CDS2021 (II)General Knowledge✓ Every question solved

CDS II 2021 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
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6
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3025%
  • Polity and Governance2924%
  • History2420%
  • Geography2420%
  • Economy108%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Science and Technology
Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real and enlarged image of the object?
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Answer: (C) Between the principal focus and twice the focal length

Explanation

When an object is placed between the principal focus F and twice the focal length 2F of a convex lens, the refracted light rays converge on the opposite side of the lens at a point beyond 2F. The lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f determines the image position, where f is the focal length, u is the object distance, and v is the image distance. For an object positioned such that f < |u| < 2f, the image is formed at a distance |v| > 2f. Because linear magnification is defined as m = v/u, and the magnitude of the image distance exceeds the magnitude of the object distance in this specific scenario, the absolute value of magnification is greater than unity (|m| > 1). This geometric arrangement ensures that the light rays physically intersect to form a real image that is inverted and enlarged relative to the original object.

2Science and Technology
The magnetic field lines inside a current carrying long solenoid are in the form of
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Answer: (D) parallel straight lines.

Explanation

The magnetic field inside a current-carrying long solenoid is uniform, meaning it has the same strength and direction at all points within the interior region, particularly away from the ends. In physics, a uniform magnetic field is represented graphically by a series of parallel straight lines that are equally spaced. This indicates that the magnetic flux density B is constant in magnitude and direction throughout the volume. According to Ampere's Circuital Law, the magnetic field strength inside an ideal long solenoid is given by the formula B = μ₀ n I, where μ₀ is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current. Since this value does not depend on the position within the cross-section of the solenoid, the field lines remain straight and parallel to the solenoid's longitudinal axis.

3Science and Technology
A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium
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Answer: (B) slows down and bends towards the normal.

Explanation

The refractive index n of a medium is defined by the relationship n = c/v, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and v is the speed of light in that medium. An optically denser medium has a higher refractive index than an optically rarer medium. When light transitions from a rarer medium (n₁) to a denser medium (n₂), the increase in refractive index causes the speed of light to decrease, as v is inversely proportional to n. Additionally, according to Snell's Law, n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂, where θ₁ is the angle of incidence and θ₂ is the angle of refraction. Since n₂ > n₁, it follows that sin θ₂ < sin θ₁, meaning the angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence. This results in the light ray bending toward the normal.

4Science and Technology
An electric circuit is consisting of a cell, an ammeter and a nichrome wire of length l . If the length of the wire is reduced to half (l / 2) , then the ammeter reading
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Answer: (B) gets doubled.

Explanation

The resistance R of a conductor is directly proportional to its length l, expressed by the formula R = ρ l/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material and A is the cross-sectional area. According to Ohm's Law, the current I flowing through the circuit is inversely proportional to the resistance for a constant voltage V, as shown by I = V/R.

When the length of the nichrome wire is reduced to half (l/2), the new resistance R' becomes R' = ρ (l/2)/A = 1/2 R. Substituting this new resistance value into the Ohm's Law equation, the new current I' is I' = V/(R/2) = 2 V/R = 2I. Consequently, the ammeter reading, which indicates the current in the circuit, doubles when the length of the wire is halved.

5Science and Technology
What is the effect of pressure of a human body on sand?
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Answer: (A) Larger while standing than while lying

Explanation

Pressure is defined by the formula P = F/A, where F represents the force (the weight of the human body) and A represents the surface area of contact. Since the mass of the person is constant, the force F remains the same whether they are standing or lying down. Pressure is inversely proportional to the area of contact; therefore, as the contact area decreases, the pressure increases. When a person stands, their entire weight is concentrated on the small surface area of their feet, resulting in high pressure. When lying down, that same weight is distributed over the significantly larger surface area of the torso and limbs, which greatly reduces the pressure exerted on the sand.

6Science and Technology
An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 100 m in 20 s . What will be the displacements after 1 minute and 10 s , respectively?
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Answer: (D) 0 m , 100 m

Explanation

The athlete completes one round of the circular track in T = 20 s. Displacement is the shortest straight-line distance between the initial and final positions of the object.

For the first duration of 1 minute (60 s), the number of rounds completed is n = 60 s/20 s = 3 rounds. Since the athlete completes three full revolutions, the final position coincides with the starting position, resulting in a displacement of 0 m.

For the second duration of 10 s, the number of rounds completed is n = 10 s/20 s = 0.5 rounds. Completing half a round means the athlete is at the diametrically opposite point from the start. The shortest distance between these two points is the diameter of the circular track. As the diameter is given as 100 m, the displacement is 100 m.

7Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about universal indicator is/are true? 1. It is a mixture of several indicators. 2. It shows different colours at different concentrations of hydrogen ions in solution. 3. It helps to determine the strength of given acid and base in titration. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

A universal indicator is a mixture of several different chemical indicators, such as methyl red, bromothymol blue, and phenolphthalein. This combination allows the indicator to exhibit a continuous range of color changes across the entire pH scale from 0 to 14. The specific color displayed by the universal indicator is determined by the concentration of hydrogen ions [H⁺] present in the solution. For example, a high [H⁺] concentration results in red colors, a neutral solution appears green, and a low [H⁺] concentration results in violet or purple. This property makes it a valuable tool for estimating the pH value of various substances. However, it is not used in standard titrations to determine the strength or concentration of acids and bases because it lacks a sharp, sudden color transition at the equivalence point, which is necessary for precise measurement.

8Science and Technology
Which of the following carbon allotropes is/are good conductor(s) of electricity? 1. Diamond 2. Graphite 3. Fullerene Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 only

Explanation

Graphite is an effective conductor of electricity because of its unique electronic configuration and layered lattice. Each carbon atom in graphite is sp² hybridized, bonding with three other carbon atoms to form flat hexagonal layers. This leaves the fourth valence electron of each carbon atom in an unhybridized p-orbital. These p-orbital electrons overlap to form a delocalized π-electron system that extends across the entire layer. These mobile electrons are free to move through the structure under an electric field, allowing for the conduction of electrical current along the planes.

9Geography
What is the approximate percentage of carbon in the Earth's crust?
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Answer: (B) 0-025%

Explanation

Carbon is a trace element in the Earth's crust, representing a very small fraction of its total mass compared to abundant elements like oxygen (46.6%) and silicon (27.7%). Scientific estimates and standard geological references generally place the concentration of carbon in the lithosphere at approximately 0.02% to 0.03% by weight. In the context of Indian competitive examinations, the NCERT curriculum specifies that the Earth's crust contains roughly 0.02% carbon, primarily in the form of minerals such as carbonates, hydrogencarbonates, coal, and petroleum. Taking into account both organic and inorganic deposits within the rock layers, the value of 0.025% is recognized as the standard approximate weight percentage for carbon's abundance in the crustal composition.

10Science and Technology
When copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide (CO₂) in air, it forms a green coating of which one of the following compounds?
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Answer: (A) Cupric carbonate

Explanation

When copper is exposed to moist air for a long period, it reacts slowly with the oxygen, water vapor, and carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere. This chemical reaction leads to the corrosion of the metal surface, resulting in the formation of a dull green coating. This green substance is basic copper carbonate, which is a combination of copper(II) carbonate and copper(II) hydroxide, represented by the chemical formula CuCO₃ · Cu(OH)₂. In general chemistry and competitive examinations, this substance is commonly referred to as cupric carbonate. The chemical process can be represented by the equation: 2Cu + H₂O + CO₂ + O₂ → CuCO₃ · Cu(OH)₂. This patina serves as a protective layer that prevents the underlying copper from further oxidation.

11Science and Technology
What is the name of the process that converts sulphide ores into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of excess air?
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Answer: (B) Roasting

Explanation

Roasting is a metallurgical process used to convert sulphide ores into metal oxides by heating the ore to a high temperature, below its melting point, in the presence of excess air or oxygen. During this process, the sulphur present in the ore reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide gas (SO₂), which is then removed, leaving behind the metal oxide. For instance, the roasting of zinc sulphide (ZnS) can be represented by the chemical equation 2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂. This conversion is a necessary step in the extraction of metals because metal oxides are more easily reduced to their metallic form using common reducing agents like carbon compared to metal sulphides.

12Science and Technology
What are the constituents of alloy solder?
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Answer: (B) Pb and Sn

Explanation

Solder is a fusible metal alloy used to create permanent bonds between metal workpieces, which is essential in electronics and plumbing. The primary constituents of conventional soft solder are lead (Pb) and tin (Sn). By alloying these two metals, the resulting material achieves a melting point significantly lower than that of either pure lead (327°C) or pure tin (232°C). A common formulation is 60% tin and 40% lead, often referred to as 60/40 solder, which melts at approximately 183°C to 190°C. Within this mixture, tin serves to facilitate the wetting of the surfaces to be joined, while lead provides the necessary ductility and contributes to the low-temperature melting characteristics required for safe and effective manual soldering.

13Geography
Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
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Answer: (C) Decrease in the available energy at higher trophic levels

Explanation

The number of trophic levels in a food chain is primarily restricted by the progressive loss of energy at each successive level, a principle known as Lindeman's 10% Law. In an ecosystem, when energy flows from one trophic level to the next, only about 10% of the energy is transferred and stored as biomass in the bodies of the consumers. The remaining 90% is lost to the environment, mainly as heat during metabolic processes like respiration, or through incomplete digestion and decomposition. Because the total available energy decreases exponentially as it moves up the chain, there eventually reaches a point where the energy remains insufficient to support the metabolic and reproductive needs of an additional population of predators. This thermodynamic efficiency limit typically restricts food chains to four or five trophic levels.

14Science and Technology
In pea, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). What will be the ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in the F₂ generation?
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Answer: (A) 1:1

Explanation

In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, crossing a pure tall pea plant (TT) with a short plant (tt) produces an F₁ generation where all offspring are heterozygous tall (Tt). When these F₁ plants are self-pollinated (Tt × Tt), the resulting F₂ generation follows a genotypic ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. This distribution consists of one pure tall plant (TT), two hybrid tall plants (Tt), and one short plant (tt). Therefore, the ratio of pure tall plants (TT) to short plants (tt) in the F₂ generation is 1:1.

15Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about variations is not true?
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Answer: (B) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.

Explanation

In the process of natural selection, variations within a species do not have equal chances of survival. The survival of a particular variation depends significantly on the nature of the variation and its interaction with the environment. Environmental factors act as a selection pressure, favoring those variants that provide a functional advantage, such as better camouflage, disease resistance, or heat tolerance. Variations that are advantageous allow individuals to survive and reproduce more effectively, whereas neutral or harmful variations may not provide any survival benefit or may even lead to the elimination of the individual. For example, in a colony of bacteria, only those individuals possessing a specific genetic variation for antibiotic resistance will survive when exposed to that antibiotic, while the rest of the population will die. Therefore, the probability of survival is determined by the fitness the variation confers in a given ecological niche.

16Geography
While studying vegetation of an area, terms like 'population' and 'community' are often used. Which one of the following statements best describes a population?
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Answer: (A) A group of organisms of one species, living in the same area at the same time.

Explanation

In ecology, a population is defined as a group of individuals belonging to the same species that inhabit a specific geographical area at a particular time. These individuals are capable of interbreeding and typically compete for the same set of resources. The definition requires three specific criteria to be met: taxonomic identity (same species), spatial proximity (same area), and temporal coincidence (same time). This level of biological organization allows for the study of genetic variation, birth and death rates, and growth patterns within a specific group of organisms.

17Science and Technology
In the human body, blood flows through a process of double circulation. Which one of the following statements is true in this regard?
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Answer: (A) Oxygenated blood reaches the left side of the heart from the lungs.

Explanation

Double circulation in humans consists of the pulmonary and systemic circuits. During pulmonary circulation, deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle through the pulmonary artery to the lungs, where carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen. This freshly oxygenated blood then travels back to the heart via the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium. This ensures that the left side of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs before it is pumped out through the aorta to the rest of the body in the systemic circuit.

18Science and Technology
In which of the following groups of organisms, is food material broken down outside the body and absorbed?
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Answer: (A) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould

Explanation

Yeast, mushrooms, and bread moulds are fungi that exhibit saprophytic nutrition. These organisms obtain nutrients from dead and decaying organic matter through a process called extracellular digestion. Instead of ingesting food, they secrete digestive enzymes directly onto the substrate outside their bodies. These enzymes catalyze the breakdown of complex organic compounds into simpler, soluble molecules. Once the food material is chemically simplified, the fungi absorb the resulting nutrients through their cell walls or hyphae. This method allows them to process external organic matter efficiently without the need for an internal digestive tract.

19Science and Technology
A sound wave has a frequency of 4 kHz and wavelength 30 cm . How long will it take to travel 2.4 km ?
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Answer: (A) 2.0 s

Explanation

The velocity of a sound wave is determined by the product of its frequency and its wavelength, expressed by the formula v = fλ. In this case, the frequency f is 4 kHz, which equals 4000 Hz, and the wavelength λ is 30 cm, which is 0.3 m in SI units. Calculating the speed of the wave: v = 4000 Hz × 0.3 m = 1200 m/s.

To find the time t taken to travel a distance d of 2.4 km (2400 m), we use the basic kinematic relation t = d/v. Substituting the known values: t = 2400 m / 1200 m/s = 2.0 s.

20Science and Technology
An electric bulb is connected to a 110 V generator. The current is 0.2 A . What is the power of the bulb?
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Answer: (C) 22 W

Explanation

The power P in an electrical circuit is given by the formula P = V × I, where V represents the potential difference (voltage) across the device and I represents the electric current flowing through it. This relationship defines the rate at which electrical energy is converted into other forms, such as light and heat in the case of an electric bulb.

Given the parameters provided in the question: Voltage V = 110 V Current I = 0.2 A

By substituting these values into the power equation: P = 110 V × 0.2 A P = 110 × 2/10 W P = 11 × 2 W P = 22 W

The calculation yields a result of 22 W. In the International System of Units (SI), power is measured in Watts (W), where one Watt is equal to one Joule per second or one Volt-Ampere. The product of the given voltage and current directly provides the power consumption of the bulb.

21Science and Technology
Refraction of light, as it enters from one transparent medium to another, is due to
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Answer: (C) change in speed of light.

Explanation

Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one transparent medium to another, which is fundamentally caused by the change in the speed of light. Each medium has a specific optical density characterized by its refractive index n, defined by the relation n = c/v, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and v is the speed of light in the medium. When a light ray enters a medium with a different refractive index at an angle, one side of the wavefront changes speed before the other, causing the entire beam to pivot or bend. According to Snell's Law, n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂, this variation in velocity results in a change in the direction of propagation. While the frequency of the light remains constant during this transition, the wavelength adjusts according to the formula v = f λ, directly leading to the observed refractive effect at the interface.

22Science and Technology
A bus starting from a bus-stand and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed of 20 km / h in 10 minutes. What is its acceleration?
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Answer: (B) 120 km/h²

Explanation

Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. Since the bus starts from a bus-stand, its initial velocity u is 0 km/h. The final velocity v attained by the bus is 20 km/h over a time interval t of 10 minutes. To calculate acceleration in km/h², we first convert the time from minutes to hours:

t = 10 minutes = 10/60 h = 1/6 h

Using the first equation of motion, v = u + at, or the formula for uniform acceleration:

a = (v - u)/t

Substituting the given values:

a = (20 km/h - 0 km/h)/(1/6 h)

a = 20 × 6 km/h² = 120 km/h²

23Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct reactivity order of metals reacting with dilute HCl?
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Answer: (A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe

Explanation

The reactivity of metals with dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl) is determined by their position in the activity series, which ranks elements according to their ability to lose electrons and form positive ions. Magnesium (Mg) is the most reactive among the given metals because it has the highest tendency to undergo oxidation, resulting in a vigorous reaction that releases hydrogen gas and heat. Aluminum (Al) follows magnesium in the series; although it is highly reactive, its reaction with dilute HCl may initially appear slower due to a protective surface layer of aluminum oxide, but its intrinsic reactivity remains greater than that of zinc and iron. Zinc (Zn) reacts at a moderate pace, while iron (Fe) reacts much more slowly with the acid. This hierarchy is quantified by the standard electrode potentials (E⁰), where magnesium has the most negative value (≈ -2.37V), followed by aluminum (≈ -1.66V), zinc (≈ -0.76V), and iron (≈ -0.44V). Consequently, the decreasing order of reactivity is Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.

24Science and Technology
Which one of the following acids is secreted by leaves of Nettle that causes painful stings?
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Answer: (A) Methanoic acid

Explanation

Nettle plants possess stinging hairs called trichomes on their leaves and stems. When a person comes into contact with these hairs, they act like microscopic hypodermic needles that pierce the skin and inject a mixture of chemicals. The principal irritant among these is methanoic acid, which is also commonly referred to as formic acid (HCOOH). This chemical triggers an immediate inflammatory response, resulting in a stinging sensation, itching, and the formation of red welts on the skin.

25Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. All the bases are alkali. 2. All alkalis dissolve in water. 3. Alkalis are soapy to touch, bitter in taste and corrosive in nature. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Alkalis are defined as bases that are soluble in water. While all alkalis are bases, not all bases are alkalis; for example, metal oxides and hydroxides like copper(II) oxide or aluminum hydroxide are bases but do not dissolve in water. This distinction makes the first statement incorrect. The second statement is inherently true because solubility in water is the defining characteristic of an alkali. Regarding their physical and chemical properties, alkalis are characterized by a bitter taste and a soapy or slippery feel to the touch. They are also chemically corrosive, especially strong alkalis like sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH), which can cause significant damage to organic tissues. These characteristics validate the third statement.

26Science and Technology
Which one of the following materials is present in a guard tube (drying tube) that is used for preparation of HCl gas?
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Answer: (A) Calcium chloride

Explanation

In the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas, sodium chloride (NaCl) reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) to produce HCl gas. Since the gas is often evolved in the presence of moisture, especially in humid conditions, a guard tube or drying tube is employed to dry the gas. Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl₂) is the material used in this tube because it is a powerful desiccant that effectively absorbs water vapor. It is specifically suitable for HCl gas because it is chemically inert toward the acidic gas, unlike other drying agents like quicklime (CaO) or phosphorus pentoxide (P₂O₅), which would react with HCl. By passing through the calcium chloride, the HCl gas is rendered dry before collection.

27Economy
Fertilizers are used to obtain higher yields of crops. However, all nutrients are usually not available in fertilizers. Which one of the following nutrients is usually not available in fertilizers?
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Answer: (A) Iron

Explanation

Chemical fertilizers are primarily formulated to supply plants with macronutrients, which are required in large quantities for growth and development. The most critical of these are Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K), often referred to as the N-P-K primary nutrients. Most commercial fertilizers are classified based on their N-P-K ratios because these elements are frequently depleted in agricultural soils. Iron, however, is classified as a micronutrient. Although it is essential for chlorophyll synthesis and enzymatic functions, plants require it in only trace amounts. Most soils naturally contain sufficient iron for crop needs, so it is not standardly included in the bulk chemical fertilizers used for routine soil enrichment.

28Science and Technology
Rupa and Sachin observed an animal in their school garden. Rupa called it an insect while Sachin identified it as an earthworm. Which one of the following characteristics confirms that it is an insect?
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Answer: (A) The animal had jointed legs.

Explanation

Insects belong to the Phylum Arthropoda, which is defined by the presence of jointed appendages. The name Arthropoda is derived from the Greek words arthron, meaning joint, and pous, meaning foot. This characteristic is a primary diagnostic feature used to classify an animal as an arthropod. While earthworms belong to the Phylum Annelida and possess segmented bodies and bilateral symmetry, they lack jointed legs, typically moving via muscular contractions and bristles called setae. Therefore, the observation of jointed legs uniquely identifies the animal as an insect or another member of the arthropod group rather than an earthworm.

29Science and Technology
Animals which are marine, bilaterally symmetrical, have a coelom and a notochord, but never form a vertebral column are placed under which one of the following groups?
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Answer: (B) Protochordata

Explanation

Protochordates represent a group of primitive chordates that are exclusively marine and exhibit bilateral symmetry, a triploblastic body organization, and a true coelom. The hallmark of this group is the presence of a notochord, which is a flexible rod-like structure providing longitudinal support to the body. In these organisms, the notochord serves as a primitive skeleton for muscle attachment to facilitate movement, but it is never replaced by a bony or cartilaginous vertebral column during any stage of development. This lack of a backbone is the primary feature that separates them from the subphylum Vertebrata. Protochordata traditionally includes subphyla such as Urochordata, where the notochord is limited to the larval tail, and Cephalochordata, where the notochord extends the entire length of the body and persists throughout the animal's life.

30Science and Technology
What is the location of intercalary meristem in plants?
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Answer: (A) Base of the leaves or internodes

Explanation

Intercalary meristems are a type of primary meristematic tissue located between regions of permanent tissue. These meristems are specifically positioned at the base of leaves or in the internodal regions, particularly in monocot plants like grasses, bamboo, and mint. They originate from the apical meristem but are left behind as the plant grows upward. Their primary function is to promote the rapid elongation of the internodes and the growth of leaves. This positioning is ecologically significant as it allows plants to regenerate quickly after the apical parts are consumed by herbivores or removed by mowing.

31Polity and Governance
The federation of which one of the following States has been described as an indestructible union of indestructible states?
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Answer: (B) U.S.A.

Explanation

The phrase an indestructible union of indestructible states is a classic description of the federal system of the United States of America. This terminology was famously used by Chief Justice Salmon P. Chase in the 1869 U.S. Supreme Court case Texas v. White. In this landmark ruling, the court held that the Constitution looks to an indestructible Union, composed of indestructible States. This means that under the American constitutional framework, individual states do not have the right to unilaterally secede from the Union, ensuring the permanence of the federation. Simultaneously, the territorial integrity and existence of the states are protected because the federal government cannot unilaterally redraw state boundaries or abolish a state without that state's consent, making both the central union and the constituent units permanent and legally inseparable entities.

32Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the author of the famous essay, 'The End of History and the Last Man'?
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Answer: (A) Francis Fukuyama

Explanation

The End of History and the Last Man is a seminal work published in 1992 by the American political scientist Francis Fukuyama. The book expanded upon his 1989 essay titled The End of History?, which gained international attention during the collapse of the Eastern Bloc. Fukuyama argued that the global spread of Western liberal democracy and free-market capitalism may signal the end point of humanity's sociocultural evolution and become the final form of human government. Drawing from the teleological historical theories of Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel and Alexandre Kojève, he posited that the ideological struggle that characterized human history had reached its ultimate resolution with the victory of liberal principles over competing systems like monarchy, fascism, and communism.

33Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Guwahati High Court has no Bench.

Explanation

The Gauhati High Court has the largest jurisdiction in terms of states, covering Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. To effectively serve these diverse regions, it maintains its principal seat in Guwahati and has three permanent benches. These benches are located at Kohima for the state of Nagaland, Aizawl for the state of Mizoram, and Itanagar for the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Historically, it had even more benches until the establishment of separate High Courts for Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura in 2013. Consequently, the assertion that this High Court lacks any bench is factually incorrect under the provisions of the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act and subsequent amendments.

34Polity and Governance
Which among the following is not a condition for the disqualification of a Member of Parliament?
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Answer: (B) Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women

Explanation

Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution of India provides that a person shall be disqualified from being a Member of Parliament if they hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, unless the office is declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. To exercise this constitutional provision, the Parliament enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which lists specific offices that are exempted from the office of profit rule. Section 3(ba) of this Act explicitly declares that the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women, which was constituted under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, shall not disqualify the holder for being chosen as, or for being, a Member of Parliament. As a result, holding this position is not a condition for disqualification.

35Polity and Governance
Who among the following considered the Directive Principles of State Policy as aiming at 'furthering the goals of social exclusion'?
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Answer: (B) Granville Austin

Explanation

Granville Austin, a distinguished historian of the Indian Constitution, described the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy as the conscience of the Constitution. In his influential work, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, he argued that the Directive Principles were aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution. Austin maintained that these principles were intended to transform India into a modern welfare state by providing the necessary socio-economic basis for justice, liberty, and equality. He viewed the Directive Principles as a commitment to a social revolution that would break the traditional social structure and establish a more egalitarian society.

36Geography
D performs her train journey by the shortest route from Bengaluru to New Delhi. Which one of the following rivers will she not cross while performing the journey?
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Answer: (B) Yamuna

Explanation

The shortest rail route from Bengaluru to New Delhi typically follows the path via Guntakal, Secunderabad, Nagpur, Itarsi, Jhansi, and Agra. During this journey, the train must cross several major river systems that drain the Indian peninsula and central highlands. The Krishna River is crossed on the border of Karnataka and Telangana near Raichur. Continuing north, the Godavari River is crossed in northern Telangana near Ramagundam. After passing through the Nagpur region, the route enters the Narmada valley in Madhya Pradesh, crossing the Narmada River just north of the Itarsi junction near Hoshangabad. While the Yamuna River flows through New Delhi, the rail lines approaching from the south via Agra and Mathura run along the western bank of the river. Consequently, a train traveling this route reaches New Delhi Railway Station without needing to cross the Yamuna River.

37Geography
Identify the State on the basis of the following characteristics: 1. Tropic of Cancer passes through the State. 2. The State has more north-south extension. 3. The State has international border with Bangladesh and Myanmar. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) Mizoram

Explanation

Mizoram is a landlocked state in Northeast India through which the Tropic of Cancer (23° 30' N) passes, specifically crossing near Serchhip and Tlangnuam. The state exhibits a distinct elongated shape where its north-south length of approximately 285 km significantly exceeds its east-west width of about 115 km. Additionally, Mizoram occupies a strategic geographic position, sharing a 318 km international border with Bangladesh to the west and a 510 km international border with Myanmar to the east and south. These geographical coordinates and boundary features uniquely satisfy all the criteria provided.

38Geography
M wants to visit a place in a Union Territory, which is located at 34° N and 77° E . Which one of the following Union Territories must he have planned to visit?
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Answer: (D) Ladakh

Explanation

The geographical coordinates 34° N latitude and 77° E longitude are located in the high-altitude Trans-Himalayan region of northern India. This specific location falls within the Union Territory of Ladakh, which was established on October 31, 2019. Leh, a major administrative center and the joint capital of Ladakh, is situated very close to these coordinates at approximately 34.15° N and 77.57° E. The latitudinal position of 34° N signifies a location in the far north of the Indian subcontinent, as the mainland extends from approximately 8° N to 37° N. Ladakh is the only Union Territory that occupies this northern latitudinal belt.

39Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with respect to the adolescent population (age group of 10 to 19 years) of India, according to the 2011 Census: 1. Adolescent population comprises half the population of the country. 2. The group is regarded as youthful population with high potential. 3. In this group there are greater number of females than males. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census, the adolescent population in the age group of 10 to 19 years constitutes approximately 20.9 percent of India's total population, which is roughly one-fifth rather than half. This demographic segment is regarded as a youthful population with high potential to contribute to the nation's demographic dividend through productivity and innovation. Regarding the gender distribution, the 2011 Census records approximately 133.4 million males and 119.8 million females in this age bracket, showing that males outnumber females.

40Geography
In a discussion, M from Arunachal Pradesh, J from Assam, N from Meghalaya and S from Nagaland are claiming that as per Census 2011, their State has the maximum density of population. Identify the person making the correct claim.
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Answer: (B) J

Explanation

According to the Census 2011 data, J from Assam makes the correct claim as Assam possesses the highest population density among the four states listed. The density of population in Assam is 398 persons per square kilometer. This figure significantly exceeds the population densities of the other states mentioned in the discussion, which are 132 persons per square kilometer for Meghalaya, 119 persons per square kilometer for Nagaland, and 17 persons per square kilometer for Arunachal Pradesh. J's claim is the only one that reflects the statistical reality of the 2011 Census for these specific North Eastern states.

41History
Who among the following ancient Indian kings was praised in glowing terms in the Prayaga Prashasti?
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Answer: (C) Samudragupta

Explanation

The Prayaga Prashasti, commonly known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, was composed by Harishena, the court poet and minister of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta. Written in elegant Sanskrit using the Champu kavya style, this inscription serves as a detailed eulogy praising Samudragupta's extensive military conquests and personal virtues. It classifies his victories into distinct categories, such as the violent extermination of the kings of Aryavarta and the policy of capture and release (Grahan-Moksha-Anugraha) applied to the kings of Dakshinapatha. Harishena describes the emperor as an exceptional warrior, a patron of the arts, and a gifted musician, often referring to him as Kaviraja. The inscription is engraved on a pillar that originally belonged to the Mauryan period, positioned in the strategic location of Prayag.

42History
The Self-Respect Movement was initiated by
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Answer: (C) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation

E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, started the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu in 1925. The movement was a radical social program aimed at achieving a society where backward castes and non-Brahmins could live with self-respect and equal human rights. It focused on dismantling the caste system and the traditional social hierarchy that placed Brahmins at the top. Periyar advocated for rationalism, the rejection of religious superstitions, and the promotion of social equality. The movement played a crucial role in empowering marginalized communities and advocating for the use of the Dravidian identity as a means of social and political assertion against caste-based oppression.

43History
The location of the ancient city of Taxila (Takshshila), mentioned in ancient Indian texts, was identified by
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Answer: (A) Alexander Cunningham

Explanation

Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, identified the site of Taxila in 1863. He relied extensively on the travel accounts of the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Xuanzang, who visited the region in the 7th century CE. By comparing the topographical descriptions and distances mentioned in Xuanzang's journals with the ruins at Shah-dheri near Rawalpindi, Cunningham was able to confirm the location of the ancient capital. His work provided the geographical framework for the later, more extensive archaeological excavations conducted at the site in the early 20th century.

44History
Who among the following was not a Jain Acharya?
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Answer: (B) Khema

Explanation

Khema was a renowned Buddhist nun and one of the two chief female disciples of Gautama Buddha, alongside Uppalavanna. Prior to her renunciation, she was the chief consort of King Bimbisara of Magadha. She is highly revered in the Buddhist tradition for her profound wisdom and was designated by the Buddha as the foremost among the bhikkhunis in great insight. Her life and attainments are described in the Pali Canon, particularly in the Therigatha, identifying her clearly with the Buddhist Sangha rather than the Jain monastic tradition.

45History
In India, the first major public appearance of Mahatma Gandhi was in
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Answer: (C) Inauguration of Banaras Hindu University (1916)

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in January 1915. His first major public appearance and speech occurred in February 1916 during the opening ceremony of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) at the invitation of Madan Mohan Malaviya. Addressing a prestigious gathering that included Indian princes and British officials, Gandhi delivered a provocative speech where he criticized the elite for their lack of concern for the poor and the ostentatious display of wealth. This event marked his debut on the Indian political and social stage, preceding his first active involvement in local movements like the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917.

46History
Consider the following statements about Patanjali's Mahabhashya: 1. It makes a mention of Kautilya. 2. It is a book on grammar and refers to historical personalities only incidentally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Patanjali's Mahabhashya is a foundational text on Sanskrit grammar, functioning as an extensive commentary on Panini's Ashtadhyayi and Katyayana's Varttikas. The primary intent of the work is the exposition of grammatical principles. Any references to historical figures or events are made incidentally to provide illustrative examples for the rules of grammar. Patanjali includes references to the Mauryas and the assembly of Chandragupta Maurya (Chandragupta-sabha), yet the text contains no mention of Kautilya.

47Economy
Which one of the following may lead to movement along the demand curve of a commodity?
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Answer: (A) Change in its price

Explanation

Movement along the demand curve, also known as a change in the quantity demanded, occurs exclusively due to a change in the own price of the commodity while holding all other factors constant. This phenomenon is a direct application of the law of demand, which establishes an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded. When the price of the commodity falls, the quantity demanded increases, resulting in a downward movement along the existing demand curve referred to as expansion of demand. Conversely, if the price of the commodity increases, the quantity demanded falls, leading to an upward movement along the curve referred to as contraction of demand. In contrast, changes in external factors like consumer income or preferences result in a shift of the entire demand curve rather than a movement along it.

48Economy
Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of a chosen activity?
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Answer: (D) Value of next best alternative that is given up

Explanation

Opportunity cost is a fundamental economic principle that quantifies the trade-off inherent in every decision-making process. Because resources such as time, money, and labor are finite, choosing to engage in one specific activity inevitably requires forgoing others. The opportunity cost is defined as the value or benefit of the single most preferred alternative that was sacrificed to pursue the chosen path. It represents the potential gain that would have been realized had the next best resource allocation been selected. This concept is crucial for evaluating the true cost of any action, as it accounts for both explicit expenses and the implicit value of lost alternatives.

49Economy
Which one of the following is the opportunity cost of a chosen activity?
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Answer: (D) Value of next best alternative that is given up

Explanation

Opportunity cost is a fundamental principle in economics that measures the value of the trade-off made when choosing one option over another. Because resources such as time, money, and capital are limited, the selection of any specific activity necessitates the sacrifice of other potential uses for those same resources. The opportunity cost is precisely defined as the value of the highest-valued alternative that must be foregone to pursue the chosen path. This concept includes both explicit out-of-pocket expenses and implicit costs, representing the total economic sacrifice involved in a decision rather than just the financial outlay. By focusing on the benefit that could have been received from the next best alternative, it allows for a more comprehensive evaluation of the true cost of any action.

50Economy
Which one of the opportunity cost of a chosen activity?
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Answer: (C) Value of all opportunities forgone

Explanation

Opportunity cost is a fundamental economic principle representing the value of the next best alternative that is sacrificed when a specific choice is made. Because resources such as time, money, and labor are limited, every decision to engage in an activity necessitates forgoing the benefits of another. It is specifically measured by the value of the single most preferred alternative that was not chosen, rather than the sum of all possible alternatives, as an individual can typically only pursue one alternative in place of the chosen action. This concept encompasses both explicit costs, such as direct monetary payments, and implicit costs, which represent the potential income or utility lost by not utilizing resources in their next most productive way. By accounting for these forgone benefits, the opportunity cost provides a more accurate measure of the true economic cost of any decision.

51Economy
Which one of the following is true of a pure voluntary exchange between two parties A and B?
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Answer: (B) Both gain; it is a win-win situation

Explanation

In economic theory, a pure voluntary exchange occurs when two parties trade goods or services without any form of coercion. Such an exchange is predicated on the principle of mutual benefit, where both parties expect to be better off after the transaction than they were before. This is possible because of the law of diminishing marginal utility and subjective valuation; each participant values the item they receive more than the item they give up. Because participation is intentional and unforced, the trade only proceeds if it increases the utility of both individuals, making it a positive-sum or win-win situation.

52Polity and Governance
The provision, 'the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State' is incorporated in which part of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) Part-IV

Explanation

The mandate for the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State is enshrined in Article 50 of the Constitution of India. This provision is a fundamental principle of governance intended to ensure the independence of the judiciary by preventing interference from the executive branch. Article 50 is categorized under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51. These principles direct the State to establish a social order aimed at the welfare of the people and the maintenance of a check-and-balance system within the democratic framework.

53Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Speaker may permit any Member to address the House in his/her mother tongue, if he/she cannot adequately express in either Hindi or English. 2. Business of the Parliamentary Committees is transacted either in Hindi or in English. 3. The minutes of the Parliamentary Committees are prepared invariably in Hindi or English. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 120 of the Constitution of India specifies that the business of Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English. However, it grants the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha the discretionary power to permit a member who cannot adequately express themselves in either of these two languages to address the House in their mother tongue. This ensures that linguistic diversity does not hinder representation.

Rule 382 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha further extends the linguistic framework to Parliamentary Committees. It provides that the business of a Committee shall be transacted in Hindi or in English. Additionally, the same rule mandates that the minutes of the meetings of these Committees must be prepared in Hindi or in English. This dual-language requirement ensures that committee proceedings and their official records remain accessible and consistent with the official language policy of the Union as established under the Official Languages Act, 1963 and the constitutional provisions governing parliamentary proceedings.

54Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the term 'State', as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) It refers to the Government of India, Parliament of India, Governments and Legislatures of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India.

Explanation

Article 12 of the Constitution of India provides a specific definition of the term State for the purpose of Part III, which deals with Fundamental Rights. According to this article, the State includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and the Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. Local authorities include entities like municipalities, panchayats, and improvement trusts. The category of other authorities has been interpreted by the judiciary to include statutory and non-statutory bodies that act as instrumentalities or agencies of the government, such as the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC), Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), and Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL). This comprehensive definition ensures that constitutional obligations regarding fundamental rights apply to all administrative and legislative organs of the Union and States, as well as various public bodies exercising sovereign or public functions.

55Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is the largest State in terms of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Bihar

Explanation

Bihar is allocated 16 seats in the Rajya Sabha, which is the highest number among the states listed. Representation in the Rajya Sabha is governed by the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India, with seat distribution primarily based on the population of each state. Following the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000, the state's representation in the Upper House was fixed at 16 members. This total is greater than the seats allotted to any of the other states mentioned in the question.

56Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Constitution of India has provision been made for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?
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Answer: (C) Article 243 D

Explanation

Article 243D of the Constitution of India, introduced via the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, contains the provisions for the reservation of seats in Panchayats. Clause (3) of this Article specifically mandates that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. This calculation includes the seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Additionally, Clause (4) of the same Article provides for the reservation of the offices of Chairpersons in Panchayats at all levels for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, ensuring that at least one-third of the total number of such offices are held by women. These provisions were designed to ensure female representation and participation in local self-governance.

57History
The painted illustration of the moving of the Ashoka Pillar at Topra is found in
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Answer: (C) Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi

Explanation

The Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi is an anonymous 14th-century Persian manuscript that chronicles the reign and achievements of Sultan Firuz Shah Tughlaq. It is highly significant for containing a series of detailed miniature paintings that provide a visual record of the complex engineering feat involved in transporting the Ashokan pillar from Topra to Delhi. These illustrations depict the step-by-step process of lowering the monolith, encasing it in reeds and skins to prevent damage, and hauling it on a specialized carriage with 42 wheels pulled by thousands of men. The manuscript is a primary historical source for understanding the mechanical and technical capabilities utilized during the Tughlaq period for moving such massive structural elements.

58Art and Culture
Which one among the following is a temple of the Vaishnavite tradition?
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Answer: (A) Srirangam

Explanation

The Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple at Srirangam is dedicated to Ranganatha, a reclining form of Lord Vishnu. Located on an island formed by the rivers Kaveri and Coleroon in Tamil Nadu, it is the foremost of the 108 Divya Desams, which are the sacred shrines of Vishnu praised by the Alvars, the Tamil poet-saints of the Vaishnavite tradition. The temple serves as the spiritual center for the Sri Vaishnava school of Hinduism and is closely associated with the philosopher-saint Ramanuja, who organized the temple's administration and rituals. It is constructed in the Dravidian style and follows the Vaikhanasa and Pancharatra Agama traditions, making it a primary site of worship for followers of the Vaishnavite faith.

59History
The biography of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti, authored by Jahanara, is known as
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Answer: (A) Munis al Arwah

Explanation

Jahanara Begum, the eldest daughter of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan and a learned scholar of Sufi traditions, authored the biography of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti titled Munis al Arwah (The Confidant of Spirits) in 1640. Written in Persian, the work was composed after her pilgrimage to the Khwaja's shrine in Ajmer and serves as a hagiographical account of the founder of the Chishti order in India. The biography emphasizes the spiritual merits and miracles of the saint, reflecting both Jahanara's personal devotion and the close historical relationship between the Mughal imperial family and the Chishti silsila.

60History
Which one of the following is not a political method of the moderates in the National Movement?
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Answer: (A) Overthrow of alien rule

Explanation

The Moderates, who dominated the Indian National Congress from 1885 to 1905, believed in the essential goodness of the British nation and sought to work within the legal and constitutional framework of the time. Their political strategy was based on the 3Ps—Petition, Prayer, and Protest—aimed at influencing British public opinion and the Parliament to introduce administrative reforms. They viewed the British connection as a source of progress for India and did not seek the immediate or forceful termination of British sovereignty. The objective of an outright overthrow of alien rule was fundamentally inconsistent with their belief in gradualism and their goal of achieving self-government slowly through orderly political development. Such radical aims were instead characteristic of the later Extremist phase and revolutionary movements.

61History
Swami Dayanand Saraswati took inspiration from
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Answer: (B) Vedas

Explanation

Swami Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875, looked to the Vedas as the ultimate and infallible source of all knowledge. His reform movement was centered on the slogan Go back to the Vedas, as he believed that the original Vedic religion represented the purest form of Hinduism. He held that the four Vedas (Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda, and Atharvaveda) were divine revelations and contained the seeds of all modern scientific thought and social ethics. Through his seminal work, Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth), he advocated for a return to Vedic principles, emphasizing monotheism and social equality while rejecting practices that he believed had no basis in the original Vedic texts.

62History
The call for 'renunciation of (all) voluntary associations with the (British) Government' was given during
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Answer: (A) Non-Cooperation Movement.

Explanation

The call for the renunciation of all voluntary associations with the British Government was the fundamental principle of the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. Gandhi argued in his book Hind Swaraj that British rule was established and maintained in India only through the cooperation of Indians. He believed that if Indians collectively withdrew this cooperation and renounced their voluntary ties with the colonial administration, the British Raj would collapse. This program involved the surrender of titles and honorary offices, and the boycott of government-affiliated schools, colleges, law courts, and legislative councils. By systematically severing these voluntary links, the movement aimed to paralyze the machinery of the colonial government through non-violent means.

63Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Time Zone in India? 1. There is one standard time for the whole country. 2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands have different Time Zones. 3. Indian Standard Time (IST) is five and half hours behind GMT. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

India follows a single uniform time zone called Indian Standard Time (IST) for its entire territory, including the mainland and all island groups. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands do not have separate time zones and adhere to the same time as the rest of the country. IST is calculated on the basis of the 82° 30' E longitude passing through Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh. As India is situated to the east of the Prime Meridian, its standard time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), which is represented as UTC+5:30.

Evaluating the statements: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect, since both island groups follow IST like the rest of the country. Statement 3 is incorrect, because IST is five and half hours AHEAD of GMT, not behind it. Only statement 1 is correct, so the answer is '1 only'.

64Geography
D had recently visited Khardung La, Nubra Valley and several Buddhist monasteries. Which one of the following States / UT had she visited?
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Answer: (D) Ladakh

Explanation

Khardung La is a prominent mountain pass located in the Ladakh range, serving as the gateway to the Shyok and Nubra Valleys. Nubra Valley is a high-altitude cold desert known for its unique landscape and the Diskit Monastery. Ladakh is home to a significant population of Tibetan Buddhists and numerous historic monasteries, including Hemis, Thiksey, and Lamayuru. Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019, Ladakh was established as a separate Union Territory on October 31, 2019, making it the administrative region that encompasses all these specific landmarks.

65Geography
Which one of the following States receives rainfall from both the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch of Monsoon?
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Answer: (A) Punjab

Explanation

Punjab receives rainfall from both branches of the South-West Monsoon due to its geographical location in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon moves northward after crossing the Saurashtra-Kutch region and Rajasthan, eventually reaching the Punjab plains. Simultaneously, the Bay of Bengal branch is deflected by the Himalayan range and travels westward across the Indo-Gangetic plains. These two moisture-laden branches typically converge over the Punjab and Haryana region, leading to significant precipitation. This convergence of the two distinct streams of the summer monsoon is a primary factor in the rainfall distribution of the northern plains.

66Geography
Inceptisols, Entisols, Vertisols and Mollisols are orders of which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Soil

Explanation

The terms Inceptisols, Entisols, Vertisols, and Mollisols represent four of the twelve soil orders defined by the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy. This classification system is the highest level of soil hierarchy and is based on measurable soil properties and the presence or absence of specific diagnostic horizons. Inceptisols are soils in the beginning stages of profile development, while Entisols are very young soils with little to no profile development. Vertisols are characterized by high clay content that shrinks and swells with moisture changes, often leading to deep cracks. Mollisols are highly fertile soils typically found in grassland ecosystems, identified by a thick, dark, organic-rich surface layer. In the context of Indian geography, Inceptisols and Entisols cover the largest percentage of the country's geographical area, particularly across the Indo-Gangetic plains.

67Geography
S had witnessed contour bunding and contour ploughing while visiting one of the States in India. Identify the State from the options given below.
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Answer: (C) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

Contour ploughing and contour bunding are fundamental soil conservation techniques used primarily in hilly and mountainous regions to mitigate the effects of soil erosion. Contour ploughing involves tilling the land along lines of equal elevation, which creates natural barriers that break the flow of water down a slope. Similarly, contour bunding involves constructing small embankments or ridges along these contour lines to intercept and slow down surface runoff, thereby increasing water infiltration into the soil. Himachal Pradesh is characterized by its steep Himalayan topography and rugged terrain, making these practices essential for sustainable hill agriculture. In such high-altitude environments, managing the velocity of rainwater is critical to preventing the loss of fertile topsoil and ensuring moisture retention for crops.

68Economy
Which one of the following target groups is the beneficiary of 'Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan' scheme?
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Answer: (B) All returning migrants

Explanation

The Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan was launched by the Government of India in June 2020 to address the livelihood crisis faced by returning migrant workers who moved back to their native villages during the COVID-19 lockdown. The scheme focused on 116 districts across six states—Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Odisha—where the concentration of reverse migration was highest. It provided 125 days of guaranteed employment by converging 25 different types of public works, such as the construction of community centers, rural housing, and water conservation structures, ensuring that these workers had access to immediate income and social security in their home regions.

69Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Curve) (Indication) A. Lorenz curve 1. Inflation and employment B. Phillips curve 2. Tax rates and tax revenue C. Engel curve 3. Inequality in distribution of income or wealth D. Laffer curve 4. Income and proportion of expenditure on food Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2

Explanation

The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation used in economics to show the cumulative distribution of income or wealth within a population, where the deviation from the 45-degree line of perfect equality indicates the degree of inequality. The Phillips curve illustrates the historical inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the corresponding rate of inflation within an economy, suggesting a short-term trade-off between the two. The Engel curve describes how household expenditure on a particular good, specifically food as per Engels Law, changes relative to total household income, noting that the proportion of income spent on food falls as income rises. The Laffer curve represents the relationship between tax rates and the resulting levels of government tax revenue, positing that there is an optimal tax rate that maximizes revenue and that excessively high rates can actually lead to a decrease in total tax collection.

70Economy
Which one of the following is a typical example of monopolistic competition?
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Answer: (B) Market for soaps

Explanation

The market for soaps is a classic example of monopolistic competition because it features a large number of sellers offering products that are close but not perfect substitutes. This market structure is defined by product differentiation, where each brand distinguishes its soap through unique fragrances, packaging, chemical compositions, and marketing campaigns. While many firms compete for the same consumer base, each company possesses a degree of monopoly power over its specific brand identity and loyal customer base. This allows firms to exercise some control over prices, though they remain constrained by the availability of competing brands. Furthermore, the soap industry is characterized by relatively low barriers to entry and exit and heavy expenditure on advertising to influence consumer preferences and establish brand recognition.

71Polity and Governance
Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the Parliament of India enacted quite a few GST Acts in the year 2017. Which one of the following does not fall in this category?
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Answer: (D) The State Goods and Services Tax Act

Explanation

The State Goods and Services Tax (SGST) Acts were enacted by the respective state legislatures of the various Indian states rather than by the Parliament of India. While the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, provided the framework for a unified tax structure, the division of legislative powers meant that the Parliament enacted the Central GST (CGST) Act, the Integrated GST (IGST) Act, the Union Territory GST (UTGST) Act, and the GST (Compensation to States) Act to cover central, inter-state, and union territory jurisdictions. In contrast, for intra-state trade, each state legislature had to independently pass its own version of the SGST Act to authorize the collection of tax by the state government. Consequently, the SGST legislation does not fall under the category of acts passed by the Parliament.

72Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement?
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Answer: (D) It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.

Explanation

The Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (as amended by the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016) is enforced by the Income Tax Department under the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The authorities responsible for the implementation of this Act include the Initiating Officer, who is typically an Assistant or Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, the Approving Authority, and the Administrator. The Directorate of Enforcement focuses on the investigation of offences related to money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and fugitive economic offenders, but it does not have the primary mandate to administer or enforce the Benami Property Transaction Act.

73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Insurance does not come under the Union List.

Explanation

Insurance is a subject explicitly mentioned under Entry 47 of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This placement grants the Parliament of India the exclusive power to legislate on matters pertaining to insurance. Other major financial subjects listed alongside insurance in the Union List include banking under Entry 45 and stock exchanges under Entry 48. Because the Union government holds sole jurisdiction over the regulation and development of the insurance sector, the claim that it does not fall under the Union List is factually incorrect.

74Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature of India's federal system?
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Answer: (A) There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States.

Explanation

In India's federal system, seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) are NOT allocated equally among states. Instead, allocation is based on the population of each state — larger states like Uttar Pradesh have 31 seats while smaller states may have as few as 1. This is unlike the US Senate where each state gets exactly 2 senators regardless of population. Statement A correctly identifies this unequal representation, making it a true feature of India's system. Among the given options, Statement A is the one that is considered 'not correct' in the context of a strictly federal design, as true federalism requires equal state representation in the upper house.

75Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression. But the freedom is subject to certain reasonable restrictions imposed by the State. These restrictions may relate to which of the following? 1. Defamation 2. Decency or morality 3. Incitement to an offence Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all its citizens. However, this right is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2). The Constitution specifies eight grounds on which the State can impose such restrictions: the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. Defamation serves to protect the reputation of individuals, decency or morality addresses the prevention of obscenity or lack of ethics in public discourse, and incitement to an offence allows the state to restrict speech that directly encourages the commission of a crime. Since all three mentioned categories are explicitly listed in Article 19(2), they all constitute valid grounds for reasonable restrictions.

76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following amendments in the Constitution of India made a Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review?
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Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment

Explanation

The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review. It inserted clause (5) in Article 352, which explicitly stated that the satisfaction of the President in declaring a National Emergency shall be final and conclusive and shall not be questioned in any court on any ground. This amendment also extended similar immunity to the proclamation of President’s Rule in states under Article 356 and the declaration of Financial Emergency under Article 360, ensuring that the executive's decision to invoke emergency powers could not be challenged in a court of law.

These restrictive provisions were later deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, which was enacted to provide safeguards against the misuse of emergency powers. By removing the immunity introduced in 1975, the 44th Amendment restored the power of judicial review over the proclamation of an emergency. This restoration was further reinforced by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980), where it was held that a proclamation of emergency can be challenged in court on the grounds of malafides or if the declaration is based on wholly extraneous or irrelevant facts.

77History
Which one of the following British officials was elevated to the position of Governor General after the Regulating Act of 1773?
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Answer: (A) Warren Hastings

Explanation

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first intervention by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company and formalize its administration in India. A primary provision of this act was the redesignation of the office of the Governor of Bengal to that of the Governor-General of Bengal. Warren Hastings, who had been the Governor of Bengal since 1772, was appointed as the first Governor-General under this new system. The act also established a four-member Executive Council to assist him and granted the Governor-General supervisory power over the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay, thereby initiating the process of administrative centralization in British India.

78History
Which of the following ideas was preached by the Kherwar or Sapha Har movement of the 1870s?
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Answer: (B) Monotheism and internal social reform

Explanation

The Kherwar movement, also known as the Sapha Har movement, was a socio-religious reform movement that emerged among the Santhal tribe in the 1870s under the leadership of Bhagirath Manjhi. The term Sapha Har literally translates to pure worshipers or cleansers. The movement was centered on the preaching of monotheism, urging the Santhals to worship a single supreme deity instead of a multitude of minor spirits. Along with this religious shift, it strongly advocated for internal social reform, encouraging followers to adopt a purified lifestyle. This included the renunciation of meat-eating, the prohibition of liquor consumption, and the adoption of cleaner daily habits. The movement aimed to restore the mythical golden age of the Kherwars by purging the community of social evils and revitalizing their spiritual identity through ethical living and singular devotion.

79History
In which one of the following years was the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha established?
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Answer: (D) 1870

Explanation

The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established on 2 April 1870 by social and political reformers including Mahadev Govind Ranade, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and S. H. Chiplunkar. The primary objective of the association was to serve as a bridge between the British Indian government and the people, particularly to represent the grievances of the peasantry in the Deccan region. It focused on creating political awareness among the masses and advocating for administrative reforms, land revenue reductions, and relief measures during famines. The organization served as an important institutional precursor to the Indian National Congress, providing a platform for early nationalist leaders to organize and articulate Indian political aspirations against colonial policies.

80History
Which one of the following was an important Pandya port, celebrated for its pearls in Sangam poems and Greek accounts?
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Answer: (B) Korkai

Explanation

Korkai served as the primary port and the second capital of the Early Pandya kingdom, located at the mouth of the Thamirabarani River near the Gulf of Mannar. It was internationally renowned as the center of the pearl fishery industry in South India. Sangam literature, including works like the Maduraikkanci, frequently praises the luster and quality of the pearls obtained from Korkai. These literary descriptions are supported by classical Greco-Roman texts such as the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea and the writings of Ptolemy, which refer to the city as Colchi and document its significance as a major commercial hub for the pearl trade between the Tamil country and the Roman Empire.

81History
The town of Chisht, from which the Sufi Chishti Silsila derives its name, is located in
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Answer: (B) Central Afghanistan

Explanation

The Chishti Silsila, one of the most influential Sufi orders in South Asia, originated in the town of Chisht-e-Sharif. This town is located in the Herat Province of present-day Afghanistan, specifically in the upper valley of the Hari River. Founded by Abu Ishaq Shami in the 10th century, the order is named after this geographical location in central-western Afghanistan. The tradition was later established in India by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti during the late 12th century. Chisht served as the primary center for the early masters of the order before its expansion into the Indian subcontinent.

82History
The rules for congregational worship (Sangat) involving collective recitation were organized by
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Answer: (A) Guru Nanak

Explanation

Guru Nanak Dev established the institution of Sangat, or congregational worship, as a central pillar of the Sikh faith. During his stay at Kartarpur, he organized the daily routine for his followers, which included the collective recitation of hymns such as Japji and So Dar in the morning and evening. The Sangat was intended to provide a space where individuals, regardless of their social or economic background, could gather to participate in communal prayer and Shabad Kirtan. This practice was foundational in fostering equality and a sense of community among his disciples, moving away from solitary or priest-led rituals toward a participatory and inclusive form of worship. By founding the first such congregation, he created a framework that allowed followers to achieve spiritual growth through the shared recitation of the divine word.

83Geography
Who amongst the following will be at more risk with respect to the earthquake hazard zone specified by the Geological Survey of India?
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Answer: (C) Malti at Pithoragarh

Explanation

Pithoragarh is located in the Kumaon division of Uttarakhand, a region situated within the active Himalayan tectonic belt. According to the Seismic Zoning Map of India developed by the Bureau of Indian Standards and the Geological Survey of India, Pithoragarh falls under Seismic Zone V. This zone is classified as the Very High Damage Risk Zone, indicating the highest level of earthquake hazard in the country. The high seismic vulnerability of this area is due to the continuous tectonic collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, which results in the accumulation and sudden release of immense geological stress along fault lines such as the Main Central Thrust. This makes the location susceptible to high-intensity earthquakes that can exceed magnitude 8.0 on the Richter scale.

84Geography
The Government wants to prepare a plan for drought prone areas of the country. Which one of the following regions will be predominantly focused?
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Answer: (D) Kutch region

Explanation

The Kutch region in Gujarat is characterized by an arid to semi-arid climate with extremely low and erratic annual rainfall, often averaging less than 400 mm. Its geographical position on the western periphery of the country makes it highly susceptible to frequent meteorological and hydrological droughts. Under the classification systems used by the Central Water Commission and the Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP), regions with high rainfall variability and limited irrigation coverage are prioritized for specialized water management plans. Kutch faces severe moisture deficits and high evaporation rates, necessitating targeted government focus on drought-proofing, desertification control, and the development of resilient water-harvesting infrastructure to support the local population and livestock.

85Geography
Four persons are travelling to different States of India. To whom will you advise to protect oneself from blizzards?
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Answer: (A) The person travelling to Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

A blizzard is a severe weather condition characterized by high-velocity winds of at least 56 km/h, extremely low temperatures, and heavy snowfall that reduces visibility to less than 400 metres. In the Indian context, these intense meteorological phenomena are primarily confined to the high-altitude regions of the Himalayan mountain system. Arunachal Pradesh is a Himalayan state with significant territory located at high elevations, including mountain passes and peaks exceeding 3000 to 4000 metres above sea level. These altitudes provide the necessary environmental conditions, such as sub-zero temperatures and turbulent wind patterns, for the occurrence of blizzards, particularly during the winter months. Travelers to these mountainous sectors require specialized protection against the combined effects of hypothermia, frostbite, and total loss of visibility.

86Geography
Which one of the following States is not prominent for plantation agriculture?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan

Explanation

Rajasthan is dominated by arid and semi-arid climatic conditions characterized by low annual precipitation and high evapotranspiration rates. Plantation agriculture is a specialized form of commercial farming that requires specific environmental factors, including high humidity, consistent heavy rainfall, and tropical or subtropical temperatures to sustain perennial crops. The lack of these climatic requirements, along with the prevalence of sandy soils, makes the state unsuitable for traditional plantation crops. Instead, Rajasthan's agricultural sector focuses on drought-resistant food grains, oilseeds, and pulses that are adapted to dry-land farming.

87Geography
The distance between which two cities has been reduced by the Atal Tunnel?
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Answer: (C) Manali to Leh

Explanation

The Atal Tunnel, inaugurated in October 2020, is an engineering marvel constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas. Located at an altitude of over 10,000 feet, this 9.02 km long tunnel is the longest high-altitude highway tunnel in the world. It provides all-weather connectivity on the strategically important Manali-Leh Highway, which was previously inaccessible for nearly six months of the year due to heavy snow at Rohtang Pass. The tunnel effectively reduces the road distance between Manali and Leh by approximately 46 km and shortens the travel time by about 4 to 5 hours. This connectivity is vital for both the movement of the Indian Armed Forces to the Ladakh sector and the socio-economic development of the Lahaul and Spiti valleys.

88Geography
Which one of the following biosphere reserves comprises islands with estuaries, beaches, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?
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Answer: (B) Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve

Explanation

The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, located along the southeastern coast of India in Tamil Nadu, is a marine protected area encompassing a chain of 21 islands and their surrounding shallow waters. It is renowned for its exceptional marine biodiversity and serves as a transition zone between terrestrial and marine ecosystems. The reserve features a diverse array of habitats, including estuaries, sandy beaches, and mudflats. It is one of the primary coral reef regions in India, hosting a wide variety of reef-building corals. Additionally, the islands and mainland coast within the reserve support significant ecosystems such as mangroves and salt marshes, along with extensive seagrass beds that provide critical habitat for the endangered Dugong.

89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a correct statement with reference to the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) The Constitution (Eighty-Fifth) Amendment Act has inserted the 'Right to Education' under Article 21A.

Explanation

The Right to Education was incorporated into the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002. This amendment mandated that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years. In contrast, the 85th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 was enacted to provide for consequential seniority in matters of promotion for government servants belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Since the statement attributes the insertion of Article 21A to the 85th Amendment instead of the 86th, it is factually incorrect.

90History
Which one of the following statements about the Cripps Mission is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The British Government could enter into a separate constitutional arrangement with any of the acceding provinces.

Explanation

The Cripps Mission of 1942 introduced a non-accession clause which allowed provinces of British India to opt out of the proposed Indian Union if they did not accept the new constitution. The proposal stated that the British Government would be prepared to enter into separate constitutional arrangements and agree upon a new constitution with these non-acceding provinces, granting them a status equivalent to that of the Indian Union itself. Statement D is incorrect because it suggests these separate arrangements would be made with acceding provinces, which were those that had already agreed to join the Union and accept its constitution.

91Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding constitutional amendment is/are correct? 1. The procedure for amendment to the Constitution is provided in Article 368. 2. A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. 3. The special procedure in Article 368 vests constituent powers upon the ordinary legislation. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: 1 2 3
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Article 368 in Part XX of the Indian Constitution outlines the specific procedure and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. It stipulates that an amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for that purpose in either House of Parliament, namely the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The procedure requires the bill to be passed in each House by a special majority, and in certain cases, it also requires ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the states. The power exercised by Parliament under Article 368 is constituent power, which is distinct from and superior to ordinary legislative power. While ordinary legislation is enacted through the general legislative process, constitutional amendments must strictly adhere to the special procedure mandated by Article 368 to ensure the stability and supremacy of the fundamental law.

92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a circumstance for proclamation of Emergency by the President of India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Internal disturbance

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion as a ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352. This change was introduced to restrict the scope of emergency powers and prevent their misuse, ensuring that a state of emergency could not be declared simply due to political instability or non-violent protests. Since the enactment of this amendment, internal disturbance has ceased to be a valid legal circumstance for the President to invoke Article 352. The current grounds are strictly limited to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.

93History
Akbar issued a Farman in 1598 permitting in the city of Cambay (Khambat), Gujarat, the construction of a
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Answer: (B) Church

Explanation

In 1598, Emperor Akbar issued a royal Farman granting permission to the Jesuit missionaries to construct a Christian church in the port city of Cambay (Khambat), Gujarat. This decree was issued following a request by Father Jerome Xavier, who led the Third Jesuit Mission to the Mughal court. The permission allowed the Christians to have a permanent place of public worship and conduct their religious services openly, reflecting Akbar's broader policy of religious tolerance and his engagement with diverse faiths through the Ibadat Khana and his personal interest in theological discussions.

94History
Domingo Paes, the medieval traveller, has described the city of
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Answer: (B) Vijayanagara

Explanation

Domingo Paes was a Portuguese traveler who visited Southern India during the reign of Krishna Deva Raya, the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, around 1520-1522. His chronicles provide one of the most detailed and vivid eyewitness accounts of the capital city, Vijayanagara. Paes described the city as being as large as Rome and extremely prosperous, noting its advanced irrigation systems, bustling markets filled with precious stones and silks, and the impressive fortifications. He also provided specific details regarding the royal palace, the Mahanavami festival, and the military strength of the empire, contributing significantly to the historical understanding of the medieval city now known as Hampi.

95Geography
The extent of damage caused by earthquake is not influenced by which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) Climate of the area

Explanation

The climate of an area refers to long-term atmospheric conditions such as temperature, precipitation, and humidity, which do not have a direct physical relationship with the seismic energy released during an earthquake or the structural response of buildings to ground shaking. Earthquake damage is determined by geological factors like magnitude and depth, local soil characteristics such as liquefaction potential, and anthropogenic factors including population concentration and the seismic resilience of engineering designs. Since earthquakes are lithospheric phenomena driven by tectonic plate movements, the prevailing weather patterns or climatic zones do not impact the intensity of the vibrations or the resulting destruction of infrastructure.

96Geography
An avalanche is a type of which one of the following disasters?
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Answer: (B) Terrestrial

Explanation

Avalanches are classified as terrestrial or geophysical disasters because they involve the rapid movement of snow, ice, soil, and rock down a slope on the Earth's land surface. These events are triggered when the gravitational force acting on a mass exceeds its internal strength or the friction holding it in place, resulting in a sudden downhill flow. Since the primary mechanism and impact of the disaster occur on the lithosphere, it is grouped with other land-based hazards such as landslides, earthquakes, and volcanic eruptions. While weather conditions often contribute to the formation of the snowpack, the disaster itself is a geological mass movement occurring on land terrain.

97Geography
An infection constantly maintained at a baseline level in a geographic area without external input is known as
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Answer: (A) Endemic

Explanation

An endemic disease refers to the constant presence or the usual prevalence of an infectious agent or disease within a specific geographic area or population group. It represents the baseline level of the disease that is naturally maintained in that area without the need for external input. In an endemic state, the rate of transmission is relatively stable, and the number of infected individuals remains approximately constant over time, reflecting a state of equilibrium between the host population and the pathogen.

98Geography
Streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders in
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Answer: (C) Bhabar

Explanation

The Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging from 8 to 16 km in width, stretching along the foothills of the Shivalik range. As rivers and streams descend from the steep gradients of the Himalayas, their velocity decreases significantly upon reaching the piedmont zone, leading to the deposition of heavy materials such as boulders, rocks, and pebbles. This region is characterized by high porosity due to the accumulation of these coarse materials, which often causes smaller streams to disappear underground and flow sub-surface.

99Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the electoral rolls is/are correct? 1. There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency. 2. No person is ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them. 3. A citizen of India, not less than 18 years of age, can cast his/her vote unless disqualified under a law of an appropriate legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 325 of the Constitution of India mandates that there shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for elections to either House of Parliament or the State Legislature. This article specifically prohibits the exclusion of any person from the electoral roll on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them, ensuring a secular and uniform voting system. Article 326 provides the basis for adult suffrage, stating that every citizen of India who is not less than 18 years of age is entitled to be registered as a voter and exercise their right to vote. This right is subject only to disqualifications established by the Constitution or by an act of the appropriate legislature on specific grounds like non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt and illegal practices. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, officially lowered the minimum voting age from 21 to 18 years.

100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct about 'Totalitarianism'?
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Answer: (B) It usurps political freedom of the individuals, but it doesn't usurp personal freedoms.

Explanation

Totalitarianism is a political system characterized by the state's attempt to exercise total control over both public and private life. The term itself is derived from the goal of total regulation of the individual and society. Unlike authoritarian regimes, which typically focus on monopolizing political power while leaving social, economic, and personal spheres relatively autonomous as long as they do not challenge the regime, a totalitarian state seeks to abolish the distinction between the state and the individual. It employs pervasive surveillance, state-controlled media, and mandatory ideology to dictate personal beliefs, family life, and social behavior. By seeking to transform the human soul and demanding absolute conformity, totalitarianism fundamentally usurps personal freedoms in addition to political ones.

101Art and Culture
Who among the following was chosen for the Kuvempu Award 2020?
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Answer: (A) Dr. Rajendra Kishore Panda

Explanation

The Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar 2020 was conferred upon the renowned Odia poet and novelist Dr. Rajendra Kishore Panda. This prestigious national award is instituted in memory of the late Kannada poet laureate Kuvempu to recognize writers who have made significant contributions to any of the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Dr. Panda has published over 16 collections of poetry and several novels, making him a major figure in contemporary Odia literature. The award, which includes a cash prize of 5 lakh rupees, a silver medal, and a citation, was decided by a selection committee chaired by Kannada writer Hampa Nagarajaiah. Dr. Panda's selection highlights his extensive literary impact and his role in enriching Indian literature through his native tongue.

102Art and Culture
Avani Lekhara became the first Indian woman to win two Paralympics medals at the Tokyo Paralympics 2020. Which one of the following was her discipline?
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Answer: (B) Shooting

Explanation

Avani Lekhara is a professional para-shooter who achieved historic success at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games. She won the gold medal in the R2 Women's 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1 event with a world record-equaling score. Additionally, she clinched a bronze medal in the R8 Women's 50m Rifle 3 Positions SH1 event. These victories made her the first Indian woman to win a gold medal in Paralympic history and the first to secure two medals in the same Paralympic Games. Her discipline involves high-precision rifle shooting across different distances and positions.

103Geography
Bagram Air Base is located in
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Answer: (C) Afghanistan

Explanation

Bagram Air Base is situated in the Parwan Province of Afghanistan, approximately 11 kilometers southeast of the city of Charikar and 47 kilometers north of Kabul. It originally served as a major Soviet airbase during the Soviet-Afghan War in the 1980s. Following the 2001 invasion of Afghanistan, it became the largest U.S. military base in the country and the central hub for the United States Armed Forces and the International Security Assistance Force. The base was handed over to the Afghan National Defense and Security Forces in July 2021 during the final stages of the withdrawal of U.S. troops from the region.

104Geography
The Panchmuli Lake is situated near
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Answer: (D) Statue of Unity

Explanation

Panchmuli Lake is situated in Kevadia, Gujarat, in the immediate vicinity of the Statue of Unity. Officially known as Dyke-3 of the Sardar Sarovar Dam project, the lake is an integral part of the tourism infrastructure developed around the world's tallest statue dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The lake gained significant prominence between 2019 and 2021 when the Gujarat Forest Department undertook the relocation of hundreds of crocodiles from its waters. This operation was conducted to ensure the safety of tourists visiting the site and to facilitate the operation of the seaplane service connecting the Sabarmati Riverfront in Ahmedabad to the Statue of Unity complex.

105Science and Technology
Pinaka, developed in India, is a
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Answer: (B) multi-barrel rocket launcher.

Explanation

Pinaka is an indigenous multi-barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) system designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army. Named after the mythical bow of Lord Shiva, the system is capable of firing a salvo of 12 high-explosive rockets in 44 seconds from a single launcher. It is mounted on a Tatra 8x8 chassis, providing high mobility for rapid deployment and shoot-and-scoot operations. The Pinaka system proved its effectiveness during the 1999 Kargil War by neutralizing enemy positions on high mountain ridges. By 2021, the system had evolved through several iterations, including the Pinaka Mk-I, the Enhanced Pinaka with an extended range of up to 45-60 kilometers, and the Guided Pinaka which incorporates navigation and control systems for high-precision strikes.

106Polity and Governance
What is itat e-duar?
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Answer: (B) An e-filing portal of Income Tax Appellate Tribunal

Explanation

The itat e-duar is the official e-filing portal of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), which was launched in June 2021. This digital platform was developed to facilitate the electronic filing of appeals, applications, and other documents by taxpayers and the Income Tax Department. By moving the litigation process online, the portal enhances accessibility, ensures transparency in judicial proceedings, and streamlines case management. It allows stakeholders to track the status of their cases in real-time and reduces the administrative burden associated with physical filings, aligning with the broader Digital India initiative to modernize quasi-judicial bodies.

107Science and Technology
What is the range capability of Agni-P Ballistic Missile?
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Answer: (A) 1,000 - 2,000km

Explanation

The Agni-P (Agni-Prime) is a new generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is a two-stage canisterized solid propellant ballistic missile specifically designed with a range capability between 1,000km and 2,000km. This missile incorporates several technological advancements from the Agni-IV and Agni-V programs, including composite motor casings, a ring laser gyroscope-based inertial navigation system, and a redundant micro-navigation system. The canisterized design ensures that the missile can be transported easily and launched from road-mobile or rail-mobile platforms with a very short preparation time. The successful maiden flight test conducted on June 28, 2021, from Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island confirmed that the missile met all mission objectives, including its specified range and high-degree accuracy.

108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Indian States has recently declared itself as the first rabies-free State?
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Answer: (D) Goa

Explanation

Goa was declared the first rabies-free state in India in June 2021 by the state government. This milestone was achieved after the state reported zero human rabies cases for three consecutive years since 2018. The success was largely driven by the Mission Rabies project, a comprehensive initiative involving mass dog vaccination, effective surveillance, and intensive public awareness campaigns. By vaccinating over 100,000 dogs annually and establishing a dedicated rabies hotline for reporting and emergency response, the state effectively broke the transmission cycle of the virus from animals to humans.

109Polity and Governance
Department of Public Enterprises is a part of
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Answer: (A) Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

The Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) is one of the six departments under the Ministry of Finance. In July 2021, the Government of India modified the Allocation of Business Rules to shift the DPE from the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises to the Ministry of Finance. This transition was intended to ensure more effective coordination of policies related to the capital restructuring, dividends, and performance evaluation of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). It also aligns the management of these enterprises more closely with the government's disinvestment and asset monetization strategies handled by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM).

110Science and Technology
Chronologically arrange the following Indian-origin astronauts on the basis of their flying into space starting with the first: 1. Sunita Williams 2. Rakesh Sharma 3. Sirisha Bandla 4. Kalpana Chawla Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: 1 2 3 4
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Answer: (B) 2-4-1-3

Explanation

The chronological sequence of these astronauts based on their maiden spaceflights is 2-4-1-3. Rakesh Sharma, a former Indian Air Force pilot, became the first Indian citizen to enter space on April 3, 1984, as part of the Soviet Interkosmos program aboard Soyuz T-11. Kalpana Chawla was the first woman of Indian origin in space, launching on her first mission, STS-87, aboard the Space Shuttle Columbia on November 19, 1997. Sunita Williams followed them with her first spaceflight on December 9, 2006, as a member of the STS-116 mission to the International Space Station. Sirisha Bandla became the third woman of Indian origin to fly to the edge of space on July 11, 2021, as part of the Virgin Galactic Unity 22 suborbital test flight.

111Polity and Governance
President Jovenel Moise, who was assassinated recently, was the President of which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) Haiti

Explanation

Jovenel Moïse served as the 42nd President of Haiti, taking office in February 2017. His tenure was characterized by ongoing political instability and widespread protests regarding his term's length and governance. On July 7, 2021, Moïse was assassinated at his private residence in Port-au-Prince by a group of foreign mercenaries. This event triggered a major constitutional crisis and significantly impacted the security and political landscape of the Caribbean country.

112Polity and Governance
Recently, which one among the following Ministries was formed under the Government of India?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Cooperation

Explanation

The Ministry of Cooperation was created by the Government of India in July 2021 to realize the vision of Sahakar se Samriddhi, which translates to Prosperity through Cooperation. It was established to provide a separate administrative, legal, and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country. The ministry aims to streamline processes for ease of doing business for cooperatives and enables the development of Multi-State Co-operatives. Its formation addresses the need for a dedicated central body to support cooperatives as a true people-based movement reaching the grassroots level, particularly in the agricultural and rural sectors.

113History
Indian Naval Ship INS Tabar had recently participated in a two-day naval exercise with the Italian Navy. The exercise was conducted in
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Answer: (C) Tyrrhenian Sea.

Explanation

INS Tabar, a Talwar-class stealth frigate of the Indian Navy, participated in a two-day maritime partnership exercise with the Italian Navy frigate ITS Antonio Marceglia on July 3 and 4, 2021. The exercise took place in the Tyrrhenian Sea as part of the ship's four-month long deployment to the Mediterranean and Atlantic regions. This professional engagement involved several complex naval maneuvers, including air defense exercises, tactical maneuvers, and helicopter deck landing operations. The primary objective of the exercise was to enhance interoperability between the two navies and strengthen the bilateral maritime cooperation and security framework in the region.

114Science and Technology
Which one of the following countries has recently been awarded a malaria-free certification by the WHO?
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Answer: (C) China

Explanation

In June 2021, the World Health Organization certified China as malaria-free after the country maintained zero indigenous cases for four consecutive years. China achieved this milestone through a long-term commitment that began in the 1950s, eventually utilizing the 1-3-7 surveillance and response strategy. This strategy required reporting a case within one day, investigating it within three days, and implementing focal control measures within seven days to prevent further transmission. China is the first country in the WHO Western Pacific Region to be awarded this certification in more than 30 years, joining a global list of countries that have successfully eliminated the disease.

115Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following was honoured with Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2020?
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Answer: (B) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman

Explanation

Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, the first President of Bangladesh and often referred to as Bangabandhu, was posthumously conferred the Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2020. The Government of India recognized his immense contribution toward social, economic, and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods. His leadership was fundamental to the liberation of Bangladesh and served as a beacon of hope for democracy and human rights in the region. The award was announced by the Ministry of Culture in March 2021, coinciding with the birth centenary of Bangabandhu and the golden jubilee of the independence of Bangladesh.

116History
Why was Dholavira in the news recently?
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Answer: (D) It received the UNESCO World Heritage Tag

Explanation

Dholavira, a prominent Harappan-era city located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in July 2021 during the 44th session of the World Heritage Committee. This recognition made Dholavira the 40th World Heritage Site in India and the first site of the Indus Valley Civilization within India's borders to receive this prestigious status. The site is renowned for its sophisticated water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms, and unique city planning, which includes a tripartite division into a citadel, a middle town, and a lower town. This archaeological site provides critical insights into the urban life and technological advancements of one of the world's earliest civilizations.

117History
Which one of the following is the oldest football tournament of Asia?
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Answer: (C) Durand Cup

Explanation

The Durand Cup was established in 1888 in Shimla by Sir Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary to the Government of India. It holds the distinction of being the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest football competition in the world, trailing only the FA Cup and the Scottish Cup. Initially started as a tournament for British Army personnel stationed in India, it eventually opened up to civilian teams and remains one of the most prestigious trophies in Indian football history.

118History
Who among the following is the first Indian woman to win a medal in the Olympics?
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Answer: (A) Karnam Malleswari

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Karnam Malleswari achieved this historic feat at the 2000 Sydney Olympics, where she won the bronze medal in the weightlifting competition in the 69 kg weight category. She lifted a total of 240 kg, consisting of 110 kg in the snatch and 130 kg in the clean and jerk. This victory marked the first time an Indian woman had ever won an Olympic medal, ending a long drought for female athletes from India at the international games and establishing her as a pioneer in Indian sporting history.

119Polity and Governance
The Russian Federation participated in the Tokyo Olympics, 2020 under which of the following names?
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Answer: (A) Russian Olympic Committee

Explanation

In December 2020, the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) reduced a four-year ban on Russia to two years following a state-sponsored doping scandal investigated by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). Under the terms of this ruling, Russian athletes were prohibited from competing under their national flag, name, or anthem at major international sporting events, including the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games. Consequently, the Russian team participated under the name Russian Olympic Committee, commonly abbreviated as ROC. Instead of the national flag, they used the ROC emblem featuring the Olympic rings and the white, blue, and red of the Russian flag in a stylized flame design. For medal ceremonies, the Russian national anthem was replaced by a fragment from Pyotr Tchaikovsky's Piano Concerto No. 1.

120Economy
Which of the following States/Union Territory/Region are in special focus in the National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm?
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Answer: (B) North-East Region and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

The National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) was launched by the Government of India in August 2021 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to promote oil palm cultivation and reduce the heavy dependence on edible oil imports. The mission identifies the North-East Region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as its primary focus areas due to their favorable agro-climatic conditions, which include high rainfall and humidity levels essential for the growth of oil palm trees. To encourage adoption in these specific regions, the scheme provides higher financial assistance for planting materials and maintenance compared to the rest of India. Additionally, the government provides a price assurance through a Viability Price mechanism, which includes a special 2 percent additional top-up for farmers in the North-East and Andaman and Nicobar Islands to safeguard them against volatility in international crude palm oil prices and ensure the economic viability of the crop in these priority zones.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2D
  3. 3B
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7B
  8. 8C
  9. 9B
  10. 10A
  11. 11B
  12. 12B
  13. 13C
  14. 14A
  15. 15B
  16. 16A
  17. 17A
  18. 18A
  19. 19A
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22B
  23. 23A
  24. 24A
  25. 25C
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30A
  31. 31B
  32. 32A
  33. 33D
  34. 34B
  35. 35B
  36. 36B
  37. 37B
  38. 38D
  39. 39B
  40. 40B
  41. 41C
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44B
  45. 45C
  46. 46B
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49D
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53A
  54. 54D
  55. 55B
  56. 56C
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60A
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65A
  66. 66B
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70B
  71. 71D
  72. 72D
  73. 73C
  74. 74A
  75. 75D
  76. 76C
  77. 77A
  78. 78B
  79. 79D
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82A
  83. 83C
  84. 84D
  85. 85A
  86. 86A
  87. 87C
  88. 88B
  89. 89A
  90. 90D
  91. 91D
  92. 92C
  93. 93B
  94. 94B
  95. 95D
  96. 96B
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99B
  100. 100B
  101. 101A
  102. 102B
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105B
  106. 106B
  107. 107A
  108. 108D
  109. 109A
  110. 110B
  111. 111B
  112. 112C
  113. 113C
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116D
  117. 117C
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120B

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