the valency factor or n-factor. For salts, the n-factor is defined as the total magnitude of positive or negative charge per formula unit. In the case of NaCl, the compound dissociates into one Na⁺ cation and one Cl⁻ anion. The total magnitude of charge is 1. Substituting this into the formula, we get E = M / 1, making the equivalent weight of NaCl identical to its molecular weight.
11Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is not true for Mammals ?
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Answer: (C) Their heart is three chambered.
Explanation
Mammals are characterized by a four-chambered heart, which consists of two distinct atria and two distinct ventricles. This anatomical structure ensures the complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, allowing for highly efficient oxygen delivery to tissues. This efficiency is essential for supporting the high metabolic rates required for endothermy, or maintaining a constant internal body temperature. In contrast, three-chambered hearts are typically found in amphibians and most reptiles, where oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix to some degree in a single ventricle.
12Geography
Arrange the following layers of atmosphere vertically from the surface of the Earth :
1. Mesosphere
2. Troposphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Thermosphere
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Answer: (C) 2-3-1-4
Explanation
The Earth's atmosphere is organized into distinct layers characterized by specific temperature gradients and physical properties as altitude increases from the surface. The sequence begins with the Troposphere, which extends from the ground to an average height of approximately 13 km and contains the bulk of the atmosphere's mass and all weather activity. Above the Troposphere is the Stratosphere, which extends up to about 50 km and houses the ozone layer that protects the planet from ultraviolet radiation. The Mesosphere follows, reaching from 50 km to roughly 80 km, and is the region where most meteors burn up upon entry. The outermost layer listed is the Thermosphere, which starts at about 80 km and extends into the upper atmosphere, where gases become extremely thin and temperatures rise significantly due to solar radiation. This progression defines the vertical arrangement as Troposphere (2), Stratosphere (3), Mesosphere (1), and Thermosphere (4).
13Science and Technology
A metallic plate sticks firmly on the mouth of a water vessel made from another metal. By way of heating, one can detach the plate from the vessel. This is because heat expands
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Answer: (C) the vessel more than the plate
Explanation
Thermal expansion is the physical property where a material increases in volume or area as its temperature rises, described by the formula ΔL = αL ΔT, where α is the coefficient of linear expansion. When two different metals are involved, they possess different coefficients of expansion. By heating the assembly, the metal of the vessel expands to a greater degree than the metal of the plate. This differential expansion causes the opening of the vessel to enlarge more than the plate's dimensions increase, thereby creating a gap or loosening the tight fit that originally held them together. This increase in clearance allows the plate to be easily detached from the vessel.
14Science and Technology
Electricity is produced through dry cell from
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Answer: (A) chemical energy
Explanation
A dry cell is a type of primary voltaic cell that generates electricity through an electrochemical process. It functions by converting stored chemical energy directly into electrical energy through spontaneous redox (reduction-oxidation) reactions. In a standard Leclanché dry cell, the zinc container serves as the anode, while a carbon rod surrounded by a paste of manganese dioxide and carbon powder acts as the cathode. As the zinc is oxidized and the manganese dioxide is reduced, a potential difference is created, driving the flow of electrons through an external circuit to produce a direct current.
15Science and Technology
In human digestive system, the process of digestion starts in
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Answer: (B) Buccal cavity
Explanation
The buccal cavity is the initial site where the process of digestion begins in the human body. As soon as food is ingested, it undergoes mechanical digestion through mastication by the teeth, which physically breaks down large food particles to increase their surface area. Simultaneously, chemical digestion is initiated by the secretion of saliva from the salivary glands. Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase, also known as ptyalin, which begins the chemical breakdown of complex carbohydrates. Specifically, it catalyzes the hydrolysis of starch into simpler disaccharides like maltose. This enzymatic activity in the mouth marks the start of the digestive sequence before the food bolus is swallowed and transported via the oesophagus to the stomach.
16Science and Technology
Which one among the following fuels is used in gas welding ?
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Answer: (D) Acetylene
Explanation
Acetylene (C₂H₂) is the primary fuel gas used in gas welding, most notably in the process known as oxy-acetylene welding. When acetylene is burned in combination with pure oxygen, it produces the highest flame temperature of all common fuel gases, reaching approximately 3100°C to 3500°C. This intense heat is essential for melting the edges of metal workpieces, such as steel and iron, to facilitate fusion. Acetylene is an endothermic compound, meaning it releases a significant amount of additional energy when its chemical bonds break during combustion, providing the high heat intensity and concentrated flame required for efficient welding and cutting operations.
17Science and Technology
In respect of the difference of the gravitational force from electric and magnetic forces, which one of the following statements is true?
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Answer: (B) Gravitational force is attractive only, whereas the electric and the magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive.
Explanation
Gravitational force is fundamentally different from electric and magnetic forces because it is exclusively an attractive force. This occurs because mass, the source of gravitation, exists in only one form, leading to a universal pull between all objects possessing mass as described by Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation F = G (m₁m₂)/r². In contrast, electric and magnetic forces can be either attractive or repulsive. Electric forces depend on the nature of charges, where like charges repel and unlike charges attract according to Coulomb's Law F = k (q₁q₂)/r². Similarly, magnetic forces exhibit attraction between opposite poles and repulsion between like poles. This distinction arises because electric charges and magnetic poles exist in two types, whereas gravitational mass does not have an equivalent negative counterpart in classical physics.
18Economy
Which one among the following is a micronutrient present in soil for various crops?
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Answer: (B) Manganese
Explanation
Manganese (Mn) is classified as an essential micronutrient for plants because it is required in very small quantities, typically in concentrations of 20 to 200 mg/kg of dry matter. It plays a critical role in several metabolic functions, most notably the photolysis of water in Photosystem II, which is the process of splitting water molecules to release oxygen during photosynthesis. Manganese also serves as a cofactor for various enzymes involved in the decarboxylation and dehydrogenation reactions of the Krebs cycle, as well as in the synthesis of chlorophyll, lignin, and fatty acids. It is indispensable for maintaining the structural integrity of the chloroplast membrane and aiding in nitrogen assimilation, ensuring optimal crop growth and development.
19Geography
Arrange the following tributaries of river Indus from North to South:
1. Chenab
2. Jhelum
3. Ravi
4. Sutlej
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Answer: (D) 2-1-3-4
Explanation
The major left bank tributaries of the Indus river system are arranged geographically from North to South based on their points of origin and flow paths across the Himalayan ranges. The Jhelum River is the northernmost among the options, originating from the Verinag Spring in the Kashmir Valley. To its south is the Chenab River, which is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers in the Lahaul region of Himachal Pradesh. Further south lies the Ravi River, which has its source near the Rohtang Pass in the Kullu hills. The Sutlej River is the southernmost major tributary in this list, entering India from Tibet through the Shipki La pass before flowing across the Punjab plains. This sequence reflects the latitudinal progression of the river basins from the Kashmir Himalayas down to the southern reaches of the trans-Himalayan drainage system.
20Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Industry) List II (Location)
A. Railway equipment 1. Kochi
B. Automobile 2. Ludhiana
C. Ship-building 3. Bhilai
D. Bicycle 4. Jabalpur
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Bhilai is a major center for railway equipment production, specifically as the primary supplier of world-class rails to the Indian Railways through the Bhilai Steel Plant. Jabalpur is a significant location for the automobile industry, housing the Vehicle Factory Jabalpur which manufactures specialized trucks and heavy vehicles for the Indian Armed Forces. Kochi is a premier site for ship-building in India, being home to the Cochin Shipyard Limited, which is the largest shipbuilding and maintenance facility in the country. Ludhiana is globally recognized as the bicycle manufacturing hub of India, hosting a vast concentration of units that produce the majority of the nation's bicycles and related components.
21Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Air Pollutant) (Effect)
A. Chlorofluorocarbon 1. Acid rain
B. Sulphur dioxide 2. Depletion in ozone layer in the atmosphere
C. Lead compound 3. Harmful for human nervous system
D. Carbon dioxide 4. Topmost contribution to greenhouse effect
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Answer: (C) 2 1 3 4
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic compounds that migrate to the stratosphere, where they are broken down by ultraviolet radiation to release chlorine atoms that catalyze the destruction of the ozone layer. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a major precursor to acid rain, as it reacts with atmospheric moisture and oxygen to form sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄). Lead compounds are potent neurotoxins that accumulate in the human body, causing significant damage to the central and peripheral nervous systems. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the most significant greenhouse gas released by human activities, such as fossil fuel combustion, making it the topmost contributor to the enhanced greenhouse effect and global warming.
22Science and Technology
Creation of something from nothing is against the law of
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Answer: (B) conservation of mass-energy
Explanation
The law of conservation of mass-energy states that the total amount of mass and energy in an isolated system remains constant. Based on Albert Einstein's principle of mass-energy equivalence, represented by the equation E = mc², mass and energy are different forms of the same entity and can be transformed into one another. However, the fundamental premise of this law is that neither mass nor energy can be created from nothing or destroyed; they can only change form or be transferred. Therefore, the concept of creating something out of nothing is a direct violation of this conservation principle, which serves as a cornerstone of classical and modern physics.
23Science and Technology
Which one of the following diseases in humans can spread through air ?
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Answer: (B) Tuberculosis
Explanation
Tuberculosis is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It spreads through the air when a person with an active infection in their lungs or respiratory tract coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings, expelling microscopic droplets. These tiny particles, referred to as droplet nuclei, can remain suspended in the air for long durations and travel on air currents. If another individual inhales these nuclei, the bacteria can reach the lungs and initiate an infection. This airborne transmission is most effective in enclosed environments with inadequate ventilation, making it distinct from diseases transmitted by insects, physical contact, or nutritional deficiencies.
24Geography
Seismic gaps are
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Answer: (C) sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.
Explanation
Seismic gaps are segments along an active fault or tectonic plate boundary that have not experienced a major earthquake for an extended period, especially when compared to adjacent segments that have ruptured recently. According to the seismic gap hypothesis, tectonic plates move at a relatively constant rate over long periods, leading to a steady accumulation of strain energy along their boundaries. While some sections of the boundary release this energy through frequent earthquakes, seismic gaps remain locked by friction, allowing significant elastic strain to build up. These quiet zones are identified by seismologists as high-risk areas because the accumulated stress must eventually be released, making them the most likely locations for future large-scale seismic events.
25Geography
In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, which one among the following would happen ?
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Answer: (B) There will be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds
Explanation
The Labrador Current is a cold current that flows from the Arctic Ocean southwards along the coast of Labrador and Newfoundland. It meets the warm Gulf Stream in the vicinity of the Grand Banks off the coast of Newfoundland. The convergence of these two currents—one cold and nutrient-rich, the other warm—creates a highly productive marine environment by facilitating the upwelling of nutrients and promoting the growth of phytoplankton. This biological productivity is the foundation of the North-West Atlantic fishing grounds, which are among the richest in the world. Without the Labrador Current, the specific oceanographic conditions and nutrient supply required to maintain these prolific fishing zones would be absent.
26Science and Technology
An electron and a proton are circulating with same speed in circular paths of equal radius. Which one among the following will happen, if the mass of a proton is about 2,000 times that of an electron?
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Answer: (B) The centripetal force required by the proton is about 2,000 times more than that required by the electron
Explanation
The centripetal force F required to keep a particle of mass m moving in a circular path of radius r at a speed v is defined by the formula F = mv²/r. According to the problem, both the electron and the proton are circulating with the same speed v in paths of equal radius r. Consequently, the centripetal force in this specific case is directly proportional to the mass of the particle (F ∝ m). Since the mass of a proton is approximately 2,000 times the mass of an electron, the centripetal force required to maintain the proton circular motion is approximately 2,000 times greater than the force required for the electron.
27Science and Technology
Which one among the following metals is prominently used in mobile phone batteries ?
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Answer: (D) Lithium
Explanation
Lithium is the primary metal used in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which have been the standard power source for mobile phones and portable electronics since the late 1990s. Lithium is the lightest of all metals and possesses the highest electrochemical potential, which translates to a very high energy density per unit weight. This allows mobile phone batteries to remain compact and lightweight while providing enough energy to power modern hardware and sustaining hundreds of recharge cycles with minimal memory effect.
28Economy
Which one of the following is the most appropriate and correct practice from the point of view of a healthy environment ?
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Answer: (C) Treatment of domestic sewage before its release
Explanation
The treatment of domestic sewage before its release into water bodies is an essential practice for maintaining a healthy environment. Untreated sewage contains high concentrations of organic matter, pathogens, and nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorous. When released directly into rivers or lakes, it significantly increases the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), which depletes dissolved oxygen levels and causes the death of aquatic organisms. Proper sewage treatment through physical, biological, and chemical processes ensures the removal of harmful contaminants and pathogens, thereby preventing the spread of waterborne diseases and mitigating the risk of eutrophication. This practice protects aquatic ecosystems and ensures that water resources remain safe for human use and biodiversity.
29Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Type of Grass) (Country)
A. Llanos 1. Australia
B. Prairies 2. Venezuela
C. Pampas 3. USA
D. Downs 4. Argentina
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Answer: (D) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Llanos are tropical grasslands found in the Orinoco River basin of Venezuela and Colombia. Prairies are the mid-latitude temperate grasslands of North America, spanning large areas of the central USA and Canada. Pampas are the extensive temperate grasslands of South America, primarily concentrated in Argentina. Downs are the temperate grasslands found in the southern parts of Australia, specifically in the Murray-Darling basin. Matching these gives the sequence A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.
30Science and Technology
Who among the following proposed that atom is indivisible?
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Answer: (A) Dalton
Explanation
John Dalton proposed his atomic theory in 1808, which served as the first modern scientific description of the nature of matter. A fundamental postulate of Dalton's atomic theory is that all matter is composed of tiny, discrete particles called atoms, which are indivisible and indestructible. He suggested that atoms represent the smallest unit of an element that can participate in a chemical reaction and that they cannot be subdivided into smaller parts. While later discoveries in nuclear physics revealed that atoms consist of subatomic particles, Dalton's original framework established the concept of the indivisible atom in chemistry.
31Geography
Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts of India. What could be the reason?
1. Insufficient shallow ground water
2. Rocky plateau with impervious surface depression
3. Undulating terrain helps in accumulation of rain water in depression or man-made tank
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The South-Central part of India, primarily the Deccan Plateau, is geologically composed of hard, non-porous crystalline rocks such as granite and gneiss. This impervious rocky structure prevents the percolation of rainwater into the deeper layers of the earth, leading to insufficient shallow groundwater reserves. Additionally, the hard rock makes the digging of canals and wells difficult and expensive. The naturally undulating terrain of the plateau provides numerous depressions and basins where rainwater can be easily collected. By constructing small bunds or embankments across these depressions, surface runoff is effectively impounded during the monsoon season to be used for irrigation throughout the year. Therefore, the combination of a lack of accessible groundwater, the water-tight nature of the rocky surface, and a landscape suited for natural storage makes tank irrigation the most viable method in this region.
32Geography
Which of the following is/are the reason(s) behind Gujarat being the leading producer of Salt in India?
1. The long length of coastline
2. Long duration of hot and dry conditions
3. Presence of gulf areas
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Gujarat contributes approximately 75 to 80 percent of India's total salt production due to a combination of favorable geographical and climatic factors. The state possesses the longest coastline in India, extending about 1,600 km, which provide vast areas for the establishment of salt pans. The regional climate is characterized by a long dry season with high temperatures and low humidity, ensuring high evaporation rates that are critical for solar salt production. Additionally, the presence of the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, along with the unique topography of the Rann of Kutch, offers shallow, low-lying coastal zones. These areas allow seawater to be easily trapped during high tides or facilitate the extraction of subsoil brine, which then undergoes natural crystallization in the expansive salt flats.
33Science and Technology
An object is raised to a height of 3m from the ground. It is then allowed to fall on to a table 1m high from ground level. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Its potential energy decreases by two-thirds its original value of total energy.
Explanation
The total mechanical energy of the object at its initial height of 3m is purely potential energy, as it is at rest before falling. This energy is given by Eₜₒₜₐₗ = mghᵢₙᵢₜᵢₐₗ = mg × 3 = 3mg. When the object falls to the table surface at a height of 1m from the ground, its potential energy at that point is PE\u1d62\u1d62\u2099\u2090\u2091 = mgh\u1d62\u1d62\u2099\u2090\u2091 = mg × 1 = 1mg. The decrease in potential energy during the fall is the difference between the initial and final values: 3mg - 1mg = 2mg. To find the fractional decrease relative to the original total energy, we calculate the ratio (2mg) / (3mg) = 2/3. Thus, the potential energy of the object decreases by two-thirds of its original total energy.
34Science and Technology
Ozone layer of the Earth's atmosphere is important for living organisms because it
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Answer: (A) prevents entry of ultra-violet rays
Explanation
The ozone layer, located in the stratosphere, serves as a vital protective shield by absorbing the majority of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Specifically, it filters out nearly all UV-C rays and a significant portion of UV-B rays, which possess high energy levels capable of damaging biological molecules. Exposure to unfiltered UV radiation would lead to severe consequences for living organisms, including DNA mutations, increased incidences of skin cancer and cataracts in humans, and the disruption of aquatic and terrestrial food chains by harming phytoplankton and plant tissues. By preventing these rays from reaching the Earth's surface in lethal doses, the ozone layer makes life on land possible.
35Geography
If 82°30′ east longitude (Allahabad) shows 6:00am of Sunday (local time), what would be the local time of Florida (USA) located on 82° west longitude?
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Answer: (A) 6:58pm of Saturday
Explanation
To find the local time of Florida (82° W) based on the local time of Allahabad (82°30′ E), we first calculate the total longitudinal difference between the two locations. Since one is in the Eastern Hemisphere and the other is in the Western Hemisphere, their longitudes are added:
Total Distance = 82°30′ (East) + 82° (West) = 164°30′
The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, which translates to a rate of 1° every 4 minutes (or 1′ every 4 seconds). We convert the longitudinal difference into a time difference:
Time for 164° = 164 × 4 = 656 minutes
Time for 30′ = 30 × 4 = 120 seconds = 2 minutes
Total Time Difference = 656 + 2 = 658 minutes
Converting the total minutes into hours and minutes:
658 minutes = 10 hours and 58 minutes
Since Florida is located to the west of Allahabad, its local time is behind that of Allahabad. We subtract the time difference from the given time in Allahabad:
Local Time in Florida = 6:00am (Sunday) - 10 hours 58 minutes
Subtracting 10 hours and 58 minutes from 6:00 am on Sunday:
06:00 - 10:58 = 19:02 (on the previous day)
The time 19:02 corresponds to 7:02 pm, and as we have crossed backward through midnight, the day changes from Sunday to Saturday. Thus, the local time in Florida is 7:02 pm on Saturday.
36Geography
Consider the following statements with regard to cold waves in winter season in northern India:
1. There is lack of maritime influence.
2. Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region.
3. Air mass comes from polar regions to northern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
The cold wave conditions in northern India during the winter are primarily due to the region's high degree of continentality. Being far away from the moderating influence of the sea, the landmass in northern India lacks maritime influence, which leads to extreme temperature drops as the land loses heat rapidly during the winter months.
Additionally, northern India is situated in close proximity to the Himalayan region. During winter, snowfall in the Himalayas leads to the development of cold winds that blow down into the plains. These cold winds, often associated with the subsidence of air following Western Disturbances, significantly lower the ambient temperature in the northern states. The Himalayan range also acts as a physical barrier that prevents the extremely cold air masses of the polar regions from the north from directly entering the Indian subcontinent, which is why the cold weather is influenced more by local mountain factors and continental cooling than by direct polar air masses.
37Geography
Which one among the following processes is not part of a chemical weathering?
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Answer: (B) Exfoliation
Explanation
Exfoliation is a physical or mechanical weathering process, often referred to as onion peeling. it involves the stripping of outer layers of rocks in the form of sheets or scales. This process typically occurs due to pressure release or unloading; when erosion removes the heavy overlying rock, the underlying rock expands upward, causing cracks and the eventual peeling of the surface layers. It can also be caused by repeated thermal expansion and contraction in regions with high diurnal temperature ranges. Since the internal mineral composition of the rock remains unchanged during this process, it is classified as mechanical rather than chemical weathering.
38Science and Technology
Two pieces of conductor of same material and of equal length are connected in series with a cell. One of the two pieces has cross-sectional area double that of the other. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
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Answer: (D) Same amount of electric current would pass through both the pieces producing more heat in the thinner one.
Explanation
In a series circuit, the electric current I remains constant throughout all components in the path. Therefore, both conductors experience the same amount of electric current regardless of their dimensions. The resistance R of a conductor is defined by the formula R = ρ l/A, where ρ represents the resistivity of the material, l is the length, and A is the cross-sectional area. Given that both conductors are of the same material and length, the resistance is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area (R ∝ 1/A). The thinner conductor, having a smaller area, has a higher resistance than the thicker one. According to Joule's Law of Heating, the heat produced H is given by H = I²Rt. Because the current I is the same for both and the time t is identical, the heat produced is directly proportional to the resistance (H ∝ R). Since the thinner piece has greater resistance, it generates more heat.
39Science and Technology
How many elements are there in the 5th period of modern periodic table?
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Answer: (C) 18
Explanation
The number of elements in a period of the modern periodic table is determined by the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shells being filled. According to the Aufbau principle, the 5th period involves the filling of the 5s, 4d, and 5p subshells. The 5s subshell has 1 orbital and holds 2 elements, the 4d subshell has 5 orbitals and holds 10 elements, and the 5p subshell has 3 orbitals and holds 6 elements. Summing these capacities gives 2 + 10 + 6 = 18 elements. This period begins with Rubidium (Z = 37) and concludes with the noble gas Xenon (Z = 54).
40Geography
Which one of the following statements regarding water cycle is correct?
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Answer: (D) Underground water may also be connected to surface water.
Explanation
The water cycle involves the continuous movement of water between the atmosphere, land, and subsurface. Groundwater and surface water are not isolated components but are fundamentally interconnected through various hydrological processes. Surface water from rivers, lakes, and wetlands can percolate through the soil to recharge underlying aquifers, particularly in influent or losing stream systems. Conversely, groundwater frequently discharges into surface water bodies, providing a steady base flow that maintains river levels even during dry periods without rainfall. This exchange occurs wherever the water table intersects the land surface or the beds of surface water bodies, facilitating a constant flux between the two reservoirs.
41Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Ocean current) (Coast)
A. Humboldt 1. Namibia-Bangola
B. North Atlantic Drift 2. Chile-Peru
C. Benguela 3. Mozambique-Madagascar
D. Agulhas 4. United Kingdom-Norway
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
The Humboldt Current, also known as the Peru Current, is a cold, low-salinity ocean current that flows north-northwest along the western coast of South America, specifically impacting Chile and Peru. The North Atlantic Drift is a powerful warm current that extends the Gulf Stream northeastward, bringing relatively mild temperatures to the coasts of the United Kingdom and Norway. The Benguela Current is a cold current that flows northward along the Atlantic coast of Southern Africa, cooling the regions of Namibia and Angola. The Agulhas Current is a warm western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean that flows southward along the east coast of Africa, passing between Mozambique and Madagascar.
42Geography
The horizontal wind circulation near the Earth's surface is due to the
1. pressure gradient.
2. frictional force.
3. coriolis force.
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Horizontal wind circulation near the Earth's surface is the result of the combined action of three distinct forces. The pressure gradient force is the primary driver that initiates air movement, as air naturally flows from regions of high atmospheric pressure to regions of low atmospheric pressure. As the air begins to move, the Coriolis force, which arises due to the Earth's rotation, deflects the wind's path to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Unlike winds in the upper atmosphere, winds near the surface are also subject to frictional force caused by the Earth's terrain and obstacles. Friction acts to slow down the wind speed, which subsequently weakens the Coriolis effect, causing the surface wind to cross isobars at an angle rather than flowing parallel to them. The net direction and velocity of the horizontal surface wind are therefore determined by the equilibrium of these three forces.
43Science and Technology
A wire-bound standard resistor uses manganin or constantan. It is because
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Answer: (D) they have resistivity which almost remains unchanged with temperature
Explanation
Standard resistors must maintain a stable resistance value regardless of temperature fluctuations caused by ambient changes or internal heating. Manganin and constantan are specifically chosen because they possess an extremely low temperature coefficient of resistance (α). According to the relation Rₜ = R₀ (1 + α ΔT), a near-zero value of α ensures that the resistivity and the total resistance of the wire remain almost unchanged over a wide temperature range. This stability is critical for precision measurements and maintaining the accuracy of standard instruments. Additionally, these alloys exhibit low thermoelectric EMF when in contact with copper, further reducing measurement errors.
44Science and Technology
Which one among the following is used in making lead pencils?
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Answer: (B) Graphite
Explanation
The core of a lead pencil is primarily composed of graphite mixed with a clay binder. Graphite is a stable allotrope of carbon characterized by a layered, planar structure where carbon atoms are arranged in a hexagonal lattice. In this structure, the layers are held together by weak van der Waals forces, allowing them to slide over each other with minimal friction. When a pencil is pressed against paper, these layers shear off and adhere to the fibers of the surface, creating the written mark. Although called lead pencils, they contain no actual metallic lead (Pb); the name originates from the historical misconception that graphite was a form of lead when a massive deposit was first discovered in Borrowdale, England, in the 16th century. The hardness or darkness of the pencil is adjusted by varying the proportions of graphite and clay.
45Science and Technology
Which one among the following structures or cells is not present in connective tissues?
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Answer: (B) Axon
Explanation
An axon is a structural component of a neuron, which is the primary cell type of nervous tissue. Its function is to transmit electrical impulses away from the neuronal cell body to other neurons, muscles, or glands. Connective tissues are characterized by cells like fibroblasts or chondrocytes embedded within an extracellular matrix containing protein fibers like collagen. Since axons are specialized extensions for signal conduction within the nervous system, they are not a constituent part of connective tissue structures.
46Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Sanctuary) (State)
A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat
B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa
C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha
D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Sharavati Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka and is named after the river Sharavati which flows through the region. Satkosia Gorge Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Odisha along the Mahanadi River where the river cuts a deep gorge through the Eastern Ghats. Pirotan Island is an island in the Arabian Sea and is a part of the Marine National Park located in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat. Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Mollem, Goa, within the Western Ghats and is the largest protected area in the state.
47Science and Technology
Sodium metal should be stored in
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Answer: (B) Kerosene oil
Explanation
Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal that reacts vigorously with atmospheric oxygen and moisture. When exposed to air, it quickly forms sodium oxide, and when in contact with water, it produces sodium hydroxide and flammable hydrogen gas, a reaction that is exothermic enough to ignite the hydrogen. To prevent these spontaneous reactions and ensure safety, sodium must be submerged in a liquid with which it does not react. Kerosene oil is a non-polar hydrocarbon that is chemically inert toward sodium. Because sodium is denser than kerosene, it remains submerged at the bottom, which isolates the metal from oxygen and water vapor in the environment.
48Science and Technology
The word 'vaccination' has been derived from a Latin word which relates to
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Answer: (C) Cow
Explanation
The term vaccination is derived from the Latin word vacca, which means cow. This etymology is directly linked to the work of British physician Edward Jenner, who in 1796 demonstrated that infection with the relatively mild cowpox virus could protect humans against the much more dangerous smallpox virus. Jenner referred to cowpox as variolae vaccinae, literally translating to smallpox of the cow. Based on this terminology, the process of using cowpox material to induce immunity was named vaccination. While the practice has since evolved to cover many different diseases, the name remains a tribute to its bovine-related origins.
49History
Which of the following characteristics describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda?
1. Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism.
2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the priest who was called yajaman.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds - those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists.
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Rig Vedic religion is defined as naturalistic polytheism because the Aryans worshipped various natural forces personified as gods, such as Indra for thunder and Agni for fire. There is a strong historical link between the Rig Veda and the Iranian Zend Avesta, characterized by shared deities like Mitra and Varuna and the common ritualistic use of the Soma plant. Vedic sacrifices were classified into two distinct types: domestic rites performed by the householder and complex public ceremonies that required the presence of specialized ritual priests. In these traditions, the yajaman served as the patron or host who commissioned the ritual, while the performance itself was handled by trained priests.
50History
Which of the following statement(s) about caste movements in early 20th century Kerala is/are false?
1. Kerala's first modern novel Indulekha attacked the social dominance of Nambudiri Brahmans in Kerala.
2. C.V. Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda Varma was written against the exploitation of peasants by Nair landlords.
3. Sree Narayana Guru was one of the founders of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam that was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in Kerala.
4. Dr. Palpu, the first Ezhava graduate, was one of the founders of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam that was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in Kerala.
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Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation
C.V. Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda Varma (1891) is a historical romance that chronicles the rise of King Marthanda Varma to the throne of Travancore. The narrative focuses on the political intrigue, power struggles, and the eventual triumph of the king over his enemies, the Ettuveetil Pillamar (eight powerful Nair lords) and the Thampi brothers. It is not a social critique aimed at the exploitation of peasants by landlords; instead, it is a work of historical fiction that emphasizes royal legitimacy and the unification of the Travancore state. Because the novel centers on dynastic politics and military conflict rather than agrarian social reform, the description of its theme as an attack on peasant exploitation is incorrect.
51Polity and Governance
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights?
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Answer: (B) Golaknath Case
Explanation
In the Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) case, an eleven-judge bench of the Supreme Court delivered a landmark judgment by a 6:5 majority. The Court ruled that Fundamental Rights are assigned a transcendental and immutable position in the Constitution, meaning the Parliament does not have the power to abridge or take away any of these rights. The Court specifically held that the term law in Article 13(2) includes Constitutional Amendments made under Article 368. Therefore, any amendment that violates Fundamental Rights would be considered void under Article 13. This decision reversed the earlier judicial stance that distinguished between ordinary legislative power and constituent power, effectively subjecting constitutional amendments to the same scrutiny as ordinary laws regarding their impact on Fundamental Rights.
52Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4
Explanation
The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Amendment Act in 1951, along with Article 31B, to protect land reform laws and the abolition of the Zamindari system from judicial scrutiny on the grounds that they violated the Fundamental Rights of citizens. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ninth Schedule was established in 1951 and not by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Statement 4 is incorrect because the schedule was specifically designed to protect legislation dealing with agrarian reforms and social justice, rather than matters pertaining to national security. While the Supreme Court ruled in the I.R. Coelho case (2007) that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution, statements 3 and 4 remain fundamentally factually incorrect regarding the origin and primary purpose of the schedule.
53Geography
Which one among the following was the theme of the International Day of the Preservation of the Ozone Layer-2014?
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Answer: (D) Ozone Layer Protection : The Mission Goes On
Explanation
The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is celebrated annually on September 16 to mark the anniversary of the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987. For the year 2014, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) designated the theme as Ozone Layer Protection: The Mission Goes On. This theme was chosen to emphasize that while significant progress had been made in phasing out ozone-depleting substances, continued global efforts and cooperation were still necessary to ensure the full recovery and protection of the ozone layer for future generations. It highlighted the transition from early successes to the ongoing challenges of managing remaining substances and implementing the protocol's amendments.
54Polity and Governance
Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned?
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Answer: (C) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up in the country
Explanation
Article 33 of the Indian Constitution grants Parliament the authority to modify or restrict the Fundamental Rights of specific categories of persons to maintain discipline and ensure the proper discharge of duties. These categories include the armed forces, forces responsible for public order, and personnel employed in telecommunication systems specifically set up for these organizations. Members associated with communication systems established for the country at large do not fall under this constitutional provision. Consequently, they are not subject to the same legal restrictions as the dedicated security and order-related personnel. This creates a distinction in the availability and enforcement of their Fundamental Rights, meaning they are not treated at par with the restricted groups mentioned in Article 33.
55Polity and Governance
Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of
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Answer: (C) Ministry of External Affairs
Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs is the nodal agency for handling India's relations with foreign nations and international legal obligations. According to the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the specific responsibility for the notification regarding the commencement or cessation of a state of war is assigned to this ministry. Since such declarations involve formal diplomatic communication with the international community and impact India's standing under international law and treaties, the Ministry of External Affairs manages the protocol and legalities associated with these sovereign announcements.
56History
Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's South African experiences (1893-1914) is/are true?
1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa.
2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance on compulsory registration and passes for Indians.
3. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition of excessive taxes on Indians in Cape Town.
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Answer: (D) 1 only
Explanation
Muslim merchants played a foundational role in Mahatma Gandhi's political activities in South Africa. Gandhi originally arrived in 1893 to represent a Muslim merchant firm, Dada Abdulla and Co. These merchants, who were often wealthy traders in Natal and the Transvaal, provided the financial backing and organizational network for the Natal Indian Congress, which Gandhi founded in 1894. Throughout the Satyagraha campaigns, the merchant class remained a critical pillar of support, participating actively in protests against discriminatory legislation and the restriction of Indian trade and movement.
57History
Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement?
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Answer: (D) Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal
Explanation
These newspapers were the primary media organs that articulated the political grievances and pan-Islamic aspirations of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement. Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar edited the English weekly Comrade and the Urdu daily Hamdard, which played a crucial role in voicing Muslim concerns to both the British administration and the Indian public. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad founded Al-Hilal in 1912, using it to propagate revolutionary ideas and emphasize the religious obligation of Muslims to support the Ottoman Caliphate. Zafar Ali Khan edited the Urdu daily Zamindar from Lahore, which became a powerful platform for anti-imperialist rhetoric and Khilafat propaganda. Collectively, these publications mobilized the Muslim community and bridged the gap between religious sentiment and the broader nationalist struggle against British rule.
58Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual.
2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of men and individuals.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Marxist theory rejects the liberal or bourgeois conception of the individual as an atomised, self-sufficient monad existing independently of social relations. Karl Marx argues that the human essence is not an abstraction inherent in each single individual, but rather the ensemble of social relations. Thus, the state of alienation and atomisation observed in capitalist societies is viewed as a historical product of specific economic conditions rather than a natural or permanent human state. By emphasizing the social nature of production and existence, Marxism repudiates the idea of the naturally atomised individual.
Furthermore, Marxism does not uphold the doctrine of natural rights. In works such as On the Jewish Question, Marx critiques the liberal Rights of Man as being the rights of the egoistic individual separated from the community. He views these rights as ideological constructs of the capitalist era designed to protect private property and facilitate the pursuit of individual interests, rather than as universal or inherent natural truths. Consequently, Marxism seeks to transcend these bourgeois rights in favor of true human emancipation within a communal society.
59Economy
Which one among the following was not an outcome of the fifth BRICS summit held in Durban in South Africa in March 2013?
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Answer: (A) Signing of two agreements on Extending Credit Facility in Local Currencies and BRICS Multilateral Letter of Credit Confirmation Facility
Explanation
The agreements mentioned in option a) were actually signed during the fourth BRICS summit held in New Delhi, India, in March 2012. These included the Master Agreement on Extending Credit Facility in Local Currencies and the BRICS Multilateral Letter of Credit Confirmation Facility Agreement, aimed at reducing the reliance on the US Dollar and promoting intra-BRICS trade.
The fifth BRICS summit, held in Durban, South Africa, in March 2013 under the theme BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialisation, resulted in the following key outcomes:
The leaders reached a consensus and decided to establish the New Development Bank (NDB) to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects. They also agreed that the establishment of a Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) with an initial size of US$ 100 billion was feasible, serving as a financial safety net for member nations. Furthermore, the summit saw the official launch of the BRICS Business Council and the BRICS Think Tank Council to strengthen economic ties and provide intellectual support for the group's cooperation. The agreements signed in Durban specifically focused on Multilateral Cooperation and Co-financing for Sustainable Development and Multilateral Infrastructure Co-financing for Africa.
60History
Seeking to revive historic ties, the Indian Air Force has gifted a vintage Dakota Aircraft from its museum to (September 2014)
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Answer: (B) the Bangladesh Air Force
Explanation
In September 2014, the Indian Air Force gifted a vintage Douglas C-47 Skytrain, popularly known as the Dakota, to the Bangladesh Air Force to commemorate their shared history and cooperation during the 1971 Liberation War. The Dakota aircraft holds significant historical importance for Bangladesh as it was the primary aircraft used by the Kilo Flight, the first aerial unit of the Bangladesh Air Force formed in Dimapur, Nagaland, during the conflict. The aircraft was handed over by the Chief of Air Staff of the Indian Air Force to his Bangladeshi counterpart at the Bangladesh Air Force Base Bangabandhu in Dhaka to be displayed as a prestigious exhibit in their museum.
61Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (D) The Chairperson and members of the Armed Forces Tribunal can be removed only after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Explanation
Under Section 9 of the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007, the Chairperson or any other Member of the Tribunal can be removed from office by the Central Government only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. This removal is mandated to occur after a formal inquiry conducted by a Judge of the Supreme Court, in which the Chairperson or Member is informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard. The Act specifically requires this judicial inquiry process for removal, whereas consultation with the Chief Justice of India is the legal requirement stipulated for the appointment of the Chairperson and Members under Section 7.
62Economy
In recent plans, certain words/phrases were used in the title of the plan along with 'growth'. They are
1. Inclusive
2. Faster
3. More inclusive
4. Sustainable
5. More sustainable
Which combination is true of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012- 17)?
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The official title of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth. This title reflected the primary objectives of the Planning Commission to not only accelerate the rate of economic expansion but also to ensure that the process was more equitable and environmentally viable. By using the phrase more inclusive, the plan aimed to improve upon the inclusive growth goals of the Eleventh Plan, while the addition of sustainable highlighted a new, critical focus on ecological balance and resource management alongside industrial and agricultural development.
63History
Which of the following statements about the social reformer, Raja Rammohun Roy, is false?
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Answer: (A) Rammohun Roy belonged to the gentry class whose power had been diminished because of the imposition of the Permanent Settlement.
Explanation
Raja Rammohun Roy belonged to the new class of landed gentry that flourished under the British colonial administration following the Permanent Settlement of 1793. Far from having his power diminished, Roy was a prosperous zamindar who benefited significantly from the legal and economic framework of the new land tenure system. He accumulated substantial wealth through land ownership and his service with the East India Company, utilizing his financial independence to fund his social and religious reforms. Roy remained a supporter of the Permanent Settlement, arguing that it provided security of property and stability to the landowning class, and he even advocated for its extension to other parts of India.
64History
Which of the following characteristics about the state of Travancore in 18th century Kerala is/are correct?
1. Travancore was ruled by Marthanda Varma from 1729 to 1758.
2. Travancore built a strong army and defeated the Dutch in 1741.
3. Travancore was an important centre of learning.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Marthanda Varma, who ruled Travancore from 1729 to 1758, is credited with the expansion and modernization of the state. He organized a strong, well-equipped standing army trained on Western lines and utilized it to subjugate local feudal elements and neighboring principalities. A landmark achievement of his reign was the Battle of Colachel in 1741, where the Travancore forces defeated the Dutch East India Company, effectively ending Dutch colonial ambitions in the Malabar coast. Furthermore, Travancore developed into a significant seat of culture and education during the 18th century. Marthanda Varma and his successor, Rama Varma, provided extensive patronage to numerous poets, musicians, and scholars, making the kingdom a prominent centre of learning and attracting intellectuals from across the region.
65Polity and Governance
A Parliamentary Democracy is one where
1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place.
2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives.
3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
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Answer: (A) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Parliamentary democracy is a form of representative government where the executive is constitutionally accountable to the legislature. Statement 1 reflects the pluralist and elitist theories of democracy, which suggest that in large modern states, democracy functions through a balance where the public participates via periodic elections while the actual management of the state is conducted by elected political elites. Statement 2 identifies the core mechanism of the parliamentary system, known as collective responsibility, where the government must maintain the confidence of the elected representatives to remain in power, making it directly answerable to the parliament rather than the general public between elections. Statement 3 describes the representative function of the system, where parliamentarians act as trustees or delegates who are empowered to deliberate and make decisions on behalf of the constituents they represent. These three components ensure that the government is both representative and subject to continuous legislative oversight.
66Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism ?
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Answer: (D) Individual Freedom
Explanation
Individual freedom is the foundational principle of Liberalism, whereas Socialism is centered on the concepts of collectivism, social equality, and the common ownership of the means of production. Socialism posits that the welfare of the community as a whole is paramount and that true freedom can only be achieved when economic exploitation is eliminated through collective action and state intervention. In classical socialist thought, the focus on individual liberty is often criticized as a bourgeois concept that protects private property and facilitates class disparity. Therefore, while socialism seeks to liberate the working class from oppression, it does so through the lens of collective rights and social organization rather than the prioritized individual autonomy that characterizes liberal political philosophy.
67Art and Culture
'And Then One Day : A Memoir' is an autobiography of
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Answer: (C) Naseeruddin Shah
Explanation
And Then One Day: A Memoir is the autobiography of the veteran Indian film and stage actor Naseeruddin Shah, published in 2014. The book offers a remarkably candid and detailed account of the actor's early life, covering his childhood, his years at the National School of Drama and the Film and Television Institute of India, and his initial struggles in the Indian film industry. It concludes around the time of his marriage to actress Ratna Pathak Shah, capturing his journey from a young aspiring performer to becoming a prominent figure in both Parallel Cinema and mainstream Bollywood.
68Economy
Inclusion strategy does not focus on
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Answer: (D) getting poorer countries closer
Explanation
Inclusion strategy, as defined in the context of developmental planning like India's Eleventh and Twelfth Five Year Plans, is a domestic policy framework aimed at ensuring that the benefits of economic growth are shared across all sections of society. Its primary objectives involve internal socio-economic variables such as the reduction of poverty, narrowing the gap of income inequality, and promoting social justice for marginalized groups, including the diversification of livelihoods for tribal populations. The concept of getting poorer countries closer relates to international relations, global economic convergence, or South-South cooperation, which are external geopolitical goals rather than the focus of a national inclusion strategy aimed at internal equity and structural transformation.
69Polity and Governance
When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in respect of which one of the following matters ?
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Answer: (B) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area
Explanation
Article 34 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws indemnifying persons for acts done in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in areas under martial law, and to validate sentences, punishments, forfeitures, and other acts done during the period of martial law. These powers ensure parliamentary oversight and legal accountability for actions taken under martial law conditions. Option (b) describes Parliament’s power to validate sentences passed when martial law was in force, which is within the scope of Article 34.
70History
Upari refers to which one of the following ?
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Answer: (B) A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime
Explanation
In the Maratha administrative and land revenue system, the rural population involved in cultivation was primarily divided into two categories: Mirasdars and Uparis. The term Upari refers to a category of tenant who held land under a temporary tenancy tenure rather than through hereditary ownership. Unlike the Mirasdars, who were permanent residents with proprietary rights to their ancestral lands, Uparis were often newcomers or migratory cultivators who settled in a village to farm vacant lands. They functioned as tenants-at-will or leaseholders, paying land revenue to the state or a share to the village community. Their tenure was not permanent, and they lacked the social and legal status associated with hereditary landholders, making them a distinct class of cultivators within the Maratha agrarian hierarchy.
71History
Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of the Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings ?
1. These uprisings refer to a series of skirmishes between the English East India Company and a group of sannyasis and fakirs.
2. One reason for the uprising was the ban on free movement of the sannyasis along pilgrimage routes.
3. In the course of the uprisings in 1773, Warren Hastings issued a proclamation banishing all sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar.
4. Are contemporaneous with the Non-Cooperation Movement.
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Answer: (C) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
The Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings were a series of armed conflicts in Bengal during the late 18th century, roughly between 1763 and 1800, involving Hindu sannyasis of the Dasnami sect and Muslim fakirs of the Madari sect against the British East India Company. A primary grievance was the Company's policy of restricting the traditional free movement of these pilgrims to holy sites and the imposition of pilgrim taxes. The economic devastation of the Great Bengal Famine of 1770 further fueled the rebellion as the sannyasis and fakirs began raiding Company treasuries and factories. To suppress the movement, Warren Hastings issued a proclamation in 1773 that formally banished all sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar and authorized their forceful eviction. These events preceded the 20th-century Non-Cooperation Movement by more than 150 years.
72Polity and Governance
Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System?
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Answer: (A) Dual citizenship
Explanation
The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship for the entire country, which is a departure from the dual citizenship model typically found in federal systems like the United States. Under the US system, a person is a citizen of both the USA and the specific state they reside in. In contrast, Articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution establish that all citizens are citizens of India only, regardless of the state in which they were born or live. This feature was intentionally incorporated by the framers to promote national integration, strengthen the sense of fraternity, and prevent regionalism or narrow loyalties from undermining the unity of the newly independent nation. Consequently, every citizen enjoys the same uniform rights and privileges across the territory of India.
73Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (A) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Explanation
Article 32 provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution. While Clause 2 of Article 32 specifically empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or writs for this purpose, it does not confer such powers upon the High Courts. The jurisdiction of the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (and for other purposes) is derived independently from Article 226 of the Indian Constitution. Consequently, Article 32 is restricted to the remedial powers of the Supreme Court alone.
74Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Professor Kamal Bawa was conferred with the Midori Prize (2014) for biodiversity for his research on climate change in the Himalayas.
2. Midori Prize is an annual international prize given to an individual for outstanding contribution to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity at global, regional or local levels.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Professor Kamaljit S. Bawa, the founder president of the Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE), was awarded the 2014 Midori Prize for Biodiversity. The award recognized his significant research on the biodiversity of tropical forests and his work on the impacts of climate change on the biodiversity and livelihoods in the Himalayan region. The Midori Prize for Biodiversity is a biennial international award, meaning it is presented every two years, not annually. Established in 2010 by the AEON Environmental Foundation in collaboration with the Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity, the prize is awarded to individuals who have made outstanding contributions to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity at global, regional, or local levels.
75Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Every command given by a superior officer casts a duty on all persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command when such a notification is in force.
Explanation
Section 3 of the Armed Forces (Emergency Duties) Act, 1947, specifies that a command given by a superior officer to a person subject to military law is deemed a lawful command specifically when it is given for a purpose connected with the maintenance of the service specified in the notification. The Act does not stipulate that every command given by a superior officer during the notification period falls under this provision; rather, it only extends the definition of a lawful command to include those specific duties related to the vital service. Commands unrelated to the specified service remain governed by the standard provisions of the Army Act, Air Force Act, or Navy Act. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it erroneously generalizes the duty to obey to all commands without the statutory limitation regarding the purpose of the command.
76Polity and Governance
The Central Industrial Security Force is under the administrative control of which of the following ministries?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) of India, established under the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968. As a central security agency, it functions under the direct administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India. The ministry is responsible for the force's policy decisions, budget allocation, and high-level personnel management. The primary mandate of the CISF is to provide security and protection to vital national infrastructure, including nuclear power plants, space installations, airports, and various Public Sector Undertakings. Because its duties pertain to internal security and the protection of critical government assets, it is governed by the Home Ministry rather than defense or industry-specific ministries.
77History
Which of the following features of the State of Arcot in 18th century South India are correct?
1. The founders of the dynasty that ruled Arcot were Daud Khan Panni and Sa'adatullah Khan.
2. Arcot became the site of a protracted struggle between the English and Dutch East India Companies from the 1740s.
3. Decentralization was a key feature of the State of Arcot in the 18th century.
4. The other major State to emerge in South India at this time was Mysore.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The State of Arcot, also known as the Carnatic, was characterized by a high degree of decentralization during the 18th century. The Nawab’s authority was often nominal, as the political landscape was fragmented among various local power centers, most notably the Poligars. These local chieftains maintained their own military forces and exercised significant control over land and revenue, which prevented the establishment of a strong, centralized administrative structure.
During this same period, Mysore emerged as the other major indigenous power in South India. Following the decline of the Vijayanagara influence and the weakening of the Mughal periphery, Mysore rose to prominence under the leadership of Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan. It became a highly centralized and militarized state that served as a significant rival to both the State of Arcot and the regional ambitions of European trading companies.
78Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century North India is/are not correct:
1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the khayal form.
2. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage.
3. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based gharanas.
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Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation
The 18th and 19th centuries were characterized by the political decline of the Mughal Empire and the central authority in Delhi. Following the invasion of Nadir Shah in 1739 and the subsequent instability, the Mughal court could no longer provide the lavish patronage it once did. As a result, a large-scale migration of musicians occurred away from Delhi toward prosperous regional centers such as Lucknow, Gwalior, Jaipur, and Rampur. These regional courts became the new hubs of musical innovation and employment, leading to the decentralization of North Indian classical music.
This period was also significant for the elevation of the Khayal form over the traditional Dhrupad. Niyamat Khan, known as Sadarang, served in the court of Emperor Muhammad Shah Rangeela and is credited with formalizing and popularizing Khayal, giving it the structure and prestige it maintains today. As musicians settled in different regional courts, they developed distinct stylistic identities and pedagogical lineages. This geographical dispersion and the relative isolation of musical families in different princely states facilitated the formation of region-based gharanas, which became the defining organizational structure of Hindustani classical music in the 19th century.
79Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are not the characteristic(s) of the First Past The Post System (FPTP)?
1. It is a majoritarian system where minorities are likely to remain unrepresented.
2. A candidate may win an election even if he/she gets less than the majority of the votes cast.
3. It generates proportionality between the votes cast and the seats won.
4. It always leads to a two party system and a stable and accountable government.
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Answer: (A) 3 and 4
Explanation
The First Past The Post (FPTP) system is characterized by a lack of proportionality between the percentage of votes a party receives and the number of seats it wins in the legislature. A party often secures a much higher share of seats compared to its vote share, while smaller parties with significant but dispersed support may receive no representation at all. This creates a significant seat-vote gap, making it the opposite of a proportional representation system.
Furthermore, while the FPTP system tends to favor a two-party structure according to Duverger's Law, it does not always lead to one. India serves as a prominent example where the FPTP system operates within a vibrant multi-party environment. Additionally, the system does not guarantee a stable or accountable government, as outcomes depend on various political and social factors rather than the electoral mechanism alone. Consequently, the claims of inherent proportionality and the absolute certainty of a two-party system or stable government are not characteristics of FPTP.
80Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003?
1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country.
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India.
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Constitution of India, under Article 9, and the Citizenship Act of 1955 do not permit dual or double citizenship. The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, introduced by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2003, provides a registration status for Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) that grants them certain privileges but does not constitute actual Indian citizenship. Consequently, OCI cardholders remain foreign citizens and do not possess the right to dual nationality.
Furthermore, under Section 7B of the Citizenship Act, 1955, OCI cardholders are specifically excluded from certain rights granted to Indian citizens. They are not entitled to the right to vote in any election to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, or State Legislative Assemblies or Councils. They are also prohibited from holding constitutional offices, including those of the President, Vice-President, and Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts. Therefore, the assertions that the scheme provides dual citizenship and voting rights are legally incorrect.
81Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of National AYUSH Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet recently ?
1. Improvement of AYUSH education through enhancement in the number of upgraded educational institutions.
2. Better access to AYUSH services through increase in the AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries, availability of drugs and manpower.
3. Providing sustained availability of quality raw material for AYUSH system of medicine.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National AYUSH Mission (NAM) was launched by the Union Cabinet in September 2014 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to address the gaps in health services and education within the AYUSH sector. The first objective focuses on improving AYUSH education by upgrading existing educational institutions and establishing new ones to ensure a high standard of professional training. The second objective aims to enhance the reach of AYUSH healthcare by increasing the number of hospitals and dispensaries, while simultaneously ensuring a steady supply of essential drugs and trained manpower. The third objective addresses the supply chain by promoting the cultivation of medicinal plants and establishing post-harvest management facilities to ensure the sustained availability of quality raw materials required for the manufacturing of AYUSH medicines. These components work together to provide cost-effective and equitable AYUSH healthcare across the country.
82Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct ?
1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland.
2. A person taken into custody under the above Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest police station with least possible delay.
3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under the above Act only when the State Government is of the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous condition in the concerned area.
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
Section 5 of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, stipulates that any person arrested and taken into custody under the Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest police station with the least possible delay, together with a report of the circumstances that led to the arrest. This procedural requirement ensures that the individual is brought into the custody of the civil police for further legal processing.
Regarding the geographical scope, the Act has historically applied to various states in Northeast India, including Assam and Meghalaya, and was not restricted solely to Manipur, Tripura, and Nagaland. Furthermore, Section 3 of the Act, as amended in 1972, grants the authority to declare an area as disturbed to both the Central Government and the Governor of the State or the Administrator of a Union Territory. Therefore, such a declaration is not exclusively dependent on the opinion or authority of the State Government, as the Central Government can independently exercise this power if it deems the condition of an area to be dangerous or disturbed.
83Polity and Governance
Indian Coast Guard is
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Answer: (C) an organization under the Ministry of Defence
Explanation
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was formally established on 18 August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978, as an independent armed force of the Union. It operates under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defence. The organization is responsible for protecting India's maritime interests, enforcing maritime law within the territorial waters and the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and ensuring the safety of life and property at sea. While it coordinates with various agencies for anti-smuggling and search-and-rescue operations, its primary reporting and budgetary structure is governed entirely by the Ministry of Defence.
84Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century South India is/are correct?
1. Musical developments were spearheaded by the Arcot court.
2. Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of classical music in the second half of the nineteenth century.
3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Diksitar and Syama Sastri experimented with the kriti form to set the foundations for modern Carnatic music.
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
The 18th and 19th centuries represent the golden age of Carnatic music, but the primary center of development was the Tanjavur Maratha court rather than the Arcot court. Under the patronage of rulers like Sahaji II, Tulaja II, and Serfoji II, Tanjavur became the epicenter of artistic excellence. It was in this environment that the Trinity of Carnatic music—Tyagaraja (1767–1847), Muthuswami Dikshitar (1775–1835), and Syama Sastri (1762–1827)—thrived. They perfected the kriti form, a musical composition that balanced structured melodic patterns with devotional lyrics, typically divided into Pallavi, Anupallavi, and Charanam. Their prolific output and innovative use of ragas and talas laid the essential foundations for the modern Carnatic concert tradition.
Conversely, the cultural geography shifted in the opposite direction during the late nineteenth century. As the Maratha kingdom of Tanjavur was annexed and royal patronage dwindled after 1855, musicians and scholars migrated toward Madras. Consequently, Madras replaced Tanjavur as the primary cultural and institutional capital of classical music during the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, driven by the emergence of new middle-class audiences and music sabhas.
85Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about visual culture in 18th and early 19th century North India is/are correct?
1. Painters from Patna and Murshidabad flocked to Calcutta and produced water colours in the English mode.
2. Landscape and portraiture became extremely important at this time.
3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das and Ram Das were adopted by the English East India Company to produce albums of Indian birds and animals.
4. While Indians were influenced by European artistic styles, European artists did not visit regional courts.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
With the decline of the Mughal Empire and regional powers in Murshidabad and Patna, many artists migrated to Calcutta to seek patronage from officials of the British East India Company. This led to the development of the Company School of painting, where Indian artists adapted their traditional techniques to suit British tastes, primarily using watercolours on paper instead of gouache on parchment. During this period, visual culture shifted away from traditional narrative miniatures toward realistic portraiture and topographical landscapes, reflecting the European interest in documenting Indian life and scenery. Specific artists such as Sheikh Zain-ud-din (Zayan-al-Din), Bhawani Das, and Ram Das were prominent figures in this movement. They were famously commissioned by Lady Impey in Calcutta to produce a vast natural history album featuring meticulously detailed illustrations of Indian birds and animals, blending Mughal precision with European scientific observation.
86Polity and Governance
The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the
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Answer: (C) Election Commission of India
Explanation
Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State is vested in the Election Commission of India. This constitutional mandate grants the Commission the autonomous authority to determine the election schedule, including the specific dates for polling and counting. While Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, states that the Governor issues the formal notification for a general election to the State Legislative Assembly, this notification is issued only on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission. Therefore, the actual decision-making power regarding the timing and phases of the election rests solely with the Election Commission of India to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections.
87Polity and Governance
Which among the following is not an aspect of Gender Mainstreaming (GM)?
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Answer: (D) GM was followed by the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW).
Explanation
The Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1979 and entered into force in 1981. In contrast, Gender Mainstreaming (GM) was established as a global strategy much later, specifically during the Fourth World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995. Chronologically, CEDAW preceded the formal adoption and definition of Gender Mainstreaming by over a decade. Therefore, it is factually incorrect to state that Gender Mainstreaming was followed by CEDAW, as the convention was already a well-established international treaty long before the Beijing Platform for Action popularized the mainstreaming approach.
88Art and Culture
The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC Culture Ministers, convened in New Delhi on September 25, 2014, unanimously resolved
1. to declare 2015-16 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage.
2. that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital for 2015-16.
3. to promote SAARC culture online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis on digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and other articles of intangible cultural value.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The 3rd Meeting of SAARC Culture Ministers, held in New Delhi, resulted in the adoption of the Delhi Declaration on SAARC Culture to foster regional integration through shared heritage. A major resolution of this meeting was the designation of Bamiyan in Afghanistan as the first SAARC Cultural Capital for the 2015-16 period. Furthermore, the ministers agreed to promote the region's cultural richness online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture. This digital initiative focused on the digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books, and other articles of intangible cultural value to ensure their preservation and global accessibility. While the meeting also resolved to observe a SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage, it was specifically designated for the 2016-17 term rather than 2015-16.
89Polity and Governance
Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of
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Answer: (C) Border Road Development Board
Explanation
)
Section 24 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, provides that the Act shall not apply to the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government that are specified in the Second Schedule. This schedule includes organizations such as the National Security Council Secretariat, the Assam Rifles, and the Border Road Organisation. These entities are exempted from the disclosure requirements of the Act except when the information sought pertains to allegations of corruption or human rights violations. The Border Road Development Board, which is an administrative body within the Ministry of Defence responsible for laying down the policy and priorities for border roads, is not listed in the Second Schedule. Therefore, it remains subject to the provisions of the RTI Act, and information can be provided by it in accordance with the standard legal framework.
90Polity and Governance
Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
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Answer: (D) The senior-most Chief of Staff
Explanation
Until the creation of the post of Chief of Defence Staff in 2019, the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) served as the highest coordination body among the three branches of the Indian Armed Forces. The chairmanship of the COSC was held by the senior-most Chief of Staff among the heads of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This appointment was based strictly on the seniority of the officer in their respective rank as Chief. The Chairman COSC acted as the primary military advisor to the Minister of Defence and the Prime Minister, facilitating inter-service cooperation and jointness in planning and operations.
91History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Editor) List II (Journal/Newspaper)
A. S.A. Dange 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette
B. Muzaffar Ahmed 2. Inquilab
C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Navayug
D. M. Singaravelu 4. The Socialist
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
S.A. Dange started the weekly journal The Socialist in 1922 in Bombay, which is recognized as the first communist journal in India. Muzaffar Ahmed was a key figure in the early communist movement in Bengal and was associated with the daily journal Navayug, which he co-founded with the rebel poet Kazi Nazrul Islam in 1920. Ghulam Hussain was a prominent leader in Lahore who published the Urdu newspaper Inquilab to propagate socialist and radical ideas in the Punjab region. M. Singaravelu Chettiar, a pioneer of the labor movement in South India, launched the Labour-Kisan Gazette in 1923 from Madras to advocate for the rights of workers and peasants.
92History
Which of the following was/were connected primarily to the communist ideology?
1. Kirti Kisan Party
2. Labour Swaraj Party
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Kirti Kisan Party was founded in Punjab in 1928 by Sohan Singh Josh and Santokh Singh. It was a revolutionary organization that aimed to organize the peasantry and working class based on Marxist-Leninist principles and was closely associated with the Ghadar movement and the Communist International. It acted as a legal front for communist activities in North India.
The Labour Swaraj Party was established in Bengal in 1925 by Muzaffar Ahmad, Qazi Nazrul Islam, and Hemanta Kumar Sarkar. It was the first Workers and Peasants Party in India and served as a legal platform for the Communist Party of India (CPI) during a period of intense British repression. Its primary objective was to organize labor and advocate for the rights of the masses through a socialist and communist ideological lens. Both parties were integral to the early institutionalization of the communist movement in colonial India.
93Economy
Which of the following statements is not true?
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Answer: (D) The WTO has been able to cover in its agreements the agriculture and textile sectors which are the principal concerns for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
Explanation
Statement d) is not true because, although the WTO established the Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) and the Agreement on Textiles and Clothing (ATC), these sectors remain the most contentious and least resolved areas of global trade for Least Developed Countries (LDCs). LDCs and developing nations have consistently argued that the WTO framework has failed to effectively address their principal concerns. In agriculture, the AoA has been criticized for allowing developed nations to maintain high levels of domestic subsidies (through Green and Blue Box exemptions) and tariff peaks that disadvantage LDC exports. In the textile sector, despite the phase-out of the Multi-Fibre Arrangement (MFA) in 2005, LDCs have frequently encountered new protectionist hurdles such as anti-dumping duties and technical barriers in developed markets. The prolonged deadlock of the Doha Development Round, which was launched in 2001 specifically to resolve these development-related imbalances, demonstrates that the WTO has not yet been able to cover these sectors in a manner that provides equitable benefits to LDCs.
94Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a part of contemporary Indian foreign policy in relationships with its neighbours?
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Answer: (C) Non-alignment
Explanation
Non-alignment is a macro-level strategic principle that defines India's position in the global international order and its refusal to join military blocs, rather than a specific policy framework aimed at regional integration or bilateral diplomacy with neighboring states. It serves as a broad guideline for maintaining strategic autonomy on the world stage and managing interactions with major global powers. Because its focus is on India's stance within the international system and multilateral movements, it does not function as a regional engagement tool or a mechanism designed for managing the immediate geographical, economic, and political relationships within the Indian subcontinent and its surrounding neighborhood.
95Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission.
2. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-Missions - Union Territories and States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on October 2, 2014, by restructuring the existing Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan, which was the national sanitation program at the time. The mission was divided into two distinct sub-missions based on the target areas of implementation rather than administrative divisions like states or union territories. These two sub-missions are the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin), which focuses on rural areas and was initially managed by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, and the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), which focuses on urban areas under the Ministry of Urban Development. Statement 1 is accurate as it reflects the administrative shift from the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan to the new mission framework, while Statement 2 is incorrect because it misidentifies the classification of the sub-missions.
96Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (B) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law.
Explanation
Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India expressly provides that the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President. The same article stipulates that the exercise of this command shall be regulated by law. This constitutional provision ensures that while the President serves as the formal head of the military, the actual governance, recruitment, and discipline of the armed forces are subject to the legislative authority of Parliament. Consequently, the functioning of the Army, Navy, and Air Force is governed by specific statutes such as the Army Act of 1950, which define the scope and limits of military authority within the framework of the rule of law.
97Economy
Demand for a commodity refers to
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Answer: (D) Quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time
Explanation
In economic theory, demand represents the specific quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price during a defined period of time. It is fundamentally different from a simple desire or need because it must be backed by purchasing power and a willingness to spend. Demand is considered a flow variable, meaning it is measured over an interval—such as a day, month, or year—rather than at a single point in time. Consequently, a complete definition of demand requires the integration of three essential elements: the quantity of the commodity, the price of that commodity, and the specific time dimension.
98History
The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in order to
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Answer: (B) ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.
Explanation
The British strategic interest in Afghanistan during the nineteenth century was primarily dictated by the Great Game, a period of intense geopolitical rivalry between the British and Russian Empires. The British Government of India viewed the rapid expansion of Tsarist Russia into Central Asia as a direct threat to the security of its Indian territories. Consequently, Afghanistan was perceived as a vital buffer state. The core objective of British foreign policy, known as the Forward Policy, was to ensure that the Afghan ruler remained friendly to British interests and that no rival European power, particularly Russia, could establish a diplomatic or military presence in Kabul that might serve as a gateway for an invasion of India.
99History
What was the common element among (i) G.D. Birla (ii) Ambalal Sarabhai and (iii) Walchand Hirachand?
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Answer: (B) They were Indian industrialists
Explanation
G.D. Birla, Ambalal Sarabhai, and Walchand Hirachand were prominent Indian industrialists who played a crucial role in building the country's indigenous industrial base during the colonial period. Ghanshyam Das Birla was the founder of the Birla Group and a leading figure in the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). Ambalal Sarabhai was a major textile magnate from Ahmedabad, known for his leadership in the Calico Mills and his philanthropic activities. Walchand Hirachand was a pioneer in heavy industries, establishing India's first modern shipyard, aircraft factory, and automobile manufacturing unit. While they provided significant financial support to the Indian national movement and were close associates of nationalist leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, their primary identity and common bond was their status as pioneers of Indian industry.
100Economy
Which of the following is not true for SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)?
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Answer: (D) The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with states outside SAFTA.
Explanation
The SAFTA agreement does not contain any provision that gives it precedence over a member country trade agreements with states outside the South Asian region. According to Article 20 of the SAFTA Agreement, the provisions of the agreement do not exempt any Contracting State from its obligations under any other international agreement. It also specifies that SAFTA does not apply to existing or future agreements between a member state and a non-member state, provided such agreements do not nullify or impair the benefits accruing to other SAFTA members. Member nations like India maintain numerous bilateral and multilateral trade pacts with countries outside SAARC, such as the India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement, which function independently of the SAFTA framework. Therefore, the claim that SAFTA takes precedence over agreements with external states is legally and practically incorrect.
101Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the Panchsheel?
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Answer: (C) Mutual support for each other in world forum
Explanation
The Panchsheel, or the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, were formally signed in the 1954 Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet region of China and India. The five specific principles are mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful co-existence. Mutual support for each other in world forums is not part of this framework; the agreement focuses on bilateral conduct and sovereignty rather than a commitment to shared voting or collective diplomatic stances in international organizations.
102Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was an India - USA military exercise.
2. 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was conducted in Himachal Pradesh.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Yudh Abhyas is a long-running series of bilateral military exercises conducted between the Indian Army and the United States Army. The 2014 edition marked the 10th anniversary of this joint training initiative, confirming that Statement 1 is correct. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2014 exercise was conducted at Ranikhet and the foothills of Chaubattia in the state of Uttarakhand, rather than Himachal Pradesh. The exercise focused on enhancing interoperability through combined training for counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in mountainous terrain under a United Nations mandate.
103Economy
An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes
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Answer: (B) upward to the right
Explanation
An exceptional demand curve, also known as a regressive or abnormal demand curve, represents a deviation from the Law of Demand. While a standard demand curve slopes downward to indicate that quantity demanded increases as price falls, an exceptional demand curve slopes upward to the right. This indicates a direct relationship where the quantity demanded increases as the price of the commodity rises. Such behavior is typically observed in specific economic scenarios involving Giffen goods, where the negative income effect of a price increase for an essential inferior good outweighs the substitution effect. It is also seen with Veblen goods, where high prices enhance the prestige or conspicuous consumption value of a product, leading wealthy consumers to purchase more as the price ascends. Additionally, expectations of future price hikes or emergency situations can cause consumers to buy more at higher current prices, resulting in this positive slope.
104History
What was the claim to fame of Dr. Dwarka Nath Kotnis?
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Answer: (D) He laid down his life providing medical help to the Eighth Route Army
Explanation
Dr. Dwarka Nath Kotnis was an Indian physician who served as part of a five-member medical team sent to China in 1938 to provide medical assistance during the Second Sino-Japanese War. This mission was dispatched by the Indian National Congress following a request from Chinese leadership for medical aid. Dr. Kotnis worked tirelessly on the front lines, providing medical care to the soldiers of the Eighth Route Army under extremely difficult conditions. He eventually became the director of the Dr. Bethune International Peace Hospital in Shijiazhuang. Due to the extreme physical toll of his work and lack of rest, he passed away in China in 1942. His selfless service and ultimate sacrifice earned him lasting fame as a symbol of Sino-Indian friendship and international medical ethics.
105Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not true about the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?
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Answer: (D) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice
Explanation
India signed the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) on July 30, 1980, and formally ratified it on July 9, 1993. By ratifying the convention, India became a State Party, assuming the legal obligation to implement its provisions into domestic policy and practice. This ratification requires India to take all necessary steps to eliminate discrimination against women in various fields, including political, social, economic, and cultural life. Furthermore, India must submit regular reports to the United Nations committee overseeing the convention to demonstrate the progress made in adhering to these international standards.
106Economy
Consider the following statements with regard to the First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (2015):
1. This is a follow-up to the 'Make in India' initiative.
2. The central theme of the meet is to attract large scale investments in the renewable energy sector in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (RE-INVEST 2015) was organized by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy as a key follow-up to the Make in India initiative launched in 2014. It sought to promote India as a global hub for the manufacturing of renewable energy hardware and to encourage domestic production. The central theme of the meet was to showcase India's vast potential and policy framework to attract large-scale global and domestic investments. This was critical for mobilizing the capital required to achieve the government's ambitious target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022.
107Economy
When two goods are completely interchangeable, they are
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Answer: (A) Perfect substitutes
Explanation
Two goods are defined as perfect substitutes when they are completely interchangeable from the consumer's perspective, meaning they satisfy the same want or need with equal utility. In economic theory, this implies a constant marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between the two goods, as the consumer is willing to swap one for the other at a fixed ratio regardless of how much they already possess. For such goods, the indifference curve is a downward-sloping straight line with a constant slope, mathematically represented as U = ax + by, where a and b are constants. Because they are perfectly interchangeable, a rational consumer will exclusively purchase the cheaper of the two goods to maximize utility.
108History
Which would be the most appropriate description concerning the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha? It aspired to
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Answer: (A) do political work among youth, peasants and workers.
Explanation
The Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded in March 1926 by Bhagat Singh and his associates, including Bhagwati Charan Vohra and Chhabil Das. It served as a public, legal wing of the revolutionary movement, moving away from the secret societies of the past to build a mass base for Indian independence. Its core objective was to establish a completely independent republic of workers and peasants in India. To achieve this, the Sabha focused on political education and mobilization across multiple segments of society, specifically targeting youth, peasants, and workers. It organized meetings, lectures, and protests to instill a spirit of nationalism and socialism, aiming to create a unified mass front against British imperialism and the prevailing socio-economic inequalities.
109Polity and Governance
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule?
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Answer: (B) Manipur
Explanation
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in four specific northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. This schedule allows for the creation of Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils, which possess significant legislative, executive, and judicial powers to protect the land and culture of indigenous tribes. Manipur is not included in the Sixth Schedule. Instead, the administration of its tribal hill areas is primarily governed under Article 371C of the Constitution, which provides for a special committee of the State Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from those areas.
110Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Living Planet Report - 2014 (Species and Spaces, People and Places) released by World Wildlife Fund (WWF)?
1. The Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures more than 10,000 representative populations of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined by 52% since 1970.
2. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in Africa.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Living Planet Report 2014, published by the World Wildlife Fund, stated that the global Living Planet Index (LPI) declined by 52 percent between 1970 and 2010. This index was derived from the population trends of 10,380 representative populations belonging to 3,038 vertebrate species, including mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fish. While biodiversity loss occurred globally, the most dramatic regional decline was observed in the Neotropical region (Latin America and the Caribbean), which experienced an 83 percent drop, whereas the decline in Africa was recorded at 40 percent.
111Economy
Rise in the price of a commodity means
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Answer: (D) fall in the value of currency and rise in the value of commodity
Explanation
The price of a commodity is defined as its exchange value expressed in terms of money. According to the economic principle Vₘ = 1/P, where Vₘ is the value of money and P is the price, an increase in the price of a commodity signifies that more units of currency are required to purchase the same amount of the good. This indicates a decline in the purchasing power or value of the currency. Simultaneously, the price increase reflects that the commodity has become more expensive or desirable in the market, representing a rise in its value relative to the currency. Therefore, a price rise inherently involves both the depreciation of the currency's value and the appreciation of the commodity's exchange value.
112History
The Tungbhadra river provided sustenance to which empire?
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Answer: (B) Vijayanagara
Explanation
The Vijayanagara Empire, established in the 14th century, was centered in the semi-arid Raichur Doab region between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers. Its capital, Vijayanagara (modern-day Hampi), was situated on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River, which served as the primary source of water and a natural defensive barrier. To sustain the city's large population and intensive agriculture, the rulers constructed a sophisticated system of stone dams, embankments, and an intricate network of canals, such as the Hiriya canal, to divert river water into the royal center and agricultural fields. This engineering feat was essential for the empire's economic stability and urban growth.
113History
Which empire did Niccolo de Conti, Abdur Razzaq, Afanasy Nikitin and Fernao Nuniz visit?
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Answer: (B) Vijayanagara empire
Explanation
The Vijayanagara Empire attracted numerous foreign travelers whose accounts provide critical historical insights into medieval South India. Niccolo de Conti, a Venetian merchant, visited the capital around 1420 during the reign of Deva Raya I and described the city's fortifications and festivals. Abdur Razzaq, a Persian ambassador from the court of Shah Rukh, visited in 1443 during the reign of Deva Raya II, famously noting that the eye has not seen nor the ear heard of any place to equal Vijayanagara. Afanasy Nikitin, a Russian merchant, traveled through the Deccan and the South in the 1470s, recording observations on the culture and trade of the period. Fernao Nuniz, a Portuguese horse trader, spent several years in the empire during the reign of Achyuta Deva Raya in the 1530s and wrote a detailed chronicle covering the empire history, social customs, and military strength.
114Polity and Governance
The Supreme Court guidelines issued in the Vishaka Case pertain to
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Answer: (C) sexual harassment at the work place
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India, in the landmark case of Vishaka and others vs State of Rajasthan (1997), issued comprehensive guidelines to address and prevent sexual harassment of women at their workplaces. The Court recognized that such harassment violates the fundamental rights of women to gender equality and life with dignity as guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Indian Constitution. In the absence of specific legislation at that time, the Court used its powers under Article 141 to formulate the Vishaka Guidelines, which mandated employers to provide a safe working environment and established mechanisms like Internal Complaints Committees for redressal. These guidelines served as the law of the land until the government enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act in 2013.
115Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (C) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chief of the Defence Staff.
Explanation
In 2015, the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) did not exist in the Indian military hierarchy. The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) was the senior-most officer among the three service chiefs, holding the position in an ex-officio and rotational capacity. This role was primarily focused on inter-service coordination and lacked the integrated command authority and single-point military advice mandate characteristic of a CDS. The formal creation of the CDS position and the appointment of the first incumbent only occurred in late 2019 and early 2020, following recommendations from the Kargil Review Committee and the Naresh Chandra Task Force. Thus, the Chairman COSC did not function as a Chief of Defence Staff during that period.
116Art and Culture
Which among the following teams won the Duleep Trophy Cricket Tournament, 2014?
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Answer: (B) Central Zone
Explanation
Central Zone clinched the 2014-15 Duleep Trophy title by winning the final match held at the Feroz Shah Kotla ground in Delhi. They secured a hard-fought victory by a margin of 9 runs in a competitive encounter. This win represented the sixth time the team had won this prestigious domestic cricket tournament. The victory was anchored by disciplined bowling and crucial contributions in both innings, allowing the team to successfully defend a target of 301 runs during the final innings of the match. Key players in the squad included Piyush Chawla and Pankaj Singh, whose clinical performances ensured the trophy went to the central region.
117Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana?
1. Under the scheme, Centre will provide ₹ 10 crore each for every State and Union Territory of the country for the development of various facilities for the tribals.
2. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs in 2014 to ensure the holistic development of the tribal population through the convergence of various central and state government schemes. The primary objective of the scheme is to bridge the gap in Human Development Indices (HDI) and infrastructure between the Scheduled Tribes and other social groups by focusing on qualitative outcomes in education, health, and livelihood. In its initial pilot phase, the scheme was not implemented across every State and Union Territory. Instead, it targeted one block in each of the ten states with Scheduled Areas (Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana). The initial funding was ₹ 100 crore, providing ₹ 10 crore per block for these ten specific locations, making the claim of universal state-wise allocation incorrect.
118Economy
Which of the following statements with regard to the proposed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is/are correct?
1. India is one of the founding members of the Bank.
2. The Bank is to be headquartered in Shanghai.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
India is one of the 57 founding members of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), having signed the Articles of Agreement in June 2015. India is the second-largest shareholder in the bank, following China. The headquarters of the AIIB is located in Beijing, China. The New Development Bank (NDB), which is a separate multilateral institution established by the BRICS nations, is the organization headquartered in Shanghai. Since the AIIB is based in Beijing, the second statement provided is incorrect.