Consider the following international events :
1. Signing of the Simla Agreement
2. Agra Summit between India and Pakistan
3. Signing of the SAARC Charter at the First SAARC Summit
4. India's first nuclear test
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events ?
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Answer: (C) 1,4,3,2
Explanation
The Simla Agreement was signed on July 2, 1972, by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President Zulfikar Ali Bhutto to normalize relations after the 1971 war. India conducted its first nuclear test, code-named Smiling Buddha, on May 18, 1974, making it the first nation outside the permanent five members of the UN Security Council to conduct a nuclear test. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was formally established when its Charter was signed at the first summit in Dhaka on December 8, 1985. The Agra Summit, a historic two-day meeting between Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and President Pervez Musharraf to resolve bilateral disputes, occurred from July 14 to 16, 2001. This placement of events in 1972, 1974, 1985, and 2001 respectively confirms the chronological sequence.
2Polity and Governance
Which one of the following features is correct about the 'First Past the Post System' of election ?
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Answer: (A) A candidate who wins may not get the majority of votes
Explanation
In the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, also known as a plurality voting system, the candidate who receives the highest number of votes in a constituency is declared elected. This system does not require the winning candidate to secure an absolute majority, which is more than 50 percent of the total votes cast. In a multi-cornered contest where several candidates are competing, a candidate can win by securing a plurality of votes, even if the combined votes of all other candidates far exceed their individual total. For instance, a candidate can win with 30 percent of the votes if no other single candidate receives more than that amount, meaning that 70 percent of the voters may have actually voted against the winner.
3Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Special provision in the (State) Constitution of India)
A. Article 371
1. Nagaland
B. Article 371-A
2. Gujarat
C. Article 371-B
3. Assam
D. Article 371-I
4. Goa
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 2 1 3 4
Explanation
Article 371 provides special provisions for the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat, authorizing the President to provide for the establishment of separate development boards for regions such as Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, and Kutch.
Article 371-A contains special provisions for Nagaland, stipulating that no Act of Parliament regarding Naga religion, social practices, customary law, or ownership of land shall apply to the state unless the Nagaland Legislative Assembly so decides.
Article 371-B relates to the state of Assam and empowers the President to provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of the state consisting of members elected from the tribal areas.
Article 371-I was inserted to provide special provisions for Goa, specifically mandating that the Legislative Assembly of the State of Goa shall consist of not less than thirty members.
4Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India is/are correct ?
1. Provision for the reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha has been made vide 106th Amendment of the Constitution.
2. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of the States.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in Panchayats.
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Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
Article 243D of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, mandates that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. This reservation also extends to the offices of Chairpersons in Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. While the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, introduced provisions for a one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the States, it specifically does not provide for such reservation in the Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative Councils. Therefore, only the provision regarding reservation in Panchayats accurately reflects the current constitutional framework.
5Polity and Governance
Which one among the following pairs of Subjects and Lists under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Census : Concurrent List
Explanation
Census is explicitly listed under Entry 69 of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. The power to conduct the census and legislate on matters related to it rests exclusively with the Parliament. This is codified under the Census Act of 1948, which empowers the Central Government to take a census of the population. Because it is a matter of national importance and requires uniformity across the country, it is categorized as a Union subject rather than being in the Concurrent List.
6Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The word 'secular' comes before the word 'socialist'.
2. The word 'justice' comes before the word 'equality'.
3. The word 'fraternity' comes after the word 'liberty'.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Preamble to the Constitution of India follows a specific sequential order in describing the nature of the Indian State and the objectives to be secured for its citizens. The Republic is characterized as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. In this sequence, the term socialist appears before the term secular.
The objectives intended for the citizenry are presented in the order of Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. Justice, covering social, economic, and political aspects, is the first objective listed, thereby appearing before Equality. Similarly, Liberty, encompassing thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, is followed by Equality and then Fraternity. Therefore, the word justice correctly precedes equality, and the word fraternity correctly follows liberty in the constitutional text.
7Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about 'Motions' in the Parliament of India is correct?
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Answer: (C) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of No-Confidence.
Explanation
Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This constitutional provision establishes that the executive stays in power only as long as it commands the confidence of the directly elected House of the People. Accordingly, the procedural mechanism for a No-Confidence Motion is exclusively provided for under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Since the Rajya Sabha represents the states and is not the house to which the government is collectively responsible for its survival, it has no power to entertain, debate, or vote upon a Motion of No-Confidence.
8Polity and Governance
Part IV-A of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following areas?
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Answer: (B) Fundamental Duties
Explanation
Part IV-A of the Constitution of India consists of Article 51A, which enumerates the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens. This part was not included in the original Constitution but was added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. These duties are inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR and serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while the Constitution grants them fundamental rights, it also expects them to observe certain basic norms of democratic conduct. Initially, ten duties were incorporated, but an eleventh duty was later added by the 86th Amendment Act in 2002, relating to the provision of educational opportunities for children between the ages of six and fourteen.
9Geography
The 'Durand Line' is a border demarcation that separates which of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) Afghanistan and Pakistan
Explanation
The Durand Line is the 2,640-kilometer international border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. It was established in 1893 following an agreement between Sir Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat and civil servant of the British Raj, and Abdur Rahman Khan, the Afghan Emir. The line was intended to fix the respective spheres of influence and improve diplomatic relations and trade between the British Empire and the Emirate of Afghanistan. While the modern state of Pakistan inherited this border upon its independence in 1947, Afghanistan has historically expressed various degrees of non-recognition regarding the line as a permanent international boundary. It remains a significant geopolitical feature in South Asia, traversing various ethnic Pashtun tribal areas.
10History
Consider the following social movements:
1. Chipko Movement
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Satyashodhak Samaj
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the launch of the above social movements?
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Answer: (C) 3, 2, 1
Explanation
The Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society) was founded by Jyotirao Phule in Maharashtra on September 24, 1873, with the aim of liberating the Shudra and Untouchable castes from exploitation and providing them with education and social rights.
The Bardoli Satyagraha was a significant non-violent peasant movement led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928 in the state of Gujarat. It was organized to protest against the British colonial government's decision to increase land revenue by 30 percent during a period of financial distress for farmers.
The Chipko Movement was a forest conservation movement that began in April 1973 in the Reni village of Chamoli district, Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh). It is characterized by protesters hugging trees to prevent them from being felled by commercial loggers, emphasizing the ecological balance and the rights of local communities over forest resources.
11History
Which one of the following statements about the Tashkent Agreement is correct?
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Answer: (B) It was an agreement between India and Pakistan.
Explanation
The Tashkent Agreement was a peace treaty signed between India and Pakistan on January 10, 1966, to conclude the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. The negotiations were moderated by Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin in Tashkent, which was then part of the Soviet Union. The primary signatories were Indian Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistani President Muhammad Ayub Khan. Under the terms of the declaration, both countries agreed to withdraw all armed personnel to the positions held before August 5, 1965, and pledged to restore diplomatic and economic relations while resolving disputes through peaceful means according to the principles of the United Nations Charter.
12Polity and Governance
Which among the following is not a language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Gondi
Explanation
Gondi is a major South-Central Dravidian language spoken by several million people, primarily the Gond tribes across states like Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Telangana. While it is a significant ethno-linguistic identity in central India, it has not been included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The Eighth Schedule currently lists 22 languages, and although there have been long-standing demands and recommendations from various committees to include Gondi, it remains outside the list of official scheduled languages.
13History
Which of the following can be considered a part of the ancient Indian Smriti Literature?
1. Puranas
2. Ramayana
3. Kalpa-Sutra
4. Vedas
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Ancient Indian literature is traditionally classified into two categories: Shruti and Smriti. Shruti, meaning that which is heard, includes the four Vedas along with the Brahmanas, Aranyakas, and Upanishads, which are considered divine revelations. Smriti, meaning that which is remembered, refers to traditional texts composed by human authors based on the teachings of the Shruti. This category is vast and includes the Vedangas, such as the Kalpa-Sutras, which provide instructions for rituals and social conduct. It also encompasses the Itihasas, which are the great epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, and the Puranas, which contain mythological narratives and historical traditions. While the Vedas are the core of Shruti, the Puranas, Ramayana, and Kalpa-Sutra are all integral components of the Smriti tradition.
14Polity and Governance
Who among the following was India's first Woman Chief Minister?
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Answer: (B) Sucheta Kripalani
Explanation
Sucheta Kripalani became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office in Uttar Pradesh on October 2, 1963. She served in this capacity until March 1967, leading the state government with administrative diligence. Prior to her tenure as Chief Minister, she was a celebrated freedom fighter who participated actively in the Quit India Movement and was one of the fifteen women elected to the Constituent Assembly of India, where she helped draft the nation's Constitution. Her election to the top executive post in India's most populous state marked a significant milestone in the country's political history regarding women's representation in leadership roles.
15History
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. C. Rajagopalachari was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna.
2. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya initiated the concept of 'Integral Humanism'.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Bharat Ratna was instituted in 1954 to recognize exceptional service or performance of the highest order. In its inaugural year, the award was conferred upon three eminent personalities: C. Rajagopalachari, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and Dr. C.V. Raman. As one of the three individuals in the first batch, C. Rajagopalachari is recognized as a first recipient of the honor. Integral Humanism is a socio-political philosophy formulated by Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya in the mid-1960s. It was presented as a set of four lectures in Bombay in 1965 and subsequently adopted as the official doctrine of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh. The concept emphasizes the synthesis of the material and the spiritual, viewing the individual, society, and nature as an integrated whole rather than competing entities.
16Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of Institute and their location is/are correctly matched?
1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study : Shimla
2. Indian Institue of Public Administration : New Delhi
3. Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service : Nainital
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study is a premier research institution established in 1964 and is housed in the historic Viceregal Lodge atop Observatory Hill in Shimla. The Indian Institute of Public Administration was established in 1954 in New Delhi following the recommendations of the Paul H. Appleby report to provide training and research in the field of public administration. The Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service, which is the training academy for the Indian Foreign Service, is located in New Delhi and not in Nainital. Consequently, the pairs for the Indian Institute of Advanced Study and the Indian Institute of Public Administration are correctly matched with their respective locations.
17Art and Culture
Consider the following statements:
1. Erok Sim is a festival mainly celebrated by the Santhal community.
2. Sangken is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Erok Sim is a major agricultural festival celebrated by the Santhal community, predominantly in the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. It is observed during the month of Ashaadh (June-July) to mark the beginning of the seed-sowing season. During the festival, the community performs rituals and offers sacrifices to their deities to seek blessings for a bountiful harvest and to protect the crops from pests and natural calamities.
Sangken is a significant Buddhist festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh by the Theravada Buddhist communities, including the Khampti, Singpho, and Khamyang tribes. It marks the traditional New Year and is often referred to as the Water Festival. The celebration involves the ceremonial bathing of Buddha idols with scented water, symbolizing purification and the washing away of the past year's sins to welcome the new year with peace and prosperity.
18Polity and Governance
'Maitree' is a Joint Military Exercise between India and :
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Answer: (B) Thailand
Explanation
Exercise Maitree is a bilateral annual training exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Thai Army. Commencing in 2006, this joint exercise aims to enhance military cooperation and interoperability between the two nations. The training primarily focuses on counter-terrorism operations, tactical drills, and humanitarian assistance in various terrains. It facilitates the exchange of best practices and strengthens the strategic partnership between India and Thailand within the framework of India's Act East Policy.
19Polity and Governance
Which of the following criteria are specified for granting Special Category Status to States in India ?
1. Hilly and difficult terrain
2. Economic and infrastructural backwardness
3. Strategic coastal zone
4. Sizeable share of tribal population
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Special Category Status (SCS) was introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission to support states facing significant geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. The National Development Council adopted the Gadgil formula, which specifies five distinct criteria for granting this status. These include hilly and difficult terrain, which makes the cost of providing infrastructure and services significantly higher than in the plains. Economic and infrastructural backwardness is another core criterion, targeting states that lack the necessary industrial base or physical connectivity to sustain growth independently. Additionally, a sizeable share of tribal population or low population density is considered, reflecting the need for specialized developmental interventions in socially vulnerable regions. Other parameters include a strategic location along international borders and the non-viable nature of state finances. A strategic coastal zone is not included in the criteria for Special Category Status.
20History
Who among the following is the founder of the Congress Socialist Party ?
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Answer: (A) Acharya Narendra Dev
Explanation
The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was established in 1934 as a socialist caucus within the Indian National Congress. Acharya Narendra Dev was one of its principal founders and served as the President of its first session held at Patna in May 1934. Along with Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia, he sought to steer the Indian national movement toward a socialist path, advocating for the interests of the labor class and the peasantry. His leadership was instrumental in defining the party's ideology, which combined Marxist thought with the specific socio-economic realities of colonial India.
21Science and Technology
The rule to determine the direction of a current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field is :
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Answer: (C) Fleming's Right-Hand Rule.
Explanation
Fleming's Right-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of the induced current when a conductor moves inside a magnetic field, a process known as electromagnetic induction. According to this rule, if the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of the right hand are held mutually perpendicular to each other, the thumb represents the direction of motion of the conductor and the forefinger represents the direction of the magnetic field. In this orientation, the middle finger points in the direction of the induced current. This principle is the fundamental basis for the operation of electric generators, where mechanical rotation of a coil within a magnetic field creates a continuous change in magnetic flux, thereby inducing an electric current in the circuit.
22Economy
A car travels a total distance L. It travels half the distance with speed v₁ and the other half with speed v₂ . The average speed of the car is :
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Answer: (B) 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂)
Explanation
Average speed is defined as the total distance divided by the total time taken. For a journey of total distance L, where the first half distance L/2 is covered at speed v₁ and the second half distance L/2 is covered at speed v₂, the total time T is the sum of the time intervals for each segment.
The time for the first half is t₁ = (L/2)/v₁ = L/2v₁, and the time for the second half is t₂ = (L/2)/v₂ = L/2v₂.
The total time is:
T = t₁ + t₂ = L/2v₁ + L/2v₂ = L/2 (1/v₁ + 1/v₂) = L(v₁ + v₂)/2v₁v₂
The average speed vₐᵥ_g is:
vₐᵥ_g = L/T = L/(L(v₁ + v₂)/2v₁v₂) = 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂)
This result represents the harmonic mean of the two speeds, which is the standard formula for average speed when equal distances are covered at different speeds.
23Science and Technology
The linear momentum of a particle is conserved if :
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Answer: (B) the net force on it is zero.
Explanation
According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the net external force acting on a particle is equal to the rate of change of its linear momentum with respect to time. This is mathematically expressed as F = dp/dt, where F is the net force and p is the linear momentum. For the linear momentum to be conserved, p must remain constant over time, which mathematically implies that its derivative dp/dt is zero. Substituting this into the law shows that F = 0. Consequently, if the net external force acting on a particle is zero, its linear momentum does not change and is said to be conserved. This principle is a fundamental consequence of the translational symmetry of space.
24Science and Technology
When a stone tied to a string is whirled in a circle, the work done on it by the string :
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Answer: (C) is zero.
Explanation
The work done W by a force F on an object undergoing a displacement ds is calculated using the formula W = ∫ F · ds = ∫ F ds cos θ, where θ is the angle between the force vector and the direction of displacement. In the case of a stone whirled in a circle, the force exerted by the string is the tension, which provides the centripetal force necessary for circular motion. This centripetal force is always directed radially toward the center of the circle. Simultaneously, the instantaneous displacement of the stone at any point is along the tangent to the circular path. Because the radius and the tangent of a circle are always perpendicular to each other, the angle θ between the force and the displacement is 90°. Since cos 90° = 0, the tension in the string does no work on the stone.
25Science and Technology
Assume 'A' does 500 J of work in 'x' minutes and 'B' does 1000 J of work in 20 minutes. If the power delivered by 'A' is P₁ and 'B' is P₂ and P₁ = 2P₂ , then 'x', in minutes is :
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Answer: (B) 5
Explanation
Power is defined as the rate of doing work, given by the formula P = W/t. For entity B, the power P₂ is calculated as:
P₂ = 1000 J / 20 min = 50 J/min
According to the problem, the power delivered by A is twice that of B, so:
P₁ = 2 × P₂ = 2 × 50 J/min = 100 J/min
Using the power formula for A, where W₁ = 500 J and t₁ = x minutes:
P₁ = W₁/t₁ ⇒ 100 = 500/x
Solving for x:
x = 500/100 = 5 minutes
26Science and Technology
A sound wave travelling at a speed of 330 m/s produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 0-1 second. The wavelength of the sound wave is:
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Answer: (C) 1.65m
Explanation
In a transverse wave, one complete cycle consists of one crest and one trough. Therefore, 20 crests and 20 troughs represent n = 20 cycles. The frequency f of the wave is the number of cycles per unit time:
f = n/t = 20/0.1 s = 200 Hz
The relationship between the speed of sound v, frequency f, and wavelength λ is given by the formula:
v = fλ
Rearranging for wavelength:
λ = v/f
Substituting the given speed v = 330 m / s and the calculated frequency f = 200 Hz:
λ = 330/200 = 1.65 m
27Science and Technology
An X-ray can be deflected:
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Answer: (D) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field.
Explanation
X-rays are high-frequency electromagnetic waves composed of photons, which are fundamental particles that possess no electric charge. The deflection of a particle in an electric or magnetic field requires the particle to have a non-zero charge, as defined by the Lorentz force equation F = q(E + v × B). Because the charge q for an X-ray photon is zero, the resultant force F is also zero, meaning X-rays are unaffected by such fields. They travel in straight lines through vacuum or media unless they interact with matter via mechanisms like photoelectric absorption or Compton scattering. This neutrality is a fundamental characteristic of all electromagnetic radiation across the spectrum.
28Science and Technology
In a simple astronomical telescope, the objective and the eyepiece used respectively, are:
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Answer: (D) a convergent lens and a convergent lens.
Explanation
A simple astronomical telescope consists of two convex lenses, which are both convergent lenses. The objective lens has a large focal length fₒ and a large aperture to collect light from distant celestial objects and form a real, inverted image at its focal plane. The eyepiece lens has a smaller focal length fₑ and functions as a simple magnifier to enlarge the image formed by the objective for the observer. Because the primary function of the objective is to focus parallel rays from infinity and the purpose of the eyepiece is to produce a magnified virtual image from that focus, both lenses must have the ability to converge light rays.
29Science and Technology
Twinkling of a star is due to:
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Answer: (B) Refraction of light
Explanation
Twinkling of a star, or stellar scintillation, is caused by the atmospheric refraction of starlight. As light from a distant star enters the Earth's atmosphere, it passes through multiple layers of air with varying densities and temperatures. These layers act as media with different refractive indices. Because the atmosphere is dynamic and constantly moving due to winds and thermal convection, the refractive index of these layers fluctuates rapidly. This causes the path of the starlight to bend continuously and unpredictably. Since stars are so far away that they act as point sources of light, these small changes in the light's path cause the star's apparent position and brightness to shift rapidly, resulting in the twinkling effect perceived by an observer on the ground.
30Science and Technology
Van de Graaff generator generates:
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Answer: (D) high voltage low direct current
Explanation
A Van de Graaff generator is an electrostatic device designed to create very high electric potentials by accumulating charge on a hollow metal globe. It functions by using a moving insulating belt to continuously transport electrical charges from a high-voltage source or via friction to the interior of the sphere. Because the charge is transferred in a single direction and the physical capacity of the belt to carry charge is limited, the generator produces high voltage low direct current (DC).
31Science and Technology
Which one of the following metals is widely extracted by the electrolysis of its molten compound?
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Answer: (D) Na
Explanation
Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal located near the top of the electrochemical series. Due to its very low reduction potential (E° = -2.71 V), it cannot be reduced from its compounds using chemical reducing agents like carbon or carbon monoxide, which are typically used for less reactive metals. Consequently, sodium is extracted on an industrial scale through the electrolysis of its molten chloride in the Downs process. In this procedure, a molten mixture of sodium chloride and calcium chloride is electrolyzed. Calcium chloride is added to lower the operating temperature from the natural melting point of NaCl (around 801°C) to approximately 600°C, which improves efficiency and prevents the vaporization of the produced metal. During the process, sodium ions migrate to the cathode where they gain electrons to form liquid sodium metal (Na⁺ + e⁻ → Na), while chloride ions are oxidized at the anode to produce chlorine gas (2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻). Electrolysis must be performed on the molten compound because performing it in an aqueous solution would preferentially discharge hydrogen gas at the cathode instead of sodium metal.
32Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a property of 'graphene'?
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Answer: (D) It is a wide band-gap semiconductor.
Explanation
Graphene is classified as a zero-bandgap semiconductor or a semimetal. In its electronic structure, the conduction band and the valence band meet at specific points known as Dirac points, meaning there is no energy gap between them. This lack of a bandgap allows electrons to move through the lattice with extremely high mobility, acting more like massless particles. In contrast, wide band-gap semiconductors have a significant energy gap that electrons must overcome to move from the valence band to the conduction band. Because graphene's bands touch, it does not possess the characteristics of a wide band-gap material.
33Science and Technology
Why do plastics not degrade easily?
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Answer: (B) They have strong covalent bonds.
Explanation
Plastics are synthetic organic polymers consisting of long molecular chains held together by extremely stable covalent bonds. These carbon-to-carbon and carbon-to-hydrogen bonds are chemically robust and require a high amount of activation energy to break. Because these specific synthetic structures do not occur naturally, most decomposers like bacteria and fungi lack the specialized enzymes necessary to catalyze the cleavage of these covalent linkages. The strength and stability of these bonds prevent the material from being broken down into simpler molecules, leading to the environmental persistence of plastics over hundreds or thousands of years.
34Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct chemical formula of carboxylic acid?
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Answer: (C) C₂H₅COOH
Explanation
Carboxylic acids are organic compounds characterized by the presence of the carboxyl functional group, which is written as -COOH. This group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom (carbonyl group) and single-bonded to a hydroxyl group (-OH). The formula C₂H₅COOH represents propanoic acid, a three-carbon saturated carboxylic acid where the ethyl group is attached to the carboxyl carbon. The presence of the -COOH moiety is the definitive structural requirement for a molecule to be classified as a carboxylic acid.
35Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct for benzene ?
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Answer: (D) It has six isomers.
Explanation
Benzene is a single, unique aromatic compound characterized by a resonance-stabilized hexagonal structure and does not exist as a set of six isomers. While the molecular formula C₆H₆ is shared by several distinct constitutional isomers—such as Dewar benzene, benzvalene, and prismane—these are separate chemical species with different bonding arrangements, geometries, and physical properties. Due to the high D₆ₕ point group symmetry of the benzene ring, all six carbon atoms and all six hydrogen atoms are chemically equivalent, which results in benzene having only one unique structural form.
36Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a nitrogen fertilizer ?
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Answer: (C) N2
Explanation
N₂ represents elemental dinitrogen gas, which constitutes approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere. While nitrogen is an essential macronutrient for plant growth, the majority of plants are unable to utilize nitrogen in its gaseous form due to the exceptionally strong triple covalent bond holding the atoms together. For a substance to function as a nitrogen fertilizer, it must provide nitrogen in a bioavailable or fixed form, such as ammonium ions, nitrate ions, or organic compounds like amides, which can be assimilated by plant root systems. Because N₂ is chemically inert under standard environmental conditions and cannot be directly absorbed by crops, it is not classified as a fertilizer, even though it serves as the primary raw material for the industrial production of nitrogenous compounds.
37Science and Technology
Which one of the following general electronic configurations correctly represent a transition metal element ?
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Answer: (D) (n - 1) d1 - 10 ns0 - 2
Explanation
Transition metals are defined as elements that belong to the d-block of the periodic table, characterized by the progressive filling of the (n-1)d subshell. The general electronic configuration for these elements is (n-1)d¹⁻¹⁰ ns⁰⁻². In this notation, n represents the principal quantum number of the outermost shell (valence shell), while (n-1) denotes the penultimate shell.
This configuration accounts for the energy stability gained through various electron arrangements. While many transition metals follow the ns² filling, the ns orbital may contain zero or one electron in certain elements to achieve greater stability. For example, Chromium (Cr) has a configuration of [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ and Copper (Cu) has [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹, both utilizing ns¹. Palladium (Pd) is a unique case with a configuration of [Kr] 4d¹⁰ 5s⁰, fitting the ns⁰ part of the general formula. The (n-1)d subshell can hold anywhere from 1 to 10 electrons, covering the entire range of groups 3 to 12 in the periodic table.
38Science and Technology
Variable oxidation numbers are possible for :
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Answer: (C) Iron
Explanation
Iron is a transition metal with the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s². Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states because the energy difference between the ns subshell and the (n-1)d subshell is minimal, allowing electrons from both shells to be involved in chemical bonding. In the case of iron, it can lose the two electrons from the 4s orbital to form the ferrous ion Fe²⁺, or it can lose an additional electron from the 3d orbital to form the ferric ion Fe³⁺. The Fe³⁺ state is particularly stable due to the resulting half-filled d-orbital configuration (3d⁵). This flexibility in electron loss from both the valence and penultimate shells enables iron to show multiple oxidation states in different chemical environments.
39Science and Technology
Which one of the following gas smells like a rotten egg ?
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Answer: (B) Hydrogen sulphide
Explanation
Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) is a colorless, highly toxic, and flammable gas characterized by its distinct odor of rotten eggs. This smell occurs because the gas is a byproduct of the microbial breakdown of organic materials in the absence of oxygen, a process known as anaerobic digestion. In eggs, sulfur-containing proteins like albumin decompose to release H₂S over time. The human nose is extremely sensitive to this compound and can detect its presence at concentrations as low as 0.00047 parts per million (ppm). It is commonly encountered in environments such as sewers, marshes, and during the industrial refining of crude oil and natural gas.
40Science and Technology
The chemical reaction K2SO4 + BaCl2 → 2KCl + BaSO4↓ is an example of :
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Answer: (D) Double displacement reaction
Explanation
The chemical reaction K₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → 2KCl + BaSO₄↓ is a double displacement reaction because it involves the mutual exchange of ions between two reactant compounds to form two new products. In this aqueous solution, the potassium ions (K⁺) from potassium sulfate switch places with the barium ions (Ba²⁺) from barium chloride. This ionic exchange results in the formation of soluble potassium chloride (KCl) and an insoluble solid precipitate, barium sulfate (BaSO₄), as indicated by the downward arrow (↓). Such reactions follow the general chemical format AB + CD → AD + CB, where the cations and anions of the reactants are redistributed to create the products.
41Science and Technology
Which one among the following is the correct scheme followed for classification of animals ?
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Answer: (D) Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
Explanation
The biological classification of organisms follows a hierarchical taxonomic system established to organize living things based on shared characteristics and evolutionary history. This system moves from broader, more inclusive categories to more specific ones. In the standard Linnaean hierarchy, the sequence begins with Domain and Kingdom, followed by Phylum, which groups together organisms with similar body plans. A Phylum is subdivided into Classes, and each Class is further divided into Orders based on more specific structural or physiological traits. An Order contains related Families, and a Family is composed of one or more Genera. Finally, a Genus consists of closely related Species, which is the most specific level of classification. This arrangement accurately reflects the descending order of biological complexity and relatedness.
42Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an example of airborne disease ?
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Answer: (A) Tuberculosis
Explanation
Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is a classic example of an airborne disease. Transmission occurs when an individual with active pulmonary tuberculosis coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings, releasing microscopic respiratory droplets into the environment. These tiny particles, known as droplet nuclei, are small enough to remain suspended in the air for several hours and can be carried by air currents. When a susceptible person inhales these contaminated particles, the bacteria travel through the upper respiratory tract to reach the alveoli in the lungs, where the infection can establish itself. The risk of transmission is highest in enclosed or poorly ventilated spaces where the concentration of these airborne pathogens remains high.
43Science and Technology
What are the four human blood types in ABO blood group typing?
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Answer: (B) A, B, AB and O
Explanation
The ABO blood group system identifies four primary blood types based on the presence or absence of specific antigens on the red blood cell surface. These types are A, B, AB, and O. Type A blood contains A antigens, Type B contains B antigens, Type AB contains both A and B antigens, and Type O contains neither antigen. This system is controlled by a single gene with three alleles: I^(A), I^(B), and i. The combinations of these alleles result in the four observable phenotypes that constitute the standard ABO typing used in medical practice.
44Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system in human beings?
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Answer: (C) Cervix
Explanation
The cervix is the lowermost portion of the uterus in the female reproductive system. It is a cylinder-shaped neck of tissue that connects the vagina to the uterine cavity. Its primary functions include producing cervical mucus to facilitate or hinder sperm movement, protecting the uterus from pathogens, and dilating during childbirth to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. Because it is an integral component of the female internal genitalia, it is not a part of the male anatomy.
45Science and Technology
Which of the following are the different parts of a human brain?
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Answer: (C) Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain
Explanation
The human brain is scientifically categorized into three main anatomical regions based on their developmental origins and physiological functions: the forebrain, the midbrain, and the hindbrain. The forebrain is the largest part, comprising the cerebrum and structures like the thalamus and hypothalamus, which manage complex cognitive tasks and sensory integration. The midbrain acts as a relay center for visual, auditory, and motor system signals. The hindbrain, consisting of the medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum, controls essential life-support functions such as respiration, heart rate, and physical balance. This tripartite division provides the fundamental framework for understanding neuroanatomy and central nervous system organization.
46Science and Technology
Tooth enamel of humans is made up of:
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Answer: (A) Calcium phosphate
Explanation
Tooth enamel is the hardest and most highly mineralized substance in the human body. It consists primarily of hydroxyapatite, which is a crystalline form of calcium phosphate with the chemical formula Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂. This inorganic mineral makes up approximately 96% of the weight of the enamel, providing the structural strength and durability required to withstand the mechanical forces of chewing and to protect the inner layers of the teeth from chemical erosion.
47Science and Technology
The inner lining of the human small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called:
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Answer: (B) Villi
Explanation
Villi are microscopic, finger-like outgrowths found on the inner walls of the small intestine. Their primary function is to significantly increase the total surface area available for the absorption of nutrients from digested food into the bloodstream. Each villus is supplied with a dense network of blood capillaries and a large lymphatic vessel called a lacteal, which work together to facilitate the efficient transport of absorbed carbohydrates, proteins, and fats to the various tissues of the body. The presence of these structures ensures that the maximum possible amount of nutrients is retrieved during the digestive process through the mucosal lining.
48Science and Technology
Which of the following represent disaccharides?
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Answer: (C) Maltose and lactose
Explanation
Disaccharides are carbohydrates formed by the condensation of two monosaccharide units joined together by a glycosidic linkage, with the loss of a water molecule. Maltose and lactose are the primary examples of this group. Maltose, or malt sugar, consists of two α-D-glucose units linked by an α(1 → 4) glycosidic bond. It is commonly produced during the breakdown of starch by the enzyme amylase. Lactose, the sugar naturally found in milk, is composed of one D-galactose unit and one D-glucose unit connected via a β(1 → 4) glycosidic linkage. Both maltose and lactose are reducing sugars because they retain a free hemiacetal group in one of their sugar rings, allowing them to react with reagents like Fehlings solution.
49Science and Technology
Which one of the following organelles can be seen in a prokaryotic cell?
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Answer: (C) Ribosomes
Explanation
Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the absence of membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus. Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound organelles composed of ribosomal RNA and proteins that facilitate protein synthesis. They are found in all living cells, including prokaryotes, where they typically exist as the 70S variety. Since they lack a limiting membrane, they are the only structures among the given choices present within the cytoplasm of prokaryotic organisms like bacteria and archaea.
50Science and Technology
A solution with a pH value less than 7 is a/an:
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Answer: (C) Acidic solution
Explanation
The pH scale measures the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution by calculating the negative logarithm of the molar concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺), expressed as pH = -log₁₀[H⁺]. At a standard temperature of 25°C, a neutral solution has a pH of 7. Any solution with a pH value lower than 7 contains a higher concentration of hydrogen ions compared to hydroxide ions, which characterizes it as an acidic solution. Because the scale is logarithmic, a solution with a pH of 4 is ten times more acidic than a solution with a pH of 5. Common substances such as vinegar, lemon juice, and battery acid all exhibit pH values in this range.
51History
Consider the following statements about the Bengal countryside at the time of the Permanent Settlement:
1. The zamindars' troops were disbanded.
2. Within the villages, the power of jotedars was more effective than that of zamindars.
3. The East India Company made a rule that the property of women would not be taken over.
4. Adhiyars were sharecroppers on the land owned by bargadars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Permanent Settlement of 1793 sought to transform the zamindars into landlords who would act as agents of the East India Company for revenue collection. To ensure their subordination and prevent them from challenging the Company's authority, the British disbanded the zamindars' private troops and abolished their traditional police and judicial powers. While the zamindars held legal titles to large estates, their influence in the villages was often overshadowed by the jotedars. This class of rich peasants resided within the village and directly controlled local trade, moneylending, and the cultivation of vast lands, often mobilizing the ryots to resist the zamindars' revenue demands.
During the early years of the Permanent Settlement, the Company implemented a rule that exempted the property of women from being seized or auctioned for revenue defaults. This allowed zamindars to employ the strategy of fictitious transfers, shifting land ownership to female family members to protect the estate from the Sunset Law. In the agrarian hierarchy of Bengal, the jotedars managed their lands through sharecroppers who were known as either adhiyars or bargadars. These cultivators provided their own labor and equipment while handing over half of the produce to the jotedars after the harvest.
52History
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Journal/Newspaper/Pamphlet) List-II (Founder/Editor/Author)
A. Kudi Arasu 1. Aurobindo Ghosh
B. Kisan Bulletin 2. Pherozeshah Mehta
C. Bombay Chronicle 3. Indulal Yagnik
D. Bhawani Mandir 4. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Kudi Arasu was a Tamil weekly started in 1925 by E.V. Ramaswami Naicker to propagate the ideologies of the Self-Respect Movement. Kisan Bulletin was the mouthpiece of the Kisan Sabha edited by Indulal Yagnik to champion the cause of Indian farmers and their rights. The Bombay Chronicle was an English daily newspaper founded by Pherozeshah Mehta in 1910 to voice nationalist grievances and promote liberal political thought. Bhawani Mandir was a revolutionary pamphlet written by Aurobindo Ghosh in 1905 that advocated for a spiritual-based nationalism and the training of revolutionaries.
53History
Which of the following statements about the Ghadar Movement is/are correct?
1. The Ghadar Movement began in 1913 in San Francisco.
2. The movement was founded by Sohan Singh Bhakna.
3. The Ghadar Movement took its name from the weekly Ghadar brought out in several Indian languages.
Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ghadar Movement was an international revolutionary effort founded in 1913 by expatriate Indians to overthrow British rule in India. The movement established its headquarters, known as the Yugantar Ashram, in San Francisco. Sohan Singh Bhakna was the founding president of the organization, which was initially called the Hindi Association of the Pacific Coast, while Lala Hardayal served as its general secretary and primary ideologue. The movement gained its popular name from its weekly newspaper, the Ghadar, which was first published on November 1, 1913. This journal was printed in several languages, including Urdu, Punjabi, Hindi, and Gujarati, to reach a wide audience and promote the message of armed struggle and national independence.
54History
Chronologically arrange the formation of the following political associations, beginning from the earliest:
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. Indian Association
3. Madras Mahajan Sabha
4. Bombay Presidency Association
Select the answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 by Mahadev Govind Ranade and Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi to represent the aspirations of the people to the government. The Indian Association was founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose in Calcutta, aiming to promote the political interests of the people through legitimate means. The Madras Mahajan Sabha came into existence in 1884, organized by M. Viraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Anandacharlu to coordinate the activities of local associations in the Madras Presidency. The Bombay Presidency Association was formed in 1885 by Pherozeshah Mehta, K.T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji to advocate for Indian interests shortly before the first session of the Indian National Congress. Consequently, the chronological sequence of their formation is 1870, 1876, 1884, and 1885.
55History
Which one of the following periods has provided the evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan in Rajasthan?
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Answer: (A) Early Harappan
Explanation
The archaeological site of Kalibangan, situated in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan, revealed two distinct cultural sequences: Period I (Early Harappan or Pre-Harappan) and Period II (Mature Harappan). The evidence of a ploughed field was discovered in the Period I level, making it one of the earliest known examples of agricultural land prepared with a plough. This prehistoric field features a grid of furrows crossing each other at right angles, with one set of furrows spaced more widely than the other. This specific pattern suggests that the inhabitants practiced mixed cropping, likely sowing two different crops simultaneously in the same field. The ploughed field was located to the southeast of the settlement and was eventually covered by the expansion of the town during the Mature Harappan phase.
56History
Consider the following events:
1. Muslim League Resolution for Pakistan
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Dandi March
4. Second Round Table Conference
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?
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Answer: (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
Explanation
The Dandi March (3) took place between March and April 1930, initiating the Civil Disobedience Movement against the salt tax. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (2) was subsequently signed on March 5, 1931, leading to the suspension of the movement and the release of political prisoners. This pact enabled Mahatma Gandhi to attend the Second Round Table Conference (4) in London, which was held from September to December 1931. The Muslim League Resolution for Pakistan (1), which formally demanded independent states for Muslims in the northwest and eastern zones of India, was passed during the Lahore session on March 24, 1940.
57History
Consider the following pairs:
(Historical Place) (Well-known for)
I. Girnar : Sudarshana Lake
II. Cholistan : Terracotta model of Plough
III. Mant (near Mathura): Headless standing figure of Kanishka
IV. Sannati : Asokan Pillar Edict in Odisha
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) 3
Explanation
The historical site of Girnar is home to the Sudarshana Lake, an artificial reservoir that was originally constructed during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya and later repaired by rulers such as Rudradaman I and Skandagupta, as documented in the Junagadh rock inscription. In Harappan archaeology, terracotta models of ploughs have been found at sites in the Cholistan desert and at Banawali in Haryana, providing evidence of early agricultural techniques. The locality of Mant near Mathura is the find-spot of a famous headless standing statue of the Kushana emperor Kanishka, which is an important artifact demonstrating the stylistic features of the Mathura school of art. Sannati is located in the Kalaburagi district of Karnataka, not Odisha. While it is a significant Mauryan site, it is known for the discovery of Ashokan Major Rock Edicts and fragments of a stupa rather than a Pillar Edict. Since only the first three pairs are geographically and historically accurate, the total number of correctly matched pairs is three.
58History
With reference to the Amara-Nayaka system, which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) They were not allowed to use their share of revenue for the maintenance of temples.
Explanation
Amara-Nayakas played a vital role in the socio-religious life of the Vijayanagara Empire by utilizing a portion of the revenue collected from their territories for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works. Beyond personal maintenance and the upkeep of military contingents, these commanders were responsible for supporting religious institutions and infrastructure projects like tanks and canals to ensure agricultural productivity. Temple patronage was a standard practice that helped the Amara-Nayakas consolidate local authority and demonstrate their loyalty to the Raya, making the claim that they were prohibited from using revenue for such purposes historically inaccurate.
59History
The popular poem Khoob ladi mardani woh to Jhansi wali rani thi (Like a man she fought, she was the Rani of Jhansi) was written by:
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Answer: (B) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan
Explanation
Subhadra Kumari Chauhan wrote the iconic poem Jhansi Ki Rani, which contains the famous line Khoob ladi mardani woh to Jhansi wali rani thi. A prominent figure in the Chhayavad school of Hindi poetry, she was deeply involved in the Indian independence movement and was the first woman Satyagrahi to be arrested in Nagpur. Her poetry often combined themes of nationalism with depictions of domestic life and childhood. This specific poem, published in her collection Mukul, remains a defining piece of Indian patriotic literature, immortalizing the courage of Rani Lakshmibai during the 1857 revolt.
60Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Ellora:
1. This art-historical site is associated exclusively with Buddhism.
2. The Kailasa temple at Ellora has been built of dressed stone and kiln fired bricks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Ellora is a multi-religious site containing 34 monasteries and temples carved into the basaltic Sahyadri hills. It represents a synthesis of three religious traditions: Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism. Caves 1 to 12 are dedicated to Buddhism, caves 13 to 29 are Hindu, and caves 30 to 34 are Jain. The Kailasa temple is the centerpiece of the site and is a masterpiece of monolithic rock-cut architecture. It was excavated from the top of a single mountain side downwards to the base, meaning it was carved directly out of the existing rock rather than being built as a structural assembly of dressed stone or kiln-fired bricks.
61Art and Culture
In which one of the following states are the Guntupalle Buddhist Caves located?
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Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
The Guntupalle Buddhist Caves, often referred to as the Ajanta of Andhra, are situated in the Eluru district (formerly West Godavari) of Andhra Pradesh. These ancient rock-cut monuments date from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd century CE and are among the most significant Buddhist sites in South India. The complex consists of two main hills containing various structures including a circular rock-cut chaitya-griha, numerous viharas or monasteries, and several sandstone stupas. The circular chaitya is particularly famous for its rare architectural design, featuring a vaulted roof with rock-cut ribs that mimic wooden construction, similar to the Barabar Caves in Bihar. Over time, the site evolved from Theravada to Mahayana traditions, making it a crucial archaeological site for understanding the spread of Buddhism in the coastal Andhra region.
62Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Ajanta Cave paintings:
1. The paintings depict yakshas, gandharvas and apsaras.
2. The artists have used the technique of providing multiple perspectives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Ajanta Cave paintings are renowned for their depiction of Buddhist themes, primarily focusing on the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Alongside these religious narratives, the murals extensively feature semi-divine and celestial beings such as yakshas, gandharvas, and apsaras, who are portrayed as part of the cosmic and courtly environment surrounding the central figures. Stylistically, the artists at Ajanta utilized a sophisticated technique of multiple perspectives. Rather than adhering to a single vanishing point common in Western classical art, these paintings employ a moving or pluralistic viewpoint. This approach allows the artist to depict different parts of a narrative or a physical space from varying angles within the same panel, creating a dynamic sense of depth and continuity that guides the viewer through the complex visual story.
63History
Neel Darpan, a play that depicted the atrocities on the indigo planters, was translated into English by:
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Answer: (B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
Explanation
Michael Madhusudan Dutta was the translator who rendered Dinabandhu Mitra's 1860 Bengali play Neel Darpan into English. Published in 1861 under the title The Indigo Planting Mirror, the translation aimed to expose the systemic brutality and economic exploitation of Indian peasants by British indigo planters during the Indigo Revolt. While Reverend James Long organized the publication and was subsequently prosecuted and imprisoned for libel by the British authorities, the literary work of translating the text was performed by Dutta. His translation played a critical role in bringing the atrocities of the indigo plantation system to the attention of the English-speaking intelligentsia and the British administration.
64History
With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:
1. Shah Mal mobilised the people of Baraut region of Uttar Pradesh and captured the bungalow of an Englishman and converted it into a hall of justice.
2. Gonoo was a Kol leader of the Singhbhum region of Chotanagpur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Shah Mal was an influential rebel leader from the Baraut pargana in the Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh. During the 1857 revolt, he organized the villagers of the Chaurasi Des and led attacks on government infrastructure. He famously took over a British officer's bungalow and transformed it into a hall of justice, which served as a center for his administration and a place to settle disputes according to local traditions. Gonoo was a significant leader of the Kol tribes in the Singhbhum region of the Chotanagpur plateau. He acted as a key figure in mobilizing the tribal population to join the rebellion against the British, showcasing the expansion of the revolt into the tribal belts. Both statements accurately reflect the roles played by these regional leaders during the 1857 uprising in their respective territories.
65Art and Culture
Which of the following books portrays three images of the Mother Goddess: Mother as she was, Mother as she is and Mother as she will be?
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Answer: (C) Anandamath
Explanation
Anandamath, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1882, features a pivotal scene where the protagonist Mahendra is taken into the inner sanctum of the monastery by the monk Satyananda. Inside, he is shown three idols representing the evolution of the Motherland. The first is Jagaddhatri, the Mother as she was, symbolizing past prosperity and beauty. The second is Kali, the Mother as she is, depicted as dark, naked, and wearing a garland of skulls to symbolize the current state of misery, famine, and exhaustion under colonial rule. The third is Durga, the Mother as she will be, represented as a ten-armed goddess of power and protection, signifying the future glory and liberation of India. This triad of images was central to the novel's message of nationalist awakening and served to motivate the Sanyasi rebels.
66History
With reference to the women achievers in modern India, consider the following statements:
1. Pandita Ramabai published a book A Comparison Between Women and Men where she protested against the colonial view that men enjoyed all the rights, opportunities and benefits of change.
2. Tarabai Shinde worked in the field of medicine to reduce child mortality in rural India.
3. Sarojini Naidu led a delegation to London to demand for female franchise.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
Sarojini Naidu led a women's delegation to London in 1919 to testify before the Joint Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, where she strongly advocated for the grant of female franchise in India. The book A Comparison Between Women and Men (Stri Purush Tulana) was published in 1882 by Tarabai Shinde, not Pandita Ramabai; it is recognized as a pioneering feminist text that challenged patriarchal norms and the social treatment of women. Additionally, Tarabai Shinde was primarily a social critic and writer known for her critique of gender inequality rather than a medical professional or a worker focused on rural child mortality. Consequently, only the third statement is historically accurate.
67History
The Sanikatta Salt Works, known for Salt Satyagraha, is located in :
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Answer: (D) Karnataka
Explanation
Sanikatta is located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka and is historically significant as the site of the oldest salt factory in the state, established in the 18th century. During the Salt Satyagraha of 1930, Sanikatta and nearby Ankola became the primary centers of the Civil Disobedience Movement in Karnataka. Protesters led by local leaders like M.P. Nadkarni marched to the Sanikatta salt pans to manufacture salt in defiance of the British salt tax. This movement earned the region the title of the Dandi of Karnataka, marking a crucial chapter in the Indian independence struggle within the state.
68History
The Kalaram temple, known for temple entry movements in the early twentieth century, is located in which state of India ?
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Answer: (A) Maharashtra
Explanation
The Kalaram Temple is situated in the Panchavati area of Nashik, Maharashtra. It is a significant site in the history of the Indian social reform movement, primarily due to the temple entry satyagraha organized there on March 2, 1930. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar led this non-violent protest to assert the rights of Dalits to enter Hindu temples and participate in religious life. Thousands of volunteers participated in the agitation, which lasted for several years and became a defining moment in the struggle against caste-based discrimination and untouchability. The temple, dedicated to Lord Rama, derives its name from the black statue of the deity housed within its sanctum, as kala translates to black in Marathi.
69History
Matangini Hazra and Lakshman Naik sacrificed their lives in :
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Answer: (D) Quit India Movement
Explanation
Matangini Hazra and Lakshman Naik were prominent martyrs of the Quit India Movement launched in August 1942. Matangini Hazra, a 73-year-old revolutionary from Tamluk, Bengal, led a large procession of volunteers to seize the local police station and court. She was shot dead by British forces while bravely holding the national flag and chanting Vande Mataram even after being hit by multiple bullets. Lakshman Naik was a tribal leader from the Koraput district of Odisha who mobilized the Bhuyan and local communities against colonial exploitation and the British Raj during the movement. Following a protest at the Maithili police station, he was arrested on trumped-up charges and was later executed by hanging in Berhampur Jail in March 1943. Both leaders represent the intense local-level resistance and supreme sacrifice that defined the Quit India struggle across different regions of India.
70History
With reference to the history of India, the word kopehi is associated with :
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Answer: (A) Clothes
Explanation
Kopehi (also spelled as Kapehi or Kapahi) refers to cotton cloth or textiles, particularly in the context of Assamese history and culture. The term is derived from the word kapas, which signifies the cotton plant or raw cotton. In the historical economic structure of the Ahom kingdom and medieval Northeast India, weaving was a universal household activity. While the region was renowned for its indigenous silks like Muga, Eri, and Pat, Kopehi was the primary material used for everyday garments and ritualistic items like the Gamusa. The production of Kopehi clothes involved the traditional processing of cotton fibers into yarn and weaving them on handlooms, reflecting the self-reliant textile traditions of the Indian subcontinent.
71Economy
Which one among the following pairs of type of firm and feature is not correctly matched ?
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Answer: (C) Monopoly firm : Produces an efficient level of output
Explanation
A monopoly firm does not produce an efficient level of output because it restricts production to maximize profits. In economic theory, allocative efficiency is achieved when the price of a good is equal to its marginal cost (P = MC), representing the socially optimum level of output where the marginal benefit to consumers equals the marginal cost of production. However, a monopolist faces a downward-sloping demand curve, which ensures that marginal revenue (MR) is always less than the price (P). The firm maximizes profit by producing at the quantity where MR = MC. Because P > MR at this equilibrium, it follows that P > MC at the profit-maximizing level of output. This gap indicates that the value consumers place on the last unit produced exceeds the cost of producing it, leading to underproduction and a deadweight loss to society. Thus, a monopoly is inherently inefficient compared to the social optimum.
72Economy
Union Budget 2025 increased the Sectoral cap of FDI to 100 per cent from 74 per cent for :
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Answer: (D) Insurance Sector
Explanation
In the Union Budget 2025-26, the government announced the liberalization of the insurance sector by increasing the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit to 100 per cent from the previous cap of 74 per cent. This policy shift is intended to attract large-scale global capital, enhance digital transformation, and improve insurance penetration across the country. By allowing full foreign ownership, the government aims to provide domestic insurers with easier access to long-term funds and international expertise, supporting the broader goal of achieving universal insurance coverage. This change necessitates amendments to the Insurance Act to facilitate the entry of global players and allow them to operate with greater autonomy in the Indian market.
73Economy
The practice of reducing the size of a product while maintaining its sticker price is called :
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Answer: (A) Shrinkflation
Explanation
Shrinkflation is a business strategy where companies reduce the quantity, volume, or weight of a product per unit while maintaining its original retail price. This process effectively increases the price per unit of measure, allowing manufacturers to manage rising input costs or maintain profit margins without alerting consumers with a visible price hike on the sticker. It is considered a form of hidden inflation because while the nominal price remains stable, the consumer's purchasing power decreases as they receive less of the commodity for the same expenditure.
74Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about innovation and research and development in India:
1. India's rank in Global Innovation Index reported by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has improved significantly between 2015 and 2024.
2. Funding of research and development is sourced primarily from private sector entities and is sectorally concentrated in pharmaceuticals and information technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
India has demonstrated a consistent and substantial rise in the Global Innovation Index (GII) published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). In 2015, India was ranked 81st globally, but by 2024, it reached the 39th position. This significant improvement is driven by strengths in information and communication technology services exports, venture capital receipt value, and a robust startup ecosystem.
Regarding Research and Development (R&D) expenditure, the funding landscape in India is characterized by a dominant public sector role. The central and state governments, along with public sector enterprises, contribute approximately 60 percent of the Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD). While the private sector plays a vital role, especially in the pharmaceutical, automotive, and information technology industries, its overall contribution to R&D funding stands at roughly 37 percent. Therefore, the government remains the primary source of research funding in the country, rather than private sector entities.
75Economy
Consider the following statements about the Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE):
1. The IIE was established in 1999 in Guwahati.
2. The main aim of the institute is to provide training, research and consulting activities for small and micro enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE) is an autonomous organization established in 1993 in Guwahati, Assam. It operates under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship with the core objective of promoting entrepreneurship development across the country. The institute is specifically tasked with providing training, conducting research, and offering consultancy services aimed at the growth and sustainability of small and micro-enterprises. By acting as a resource center and a catalyst for entrepreneurship, the IIE focuses on building the capacity of first-generation entrepreneurs and supporting the micro-business ecosystem, especially in the North Eastern Region of India.
76Economy
Consider the following statements about Union Government's Expenditure on revenue account and effective capital expenditure:
1. Effective capital expenditure as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020-21 to 2023-24.
2. Expenditure on revenue account as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020-21 to 2023-24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Union Government has pivoted toward capital-led growth in the post-pandemic period, resulting in a consistent increase in Effective Capital Expenditure as a percentage of GDP. This metric, which includes capital outlay and grants-in-aid for the creation of capital assets, grew from approximately 2.4% in the fiscal year 2020-21 to 3.3% in 2023-24 according to Revised Estimates. Simultaneously, Revenue Expenditure as a percentage of GDP has followed a downward trajectory. After peaking at roughly 15.4% in 2020-21 due to emergency pandemic relief and high subsidy requirements, it declined to approximately 11.6% in 2023-24 as the government transitioned toward fiscal consolidation and reduced the relative share of consumption-oriented spending.
77Economy
Which one among the following statements about the Districts as Export Hubs (DEH) in India is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The aim of DEH is to boost exports of only selected districts of the country.
Explanation
The Districts as Export Hubs initiative is a comprehensive national program designed to transform every district in India into an export powerhouse. It does not target only selected districts but rather seeks to identify and promote at least one unique product or service with export potential from each of the country's 700-plus districts. By establishing District Export Promotion Committees in every administrative unit, the government works to decentralize export promotion and integrate local producers, particularly MSMEs and farmers, into global value chains. This inclusive approach ensures that the export strategy covers the entire geographical extent of India rather than a restricted subset of regions.
78Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Tim Tim Tare (TTT) is/are correct?
1. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting essential life skills to adolescent students across India.
2. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting vocational and technical skills to students across India.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Tim Tim Tare (TTT) is a flagship life skills initiative developed by the Salaam Bombay Foundation specifically for adolescent students in government and municipal schools. The program focuses on empowering young people by imparting essential psychosocial competencies such as communication skills, critical thinking, decision-making, and self-awareness. By strengthening these soft skills, the initiative aims to build the resilience of adolescents, helping them resist peer pressure related to tobacco use and encouraging them to complete their secondary education.
While the broader efforts of the foundation include vocational training through separate verticals like Skills@School, the Tim Tim Tare module is strictly dedicated to life skills and leadership development. The program has gained recognition as a pioneering model in adolescent empowerment and has been implemented across multiple states in India through collaborations with state education departments.
79Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Annual Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report 2023 – 24 by the National Statistical Organization (NSO):
1. The agriculture sector remains dominant in employment, with its share rising from about 44 per cent in 2017-18 to about 46 per cent in 2023-24.
2. The share of female workers in agriculture has increased during the period 2017-18 to 2023-24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report for 2023-24 released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), the proportion of the workforce employed in the agriculture sector (under Usual Status) increased from 44.1 per cent in 2017-18 to 46.1 per cent in 2023-24. This indicates that agriculture remains the primary employer in India and has seen a relative increase in its share of total employment over this period.
Furthermore, the data shows a significant rise in the share of female workers engaged in agriculture. In 2017-18, the percentage of female workers in the agriculture sector was 57.1 per cent, which increased to 66.9 per cent in 2023-24. This trend highlights the increasing feminization of the agricultural workforce in India, driven largely by higher female labour force participation rates in rural areas compared to urban areas during this timeframe.
80Polity and Governance
Which one of the following platforms marks a transformative step in India's immunization efforts by digitizing vaccination records for pregnant women and children up to 16 years?
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Answer: (A) U-WIN
Explanation
The U-WIN platform is a centralized digital initiative launched by the Government of India to digitize the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). It functions as a comprehensive electronic registry that tracks the vaccination status of every pregnant woman and child in the country. The platform captures data starting from pregnancy registration through delivery outcomes and continues to record every immunization dose administered to children up to 16 years of age, including the Td booster doses given at ages 10 and 16. Developed on the technological foundation of the Co-WIN platform, U-WIN provides real-time updates, automated SMS alerts for upcoming doses, and downloadable digital vaccination certificates, thereby ensuring better monitoring and higher coverage of life-saving vaccines across all states and union territories.
81Science and Technology
Which language uses the symbolic representation of machine codes needed to program a particular processor or processor family?
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Answer: (B) Assembly Language
Explanation
Assembly language utilizes mnemonics and symbolic labels to represent the binary machine codes required to control a computer's central processing unit. Each assembly language is specific to a particular computer architecture, as it corresponds directly to the hardware's unique instruction set. Instead of writing programs in difficult-to-manage binary or hexadecimal strings, programmers use these human-readable symbols to represent operations, registers, and memory addresses. This symbolic representation allows for precise control over hardware resources while providing a manageable interface for developing low-level software like device drivers, bootloaders, and operating system kernels.
82Science and Technology
What are the uses of software ports?
1. Connect client computer to server
2. Connect external devices to computer
3. Identify different services like email, file transfer
4. Connecting peripherals like cameras, scanners
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
Software ports are logical endpoints within an operating system that facilitate network communications at the transport layer of the Internet Protocol Suite. Statement 1 is correct because software ports enable a client computer to establish a connection with a specific application or process on a server. While an IP address identifies a specific device on a network, the port number ensures that data reaches the correct destination program on that device. Statement 3 is correct because these ports are primarily used to identify and distinguish between different types of network services. Standardized port numbers, known as Well-Known Ports ranging from 0 to 1023, are assigned to specific services to ensure consistency across the internet. For example, Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for email uses port 25, while File Transfer Protocol (FTP) typically utilizes port 21. By using these numerical identifiers, a single computer can simultaneously handle multiple types of traffic, such as web browsing, email, and file sharing, without interference between the different data streams.
83Science and Technology
Assuming the computer is a 4-bit computer, what result is produced after subtraction of 3 from 5 using the 2's complement representation?
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Answer: (B) 10010
Explanation
In a 4-bit computer system, the subtraction of 3 from 5 (5 - 3) using 2's complement arithmetic is performed by adding the 2's complement of the subtrahend (3) to the minuend (5).
First, represent both numbers in 4-bit binary:
5 = 0101₂
3 = 0011₂
Next, find the 2's complement of 3 to represent -3. This is done by inverting the bits of 3 (1's complement) and adding 1:
1's complement of 0011 = 1100
2's complement = 1100 + 0001 = 1101
Finally, perform the binary addition of 5 and the 2's complement of 3:
0101 (5)
1101 (-3)
= 10010
In this operation, the result is 10010₂. The leftmost bit (1) is the carry-out from the most significant bit, while the remaining 4 bits (0010) represent the decimal value 2. Including the carry bit generated during the addition, the resulting binary string is 10010.
84Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a logical operator?
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Answer: (D) Division
Explanation
Division is an arithmetic operator utilized in mathematical computations to determine the quotient of two numeric values. It operates on quantitative data types such as integers or floating-point numbers to perform division, rather than evaluating truth conditions. In the context of computer science and Boolean logic, it is excluded from the category of logical operators because it does not participate in evaluating the truth or falsity of expressions or combining Boolean conditions.
85Science and Technology
Which among the following are the purposes of deploying a Firewall ?
1. Examine each packet arriving from Internet
2. Prevent unauthorised access
3. Block suspicious activity
4. Interconnect telephones
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
A firewall acts as a critical network security barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks like the Internet. It functions by examining each packet arriving from the Internet through a process called packet filtering, where it inspects the source, destination, and contents of data packets against a set of security rules. This process is essential to prevent unauthorised access by blocking traffic from malicious or unrecognized sources. Furthermore, modern firewalls utilize stateful inspection and intrusion prevention capabilities to monitor traffic patterns and block suspicious activity, such as hacking attempts, malware, or denial-of-service attacks, ensuring the overall security of the digital infrastructure.
86Geography
Amsterdam-St. Paul Plateau is located in which one of the following oceanic regions ?
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Answer: (C) Southern Indian Ocean
Explanation
The Amsterdam-St. Paul Plateau is a major submarine volcanic feature located in the Southern Indian Ocean. It is situated along the Southeast Indian Ridge, which is the mid-ocean ridge system that separates the Indo-Australian Plate from the Antarctic Plate. The formation of this plateau is attributed to the interaction between the Southeast Indian Ridge and the Amsterdam-St. Paul hotspot, a mantle plume that has produced extensive basaltic volcanism. This geological activity created a broad topographic high on the ocean floor, which supports the volcanic islands of Amsterdam and St. Paul, both of which are part of the French Southern and Antarctic Lands.
87Geography
Which one of the following pairs of City and Lake is not correctly matched ?
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Answer: (B) Detroit : Superior
Explanation
Detroit is situated on the Detroit River, which serves as a connecting strait between Lake St. Clair and Lake Erie. It is not located on Lake Superior, which is the northernmost and westernmost of the five Great Lakes. The city of Detroit is positioned within the Great Lakes Basin but lacks a direct coastline on Lake Superior, which instead borders cities such as Duluth, Minnesota, and Marquette, Michigan.
88Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to lines of latitudes is/are correct ?
1. The distance between two successive latitudes changes slightly from the equator to the poles.
2. If parallels of latitude are drawn at an interval of one degree, the total number of parallels thus drawn, including the equator, will be 179.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Earth is an oblate spheroid, flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator. Due to this shape, the curvature of the Earth surface is not uniform. The radius of curvature is greater at the poles than at the equator. Consequently, the linear distance corresponding to one degree of latitude increases slightly as one moves from the equator toward the poles. Specifically, the distance for 1° of latitude is approximately 110.6 km at the equator and increases to about 111.7 km at the poles.
Parallels of latitude are circles drawn around the Earth parallel to the equator. Since latitude is measured from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles, there are 89 circles in the Northern Hemisphere (from 1°N to 89°N) and 89 circles in the Southern Hemisphere (from 1°S to 89°S). While the North and South Poles are points at 90° latitude, they are not considered parallels or circles. Therefore, the total number of parallels, including the equator, is calculated as 89 + 89 + 1 = 179.
89Geography
Arrange the following major elements present in the Earth's crust, in ascending order, in weight percentage :
1. Aluminium
2. Calcium
3. Silicon
4. Oxygen
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Answer: (C) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation
The Earth's crust is composed of various chemical elements, with Oxygen being the most abundant element by weight at approximately 46.6 percent. Silicon follows as the second most abundant element, making up about 27.7 percent of the crust. Aluminium is the third most prevalent element and the most abundant metal, accounting for roughly 8.1 percent. Calcium is present in a much smaller proportion, representing about 3.6 percent of the crust's total weight. Arranging these elements in ascending order of their weight percentage results in the sequence Calcium (2), Aluminium (1), Silicon (3), and Oxygen (4).
90Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Island/Nation) List-II (Tectonic Plate)
A. Comoros 1. North American Plate
B. Baffin Island 2. African Plate
C. Sri Lanka 3. Eurasian Plate
D. Andaman Islands 4. Indo-Australian Plate
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Comoros is a volcanic archipelago located in the Mozambique Channel between Madagascar and Mozambique, situated on the African Plate. Baffin Island is the largest island in Canada and is a core component of the Arctic Archipelago, lying firmly on the North American Plate. Sri Lanka is geologically a part of the Indian subcontinent, which rests on the Indo-Australian Plate. The Andaman Islands are located in the Bay of Bengal at the edge of the Burma Microplate, where the Indian Plate subducts; this region is systematically associated with the Eurasian Plate boundary in general tectonic classifications.
91Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Richter scale is/are correct ?
1. It is the intensity scale of an earthquake.
2. Richter indicates the amount of energy released during the earthquake.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Richter scale is a base-10 logarithmic scale used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake, which is a quantitative measure of the seismic energy released at its source. Each whole number increase on the scale represents a ten-fold increase in measured amplitude and approximately a 31.6-fold increase in the release of energy. Conversely, intensity scales, such as the Modified Mercalli Scale, assess the qualitative effects and physical damage produced by an earthquake at specific locations on the surface. Therefore, the Richter scale specifically indicates magnitude and energy rather than intensity.
92Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Glacial trough is/are correct ?
1. Alpine glaciers strip valleys of their soil, regolith and sediment to form glacial troughs.
2. When the sea level is below the floor of a glacial trough, the seawater enters as the ice front recedes, creating a fiord.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Alpine glaciers transform pre-existing V-shaped river valleys into glacial troughs, also known as U-shaped valleys. As the glacier moves downslope under the influence of gravity, it performs intense erosional work through plucking and abrasion. This process effectively strips away the soil, regolith, and loose sediment while scouring the bedrock of the valley floor and sides, resulting in a widened, deepened, and straightened trough with steep walls and a broad base.
A fjord is formed only when a glacial trough is partially submerged by the sea. This occurs specifically when the glacier has eroded the valley floor to a depth well below current sea level. As the glacier retreats, the ocean is able to flow into the deep, steep-walled valley. If the sea level were below the floor of the glacial trough, the seawater would be unable to enter the valley, and a fjord would not be created; instead, the valley would remain a terrestrial landform or potentially host ribbon lakes.
93Geography
Consider the following statements with reference to Mid-latitude deciduous forests :
1. Mid-latitude deciduous forests consist largely of trees that drop their leaves during the summer season.
2. Mid-latitude deciduous forests are native to eastern North America and Western Europe.
3. In Asia, the Mid-latitude deciduous forests occur as a belt between the boreal forest to the north and steppe lands to the south.
4. Beech, Hickory and Walnut are common examples of trees found in Mid-latitude deciduous forests.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
PROPOSED: [D]
Mid-latitude deciduous forests, often referred to as temperate deciduous forests, are primarily located in regions with moderate rainfall and distinct seasonal temperature changes. They are native to Eastern North America and Western Europe, as well as North-East Asia. In the Asian continent, these forests form a significant vegetation belt that acts as a transition zone between the cold, coniferous boreal forests (taiga) to the north and the semi-arid steppe grasslands to the south.
The trees in these forests are characterized by broad leaves that are shed annually during the autumn to conserve water and survive the freezing temperatures of the winter months. Common tree species that define this biome include Beech, Hickory, and Walnut, alongside others such as Oak, Maple, Elm, and Chestnut. These hardwoods create a multilayered forest structure with a rich understory, thriving in the nutrient-dense soils formed by the decomposition of fallen leaves.
94Science and Technology
Arrange the following permanent gases present in the atmosphere in ascending order:
1. Helium
2. Hydrogen
3. Neon
4. Xenon
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Answer: (C) 2,4,1,3
Explanation
The permanent gases of the Earth's atmosphere maintain a nearly constant proportion by volume in the homosphere. Based on standard atmospheric composition for dry air, the concentrations of the specified gases are:
Neon (Ne): 0.001818% or approximately 18.18 ppm (parts per million)
Helium (He): 0.000524% or approximately 5.24 ppm
Hydrogen (H₂): 0.000055% or approximately 0.55 ppm
Xenon (Xe): 0.000009% or approximately 0.09 ppm
To arrange these gases in ascending order of their concentration (from the least abundant to the most abundant), the sequence is:
Using the codes provided in the question:
Xenon is 4, Hydrogen is 2, Helium is 1, and Neon is 3.
The correct ascending sequence is 4, 2, 1, 3.
95Geography
The pattern of planetary winds largely depends upon which of the following factors?
1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
2. The distribution of continents and oceans
3. The rotation of earth
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
The pattern of planetary winds is determined by the global pressure belts, which are primarily established by the latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating. The concentration of solar radiation at the equator creates a low-pressure zone, while the cooling at the poles creates high-pressure zones, setting the fundamental circulation in motion. The rotation of the Earth introduces the Coriolis force, which deflects these moving air masses to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, resulting in the distinct directions of the trade winds, westerlies, and polar easterlies. Additionally, the distribution of continents and oceans causes differential heating and cooling between land and water surfaces. This modifies the pressure belts and introduces seasonal variations, preventing the winds from following a purely latitudinal or idealized symmetric pattern. Together, these three factors dictate the intensity, direction, and seasonality of the global wind systems.
96Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Water Vapour in the atmosphere is/are correct?
1. It has a role to play in the stability and instability in the air.
2. It acts like a blanket allowing the earth to neither become too cold nor too hot.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Water vapour plays a critical role in atmospheric stability and instability through the release and absorption of latent heat. When moist air rises and cools, water vapour condenses into liquid droplets, releasing latent heat of condensation into the surrounding environment. This heat warms the air parcel, making it less dense and more buoyant than the surrounding air, which promotes further lifting and creates unstable atmospheric conditions leading to cloud formation and storms. Conversely, the absence of moisture generally leads to more stable conditions.
Additionally, water vapour acts as a powerful greenhouse gas and functions like a thermal blanket for the planet. It is transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation but absorbs a significant portion of the long-wave terrestrial radiation emitted by the Earth's surface. By trapping this heat and radiating it back toward the surface, it prevents the Earth from losing heat too rapidly into space, ensuring the planet does not become too cold at night or too hot during the day, thereby maintaining a habitable temperature range.
97Geography
Consider the following pairs with reference to world climate types and their characteristics:
(Climate) (Characteristic)
I. Tropical wet and dry : Winter dry season
II. Mid-latitude steppe : Mid-latitude semi-arid or dry
III. Humid sub-tropical : No dry season, warm summer
IV. Marine west coast : No dry season, severely cold summer
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) 3
Explanation
Tropical wet and dry climate, also known as the Savanna climate (Aw), is characterized by a distinct dry season during the low-sun period or winter, which occurs when the region is under the influence of the subtropical high-pressure belt as the ITCZ moves toward the opposite hemisphere. Mid-latitude steppe climate (BSk) represents the semi-arid zones of the mid-latitudes, typically located in the rain-shadow areas or deep continental interiors where moisture is limited, distinguishing it from more humid mid-latitude types. Humid sub-tropical climate (Cfa) is found on the eastern margins of continents between roughly 25 and 40 degrees latitude, where moist maritime air masses provide consistent rainfall throughout the year, resulting in no dry season and warm, humid summers. Marine west coast climates (Cfb) are characterized by year-round precipitation and mild summers due to the moderating influence of the ocean, making the description of severely cold summers inaccurate for this classification.
98Geography
Identify the climate type based on the given below characteristics:
1. The annual precipitation is low and is around 15cm .
2. The development of pronounced winter anticyclones and their weakening in summer sets in monsoon-like reversal of wind in this region.
3. Polewards, summer temperatures are low.
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Answer: (C) Cold climate with dry winters
Explanation
The cold climate with dry winters (Dw) is primarily found in northeastern Asia, particularly in the interior regions of Siberia. This climate is characterized by the formation of the Siberian High, a massive and pronounced cold-core anticyclone that persists throughout the winter. The presence of this high-pressure system prevents the entry of maritime air masses, resulting in very low annual precipitation, often around 15 cm in the most continental areas. In the summer, the intense heating of the vast Asian landmass causes the winter anticyclone to weaken and disappear, replaced by a thermal low-pressure system. This transition creates a monsoon-like reversal of winds, allowing moist air from the surrounding oceans to penetrate inland. As the latitude increases toward the pole, the duration and intensity of the short summer decrease, leading to consistently low summer temperatures.
99Economy
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cotton textile industry in India:
1. Cotton textile industry has, over time, spread to other parts of the country, beyond Gujarat and Maharashtra.
2. Raw cotton is not a weight-losing raw material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The cotton textile industry, initially concentrated in the Mumbai-Ahmedabad region due to the presence of black cotton soil and humid climate, has significantly dispersed across India. The expansion was driven by the development of the railway network, the availability of hydroelectric power, and the emergence of new market centers. Major hubs now include Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu, Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh, and Kolkata in West Bengal.
Raw cotton is classified as a pure raw material because it does not lose weight during the manufacturing process. The weight of the final yarn or fabric is nearly identical to the weight of the raw cotton consumed. Unlike weight-losing industries like sugar or iron and steel, which are localized near raw material sources, the cotton textile industry is relatively footloose and can be established near consumption centers or regions with favorable labor and transport infrastructure.
100Geography
Indore city in Madhya Pradesh is situated in which one of the following regions?
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Answer: (C) Malwa Plateau
Explanation
Indore is located in the western part of Madhya Pradesh on the Malwa Plateau, which is a volcanic upland region characterized by fertile black cotton soil and a rolling landscape. Positioned at an average elevation of approximately 553 meters above sea level, the city lies on the southern edge of this plateau. The region is bounded by the Vindhya Range to the south and serves as a major commercial and administrative center within this specific physiographic division of central India.
101Geography
Which among the following Classes of Towns in India holds the highest percentage of Urban Population as per the Census 2011?
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Answer: (A) Class II
Explanation
According to the Census of India 2011, urban settlements are categorized into six classes based on their population size. Class II towns, which include urban areas with a population ranging between 50,000 and 99,999, account for approximately 13.26 percent of the total urban population. This percentage is the highest among the specific options provided. In comparison, Class III towns (20,000 to 49,999) hold about 9.47 percent, Class IV towns (10,000 to 19,999) hold 4.81 percent, and Class VI towns (less than 5,000) hold only 0.41 percent of the urban population. While Class I cities (population of 100,000 and above) dominate the overall urban landscape with over 70 percent of the population, Class II remains the most significant demographic category among the lower-tier classifications.
102Economy
The Golden Quadrilateral Highway does not pass through which of the following cities?
1. Bhubaneshwar
2. Jaipur
3. Lucknow
4. Indore
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Answer: (D) 3 and 4
Explanation
Lucknow and Indore are not part of the Golden Quadrilateral highway network. Lucknow is situated on the East-West Corridor connecting Silchar to Porbandar via National Highway 27. The Golden Quadrilateral route in Uttar Pradesh passes further south through Kanpur, Prayagraj, and Varanasi. Indore is located along the North-South Corridor axis, historically part of National Highway 3 connecting Agra and Mumbai. The Delhi-Mumbai arm of the Golden Quadrilateral follows a more westerly path through Rajasthan and Gujarat, passing through cities like Jaipur and Ahmedabad, thus bypassing Indore.
103Geography
Consider the following statements with reference to location of Major Ports in India :
1. Deendayal Port is situated at the head of Gulf of Khambhat.
2. Cochin Port is situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.
3. Mormugao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary.
4. Paradip Port is situated in the Godavari delta.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Cochin Port is a major natural harbor situated on Willingdon Island within the Vembanad Kayal in Kerala. It is strategically positioned at the opening where the backwaters connect with the Arabian Sea, making it a critical hub for maritime trade. Mormugao Port is a premier iron ore exporting port located in Goa on the southern bank of the Zuari River estuary. It is situated at the entrance of the estuary where the river meets the sea, providing a deep-water natural harbor that is well-protected from the open sea.
104Geography
Which one among the following is not an atmospheric natural disaster?
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Answer: (D) Avalanche
Explanation
Avalanches are categorized as terrestrial or geomorphological disasters. They involve the sudden and rapid movement of snow, ice, and debris down a mountain slope under the direct influence of gravity. The occurrence of an avalanche is determined by the physical characteristics of the terrain and the mechanical stability of the snowpack on the ground. As a mass movement phenomenon, it is physically tied to the earth's surface and topography. Its classification aligns it with other geomorphic hazards like landslides and mudflows, as the primary mechanism of the disaster is a land-based displacement of material.
105Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with reference to National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is/are correct?
1. It was constituted in the year 2006.
2. Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Institute has been entrusted to assist in national level policy formulation with reference to Disaster Management.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) was constituted under the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. While the legislative framework was established in late 2005, the institute was formally constituted in its current statutory capacity in October 2006. Under Section 42(9)(c) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, NIDM is specifically mandated to provide assistance in national level policy formulation concerning disaster management. The institute serves as a premier organization for capacity building, human resource development, and training. It works closely with the National Disaster Management Authority and other stakeholders to develop disaster management frameworks, conduct research, and document best practices to enhance the country's resilience to natural and man-made disasters.
106Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about 'Nilgiri', 'Surat' and 'Vaghsheer' is correct?
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Answer: (B) These are combatants commissioned by the Indian Navy.
Explanation
Nilgiri is the lead ship of the Project 17A class of stealth guided-missile frigates, which are advanced surface combatants designed with low radar signatures and indigenous weapon systems. Surat is the fourth and final vessel of the Project 15B Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided-missile destroyers, capable of performing multi-mission tasks including anti-aircraft and anti-submarine warfare. Vaghsheer is the sixth and final Kalvari-class diesel-electric attack submarine built under Project 75 at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited, modeled after the Scorpene-class design to provide advanced stealth and underwater strike capabilities. These vessels are critical components of the Indian Navy's modernization drive and its transition toward becoming a more capable blue-water force through indigenous shipbuilding.
107Economy
Which of the following surveys are being conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India?
1. Survey on Social Consumption - Health
2. Comprehensive Modular Survey - Telecom and ICT skills
3. Periodic Labour Force Survey
4. Annual Survey on Unincorporated Enterprises
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), through the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), conducts a wide range of socio-economic surveys to provide data for policy formulation and monitoring. The Survey on Social Consumption related to Health is a periodic thematic survey used to estimate the utilization of health services and out-of-pocket medical expenditures. The Comprehensive Modular Survey is a newer framework introduced by the NSSO to provide high-frequency data on varied subjects, including Information and Communication Technology (ICT) skills and telecommunications usage, to track progress on Sustainable Development Goal indicators. The Periodic Labour Force Survey was initiated by MoSPI in 2017 to provide regular estimates of employment and unemployment metrics in both rural and urban sectors. Additionally, the Annual Survey on Unincorporated Enterprises is a dedicated exercise to collect economic and operational data from the unincorporated non-agricultural sector, which is essential for national accounting and understanding the informal economy.
108Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Government of India has discontinued the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
2. The Government of India has approved the continuation of Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Government of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) and the Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (RWBCIS) in 2016 to provide comprehensive insurance cover against crop failure. Both schemes were approved for continuation during the 15th Finance Commission cycle, covering the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26. While PMFBY remains the flagship scheme for yield-based insurance, the RWBCIS continues to operate as a weather-index-based tool that uses parameters like rainfall, temperature, and humidity to provide financial support to farmers against anticipated crop losses due to adverse weather conditions. PMFBY was revamped in 2020 but remains active and voluntary for all farmers.
109Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Organization) List-II (Year of Formation)
A. European Union 1. 1994
B. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 2. 1967
C. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) 3. 1989
D. Free Trade Area of the Americas (FTAA) 4. 1993
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The European Union was formally established when the Maastricht Treaty came into effect on November 1, 1993, transitioning the European Community into a more integrated political and economic union. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation was formed in November 1989 as an informal ministerial-level dialogue group to promote free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations was established on August 8, 1967, with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration by five founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. The Free Trade Area of the Americas was a proposed trade agreement that originated during the first Summit of the Americas held in Miami in December 1994, intended to integrate the economies of the Western Hemisphere.
110History
The book 'The Art of War' was written by:
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Answer: (A) Niccolo Machiavelli
Explanation
Niccolo Machiavelli authored the military treatise titled Dell'arte della guerra, translated as The Art of War, which was published in 1521. This work is distinct from the ancient Chinese text by Sun Tzu and stands as the only major political or historical work Machiavelli published during his own lifetime. Structured as a Socratic dialogue set in the Orti Oricellari gardens in Florence, the book discusses the relationship between military organization and political stability. Machiavelli argues for the necessity of a national citizen militia to replace the unreliable mercenary systems prevalent in the Italian city-states of his era. He outlines technical aspects of warfare, including recruitment, training, and tactical formations, while integrating his core belief that military readiness is essential for the survival and liberty of a republic.
111Science and Technology
Which one of the following military operations was not undertaken by India?
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Answer: (B) Operation Spider's Web
Explanation
Operation Spider's Web was a military offensive launched by the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) in July 1995 against the Sri Lankan military forces. The operation targeted the strategic Palali airbase and the Kankesanthurai naval base in the Jaffna Peninsula during the third phase of the Sri Lankan Civil War. This offensive was an insurgent campaign aimed at disrupting the logistics and aerial capabilities of the Sri Lankan government. It was not an official military operation planned, authorized, or executed by the Indian Army, Navy, or Air Force.
112Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct about 'Arnala', an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft?
1. It is indigenously designed in India.
2. It is named after the historic Arnala fort located in Maharashtra.
3. It has been built under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) of GRSE with M/s L&T Shipyard.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Arnala is the first ship of the eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) project launched in December 2022 for the Indian Navy. The vessel is indigenously designed by the Warship Design Bureau of the Indian Navy, fulfilling the requirements of the Make in India initiative with over 80 percent indigenous content. It is named after the historic Arnala fort located on an island off the coast of Vasai, Maharashtra, which was a strategic maritime stronghold for the Maratha Empire under Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. The ship was built through a collaborative arrangement between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), a public sector undertaking, and M/s L&T Shipyard at Kattupalli, Chennai. Under this partnership, GRSE utilized the private shipyard's infrastructure to execute the construction and launch of the vessel, showcasing an effective Public-Private Partnership model in defense manufacturing.
113History
Robert Prevost became the Catholic Pope after the death of Pope Francis. Which of the following statements is/are correct about him?
1. He will now be known as Leo XV.
2. He became the 271st Catholic Pope.
3. He is a dual citizen of the United States of America and Peru.
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Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
Cardinal Robert Francis Prevost is a dual citizen of the United States of America and Peru. Born in Chicago, Illinois, in 1955, he joined the Order of Saint Augustine and spent more than twenty years in South America. During his extensive service in the country, which included serving as the Bishop of Chiclayo from 2004 to 2020, he acquired Peruvian citizenship while maintaining his original American citizenship. His status as a dual citizen and his cross-cultural experience were significant aspects of his profile when he was appointed to high-ranking positions in the Roman Curia, such as the Prefect of the Dicastery for Bishops.
114Geography
Which of the statements about the dams on the Chenab river is/are correct?
1. Salal dam, Aalal dam and Baglihar dams are on the Chenab river.
2. Baglihar dam has a greater height than Salal dam.
3. Salal dam is operated by Jammu and Kashmir Power Development Corporation and Baglihar dam is operated by NHPC Limited.
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Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project, located in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir, features a concrete gravity dam with a height of approximately 143 meters. In contrast, the Salal Hydroelectric Power Project in the Reasi district is a rockfill and concrete structure with a height of about 113 meters, making Baglihar significantly taller than Salal.
Regarding the management of these facilities, the Salal project is owned and operated by NHPC Limited, which is a Central Public Sector Undertaking. The Baglihar project is owned and operated by the Jammu and Kashmir State Power Development Corporation (JKSPDC), which is a state-level entity. Furthermore, while Salal and Baglihar are prominent dams on the Chenab river, there is no major project named Aalal dam on this river. Therefore, only the second statement is factually accurate.
115History
Which of the following statements about 'Alcatraz', which was recently in news, is/are correct?
1. It was once a defence fort on Alcatraz island of America.
2. It was once a prison on Alcatraz island of America.
3. It was once occupied by a group of native American students, known as 'Indians of all tribes'.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Alcatraz Island in San Francisco Bay served as a critical coastal defense fort starting in the 1850s, equipped with heavy artillery to guard the California coast. Its role later shifted to a military prison and subsequently a notorious federal penitentiary that operated until 1963. The island is also significant in the history of civil rights due to the Occupation of Alcatraz, which began in 1969. A collective of Native American activists and students, calling themselves the Indians of All Tribes, occupied the island for over nineteen months to demand the deed to the land and protest the United States government's termination policy toward tribal sovereignty. This occupation remains a foundational event in modern Native American political activism.
116Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about India's military arsenal is/are correct?
1. HAMMER is a weapon system built for the Rafale fighter aircraft.
2. SCALP cruise missile is also known as Storm Shadow.
3. BrahMos missiles are built under a joint venture between India and Russia.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The HAMMER (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) is a French-made air-to-ground modular weapon system developed by Safran Electronics and Defense. It consists of a guidance kit and a range extension kit fitted to standard bombs, and it was specifically integrated into the Rafale fighter jets to provide precision strike capabilities. The SCALP (Système de Croisière Autonome à Longue Portée) is a long-range, air-launched, deep-strike cruise missile developed by MBDA. It is identical to the British weapon known as Storm Shadow, with SCALP being the designation used by the French military. The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile system produced by BrahMos Aerospace, which is a joint venture established through an inter-governmental agreement between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. The missile is named after the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers, reflecting its binational origin.
117Science and Technology
Recently, ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has developed the world's first genome-edited rice varieties. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the developed products?
1. The genome-edited varieties - DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1 have been developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi.
2. DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), based on Samba Mahsuri, has a shorter duration of maturity.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) was developed by the ICAR-Indian Institute of Rice Research (IIRR), Hyderabad, rather than ICAR-IARI, New Delhi. While Pusa DST Rice 1 was indeed developed by ICAR-IARI, the attribution of both varieties to the New Delhi institute makes the first statement incorrect. DRR Rice 100 is the first genome-edited version of the widely cultivated mega-variety Samba Mahsuri. It was developed using CRISPR/Cas9 technology to target specific genes that regulate maturity. As a result, Kamla matures approximately 25 to 30 days earlier than the original Samba Mahsuri variety, which typically takes 135 to 140 days. This shorter duration helps in saving irrigation water and allows farmers to better manage their cropping sequences without sacrificing the superior grain quality and yield potential for which Samba Mahsuri is known.
118Economy
Which one of the following is a good statistic to evaluate where an economy stands in the financial cycle?
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Answer: (D) Credit/GDP Ratio
Explanation
The financial cycle refers to the fluctuations in credit expansion and asset prices that reflect the buildup and release of financial risks. The Credit/GDP Ratio is the most recognized statistic for evaluating an economy's position in this cycle as it quantifies the level of private sector indebtedness relative to the size of the economy. A high or rapidly increasing Credit/GDP Ratio indicates a period of financial deepening or excessive leverage, often characterizing the peak or expansionary phase of the financial cycle. This metric is used globally in macroprudential regulation to identify systemic imbalances and is the primary indicator for setting Countercyclical Capital Buffers (CCyB). By tracking how credit growth deviates from its long-term trend, the ratio helps policymakers anticipate financial instability and understand the sustainability of credit-driven growth.
119Economy
Which of the following pairs of initiatives of the Government of India and their objectives is/are correctly matched?
1. Global Capability Centre (GCC): Reshaping corporate landscape
2. U-WIN Portal : Ease of doing business across states
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Global Capability Centres (GCCs) have evolved from providing low-cost back-office support to becoming strategic hubs for high-value innovation, digital engineering, and global leadership. By 2024-25, India emerged as a global leader in this sector, hosting over 1,600 centers that employ millions of skilled professionals. These centers contribute significantly to India's service exports and are fundamentally reshaping the corporate landscape by moving the country up the value chain in the global digital economy.
The U-WIN portal is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare designed to digitize India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). It functions similarly to the Co-WIN platform by maintaining a digital registry of vaccinations for all pregnant women and children, tracking immunization schedules, and providing digital vaccination certificates. It is a healthcare infrastructure project and is not related to the ease of doing business across states, which is typically managed through the Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) or the National Single Window System.
120Polity and Governance
Social Mobilisation and Institution Development (SM&ID) is one of the major components of:
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Answer: (A) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana
Explanation
Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM), administered by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, aims to reduce the poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households. Social Mobilisation and Institution Development (SM&ID) is a core component of this mission, designed to organize the urban poor into their own institutions for sustainable livelihoods. Under this component, the mission focuses on the formation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and their upward federations, namely Area Level Federations (ALFs) and City Level Federations (CLFs). It provides financial support through revolving funds to these groups and emphasizes capacity building to empower members to access credit, social security, and various other entitlements effectively.