Statement I : Typical laterite soils in India are generally fertile.
Statement II : Laterite soils generally experience leaching.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Explanation
Laterite soils are formed in tropical and subtropical regions with high temperature and heavy seasonal rainfall. The intense rainfall leads to the process of leaching, where soluble nutrients like silica and lime are washed away from the topsoil, leaving behind an accumulation of iron and aluminum oxides. Because of this extreme leaching, laterite soils are typically deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and organic matter. This makes them naturally infertile and unsuitable for most agriculture unless they are treated with heavy doses of fertilizers and manures. While they are used for growing crops like cashew nuts, rubber, and tea after supplementation, their inherent state is characterized by low fertility.
2Geography
Statement I : Southern part of France is famous for wine making industry.
Statement II : Southern part of France produces a variety of fruits due to Mediterranean climate.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The Southern part of France, encompassing regions such as Provence and Languedoc-Roussillon, is characterized by a Mediterranean climate. This climate type features hot, dry summers and mild, moist winters, which provide optimal conditions for the growth of citrus fruits, olives, and particularly grapes. Since grapes are the primary raw material for viticulture, the abundance and variety of fruit production directly facilitate the establishment of a robust wine-making industry. The high solar radiation and specific temperature regimes of the Mediterranean coast ensure the necessary sugar content and ripening required for quality wine production, making the climatic suitability for fruit the fundamental reason for the region's industrial specialization in wine.
3History
Statement I : Kali age reflects the presence of deep social crisis characterized by varnasankara i.e., intermixture of varnas or social orders.
Statement II : The vaisyas and sudras (peasants, artisans and labourers) either refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes or supply necessary labour for economic production resulting in weakening of Brahminical social order and social tension.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The description of the Kali age in the Puranas signifies a period of acute social crisis, primarily characterized by varnasankara, which refers to the blurring of lines and intermixture between different social orders. This crisis emerged during the late third and early fourth centuries AD. The root cause of this instability was the refusal of the Vaishyas and Shudras to adhere to their prescribed roles; the Vaishyas stopped paying taxes and the Shudras refused to provide labor. This disrupted the revenue system and the agricultural production that supported the ruling and priestly classes. Consequently, the Brahmanical social order faced a severe threat, leading to social tension and the breakdown of traditional varna boundaries, which explains the occurrence of varnasankara during this epoch.
4History
Statement I : The social institutions of caste in India underwent major changes in the colonial period.
Statement II : Caste, in contemporary society is more a product of ancient Indian tradition than of colonialism.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
The British colonial administration significantly transformed the caste system in India through administrative tools such as the Decennial Census, which began in the late 19th century. By attempting to classify and rank thousands of jati groups into a rigid, pan-Indian varna hierarchy for governance and legal purposes, the colonial state formalized and fixed what was previously a relatively fluid and localized social structure. This institutionalization encouraged the formation of caste-based associations and increased caste consciousness. While caste has ancient roots, scholars like Nicholas Dirks and Bernard Cohn argue that the contemporary manifestation of caste is largely a product of the colonial encounter rather than a simple continuation of ancient tradition. The British prioritized caste as the primary category for administrative and political representation, fundamentally altering its nature from a ritual status into a modern political identity.
5History
Statement I : The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the Indian Working Class Movement.
Statement II : The Non-Cooperation Movement (1921- 22) saw the involvement of the Indian Working Class.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The Russian Revolution of 1917 served as a major catalyst for the Indian labor movement by demonstrating the potential political power of the working class and popularizing socialist ideologies. This external influence directly contributed to the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920, which sought to organize workers on a national scale and link their economic grievances with the struggle for independence. During the same period, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22) led by Mahatma Gandhi saw significant mobilization of the Indian working class, characterized by a massive wave of strikes in industrial centers like Bombay and Bengal. Workers integrated their demands for better wages and conditions with the broader nationalist call for Swaraj. While both statements accurately describe the growth and activity of the working class in the early 20th century, the participation of workers in the Non-Cooperation Movement is a manifestation of their rising activism rather than the reason why the Russian Revolution inspired them.
6History
Statement I : In India tribal movements of nineteenth century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws. Statement II : The Indian national movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
The tribal movements of the nineteenth century were primarily triggered by the British colonial administration's encroachment into historically autonomous tribal regions. The introduction of new land revenue systems disrupted traditional communal landholding patterns, leading to widespread land displacement as tribal lands were seized by moneylenders and contractors, often referred to as Dikus. Furthermore, the enactment of the Forest Acts of 1865 and 1878 imposed state control over forest tracts, stripping tribal communities of their customary rights to gather forest produce and graze livestock, which were central to their subsistence. These factors led to major uprisings such as the Santhal rebellion and the Munda Ulgulan. Conversely, while the Indian national movement eventually incorporated tribal participation, it did not resolve the core problems faced by these communities. The movement was largely focused on political independence and constitutional reforms, leaving the deep-seated issues of land alienation and forest rights largely unaddressed throughout the colonial period.
7History
Statement I : The economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin under English East India Company.
Statement II : English East India Company's acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The 19th century witnessed the systematic de-industrialization and impoverishment of India as the British transitioned from traders to rulers. The acquisition of Diwani rights in 1765 granted the East India Company the authority to collect land revenue, which they maximized to fund their conquests and purchase Indian goods for export, creating a one-way drain of wealth. This high revenue demand led to widespread dispossession and misery among the peasantry. Simultaneously, the Company's trade policies and the influx of cheap, machine-made British textiles under a regime of one-way free trade crushed the traditional Indian handicraft industry, which had previously been a cornerstone of the global economy. These structural changes under Company rule were the fundamental drivers that brought the Indian economy to a state of ruin throughout the 19th century.
8Geography
In soil, water that is readily available to plant roots is :
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Answer: (B) capillary water
Explanation
Capillary water is the water held in the small pores of the soil by surface tension and adhesive forces against the downward pull of gravity. It exists as a liquid film surrounding soil particles and filling the narrow spaces between them. This form of water is the primary source of moisture for plants because it is held at a tension level that roots can successfully overcome to absorb water. It remains available in the soil after gravitational water has drained away and is found in the range between field capacity and the permanent wilting point, ensuring a consistent supply of hydration for plant growth.
9Science and Technology
Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the presence of :
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Answer: (B) Heparin
Explanation
Heparin is a naturally occurring anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils in the human body. Its primary function is to prevent the formation of blood clots within the circulatory system by interfering with the coagulation cascade. Specifically, heparin binds to and activates antithrombin III, which then inactivates several enzymes in the clotting process, most notably thrombin and Factor Xa. By preventing the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin and subsequently inhibiting the transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin, heparin ensures that blood remains in a fluid state while moving through the blood vessels.
10Geography
Which one among the following is responsible for formation of 'Ozone Holes' in the stratosphere ?
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Answer: (C) Chlorofluorocarbons
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the primary anthropogenic compounds responsible for the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer. Once released into the atmosphere, these stable compounds eventually migrate to the stratosphere, where they are broken down by intense solar ultraviolet radiation. This photodissociation process releases free chlorine atoms, which act as catalysts in a destructive chemical cycle. A single chlorine atom reacts with an ozone molecule (O₃) to produce chlorine monoxide (ClO) and molecular oxygen (O₂). The chlorine monoxide then reacts with free oxygen atoms to regenerate the chlorine atom, allowing the cycle to repeat tens of thousands of times. This efficient catalytic destruction significantly reduces the concentration of ozone, leading to the formation of the ozone hole, most prominently observed over Antarctica.
11Economy
Which one among the following groups of items contains only biodegradable items ?
Biodegradable substances are those that can be broken down into simpler, non-toxic components by the action of microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi through natural processes. Cow-dung is an organic animal waste that decomposes rapidly into manure. Paddy-husk is the fibrous outer covering of rice grains, consisting primarily of cellulose and lignin, which are natural plant polymers that degrade over time. Vegetable wastes are organic plant tissues that are highly susceptible to microbial decomposition. All three items in this group are organic materials that reintegrate into the nutrient cycle of the ecosystem without causing environmental persistence or pollution.
12Science and Technology
Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA ?
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Answer: (D) Mitochondria
Explanation
Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles that possess their own genetic material, known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA, in addition to their own ribosomes. This circular DNA molecule carries genes that are essential for the organelle's function, specifically for the synthesis of proteins involved in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation. The presence of independent DNA allows mitochondria to replicate through a process similar to bacterial fission, independent of the cell cycle. This characteristic is a central component of the endosymbiotic theory, which suggests that mitochondria originated from free-living prokaryotes that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells. While the bulk of the cell's genetic information is housed in the nucleus, the mitochondrial genome is vital for energy production and is typically inherited maternally in humans.
13Science and Technology
Which one among the following groups of animals maintains constant body temperature in changing environmental conditions ?
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Answer: (A) Birds
Explanation
Birds are homeothermic organisms, commonly referred to as warm-blooded, which means they maintain a constant internal body temperature independent of the surrounding environment. This thermal stability is achieved through endothermy, where internal metabolic processes generate the necessary heat to sustain physiological functions. High metabolic rates, coupled with insulating structures like feathers and specialized respiratory systems, allow birds to regulate their temperature effectively even in extreme climates. This physiological adaptation ensures that enzymatic activities and metabolic pathways remain efficient regardless of external temperature fluctuations.
14Economy
A person feeds on rice and vegetable made up of potato only. He is likely to suffer from deficiency of :
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Answer: (D) Proteins and fats
Explanation
Rice and potatoes are both primarily composed of complex carbohydrates, specifically starch, which provides energy but lacks other essential macronutrients. Rice contains very small amounts of protein and is almost devoid of fats, while potatoes are similarly high in carbohydrates and extremely low in both protein and lipid content.
A balanced diet requires an adequate intake of proteins for body building, tissue repair, and enzyme production, along with fats for energy storage, cell membrane integrity, and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Since this specific diet relies solely on starchy staples without including pulses, legumes, meat, dairy, or oils, the individual will face a significant deficit in essential amino acids and fatty acids, leading to deficiencies in proteins and fats.
15Science and Technology
Vaseline was applied to both surfaces of the leaves of a plant. Which of the following process/processes would be affected ?
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Transpiration
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Vaseline is a greasy, petroleum-based substance that is impermeable to both air and water. When applied to both the upper and lower surfaces of a leaf, it creates a physical barrier that completely blocks the stomata, which are the microscopic pores responsible for gas exchange and transpiration. Photosynthesis is affected because the plant can no longer take in the CO₂ required for the Calvin cycle. Respiration is affected because the exchange of O₂ and CO₂ between the plant tissues and the atmosphere is restricted. Transpiration is affected because the water vapor that normally evaporates from the internal tissues of the leaf through the stomata is trapped behind the Vaseline layer. Therefore, the cessation of gaseous exchange and water vapor loss impacts all three physiological processes.
16Science and Technology
By what mechanism does scent spread all over the room if the lid is opened ?
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Answer: (C) Diffusion
Explanation
Diffusion is the process by which particles move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration due to their inherent kinetic energy. Inside a scent bottle, the aromatic molecules are highly concentrated. Once the lid is opened, these volatile molecules escape and move spontaneously into the surrounding air, where their concentration is significantly lower. Through constant random motion and collisions with air molecules, the scent particles spread throughout the available space until they are more uniformly distributed. This movement down the concentration gradient allows the scent to be detected at a distance from the original source without the need for external force or bulk flow of the medium.
17Science and Technology
What type of mixture is smoke ?
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Answer: (A) Solid mixed with a gas
Explanation
Smoke is a colloidal system known as a solid aerosol, where the dispersed phase consists of fine solid particles and the dispersion medium is a gas. During the process of incomplete combustion, solid particles such as soot, ash, and unburnt carbon are released into the atmosphere. These minute solid particles remain suspended in the air rather than settling quickly or dissolving, creating the heterogeneous mixture identified as smoke. This classification distinguishes it from other aerosols like fog or mist, where the dispersed phase is liquid.
18Science and Technology
A compound that is a white solid which absorbs water vapour from the air is :
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Answer: (B) Calcium chloride
Explanation
Calcium chloride (CaCl₂) is an inorganic salt that appears as a white solid and possesses strong deliquescent properties. This means it has a high chemical affinity for water and will readily absorb water vapor from the atmosphere. Upon exposure to air, the solid captures enough moisture to eventually dissolve and transform into a liquid brine. Due to this characteristic, it is extensively used as a drying agent or desiccant in laboratory desiccators and industrial gas drying towers to eliminate humidity. It can exist in various hydrated states, but the anhydrous form is most effective at sequestering atmospheric water molecules.
19Science and Technology
What are the elements which are liquids at room temperature and standard pressure ?
1. Helium
2. Mercury
3. Chlorine
4. Bromine
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Mercury (Hg) and Bromine (Br) are the only two elements in the periodic table that are liquids at standard room temperature (25°C) and pressure (1 atm). Mercury is a transition metal with a melting point of -38.83°C. Its liquid state at room temperature is due to relativistic effects that cause the 6s electron shell to contract, making the electrons more strongly attracted to the nucleus and weakening the metallic bonds between mercury atoms. Bromine is a halogen that exists as a diatomic molecule (Br₂) with a melting point of -7.2°C. While lighter halogens like fluorine and chlorine are gases, the larger size of the bromine atom results in stronger intermolecular Van der Waals forces (specifically London dispersion forces) that are sufficient to maintain a liquid state at room temperature.
20Science and Technology
Which one among the following colours has the highest wavelength ?
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Answer: (D) Red
Explanation
In the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum, the different colours of light are arranged in order of increasing wavelength according to the mnemonic VIBGYOR. Red light is positioned at the far end of this spectrum, possessing the longest wavelength which typically ranges from approximately 620 nm to 750 nm. Because wavelength λ is inversely proportional to frequency f and energy E as per the equations c = fλ and E = hf, red light has the highest wavelength and the lowest frequency among the visible colours.
21Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a correct statement ?
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Answer: (D) Hydrogen ions do not contain any proton
Explanation
A hydrogen atom (¹H) consists of one proton and one electron. When this atom ionizes to form a positive hydrogen ion (H⁺), it loses its only electron. This process leaves behind only the nucleus, which in the case of the most common isotope of hydrogen, is a single proton. Therefore, a hydrogen ion (H⁺) is synonymous with a proton in chemistry and physics, contradicting the statement that it does not contain any proton.
22Science and Technology
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
In the above chemical reaction :
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Answer: (D) None of them are oxidized or reduced
Explanation
The reaction NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O is a double displacement reaction, specifically a neutralization reaction between a strong base and a strong acid. To determine if oxidation or reduction occurs, we examine the oxidation states of each element. In the reactants, Sodium (Na) has an oxidation state of +1, Oxygen (O) is -2, Hydrogen (H) is +1 in both compounds, and Chlorine (Cl) is -1. In the products, Sodium in NaCl remains +1, Chlorine remains -1, and in H₂O, Hydrogen remains +1 while Oxygen remains -2. Since the oxidation number of every element remains constant throughout the process, there is no exchange of electrons. Consequently, no element is oxidized or reduced, making it a non-redox reaction.
23Science and Technology
Which element forms the highest number of compounds in the periodic table ?
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Answer: (A) Carbon
Explanation
Carbon exhibits the unique chemical property of catenation, which is the ability to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms to create long chains, branched structures, and rings. This property, coupled with its tetravalency, allows carbon to bond with a wide variety of other elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and halogens in multiple configurations. Consequently, carbon forms millions of known compounds, a number that vastly exceeds the total number of compounds formed by all other elements of the periodic table combined. The diversity and abundance of these molecules are the basis for the entire field of organic chemistry.
24Science and Technology
Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are cleaned by adding detergents to water. Stains are removed because detergent :
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Answer: (A) reduces drastically the surface tension between water and oil
Explanation
Detergents function as surfactants, or surface-active agents, which significantly reduce the interfacial tension between water and oil or grease. Water naturally possesses high surface tension due to strong cohesive forces between its molecules, preventing it from effectively wetting non-polar substances like oils. Detergent molecules are amphiphilic, containing a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. When added to water, the hydrophobic tails embed themselves into the grease or oil stains, while the hydrophilic heads remain in the water. This orientation at the interface breaks the surface tension of the water, allowing it to penetrate the fabric and emulsify the oil into tiny droplets called micelles. These droplets are then easily lifted from the cloth and suspended in the water to be washed away.
25Science and Technology
Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is :
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Answer: (C) simple harmonic and time period is independent of the density of the liquid
Explanation
Consider a U-tube of uniform cross-sectional area A containing a liquid column of total length L and density ρ. If the liquid is depressed by a distance y in one limb, it rises by y in the other, creating a height difference of 2y. The restoring force F is provided by the weight of this unbalanced liquid column, expressed as F = -(A · 2y · ρ · g). The total mass of the liquid column is m = A · L · ρ. Applying Newton second law, F = ma, we get:
(A · L · ρ) · a = -2 A ρ g y
Simplifying this expression gives the acceleration a = -(2g/L)y. This equation is in the form a = -ω²y, which defines simple harmonic motion where the angular frequency ω = √(2g/L). The time period T is calculated as:
T = 2π/ω = 2π √(L/2g)
The resulting formula for the time period T depends only on the length of the liquid column L and the acceleration due to gravity g. Because the density ρ cancels out during the derivation, the time period of the oscillation is independent of the density of the liquid used in the U-tube.
26Science and Technology
A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If all the colours are reflected the surface would appear :
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Answer: (B) White
Explanation
The perception of color in an object is determined by the wavelengths of light it reflects toward the observer. White light consists of all the colors of the visible spectrum, ranging from violet to red. When a ray of white light strikes a surface and all its constituent colors are reflected equally without any specific wavelength being absorbed, the human eye perceives the combined reflection as white. This complete reflection of the visible spectrum ensures that the light reaching the eye maintains the same composition as the incident white light.
27Science and Technology
Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come under the category of :
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Answer: (A) non contact forces
Explanation
Magnetic, electrostatic, and gravitational forces are categorized as non-contact forces because they act upon objects without requiring physical contact. These forces are mediated through fields that permeate space. Gravitational force acts between any two masses, such as the Earth and the Moon, across empty space. Electrostatic force exists between stationary electric charges, while magnetic force occurs between magnetic poles or moving charges. Because these interactions occur across a distance and do not depend on the surfaces of the objects touching, they are fundamentally distinct from contact-based interactions.
28Science and Technology
Dispersion process forms spectrum due to white light falling on a prism. The light wave with shortest wavelength :
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Answer: (A) refracts the most
Explanation
Dispersion in a prism occurs because the refractive index of the glass depends on the wavelength of the light passing through it. According to Cauchy's equation, n(λ) = A + B/λ² + C/λ⁴ + ..., where n is the refractive index and λ is the wavelength. This relationship shows that the refractive index is inversely proportional to the wavelength; therefore, shorter wavelengths experience a higher refractive index than longer wavelengths.
When light enters the prism, the degree of bending or deviation δ is determined by the refractive index. For a prism with a small apex angle A, the deviation is approximately δ ≈ (n-1)A. Since the shortest wavelength (such as violet light in the visible spectrum) encounters the highest refractive index, it undergoes the greatest change in speed and the largest angle of deviation. Consequently, the light wave with the shortest wavelength refracts the most as it passes through the prism.
29Science and Technology
The main source of energy in Sun is :
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Answer: (A) Nuclear fusion
Explanation
The Sun generates its energy through nuclear fusion, primarily via the proton-proton chain reaction. In the extreme heat and pressure of the solar core, hydrogen nuclei (protons) fuse together to form helium nuclei. During this process, the total mass of the resulting helium nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of the individual protons that formed it. This mass defect is converted into a tremendous amount of energy in the form of gamma rays and neutrinos, according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence formula E = mc². This continuous release of energy maintains the Sun's temperature and provides the outward thermal pressure required to balance the inward pull of gravity.
30Science and Technology
A liquid initially contracts when cooled down to 4°C but on further cooling down to 0°C , it expands. The liquid is :
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Answer: (B) Water
Explanation
Water exhibits a unique physical property known as anomalous expansion. Most liquids contract continuously as they are cooled, but water only contracts until it reaches 4°C, where it attains its maximum density and minimum volume. When cooled further from 4°C down to 0°C, water begins to expand and its density decreases. This occurs because water molecules start to form a more ordered, open hexagonal crystalline structure via hydrogen bonding as they approach the freezing point. This lattice structure occupies more volume than the liquid state at 4°C, causing the liquid to expand before it eventually turns into ice. This property ensures that the densest water settles at the bottom of water bodies in cold climates, allowing aquatic life to survive beneath the surface ice.
31Science and Technology
Satellite having the same orbital period as the period of rotation of the Earth about its own axis is known as :
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Answer: (C) Geostationary satellite
Explanation
A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth at an altitude of approximately 35,786 kilometers in a circular path directly above the equator. The orbital period of such a satellite is synchronized to match the Earth's sidereal rotation period of roughly 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds. Because the satellite's angular velocity is equal to the Earth's angular velocity and it orbits in the same direction as the Earth rotates, it remains stationary relative to a fixed point on the Earth's surface. This unique orbital configuration allows the satellite to provide continuous coverage over a specific geographic area, which is essential for telecommunications, satellite television broadcasting, and meteorological observations.
32Geography
Consider the following sanctuaries of India :
1. Periyar
2. Dachigam
3. Sariska
4. Kanha
Which one among the following is the correct sequence of location of the above sanctuaries from south to north ?
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Answer: (C) 1-4-3-2
Explanation
Periyar National Park is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala at approximately 9.4 degrees N latitude. Kanha National Park is situated in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh at approximately 22.3 degrees N latitude. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan at approximately 27.3 degrees N latitude. Dachigam National Park is located in the Zabarwan Range of the Himalayas in Jammu and Kashmir at approximately 34.1 degrees N latitude. Arranging these based on their latitudinal positions from the equator moving towards the north pole results in the sequence Periyar, Kanha, Sariska, and Dachigam.
33Geography
Which one among the following African countries is not landlocked ?
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Answer: (C) Angola
Explanation
Angola is a coastal nation situated in Southwestern Africa with an extensive western border along the Atlantic Ocean. Its coastline stretches for approximately 1,600 kilometers, providing the country with direct maritime access and major international ports such as Luanda, Lobito, and Namibe. While it shares land borders with Namibia, Zambia, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo, its western boundary is entirely maritime, which prevents it from being classified as landlocked.
34Economy
Which one among the following is a tertiary activity ?
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Answer: (D) Trading
Explanation
Tertiary activities encompass a wide range of services that facilitate the distribution and exchange of goods rather than the production of physical commodities. Trading is a core component of the tertiary sector as it involves the commercial exchange of goods and services through wholesale and retail channels. It acts as a bridge between producers and consumers, providing the necessary infrastructure for commerce and business transactions. In economic classification, such service-oriented activities are categorized as tertiary because they provide utility and value through expertise, logistics, and management.
35Geography
Chinook is a :
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Answer: (C) warm wind in North America
Explanation
Chinook is a warm, dry, gusty wind that blows down the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in North America, primarily affecting parts of the United States and Canada. It is a type of Foehn wind that forms when moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced over the mountains; the air loses its moisture through precipitation on the windward side and kemudian warms adiabatically as it descends the leeward side. Known as the snow-eater, a Chinook can cause dramatic temperature increases of 20 degrees Celsius or more within a few hours, leading to the rapid melting and sublimation of snow during the winter and early spring seasons.
36Geography
The humidity of air measured in percentage is called :
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Answer: (C) relative humidity
Explanation
Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the actual mass of water vapor present in a given volume of air to the maximum mass of water vapor that the same volume of air can hold at the same temperature. Mathematically, it is expressed as RH = e/eₛ × 100, where e represents the actual vapor pressure and eₛ represents the saturation vapor pressure. Because it is a ratio of two similar quantities, it is a dimensionless number that is conventionally multiplied by 100 to be stated as a percentage. This percentage indicates how close the air is to saturation; for instance, a relative humidity of 100 percent signifies that the air is fully saturated and cannot hold any additional moisture at that specific temperature.
37Geography
Cordillera in North America is a :
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Answer: (D) mountain system
Explanation
The North American Cordillera is a vast and complex system of mountain ranges, intermontane basins, and plateaus that forms the western backbone of the continent. It extends from the Brooks Range in Alaska and the Yukon through the Rocky Mountains and the Pacific Coast Ranges down to the Sierra Madre in Mexico. The system was primarily formed by tectonic processes involving the subduction of oceanic plates beneath the North American Plate, leading to significant folding, faulting, and volcanic activity over millions of years. The term cordillera, derived from the Spanish word for rope or chain, aptly describes this extensive series of interconnected mountain belts that dominate the physical geography of western North America.
38Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I List II (Industrial production) (Place of production)
A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram
B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
C. Chikkan Embroidery 3. Moradabad
D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Brassware is synonymous with Moradabad in Uttar Pradesh, which is globally recognized as the Pital Nagri or Brass City for its extensive production and export of brass handicrafts.
Silk Sarees are the hallmark of Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu, where the traditional weaving industry produces high-quality silk garments known for their durability and heavy gold zari borders.
Chikkan Embroidery is a world-renowned hand-embroidery style centered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, featuring delicate and artistic threadwork traditionally done on muslin and other fine fabrics.
Sports Goods are primarily manufactured in Jalandhar, Punjab, which serves as one of India's largest industrial hubs for the production of equipment for cricket, hockey, and various other sports.
39Geography
Composite volcanic cone is also called strata cone because of the :
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Answer: (A) alternating sheets of lava and pyroclastic materials
Explanation
Composite volcanoes are designated as stratovolcanoes because their internal architecture is defined by distinct layers, or strata, accumulated over many eruptive cycles. This stratified structure is the result of alternating phases of volcanic activity. During effusive stages, thick and viscous lava flows out and solidifies into sheets. During explosive stages, the volcano ejects pyroclastic materials such as ash, cinders, and volcanic bombs, which settle on top of the previous lava flows. The repeated deposition of these contrasting materials—solidified lava and fragmented pyroclastic debris—creates the layered composition that gives the landform its name and its characteristic steep-sided, conical profile.
40Geography
Why is Himalayan region poor in mineral resources ?
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Answer: (B) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the arrangement of rocks and made it complex
Explanation
The Himalayan mountain system is the result of intense tectonic activity involving the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates. This ongoing orogeny has caused extensive folding, faulting, and the development of complex thrust sheets. Such massive displacement of rock strata has fundamentally disturbed the geological arrangement and continuity of mineral-bearing layers. In a stable geological environment like the Peninsular Plateau, mineral veins and beds are relatively continuous and predictable; however, in the Himalayas, the extreme deformation has fragmented and scattered these deposits. This structural complexity and the shattered nature of the rock formations prevent the concentration of minerals into large, commercially viable belts, rendering the region geologically poor in accessible mineral resources.
41Geography
Albedo effect would be relatively higher in :
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Answer: (A) early morning and late evening
Explanation
Albedo is defined as the measure of the reflectivity of a surface, expressed as the ratio of reflected solar radiation to the total incident solar radiation. For a given surface, especially water bodies and many natural terrains, the albedo is not constant but varies with the solar zenith angle. When the Sun is near the horizon during the early morning and late evening, the angle of incidence is high. At these grazing angles, a significantly larger fraction of the incoming solar radiation is reflected back into the atmosphere through specular reflection rather than being absorbed. As the solar elevation decreases, the surface becomes more reflective, leading to a relatively higher albedo during these transition periods compared to the middle of the day when the Sun is at its zenith and the radiation is absorbed more efficiently.
42Geography
Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills marks the origin of the river :
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Answer: (C) Narmada
Explanation
The Narmada River originates from the Narmada Kund, located on the Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh. Situated at an elevation of approximately 1,057 meters above sea level, this plateau acts as a major watershed in central India. From its source at Amarkantak, the river flows westward through a structural rift valley formed between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges before eventually emptying into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
43Geography
Which one among the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Places having same longitude experience solar noon at different times
Explanation
Solar noon is the moment when the Sun reaches its highest point in the sky relative to a specific observer on Earth. This occurs when a particular meridian of longitude is directly facing the Sun. Because a meridian is a north-south line connecting all points at the same longitude from pole to pole, every location along that specific line passes under the Sun at the exact same moment during the Earth's rotation. Consequently, all places sharing the same longitude experience solar noon simultaneously, regardless of their latitude. The assertion that places with the same longitude experience solar noon at different times contradicts the fundamental relationship between Earth's rotation and the longitudinal coordinate system.
44Geography
Oil is found in petroliferous rock. Which one among the following structures demonstrates an ideal trap ?
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Answer: (D) Anticlinal structure
Explanation
An anticlinal structure is a primary structural trap where rock layers are folded upward into an arch. It is considered an ideal trap because it provides geometric closure that captures and contains migrating hydrocarbons. Within this structure, a porous and permeable reservoir rock is situated beneath an impermeable seal or cap rock. Due to buoyancy, oil and gas migrate upward through the reservoir rock and accumulate at the highest point, or the crest, of the arch. This configuration effectively prevents the further movement of petroleum, leading to the formation of a concentrated and commercially viable oil pool.
45Economy
Which one among the following may be considered a reason for India having 'high dependency' ratio ?
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Answer: (B) Large section of population is in the age group of 0-14 years
Explanation
The dependency ratio is a demographic measure used to indicate the economic burden on the productive part of the population. It is defined as the ratio of the dependent population, which includes children aged 0-14 and the elderly aged 60 and above, to the working-age population aged 15-59. The formula is expressed as:
Dependency Ratio = (Population (0-14) + Population (60+))/(Population (15-59)) × 100
India has historically experienced a high dependency ratio primarily due to its youthful age structure. A large proportion of the population falling into the 0-14 age group, known as child dependency, increases the numerator of the ratio. This demographic characteristic is a result of high fertility rates in preceding decades, leading to a population pyramid with a broad base. Because individuals under 14 years are economically inactive and rely on the working-age population for resources, education, and healthcare, their high numbers significantly elevate the overall dependency ratio of the country.
46Geography
Which of the following statements about Nathu la Pass are correct ?
1. It links Sikkim with Tibet
2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route
3. It was reopened in the year 2006
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Nathu La Pass is a strategic mountain pass located in the Himalayas at an altitude of approximately 4,310 meters, directly connecting the Indian state of Sikkim with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Historically, it served as a vital offshoot and main artery of the ancient Silk Route, acting as a primary conduit for trade and cultural exchange between India and Central Asia for centuries. Following the Sino-Indian War in 1962, the pass was closed and remained inactive for over four decades. It was officially reopened for cross-border trade on July 6, 2006, after a series of bilateral agreements aimed at strengthening economic ties and regional cooperation between the two nations. Currently, it is one of the three functional border trade posts between India and China.
47Geography
Red soil colour is caused by :
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Answer: (C) Iron compounds
Explanation
Red soil derives its characteristic reddish hue from the high concentration and wide diffusion of iron oxides within crystalline and metamorphic rocks. The presence of ferric oxides, primarily hematite (Fe₂O₃), is the fundamental cause of this distinct coloration. These soils typically develop through the weathering of ancient igneous rocks that are rich in iron-bearing minerals like biotite and hornblende. While the soil appears red in its normal state due to the oxidation of iron, it can appear yellow when it exists in a hydrated form, such as limonite (FeO(OH)·nH₂O).
48Geography
Mid-latitude cyclones :
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Answer: (D) are formed in regions of strong temperature contrasts
Explanation
Mid-latitude cyclones, also known as extratropical or frontal cyclones, originate along the polar front where there is a significant clash between contrasting air masses. They are primarily driven by baroclinic instability, which occurs in regions with strong horizontal temperature gradients, typically where cold polar air meets warm tropical air. This temperature difference provides the potential energy required for the cyclone to develop and intensify. As the warm and cold air masses interact, they create fronts and a center of low atmospheric pressure, leading to the cyclonic circulation characteristic of weather systems in the temperate zones between 30° and 60° latitude.
49Geography
The Westerlies have their origin in the :
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Answer: (B) Subtropical highs
Explanation
The Westerlies are prevailing planetary winds that originate in the Subtropical High Pressure Belts, also known as the Horse Latitudes, located approximately between 30° and 35° North and South latitudes. These winds blow poleward toward the Subpolar Low Pressure Belts. As air subsides at the subtropical highs, it creates a high-pressure zone from which air moves toward the lower pressure areas at higher latitudes. The Coriolis effect deflects this poleward-moving air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, resulting in a dominant wind flow from the west toward the east.
50Geography
The Circle of illumination divides Earth into two hemispheres known as :
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Answer: (C) Day and Night
Explanation
The Circle of Illumination is the great circle that marks the division between the portion of the Earth receiving sunlight and the portion in shadow. As the Earth is a spherical body rotating on its axis, only one half can face the Sun at any given moment. This boundary line effectively splits the planet into a hemisphere of light and a hemisphere of darkness. While the circle continuously moves across the surface due to rotation and its angle relative to the poles changes with the seasons, its primary role is to delineate the transition between day and night.
51Geography
Which one among the following States does not form part of the Narmada basin ?
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan
Explanation
The Narmada river basin is confined to the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It covers a total drainage area of 98,796 square kilometers, of which nearly 87 percent lies in Madhya Pradesh, around 11.5 percent in Gujarat, and approximately 1.5 percent in Maharashtra. Rajasthan is not a riparian state, and no portion of its geographical area drains into the Narmada river or its tributaries. While Rajasthan is a partner state in the Sardar Sarovar Project and receives water through the Narmada Main Canal for irrigation in districts like Jalore and Barmer, this involvement is based on a water-sharing agreement rather than the physical presence of the river basin within its borders.
52Geography
Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the rivers from north to south ?
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Answer: (A) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra
Explanation
The Damodar river flows through the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region, positioning it at the northernmost latitude among the given rivers. Moving southward, the Brahmani river is formed in Odisha by the confluence of the South Koel and Sankh rivers, situated south of the Damodar basin. Further south is the Mahanadi river, which originates in the Sihawa highlands of Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to the Bay of Bengal. The Tungabhadra river, a major tributary of the Krishna river, is located significantly further south in the Deccan Plateau, flowing through the states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Consequently, the latitudinal progression from north to south follows the sequence of Damodar, Brahmani, Mahanadi, and Tungabhadra.
53Geography
Which one among the following is a sea without having a coastline ?
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Answer: (B) Sargasso sea
Explanation
The Sargasso Sea is unique among the world's bodies of water as it is the only sea that lacks a terrestrial coastline. It is located entirely within the North Atlantic Ocean and is defined by four prevailing ocean currents: the Gulf Stream to the west, the North Atlantic Current to the north, the Canary Current to the east, and the North Atlantic Equatorial Current to the south. These currents form a clockwise-circulating subtropical gyre, which effectively isolates the sea's waters from the rest of the ocean. This region is characterized by its deep blue color, high salinity, and the presence of vast mats of free-floating brown seaweed called Sargassum, which serves as a vital habitat for various marine species.
54Economy
The production function of a firm will change whenever :
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Answer: (D) the relevant technology changes
Explanation
A production function expresses the technical relationship between physical inputs and the maximum physical output attainable per unit of time, given the state of technology. Mathematically represented as Q = f(L, K, ...), it assumes a constant level of technological knowledge. When the relevant technology changes, the underlying technical relationship is altered, meaning the firm can produce a different level of output from the same combination of inputs. This constitutes a shift or change in the production function itself, rather than a movement along the existing function. Technological advancement typically allows for higher output with the same inputs or the same output with fewer inputs, thereby redefining the function f.
55Economy
If the average total cost is declining then :
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Answer: (A) the marginal cost must be less than the average total cost
Explanation
The relationship between marginal cost (MC) and average total cost (ATC) is governed by the mathematical property of averages. The slope of the ATC curve is given by the derivative of average cost with respect to quantity Q: d/dQ(TC/Q) = 1/Q(MC - ATC). For the average total cost to be declining, the slope of the ATC curve must be negative, which mathematically requires 1/Q(MC - ATC) < 0. Since output Q is always positive, this inequality holds true only when MC < ATC. Intuitively, if the cost of producing one additional unit is lower than the current average cost of all units produced, that additional unit will pull the overall average down. Therefore, as long as the ATC is falling, the MC must be situated below it.
56Economy
In a perfectly competitive economy production and consumption will both be Pareto optimal, if the economy operates at a point where :
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Answer: (A) there is general equilibrium
Explanation
The First Fundamental Theorem of Welfare Economics establishes that a competitive equilibrium leads to a Pareto efficient allocation of resources. Pareto optimality in both production and consumption is achieved at the point of general equilibrium, where all markets clear simultaneously. At this point, the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) for all consumers is equal to the price ratio of the goods, and the Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) for all producers is also equal to that same price ratio. This condition, expressed as MRS = Pₓ/Pᵧ = MRT, ensures that the marginal rate at which consumers are willing to trade one good for another matches the marginal rate at which the economy can transform one good into another. Thus, general equilibrium satisfies the criteria for efficiency in exchange, efficiency in production, and efficiency in the product mix.
57Economy
The average fixed cost curve will always be :
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Answer: (A) a rectangular hyperbola
Explanation
Average Fixed Cost (AFC) is defined as the Total Fixed Cost (TFC) divided by the total units of output produced (Q), represented by the formula AFC = TFC / Q. In economic theory, Total Fixed Cost remains constant regardless of the level of output. As production increases, this constant cost is spread over a larger number of units, causing the average fixed cost to decline continuously. Since the product of output and average fixed cost (AFC × Q = TFC) is always a constant value, the curve represents a rectangular hyperbola. This geometric property ensures that the area of any rectangle formed by a point on the curve and the axes is equal to the constant Total Fixed Cost. The curve approaches both the horizontal and vertical axes asymptotically but never touches them.
58Economy
The income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is :
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Answer: (B) less than zero
Explanation
The income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to a change in the income of consumers. It is calculated using the formula Eᵧ = % ΔQ_d / % ΔY. In the case of inferior goods, there is an inverse relationship between income and demand. As a consumer's income increases, they tend to switch to higher-quality substitutes, leading to a decrease in the quantity demanded of the inferior good. Since the change in income and the change in demand move in opposite directions, the numerator and denominator in the elasticity formula have opposite signs, resulting in a negative coefficient. In economic classification, any good with an income elasticity coefficient of less than zero is defined as an inferior good.
59Economy
The main functioning of the banking system is to :
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Answer: (A) accept deposits and provide credit
Explanation
The banking system primarily functions as a financial intermediary that bridges the gap between surplus units and deficit units in an economy. According to the Banking Regulation Act of 1949, banking is defined as the acceptance of deposits from the public for the purpose of lending or investment. These deposits are repayable on demand or otherwise and can be withdrawn through various instruments like cheques or drafts. By accepting deposits, banks mobilize idle savings and provide a secure avenue for liquidity. Simultaneously, by providing credit, they channel these resources into productive sectors, facilitating capital formation, industrial growth, and personal consumption. This fundamental cycle of deposit mobilization and credit extension allows the banking system to manage the flow of money, create credit through the multiplier effect, and maintain the overall stability of the financial market.
60Economy
Which bank is limited to the needs of agriculture and rural finance ?
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Answer: (B) NABARD
Explanation
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on July 12, 1982, as the apex development financial institution in India with a specialized mandate. It was created to provide and regulate credit and other facilities for the promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts. NABARD acts as the primary agency for providing refinance to various financial institutions that lend to the rural sector and is responsible for policy, planning, and operational aspects relating to credit for agriculture and rural economic activities. Its operations are specifically dedicated to the socio-economic development of rural areas and the strengthening of the rural credit delivery system.
61Economy
The effect of a government surplus upon the equilibrium level of NNP (Net National Product) is substantially the same as :
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Answer: (C) an increase in saving
Explanation
In the Keynesian model of national income determination, the equilibrium level of Net National Product (NNP) is reached when total injections into the circular flow of income equal total leakages. This relationship is expressed by the equation I + G = S + T, where I represents investment, G is government spending, S is private saving, and T is tax revenue. A government surplus occurs when tax revenue exceeds government expenditure (T > G). This surplus acts as a leakage from the income stream, reducing the aggregate demand and the equilibrium level of national income. Since private saving (S) is also a leakage that withdraws potential spending from the circular flow, an increase in saving has a contractionary effect on the equilibrium NNP. Therefore, the macroeconomic impact of running a government surplus is functionally equivalent to an increase in the level of saving, as both represent an increase in total leakages (S + T) that must be offset by injections to maintain a given level of NNP.
62Economy
The value of money varies :
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Answer: (D) inversely with the price level
Explanation
The value of money refers to its purchasing power, which is the quantity of goods and services that a single unit of currency can buy. This concept is fundamentally defined by its relationship with the general price level (P). The value of money (Vₘ) is mathematically expressed as the reciprocal of the price level: Vₘ = 1/P. When the general price level in an economy rises (inflation), the amount of goods and services that can be purchased with the same amount of money decreases, meaning the value of money has declined. Conversely, when the price level falls (deflation), the purchasing power of each unit of currency increases. This demonstrates that the value of money fluctuates in the opposite direction of the price level, confirming an inverse relationship.
63Economy
Corporation tax is imposed by :
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Answer: (B) Central Government
Explanation
Under the Constitution of India, the power to levy corporation tax is vested exclusively in the Central Government. According to the Seventh Schedule, Entry 85 of List I (the Union List) specifically empowers the Union to impose taxes on the income of corporations. This tax is a direct tax levied on the net profits or income earned by both domestic and foreign companies from their operations within the country. While the proceeds of such taxes are part of the divisible pool shared with the states according to the recommendations of the Finance Commission under Article 270, the statutory authority for its imposition and collection remains with the Central Government.
64Economy
The Government of India and Reserve Bank of India have decided to introduce 1 billion pieces of Rs. 10 notes in polymer/ plastic on a field trial basis. Which of the following is/are the objectives behind this move ?
1. Increase of the lifetime of the notes
2. Combating counterfeiting
3. Reducing the cost of minting of currency
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The introduction of polymer or plastic banknotes on a trial basis by the Reserve Bank of India was primarily driven by the superior physical characteristics of the substrate compared to traditional paper. Polymer notes are manufactured from biaxially oriented polypropylene, which provides high resistance to tearing, moisture, and soiling. This physical robustness ensures that the notes remain in circulation for a significantly longer period — often three to five times longer — than standard cotton-based paper notes, which frequently become soiled or mutilated in high-velocity circulation.
Furthermore, the plastic substrate allows for the integration of advanced security features that are difficult to replicate. These include transparent windows, complex holograms, and specialized inks that react differently to light. These features are considerably more difficult for counterfeiters to forge using standard scanning or printing technologies, thereby enhancing the integrity of the currency system. While the initial cost of printing polymer notes is higher than that of paper notes, the objectives of the field trial were centered on durability and the prevention of fake Indian currency notes rather than the immediate reduction of production costs.
65Art and Culture
Which Indian musician has recently been awarded with lifetime achievement Grammy award ?
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Answer: (B) Pt. Ravi Shankar
Explanation
Pandit Ravi Shankar was posthumously honored with the Grammy Lifetime Achievement Award at the 55th Annual Grammy Awards in February 2013. He was the first Indian musician to receive this specific distinction from the Recording Academy, which recognizes performers who have made creative contributions of outstanding artistic significance to the field of recording throughout their careers. The award was announced in December 2012, shortly after the legendary sitar maestro passed away, recognizing his monumental role in introducing Indian classical music to Western audiences and his numerous influential collaborations with international artists. His daughters, Anoushka Shankar and Norah Jones, accepted the award on his behalf during the ceremony in Los Angeles.
66History
Well known film 'Chittagong', directed by Bedabrata Pain, is mainly based on the life of :
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Answer: (A) Subodh Roy
Explanation
The film Chittagong, directed by Bedabrata Pain and released in 2012, is a historical drama that portrays the events of the 1930 Chittagong Armoury Raid. The movie is mainly based on the life and viewpoint of Subodh Roy, often called Jhunku, who was the youngest member of the revolutionary group that challenged British authority in Bengal. The narrative tracks his personal evolution from a conflicted teenager into a determined revolutionary. By focusing on Subodh Roy as the central protagonist, the film explores the motivations and bravery of the youth who participated in the armed struggle for Indian independence.
67Economy
Which of the following factors is/are responsible for recent rapid slowdown of Indian economy despite recovering from the global financial crisis ?
1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal stimulus following the crisis was large
2. Starting in 2011-12, corporate and infrastructure investment started slowing both as a result of investment bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary policy
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The rapid slowdown of the Indian economy starting in 2011-12 was primarily driven by a combination of domestic structural and monetary factors. During this period, the Reserve Bank of India implemented a tighter monetary policy, raising interest rates multiple times to contain persistent inflation. This high interest rate regime increased the cost of capital for the corporate sector, directly impacting investment and expansion. Concurrently, infrastructure and corporate investment faced severe bottlenecks, including delays in regulatory and environmental clearances, land acquisition disputes, and uncertainties regarding the allocation of natural resources like coal. These factors led to a sharp decline in the investment rate and the stalling of numerous large-scale projects. While a large monetary and fiscal stimulus was provided immediately after the 2008 crisis, that stimulus was the mechanism for the initial recovery and growth phase; the subsequent slowdown was a result of the transition toward tightening and the emergence of supply-side constraints rather than the stimulus itself.
68Economy
In India, the price of petroleum products has been deregulated mainly to :
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Answer: (A) reduce the burden of subsidies given to the oil companies
Explanation
The deregulation of petroleum product prices in India was a strategic shift away from the Administered Price Mechanism (APM) to a market-determined pricing system. This policy was primarily driven by the need to alleviate the fiscal pressure on the government caused by the burgeoning subsidy bill. Before deregulation, the government provided substantial financial support to state-run Oil Marketing Companies to cover the gap between international crude oil costs and domestic retail prices, known as under-recoveries. By allowing prices to fluctuate in response to international market dynamics, the government significantly reduced its subsidy outgo, helped in containing the fiscal deficit, and improved the financial viability and operational efficiency of the oil companies. This move ensured that the pricing reflected the true cost of the commodity, encouraging more efficient consumption patterns.
69Economy
Consider the following statements :
1. The recent decision of government of India to partially decontrol the sugar industry gives the millers the freedom to sell sugar in open market and removes their obligation to supply sugar at subsidized rates to ration shops
2. C Rangarajan panel also suggested decontrolling of sugar industry in India
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
In April 2013, the Government of India approved the partial decontrol of the sugar industry by implementing key recommendations of the Dr. C. Rangarajan Committee. This decision led to the abolition of the levy sugar system, which previously required sugar mills to provide 10 percent of their output to the government at subsidized rates for the Public Distribution System. Additionally, the government removed the regulated release mechanism, thereby granting sugar mills the freedom to sell any quantity of sugar in the open market based on commercial considerations. The C. Rangarajan Committee, which submitted its report in October 2012, had specifically advocated for the removal of these administrative controls to improve the financial health of the sugar sector and ensure better price realization for both mills and farmers. Under the new arrangement, state governments were authorized to procure sugar for ration shops from the open market, with the central government providing a subsidy to cover the price difference.
70Science and Technology
British Scientist Robert Edwards, winner of Nobel Prize for Physiology and Medicine, passed away on 10 April 2013. What was so important about him ?
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Answer: (C) His pioneering works led to the birth of the first test tube baby
Explanation
Robert Edwards was awarded the 2010 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the development of in vitro fertilization (IVF) therapy. Working alongside surgeon Patrick Steptoe, he successfully achieved fertilization of human egg cells outside the body and established the clinical procedures for transferring the resulting embryos into the womb. Their groundbreaking research directly led to the birth of Louise Brown on July 25, 1978, the world's first child conceived through the test-tube baby technique. This breakthrough revolutionized the treatment of human infertility, providing a clinical solution for millions of couples unable to conceive naturally. By the time of his death in 2013, millions of children had been born worldwide as a result of the techniques he pioneered.
71Geography
'Silent Spring', considered by many as one among the greatest science books of all time, is written by Rachel Carson. The book deals with :
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Answer: (B) protection of the environment
Explanation
Rachel Carson's 1962 book Silent Spring is a foundational text of the modern environmental movement. The book meticulously documents the adverse effects on the environment, particularly on bird populations, caused by the indiscriminate use of synthetic pesticides such as DDT. Carson argued that these chemicals were not just killing target insects but were accumulating in the food chain, poisoning wildlife, and posing long-term risks to ecological balance and human health. By exposing the destructive impact of industrial chemistry on natural ecosystems, the book shifted public consciousness toward the necessity of holistic environmental protection and regulatory oversight. This work directly influenced the transition toward more sustainable ecological practices and inspired the creation of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
72Art and Culture
On 8 March 2013 President of India has released a commemorative postage stamp on late Sahir Ludhianvi at Rashtrapati Bhawan. Ludhianvi was :
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Answer: (D) widely acclaimed as a people's poet
Explanation
Sahir Ludhianvi was a legendary Urdu poet and lyricist who was a prominent figure in the Progressive Writers Movement. He earned the reputation of being a people's poet because his verses moved away from the traditional ivory-tower themes of Urdu poetry, such as wine and courtly romance, to focus on the socio-economic struggles of the common man, the horrors of war, and the plight of the marginalized. His debut collection, Talkhiyaan, established him as a powerful voice of social realism. In the Indian film industry, he used the medium of lyrics to advocate for communal harmony and social justice, making high-quality Urdu literature accessible to the masses. The commemorative postage stamp released on 8 March 2013 honored his birth anniversary and his enduring legacy as a poet of the subaltern.
73Polity and Governance
V S Ramadevi, who died in Bengaluru on 17 April, 2013, was the Governor of Karnataka and Himachal Pradesh. What was more specific about her ? She was the :
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Answer: (B) Only female Chief Election Commissioner of India
Explanation
V.S. Ramadevi holds the distinction of being the first and only woman to serve as the Chief Election Commissioner of India. She served as the 9th Chief Election Commissioner for a brief period from 26 November 1990 to 11 December 1990. An officer of the Indian Legal Service, she also achieved the milestone of becoming the first woman Secretary-General of the Rajya Sabha, serving from 1993 to 1997. Her tenure at the Election Commission of India is historically significant because she remains the sole female to have headed the top electoral body since its establishment in 1950.
74Art and Culture
The Pulitzer Prize for fiction in the year 2013 has been announced for the book :
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Answer: (A) 'The Orphan Master's Son' authored by Adam Johnson
Explanation
The Pulitzer Prize for Fiction is awarded annually for distinguished fiction by an American author, typically focusing on American life but also encompassing broader human experiences. In 2013, Adam Johnson was named the winner for his novel The Orphan Master's Son. The book is a meticulously researched and imaginative narrative set in North Korea, following the life of a character named Pak Jun-do as he rises through the ranks of the state's military and intelligence apparatus. The Pulitzer Board commended the novel as a daring and remarkably expansive work that captures the essence of life under a totalitarian regime while exploring themes of love, sacrifice, and the search for identity in a world of state-sponsored propaganda and oppression.
75Economy
The Saudi Arabia Government has recently decided to strictly implement a law called Nitaqat law. As a result :
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Answer: (A) 10% jobs in Saudi should be reserved for Saudi nationals
Explanation
The Nitaqat system is a Saudi Arabian nationalization scheme designed to increase the employment of Saudi citizens in the private sector. Introduced by the Ministry of Labor, the law classifies private companies into color-coded categories based on the percentage of local citizens they employ. In 2013, the government began strict enforcement of these regulations to address rising unemployment among the local population. For many private firms, particularly those in the small and medium-sized categories, the law mandated a minimum requirement where at least 10% of the total workforce must consist of Saudi nationals to avoid being placed in the Red zone, which would result in the loss of the ability to renew work permits for foreign employees.
76Polity and Governance
Which one among the following was a major decision taken at the fifth BRICS summit held recently ?
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Answer: (A) Establishment of a new development bank
Explanation
The fifth BRICS summit was held in Durban, South Africa, in March 2013. The most significant outcome of this summit was the formal agreement among the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa to establish a new development bank. This institution, which later became known as the New Development Bank (NDB), was designed to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging market economies and developing countries. The decision aimed to supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global growth and development. Additionally, the summit saw the agreement to establish the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) to provide a financial safety net against global liquidity pressures.
77Polity and Governance
With which one among the following countries, did India sign a Memorandum of Understanding on Co-operation in the field of Election Management and Administration (on 12 April 2013 in New Delhi) ?
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Answer: (B) Mauritius
Explanation
On 12 April 2013, the Election Commission of India and the Electoral Commissioner's Office of Mauritius signed a Memorandum of Understanding in New Delhi to strengthen cooperation in the field of election management and administration. The agreement established a framework for the exchange of knowledge, expertise, and technical assistance between the two nations. This partnership focused on improving electoral processes, enhancing voter education, and facilitating the training of personnel to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections based on democratic principles.
78Science and Technology
Which one among the following Indian scientists has been awarded the '2012 award for International Science Co-operation' by Chinese Academy of Sciences ?
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Answer: (D) C N R Rao
Explanation
Professor C.N.R. Rao was conferred with the 2012 International Science Co-operation Award by the Chinese Academy of Sciences in early 2013. He was the first Indian scientist to receive this prestigious honor, which is awarded to foreign scientists for their significant contributions to promoting scientific and technological cooperation with China. Professor Rao, a distinguished chemist and researcher, played a vital role in fostering collaborative research projects and exchange programs between the two nations, particularly in the fields of chemistry and materials science.
79History
Which one among the following countries has won the ICC Women's World Cup, 2013 held in India ?
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Answer: (C) Australia
Explanation
Australia won the 2013 ICC Women's World Cup by defeating the West Indies in the final match held at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai. In the final, Australia batted first and scored 259/7 in their allotted 50 overs, thanks to significant contributions from Jess Cameron and Rachael Haynes. They then bowled out the West Indies for 145 runs, securing a comprehensive 114-run victory. This win marked Australia's sixth Women's World Cup title. The tournament was hosted by India across various venues in Mumbai and Cuttack, featuring eight international teams. Australia's consistent performance throughout the group stages and the Super Six round led them to the championship title.
80Art and Culture
Which legendary actor has been awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award, 2012 ?
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Answer: (B) Pran Krishan Sikand
Explanation
Pran Krishan Sikand, popularly known by his mononym Pran, was honored with the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2012. This prestigious recognition is India's highest award in cinema, presented annually by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. Pran was a veteran actor with a prolific career spanning over six decades, during which he appeared in more than 350 films. He was celebrated for his immense versatility, initially establishing himself as one of the most iconic and feared villains in Hindi cinema before successfully transitioning into impactful and beloved character roles in his later career. His selection as the 44th recipient of the award acknowledged his enduring impact and legendary status within the Indian film industry.
81Art and Culture
The 'Thomas Cup' is associated with :
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Answer: (C) Badminton
Explanation
The Thomas Cup is the premier international team competition for men's badminton, officially known as the World Men's Team Championships. It is named after Sir George Alan Thomas, a legendary badminton player and the founding president of the International Badminton Federation. He donated the trophy in 1939 with the intention of creating a global team competition modeled after the Davis Cup in tennis. The first tournament was conducted in 1948-1949 and has since been held every two years. It represents the pinnacle of team achievement in badminton.
82Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. ISRO has recently given clearance for using the frequency from KU band for using the satellite for internet, in trains in India
2. KU frequency range is allocated to be exclusively used by satellite communication system
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
In 2013, Indian Railways introduced a pilot project to provide satellite-based internet services on the Howrah-New Delhi Rajdhani Express. This initiative was made possible after ISRO provided the necessary clearance and technical support for using the Ku-band frequency to facilitate internet connectivity in moving trains. The system involved a satellite tracking antenna mounted on the roof of the coaches to maintain a link with the satellite, allowing for high-speed data transmission through the Ku-band transponders.
While the Ku-band is highly efficient for satellite-based communications such as Direct-to-Home (DTH) television and VSAT services, it is not used exclusively for satellite systems. The Ku-band, which generally spans the frequency range of 12 GHz to 18 GHz, is also utilized for various terrestrial applications. This includes terrestrial microwave links and law enforcement equipment, such as radar guns used for speed detection. Frequency allocation tables managed by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) and national bodies typically assign these ranges to multiple services on a primary or secondary basis.
83History
Which one among the following was the main demand of the '2013 Shahbag Protests'?
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Answer: (C) Capital punishment for those convicted of crimes against humanity during 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War
Explanation
The 2013 Shahbag Protests, also known as the Gonojagoron Moncho movement, were sparked by the life imprisonment sentence handed down to Abdul Quader Mollah by the International Crimes Tribunal (ICT) on February 5, 2013. Mollah, a leader of the Jamaat-e-Islami, was convicted of mass murder and crimes against humanity committed during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War. Large crowds of protesters gathered at the Shahbag intersection in Dhaka to demand the death penalty for Mollah and other individuals accused of war crimes, arguing that life imprisonment was too lenient for the gravity of the atrocities committed during the independence struggle. The movement quickly expanded to demand the trial and capital punishment of all those responsible for 1971 war crimes and a ban on political parties that had opposed the liberation of Bangladesh.
84History
Which one among the following was the primary reason behind the failure of the Young Bengal Movement in Bengal ?
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Answer: (C) It was too radical
Explanation
The Young Bengal Movement, led by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio in the late 1820s and 1830s, failed primarily because its ideology and methods were too radical for the contemporary social fabric of Bengal. Inspired by the French Revolution and Western rationalism, the Derozians adopted a confrontational approach toward traditional Hindu customs, rituals, and social norms. Their public defiance, which included actions like eating beef and drinking wine to signal their break from orthodoxy, deeply offended and alienated the conservative Hindu society. This extreme radicalism prevented the movement from gaining any significant social support or building a mass base, as it lacked a constructive program that could resonate with the common people. Consequently, the movement remained confined to a small group of intellectual elites and faded away without bringing about a widespread social transformation.
85History
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Bhakti tradition in South India ?
1. Earliest Bhakti movements in India were led by Alvar and Nayanar saints
2. Nalayira Divyaprabandham, frequently described as Tamil Veda is an anthology of compositions by the Alvars
3. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, women Alvar saints, supported patriarchal norms
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
Karaikkal Ammaiyar was one of the most prominent Nayanar saints (devotees of Shiva), not an Alvar (devotees of Vishnu). She was one of only three women among the sixty-three Nayanars. Far from supporting patriarchal norms, she explicitly defied them by renouncing her role as a wife and her physical beauty. According to tradition, she prayed to Shiva to strip away her womanly charms and transform her into a skeletal demoness (peyar) so she could devote herself entirely to her deity without the social expectations placed upon women. Her life and hymns represented a radical departure from the domestic and social constraints of the time. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as the Bhakti movement in South India began around the 6th century led by these two groups, and the Nalayira Divyaprabandham is the celebrated anthology of the twelve Alvars, widely regarded as the Tamil Veda.
86History
Sangam literature formed a very important source for the reconstruction of the history of South India. It was written in :
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Answer: (A) Tamil
Explanation
Sangam literature is the earliest known body of South Indian literature, composed primarily between 300 BCE and 300 CE. These works were written in Old Tamil and represent the creative output of poets who gathered in assemblies, or Sangams, traditionally held in Madurai under the patronage of the Pandya kings. The literature provides a detailed account of the social, economic, and political conditions of ancient Tamilakam, focusing on the lives of the people and the reigns of the Chera, Chola, and Pandya dynasties. Major works within this corpus include the Tolkappiyam, which is a treatise on grammar and poetics, as well as the Eight Anthologies (Ettuthogai) and the Ten Idylls (Pathupattu).
87Polity and Governance
Which of the following are true of matrilineal societies ?
1. Newly married couple stays with the woman's parents
2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property passes from mother to daughter
3. Women play a dominant role in the family
4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those of the Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Matrilineal societies are systems where descent, kinship, and the inheritance of property are traced through the female line. In these societies, property is transferred from the mother to the daughters, ensuring the continuity of the family wealth within the maternal lineage. Such societies are often matrilocal, a practice where the husband moves into the wife's parental home after marriage. The Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya in Northeast India are classic examples of this social structure, where the youngest daughter typically inherits the ancestral property and the family name is taken from the mother.
It is important to distinguish between matriliny and matriarchy. While matrilineal societies prioritize the female line for inheritance and residence, they are not necessarily matriarchal. In many such systems, including those of the Khasi and Jaintia, actual administrative authority and political power are often exercised by men, such as the maternal uncle or the father, rather than women playing a dominant role in terms of overall social or political governance. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 accurately describe the functional aspects of these societies.
88History
The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex system. Its efficient functioning depended upon :
1. The practice of offering the title of 'Mansabdar' to military personnel only
2. Proper 'functioning of the dagh (branding) system
3. Proper functioning of the jagirdari system
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The efficient functioning of the Mansabdari system relied on strict regulatory mechanisms and financial sustainability. The dagh (branding) system was essential to prevent corruption and ensure military readiness; it required horses to be branded and descriptive rolls (chehra) of soldiers to be maintained to ensure that mansabdars actually kept the required number of troops and high-quality horses for which they received payments. Additionally, the system was deeply integrated with the jagirdari system, as the majority of mansabdars were paid through the assignment of land revenue (jagirs). The effective administration of these jagirs and the accurate assessment of their revenue potential were critical for providing the financial resources necessary for mansabdars to maintain their military contingents and perform their administrative duties.
89History
Consider the following :
India would be far more reliable as a base for operations. Moreover the prospect of a settlement will be greatly enhanced by the disappearance of Gandhi, who had for years torpedoed every attempt at a settlement.'
The above statement was made by the British in the context of :
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Answer: (C) Quit India Movement
Explanation
The statement reflects the hardline stance of the British administration during the Quit India Movement in 1942. At this juncture, World War II had reached a critical phase with the Japanese advance toward India's borders, making the subcontinent an indispensable base for Allied military operations in the South-East Asian theater. The British government, led by Winston Churchill and Viceroy Linlithgow, viewed Mahatma Gandhi's Do or Die call and the demand for an immediate British exit as a stab in the back during the war effort. They believed that Gandhi was the primary obstacle to any political settlement that favored British interests and that his removal from the political scene via imprisonment would allow them to consolidate India as a reliable military launchpad without the threat of large-scale internal disruption.
90Art and Culture
Who among the following was not associated with the art of painting ?
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Answer: (D) Satish Chandra Mukherjee
Explanation
Satish Chandra Mukherjee was a distinguished Indian educator and a key figure in the national education movement during the Swadeshi period. He founded the Dawn Society in 1902, which aimed to impart nationalistic values and vocational training to Indian students outside the British colonial education system. He was instrumental in the establishment of the National Council of Education and dedicated his life to pedagogical reforms and the promotion of indigenous culture through literature and education. Unlike the other figures listed, his professional contributions were rooted in academia, journalism, and social reform rather than the field of visual arts or painting.
91History
Which one among the following statements about Civil Disobedience Movement is correct ?
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Answer: (B) Under Gandhi-Irwin agreement Congress agreed to give up Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India. This political agreement was a turning point that led to the suspension of the first phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. In this pact, the Indian National Congress agreed to discontinue the movement and consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London to discuss constitutional reforms. In exchange, the British government agreed to release all political prisoners not convicted of violence, allow the manufacture of salt for personal consumption in coastal areas, and withdraw various restrictive ordinances.
92History
Which one among the following events was associated with American War of Independence ?
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Answer: (B) Boston Tea Party
Explanation
The Boston Tea Party, occurring on December 16, 1773, served as a significant act of defiance that precipitated the American War of Independence. It was a political protest by the Sons of Liberty in Boston against the Tea Act imposed by the British Parliament. Colonists, some disguised as Native Americans, boarded merchant ships and destroyed an entire shipment of tea sent by the East India Company by throwing it into the harbor. This event was a direct protest against the principle of taxation without representation. In response, the British government enacted the Coercive Acts to punish the Massachusetts colony, which further inflamed colonial resistance and moved the thirteen colonies closer to open rebellion and the eventual declaration of independence.
93History
Which one among the following events was not associated with French Revolution ?
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Answer: (C) Battle of Concord
Explanation
The Battle of Concord took place on April 19, 1775, and was one of the opening engagements of the American Revolutionary War. It occurred in Middlesex County, Province of Massachusetts Bay, when British regulars attempted to seize military supplies cached by the American colonists. This event, along with the Battle of Lexington, preceded the French Revolution by more than a decade and is a defining moment in the history of the United States' struggle for independence from British rule.
94History
Consider the following statements about Satyagraha :
1. It was first experimented by Gandhi in South Africa
2. It was first experimented in India at Champaran
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi developed the method of Satyagraha, which emphasizes truth and non-violence, during his struggle against racial discrimination in South Africa. The first Satyagraha campaign was launched in 1906 to protest the Asiatic Registration Act, which required all Indians in the Transvaal to register and carry identification at all times.
After returning to India, Gandhi's first involvement in a mass movement based on Satyagraha took place in 1917 at Champaran, Bihar. This movement was organized to support the local peasants who were forced by European planters to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land under the exploitative Tinkathia system. The success of the Champaran Satyagraha established the effectiveness of Gandhi's non-violent methods on Indian soil.
95History
Who among the following first used the word 'Swarajya' in its political sense and accepted Hindi as the national language of India ?
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Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation
Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first political leader to transform the term Swarajya (self-rule) into a definitive political demand, moving it beyond its earlier socio-religious context. He famously declared, Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it, making it the central objective of the extremist wing of the Indian National Congress. Tilak was also a pioneer in advocating for a common national language to foster unity across India’s diverse regions. In 1905, during a speech at the Nagari Pracharini Sabha in Varanasi, he formally proposed that Hindi, written in the Devanagari script, should be accepted as the national language (Rashtrabhasha) of India. He argued that a common language was essential for national integration and that Hindi was the most suitable candidate for this role.
96History
Which of the following factors was not a reason behind the occurrence of the Industrial Revolution in England first ?
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Answer: (C) In England machines could be operated by wind or water power due to favourable climate condition
Explanation
The Industrial Revolution was fundamentally defined by the transition from organic and natural power sources, such as wind, water, and animal labor, to mineral-based energy derived from coal. While early textile mills in England did utilize water power, this was a traditional technology shared by many other nations and was not the deciding factor that triggered the revolution. The breakthrough that allowed England to industrialize first was the development of the steam engine, which utilized the country's vast and easily accessible coal deposits. This shift enabled factories to move away from riverbanks and seasonal constraints, providing a consistent and scalable power source that wind and water power, dependent on fluctuating climatic conditions, could not offer. Therefore, the reliance on wind or water power was an older paradigm that the Industrial Revolution eventually overcame rather than the primary reason for its occurrence in England.
97History
Consider the following statements about the causes of success of the American Revolution :
1. The remoteness of the American continent and British ignorance of the American continent led to the success of the Americans
2. The fierce spirit of liberty drove the Americans to success
3. The American military forces were superior to the British
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation
The success of the American Revolution was significantly influenced by the logistical challenges faced by the British due to the 3,000-mile distance across the Atlantic Ocean. This remoteness made the timely arrival of reinforcements, supplies, and orders nearly impossible, while the British leadership’s lack of familiarity with the vast and varied American geography hindered their ability to control the colonial interior. Simultaneously, the ideological fervor encapsulated in the fierce spirit of liberty provided a powerful motivator for the American colonists. This deep-seated commitment to self-governance and individual rights sustained the Continental Army and local militias through severe hardships and military setbacks, allowing them to outlast British political will and eventually secure victory with foreign assistance.
98Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the UNO :
1. The creation of the UNO was a reflection of the ongoing quest for international peace during the Second World War
2. The Charter of the UN explicitly mentions two vital objectives of the organization : (i) the quest for international peace and (ii) all round welfare of the people of the world
3. The UN has resolved all the major global disputes including the Palestine dispute
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The United Nations was conceived during the Second World War as world leaders sought a successor to the League of Nations to prevent future global conflicts. This quest for international peace is evidenced by the Atlantic Charter of 1941 and the 1942 Declaration by United Nations, which were negotiated while the war was still active to ensure a stable post-war international order. Furthermore, the UN Charter identifies two primary pillars for the organization in its Preamble and Article 1. It explicitly establishes the maintenance of international peace and security as the foremost objective. It also mandates international cooperation to address economic, social, cultural, and humanitarian problems, aimed at promoting social progress and better standards of life, which constitutes the all round welfare of people worldwide.
99History
Consider the following statements about Scientific Socialism :
1. Karl Marx put forward the theory of Scientific Socialism in Communist Manifesto (1848)
2. According to this theory economic conditions can never determine the cause of human history
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Scientific Socialism was pioneered by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels, with the Communist Manifesto of 1848 serving as the foundational text that outlined its core principles. The theory is built upon the concept of Historical Materialism, which posits that the economic base of a society—consisting of the forces and relations of production—is the primary factor that determines its legal, political, and social superstructure. Marx argued that the history of society is driven by class struggles rooted in these economic conditions, meaning that the mode of production in material life is the fundamental force that shapes the progression of human history.
100History
Rajtarangini, authored by Kalhan, describes the history of :
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Answer: (C) Kashmir
Explanation
Kalhana's Rajtarangini, composed in Sanskrit between 1148 and 1150 CE, is a historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir. The title translates to The River of Kings. It is considered the first authentic work of history in India because Kalhana used a systematic approach to historiography, consulting various primary sources such as royal charters, inscriptions, coins, and earlier texts to verify his accounts. The work provides a detailed chronological record of the region from legendary times up to the 12th-century reign of King Jayasimha. It offers deep insights into the political, social, and administrative structures of the Kashmir valley under major dynasties like the Karkota, Utpala, and Lohara dynasties.
101History
Which of the following did not constitute part of the army reforms of Sher Shah ?
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Answer: (B) Introduction of a swiftly moving artillery
Explanation
Sher Shah Suri military reforms were primarily focused on the systematic reorganization of the cavalry and infantry to ensure discipline and central control. While he effectively utilized gunpowder and heavy cannons during sieges, such as the one at Kalinjar, the introduction of a highly mobile or swiftly moving field artillery unit was a distinctive development of the Mughal military tradition. This specific advancement was introduced to the Indian subcontinent by Babur through his use of field guns and was later refined by his successors. Sher Shah instead prioritized administrative checks like the Dagh system and the maintenance of a centrally recruited standing army to consolidate his power.
102History
Among the precious stones, the most extensive foreign trade during the Gupta age was that of :
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Answer: (A) Diamonds
Explanation
India maintained a global monopoly on diamonds during the Gupta period, as it was the only region in the world where they were mined until the eighteenth century. These gems were primarily sourced from riverbeds and mines in central and southern India and were a staple luxury export to the Roman and Byzantine Empires. The Brihat Samhita, a key scientific text from the Gupta era authored by Varahamihira, contains detailed sections on the characteristics and valuation of diamonds, which underscores their prominence in the economy. Their high intrinsic value and steady demand in international markets made them the most significant precious stone in the extensive maritime and overland trade networks of the age.
103History
Which one among the following statements about the Swadeshi and Revolutionary movements in Bengal is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) The Government of East Bengal and Assam became sympathetic to the revolutionaries
Explanation
The British colonial government, including the provincial administration of East Bengal and Assam, adopted a policy of extreme repression rather than sympathy toward the nationalist and revolutionary movements. Following the 1905 Partition of Bengal, the authorities employed harsh measures to stifle dissent, including the banning of public meetings, the arrest of prominent leaders, and the use of the police to violently disperse protestors. The government specifically targeted revolutionary groups like the Anushilan Samiti and Jugantar through various emergency legislations and the Sedition Act to dismantle their networks. Additionally, the administration actively pursued a divide and rule policy in East Bengal to create communal friction as a means to weaken the unified Swadeshi movement.
104Polity and Governance
The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of office by :
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Answer: (B) The Governor of the State
Explanation
Article 219 of the Constitution of India mandates that every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before entering upon their office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by the Governor. This oath or affirmation follows the specific form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule of the Constitution, ensuring that the judge commits to upholding the Constitution and the laws of the country.
105Polity and Governance
The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President's rule in the State :
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Answer: (D) if he is convinced that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India
Explanation
Article 356 of the Constitution of India provides for the imposition of President's Rule in a state in the event of the failure of constitutional machinery. The Governor of a state, acting as the constitutional head and a representative of the Union, has the authority to submit a report to the President if they are convinced that the state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This assessment is subjective to the Governor's satisfaction based on prevailing circumstances such as a loss of majority in the Legislative Assembly where no alternative government is possible, or a complete breakdown of law and order. Upon receiving such a report, or even otherwise, the President may issue a proclamation to assume the functions of the state government if satisfied that the constitutional breakdown is absolute.
106History
Which one among the following thinkers argued that Maratha rule in general and Shivaji in particular represented early nationalist consciousness in India ?
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Answer: (B) M G Ranade
Explanation
Mahadev Govind Ranade, in his influential work Rise of the Maratha Power published in 1900, argued that the Maratha movement was a genuine effort at nation-building rather than a series of disconnected military successes. He posited that Shivajis leadership and the Maratha state represented a proto-nationalist consciousness that sought to unite people through a common language, religion, and social life. Ranade specifically highlighted the role of the Maharashtra Dharma and the egalitarian influence of the Bhakti saints in creating the social cohesion necessary for a national uprising, thereby providing a historical foundation for modern Indian nationalism by identifying its roots in the Maratha resistance.
107Economy
The Planning Commission of India has been constituted :
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Answer: (C) through a cabinet decision in this regard
Explanation
The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, as an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by a Cabinet Resolution of the Government of India, following the recommendations of the Advisory Planning Board chaired by K.C. Neogy. Because it was formed via an executive order rather than a specific article in the Constitution or an Act passed by the Parliament, it functioned as an advisory body established through a cabinet decision.
108Polity and Governance
In the S R Bommai v. Union of India case, which one among the following features of the Constitution of India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure ?
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Answer: (B) Secularism
Explanation
In the landmark S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) case, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court addressed the dismissal of several state governments and the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356. The Court categorically held that secularism is one of the basic features of the Constitution of India and forms part of the basic structure doctrine first established in the Kesavananda Bharati case. The judgment clarified that the Constitution requires the state to be neutral in matters of religion and that any state government acting against the secular fabric of the nation can be deemed to have reached a situation where the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
109Polity and Governance
Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India as a fundamental right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such ?
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Answer: (D) Freedom of the press
Explanation
Freedom of the press is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Constitution of India. Instead, it is an implied fundamental right derived from the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). The Supreme Court of India established this interpretation in early landmark cases such as Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950) and Brij Bhushan v. State of Delhi (1950), where it ruled that the freedom of speech and expression includes the freedom of propagation of ideas, which is ensured by the freedom of circulation. Later, in Indian Express Newspapers v. Union of India (1985), the Court further solidified this position by stating that the expression freedom of the press has not been used in Article 19 but it is comprehended within Article 19(1)(a). This judicial recognition ensures that the press functions as a critical medium for public opinion and holds the government accountable in a democratic setup.
110Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Commission/ Committee)
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
B. Srikrishna Commission 2. Socio-economic and educational conditions of Muslims in India
C. Ranganath Misra Commission 3. Bombay Communal Riots, 1992
D. Nanavati Commission 4. Linguistic and religious minorities in India
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
The Rajindar Sachar Committee was a high-level committee established in 2005 to prepare a comprehensive report on the socio-economic and educational status of the Muslim community in India. Justice B.N. Srikrishna headed the commission of inquiry that investigated the causes and consequences of the communal riots in Bombay during 1992 and 1993. The Ranganath Misra Commission, also known as the National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities, was constituted in 2004 to identify criteria for identifying socially and economically backward classes among religious and linguistic minorities. The Nanavati Commission was appointed in 2000 to investigate the facts and circumstances of the 1984 anti-Sikh riots that occurred in the aftermath of the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
111Art and Culture
Which of the following are UNESCO recognized world heritage sites ?
1. Caves of Ajanta
2. Temple and caves at Ellora
3. Mandapas of Mahabalipuram
4. Caves of Kanheri
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ajanta Caves and Ellora Caves were both inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983 for being masterpieces of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain rock-cut architecture and art. The Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which includes the rock-cut mandapas (cave temples), the monolithic rathas, and the Shore Temple, was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. These sites represent the peak of artistic and structural innovation in ancient and early medieval India, particularly under the patronage of the Vakataka and Pallava dynasties. In contrast, the Kanheri Caves, while significant as a major Buddhist center, have not been accorded UNESCO World Heritage status.
112Polity and Governance
Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between Centre and State falls under :
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Answer: (B) Original jurisdiction
Explanation
Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. This jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning no other court can entertain such cases. It specifically covers disputes involving a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends, occurring between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. This provision ensures that the Supreme Court acts as the final arbiter in federal disputes, maintaining the constitutional balance between the Union and the constituent units. Under this power, the court hears the matter directly in the first instance rather than through the process of appeal from lower courts.
113Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about India-China relations is/are correct ?
1. 'Look East' policy is a vital part of the relationship
2. There is an active defence exchange programme
3. Institutional mechanism to share international waters is in place
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The 'Look East' policy is a vital strategic framework for India-China relations as it governs India's engagement with the broader East Asian and Asia-Pacific regions where China is a dominant power. By 2013, the policy had evolved to include participation in the East Asia Summit (EAS) and the development of the BCIM (Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar) Economic Corridor, providing a platform for both economic integration and the management of strategic competition between the two nations.
There is an active defence exchange programme between India and China aimed at building mutual trust and preventing border escalations. This institutionalized cooperation includes the Annual Defence Dialogue (ADD) at the level of the Defence Secretary and the 'Hand-in-Hand' series of joint military exercises. These exercises, which resumed in 2013 after a brief suspension, specifically focus on counter-terrorism drills and enhancing military-to-military communication to ensure stability along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
114Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of States
Explanation
Under Article 249 of the Constitution of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) holds special powers to authorize Parliament to legislate on subjects listed in the State List in the national interest, provided it passes a resolution with a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. Additionally, Article 312 grants the Council of States the exclusive power to initiate the creation of new All-India Services. These provisions ensure that the Rajya Sabha acts as a representative of the states in the federal structure. The House of the People (Lok Sabha) does not have these specific powers; in fact, the Rajya Sabha is the chamber specifically empowered to intervene in state-list matters to protect the federal balance or national interest. Therefore, the assertion that the House of the People has special powers over the State List compared to the Council of States is factually inaccurate.
115Polity and Governance
Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by :
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Answer: (C) Supreme Court of India
Explanation
According to Article 71 of the Constitution of India, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in this matter is exclusive and its decision is final. While the Election Commission of India is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the conduct of these elections under Article 324, it does not have the authority to adjudicate disputes regarding the validity of the election results. Such challenges can only be brought before the Supreme Court after the election process is completed, through an election petition filed by a candidate or a minimum number of electors as prescribed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
116Polity and Governance
Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
1. Sovereign democratic republic
2. Socialism and secularism
3. Capitalism and free trade
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Preamble to the Constitution of India defines the Indian State as a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. The terms Sovereign, Democratic, and Republic were part of the original Preamble adopted in 1949 and enacted in 1950. The words Socialist and Secular were later incorporated into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 to clarify the state's commitment to social and economic justice as well as religious neutrality. The Preamble aims to secure for all its citizens Justice (social, economic, and political), Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. Philosophies such as Capitalism and Free Trade are not mentioned in the Preamble; rather, the document emphasizes a socialistic pattern of society and the promotion of a welfare state.
117Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of Constitutional authority and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched ?
1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting of elected MLAs and MPs
2. Vice-President : Elected by an electoral college consisting of MLAs and MPs
3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first sitting
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 54 of the Constitution provides that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. This federal body includes elected representatives from both the national and state levels to ensure the President represents the entire Union. Article 93 directs that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. In the standard parliamentary procedure of a new Lok Sabha, the election of the Speaker occurs after the first sitting, once the members have taken their oaths or affirmations under the supervision of the Speaker Pro-tem. These constitutional procedures ensure that the President maintains a federal mandate while the Speaker is democratically selected by the members of the House they preside over.
118Polity and Governance
In April 2013, an agreement was signed between India and a country which extends the use of training and exercise facilities in India to the army of that country for a further period of five years from August 2013. Sort out the country from among the following :
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Answer: (B) Singapore
Explanation
In April 2013, India and Singapore signed an agreement to extend the use of training and exercise facilities in India by the Singapore Army for a further period of five years, starting from August 2013. This pact was a renewal of the bilateral agreement for joint army training and exercises originally signed in 2008. Due to its limited land area, Singapore utilizes Indian military facilities at Deolali and Babina to conduct large-scale maneuvers and live-firing exercises, such as Exercise Bold Kurukshetra and Exercise Agni Warrior. The extension was finalized during the visit of Singapore's Defense Minister to India, highlighting the strong defense ties and strategic partnership between the two nations.
119History
Consider the following statements :
1. Rafael Nadal won Men's Singles French Open Tennis Tournament 2013 defeating Spanish compatriot David Ferrer
2. This is Nadal's maiden French Open title
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Rafael Nadal won the 2013 French Open Men's Singles title by defeating David Ferrer in an all-Spanish final with a score of 6–3, 6–2, 6–3. This victory represented Nadal's eighth title at Roland Garros, following his previous wins in 2005, 2006, 2007, 2008, 2010, 2011, and 2012. His maiden French Open title was achieved much earlier, in 2005, when he defeated Mariano Puerta in the final. Consequently, while the first statement accurately describes the 2013 final, the second statement is factually incorrect as the 2013 win was not his first.