CDS2014 (II)General Knowledge✓ Every question solved

CDS II 2014 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 119 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

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  • Economy3227%
  • Science and Technology3227%
  • Polity and Governance1916%
  • Geography1815%
  • History1513%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Science and Technology
The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively
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Answer: (A) concave and convex

Explanation

Bifocal lenses are designed to correct vision for individuals who suffer from presbyopia, often in combination with myopia. These lenses consist of two parts with different focal powers. The upper portion of the lens is a concave lens, which is used for viewing distant objects by diverging light rays to focus them correctly on the retina. The lower portion of the lens is a convex lens, which is used for near-vision tasks such as reading by converging light rays. This design accommodates the eye's natural movement, as people typically look straight ahead for distance and downward for near-field activities.

2Science and Technology
Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric bulb because of its
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Answer: (D) high melting point

Explanation

Tungsten is the preferred material for the construction of incandescent bulb filaments primarily because it possesses the highest melting point of all metallic elements, approximately 3422°C (3695 K). For an electric bulb to emit visible light, the filament must be heated to extremely high temperatures through the process of incandescence. Tungsten can sustain these intense temperatures without melting or undergoing rapid sublimation, which ensures the durability and operational life of the bulb. This high thermal stability allows the filament to reach the white-hot state necessary for efficient light production while maintaining its solid structure.

3Science and Technology
Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to
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Answer: (B) increase the life of the filament

Explanation

Electric bulbs are filled with chemically inactive gases like argon or nitrogen to prolong the life of the tungsten filament. At the extremely high temperatures required for incandescence, tungsten atoms tend to evaporate from the filament surface. In a vacuum, this evaporation occurs rapidly, leading to the thinning and eventual breakage of the filament, as well as the darkening of the glass bulb due to tungsten deposits. Filling the bulb with these inert gases creates pressure that suppresses the evaporation process by causing the escaping tungsten atoms to collide with gas molecules and return to the filament. This significantly delays the failure of the bulb and maintains its efficiency over time.

4Science and Technology
In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light wave of shortest wavelength is
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Answer: (B) slowed down and refracted the most

Explanation

In a dispersive medium like a glass prism, the refractive index n is dependent on the wavelength λ of the incident light, as described by Cauchy's equation n(λ) = A + B/λ². This relationship indicates that shorter wavelengths encounter a higher refractive index. The speed of light in a medium is determined by v = c/n, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum; thus, a higher refractive index for shorter wavelengths results in a lower velocity, causing them to be slowed down more than longer wavelengths. Furthermore, the degree of deviation or bending of light is directly proportional to the refractive index of the medium. Consequently, the shortest wavelength experiences the greatest change in angle as it enters the medium, leading it to be refracted the most.

5Science and Technology
An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by
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Answer: (C) sound

Explanation

An oscilloscope is an electronic test instrument that graphically displays varying signal voltages, typically as a two-dimensional plot with time on the horizontal axis and voltage on the vertical axis. To visualize sound waves, a microphone is employed as a transducer to convert mechanical pressure variations into electrical signals. The oscilloscope then processes these electrical fluctuations to produce a visual representation of the sound's waveform on its screen, allowing for the measurement and analysis of acoustic properties such as frequency, amplitude, and period.

6Science and Technology
The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom, as suggested by Bohr, is
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Answer: (C) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons in the M-orbit

Explanation

The distribution of electrons in the various energy levels or shells of an atom follows the Bohr-Bury scheme. The fundamental rule states that the maximum number of electrons that can be present in a particular shell is given by the formula 2n², where n is the orbit number or shell number. For the K-orbit, n is equal to 1, resulting in a maximum of 2 × 1² = 2 electrons. For the L-orbit, n is equal to 2, resulting in a maximum of 2 × 2² = 8 electrons. For the M-orbit, n is equal to 3, resulting in a maximum of 2 × 3² = 18 electrons. This sequence defines the electron capacity of the first three primary energy levels in the Bohr model of the atom.

7Science and Technology
Carbon or Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through nuclear fission process. In this process
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Answer: (C) the neutrons are made slow

Explanation

In a nuclear fission reactor, the fission of heavy nuclei such as ²³⁵U releases neutrons with very high kinetic energy, typically moving at speeds around 2 × 10⁷ meters per second. These are known as fast neutrons. For a sustained and controlled chain reaction to occur, these neutrons must have a high probability of being captured by other fissile nuclei to induce subsequent fission events. This probability, known as the fission cross-section, is significantly higher for slow-moving or thermal neutrons compared to fast ones. Carbon in the form of graphite acts as a moderator by providing a medium where fast neutrons undergo multiple elastic collisions with carbon atoms. Through these collisions, the neutrons transfer their kinetic energy to the moderator nuclei, effectively slowing them down to thermal speeds (approximately 2,200 meters per second) without being absorbed, thereby facilitating the continuous fission process.

8Science and Technology
For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p and displacement q would come out as
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Answer: (D) an ellipse

Explanation

The total energy E of a harmonic oscillator is the sum of its kinetic energy and potential energy, which remains constant in the absence of non-conservative forces. This relation is expressed as:

E = p²/2m + 1/2 k q²

where p represents the momentum, m is the mass, k is the force constant, and q is the displacement from the equilibrium position. By dividing both sides of the equation by E, the relationship can be rearranged into the following form:

p²/2mE + q²/(2E/k) = 1

This mathematical expression corresponds to the standard equation for an ellipse, y²/a² + x²/b² = 1, where the semi-axes are defined by √(2mE) and √(2E/k). Consequently, the trajectory of a harmonic oscillator in the phase space defined by momentum p and displacement q is an ellipse. The specific eccentricity of the ellipse depends on the physical parameters m and k, while its size is determined by the total energy E of the system.

9Science and Technology
Which one among the following is the generic name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis?
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Answer: (A) Filaria

Explanation

Elephantiasis, or lymphatic filariasis, is caused by infection with thread-like parasitic nematodes. The term Filaria serves as the generic name for these causal organisms, representing the genus level in biological classification. In binomial nomenclature, the generic name is the first part of the scientific name and identifies the group to which a species belongs. These parasites are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes. Once inside the host, they migrate to the lymphatic system and develop into adult worms. Their presence causes chronic obstruction of the lymphatic vessels, leading to the accumulation of lymph fluid and the characteristic severe swelling and thickening of the skin in the limbs and other tissues.

10Economy
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates

Explanation

Cereals such as rice, wheat, maize, and millets are the primary dietary source of energy for the global population because they consist predominantly of carbohydrates. Starch, which is a complex carbohydrate, typically accounts for 70% to 80% of the total dry weight of cereal grains. These crops are specifically cultivated and consumed for their high caloric density provided by these macronutrients, making the statement that they are a poor source of carbohydrates factually wrong.

11Science and Technology
Which of the statements given below are correct? 1. A person having blood group 'A' can donate blood to persons having blood group 'A' and blood group 'AB'. 2. A person having blood group 'AB' can donate blood to persons having blood groups 'A', 'B', 'AB' or 'O'. 3. A person with blood group 'O' can donate blood to persons having any blood group. 4. A person with blood group 'O' can receive blood from the person of any of the blood groups. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Blood group classification is based on the presence or absence of specific antigens (A and B) on the surface of red blood cells. Statement 1 is correct because individuals with blood group A have the A antigen on their red blood cells. They can donate to others with blood group A (who recognize the antigen) and those with blood group AB (who possess both A and B antigens and thus do not produce antibodies against either).

Statement 3 is correct because blood group O is characterized by the absence of both A and B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. Since there are no antigens to trigger an immune response in the recipient, group O individuals are considered universal donors and can safely provide red blood cells to persons of any ABO blood group. Conversely, group AB individuals can only donate to other AB individuals because their cells carry both antigens, while group O individuals can only receive blood from other O donors because their plasma contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

12Science and Technology
Which one among the following is the correct pathway for the elimination of urine?
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Answer: (A) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra

Explanation

The human urinary system follows a sequential anatomical pathway to filter and eliminate waste from the body. The process begins in the kidneys, where the functional units called nephrons filter the blood to produce urine. This urine then flows into the ureters, which are narrow tubes that utilize peristaltic movements to transport the fluid from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder. The bladder serves as a temporary storage reservoir for urine until it is ready to be voided. Finally, the urine is discharged from the bladder and out of the body through the urethra during the process of micturition.

13Science and Technology
Which of the following parts are found in both plant and animal cells?
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Answer: (C) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus

Explanation

The cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus are fundamental components of eukaryotic cells, found in both plants and animals. The cell membrane serves as a protective outer layer that controls the movement of materials in and out of the cell, maintaining homeostatic balance. The cytoplasm provides a fluid medium where organelles are suspended and various biochemical reactions occur, serving as the primary site for metabolic activity. The nucleus houses the cell genetic information in the form of DNA and coordinates vital functions such as protein synthesis, growth, and cell division. These three structures are essential for maintaining the life processes and structural integrity of cells across both kingdoms.

14Geography
Which of the following was the theme of World Environment Day 2014?
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Answer: (D) Small Islands and Climate Change

Explanation

World Environment Day 2014 was celebrated with the theme of Small Island Developing States and Climate Change, accompanied by the slogan Raise Your Voice, Not the Sea Level. The global host for the year was Barbados. This theme was selected to coincide with the United Nations designation of 2014 as the International Year of Small Island Developing States (SIDS), highlighting the urgent environmental challenges these nations face, such as rising sea levels and extreme weather patterns resulting from global warming. The initiative sought to encourage a global dialogue on the importance of protecting these vulnerable islands and the unique biodiversity they support.

15Science and Technology
Which one of the following types of pesticides is convenient to control stored grain pests?
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Answer: (B) Fumigants

Explanation

Fumigants are chemical substances that function in a gaseous state, enabling them to diffuse rapidly and penetrate through the entire bulk of stored grains. This characteristic is particularly advantageous for controlling stored grain pests because these insects often burrow deep into the grain mass or reside inside individual kernels where conventional liquid or solid pesticides cannot reach. Fumigation effectively targets all life stages of pests, including eggs and larvae, within an airtight storage environment. Additionally, most fumigants such as phosphine are preferred in food storage because they can be easily removed through aeration, leaving behind negligible residues and ensuring the grains remain safe for human consumption.

16Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Animal) List II (Phyla) A. Ascaris 1. Mammalia B. Malarial parasite 2. Arthropoda C. Housefly 3. Nematoda D. Cow 4. Protozoa Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Ascaris, commonly known as the roundworm, belongs to the phylum Nematoda, which consists of unsegmented, triploblastic, pseudocoelomate animals.

The malarial parasite (Plasmodium) is a genus of unicellular eukaryotes traditionally classified under the phylum Protozoa, characterized by their microscopic, single-celled nature and parasitic lifestyle.

The housefly belongs to the phylum Arthropoda, the largest phylum in the animal kingdom, defined by the presence of a chitinous exoskeleton, segmented bodies, and jointed appendages.

The cow is a vertebrate belonging to the class Mammalia, which is characterized by the presence of mammary glands to nourish the young, hair on the skin, and a four-chambered heart.

17Geography
Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Mushrooms : Autotroph

Explanation

Mushrooms belong to the kingdom Fungi and are heterotrophic organisms, specifically classified as saprotrophs. Unlike autotrophs, which produce their own food from inorganic substances using light or chemical energy, mushrooms lack chlorophyll and the ability to perform photosynthesis. They obtain their nutrients by secreting digestive enzymes onto dead and decaying organic matter, breaking down complex molecules into simpler forms that they can absorb through their mycelium. Because they depend entirely on external organic sources for their energy and carbon, they are strictly non-autotrophic.

18Economy
Which one among the following cattle breed produces highest amount of milk?
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Answer: (B) Holstein

Explanation

The Holstein breed, also known as Holstein-Friesian, is globally recognized for having the highest average milk production per animal. Originating from the Netherlands and Germany, these cattle have been selectively bred for centuries specifically to maximize milk volume. On average, a Holstein cow can produce over 10,000 kilograms of milk per lactation cycle, which significantly exceeds the yield of other dairy breeds. Their exceptional ability to convert feed into high volumes of milk makes them the dominant breed in the commercial dairy industry worldwide.

19Economy
Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, is used for the production of
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Answer: (B) paper

Explanation

Bagasse is the fibrous matter that remains after sugarcane stalks are crushed to extract their juice. It is extensively used in the pulp and paper industry as a primary raw material due to its high cellulose content, which typically ranges from 40% to 50%. In countries with significant sugarcane production, bagasse serves as an eco-friendly and sustainable alternative to wood pulp for manufacturing various types of paper, including writing paper, newsprint, and cardboard. The long fibers found in sugarcane residue provide the necessary structural integrity for high-quality paper products, reducing the dependency on forest-based timber.

20Science and Technology
The main constituent of Gobar gas is
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Answer: (B) Methane

Explanation

Gobar gas, commonly known as biogas, is produced through the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter such as cow dung, agricultural residues, and plant waste by methanogenic bacteria. The primary and most significant component of this gas is methane (CH₄), which typically constitutes about 50% to 75% of the total volume. The presence of methane makes it an excellent renewable fuel source as it is highly flammable and possesses a high calorific value. The process also generates carbon dioxide (CO₂) as the second major constituent, along with negligible traces of hydrogen, nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide.

21Science and Technology
Which of the following is a good lubricant?
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Answer: (B) Graphite powder

Explanation

Graphite powder is an excellent solid lubricant due to its unique crystalline structure. It consists of carbon atoms arranged in planar hexagonal rings that form distinct layers or sheets. While the atoms within a single layer are held together by strong covalent bonds, the individual layers are stacked upon each other and held together only by weak van der Waals forces. This structural arrangement allows the layers to slide over one another very easily with minimal resistance. This property makes graphite powder highly effective for reducing friction between moving parts, especially in conditions where liquid lubricants like oil or grease cannot be used due to high temperatures or pressure.

22Science and Technology
In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N) respectively are
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Answer: (B) 1 P and 2 N

Explanation

Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen represented by the chemical symbol T or ³₁H. As an isotope of hydrogen, it possesses an atomic number Z = 1, which dictates that it has exactly 1 proton in its nucleus. The mass number A of tritium is 3, representing the total sum of protons and neutrons. The number of neutrons N is determined using the formula N = A - Z. Substituting the values gives N = 3 - 1 = 2. Thus, the nucleus of a tritium atom consists of 1 proton and 2 neutrons.

23Science and Technology
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the solution turns milky, but, on prolonged passage, the solution turns clear. This is because
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Answer: (A) the calcium carbonate formed initially is converted to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more carbon dioxide

Explanation

When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water, which is an aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)₂, it reacts to form calcium carbonate CaCO₃ and water. Calcium carbonate is an insoluble white solid that precipitates, causing the solution to appear milky or cloudy. The chemical equation for this process is:

Ca(OH)₂(aq) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s) + H₂O(l)

On prolonged passage of carbon dioxide, the excess gas reacts with the suspended calcium carbonate and water to form calcium bicarbonate Ca(HCO₃)₂, also known as calcium hydrogen carbonate. Calcium bicarbonate is a salt that is readily soluble in water. As the insoluble carbonate is converted into the soluble bicarbonate, the milky precipitate dissolves and the solution becomes clear once again. This transformation is represented by the following chemical equation:

CaCO₃(s) + H₂O(l) + CO₂(g) → Ca(HCO₃)₂(aq)

24Science and Technology
The form of carbon known as graphite
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Answer: (C) is a better electrical conductor than diamond

Explanation

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity because of its unique bonding structure. In graphite, each carbon atom is sp² hybridized and covalently bonded to three other carbon atoms in a hexagonal planar arrangement. This leaves one valence electron per carbon atom unbonded and delocalized within the layers. these mobile electrons can move freely under an applied electric field, facilitating the flow of current. In contrast, diamond has an sp³ hybridized tetrahedral structure where all four valence electrons are tightly held in strong covalent bonds, leaving no free electrons to conduct electricity.

25Science and Technology
Which one among the following is an example of chemical change?
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Answer: (C) The frying of an egg

Explanation

The frying of an egg is a chemical change because the application of heat causes a permanent alteration in the molecular structure of the proteins within the egg. During this process, the proteins, primarily albumin, undergo denaturation and coagulation. The heat provides energy to break the weak chemical bonds that hold the protein chains in their folded shapes, causing them to uncoil and then form new, stronger bonds with neighboring protein molecules. This results in the formation of a solid, opaque substance with entirely different chemical properties from the original liquid egg. Because this process involves the formation of new chemical bonds and creates a new substance that cannot be reverted to its original form by physical cooling, it is classified as a chemical change.

26Science and Technology
Which of the following is not correct about Baking Soda?
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Answer: (C) It is a corrosive base

Explanation

Baking soda, chemically known as sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃), is a mild, non-corrosive basic salt. It is produced through the Solvay process and has a relatively low pH level, typically around 8.3 in an aqueous solution. Unlike strong alkalis such as sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or potassium hydroxide (KOH), which are caustic and cause chemical burns upon contact with skin or tissues, baking soda is safe for handling and ingestion, making it a common ingredient in food preparation and medicinal antacids.

27Science and Technology
Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint
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Answer: (A) Green

Explanation

Chromium(III) oxide, also known by its chemical formula Cr₂O₃, is a stable inorganic pigment widely used in the manufacturing of paints and coatings. This compound is naturally green and is often referred to as chrome green or pigment green 17. It is highly valued in the industry for its excellent opacity, lightfastness, and resistance to chemical weathering, making it a primary choice for producing durable green shades in exterior paints, industrial coatings, and camouflage finishes.

28Geography
Which of the following are the most important reason/reasons of flood becoming a destructive natural hazard in the Ganga-Brahmaputra valley? 1. Due to population pressure more and more people are living in flood prone areas 2. Increased frequency and magnitude of landslide and soil erosion in the upper catchments 3. Increase in the amount and intensity of rainfall in the north-western part of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Ganga-Brahmaputra valley is one of the most densely populated regions in the world. Intense population pressure has led to the widespread encroachment of natural floodplains, diara lands, and wetlands for agricultural and residential purposes. This proximity of human settlements to the river channels ensures that seasonal flooding results in high mortality and massive economic losses, transforming a natural hydrological event into a destructive hazard.

Furthermore, the geological and environmental conditions in the upper catchments of the Himalayas contribute significantly to the severity of these floods. Increased rates of deforestation and construction in the mountains have accelerated soil erosion and the frequency of landslides. These processes supply a massive volume of sediment to the rivers, leading to the rapid siltation of riverbeds. As the riverbeds rise, the discharge capacity of the channels decreases, forcing the water to breach embankments and frequently change courses during periods of heavy monsoon rainfall. This combination of human vulnerability due to settlement patterns and reduced channel efficiency due to upstream erosion causes the floods to be particularly devastating.

29Polity and Governance
Arrange the following states of India on the basis of conferring statehood (starting from the earliest): 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Nagaland 3. Sikkim 4. Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1

Explanation

Nagaland was granted statehood on 1 December 1963, making it the 16th state of India. Meghalaya attained full statehood on 21 January 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971, which restructured the political map of Northeast India. Sikkim officially became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on 16 May 1975 following the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. Arunachal Pradesh was conferred statehood later on 20 February 1987, having previously been administered as a Union Territory.

30Geography
Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that describes the large scale motions of Earth's lithosphere. Which one among the following statements regarding Plate tectonics is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Along divergent plate boundaries, subduction carries plates into the mantle

Explanation

Subduction is a geological process that occurs at convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates move toward each other and one plate is forced down into the mantle beneath the other. In contrast, divergent plate boundaries are characterized by plates moving away from each other, which leads to upwelling of magma from the mantle and the creation of new oceanic crust, typically seen at mid-ocean ridges. Therefore, the claim that subduction occurs along divergent boundaries is geologically inaccurate.

31Geography
Consider the following statements regarding ground water in India: 1. The large scale exploitation of ground water is done with the help of tube-wells. 2. The demand for ground water started increasing with the advent of green revolution. 3. The total replenishable ground water reserves is highest in the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland and Tripura. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The exploitation of groundwater in India reached a large scale primarily through the use of tube-wells, which allow for the extraction of water from deeper aquifers compared to traditional open wells. This technology became the backbone of irrigation in the Indo-Gangetic plains. The demand for this resource saw a significant surge with the advent of the Green Revolution in the late 1960s. The introduction of High Yielding Variety seeds required intensive, reliable, and timely irrigation that surface water systems alone could not provide, leading farmers to invest heavily in private tube-wells. Conversely, the total replenishable groundwater reserves are highest in the vast alluvial plains of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin, such as in Uttar Pradesh and Punjab, whereas the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland, and Tripura have much lower potential due to steep gradients and high surface runoff.

32Economy
Union Government in June 2014 granted Navaratna status to 1. Engineers India Ltd. 2. Coal India Ltd. 3. India Trade Promotion Organization 4. National Buildings Construction Corporation Ltd. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only

Explanation

In June 2014, the Union Government elevated Engineers India Ltd. (EIL) and National Buildings Construction Corporation Ltd. (NBCC) to the status of Navaratna Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). Prior to this upgrade, both companies held the Miniratna Category-I status. The grant of Navaratna status provides these companies with significant financial and operational autonomy, including the power to invest up to Rs 1,000 crore or 15 percent of their net worth on a single project without prior government approval.

To achieve this status, these CPSEs met specific eligibility criteria, including being a Miniratna Category-I company and having a score of at least 60 out of 100 based on six financial parameters such as net profit to net worth, cost of services to total turnover, and profit before depreciation, interest, and taxes to capital employed. Engineers India Ltd. functions as a premier engineering consultancy and EPC company in the hydrocarbons and petrochemicals sector, while NBCC specializes in project management, civil construction, and real estate development.

33Economy
MONEX is associated with
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Answer: (D) Monsoon experiment

Explanation

MONEX, or the Monsoon Experiment, was a major international research initiative conducted as part of the Global Atmospheric Research Programme (GARP) under the aegis of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the International Council of Scientific Unions (ICSU). Its primary objective was to study the physical and dynamical processes governing the Asian monsoon systems, specifically the Summer Monsoon and the Winter Monsoon. Carried out during 1978 and 1979 in conjunction with the First GARP Global Experiment (FGGE), it utilized a vast network of ships, aircraft, satellites, and ground stations to collect meteorological data. This data was crucial for improving numerical models and the overall predictive capability for monsoon rainfall, which significantly impacts the agricultural economies of South and Southeast Asia.

34Geography
Which one of the following would have happened if the Himalayas did not exist ?
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Answer: (C) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter

Explanation

The Himalayas act as a formidable physical and climatic barrier for the Indian subcontinent. During the winter season, intense high-pressure systems develop over Central Asia and Siberia, generating extremely cold and dry continental air masses that move southward. The massive height and extent of the Himalayan mountain range effectively block these frigid winds from penetrating into the Indian landmass. Without the presence of the Himalayas, these cold Siberian winds would sweep across the North Indian plains unimpeded, leading to a drastic drop in winter temperatures and making the region significantly colder and harsher than it is today. This barrier function ensures that North India maintains relatively milder winter temperatures compared to other regions located at similar latitudes outside the subcontinent.

35Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Phenomenon) List II (Date) A. Summer solstice 1. 21st June B. Winter solstice 2. 22nd December C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September D. Autumnal Equinox 4. 21st March Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 1 2 4 3

Explanation

Summer solstice (A) matches 21st June (1) because the Northern Hemisphere reaches its maximum tilt toward the Sun, resulting in the longest day of the year. Winter solstice (B) matches 22nd December (2) as the Northern Hemisphere is tilted furthest away from the Sun, marking the shortest day. Vernal Equinox (C) matches 21st March (4) because the Sun is positioned directly above the equator while moving north, leading to equal day and night lengths globally. Autumnal Equinox (D) matches 23rd September (3) as the Sun again crosses the equator while moving south, signaling the transition into autumn with equal day and night.

36Geography
Which of the following statements regarding jhum cultivation in India are correct ? 1. It is largely practised in North-Eastern Indian states. 2. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique. 3. In it, the fertility of soil is exhausted in a few years. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Jhum cultivation, commonly known as shifting cultivation or the slash and burn technique, is a traditional farming practice extensively followed by tribal communities in North-Eastern India, particularly in states like Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram. The process involves clearing forest land by cutting down vegetation and burning the debris, which adds nutrient-rich ash to the soil. Since this method relies entirely on the natural regeneration of soil nutrients without the use of chemical fertilizers, the productivity of the land decreases rapidly. Within two to three years, the soil fertility is exhausted, prompting farmers to abandon the plot and move to a fresh patch of forest. This cycle allows the abandoned land to remain fallow for several years to recover its natural fertility through secondary forest growth.

37Geography
Arrange the following features formed by rivers in its course starting from upstream: 1. Meanders 2. Falls 3. Delta 4. Oxbow Lake Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3

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The longitudinal profile of a river is generally divided into the upper, middle, and lower courses. Waterfalls are characteristic of the upper course (youthful stage) where the river flows over steep gradients and vertical erosion is dominant. As the river descends into the middle course (mature stage), the gradient decreases and lateral erosion leads to the development of meanders. In the lower course (old stage), the river flows over a flat floodplain where the meander loops become increasingly exaggerated until they are eventually cut off from the main channel, forming oxbow lakes. Finally, the river reaches its mouth where its velocity decreases sharply, leading to the deposition of its remaining sediment load to form a delta. Therefore, the sequence from upstream to downstream is falls, meanders, oxbow lakes, and deltas.

38Economy
Which of the following statements relating to Indian agriculture is/are correct? 1. India has the World's largest cropped area. 2. Cropping pattern is dominated by cereal crop. 3. The average size of an Indian farm holding is too small for several agricultural operations. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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India possesses the largest arable land area globally, with approximately 156.5 million hectares according to FAO data from the 2014 period, which surpasses the United States. This extensive cultivable land area translates to India having the highest net sown area in the world. The cropping pattern is heavily dominated by cereals like rice and wheat, which together occupy more than 50 percent of the gross cropped area, reflecting a subsistence-driven focus on food security. Additionally, the Agricultural Census of 2010-11 reported that the average size of an operational holding in India is about 1.15 hectares. With nearly 85 percent of farmers classified as small or marginal, the extreme fragmentation of land makes it difficult to implement large-scale mechanization, irrigation efficiency, and other modern agricultural operations that require economies of scale.

39Geography
Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to
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Answer: (B) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level

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The collision-coalescence process is the dominant mechanism for precipitation formation in warm clouds, which are defined as clouds that stay entirely below the freezing level where temperatures remain above 0°C. Because these clouds do not contain ice crystals, precipitation cannot form via the Bergeron process. Instead, larger water droplets, often formed around giant hygroscopic nuclei, fall faster than smaller droplets due to their higher terminal velocity. As they descend, they collide with smaller droplets in their path and merge with them through coalescence. This continuous merging allows the droplets to grow large enough to overcome atmospheric updrafts and fall as rain. This process is most effective in tropical regions and maritime environments where clouds are thick and have high liquid water content but do not reach the cold altitudes necessary for ice formation.

40Geography
Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South: 1. Indravati 2. Dudhwa 3. Bandipur 4. Similipal Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3

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The geographical arrangement of these tiger reserves from North to South follows their respective latitudinal coordinates across the Indian subcontinent. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, located in the Lakhimpur Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh near the Indo-Nepal border, is the northernmost at approximately 28° N latitude. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha at approximately 21° N latitude. Indravati Tiger Reserve lies further south in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh at about 19° N latitude. Bandipur Tiger Reserve, positioned at the tri-junction of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, is the southernmost in this list at approximately 11° N latitude. This establishes the sequence as Dudhwa (2), followed by Similipal (4), Indravati (1), and Bandipur (3).

41Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are basically meant to be deployed in the northern borders of India for monitoring the borders and also to stop smuggling and illegal immigration? 1. Assam Rifles 2. Border Security Force 3. Indo Tibet Border Police 4. National Security Guards Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 3 only

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The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is a specialized mountain force of India, established on October 24, 1962, specifically to guard the northern borders. It is deployed along the 3,488 km long Indo-China border, spanning from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh. The force is trained to operate in high-altitude terrain and extreme climatic conditions. Its primary duties include maintaining vigil on the northern borders, detecting and preventing border violations, and curbing trans-border crimes such as smuggling and illegal immigration in these sensitive Himalayan regions.

42Geography
Which of the following is/are the potential threat to safety of large dams? 1. Urbanisation near dam sites 2. Flash floods in catchment area 3. Seismic activities in surrounding area Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Urbanization near dam sites and within catchment areas significantly alters the local hydrology by replacing permeable vegetation and soil with impervious surfaces like concrete and asphalt. This change reduces natural water infiltration and leads to increased surface runoff and higher peak inflows into the reservoir during rain events, which can strain the dam's designed capacity. Additionally, urbanization often leads to increased siltation due to construction-related erosion, reducing the reservoir's flood-cushioning volume. Flash floods in the catchment area pose a direct threat of overtopping, where rapidly rising water levels exceed the spillway discharge capacity and flow over the dam's crest, potentially causing catastrophic structural failure. Seismic activities in the surrounding area can cause ground shaking that induces cracks, liquefaction of the foundation, or the failure of mechanical components like spillway gates. Large dams are also vulnerable to reservoir-induced seismicity, where the weight of the impounded water and increased pore-fluid pressure can trigger earthquakes in the vicinity, further compromising the stability of the structure.

43Geography
The Equatorial region has no other season except summer. What could be the reason? 1. The length of day and night is more or less equal over the year 2. The Earth's rotational velocity is maximum at the Equator 3. The coriolis force is zero at the Equator Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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The lack of distinct seasons in the equatorial region is primarily due to the uniform distribution of solar energy throughout the year. At the Equator, the angle of the Sun's rays remains nearly vertical year-round, and the length of day and night is more or less equal at approximately 12 hours each. This consistency in insolation prevents the significant temperature fluctuations required to create different seasons like winter or autumn. While it is a physical fact that the Earth's rotational velocity is maximum at the Equator and the Coriolis force is zero at 0° latitude, these factors influence atmospheric circulation, such as the absence of tropical cyclones, rather than the seasonal thermal regime. Therefore, only the stability of day length and solar intensity explains the perpetual summer climate.

44Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements relating to the Non-Alignment Movement : 1. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was created and founded during the collapse of the colonial system and the independence struggles of the peoples of Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the world and at the height of the Cold War. 2. The First Summit of the Movement of Non-Aligned Countries was convened by the leaders of India, Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade on September 1-6, 1961. 3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were a key factor in the decolonization process, which led later to the attainment of freedom by many countries and to the founding of several new sovereign States. 4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to maintain equal distance from both the super powers by joining the military alliances of both the blocs. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

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The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) emerged in the mid-20th century as a diplomatic path for newly independent nations to maintain their sovereignty during the Cold War. Statement 1 is correct as the movement was established during the collapse of colonial empires and provided a platform for countries in Africa, Asia, and Latin America to avoid being drawn into the rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union. Statement 2 is historically accurate regarding the first summit held in Belgrade in September 1961, which was organized by influential leaders including Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt. At the time of the summit, Egypt and Syria were joined as the United Arab Republic, explaining their collective role in the movement's inception. Statement 3 is correct because NAM played a vital role in the decolonization process by using the United Nations and other international forums to advocate for the self-determination of colonized peoples. Statement 4 is incorrect because the movement's primary principle is the refusal to join any multilateral military alliances of the superpowers, rather than joining both to maintain distance.

45Economy
Consider the following statements relating to the World Bank: 1. The World Bank was established in 1946, which is headquartered in New York. 2. The World Bank Group has set for itself the goal to end extreme poverty from the World by 2030. 3. The World Bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It is not a bank in the ordinary sense but a unique partnership to reduce poverty and support development. 4. The World Bank Group comprises five institutions managed by their member countries in order to promote shared prosperity by fostering the income growth of the bottom 40% for every country. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4

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The World Bank Group officially adopted twin goals in 2013 to guide its work: ending extreme poverty by 2030 and promoting shared prosperity. The shared prosperity goal is specifically defined as fostering the income growth of the bottom 40 percent of the population in every country. Rather than being a bank in the traditional sense, the World Bank is a unique global partnership that provides financial and technical assistance, including low-interest loans and grants, to developing nations for projects in sectors like health, education, and infrastructure. The World Bank Group consists of five constituent institutions—the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), the International Development Association (IDA), the International Finance Corporation (IFC), the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), and the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)—which are managed by their member countries to reduce poverty and support sustainable economic development.

46Economy
Which of the following statements about International Monetary Fund (IMF) are correct? 1. The IMF is a United Nations specialized agency. 2. The IMF was founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 to secure international monetary cooperation. 3. The objective of the IMF is to stabilize currency exchange rates, and to expand international liquidity (access to hard currencies). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

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The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established following the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, in July 1944. Its primary goal was to create a framework for international economic cooperation to avoid a repeat of the competitive devaluations that characterized the 1930s. Since 1947, the IMF has been a specialized agency of the United Nations, meaning it is an autonomous organization linked to the UN through a specific agreement. The core mandate of the IMF involves promoting exchange rate stability and providing member countries with access to international liquidity. By monitoring the global economy and offering temporary financial assistance to members facing balance of payments difficulties, the IMF ensures that countries have access to hard currencies to maintain stable trade and financial flows.

47Economy
Consider the following statements relating to the World Trade Organization (WTO): 1. The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. 2. The goal of the WTO is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. 3. The WTO, which is a successor body of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, came into being following the Uruguay Round of Negotiations. 4. The WTO distances itself in framing of rules on trade in intellectual property rights. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

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The World Trade Organization (WTO) serves as the primary international body responsible for governing the rules of trade between nations, ensuring that commercial exchanges occur as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible. One of its central objectives is to assist producers of goods and services, as well as exporters and importers, in conducting their business by providing a stable legal and institutional framework that reduces trade barriers and settles disputes. The WTO was established on January 1, 1995, following the Marrakesh Agreement, which was the culmination of the Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiations (1986–1994). It replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which had been in place since 1948, becoming a permanent and more comprehensive successor body that expanded the scope of international trade rules to include services and intellectual property rights.

48Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about local government in India : 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to make them function as units of self-government. 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part IX and IX A in the Constitution. 3. The provisions in Parts IX and IX A of Indian Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous. 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all states irrespective of size of population. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only

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Article 40 of the Indian Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, directs the State to organize village panchayats and provide them with the necessary authority to function as units of self-government. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 formalized this vision by inserting Part IX (The Panchayats) and Part IXA (The Municipalities) into the Constitution. These two parts are designed to be parallel and analogous in their administrative and democratic framework. Both provide for a fixed five-year term for local bodies, mandate the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population, and require at least one-third reservation for women. Furthermore, both amendments provide for the creation of a State Election Commission to conduct local polls and a State Finance Commission to recommend the devolution of financial resources. Statement 4 is incorrect because Article 243M exempts certain states like Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram from the application of Part IX, and Article 243B states that the intermediate tier of panchayats is not mandatory for states with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.

49History
Which of the following is not correct regarding the 2014 FIFA Football World Cup ?
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Answer: (C) Brazil is the first country to host a World Cup for the second time

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Mexico became the first nation to host the FIFA World Cup twice when it hosted the tournament in 1970 and again in 1986. By the time Brazil hosted its second World Cup in 2014, it became the fifth nation to do so, following Italy, France, and Germany. Brazil had hosted its first World Cup much earlier, in 1950.

50Economy
World Bank in June 2014 released a study report on India's Power Sector titled 'More Power to India: The Challenge of Electricity Distribution'. Which of the following is/are the key recommendation(s) of the report ? 1. Ensure regulatory autonomy, effectiveness and accountability for utilities and regulators 2. Insulate utilities from State Governments to prevent interference with internal operations 3. Scrap the Electricity Act 2003 in order to improve the revenue generation of the power distribution companies Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

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The 2014 World Bank report titled More Power to India: The Challenge of Electricity Distribution identifies the financial insolvency of state distribution companies as a critical risk to India's macro-economic stability. It emphasizes that regulatory autonomy is essential to ensure that electricity tariffs reflect the actual cost of supply, thereby preventing the accumulation of massive losses. By making regulators and utilities more accountable, the report seeks to professionalize the sector. Furthermore, it highlights the necessity of insulating utilities from state government interference to allow for merit-based appointments and independent operational management. This governance reform is aimed at curbing the practice of using utilities for political ends, such as providing unmetered or free power without adequate subsidy compensation, which undermines the commercial viability of the power sector. These measures are designed to foster a more competitive and transparent environment within the existing legal framework of the power sector.

51Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are department(s) in Ministry of Defence ? 1. Department of Defence 2. Department of Defence Research and Development 3. Department of Defence Production 4. Department of Defence Finance Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

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The Ministry of Defence is organized into four distinct departments: the Department of Defence, the Department of Defence Production, the Department of Defence Research and Development, and the Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare. The Department of Defence serves as the nodal department for the Secretariat and handles matters related to the three Services, the Defence Budget, and general policy. The Department of Defence Production is responsible for the indigenisation and manufacturing of hardware through ordnance factories and public sector undertakings. The Department of Defence Research and Development focuses on scientific research and the design of military technology. The Finance Division, which manages financial and budgetary matters, is headed by the Financial Adviser (Defence Services) and functions as an integrated wing rather than an independent department within the Ministry of Defence.

52Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about State Election Commission : 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction and control of election to the panchayats. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

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Article 243K(1) of the Constitution of India mandates the establishment of a State Election Commission in every state. This Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats. The State Election Commissioner, who heads this body, is appointed by the Governor of the state as per the constitutional provisions introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act.

Regarding the security of tenure, Article 243K(2) provides that the State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court. This means the Commissioner can indeed be removed before completing their tenure or demitting office, provided the rigorous procedure for the removal of a High Court Judge (which involves a resolution by Parliament) is followed. This provision ensures the independence of the State Election Commission from the state executive.

53Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are Parliamentary Force(s) of India ? 1. Indian Coast Guard 2. Assam Rifles 3. Directorate General of Resettlement Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 2 only

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The Assam Rifles is recognized as the oldest paramilitary force in India, tracing its origins back to the Cachar Levy formed in 1835. It is characterized by a unique dual control structure where administrative authority rests with the Ministry of Home Affairs, while operational control is maintained by the Indian Army under the Ministry of Defence. This integration with the regular military for leadership and operational deployment distinguishes it as a paramilitary force.

The Indian Coast Guard is established as an independent Armed Force of the Union under the Coast Guard Act, 1978, and functions under the Ministry of Defence for maritime law enforcement and search and rescue. The Directorate General of Resettlement is an inter-service administrative organization under the Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare, Ministry of Defence, which focuses on the rehabilitation and employment of retired personnel rather than being a combat or security force.

54Science and Technology
'Garuda-V', concluded recently, is a joint exercise between the Air Forces of India and
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Answer: (D) France

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Exercise Garuda V was a bilateral air exercise conducted between the Indian Air Force and the French Air Force. This fifth edition of the series took place at the Jodhpur Air Force Station in June 2014. The exercise featured frontline fighter aircraft from both nations, including the Indian Su-30 MKI and the French Rafale, with the objective of enhancing interoperability and sharing operational experiences in a simulated combat environment. The Garuda series of exercises started in 2003 and remains a cornerstone of the defense cooperation between India and France.

55Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Every State in India has separate High Court

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Article 231 of the Constitution of India explicitly empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union Territory. Consequently, it is not mandatory for every state to have its own separate High Court. For example, the states of Punjab and Haryana share a common High Court located in Chandigarh. Similarly, the Bombay High Court exercises jurisdiction over both Maharashtra and Goa, while the Gauhati High Court serves multiple states including Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. This provision ensures administrative efficiency and addresses the judicial needs of smaller states or territories without requiring the infrastructure of an independent High Court for each.

56Economy
Which among the following about the Rangarajan Panel Report on poverty estimation (submitted in July, 2014) is/are correct ? 1. The report states that three out of ten people in India are poor 2. The report endorsed the Tendulkar committee suggestion on determining poverty line in India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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The Rangarajan Committee report, submitted in July 2014, estimated that the poverty ratio in India was 29.5 percent for the year 2011-12. This figure indicates that approximately 363 million people, or nearly three out of every ten Indians, were living below the poverty line. The committee's findings were based on a methodology that departed from the Tendulkar Committee approach. Rather than endorsing previous suggestions, the Rangarajan panel revised the poverty line upwards to a monthly per capita expenditure of Rs. 972 in rural areas and Rs. 1,407 in urban areas. It also shifted the data collection method to the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) and expanded the consumption basket to include a more comprehensive set of essential requirements such as nutrition, clothing, education, and health.

57Economy
In May 2014, an agreement for credit of US $ 24 million (equivalent) from World Bank for additional financing for Uttarakhand Rural Water Supply and Sanitation Project was signed. The objective/objectives of the agreement was/were 1. To improve the effectiveness of rural water supply and sanitation (RWSS) services through decentralization 2. To restore services of damaged schemes in the disaster affected areas in the State of Uttarakhand Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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The additional financing of US $ 24 million for the Uttarakhand Rural Water Supply and Sanitation Project (URWSSP) was signed in May 2014 specifically to address the destruction caused by the catastrophic floods and landslides in June 2013. While the parent project, launched in 2006, was designed to improve the effectiveness of services by decentralizing management to local Gram Panchayats and User Committees, the 2014 agreement explicitly aimed to restore and reconstruct water supply schemes damaged during the disaster. The financing allowed the state to rebuild infrastructure in the affected districts while adhering to the established decentralized delivery model, thereby combining the long-term objective of institutional reform with the immediate necessity of disaster recovery.

58Economy
Which of the following statements about India-Sri Lanka relations is/are correct? 1. India and Sri Lanka have a Free Trade Agreement. 2. India has emerged as the highest exporter to Sri Lanka as on May 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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The India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) was signed in December 1998 and entered into force in March 2000, making it the first bilateral free trade agreement signed by India. This agreement provided for duty-free and preferential trade in various goods, significantly boosting bilateral commerce. By the 2013-2014 period, India had consolidated its position as Sri Lanka's largest trading partner. Trade statistics from the Central Bank of Sri Lanka and India's Ministry of Commerce indicated that India was the primary source of imports for Sri Lanka, effectively making India the highest exporter to the country as of May 2014. Major Indian exports to Sri Lanka during this timeframe included petroleum products, automobiles, pharmaceuticals, and agricultural commodities.

59Geography
Which among the following is/are correct statement about Malawi? 1. Malawi is a landlocked country in southeast Africa that was formerly known as Nyasaland 2. It has presidential system with unitary form of government 3. Malawi's economy is highly dependent on agriculture and majority of the population is rural Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

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Malawi is a landlocked nation in Southeast Africa that was established as the Nyasaland Protectorate under British rule before gaining independence in 1964. Its political structure is characterized by a presidential system where the President functions as both head of state and head of government within a unitary framework. The nation's economy is predominantly agrarian, with agriculture contributing significantly to the gross domestic product and accounting for the majority of export earnings, particularly through tobacco, tea, and sugar. Additionally, Malawi remains one of the least urbanized countries in the world, as a high percentage of its population lives in rural areas and relies on subsistence farming for their livelihood.

60Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about FIFA: 1. It is an association governed by Swiss law, founded in 1904 and based in Zurich. 2. FIFA has been engaging with its stakeholders and other institutions to find sensible ways of addressing environmental issues and mitigate the negative environmental impacts linked to its activities. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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FIFA is a non-profit association organized under the provisions of the Swiss Civil Code, specifically Articles 60 and following. It was founded on May 21, 1904, in Paris, but its headquarters have been located in Zurich, Switzerland, since 1932. This legal status under Swiss law governs its organizational structure and operations as the international governing body for football.

Regarding environmental responsibility, FIFA has integrated sustainability into its operational framework for major tournaments over several years. Through initiatives like the Green Goal program, which was launched for the 2006 FIFA World Cup, the organization has worked with host nations and international stakeholders to mitigate the ecological footprint of its events. By 2014, these efforts included carbon offsetting projects, waste management systems, and the implementation of sustainable stadium construction standards. FIFA actively engages with various institutions to identify and address environmental issues, ensuring that the negative impacts linked to its global sporting activities are managed and reduced through strategic planning and stakeholder collaboration.

61Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution: 1. The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States 2. The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State 3. Statement 1 is correct 4. Statement 2 is correct Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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The Indian Constitution establishes a single integrated judicial system, placing the Supreme Court at the top, followed by the High Courts and the subordinate courts. This unified hierarchy enforces both Union and State laws across the country. This system stands in contrast to the judicial structure of the United States, where a double system of courts exists—federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and state laws are enforced by separate state judiciaries.

Regarding the subordinate judiciary, the Constitution provides a general framework under Articles 233 to 237, but the specific organization and nomenclature vary between States. The State governments, in consultation with their respective High Courts, possess the authority to frame rules for recruitment, promotion, and the administrative structure of the lower courts. Consequently, while the broad hierarchical tiers are similar, the specific designations of judicial officers and the division of civil and criminal jurisdictions exhibit slight variations from one State to another.

62Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Indian Constitution is/are correct? 1. The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States 2. Judiciary is an independent organ of the State 3. The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State 4. The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side Select the correct text answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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India follows an integrated judicial system where a single hierarchy of courts enforces both Central and State laws, which stands in contrast to the dual system of courts in the United States where federal and state laws are adjudicated by separate sets of courts. The independence of the judiciary is a fundamental principle of the Indian Constitution, supported by Article 50 which directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services, and by providing judges with security of tenure and fixed service conditions. The organization of the subordinate judiciary is governed by the respective State governments under Articles 233 to 237, leading to slight variations in the hierarchy and nomenclature of courts across different States. While the Supreme Court has issued directions to implement uniform pay scales and designations across the country, the formal creation of an All India Judicial Service is a legislative prerogative requiring a resolution by the Rajya Sabha and a law passed by Parliament under Article 312.

63Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Indian Constitution is/are correct? 1. The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States 2. Judiciary is an independent organ of the State 3. The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State 4. The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side Select the correct text answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judicial system, where the Supreme Court sits at the top, followed by High Courts and subordinate courts. This unified structure ensures the enforcement of both Union and State laws by the same set of courts, unlike the dual system in the United States where federal and state courts operate independently for their respective laws.

The independence of the judiciary is a fundamental pillar of the Indian Constitution. It is maintained through various constitutional safeguards, such as the security of tenure for judges, the charging of their salaries on the Consolidated Fund of India, and the directive under Article 50 which mandates the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services.

The organization and nomenclature of the subordinate judiciary are governed by state-specific rules and regulations framed by State Governments in consultation with their respective High Courts. While the broad structure remains similar, this administrative autonomy leads to minor variations in the designation of judicial officers and the hierarchy of lower courts across different States.

64Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Training institute) List II (Location) A. National Academy of Direct Taxes 1. Hyderabad B. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai National Postal Academy 2. Nagpur C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 3. Dehradun D. Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy 4. Ghaziabad Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3

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The National Academy of Direct Taxes serves as the primary training institution for officers of the Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) and is headquartered in Nagpur. The Rafi Ahmed Kidwai National Postal Academy is the training hub for the Indian Postal Service located in Ghaziabad. The Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is responsible for the training of Indian Police Service officers and is based in Hyderabad. The Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy, located in Dehradun, is the premier institute for the induction training of Indian Forest Service officers.

65Art and Culture
The Patola weave was traditionally done in
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Answer: (B) Surat and Patan

Explanation

Patola is a prestigious double ikat silk textile that originated in the state of Gujarat. The traditional centers for this craft are Patan and Surat. The weaving process is highly complex because both the warp and weft threads are resist-dyed in intricate patterns before they are placed on the loom. This technique ensures that the resulting fabric has the same intensity of color and design on both sides. Historically, Patan became the most famous hub for this craft under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty, while Surat served as a major production and trade center for these textiles, which were highly valued in royal courts and for export to Southeast Asia.

66Polity and Governance
Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are correct? 1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonization would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations 3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Panchsheel principles, also known as the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, were formulated to establish a framework for governing relations between sovereign states. These principles include mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence.

The ideological foundation of Panchsheel rested on the assumption that newly independent nations emerging from decolonization would reject the power politics and military blocs of the Cold War in favor of a more principled and ethical approach to international diplomacy. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru envisioned these principles as a way for Asian and African states to maintain their autonomy while promoting global peace.

The first formal codification of these principles in a legal treaty occurred on April 29, 1954, in the Preamble to the Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet Region of China and India. This agreement marked the transition of these philosophical ideas into formal diplomatic practice, subsequently influencing the 1955 Bandung Conference and the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement.

67Economy
Consider the following statements: 1. Government of India has recently upgraded the National Industrial Classification from NIC-1987 to NIC-2008. 2. NIC is an essential statistical standard for developing and maintaining comparable database according to economic activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The National Industrial Classification (NIC) serves as the primary statistical standard in India for the classification of economic activities. It is designed to ensure that data collected by various government agencies, such as the Central Statistics Office (CSO) during the Annual Survey of Industries or the Economic Census, is consistent, comparable, and systematically organized. This uniformity allows for the development and maintenance of a robust database that facilitates meaningful economic analysis and policy formulation across different sectors of the economy.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Industrial Classification 2008 (NIC-2008) was not a direct upgrade from the 1987 version. Following NIC-1987, there were significant revisions in the form of NIC-1998 and NIC-2004. The NIC-2008 version was introduced to align India's classification system with the International Standard Industrial Classification (ISIC) Revision 4 of the United Nations, replacing its immediate predecessor, NIC-2004. The implementation of NIC-2008 began with the Annual Survey of Industries in the 2008-09 period and was subsequently integrated into other major economic datasets.

68Economy
V M Dandekar and Neel Kanth Rath were well-known for their
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Answer: (D) study on poverty in India

Explanation

V. M. Dandekar and Nilakantha Rath are pioneering economists known for their seminal study Poverty in India published in 1971. This work represented the first systematic attempt to define and measure the poverty line in India using National Sample Survey (NSS) data. They established a nutritional requirement of 2250 calories per person per day as the basis for the poverty line, calculating the consumption expenditure necessary to meet this calorie intake in both rural and urban areas. Their methodology and findings significantly influenced Indian economic planning and provided a foundational framework for subsequent poverty estimation and social welfare policies in the country.

69History
Marco Polo's trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of
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Answer: (C) his account of commercial, religious and social conditions in the East

Explanation

Marco Polo's travelogues, dictated to Rustichello da Pisa and titled The Travels of Marco Polo, provided Europeans with their first comprehensive and vivid look into the wealth and diversity of the East. His account meticulously detailed the commercial prosperity of Indian ports, the prevalence of spices and precious stones, and the distinct religious and social customs of the regions he visited, such as the Coromandel Coast and Malabar. This detailed documentation stimulated European interest in Asian trade and significantly influenced subsequent eras of exploration by highlighting the immense economic potential of direct contact with Indian markets. He provided specific observations on the production of fine textiles, the diamond mines of Golconda, and the unique cultural practices of the southern Indian kingdoms, filling a major information gap in medieval European geography.

70Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about the recently concluded field exercise Sarvada Vijay: 1. It was a joint exercise of Indian Army, Navy and Air Force. 2. The overall aim of the exercise was to practise conventional cross-border thrusts into enemy territory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Exercise Sarvada Vijay was a major field exercise conducted by the Sapta Shakti Command (South Western Command) of the Indian Army in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan in May 2014. The exercise was designed to practice and validate the Indian Army's capability to execute rapid, conventional cross-border thrusts and deep-penetration strikes into enemy territory. It tested the integration of infantry, mechanized forces, and artillery in a high-tempo offensive scenario. Although the exercise involved a high degree of synergy and joint operations between the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force to provide aerial cover and support, it did not involve the Indian Navy, as the maneuvers were conducted in a land-locked desert environment. Therefore, it was a joint exercise between the Army and the Air Force only, focusing on ground-based offensive maneuvers.

71Science and Technology
Which one among the following is a state-of-the-art acoustic sensor-based target training system developed by the CSIR for shooters of the Indian Army?
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Answer: (B) DHVANI

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DHVANI, which stands for Detection and Hit Visualization using Acoustic n-point Identification, is an indigenous state-of-the-art target training system developed by the CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL). The system employs a sophisticated array of acoustic sensors to detect the supersonic shockwaves generated by a bullet as it passes through the target area. By processing these acoustic signals, the system calculates the precise coordinates of the hit and provides real-time visual feedback to the shooter on a computer monitor. This technology significantly improves the efficiency of firing practice for the Indian Army by providing immediate and accurate scoring without the need for manual intervention or physical target inspection.

72History
Which of the statements given below about the Mughal rule in India is false?
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Answer: (A) Peasant communities were a united and homogeneous group

Explanation

Mughal agrarian society was characterized by deep socio-economic stratification and was not a homogeneous or united group. The peasantry was significantly divided by caste hierarchies, which often dictated land ownership and labor roles. For example, individuals from lower castes were frequently restricted from owning land and were instead forced into manual labor or menial tasks within the village. Furthermore, there were distinct legal and social categories based on land tenure and residence, such as the khud-kashta, who were resident cultivators with permanent hereditary rights, and the pahi-kashta, who were non-resident cultivators. Variations in wealth, ownership of agricultural tools like bullocks and plows, and the scale of landholdings further ensured that the rural population remained a highly differentiated and stratified community rather than a uniform one.

73History
The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt?
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Answer: (A) Punjab.

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The Ghadar Party, established in 1913 in the United States, viewed the commencement of World War I as a strategic opportunity to launch an armed insurrection against British colonial rule. The party chose Punjab as the focal point for the uprising because it was the ancestral home of the majority of its members and a critical recruitment hub for the British Indian Army. Ghadarite activists returned to India to infiltrate military cantonments and incite Indian soldiers to mutiny. Under the leadership of figures like Kartar Singh Sarabha and Rash Behari Bose, the party meticulously planned a simultaneous revolt across northern India, with Punjab serving as the operational heart of the movement. The planned mutiny for February 1915 aimed to capture key armories and administrative centers within the province to trigger a nationwide revolution.

74History
The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by
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Answer: (A) Colonel Colin Mackenzie

Explanation

Colonel Colin Mackenzie, an officer of the East India Company and the first Surveyor General of India, brought the ruins of Hampi to light in 1800. During his visit to the site, he prepared the first survey map of the city, which had been the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. As an antiquarian and engineer, Mackenzie also collected a vast array of oral testimonies, manuscripts, and inscriptions to document the history of the region. His foundational work provided the earliest modern scholarly account of the site and paved the way for future archaeological excavations and conservation efforts at Hampi.

75Economy
Consider the following statements about colonial economy of Vietnam (Indo-China): 1. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations. 2. All the rubber plantations in Vietnam were owned and controlled by a small Vietnamese elite. 3. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. 4. Indentured labourers worked on the basis of contracts that did not specify any rights of labourers but gave immense power to the employers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The French colonial economy in Vietnam was structured around the extraction of natural resources and the promotion of export-oriented agriculture. This system was primarily based on the large-scale cultivation of rice in the Mekong Delta and the establishment of vast rubber plantations in the southern regions. To maintain high profit margins, French plantation owners utilized the indentured labor system, recruiting thousands of Vietnamese workers who were often fleeing poverty in the north. These laborers worked under contracts that were fundamentally one-sided; they offered no legal protections or specific rights to the workers while granting employers extraordinary power. Under these colonial labor laws, plantation owners could legally use physical punishment and penal sanctions to discipline workers or prevent them from leaving before their contracts expired, effectively institutionalizing a system of forced labor to sustain the rubber industry.

76History
Which of the four linguistic regions in South India remained unaffected by the Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22)?
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Answer: (D) Karnataka

Explanation

The Karnataka region remained relatively unaffected by the Non-Cooperation Movement during 1921-22 compared to the high levels of mass mobilization seen in other linguistic regions of South India. During this period, nationalist activity in the Kannada-speaking areas was primarily confined to urban centers and the intelligentsia, lacking a widespread rural mass base or organized agrarian resistance. The movement's impact was limited by the administrative fragmentation of the region across different presidencies and the Princely State of Mysore, where political activity was closely monitored and suppressed. It was only after the 1924 Belgaum session of the Indian National Congress that the region emerged as a significant theater for Gandhian mass movements.

77History
Which of the following statements about the penetration of English into Bengal is/are correct? 1. Job Charnock arrived in Sutantai in August 1690 and laid the foundation of Calcutta which later became the heart of the British Indian Empire. 2. The French East India Company built a fort near the Fort William in Calcutta. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Job Charnock, an agent of the English East India Company, arrived at the village of Sutanuti on August 24, 1690, to establish a trading post. This event is historically recognized as the foundation of British Calcutta. The settlement was developed by merging the villages of Sutanuti, Kalikata, and Gobindapur after the English secured their zamindari rights in 1698. Calcutta eventually became the headquarters of the British administration and served as the capital of the British Indian Empire until 1911. The French East India Company established their primary settlement and fortification, known as Fort d Orleans, at Chandernagore. This site was located approximately 30 kilometers north of Calcutta. The French did not build a fort in the vicinity of the British Fort William in Calcutta, as their influence in Bengal was concentrated in their own separate enclave at Chandernagore.

78Economy
Under the forceful thrust of British rule, a rapid transformation of the Indian economy took place. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Indian economy was transformed into a colonial economy in the 19th century whose structure was determined by Britain's fast developing industrial economy. 2. The influx of cheap Indian products into England gave a great blow to English textile industries. 3. The 19th century saw the collapse of the traditional Indian village economy and fresh economic alignment along commercial lines. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3

Explanation

The British industrial revolution transformed India into a classic colony that served as a supplier of raw materials like cotton, silk, and indigo, while simultaneously acting as a captive market for finished British manufactured goods. This colonial structure ensured that the development of the Indian economy was subordinated to the needs of the British industrial capitalist class throughout the 19th century.

During this period, the traditional Indian village economy, characterized by the union of agriculture and domestic industry, collapsed under the pressure of new land revenue systems and the commercialization of agriculture. The introduction of private property in land and the requirement to pay revenue in cash forced peasants to produce for the market rather than for local consumption. This created a new economic alignment where Indian production was linked to international market fluctuations and commercial interests, breaking the age-old self-sufficiency of the rural landscape.

79History
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Early Buddhist literature is generally composed of the canonical text. 2. The Buddhist schools classify their canonical literature as only the Pitakas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Early Buddhist literature is primarily represented by the canonical texts that were compiled to preserve the teachings of the Buddha and the regulations for the monastic community. These texts, initially transmitted through oral tradition, form the foundational layer of Buddhist scriptural history.

The Buddhist schools traditionally organize and classify their canonical literature into the Tripitaka, which translates to the Three Baskets. This classification system divides the canon into the Vinaya Pitaka, covering the rules and discipline of the Sangha; the Sutta Pitaka, containing the sermons and doctrinal discourses delivered by the Buddha; and the Abhidhamma Pitaka, which provides a detailed philosophical and psychological analysis of the teachings. This three-fold division serves as the definitive framework for the scriptures that each school recognizes as having supreme religious authority.

80Art and Culture
Manipur clinched the 20th Senior National Women's Football Championships title 2014 by defeating.
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Answer: (B) Odisha

Explanation

Manipur won the 20th Senior National Women's Football Championship in 2014 by defeating Odisha 3-1 in the final match held at the Golaghat Stadium in Assam. This victory secured Manipur's 17th title in the history of the tournament. In the final, Ngangom Bala Devi played a crucial role by scoring two goals, while Irom Prameshwori Devi added a third to ensure the win. Odisha's lone goal was scored by Sasmita Malik. The tournament, which featured teams from across India, concluded with Manipur maintaining its long-standing dominance in Indian women's football.

81History
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana named Basavanna. Statement II : The Lingayats worshipped Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Basavanna was a 12th-century statesman and philosopher in the Kalachuri kingdom of Karnataka who initiated the Virashaiva or Lingayat movement. This movement was a radical socio-religious reform effort that challenged the caste system and traditional Vedic rituals, advocating for social equality and direct devotion to God.

The Lingayats are followers of this movement who are distinguished by their practice of wearing a small, iconic linga in a silver case on a thread over their shoulder. This practice symbolizes their personal connection to Shiva and their rejection of temple-based worship and priestly mediation. While Statement II correctly identifies a primary religious practice of the movement, it provides descriptive detail about the group's identity rather than a causal explanation for the historical emergence of the movement led by Basavanna in the 12th century.

82History
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : Ram Mohan Roy in his famous work Gift to Monotheism put forward weighty arguments against belief in many Gods and for the worship of a single God. Statement II : Ram Mohan Roy in his Precepts of Jesus tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of the New Testament.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy published Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin or Gift to Monotheism in 1803, in which he used logical reasoning to argue that the natural state of humanity is to believe in a single God, while polytheism and various superstitions were later distortions introduced by vested interests. This work established his reputation as a rationalist reformer who sought to purge religions of irrational elements.

In 1820, he published The Precepts of Jesus: The Guide to Peace and Happiness, where he applied a similar rationalist approach to Christianity. He sought to isolate the ethical and philosophical teachings of Jesus Christ from the accounts of miracles and the doctrine of the Trinity found in the New Testament, believing that the moral message alone was sufficient for a functional social and personal life. While both statements accurately reflect Roy’s intellectual contributions and his quest for a rational, monotheistic faith, the analysis of Christian scripture in the second statement does not provide the causal reason or explanation for the arguments against polytheism presented in his earlier work on general monotheism.

83History
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women's education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s. Statement II : The first step in giving modern education to girls was undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

Statement I is historically accurate as the Bethune School, initially known as the Hindu Female School, was established in Calcutta on May 7, 1849, by John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune. It served as a pivotal institution in the organized movement for female education during the mid-19th century. Statement II is incorrect because Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was born in 1820, making the year 1800 chronologically impossible for his involvement. While Vidyasagar was a profound champion of women education and served as the secretary of the Bethune School later, his extensive work in establishing girls schools across Bengal primarily took place during the 1850s. Early efforts in modern girls education before Bethune were largely initiated by Christian missionaries and societies like the Female Juvenile Society, which was founded in 1819.

84History
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 adversely affected the financial conditions of the sepoys. Statement II : The sepoys had to pay higher taxes on the land where their family members stayed in Awadh.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The annexation of Awadh in 1856 significantly impacted the sepoys of the Bengal Army because Awadh was the primary recruitment ground, often referred to as the nursery of the Bengal Army. Following the annexation, the British administration implemented the Summary Settlement of 1856. This land revenue policy was designed to displace the Taluqdars and collect revenue directly from the cultivators, but it resulted in a vastly increased land revenue demand. Since the sepoys were essentially peasants in uniform, their families residing in Awadh were forced to pay these higher taxes. The financial burden on their households increased sharply because the new British assessments were often much higher than the previous rates under the Nawab's rule. Furthermore, the sepoys lost their special privilege of having their legal petitions regarding land disputes heard preferentially by the British Resident, a right they had enjoyed before the territory was formally annexed. This combination of increased taxation on their ancestral lands and the loss of legal status directly caused the deterioration of the sepoys financial and social conditions.

85Science and Technology
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : During indigestion, Milk of Magnesia is taken to get rid of pain in the stomach. Statement II : Milk of Magnesia is a base and it neutralizes the excess acid in the stomach.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The stomach naturally secretes hydrochloric acid HCl to assist in the digestion of food. However, during indigestion, the stomach produces an excessive amount of this acid, leading to irritation and pain. Milk of Magnesia is a common name for magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)₂, which is a mild base. When taken as an antacid, it reacts with the excess hydrochloric acid in a neutralization reaction: Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O. This reaction reduces the overall acidity in the stomach, thereby relieving the pain and discomfort described in Statement I. Therefore, Statement II provides the direct chemical explanation for the effectiveness of Milk of Magnesia.

86Geography
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Statement I : A tsunami is a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of water of an Ocean. Statement II : A tsunami can be generated when thrust faults associated with convergent or destructive plate boundaries move abruptly.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

A tsunami is defined as a series of waves in a water body caused by the displacement of a large volume of water. This displacement typically occurs due to earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, underwater landslides, or other disturbances. Statement I accurately describes this general physical process. Statement II provides the specific geophysical mechanism responsible for the majority of tsunamis. Most tsunamis are triggered by megathrust earthquakes at convergent or destructive plate boundaries, where one tectonic plate subducts under another. When the stress along the fault is released abruptly, the seafloor undergoes sudden vertical displacement. This movement pushes the entire column of water above it, creating the initial wave train. Since the abrupt movement of thrust faults explained in Statement II is the primary cause of the displacement described in Statement I, it serves as the correct explanation for the generation of a tsunami.

87Geography
Directions : The following 07 (Seven) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Statement I : The Atacama is the driest among the deserts of the World. Statement II : The aridity of the Atacama is explained by its location between two mountain chains of sufficient height to prevent moisture advection from either the Pacific or the Atlantic Ocean.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The Atacama Desert in northern Chile is globally recognized as the driest non-polar desert, with some weather stations never having recorded any rainfall. Its extreme aridity is caused by a double rain shadow effect. To the east, the high Andes Mountains block moisture-laden trade winds originating from the Atlantic Ocean and the Amazon Basin. To the west, the Chilean Coastal Range acts as a barrier to moisture from the Pacific Ocean. This topographical setup prevents the advection of moist air into the region. Furthermore, the presence of the cold Humboldt Current along the coast creates a temperature inversion that stabilizes the air and inhibits convection, while the South Pacific High-pressure cell further suppresses precipitation, collectively maintaining the desert's hyper-arid state.

88Economy
Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
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Answer: (D) When total product begins to decline : Marginal product becomes positive

Explanation

The Marginal Product (MP) is defined as the change in the Total Product (TP) resulting from a one-unit increase in the variable input (L), expressed mathematically as MP = ΔTP / ΔL. According to the Law of Variable Proportions, production moves through three stages based on the relationship between these variables. In the third stage, known as the stage of negative returns, the Total Product begins to decline because the variable input is being used too intensively relative to fixed factors. Because the Total Product is decreasing, the additional output contributed by the last unit of input is negative (ΔTP < 0). Consequently, the Marginal Product must be negative when the Total Product is declining. A positive Marginal Product always corresponds to a phase where the Total Product is still increasing.

89Economy
The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of
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Answer: (A) Returns to scale

Explanation

The Law of Returns to Scale explains the behavior of output when all factors of production are increased or decreased simultaneously in the same proportion. This phenomenon occurs in the long run, where no factor is fixed and the scale of production can be shifted by varying all inputs. Mathematically, if a production function is represented as Q = f(L, K), and all inputs are multiplied by a constant factor k, the new level of output Q' can be expressed as Q' = f(kL, kK). The relationship between the factor k and the resulting change in Q defines the specific phase of returns to scale. Unlike the law of variable proportions which deals with short-run changes in a single input, the Law of Returns to Scale specifically addresses the total change in output resulting from a proportionate change in the entire input bundle.

90Economy
Which of the following statements is/are true ? 1. If increase in demand and supply are of equal magnitude, the price will remain unchanged, but the equilibrium quantity will increase. 2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than increase in supply, both equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity will increase. 3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than increase in demand, equilibrium price will fall but equilibrium quantity will increase. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The equilibrium price and quantity in a market are determined by the intersection of the demand and supply curves. When both curves shift simultaneously, the net effect depends on the direction and magnitude of the shifts.

Statement 1 is correct because an increase in demand exerts upward pressure on the equilibrium price, while an increase in supply exerts downward pressure. If the magnitudes of these shifts are exactly equal, the upward and downward pressures on price cancel each other out, leaving the equilibrium price unchanged. However, since both an increase in demand and an increase in supply individually lead to a higher equilibrium quantity, their combined effect results in a definite increase in quantity.

Statement 2 is correct because when the magnitude of the increase in demand is greater than the increase in supply, the upward pressure on price from the demand side outweighs the downward pressure from the supply side. Consequently, the equilibrium price rises. Additionally, because both shifts move the equilibrium toward a higher volume, the equilibrium quantity increases as well.

Statement 3 is correct because when the increase in supply is of a greater magnitude than the increase in demand, the downward pressure on price from the supply shift dominates. This results in a fall in the equilibrium price. As with the other cases, since both demand and supply are shifting to the right, the equilibrium quantity inevitably increases. Thus, all three statements accurately describe market outcomes under varying relative magnitudes of supply and demand shifts.

91Economy
A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as
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Answer: (C) Monopolistic competition

Explanation

Monopolistic competition is characterized by a market structure where many sellers offer products that are similar but differentiated through branding, packaging, or specific features. Because the products are not identical, they are considered close substitutes rather than perfect substitutes. This differentiation allows firms to have a degree of influence over their own prices, leading to a downward-sloping demand curve for each individual seller. Despite this individual market power, the large number of competitors and the freedom of entry and exit ensure the market remains competitive over the long term.

92Economy
The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country and their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in a year is termed as
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Answer: (A) Gross National Income

Explanation

Gross National Income (GNI) is the total value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of production, such as labor and property, supplied by the normal residents of a country. This measure accounts for economic activity regardless of whether it occurs within the domestic geographic boundaries or abroad, provided the income generated flows back to the residents of the nation. It is derived by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), where NFIA is the difference between income earned by residents from overseas assets or work and income earned by foreign residents within the domestic economy. The formula is:

GNI = GDP + (Income_received - Income_paid)

By focusing on the residency of the producers rather than the location of the activity, GNI identifies the total income accruing to a country's residents for consumption and saving, capturing the global productivity of a nation's human and capital resources during a specific year.

93Economy
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue increases with increase in output. 2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum. 3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue falls with increase in output. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The relationship between marginal revenue (MR) and total revenue (TR) is defined by the mathematical principle that MR is the first derivative of the TR function with respect to quantity Q, expressed as MR = d(TR)/dQ. When MR > 0, the slope of the total revenue curve is positive, meaning that selling additional units increases the total revenue. When MR = 0, the total revenue curve reaches its stationary point; in the context of standard downward-sloping demand curves, this represents the mathematical maximum of the TR function. If MR becomes negative (MR < 0), the addition to total revenue from an extra unit of output is less than the loss in revenue from lowering the price on all previous units, resulting in a decrease in total revenue as output increases.

94Economy
National product at factor cost is equal to
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Answer: (B) National product at market prices - indirect taxes + subsidies

Explanation

National Product at factor cost is the total income earned by the factors of production for their contribution to the production process. To convert National Product from market prices to factor cost, adjustments must be made for government interventions in the form of taxes and subsidies. Market prices include the value of indirect taxes, which are not received by the factors of production, and exclude the value of subsidies, which are additional payments received by producers. Therefore, National Product at factor cost is calculated by subtracting indirect taxes from the National Product at market prices and adding back the subsidies. The relationship is expressed as NP_FC = NP_MP - Indirect Taxes + Subsidies.

95Economy
Which of the following theories form the basis of international trade? 1. Absolute cost difference 2. Comparative cost difference 3. Opportunity cost Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Adam Smith's Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage states that international trade is beneficial when a country specializes in producing goods that it can manufacture at a lower absolute cost than its trading partners. David Ricardo's Theory of Comparative Cost Advantage further evolved this logic by demonstrating that trade can occur even if one country is more efficient in producing all goods, provided it specializes in the commodity where its relative cost advantage is greatest. Gottfried Haberler later introduced the Opportunity Cost Theory, which moved away from the labor theory of value to explain trade based on the amount of one good that must be foregone to produce another. All three concepts serve as the core theoretical pillars explaining the economic gains from international specialization and exchange.

96Economy
Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India?
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Answer: (D) Motor Vehicle tax

Explanation

Motor vehicle tax is levied and collected by State Governments under Entry 57 of the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This entry empowers individual states to impose taxes on vehicles suitable for use on roads, including both private and commercial transport. The tax is typically collected by the Regional Transport Office (RTO) of the respective state at the time of registration or as a recurring road tax. Consequently, the revenue generated from these duties accrues to the state exchequer to fund state-specific infrastructure and administrative expenses, distinguishing it from taxes listed under the Union List (List I) which are reserved for the Central Government.

97Economy
Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments?
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Answer: (D) Capital receipts and payments

Explanation

The Balance of Payments is divided into two primary accounts: the current account and the capital account. The current account records all transactions involving the export and import of goods (merchandise trade) and services (invisible trade), as well as income flows like interest, profits, and dividends, and unilateral transfers such as remittances and grants. These represent the flow of real resources and current income. In contrast, capital receipts and payments involve the movement of financial assets and liabilities between a country and the rest of the world. This includes components such as foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, external commercial borrowings, and changes in foreign exchange reserves. Because capital receipts and payments represent changes in asset ownership and future claims rather than current production or consumption of goods and services, they are categorized under the capital account rather than the current account.

98History
Novak Djokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from
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Answer: (A) Serbia

Explanation

Novak Djokovic is a professional tennis player representing Serbia. Born in Belgrade, he turned professional in 2003 and has since become one of the most successful athletes in the history of the sport. In the 2014 Wimbledon final, Djokovic defeated Roger Federer in a five-set match to secure his second Wimbledon title and his seventh Grand Slam title overall. This victory was particularly significant as it propelled him back to the world No. 1 ranking in the ATP standings. Throughout his career, Djokovic has been a prominent figure for the Serbian national team, notably leading them to a Davis Cup title in 2010.

99Science and Technology
The technique of inducing rain from cloud is called
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Answer: (D) Cloud seeding

Explanation

Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique used to induce or enhance precipitation from clouds. The process involves the introduction of chemical agents such as silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into the atmosphere via aircraft or land-based generators. These substances act as ice nuclei or condensation nuclei, providing a surface for moisture to gather. In supercooled clouds, silver iodide provides a crystalline structure that encourages water droplets to freeze and grow into larger ice particles. In warmer clouds, hygroscopic salts are used to promote the coalescence of small droplets. As these particles increase in weight, gravity causes them to fall as rain or snow. This method is frequently applied to increase water levels in reservoirs, support agricultural irrigation during dry spells, or prevent damaging hail.

100Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Founder/Research Director) (Premier Institute) A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Indian Statistical Institute B. Homi J. Bhabha 2. Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research C. C N R Rao 3. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research D. P C Mahalanobis 4. Physical Research Laboratory Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Vikram Sarabhai, known as the father of the Indian space program, established the Physical Research Laboratory in Ahmedabad in 1947 to study cosmic rays and the properties of the upper atmosphere. Homi J. Bhabha founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in Mumbai in 1945 as a center for excellence in nuclear physics and cosmic ray research. C N R Rao is the founder and honorary president of the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research in Bangalore, which was established in 1989 to promote multidisciplinary research in science and engineering. P C Mahalanobis founded the Indian Statistical Institute in Kolkata in 1931, playing a pivotal role in the development of statistical science and modern economic planning in India.

101Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Marrakesh Treaty is/are correct? 1. The main goal of the treaty is to create a set of mandatory limitations and exceptions for the benefits of the blind and visually impaired. 2. India has ratified the treaty. 3. The treaty has come into force from July 2014. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Marrakesh Treaty to Facilitate Access to Published Works for Persons Who Are Blind, Visually Impaired or Otherwise Print Disabled was adopted by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) in 2013. Its primary objective is to mandate that contracting parties include specific copyright exceptions and limitations in their national laws. these provisions allow for the creation and cross-border exchange of books in accessible formats, such as Braille, audio, or large print, without requiring permission from the copyright holder. India became the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty when it deposited its instrument of ratification on June 30, 2014. Although the treaty was adopted in 2013 and India ratified it in mid-2014, the treaty did not immediately come into force. Under its own terms, the treaty required the deposit of 20 instruments of ratification or accession by eligible parties before it could enter into force, a milestone that was not reached until 2016.

102Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) system: 1. It offers free enhanced satellite navigation signals over India which are ten times more precise than GPS. 2. It was developed jointly by ISRO and NASA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in collaboration with the Airports Authority of India (AAI). The system is designed to improve the accuracy of the Global Positioning System (GPS) signals by providing corrections through a network of ground stations and geostationary satellites. While standard civilian GPS provides a positioning accuracy of approximately 10 to 15 meters, GAGAN enhances this to within 1.5 to 3 meters, which represents an improvement in precision of roughly ten times. This high level of accuracy and integrity is essential for safety-of-life applications in civil aviation, such as guided landings. The GAGAN signal is broadcast for free and can be utilized by any user equipped with an SBAS-enabled receiver within its coverage area, which extends from Africa to Australia.

103Polity and Governance
Andaman and Nicobar Command is
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Answer: (C) an integrated theater Command operating directly under the Chiefs of Staff Committee

Explanation

The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) was established on October 8, 2001, as the first integrated tri-service theater command of the Indian Armed Forces. This unique command structure was created following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers report on reforming the national security system after the 1999 Kargil War. It brings together the assets and personnel of the Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, and the Indian Coast Guard under a unified operational head. The Commander-in-Chief, Andaman and Nicobar Command (CINCAN), is a three-star officer who reports directly to the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) in New Delhi, allowing for streamlined decision-making and synergy between the different branches of the military in the strategically vital Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea regions.

104Science and Technology
Arihant is a
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Answer: (D) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine

Explanation

INS Arihant is the lead ship of India's Arihant class of nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines (SSBN). Developed under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project, it was launched in July 2009 and began its sea trials in December 2014. The vessel is powered by an 83 MW pressurized light-water reactor using enriched uranium fuel. Its development made India the sixth country in the world to design, build, and operate a nuclear-powered submarine, joining the United States, Russia, United Kingdom, France, and China. As a ballistic missile submarine, Arihant is designed to carry K-15 or K-4 nuclear-capable missiles, providing India with a credible sea-based second-strike capability and completing the nation's nuclear triad.

105Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is not a Command of the Indian Army?
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Answer: (B) South-Eastern Command

Explanation

The South-Eastern Command does not exist within the organizational framework of the Indian Army. The Indian Army is structured into seven commands, consisting of six geographical operational commands and one functional training command. There is no administrative or operational entity designated as the South-Eastern Command in the history or current deployment of the Indian military forces.

106Polity and Governance
Master Chief Petty Officer is a rank in the
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Answer: (A) Indian Navy

Explanation

The rank of Master Chief Petty Officer is a senior non-commissioned position within the Indian Navy, classified under the Junior Commissioned Officer (JCO) equivalent category. It is divided into two distinct grades: Master Chief Petty Officer 1st Class (MCPO I) and Master Chief Petty Officer 2nd Class (MCPO II). These ranks represent the highest level of advancement for enlisted sailors in the naval service. Personnel holding these ranks are responsible for high-level technical supervision and administrative leadership, serving as a vital link between the commissioned officers and the subordinate sailors. They are typically promoted into these positions after extensive years of service and demonstrating professional excellence as Chief Petty Officers.

107Science and Technology
'Project Seabird' is connected with
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Answer: (A) Greenfield naval base at West Coast of India

Explanation

Project Seabird is the largest naval infrastructure project in India, centered on the creation of INS Kadamba at Karwar in Karnataka. Located on the West Coast, it is classified as a greenfield naval base because it was developed entirely from the ground up in a previously undeveloped coastal area. The project was conceived in the 1980s to provide a strategic, deep-water alternative to the congested Mumbai harbour and to bolster the Indian Navy's operational capabilities in the Indian Ocean. By 2014, Phase I was fully functional, featuring advanced facilities such as a unique shiplift system and a dedicated naval ship repair yard capable of handling major fleet components like aircraft carriers.

108Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about world's first Modern Slavery Bill, published in June 2014 by the British House of Commons: 1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the 21st century. 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders up to 14 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Modern Slavery Bill, published in June 2014, was introduced as a landmark piece of legislation and was the first of its kind in Europe specifically designed to consolidate and strengthen existing laws to tackle slavery and human trafficking in the 21st century. It aimed to simplify the legal framework by bringing together various offences related to forced labor and trafficking into a single act. While previous legislation in the United Kingdom provided for a maximum sentence of 14 years for such offences, the 2014 Bill proposed increasing the maximum penalty for the most serious offenders to life imprisonment to ensure that the punishment reflected the gravity of the crime and acted as a significant deterrent.

109Geography
Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for the conservation of
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Answer: (B) Olive Ridley sea turtles

Explanation

Operation Kachhapa was launched in 1998 by the Wildlife Protection Society of India (WPSI) in collaboration with the Odisha State Forest Department and local NGOs to protect the Olive Ridley sea turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea). The initiative focuses on the coast of Odisha, which hosts the world largest mass nesting sites, known as arribadas, at locations like Gahirmatha, the Devi River mouth, and Rushikulya. The primary goal of the operation is to reduce the high mortality rate of these turtles caused by illegal commercial trawling activities in prohibited coastal waters during the breeding and nesting season. The project provides logistical support for sea patrols, monitors nesting populations, and works to ensure the enforcement of fishing regulations to safeguard this vulnerable species.

110History
Consider the following statements about 'Project Mausam': 1. The Project was launched in June 2014 by the Ministry of External Affairs. 2. At the macro level, the project aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns; while at the micro level, the focus is on understanding national cultures in their regional maritime milieu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Project Mausam was launched by the Ministry of Culture in June 2014 during the 38th session of the World Heritage Committee. The project aims to explore the multi-faceted Indian Ocean world by collating archaeological and historical research to document the diversity of cultural, commercial, and religious interactions. At the macro level, it focuses on re-connecting and re-establishing communication between countries of the Indian Ocean world to foster an enhanced understanding of shared cultural values and concerns. At the micro level, the initiative emphasizes understanding national cultures within their regional maritime milieu, ultimately aiming to nominate shared maritime heritage as a trans-border World Heritage site.

111Economy
Which of the following is not the recommendation of the Arvind Mayaram Committee on Rationalizing the FDI/FPI definition (June 2014)?
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Answer: (D) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment as FDI

Explanation

The Arvind Mayaram Committee recommended that investments made by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) on a non-repatriable basis should be treated as domestic investment rather than Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). The rationale behind this recommendation was to encourage the flow of NRI funds into the Indian economy by providing these investments with the same regulatory ease as capital provided by resident Indians. Since non-repatriable funds cannot be moved out of the country in foreign currency, the committee viewed them as stable, long-term domestic capital that should not be subject to the sector-specific caps, pricing guidelines, or compliance burdens associated with FDI or FPI. Therefore, the assertion that the committee recommended treating such non-repatriable NRI investments as FDI is incorrect.

112Economy
Consider the following statements about Star Alliance Network: 1. Established in the year 1997, it is the leading global airline network with the highest number of member airlines, daily flights, destinations and countries flown to. 2. Air India has recently joined the Star Alliance in a bid to garner more revenue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Star Alliance was established on May 14, 1997, by five founding airlines: Air Canada, Lufthansa, Scandinavian Airlines, Thai Airways International, and United Airlines. It was the first truly global airline alliance and has grown to become the largest network in the world. By 2014, it led the industry in several metrics, including the total number of member airlines, daily flight operations, destinations served, and the number of countries within its network, consistently outperforming other major alliances like SkyTeam and Oneworld.

Air India officially became the 27th member of Star Alliance on July 11, 2014. This induction followed a multi-year process aimed at integrating India's national carrier into the global aviation landscape. Joining the alliance allowed Air India to offer its passengers seamless connectivity to over 1,300 destinations worldwide, access to hundreds of premium lounges, and reciprocal frequent flyer benefits. For the airline, this membership was a strategic move to enhance its brand value, improve its passenger load factor, and increase revenue through expanded international reach and codesharing opportunities.

113Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In June 2014, the World Heritage Committee has inscribed the Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (GHNPCA) on the World Heritage List on the basis of UNESCO Guidelines. 2. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) is located in Sikkim. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (GHNPCA) was officially inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in June 2014 during the 38th session of the World Heritage Committee held in Doha, Qatar. The park, which covers a significant area of the Western Himalayas, was recognized for its outstanding biodiversity and its role in protecting endangered species under Criterion (x) of the UNESCO guidelines. Geographically, the Great Himalayan National Park is located in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh, not in Sikkim. Consequently, only the first statement regarding its inscription on the World Heritage List is factually accurate.

114Economy
Baiji oil refinery is located at
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Answer: (B) Iraq

Explanation

The Baiji oil refinery is the largest oil processing facility in Iraq, situated near the city of Baiji in the Saladin Governorate. Located approximately 210 kilometers north of Baghdad along the main road to Mosul, it serves as a critical strategic and industrial hub for the Iraqi petroleum sector. Before the regional conflicts in 2014, the refinery had a processing capacity of roughly 310,000 barrels of oil per day, accounting for more than a third of Iraq's total domestic fuel production. It is central to the country's energy infrastructure, supplying a vast majority of the gasoline, diesel, and heating oil used by the Iraqi population.

115Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: 1. World Vitiligo Day is observed on 25th June every year. 2. Vitiligo is a progressive skin disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

World Vitiligo Day is observed annually on 25th June. This specific date was chosen to commemorate the legendary music artist Michael Jackson, who suffered from vitiligo and passed away on June 25, 2009. The first global observance was held in 2011 to raise awareness about the condition and to address the social stigma and psychological challenges faced by patients.

Vitiligo is considered a progressive skin disease because it is a chronic condition characterized by the gradual loss of skin pigment. This happens when melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing melanin, are destroyed by the immune system or stop functioning. In many patients, the depigmented white patches expand in size and appear on different parts of the body over time, reflecting the progressive nature of the melanocyte destruction.

116Art and Culture
Stepwell Rani-ki-Vav was approved as a World Heritage Site by the UNESCO recently. It is located at
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Answer: (B) Gujarat

Explanation

Rani-ki-Vav is an intricately constructed stepwell situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat. Built during the 11th century by Queen Udayamati as a memorial to her husband Bhimdev I of the Chalukya or Solanki dynasty, it is an exceptional example of the Maru-Gurjara architectural style. The structure is designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water and is divided into seven levels of stairs with sculptural panels of high artistic quality. UNESCO recognized its outstanding universal value and technical mastery by inscribing it as a World Heritage Site in June 2014.

117Economy
Which of the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India?
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Answer: (D) Motor Vehicle tax

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the authority to levy and collect taxes on motor vehicles is exclusively vested in the State Governments. This power is derived from Entry 57 of List II (State List), which covers taxes on vehicles suitable for use on roads, whether mechanically propelled or not. The revenue generated through these taxes, including one-time registration fees and annual road taxes, is collected by the respective state transport departments and credited to the state exchequer. This distinguishes it from taxes such as income tax and service tax, which are categorized under the Union List and administered by the Central Government. Therefore, motor vehicle tax functions as a significant source of own-tax revenue for states to fund provincial infrastructure and transport administration.

118Economy
Which of the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India?
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Answer: (D) Motor Vehicle tax

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to levy taxes is divided between the Union and the State Governments. Entry 57 of List II (the State List) specifically empowers State Governments to levy and collect taxes on vehicles, whether mechanically propelled or not, suitable for use on roads. This includes the road tax and registration fees paid on private and commercial vehicles. Consequently, the revenue generated from Motor Vehicle tax is collected and retained by the respective State Governments to manage local transport and infrastructure, making it a state subject rather than a source of revenue for the Central Government.

119History
Novak Djokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis Open Tournament 2014, is from
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Answer: (A) Serbia

Explanation

Novak Djokovic is a professional tennis player from Serbia. He won the 2014 Wimbledon Men's Singles title by defeating Roger Federer in a five-set final, which marked his second title at the All England Club and his seventh Grand Slam title overall. Born in Belgrade, Djokovic has represented Serbia throughout his professional career in both individual ATP tournaments and international team competitions such as the Davis Cup.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2D
  3. 3B
  4. 4B
  5. 5C
  6. 6C
  7. 7C
  8. 8D
  9. 9A
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12A
  13. 13C
  14. 14D
  15. 15B
  16. 16A
  17. 17D
  18. 18B
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21B
  22. 22B
  23. 23A
  24. 24C
  25. 25C
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29A
  30. 30D
  31. 31A
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38D
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41C
  42. 42D
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45B
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48B
  49. 49C
  50. 50B
  51. 51B
  52. 52B
  53. 53C
  54. 54D
  55. 55C
  56. 56A
  57. 57C
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60C
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63D
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67B
  68. 68D
  69. 69C
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72A
  73. 73A
  74. 74A
  75. 75A
  76. 76D
  77. 77A
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85A
  86. 86A
  87. 87A
  88. 88D
  89. 89A
  90. 90D
  91. 91C
  92. 92A
  93. 93D
  94. 94B
  95. 95D
  96. 96D
  97. 97D
  98. 98A
  99. 99D
  100. 100A
  101. 101B
  102. 102A
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105B
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109B
  110. 110B
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113A
  114. 114B
  115. 115C
  116. 116B
  117. 117D
  118. 118D
  119. 119A

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