Answer: (A) a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group
Explanation
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is composed of repeating units called nucleotides that link together to form a polynucleotide chain. Each individual nucleotide consists of three essential components: a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate group. The deoxyribose sugar is a five-carbon pentose sugar that lacks an oxygen atom at the 2' position, distinguishing it from the ribose sugar found in RNA. The phosphate group provides the acidic character to the DNA and forms the sugar-phosphate backbone through phosphodiester linkages. The nitrogenous bases, which include the purines adenine and guanine and the pyrimidines cytosine and thymine, carry the genetic information and are covalently bonded to the 1' carbon of the deoxyribose sugar molecule.
2Science and Technology
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
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Answer: (B) transcription
Explanation
Transcription is the fundamental biological process where the genetic information stored in a segment of DNA is copied into a complementary strand of RNA. This process is catalyzed by the enzyme RNA polymerase, which attaches to the DNA at a specific sequence called the promoter. The enzyme then unwinds the DNA double helix and uses one of the strands, known as the template strand, to assemble a sequence of RNA nucleotides. According to the rules of complementary base pairing, adenine in the DNA template pairs with uracil in the nascent RNA, while cytosine pairs with guanine. This resulting RNA molecule, such as messenger RNA (mRNA), serves as a mobile copy of the genetic instructions that can then be used by the cell to direct the synthesis of proteins.
3Science and Technology
AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through
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Answer: (B) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
Explanation
The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is primarily transmitted through the exchange of specific bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products is a highly efficient route of transmission because it introduces the virus directly into the recipient's circulatory system. In a clinical or emergency setting, if blood is not properly screened for pathogens, the high concentration of viral particles in an infected donor's blood can lead to a near-certain infection of the recipient. Other common transmission routes include unprotected sexual intercourse, the sharing of needles or syringes among intravenous drug users, and mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
4Science and Technology
In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells
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Answer: (A) there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors
Explanation
In the human body, normal cell growth and differentiation are governed by strict regulatory mechanisms, including contact inhibition, where cells stop dividing upon coming into contact with other cells. Cancer cells represent a failure of these systems. Mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes lead to the breakdown of regulatory checkpoints and the loss of contact inhibition. Consequently, these cells undergo continuous and uncontrolled division regardless of the body's requirements. This proliferation results in the formation of a mass of cells called a tumor. These tumors are classified as benign when they remain confined to their original location or malignant when they invade neighboring tissues and potentially spread to distant parts of the body through the circulatory or lymphatic systems, a process known as metastasis.
5Science and Technology
Most viruses that infect plants possess
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Answer: (B) single-stranded RNA
Explanation
The vast majority of plant viruses, estimated at approximately 90 percent of all known species, utilize single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) as their genetic material. Most of these are positive-sense RNA viruses, which allow the viral genome to act directly as messenger RNA (mRNA) once it enters the host cell, facilitating immediate translation into viral proteins by the plant's ribosomes. A classic example of such a virus is the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV), which was the first virus ever discovered. This prevalence of single-stranded RNA distinguishes plant viral populations from those infecting animals or bacteria, where double-stranded DNA genomes are more frequent.
6Science and Technology
Syngamy results in formation of
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Answer: (B) diploid zygote
Explanation
Syngamy, also known as fertilization, is the process involving the complete and permanent fusion of two haploid gametes. Each gamete contains a single set of chromosomes (n). When the male gamete and the female gamete fuse during this process, their nuclei combine to form a single cell. This resulting cell contains two sets of chromosomes (2n), restoring the chromosome number typical for the species, and is known as a diploid zygote. The zygote represents the first cell of a new generation in sexually reproducing organisms.
7Science and Technology
Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occur due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins?
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Answer: (A) Vitamin C
Explanation
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a critical cofactor for the enzymes prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase, which are essential for the stabilization and cross-linking of collagen fibers. Collagen is the primary structural protein found in connective tissues, including the skin, blood vessels, bones, and the periodontal ligaments that hold teeth in place. When Vitamin C is deficient, the body cannot synthesize functional collagen, leading to a condition known as scurvy. This results in the weakening of blood vessel walls, which causes bleeding gums and easy bruising. It also leads to the degradation of the tissues supporting the teeth, causing them to loosen and fall out. Furthermore, impaired collagen synthesis affects the organic matrix of bones, making them fragile, and prevents the effective formation of new tissue required for repair, thereby resulting in delayed wound healing.
8Science and Technology
When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then
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Answer: (C) the doped silicon piece will become p-type
Explanation
Silicon belongs to Group 14 of the periodic table and possesses four valence electrons. Aluminium is a Group 13 element and possesses three valence electrons. When a trivalent impurity like aluminium is added to a pure silicon crystal, the aluminium atoms substitute for silicon atoms in the crystal lattice. Since aluminium has only three valence electrons, it can form covalent bonds with only three neighboring silicon atoms, leaving a vacancy or a hole in the bond with the fourth neighboring silicon atom. This hole effectively acts as a positive charge carrier that can move through the lattice when an electric field is applied. Because the conductivity is primarily due to these positive charge carriers, the resulting material is classified as a p-type semiconductor.
9Science and Technology
Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R. The power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now the same voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power dissipated in the second case will be
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Answer: (B) 3P
Explanation
The power P dissipated in a resistor of resistance R when a voltage V is applied across it is given by the formula P = V²/R. When three identical resistors, each of resistance R, are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance Rₑᵦ of the combination is found using the parallel resistance formula:
1/Rₑᵦ = 1/R + 1/R + 1/R = 3/R
Solving for Rₑᵦ gives Rₑᵦ = R/3. When the same voltage V is applied across this parallel combination, the new power dissipated P' is calculated as:
P' = V²/Rₑᵦ = V²/(R/3)
Simplifying the expression leads to:
P' = 3 × V²/R
Since the initial power P is equal to V²/R, the power dissipated in the second case is 3P. This demonstrates that for a constant voltage, reducing the total resistance of the circuit by adding resistors in parallel increases the total power dissipation proportionately.
10Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a semiconductor?
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Answer: (C) Quartz
Explanation
Quartz is a crystalline form of silicon dioxide (SiO₂) and is classified as an insulator rather than a semiconductor. It possesses a very wide electronic band gap, typically measuring around 9 eV. In such materials, the energy required to excite an electron from the valence band to the conduction band is significantly higher than what is available through thermal excitation at room temperature. Consequently, quartz lacks the free charge carriers necessary for electrical conduction, resulting in extremely high resistivity. While it is widely used in electronics for its piezoelectric properties and as a frequency stabilizer, its fundamental electronic structure prevents it from behaving as a semiconductor.
11Science and Technology
A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates, has capacitance C. Now the space between the two plates of the capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become
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Answer: (C) 7C
Explanation
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is determined by the formula C = ε₀A/d, where ε₀ represents the permittivity of free space, A is the surface area of the plates, and d is the separation distance between them. When a dielectric material with a dielectric constant K is inserted to fill the entire space between the plates, the capacitance increases by a factor of K. The new capacitance is calculated as C' = Kε₀A/d, which simplifies to C' = K × C. Since the given dielectric constant is 7, the value of the capacitance becomes 7C.
12Science and Technology
For which one of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body?
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Answer: (C) A ring
Explanation
The center of mass is the point at which the entire mass of a body may be considered to be concentrated for the purpose of describing its translational motion. For a uniform ring, the mass is distributed symmetrically along its circular circumference. By applying the principle of symmetry, the center of mass must be located at the geometric center of the circle. Since the ring is a hollow structure with its material existing only on the perimeter, this geometric center is situated in the empty space at the middle, meaning the center of mass resides outside the physical material of the body.
13Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a physical change?
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Answer: (C) Heating of a platinum crucible
Explanation
Heating a platinum crucible is classified as a physical change because the process does not alter the chemical identity of the substance. Platinum is a noble metal with an extremely high melting point and exceptional resistance to chemical reactions, including oxidation, even at elevated temperatures. When the crucible is heated, it undergoes thermal expansion and may exhibit incandescence, glowing due to the high temperature. However, the elemental composition remains Pt throughout the process. Once the heat source is removed and the crucible cools, it returns to its original state without the formation of any new chemical products, satisfying the criteria for a reversible physical transformation.
14Science and Technology
The pH value of a sample of multiple-distilled water is
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Answer: (D) very near to seven
Explanation
The acidity or basicity of a solution is determined by its pH value, where a value of 7 indicates a neutral substance. Pure water is neutral because it undergoes auto-ionization where the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) equals the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH⁻). At a standard temperature of 25°C, the ion product of water Kᵥᵥ = [H⁺][OH⁻] = 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁴. In this state, [H⁺] = 10⁻⁷ mol/L. Using the formula pH = -log[H⁺], the calculation -log(10⁻⁷) results in a value of 7. Multiple distillation is a purification process that removes dissolved minerals and gases, bringing the sample as close as possible to the state of pure water. Although contact with air may allow for minimal absorption of carbon dioxide to form trace amounts of carbonic acid, the resulting shift in ion concentration is small enough that the value remains very near to seven.
15Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the most characteristic property of an element?
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Answer: (D) Atomic number
Explanation
The atomic number, denoted by Z, represents the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom. It is the most fundamental property of an element because it defines its identity and determines its position in the modern periodic table. According to the Modern Periodic Law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers. While other properties like density or boiling point can change based on temperature and pressure, and the mass number can vary among different isotopes of the same element, the atomic number remains unique and constant for every atom of a specific element. Henry Moseley's work with X-ray spectra confirmed that the atomic number is the physical basis for the sequence of elements, making it the most characteristic property for classification and identification.
16Science and Technology
There are two elements—calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as
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Answer: (C) isobars
Explanation
Isobars are atoms of different chemical elements that have the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z). The mass number represents the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in the nucleus. In this specific case, Calcium has an atomic number Z = 20 and Argon has an atomic number Z = 18, identifying them as different elements. Since both atoms are stated to have a mass number of A = 40, they satisfy the condition for being isobars. While they possess the same total nucleon count, their chemical properties differ significantly due to the difference in their atomic numbers and electron configurations.
17Science and Technology
'Plum Pudding Model' for an atom was proposed by
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Answer: (D) J. J. Thomson
Explanation
Following his discovery of the electron in 1897, J. J. Thomson proposed the plum pudding model of the atom in 1904. In this model, the atom is envisioned as a sphere of uniform positive charge with negatively charged electrons embedded within it, similar to raisins in a plum pudding or seeds in a watermelon. This configuration was designed to explain the electrical neutrality of the atom, as the total negative charge of the embedded electrons balances the total positive charge of the surrounding sphere. This model was significant because it was the first to propose that atoms have internal structures composed of subatomic particles.
18Science and Technology
What is the number of atoms in 46 g of sodium-23 (N = Avogadro constant)?
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Answer: (C) 2N
Explanation
The number of moles n of a substance is determined by the formula n = m/M, where m is the given mass and M is the molar mass of the element. For sodium-23, the molar mass is approximately 23 g/mol. Given the mass of the sample is 46 g, the number of moles is calculated as n = 46 g / 23 g/mol = 2 moles.
According to the definition of the Avogadro constant N, one mole of any substance contains exactly N constituent particles (atoms in this case). Therefore, the total number of atoms in 2 moles of sodium is 2 × N = 2N.
19Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct? For the purpose of Census 2011
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Answer: (A) a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
Explanation
The Census of India 2011 defines literacy based on specific age and functional criteria. A person aged seven years and above who possesses the ability to both read and write with understanding in any language is classified as a literate individual. This standard has been consistently applied by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner since the 1991 Census. It is important to note that formal education or the attainment of any minimum educational qualification is not required for a person to be categorized as literate. Conversely, individuals who can only read but cannot write, or those below the age of seven years, are categorized as illiterate for the purpose of the census, regardless of their schooling status or their ability to recognize letters or sign their names. The seven-year age threshold is used because cognitive development sufficient for reading and writing with comprehension is generally expected by this stage.
20Geography
In which one of the following States is Lokatak Lake situated?
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Answer: (C) Manipur
Explanation
Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is located in the state of Manipur. It is internationally famous for its unique ecosystem consisting of phumdis, which are floating islands made of soil, vegetation, and organic matter at various stages of decomposition. The lake houses the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is the only floating national park in the world and the primary habitat for the endangered Sangai deer, also known as the Manipur brow-antlered deer. Recognized for its ecological significance, Loktak Lake was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990.
21Economy
The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is called
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Answer: (A) cropping intensity
Explanation
Cropping intensity is a measure of the efficiency of land use and represents the extent to which the net sown area is cropped or resown in a given agricultural year. It is mathematically expressed as:
Gross cropped area includes the total area sown once as well as more than once in a particular year, while net sown area represents the physical extent of land on which crops are sown at least once. A higher ratio indicates that a larger portion of the land is being used for multiple cropping cycles within a single year, reflecting higher land utilization and better access to agricultural inputs like irrigation and fertilizers.
22Geography
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)?
The shortest road route from Chennai to Kolkata primarily follows National Highway 16 (formerly NH 5), moving northward along the eastern coast of India. Starting from Chennai, the traveler first crosses the Penneru River near Nellore in Andhra Pradesh. Continuing north, the route crosses the Krishna River at Vijayawada and then the Godavari River at Rajahmundry. As the journey proceeds into Odisha, the road crosses the Mahanadi River at Cuttack. Finally, before entering West Bengal, the route crosses the Subarnarekha River near the border of Odisha and West Bengal, eventually leading to Kolkata. This sequence accurately reflects the geographical distribution of these major river basins from south to north along the Coromandel and Utkal coasts.
23Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern.
Explanation
A volcanic cone is a classic example of a landform that develops a radial drainage pattern. In this system, streams originate from a central high point, such as the summit or the crater of the volcano, and flow outward in all directions like the spokes of a wheel. This pattern is a direct result of the symmetrical, sloping topography of the cone, which directs rainwater and meltwater away from the peak. Because the streams diverge from a single central elevated area, the drainage is inherently radial, making the claim that it is not a radial pattern geographically incorrect.
24Science and Technology
Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by
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Answer: (B) sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet
Explanation
Kwashiorkor is a specific form of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) that occurs when a child's diet contains sufficient total calories from carbohydrates and fats but lacks the essential protein required for growth and tissue maintenance. It is most common in infants and young children who are transitioned from protein-rich breast milk to a diet consisting primarily of high-carbohydrate staples like maize, rice, or yams. The critical lack of dietary protein leads to a reduction in plasma proteins, particularly albumin, which maintains osmotic pressure in the circulatory system. When albumin levels drop, fluid leaks into the interstitial spaces, causing the characteristic pitting edema and a swollen or pot-bellied appearance. This nutritional imbalance distinguishes Kwashiorkor from marasmus, which involves a deficiency in both proteins and total caloric intake.
25Science and Technology
The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by nerves. The heartbeat originates from
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Answer: (A) sinoatrial node
Explanation
The heartbeat in mammals originates from the sinoatrial node (SA node), which is a specialized cluster of cardiac muscle fibers located in the upper wall of the right atrium. Because the mammalian heart is myogenic, the electrical impulse required for contraction is generated spontaneously within the heart tissue itself rather than by external nerve signals. The SA node functions as the natural pacemaker because it possesses the highest rate of rhythmic automaticity, meaning it depolarizes faster than any other part of the conduction system. Once the SA node generates an action potential, the impulse spreads across the atrial walls and toward the rest of the heart, initiating the coordinated sequence of the cardiac cycle.
26Science and Technology
The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition. They are
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Answer: (B) indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpenes
Explanation
Plant growth regulators (PGRs), also known as phytohormones, are small molecules with diverse chemical structures categorized based on their chemical nature. Indole compounds represent the auxins, such as Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA). Adenine derivatives include the cytokinins, which are N⁶-substituted adenine compounds like kinetin. Carotenoid derivatives are represented by abscisic acid (ABA), while terpenes form the chemical backbone of gibberellins, specifically the tetracyclic diterpenes. Additionally, simple gases like ethylene function as gaseous plant growth regulators. These diverse groups govern specific developmental processes including cell division, elongation, and stress responses.
27Science and Technology
Consider the electromagnetic radiations having wavelengths 200 nm, 500 nm and 1000 nm. Which wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation to a human eye?
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Answer: (C) 500 nm only
Explanation
The human eye is sensitive to electromagnetic radiation within a specific range known as the visible spectrum, which typically extends from approximately 380 nm to 750 nm. Radiation with a wavelength of 500 nm falls squarely within this range, specifically in the green-cyan portion of the spectrum, and is therefore capable of stimulating the photoreceptors in the retina to produce a visual sensation. Wavelengths such as 200 nm fall into the ultraviolet (UV) region, while those such as 1000 nm fall into the infrared (IR) region; both of these wavelengths are outside the boundaries of human vision and do not trigger a visual response.
28Science and Technology
A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be
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Answer: (D) R/5
Explanation
The resistance R of a cylindrical conductor is given by the formula R = ρ l/A, where ρ is the resistivity of the material, l is the length, and A is the cross-sectional area. For a wire with a circular cross-section of radius r, the area is A = πr².
The resistance of the first copper wire is R₁ = ρ l/πr² = R.
For the second copper wire, the material and length remain the same, but the radius is doubled to 2r. Its resistance R₂ is calculated as:
R₂ = ρ l/π(2r)² = ρ l/4πr² = 1/4 (ρ l/πr²) = R/4
When these two wires are joined in a parallel combination, the equivalent resistance Rₚ is determined by the formula:
1/Rₚ = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂
Substituting the values for R₁ and R₂:
1/Rₚ = 1/R + 1/(R/4)
1/Rₚ = 1/R + 4/R
1/Rₚ = 5/R
Taking the reciprocal to find the resultant resistance:
Rₚ = R/5
29Science and Technology
A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C1 is made using two gold plates. Another parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C2 is made using two aluminium plates with same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same area. If ρg and ρa are respectively the electrical resistivities of gold and aluminium, then which one of the following relations is correct?
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Answer: (D) C1 = C2
Explanation
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is determined by the formula C = ε₀εᵣA/d, where ε₀ is the vacuum permittivity, εᵣ is the relative permittivity of the dielectric material between the plates, A is the area of the plates, and d is the distance of separation between them. This relationship indicates that capacitance is a function of the capacitor's geometry and the nature of the dielectric medium, rather than the material properties of the conductive plates.
While the electrical resistivity (ρ) of the plates—gold (ρ_g) and aluminium (ρ_a)—affects the internal resistance and the rate at which the capacitor charges or discharges, it does not alter the steady-state capacitance. As long as the plates are made of conductors, the charge stored per unit of potential difference depends only on the surface area and the electric field in the gap. Since the plate area A and the separation d are identical for both capacitors, and assuming they use the same dielectric medium, their capacitances are equal.
30Science and Technology
A photon of X-ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are different.
Explanation
All photons, regardless of their energy, frequency, or wavelength, are electromagnetic waves that travel at the same constant speed in a vacuum. This speed is known as the speed of light, denoted by c, and is approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Since both X-rays and visible radiation are forms of electromagnetic radiation, their speeds in a vacuum are identical, making the claim that they have different speeds incorrect.
31Science and Technology
The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is
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Answer: (C) dispersion
Explanation
Dispersion is the phenomenon where white sunlight is split into its constituent spectral colors when passing through a medium like a water droplet. In the formation of a rainbow, raindrops act as tiny prisms. When sunlight enters a raindrop, it undergoes refraction and dispersion simultaneously. Because different colors of light have different wavelengths, they travel at different speeds in water and are refracted by different amounts. This separation of light into its component colors is the primary reason for the colorful appearance of the rainbow. While refraction and internal reflection also occur within the droplet to direct the light back toward the observer, dispersion is specifically responsible for the observation of the distinct color bands.
32Geography
With regard to 'Project Tiger', which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India.
Explanation
North-eastern India contains several significant Tiger Reserves that are integral to Project Tiger. As of 2017, these include the Manas, Kaziranga, and Nameri Tiger Reserves in Assam; the Namdapha and Pakke Tiger Reserves in Arunachal Pradesh; and the Dampa Tiger Reserve in Mizoram. These areas are vital for maintaining the genetic diversity and population of tigers in the region, which directly contradicts the claim that there are no Tiger Reserves located in the north-eastern part of the country.
33Geography
Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India?
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Answer: (D) Great Himalayan
Explanation
The Great Himalayan National Park, situated in the Kullu region of Himachal Pradesh, is designated as a National Park and was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2014. Although it is a significant site for biodiversity conservation in the high Himalayas, it is not one of the 18 officially designated Biosphere Reserves in India. The biosphere reserves located within the Himalayan mountain system include Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, Khangchendzonga in Sikkim, and Cold Desert in Himachal Pradesh, but the Great Himalayan area specifically functions under the National Park status rather than the Biosphere Reserve framework.
34Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct?
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Answer: (D) At present, India has the largest railway network in the world.
Explanation
India possesses the fourth largest railway network in the world by route length, trailing behind the United States, China, and Russia. As of 2017, the United States maintained the most extensive rail network globally, with a route length exceeding 250,000 kilometers, which is significantly greater than the Indian network. While the Indian railway system is among the largest in terms of passenger volume and serves as a major global employer, its total route kilometers do not rank it as the largest network in the world.
35Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct?
1. The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
2. It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
3. It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.
4. Viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Mediterranean agriculture is a highly specialized commercial type of farming practiced in regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea, as well as in California, central Chile, the southwest of South Africa, and parts of Australia. It is characterized by the production of high-value crops intended for both local and global markets, rather than for self-sufficiency.
Viticulture, or the cultivation of grapevines, is a signature specialty of this region. The unique climate, featuring mild, moist winters and hot, dry summers, is ideal for growing high-quality grapes used for world-renowned wine production. Additionally, the region is famous for citrus fruits, olives, and figs. The high level of capitalization, use of modern technology, and focus on export-oriented crops define its commercial nature.
36Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solstice is correct?
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Answer: (C) The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.
Explanation
During the winter solstice, which typically occurs on December 21 or 22, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted at its maximum angle away from the Sun. At this point in Earth's orbit, the Sun's rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). Because of the Earth's axial tilt, the region extending from the Arctic Circle (66.5° N) to the North Pole remains entirely within the circle of illumination's shadow throughout the planet's daily rotation. This results in the phenomenon known as the polar night, where the North Pole experiences continuous darkness for 24 hours.
37Geography
Tropical evergreen rain forest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California, and northwestern coastal lands of Africa.
Explanation
The geographical regions mentioned, specifically central and southern California and the northwestern coastal lands of Africa, are characterized by Mediterranean or arid climates rather than the tropical evergreen rain forest biome. The Mediterranean biome is defined by its unique regime of hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters, which supports sclerophyllous vegetation like shrubs and stunted trees. In contrast, the tropical evergreen rain forest biome reaches its maximum development and extent in the equatorial regions near the equator, such as the Amazon Basin in South America, the Congo Basin in Africa, and the Malay Archipelago in Southeast Asia, where high temperatures and heavy rainfall are consistent throughout the year.
38Geography
Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Tsunami is a Latin word.
Explanation
The term Tsunami is of Japanese origin, not Latin. It is a combination of two Japanese characters: tsu, which means harbor, and nami, which means wave. This nomenclature reflects the historical experience of Japanese fishermen who would return to find their harbors devastated despite having felt no significant wave activity while in the deep ocean. Because tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths, their height remains small in open water and only increases significantly as they encounter the shallow bathymetry near the coast. This linguistic origin is internationally standardized due to Japan's long history of recording and studying these seismic sea waves along the Pacific Ring of Fire.
39Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to cloudburst is/are correct?
1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.
2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.
3. It results into very high intensity of rainfall, i.e., 250 mm-300 mm in a couple of hours.
4. It occurs only during daytime.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
A cloudburst is a localized weather phenomenon characterized by a highly concentrated, sudden, and very heavy downpour typically associated with cumulonimbus clouds, thunder, and lightning. It occurs when a large amount of warm, moist air rises rapidly, leading to the formation of dense clouds and subsequent intense precipitation. These events are predominantly observed in hilly and mountainous regions where the terrain acts as a physical barrier, forcing air upwards through orographic lifting, which triggers the rapid cooling and condensation necessary for such extreme rainfall development. In terms of intensity, while meteorological definitions vary, cloudbursts are generally identified by rainfall rates exceeding 100 mm per hour over a limited area. Consequently, these events frequently result in cumulative totals between 250 mm and 300 mm within a few hours, often causing significant flash floods and debris flows.
40Geography
Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct?
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Answer: (B) High organic matter
Explanation
Aridisols are soil orders that develop in arid and semi-arid climates where the lack of moisture is the dominant factor. Due to the very sparse vegetation and low biological activity in these dry environments, there is minimal accumulation of plant litter or humus. Consequently, Aridisols are characterized by an extremely low organic matter content, typically less than 1 percent. High organic matter levels are instead found in soils like Histosols, which form in wetlands, or Mollisols, which form under grasslands.
41Science and Technology
What is the maximum number of states of matter?
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Answer: (C) Five
Explanation
Matter exists in five distinct states categorized by the energy and arrangement of its constituent particles: solid, liquid, gas, plasma, and Bose-Einstein condensate. The first three states are commonly observed under standard atmospheric conditions. Plasma is a state of matter where gas becomes highly ionized, containing free electrons and ions, typically occurring at very high temperatures such as those found in stars. The fifth state, Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC), is achieved at temperatures approaching absolute zero (0 K), where atoms collapse into the same quantum level and behave as a single entity. This five-state classification is the standard model recognized in physics and chemistry frameworks.
42Science and Technology
The chemical properties of an element depend upon
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Answer: (D) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element
Explanation
Chemical properties of an element are determined by the electronic configuration of its atoms, specifically the number of electrons in the outermost shell, also known as valence electrons. Chemical reactions involve the rearrangement, loss, gain, or sharing of these valence electrons as atoms seek to achieve a stable octet or noble gas configuration. Elements belonging to the same group in the periodic table exhibit similar chemical properties because they possess the same number of valence electrons, which governs their reactivity and bonding behavior with other elements. Since the nucleus and its constituent neutrons do not participate in standard chemical processes, they do not dictate an element's chemical identity or behavior.
43Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube.
Explanation
The characteristics of cathode rays, such as their charge-to-mass ratio (e/m), are entirely independent of the material of the electrodes and the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray discharge tube. This is because cathode rays consist of a stream of electrons, which are fundamental subatomic particles identical in all atoms. Since all electrons carry the same charge and mass regardless of their source, changing the residual gas or the metal of the cathode does not alter the properties of the rays. This universal nature of cathode rays was a key discovery by J.J. Thomson that led to the identification of the electron as a basic constituent of all matter.
44Science and Technology
The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the acid is dissolved in water to make one litre of solution, what will be the strength of the acid?
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Answer: (B) One normal
Explanation
Normality (N) is defined as the number of gram equivalents of solute per litre of solution. The formula for normality is N = W/(E × V), where W is the mass of the solute in grams, E is the equivalent weight, and V is the volume of the solution in litres.
Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) is a dibasic acid, meaning it releases two hydrogen ions per molecule. The equivalent weight (E) of an acid is its molecular mass divided by its basicity. Thus, E = 98/2 = 49.
Substituting the given values into the normality formula:
N = 49/(49 × 1) = 1
The strength of the solution is therefore one normal.
45Geography
Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct?
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Answer: (D) In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.
Explanation
The strength of the jet stream is primarily driven by the temperature contrast between adjacent air masses. During the winter season, the temperature gradient between the cold polar air and the warmer mid-latitude air is significantly more pronounced than in the summer. This steeper thermal gradient results in a stronger pressure gradient in the upper atmosphere, which increases the velocity of the winds. Consequently, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force and highest wind speeds during the winter months, while it becomes weaker and shifts poleward during the summer.
46Geography
The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast.
Explanation
The Gulf Stream is a powerful, warm western boundary current located entirely within the Atlantic Ocean. It originates in the Gulf of Mexico, follows the eastern coastline of the United States, and then crosses the North Atlantic towards Europe. Because it is geographically confined to the Atlantic Ocean, it does not have any physical contact with or influence over the West Pacific Coast. The coral reefs and marine ecosystems of the West Pacific are instead influenced by currents within the Pacific Ocean basin, such as the Kuroshio Current in the North Pacific or the East Australian Current in the South Pacific.
47Economy
Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the east coast
Explanation
The sugar industry in Peninsular India is predominantly located in the interior regions of the Deccan plateau rather than along the east coast. Maharashtra, the leading producer in the southern region, has its sugar mills concentrated in the western and central parts of the state, particularly in the districts of Ahmednagar, Kolhapur, Sangli, and Pune. In other peninsular states like Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, the industry is largely situated in the fertile and well-irrigated interior river basins. Because sugarcane is a weight-losing and perishable crop that must be crushed within 24 hours of harvesting to maintain sucrose levels, mills are established in the heart of the sugarcane-growing tracts, which in the peninsula are mainly found in the inland regions.
48Economy
'Rand/ZAR' is the currency of
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Answer: (D) South Africa
Explanation
The South African Rand, denoted by the ISO code ZAR, is the legal tender and official currency of the Republic of South Africa. It was introduced in February 1961, replacing the South African pound at a rate of two Rand for one pound, which coincided with the country's transition to a republic. The name of the currency is derived from the Witwatersrand (White Waters Ridge), which is the major gold-producing region where the city of Johannesburg is located. The Rand is issued and managed by the South African Reserve Bank. Additionally, through the Common Monetary Area agreement, the Rand circulates as a recognized currency alongside local legal tender in Namibia, Lesotho, and Eswatini.
49Geography
Which one of the following ports is located on estuary?
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Answer: (B) Marmagao
Explanation
Marmagao port is located in Goa at the entrance of the Zuari estuary. It is a premier natural harbor situated on the south bank of the Zuari River, where the river discharges into the Arabian Sea. The location within an estuary provides a sheltered environment and sufficient depth for maritime operations. As a major port of India, it plays a vital role in international trade, particularly in the bulk handling of iron ore exported from the Konkan region.
50Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Mangifera indica is the national animal of India.
Explanation
Mangifera indica is the scientific name for the mango, which is the national fruit of India. The national animal of India is the Royal Bengal Tiger, biologically classified as Panthera tigris tigris. Since Mangifera indica refers to a fruit tree rather than the tiger, the statement claiming it to be the national animal is factually incorrect.
51Economy
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016?
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Answer: (B) It will subsume central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.
Explanation
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, following the passage of the relevant bill in the Rajya Sabha in August 2016. The fundamental purpose of this reform was to replace the complex, fragmented indirect tax structure with a unified system. To achieve this, the GST was designed to subsume a wide array of indirect taxes and duties previously levied by both the Central and State governments. Central taxes merged into GST include Central Excise Duty, Service Tax, and Additional Duties of Customs, while State taxes that were subsumed include Value Added Tax (VAT), Central Sales Tax, Entry Tax, Luxury Tax, and Entertainment Tax. This consolidation aimed to eliminate the cascading effect of taxes and create a seamless national market.
52Science and Technology
The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns which one of the following defence platforms of India?
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Answer: (C) Submarines
Explanation
In August 2016, a massive data leak occurred involving over 22,000 pages of sensitive technical information related to the Scorpene-class submarines. These submarines, designated as the Kalvari-class in India, were being constructed at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited in collaboration with the French naval defense company DCNS (now Naval Group). The leaked documents detailed the highly classified combat capabilities of the vessels, including their acoustic signatures, noise levels at various speeds, diving depths, and specifications of the sonar and weapons systems. Because the Scorpene-class represents a critical component of the Indian Navy's underwater fleet, the disclosure of its stealth characteristics and operational parameters posed a significant national security challenge regarding the potential compromise of the submarines' effectiveness in maritime operations.
53History
How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics?
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Answer: (A) One Silver and one Bronze
Explanation
India won a total of two medals at the 2016 Rio Summer Olympics. P.V. Sindhu earned a silver medal in the women's singles badminton event, making her the first Indian woman to achieve an Olympic silver. Sakshi Malik secured a bronze medal in the women's freestyle 58 kg wrestling category, becoming the first Indian female wrestler to stand on an Olympic podium.
54Polity and Governance
India became a member of which one of the following in 2016?
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Answer: (B) Missile Technology Control Regime
Explanation
India was formally admitted as the 35th member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) on June 27, 2016. This membership followed years of diplomatic efforts and signified global recognition of India's non-proliferation credentials. Joining the MTCR allows India to engage in high-end technology trade for its space and defense programs, including the acquisition of sophisticated surveillance drones and the development of joint ventures for missile systems with other member nations. The admission was particularly significant as it marked India's entry into the first of the four major multilateral export control regimes.
55History
India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port?
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Answer: (A) Chabahar
Explanation
In May 2016, India signed a landmark tripartite agreement with Iran and Afghanistan to develop the Chabahar port, located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province on Iran's southern coast. This strategic initiative was designed to establish a reliable transport and transit corridor, providing India with a direct sea-land route to Afghanistan and Central Asian markets while bypassing the land route through Pakistan. Under the memorandum of understanding, India committed to investing approximately $500 million for the development of the port's infrastructure, including the construction of specialized berths and the supply of equipment, to enhance regional connectivity and trade.
56Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
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Answer: (B) China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC.
Explanation
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) maintains a total of nine observers. These observers are Australia, China, the European Union, Iran, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar, and the United States of America. Therefore, the statement that China is the only country with observer status is factually incorrect as it ignores the existence of the other eight observer entities.
57History
Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct?
1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England's European subjects in India.
4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 by Sir Courtenay Ilbert during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon to remove racial discrimination in the judicial system. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials by empowering Indian District Magistrates and Sessions Judges to try European British subjects in criminal cases, a power previously reserved for European judges. This proposal triggered intense opposition from the European community in India, who viewed the prospect of being tried by Indian judges as a humilation. This period of agitation, often referred to as the Ilbert Bill controversy, eventually forced the government to amend the bill in 1884 to include a compromise allowing Europeans to demand a trial by a jury composed of at least fifty percent Europeans.
58Economy
Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan :
1. It was drafted under the leadership of K. N. Raj.
2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.
3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult.
4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) was based on the Mahalanobis model, which prioritized rapid industrialization and the growth of the public sector. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 reflected this shift by reserving strategic industries such as steel, railways, electricity, heavy machinery, and communication for state development. This approach aimed to build a self-reliant industrial base for the Indian economy.
However, this heavy focus on capital-intensive industries created significant structural challenges. The diversion of resources away from the primary sector meant that the drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult. The relative neglect of agriculture during this period led to food shortages and inflationary pressures, highlighting the immense difficulty in maintaining a steady growth rate in both sectors simultaneously while pursuing massive industrial expansion.
59History
Consider the following statements about the different meanings of 'Swaraj' as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi :
1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth).
2. Swaraj has two senses—one political and one beyond the realm of politics.
3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire.
4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi articulated Swaraj as a comprehensive concept that extended far beyond mere political independence. It was fundamentally rooted in the values of Ahimsa and Satyagraha, as he believed that the quality of the end result was determined by the purity of the means employed. Gandhi described Swaraj in two distinct layers: first, as the political liberation of the nation from colonial rule, and second, as the moral liberation of the individual, which he defined as the ability to rule over oneself and one's desires. This internal self-governance was the essence of true Swaraj. Because this required a profound transformation of character and the eradication of deeply rooted social evils like untouchability and communal discord through the Constructive Programme, Gandhi emphasized that achieving such a state was a gradual process that demanded immense patience, sustained effort, and internal discipline from all citizens.
60History
What was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?
1. Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.
2. Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists.
3. Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy was shaped by a diverse range of spiritual and intellectual sources. His mother, Putlibai, belonged to the Pranami sect, which sought to reconcile Hinduism and Islam by teaching that God is one and reading from both the Gita and the Quran; this laid the foundation for his lifelong commitment to religious harmony and the unity of faiths. While studying law in London, Gandhi met several Theosophists who encouraged him to read the Bhagavad Gita and helped him develop a deeper appreciation for Indian spiritual traditions, which he had previously neglected. Furthermore, Gandhi had a profound literary interest in the English Romantics, particularly William Wordsworth. He found Wordsworth's poetry, such as The Character of the Happy Warrior, to be a source of moral inspiration and often quoted it to illustrate his ideals of ethical conduct and spiritual strength.
61Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?
1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.
2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.
3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.
4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines.
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) was established on November 15, 1920, as an apex body to manage Sikh shrines during the Gurdwara Reform Movement, also known as the Akali movement. It was founded with the specific purpose of liberating Gurdwaras from the control of corrupt Mahants and government-appointed loyalist committees that were perceived as mismanaging the religious institutions under British patronage. To provide a structured organizational force for this struggle, the Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in December 1920 as the political and volunteer wing of the movement. The Akali Dal coordinated various Jathas, or organized groups of volunteers, to participate in non-violent agitations and morchas to reclaim the shrines. This collective effort eventually forced the colonial government to pass the Sikh Gurdwaras Act in 1925, which gave the SGPC legal authority over the management of historic Sikh Gurdwaras.
62History
Which of the following statements with regard to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct?
1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.
2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.
3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.
4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
In February 1916, during the opening ceremony of the Banaras Hindu University, Mahatma Gandhi delivered a speech that served as his first major public address in India. He criticized the Indian princes and the elite for their ostentatious display of jewelry and silks, contrasting this luxury with the abject poverty of the Indian masses. By doing so, he charged the elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.
Furthermore, he explicitly emphasized the role of the peasantry in the national movement, stating that India's salvation can come only through the farmers. He argued that neither lawyers, doctors, nor rich landlords would be able to secure the country's freedom without the involvement of the agrarian population. While Gandhi later became a staunch advocate against untouchability, it was not a primary highlight of this specific address. Additionally, the cause of the Ahmedabad mill workers was taken up by him later in 1918, and he supported the labourers rather than the mill owners.
63Polity and Governance
To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should
1. have a functional toilet at home
2. have payment slips of power bills
3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter
4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, which was upheld by the Supreme Court in the Rajbala v. State of Haryana case, introduced several mandatory criteria for candidates contesting local body elections. To promote sanitation and hygiene, candidates are required to have a functional toilet in their homes. To ensure financial discipline and civic responsibility, the Act mandates that candidates must not have any arrears of electricity dues and must produce payment slips as proof. Furthermore, candidates must not be in default of loans from cooperative banks or similar financial institutions. While the Act also introduced educational qualifications, these are not uniform for all candidates; general category candidates require matriculation, but the requirement is relaxed to the 8th standard for women and Scheduled Caste candidates, and to the 5th standard for Scheduled Caste women. Therefore, the requirement is not matriculation irrespective of category.
64Polity and Governance
Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting :
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission
3. Punchhi Commission
4. Sarkaria Commission
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Answer: (A) 4, 2, 1, 3
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in June 1983 by the Government of India to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution. The Eleventh Finance Commission was established by the President of India in July 1998 under the chairmanship of Prof. A.M. Khusro to provide recommendations for the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States for the period 2000-2005. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was set up on August 31, 2005, to prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administration system, with Veerappa Moily as its initial chairperson. The Punchhi Commission was constituted in April 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi to take a fresh look at the roles and responsibilities of the various levels of government and their inter-relations.
65Art and Culture
Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men's Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games?
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Answer: (B) Devendra Jhajharia
Explanation
Devendra Jhajharia won the gold medal in the Men's Javelin Throw F46 event at the 2016 Rio Paralympics. During the competition, he set a new world record with a throw of 63.97 meters, breaking his own previous world record of 62.15 meters established at the 2004 Athens Paralympics. This victory made him the first Indian athlete to win two individual gold medals at the Paralympic Games. In recognition of his historic achievement, he was honored with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award in 2017.
66Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct?
1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.
3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy.
4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.
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Answer: (C) 1,2 and 4
Explanation
According to Article 243C(2) of the Constitution of India, all the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. This ensures the representative character of local bodies. Article 243(b) defines the Gram Sabha as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat at the village level, serving as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. Furthermore, Article 243G mandates that the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. This includes the devolution of powers for the preparation of plans and the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
67Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct?
1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries.
3. There is no dual citizenship in India.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to form new states and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states by a simple majority. Although the President is required to refer the bill to the concerned state legislature for its views within a specific timeframe, the Parliament is not bound by the views expressed by the state legislature. Therefore, the formal consent of a state is not required for the Union to alter its boundaries.
Furthermore, the Indian Constitution establishes a system of single citizenship for the entire country. Unlike many other federal systems where individuals hold both national and state citizenship, Indian citizens owe allegiance only to the Union of India. This principle, reflected in Part II of the Constitution, ensures that every citizen enjoys the same fundamental rights and privileges throughout the territory of India, regardless of the state in which they were born or reside.
68Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?
1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts
3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it
4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law
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Answer: (A) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India functions as the final interpreter of the Constitution and the highest court of appeal. Under Article 131, it exercises original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between States themselves. Articles 132, 133, and 134 grant it the power to hear appeals from the High Courts regarding constitutional, civil, and criminal matters, while Article 136 allows for special leave to appeal. Article 142 provides the Court with the unique power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. Additionally, Article 143 establishes the advisory jurisdiction of the Court, enabling the President of India to refer specific questions of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion. All four statements correctly identify these distinct constitutional powers.
69Economy
Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government?
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Answer: (C) Disinvestment receipts
Explanation
Disinvestment receipts are classified as Capital Receipts rather than Revenue Receipts because they involve the sale of government assets, specifically equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). In the context of the Union Budget, receipts are categorized as Capital Receipts if they either create a financial liability for the government or lead to a reduction in its assets. Since disinvestment involves the liquidation of a portion of the government's ownership or stake in an enterprise, it directly reduces the government's asset holdings. In contrast, Revenue Receipts consist of items that neither create a liability nor reduce assets, such as tax collections and recurring non-tax income like interest and dividends.
70Polity and Governance
TRIPS Agreement pertains to
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Answer: (B) intellectual property protection
Explanation
The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is a comprehensive multilateral agreement on intellectual property that is administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO). Introduced at the end of the Uruguay Round in 1994, it sets out the minimum standards of protection that each member state must provide for various forms of intellectual property within its jurisdiction. These include patents, copyrights, trademarks, geographical indications, industrial designs, and trade secrets. TRIPS requires member nations to provide effective enforcement procedures for these rights and establishes a dispute settlement mechanism to resolve conflicts between members regarding the implementation of the agreement's obligations.
71Economy
The 7.6% growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on
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Answer: (D) Gross Domestic Product at constant prices
Explanation
Following the revision of the National Accounts statistics in early 2015, the Central Statistics Office (CSO) adopted Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at constant market prices as the primary indicator for measuring the growth of the Indian economy. This methodology shifted the base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12. The 7.6% growth rate recorded for the fiscal year 2015-16 refers to the Real GDP growth, which measures the total value of all finished goods and services produced within the country's borders at constant 2011-12 prices. By using constant prices, the effect of inflation is removed, allowing for a volume-based comparison of economic output between different years. This headline growth figure of 7.6% was distinct from the Gross Value Added (GVA) growth rate, which was approximately 7.2% for the same period.
72Economy
Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct?
1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015.
2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40 percent of global GDP.
3. India is a founder member of TPP.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was a major trade agreement between 12 Pacific Rim nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, Vietnam, and the United States. The deal was finalized in October 2015 after years of negotiations, aiming to reduce trade barriers, establish common standards for intellectual property, and create a platform for economic integration.
At the time of its formation, the TPP was considered a significant geopolitical and economic development because the 12 member countries collectively accounted for approximately 40 percent of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and nearly one-third of all global trade. This scale made the agreement one of the most substantial free trade areas ever negotiated. India was not a participant in the TPP, as its trade interests and regulatory standards at the time differed from the high-level benchmarks set by the TPP regarding labor, environment, and intellectual property rights.
73Economy
Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct?
1. It is a decentralized virtual currency.
2. It is generated through complex computer software systems.
3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a legal tender in January 2016.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Bitcoin is a decentralized virtual currency that operates on a peer-to-peer network, allowing for transactions to occur directly between users without the need for an intermediary or a central authority like a central bank. Its decentralized nature is maintained through a distributed ledger technology called the blockchain, which records all transactions across a network of computers.
The issuance of Bitcoin is managed through a process called mining, which involves using complex computer software systems to solve difficult cryptographic puzzles. This computational process validates transactions and secures the network, with new bitcoins being generated as a reward for the miners who solve these problems.
In the Indian context, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has not recognized Bitcoin as legal tender. Throughout 2013 to 2017, the RBI issued several circulars and press releases cautioning users, holders, and traders of virtual currencies about the potential economic, financial, operational, and legal risks. Legal tender status in India is restricted to the currency issued by the RBI and the Government of India.
74Science and Technology
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircrafts to the Indian Air Force in 2016. What is the name of these new combat aircrafts?
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Answer: (C) Tejas
Explanation
The Tejas is a single-engine, multi-role supersonic light combat aircraft (LCA) designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). On July 1, 2016, the Indian Air Force officially inducted the first two Tejas aircraft into its fleet, marking the formation of the first LCA squadron known as the No. 45 Squadron IAF, also called the Flying Daggers. The project was originally conceived in the 1980s to replace the aging MiG-21 fleet and represents a significant achievement in India's indigenous defense manufacturing. The aircraft features a tailless, compound delta wing configuration and is equipped with a digital fly-by-wire flight control system to ensure stability and maneuverability. Its airframe is largely constructed from advanced carbon fiber composites to reduce weight and improve strength.
75Science and Technology
Consider the following statement about a famous football player:
He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden Shoes in his career.
Who is that player?
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Answer: (B) Lionel Messi
Explanation
Lionel Messi was diagnosed with Growth Hormone Deficiency (GHD) at the age of 11 while living in Argentina. The condition required expensive daily injections of human growth hormone to ensure his physical development reached normal levels. His transition to FC Barcelona’s youth academy, La Masia, was famously secured after the club agreed to cover the costs of his medical treatment, which his family and local club could no longer afford. In terms of his scoring achievements, Messi had secured three European Golden Shoes by the start of 2017, having been the top scorer in European domestic leagues during the 2009-10, 2011-12, and 2012-13 seasons.
76Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientists announced the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.
2. Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.
3. Gravitational waves were detected due to collision of two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
On June 15, 2016, the LIGO Scientific Collaboration and the Virgo Collaboration announced the detection of a second gravitational-wave event, observed on December 26, 2015. This signal, identified as GW151226, provided further evidence for the existence of gravitational waves as predicted by Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity. The waves were produced during the final moments of the merger of two stellar-mass black holes, with masses approximately 14.2 and 7.5 times that of the Sun. This cataclysmic event took place at a distance of about 440 megaparsecs, which is equivalent to approximately 1.4 billion light-years from Earth. The merger resulted in a single, more massive rotating black hole of about 20.8 solar masses, with the remaining 1.1 solar masses converted into gravitational-wave energy.
77Economy
In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a ₹ 6,000 crore special package for the textile and apparel sector to
1. create one crore jobs within three years
2. create jobs equally for men and women
3. provide tax and production incentives for the entrepreneurs
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
In June 2016, the Union Cabinet approved a special package of ₹ 6,000 crore for the textile and apparel sector. The primary objective of this intervention was to generate 1 crore cumulative additional jobs in the sector over a period of three years. To achieve this, the package introduced several tax and production incentives for entrepreneurs, including an increase in duty drawback rates and significant labor law reforms. Specifically, the government decided to bear the entire 12% of the employers' contribution to the Employee Provident Fund (EPF) for new employees for the first three years. Additionally, the package enhanced the scope of Section 80JJAA of the Income Tax Act by reducing the minimum working days required to claim tax benefits from 240 days to 150 days, specifically catering to the seasonal nature of the garment industry. While the sector naturally employs a high percentage of women, the package did not mandate an equal distribution of jobs between men and women.
78Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an InterServices Establishment?
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Answer: (A) Officers Training Academy
Explanation
The Officers Training Academy (OTA) is a service-specific training institution belonging exclusively to the Indian Army. It is mandated to train cadets for the Short Service Commission in the Army and operates under the administrative and functional control of the Army Training Command (ARTRAC). Its training modules and curriculum are designed specifically for the requirements of land warfare and the leadership needs of the Indian Army. It is not classified as an Inter-Services Establishment because it does not serve or integrate the three branches of the Indian Armed Forces collectively. Its scope is limited to the commissioning of officers into the Army, distinguishing it from tri-service organizations that are established to function for the combined benefit and joint training of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award?
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Answer: (A) Shaurya Chakra
Explanation
The Shaurya Chakra is an Indian military decoration awarded for valour, courageous action, or self-sacrifice while not engaged in direct action with the enemy. It is officially classified as a peacetime gallantry award, ranking third in order of precedence after the Ashoka Chakra and the Kirti Chakra. Originally established on January 4, 1952, as the Ashoka Chakra Class III and renamed in 1967, it is conferred upon members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and civilians for distinguished acts of bravery performed in scenarios such as counter-insurgency operations or anti-terrorist actions where a formal state of war does not exist.
80Science and Technology
The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which one of the following places?
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Answer: (B) Kochi
Explanation
The Southern Naval Command functions as the training command of the Indian Navy and is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala. Located on Willingdon Island, it is responsible for the basic and advanced training of all personnel in the Indian Navy, as well as those from friendly foreign nations. The command is led by a Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief (FOC-in-C) of the rank of Vice Admiral. It oversees numerous specialized training schools and serves as the primary hub for naval instruction and human resource development for the maritime force.
81History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Act/Event) List-II (Year)
A. Rowlatt Act 1. 1922
B. Salt March 2. 1931
C. Chauri Chaura Incident 3. 1930
D. Second Round Table Conference 4. 1919
Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D
4 3 1 2
Explanation
Rowlatt Act matches with 1919 because this repressive legislation, which allowed for the detention of political prisoners without trial, was enacted by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919.
Salt March matches with 1930 as it was a major nonviolent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi against the British salt tax, commencing from Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930.
Chauri Chaura Incident matches with 1922 because the violent confrontation between police and protesters in February 1922 led Gandhi to abruptly end the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Second Round Table Conference matches with 1931 because it took place in London from September to December 1931 and was the only session attended by the Indian National Congress following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
82History
Consider the following statements about the Salt March :
1. The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media.
2. The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.
3. The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.
4. The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Salt March of 1930 was a watershed moment in the Indian independence movement for several reasons. It received unprecedented international media attention; foreign journalists like Webb Miller of the United Press covered the events at Dharasana, and Time magazine featured Mahatma Gandhi on its cover, naming him the Man of the Year for 1930. This global coverage brought the Indian cause to the forefront of world opinion.
The movement was also significant as the first major nationalist activity to see mass participation by women. Following the persuasion of socialist activist Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, Gandhi allowed women to join the protests, leading to thousands of women participating in salt making and picketing liquor and foreign cloth shops.
Furthermore, the scale and success of the march and the subsequent Civil Disobedience Movement convinced the British authorities that their rule could not continue indefinitely without major concessions. It highlighted the moral illegitimacy of British laws and created a political necessity for the British to negotiate with Indian leaders, eventually leading to the Round Table Conferences and the devolution of power through the Government of India Act of 1935.
83History
In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India
1. only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had the right to vote
2. the untouchables had no right to vote
3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces
4. the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the seats reserved for Muslims
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The 1937 provincial elections were held under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, which introduced provincial autonomy and expanded the franchise. While the act increased the number of people eligible to vote, it still limited the electorate based on property, taxation, and educational qualifications, resulting in only about 10 to 12 percent of the total population being enfranchised.
In these elections, the Indian National Congress achieved a dominant position by winning an absolute majority of seats in five provinces: Madras, the United Provinces, Bihar, the Central Provinces, and Orissa. In the province of Bombay, the Congress fell just short of a majority but emerged as the largest single party, eventually forming the government with the support of some independent members. By July 1937, the Congress had formed ministries in seven out of the eleven provinces of British India.
84History
Which of the following statements about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct?
1. It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.
2. It mainly comprised the trading castes.
3. It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875, established its most influential and enduring presence in Northern India. Its primary geographic base was located in the Punjab and the United Provinces, particularly western Uttar Pradesh, where its message of returning to the Vedas and rejecting idol worship gained significant traction. The social composition of the movement was predominantly drawn from the urban middle class and merchant communities. Trading castes, such as the Khatris and Aroras in Punjab and various Bania groups in western UP, formed the backbone of the organization. These groups were attracted to the movement because it offered a rationalized, egalitarian form of Hinduism that provided a sense of cultural identity and social mobility during the period of British colonial expansion. Through its network of Dayananda Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools and colleges, the Arya Samaj successfully institutionalized its influence among these commercial and professional classes.
85History
Who among the following is the author of the book, A Comparison between Women and Men?
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Answer: (C) Tarabai Shinde
Explanation
Tarabai Shinde is the author of the book Stri Purush Tulana, published in 1882, which is translated into English as A Comparison between Women and Men. This work is recognized as one of India's first modern feminist texts. Writing in Marathi, Shinde provided a scathing critique of the patriarchal social structures and the double standards of 19th-century Indian society. She challenged the systemic oppression of women, specifically focusing on the treatment of widows and the rigid moral codes that were enforced strictly upon women while being ignored for men. Her work remains a landmark in the history of gender equality movements in India.
86Science and Technology
The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by
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Answer: (C) Johannes Kepler
Explanation
Johannes Kepler demonstrated that planetary orbits are elliptical rather than circular through his first law of planetary motion, published in 1609 in his work Astronomia nova. By rigorously analyzing the highly accurate observational data of Tycho Brahe, particularly concerning the orbit of Mars, Kepler discovered that a circular path could not account for the observed positions of the planets. His discovery fundamentally changed the understanding of the solar system by establishing that each planet moves in an ellipse with the Sun situated at one of the two foci. This replaced the ancient Greek and Copernican preference for perfect circular motion with a more mathematically precise model of the heavens.
87History
During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was
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Answer: (A) 17 years
Explanation
During the mid-19th century, the rapid and unplanned urbanization of Manchester led to extreme overcrowding, poor sanitation, and the widespread prevalence of infectious diseases like cholera and typhoid. According to the 1842 Report on the Sanitary Condition of the Labouring Population, compiled by Edwin Chadwick, the living conditions for the working class were dire. The report provided statistical evidence that the average age of death for the laboring classes, including mechanics and their families, was a mere 17 years. This strikingly low figure was primarily a result of exceptionally high infant and child mortality rates within the industrial slums, coupled with the exhausting physical demands and hazardous environments of the factories. This data served as a pivotal catalyst for the subsequent public health reforms in Britain.
88History
George Washington was made the Commander in Chief of the American forces
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Answer: (C) at the Second Continental Congress in 1775
Explanation
George Washington was appointed as the Commander in Chief of the Continental Army on June 15, 1775, by the Second Continental Congress. This body convened in Philadelphia shortly after the start of the American Revolutionary War following the battles of Lexington and Concord. The Congress sought a leader who could unify the disparate colonial militias into a cohesive fighting force and chose Washington due to his previous military experience in the French and Indian War, his strong character, and his political standing as a Virginian, which was crucial for securing the support of the Southern colonies.
89History
Alexander Kerensky was
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Answer: (A) the head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution
Explanation
Alexander Kerensky was a central figure in the Russian Revolution of 1917, serving as the second Prime Minister of the Russian Provisional Government. Following the February Revolution which led to the abdication of Czar Nicholas II, Kerensky held several key positions, including Minister of Justice and Minister of War, before becoming the head of the government in July 1917. He belonged to the Socialist Revolutionary Party and led the country during the transitional period between the fall of the monarchy and the rise of the Soviet state. His tenure ended when the Provisional Government was ousted by the Bolsheviks during the October Revolution.
90Economy
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focussed on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness?
1. Poverty
2. Group inequality
3. Regional imbalance
4. Unemployment
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012-2017), titled Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth, identified poverty, group inequality, regional imbalance, and unemployment as the four key dimensions of the challenge of inclusiveness. Poverty reduction was a central goal, with the plan aiming to reduce the poverty head-count ratio by 10 percentage points. Group inequality addressed the developmental gaps faced by socially disadvantaged groups such as SCs, STs, OBCs, and minorities. Regional imbalance focused on bridging the gap between advanced and backward states, as well as within states. Finally, unemployment was addressed by emphasizing the creation of 50 million new non-farm work opportunities and large-scale skill development to ensure that the economic growth was broad-based and provided livelihood security to the burgeoning workforce.
91Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct about 'Saakshar Bharat' scheme?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan.
2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general.
3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years.
4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Saakshar Bharat was launched on September 8, 2009, during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan as a centrally sponsored initiative to revitalize the national adult education program. The scheme was specifically designed to focus on women and disadvantaged groups, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Minorities, to reduce the gender gap and social disparities in literacy levels across the country. To ensure effective grassroots implementation and community participation, the scheme was anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government bodies, which were responsible for managing the Lok Shiksha Kendras or Adult Education Centres. The target demographic of the program consisted of non-literate adults in the age group of 15 years and above, making the age threshold of 10 years mentioned in the third statement incorrect. Therefore, the combination of statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly reflects the policy framework and operational strategy of the scheme as of 2017.
92Polity and Governance
BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in
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Answer: (C) India
Explanation
The 8th BRICS summit took place on 15 and 16 October 2016 in Benaulim, Goa, India. India held the rotating chairmanship of the BRICS group throughout 2016 and hosted the summit under the theme Building Responsive, Inclusive and Collective Solutions. The gathering of leaders from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa resulted in the Goa Declaration, which prioritized cooperation in trade, sustainable development, and global security. This was the second time India hosted a BRICS summit, following the 4th summit held in New Delhi in 2012.
93Economy
Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur and other pulses in July 2016?
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Answer: (D) Mozambique
Explanation
India signed a long-term Memorandum of Understanding with Mozambique in July 2016 for the procurement of pulses, specifically pigeon peas or Tur dal. The agreement was signed during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Mozambique and was the first of its kind, aimed at securing a steady supply of pulses to India to manage domestic shortages and price volatility. The memorandum set a target for India to import 100,000 tonnes of pulses in the 2016-17 fiscal year, with a roadmap to double the quantity to 200,000 tonnes by 2020-21. This government-to-government arrangement provided Mozambique's farmers with a guaranteed market, incentivizing the large-scale production of pulses for export to India.
94Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct?
1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.
2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him.
3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 53(1) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. This provision establishes the President as the formal head of the Union executive. Furthermore, Article 53(2) states that the supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President, with the exercise of this command being regulated by parliamentary law. These two constitutional articles directly support the validity of the first and third statements. The second statement is inaccurate because Article 53(1) explicitly allows the President to exercise executive power directly, not exclusively through subordinate officers.
95Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 21 of the Constitution of India provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court has significantly expanded the scope of this article to protect various facets of human dignity. In the landmark case of Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar (1979), the court established that the right to a speedy trial is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty. Consequently, detaining under-trial prisoners in judicial custody for an indefinite period is considered a violation of Article 21.
The right to life is recognized as a basic, natural, and inalienable human right that exists independently of the Constitution. This principle was strengthened by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, which amended Article 359 to ensure that the right to protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 cannot be suspended even during the operation of a National Emergency. This constitutional safeguard ensures that the State does not have the authority to arbitrarily violate or abrogate this fundamental right, maintaining its status as a core protection against state overreach.
96Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India?
1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, and Article 21A of the Constitution mandate free and compulsory education for all children in the six to fourteen years age group. To ensure the quality of this education, the Act prescribes specific norms and standards in its Schedule regarding school infrastructure, including all-weather buildings, libraries, and separate toilets. It also mandates the recruitment of qualified teachers meeting specific minimum qualifications to maintain pedagogical standards. Furthermore, the Act promotes inclusive education by prohibiting any form of discrimination based on gender, caste, class, or religion, and specifically requires private unaided schools to reserve 25 percent of seats for children from economically weaker sections and disadvantaged groups to ensure social and cultural integration within the classroom.
97Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.
Explanation
Article 26 of the Constitution of India specifies that every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. This right is guaranteed to all religious groups and denominations collectively, without any exclusion based on the size of the community. The constitutional text does not provide for any exception that would deny these rights to minor communities; therefore, the claim that certain minor communities do not possess this freedom is a direct contradiction of the inclusive nature of the Article.
98Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.
Explanation
Article 22(2) of the Constitution of India mandates that every person who is arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest. This time limit excludes the period necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate. Furthermore, no person can be detained in custody beyond this twenty-four-hour period without the specific authority and order of a magistrate. The mention of a one-week period is factually incorrect as it contradicts the explicit constitutional safeguard designed to prevent arbitrary executive detention.
99Science and Technology
Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration?
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Answer: (A) Copyright
Explanation
Copyright protection is granted automatically to the creator of an original work as soon as it is fixed in a tangible medium of expression, such as being written down, filmed, or recorded. Under the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works, which governs international copyright law and to which India is a signatory, the protection of such works must not be conditional upon any formality. This means that the legal right exists from the moment of creation without the necessity of formal registration, deposit, or notice. While the Copyright Act, 1957 in India provides a mechanism for registration to serve as prima facie evidence in a court of law, such registration is optional and not a requirement for the subsistence of copyright or for seeking legal remedies against infringement.
100Economy
Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in India?
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Answer: (C) Consumer Price Index
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India shifted its primary inflation measure from the Wholesale Price Index to the Consumer Price Index (Combined) in April 2014. This transition followed the recommendations of the Urjit Patel Committee, which argued that CPI better reflects the cost of living and the impact of price changes on the end consumer. Under the current monetary policy framework and the inflation-targeting regime established in 2015, the RBI uses the CPI (Combined) as the nominal anchor to set the repo rate and manage price stability in the economy. Unlike indices that track producer prices, the CPI includes services and provides a more accurate representation of the inflationary pressures faced by households.
101Economy
The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) Clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of
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Answer: (A) non-discrimination between nations
Explanation
The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause is a cornerstone principle of the World Trade Organization (WTO) outlined in Article I of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). It dictates that if a member country grants a specific trade favor or advantage to one trading partner, such as a lower customs duty for a particular product, it must immediately and unconditionally extend that same treatment to all other WTO members. This principle ensures that a nation cannot discriminate between its various trading partners, effectively treating every member as well as its most favoured partner. By preventing preferential treatment among countries, the MFN clause promotes global trade liberalization and ensures a level playing field for all member states regardless of their economic size or geopolitical influence.
102Economy
Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India is not a
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Answer: (A) gross value tax
Explanation
GST is designed as a value-added tax system where the tax is levied only on the incremental value added at each stage of production and distribution. This is achieved through the mechanism of Input Tax Credit, which allows businesses to set off the tax paid on purchases against the tax to be paid on sales. A gross value tax, however, is a cascading tax levied on the total sale price at every stage of the transaction without any credit for taxes paid on previous inputs. Since the fundamental objective of GST is to remove the cascading effect of taxes and ensure that tax is paid only on the net value addition, it does not qualify as a gross value tax.
103Economy
Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to
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Answer: (B) Welfare Economics
Explanation
Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his significant contributions to welfare economics. His research revitalized the study of social choice theory and provided a deeper understanding of the economic mechanisms underlying poverty and famine. He is specifically recognized for developing sophisticated indices to measure well-being and for introducing the capability approach, which evaluates human welfare based on the substantive freedoms and opportunities individuals possess to lead the lives they value. By integrating ethical dimensions into economic analysis, his work shifted the focus of the field toward distributive justice and the fundamental requirements for human development.
104Polity and Governance
The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Group Captain in the Indian Air Force
Explanation
The commissioned officer ranks across the three branches of the Indian Armed Forces are standardized to maintain equivalent status, seniority, and pay grades. In this hierarchy, the rank of Captain in the Indian Navy is equivalent to the rank of Group Captain in the Indian Air Force. Both positions represent senior officer ranks that correspond to the rank of Colonel in the Indian Army. This system of equivalence is essential for inter-service protocol, joint operations, and administrative parity within the Ministry of Defence.
105Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Air Force?
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Answer: (C) It has a separate Maintenance Command.
Explanation
The Indian Air Force is organized into seven commands, which include five operational commands and two functional commands. The Maintenance Command is one of the two functional commands and is headquartered at Vayusena Nagar in Nagpur, Maharashtra. Established to centralize the upkeep of the force, it is responsible for the repair, overhaul, and maintenance of aircraft, missiles, engines, and all other technical equipment. It executes these functions through a network of Base Repair Depots and Equipment Depots, ensuring the sustained operational readiness and technical airworthiness of the entire IAF fleet.
106Science and Technology
The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly maneuverable fast attack craft INS Tihayu. INS Tihayu would be based in
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Answer: (C) Visakhapatnam
Explanation
INS Tihayu, a follow-on Water Jet Fast Attack Craft (WJFAC) of the Car Nicobar class, was formally commissioned into the Indian Navy on October 19, 2016. The commissioning ceremony took place at the Naval Dockyard in Visakhapatnam, which serves as its home port. Operating under the administrative and operational control of the Eastern Naval Command, the ship is specifically deployed for coastal surveillance, anti-smuggling, and fishery protection operations along the eastern coast of India. Built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, the vessel is named after Tihayu island in the Nicobar archipelago and is designed for high-speed interception and patrol in shallow waters.
107Economy
Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in June 2016?
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Answer: (A) Multi-brand retailing
Explanation
The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy reforms announced by the Government of India in June 2016 were designed to liberalise regulations across several key sectors to enhance ease of doing business and encourage capital inflows. These reforms introduced significant changes to sectors such as defence, private security agencies, pharmaceuticals, and civil aviation. However, the policy governing multi-brand retail trading was not included in this liberalisation package and remained unchanged. The existing framework for multi-brand retail, which permits up to 51 percent FDI through the government approval route subject to specific conditions, had been in place since 2012 and was not modified by the June 2016 executive decisions. The retail-centric changes in that update primarily focused on single-brand retail sourcing norms and allowing 100 percent FDI in the trading of food products produced or manufactured in India.
108Economy
BREXIT refers to the Great Britain leaving which one of the following?
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Answer: (D) European Union
Explanation
Brexit is a portmanteau of the words British and exit, coined to describe the United Kingdom's withdrawal from the European Union. This process was initiated following a national referendum held on June 23, 2016, in which a majority of the electorate voted in favor of leaving the political and economic union. The European Union is a unique partnership between European countries that allows for the free movement of goods, services, capital, and people across its member states. On March 29, 2017, the UK government formally triggered Article 50 of the Treaty on European Union, setting the legal framework for the departure.
109Science and Technology
In which one of the following cities are the Summer Olympics, 2020 going to be held?
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Answer: (C) Tokyo
Explanation
The International Olympic Committee (IOC) announced Tokyo as the host city for the 2020 Summer Olympics during its 125th session in Buenos Aires on September 7, 2013. Tokyo's successful bid made it the first city in Asia to host the Summer Games twice, having previously hosted them in 1964. The city's preparation plans focused on using existing venues and constructing new facilities to promote sustainable urban development and technological innovation.
110Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the President of Republic of the Union of Myanmar?
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Answer: (B) Htin Kyaw
Explanation
Htin Kyaw served as the 9th President of Myanmar from 30 March 2016 until his resignation on 21 March 2018. He was the first elected civilian president of the country in over five decades, following the military rule that began in 1962. After the National League for Democracy won a landslide victory in the 2015 general elections, he was nominated for the presidency and subsequently elected by the Assembly of the Union (Pyidaungsu Hluttaw) in March 2016, receiving 360 out of 652 votes from the parliamentarians.
111History
Statement I:
The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.
Statement II:
The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is true because the Coercive Acts of 1774, referred to by the colonists as the Intolerable Acts, were a series of punitive measures designed to punish Massachusetts for the Boston Tea Party. By closing the Port of Boston, suspending the colonial charter, and allowing British officials to be tried in England, these acts eliminated the middle ground for negotiation and directly led to the convening of the First Continental Congress, making a peaceful reconciliation between Britain and the colonies virtually impossible. Statement II is also true because the British Parliament repealed the Stamp Act in 1766, only a year after its passage, in response to widespread colonial protests and economic pressure from British merchants affected by American boycotts. Although both statements are historically accurate and relate to the pre-revolutionary period, the repeal of the Stamp Act in 1766 is not the reason or explanation for why the Coercive Acts of 1774 made reconciliation impossible.
112History
Statement I:
The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the scheduled castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate.
Statement II:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
The Poona Pact, signed in September 1932, replaced the separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with reserved seats within a joint electorate. This agreement significantly increased the number of reserved seats in provincial legislatures to 148 (often cited as approximately 151 in certain historical contexts) from the 71 seats originally proposed in the Communal Award.
Statement II is false because Dr. B.R. Ambedkar remained deeply involved in active politics during the decade following the Poona Pact. He founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936, which contested the 1937 provincial elections, and later established the Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942. Furthermore, he served as a member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council as the Labour Member from 1942 to 1946, demonstrating his continuous political engagement.
113History
Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar's demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.
Explanation
The All India Depressed Classes Association, led by M. C. Rajah, was fundamentally opposed to the demand for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes. Unlike Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, who viewed separate electorates as a necessary safeguard for political representation, M. C. Rajah and the Association advocated for joint electorates with reserved seats. This position was formally consolidated in the Rajah-Moonje Pact of 1932, where Rajah reached an agreement with B. S. Moonje of the Hindu Mahasabha to accept joint electorates. This stance created a significant political divide between the Association and Ambedkar's movement, as the Association sought to maintain political integration within the broader Hindu community rather than pursuing the electoral separation that Ambedkar demanded at the Round Table Conferences.
114History
Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?
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Answer: (D) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.
Explanation
The Justice Party, formally known as the South Indian Liberal Federation, was established to represent the interests of non-Brahmins and maintained a stance of cooperation with the British administration to achieve its goals. Consequently, the party was fundamentally opposed to the Indian National Congress and its methods of agitation. When the Congress called for a boycott of the 1920 elections as part of the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Justice Party explicitly rejected this call. Instead, the party participated in the elections held under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms to secure political power and implement communal representation in government services. They won a significant majority in the Madras Legislative Council and formed the first ministry in the Madras Presidency, marking a major shift in the region's political landscape.
115History
The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by
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Answer: (B) Alexander Reed
Explanation
Captain Alexander Read first introduced the Ryotwari system on an experimental basis in the Baramahal district of the Madras Presidency in 1792. Under this settlement, the government established a direct relationship with the individual cultivators, known as ryots, for the collection of land revenue. The state recognized the ryot as the proprietor of the land, granting them the right to sublet, mortgage, or transfer the land as long as the land tax was paid regularly. This decentralized approach aimed to bypass intermediaries like zamindars and ensure a more stable source of income for the British East India Company. This experimental phase laid the groundwork for the permanent implementation of the Ryotwari system across the Madras and Bombay Presidencies in the early 19th century.
116Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.
2. The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.
3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning it is not enforceable in a court of law; its provisions cannot be the basis for a lawsuit or a source of substantive power for the government. It explicitly outlines the core objectives that the Constitution aims to achieve, such as securing justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens, and promoting fraternity. Furthermore, the opening phrase We, the People of India clearly establishes that the ultimate source of authority for the Constitution resides with the people of India themselves, rather than any external or historical sovereign. Together, these elements define the Preamble as the key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution, reflecting its underlying philosophy and basic structure.
117Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.
Explanation
Article 30(2) of the Indian Constitution expressly provides that the State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language. There is no constitutional provision that permits or mandates the State to discriminate against an educational institution on the grounds that it is managed by a majority community. Such a practice would violate the fundamental principle of equality and the spirit of Articles 29 and 30, which are designed to protect the rights of sections of citizens to maintain their distinct identity without facing state-sponsored prejudice in financial assistance.
118Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.
Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy are intended to create a socialistic pattern of society and a Welfare State, which is fundamentally different from the objective of making India an advanced capitalist country. The core philosophy of Part IV of the Constitution is to promote social and economic democracy by ensuring that the State strives to minimize inequalities in income, status, and opportunities among individuals and groups. Article 39 specifically directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed to serve the common good and to prevent the concentration of wealth and means of production, goals that are inherently aligned with welfare and distributive justice rather than the promotion of an advanced capitalist framework.
119Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice President of India?
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Answer: (A) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.
Explanation
According to Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. This electoral college includes both the elected and the nominated members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. In contrast, the electoral college for the President of India is restricted to only the elected members of Parliament and the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Since the statement wrongly limits the participants to only the elected members of the Houses of Parliament, it contradicts the constitutional provision that grants nominated members the right to vote in the Vice Presidential election.
120Polity and Governance
Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India?
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Answer: (A) The Supreme Court of India
Explanation
Article 71 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in this matter is exclusive and its decision is final. Furthermore, the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, outlines the procedures for filing election petitions, which can only be heard by a bench of the Supreme Court consisting of five judges. If the Supreme Court declares the election of a person as President or Vice President void, acts done by that person in the exercise of their official duties before the date of the decision remain valid and are not invalidated by the court's declaration.