In which one of the following islands of India is an active volcano found?
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Answer: (C) Barren Island
Explanation
Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in India and the South Asian region. Located in the Andaman Sea about 135 kilometers northeast of Port Blair, it forms part of the volcanic arc created by the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate under the Eurasian Plate. The volcano has a long history of activity, with its first recorded eruption in 1787. Following a long period of dormancy, it resumed activity in 1991 and experienced subsequent eruptive phases in 1994-95 and 2005-07. These events established it as a significant geological feature within the Andaman and Nicobar Islands territory. The island is uninhabited and is characterized by a central cinder cone within a caldera.
2Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Pass) (State)
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir
Code :
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Zoji La Pass is a high mountain pass in the Himalayas, located in the state of Jammu and Kashmir, providing a vital link between Srinagar and Leh. Bara Lacha Pass is situated in the Zanskar range of Himachal Pradesh and connects the Lahaul district to the Leh district. Jelep La Pass is an important mountain pass located in the East Sikkim district, connecting Sikkim with the Tibet Autonomous Region. Niti Pass is located at the border of Uttarakhand and Tibet, serving as a high-altitude trade route in the Chamoli district. Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-3, C-1, and D-2.
3Geography
Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian Standard Time?
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Answer: (D) 82.5°E
Explanation
Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the 82.5° E longitude, which is designated as the Standard Meridian of India. This meridian passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, near Prayagraj. As the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, every 1° of longitude corresponds to a 4-minute time difference. Consequently, 82.5° E multiplied by 4 minutes equals 330 minutes, placing Indian Standard Time exactly 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT +5:30). This longitude was selected because it represents the central longitudinal axis of the country, ensuring a uniform time standard across India's vast longitudinal extent.
4Geography
Which one of the following is the oldest mountain range in India?
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Answer: (B) Aravali
Explanation
The Aravali Range is the oldest mountain range in India and one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. Its origin dates back to the Pre-Cambrian era, approximately 570 million to 2.5 billion years ago. Over hundreds of millions of years, these mountains have been subjected to extensive weathering and erosion, which has reduced them from their original majestic heights to their current state as residual or relict mountains. The range extends for about 800 kilometers across the northwestern part of India, stretching from Gujarat through Rajasthan and Haryana to Delhi, and it serves as a critical geographic barrier between the Thar Desert and the fertile plains to the east.
5Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (River) (Tributary)
A. Brahmaputra 1. Musi
B. Krishna 2. Tawa
C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
D. Cauvery 4. Dikhow
Code :
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
The Dikhow river is a significant left-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra that flows through the Sivasagar district of Assam. The Musi river is a major tributary of the Krishna river, famously known for flowing through the city of Hyderabad. The Tawa river is the longest tributary of the Narmada, originating in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh and joining the main river at Bandra Bhan. The Bhavani river is one of the main perennial tributaries of the Cauvery, originating in the Silent Valley National Park in Kerala and flowing predominantly through Tamil Nadu.
6Geography
Which one of the following lakes in India has the highest water salinity?
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Answer: (D) Sambhar
Explanation
Sambhar Salt Lake, situated in the arid region of Rajasthan, is India's largest inland salt lake and characterized by extremely high salinity. It is an endorheic basin, meaning it has no outlet to the sea, which causes dissolved salts to accumulate and concentrate as water evaporates in the desert heat. The salinity levels in Sambhar are significantly higher than those found in coastal lagoons or freshwater bodies, often reaching hypersaline conditions that facilitate large-scale commercial salt production.
7Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? River | City
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Answer: (D) Narmada - Satna
Explanation
Satna is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh but it is not situated on the banks of the Narmada river. The city of Satna is actually associated with the Satna River, which is a tributary of the Tons (Tamasa) River. The Narmada river flows through the central and southern regions of Madhya Pradesh, passing through major cities like Jabalpur, Hoshangabad, and Maheshwar, which are geographically distant from the Satna district located in the northeastern part of the state.
8Geography
Which one of the following cities will never get the vertical rays of the sun?
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Answer: (A) Srinagar
Explanation
The vertical or overhead rays of the Sun are restricted to the latitudinal zone between the Tropic of Cancer at 23.5°N and the Tropic of Capricorn at 23.5°S. This phenomenon is a result of the Earth axial tilt of approximately 23.5° relative to its orbital plane, which limits the Sun apparent migration to this specific belt. Srinagar is situated at a latitude of approximately 34°N, which is well north of the Tropic of Cancer. Because Srinagar lies outside the tropical zone, the Sun can never reach the zenith point directly above the city, meaning its rays will always strike the ground at an oblique angle rather than a vertical one.
9Science and Technology
Which of the following diseases is not caused by viruses?
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Answer: (A) Cholera
Explanation
Cholera is an acute diarrheal infection caused by the ingestion of food or water contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. It is a water-borne disease that primarily affects the small intestine by releasing an enterotoxin that leads to massive secretion of water and electrolytes. Because the causative agent is a prokaryotic bacterium rather than a virus, the pathology and treatment of cholera, which often involves antibiotics and intensive rehydration, are distinct from those associated with viral infections.
10Geography
Which one of the following sequences of the oil refineries of India as they occur from south to north is correct?
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Answer: (A) Kochi-Mangalore-Mumbai -Koyali
Explanation
The geographical distribution of these refineries follows the latitudinal gradient of the Indian western coast from south to north. The Kochi refinery is located in Kerala at approximately 9.93 degrees N latitude. Moving northward, the Mangalore refinery is situated in Karnataka at about 12.91 degrees N. Further north, the Mumbai refineries are located in Maharashtra at roughly 19.07 degrees N. Finally, the Koyali refinery is located near Vadodara in Gujarat at approximately 22.30 degrees N. This sequence aligns with the northward progression along the Arabian Sea coastline.
11Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Multipurpose (Hydel Power River Project) Station)
A. Rihand 1. Hirakud
B. Gandak 2. Balmikinagar
C. Chambal 3. Pipri
D. Mahanadi 4. Kota
Code :
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Answer: (C) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
The Rihand Dam, which forms the Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, is located at Pipri in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh on the Rihand River. The Gandak Project is a multipurpose venture between India and Nepal that includes a significant hydel power station at Balmikinagar in Bihar. The Chambal Valley Project consists of several reservoirs and dams, with the Jawahar Sagar Dam and Kota Barrage located specifically at Kota in Rajasthan. The Mahanadi River is the site of the Hirakud Dam, which is one of the longest dams in the world and serves as a major hydel power station in Odisha.
12Economy
Which one of the following States of India is the largest producer of lignite coal?
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu
Explanation
Tamil Nadu is the leading producer of lignite coal in India, accounting for a significant majority of the country's total output. The state's production is centered in the Neyveli region of the Cuddalore district, where the Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited operates massive open-cast mines. In the 2008-09 fiscal year, Tamil Nadu produced approximately 21.3 million tonnes of lignite, which represented more than 60 percent of the national production. The lignite mined in this region is primarily used for thermal power generation and as a fuel source in various local industries. The state also holds the largest share of India's lignite reserves, estimated at over 80 percent of the national total.
13Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? National Park State
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Answer: (C) Ranthambore National Park - Gujarat
Explanation
Ranthambore National Park is located in the Sawai Madhopur district of southeastern Rajasthan, not Gujarat. Situated at the junction of the Aravalli and Vindhya hill ranges, it is one of the most prominent tiger reserves in India under Project Tiger. Gujarat is instead home to national parks such as Gir, which is famous for the Asiatic lion, as well as the Blackbuck National Park in Velavadar and the Marine National Park in the Gulf of Kutch.
14Economy
Which one of the following oil fields of India is the oldest and still producing oil?
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Answer: (B) Digboi
Explanation
Digboi, located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, is the oldest oil field in India and among the oldest continuously producing fields in the world. Oil was first discovered here in 1889, and systematic drilling operations commenced in 1890. To process the crude extracted from this field, the Digboi refinery was commissioned in 1901, making it the oldest operating refinery in Asia. The field played a pioneering role in the development of the Indian petroleum industry and continues to produce oil well over a century after its discovery, managed currently by Oil India Limited.
15Economy
Which one of the following States is the largest producer of black pepper in India?
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Answer: (B) Kerala
Explanation
Kerala has traditionally been the leading producer of black pepper in India, often referred to as the Spice Garden of India. Up to the year 2009, Kerala accounted for the overwhelming majority of the country's total black pepper output, often contributing more than 90 percent of the national production. The state's agro-climatic conditions are ideal for the cultivation of the pepper vine, Piper nigrum, which requires a hot and humid climate with an annual rainfall of over 200 cm and a fairly high temperature throughout the year. The well-drained, red laterite and loamy soils of the Western Ghats region in Kerala provide the perfect environment for these vines to thrive, ensuring the state's dominant position in the spice trade.
16History
The Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as 'Turning of the wheel of law' at
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Answer: (B) Sarnath
Explanation
After attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, Gautama Buddha traveled to the Deer Park (Isipatana) in Sarnath, located near Varanasi. Here, he delivered his first sermon to the five ascetics who had previously been his companions. This pivotal event is known in Buddhist tradition as the Dharmachakrapravartana, which translates to Turning the Wheel of Law. During this discourse, the Buddha articulated the Middle Way, the Four Noble Truths, and the Noble Eightfold Path, effectively setting the foundations of Buddhist doctrine and establishing the first monastic community or Sangha.
17Geography
Which one of the following is the longest National Highway in India?
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Answer: (B) NH 7
Explanation
NH 7 was the longest national highway in India under the highway numbering system in place during 2009. It covered a distance of approximately 2,369 kilometers, stretching from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu. The highway passed through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. It functioned as a major north-south transit corridor, connecting several significant industrial and commercial cities. Following the nationwide renumbering of highways in 2010, the majority of this route was incorporated into the new NH 44.
18Science and Technology
In human beings, the opening of the stomach into the small intestine is called
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Answer: (D) pylorus
Explanation
The pylorus is the narrow, terminal region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. It consists of the pyloric antrum and the pyloric canal, ending at the pyloric orifice. This opening is regulated by the pyloric sphincter, a ring of smooth muscle that acts as a valve to control the flow of partially digested food, known as chyme, from the stomach into the small intestine. This regulation is crucial for ensuring that the duodenum can process the acidic chyme effectively through neutralization and enzymatic digestion.
19Geography
In which one of the following places is the Forest Survey of India (FSI), a national organization engaged in forest cover mapping, forest inventory and training in the field of remote sensing and GIS, located?
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Answer: (A) Dehradun
Explanation
The Forest Survey of India (FSI) is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. Established on June 1, 1981, as a successor to the Pre-investment Survey of Forest Resources (PISFR) project, it functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The organization is mandated to conduct biennial assessments of the country's forest and tree cover, which are published in the India State of Forest Report (ISFR). It utilizes advanced technologies such as satellite-based remote sensing and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) for inventorying forest resources and providing specialized training to forestry personnel across the country.
20Polity and Governance
The Veerappa Moily Commission in its report on Administrative Reforms among other aspects has suggested doing away with which one of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) Articles 310 and 311
Explanation
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), chaired by M. Veerappa Moily, recommended the repeal of Articles 310 and 311 in its tenth report titled Refurbishing of Personnel Administration – Scaling New Heights. Article 310 embodies the Doctrine of Pleasure, which specifies that civil servants serve at the pleasure of the President or the Governor. Article 311 provides constitutional safeguards to civil servants, ensuring they cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them and granting them a right to be heard. The Commission argued that these constitutional provisions have historically acted as a shield for inefficient or corrupt officials, making disciplinary proceedings overly cumbersome. It suggested that such protections should be governed by statutory law rather than constitutional mandates to enhance accountability and streamline the process of penalizing misconduct while still maintaining necessary safeguards through legislation.
21History
Who among the following has created world record in the men's 100 metres sprint event at 2008 Olympic Games?
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Answer: (A) Usain Bolt
Explanation
Usain Bolt set a new world record in the men's 100 metres sprint at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games. On August 16, 2008, the Jamaican sprinter clocked a time of 9.69 seconds to secure the gold medal, breaking his own previous world record of 9.72 seconds set earlier that year in New York. Bolt's achievement was historic as he became the first person to set world records in both the 100m and 200m events at the same Olympics since the introduction of electronic timing. His performance in Beijing is widely considered one of the most iconic moments in Olympic history due to the ease with which he broke the record despite slowing down to celebrate before reaching the finish line.
22Art and Culture
What does Fuwa, the Official Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games, contain?
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Answer: (A) Four popular animals of China and the Olympic Flame
Explanation
The Fuwa, the official mascots of the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games, consist of five characters that embody the natural characteristics of four of China's popular animals and the Olympic Flame. Four of the mascots represent indigenous animals: Beibei is a fish, Jingjing is a giant panda, Yingying is a Tibetan antelope, and Nini is a swallow. The fifth character, Huanhuan, represents the Olympic Flame. Each mascot is colored after one of the five Olympic rings and represents a traditional Chinese element. When their names—Beibei, Jingjing, Huanhuan, Yingying, and Nini—are put together, they form the phrase Beijing huanying ni, which translates to Beijing welcomes you. Collectively, these figures were designed to spread a message of friendship and peace to the world.
23Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Year) (UN's International Year)
A. 2002 1. International Year of Ecotourism
B. 2004 2. International Year of Microcredit
C. 2005 3. International Year of Planet Earth
D. 2008 4. International Year of Struggle against Slavery and its abolition
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 1 4 2 3
Explanation
The United Nations declared 2002 as the International Year of Ecotourism to foster sustainable development and environmental protection through tourism. The year 2004 was designated the International Year to Commemorate the Struggle against Slavery and its Abolition to mark the bicentenary of the Haitian Revolution and the end of the Transatlantic Slave Trade. The year 2005 was proclaimed the International Year of Microcredit to acknowledge the importance of small-scale financial services in reducing poverty. The year 2008 was recognized as the International Year of Planet Earth to showcase the contribution of geosciences to the safety and well-being of society.
24Economy
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Person | Bank
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Answer: (D) Vikram Pandit - IDBI
Explanation
Vikram Pandit served as the Chief Executive Officer of Citigroup from December 2007 to October 2012. He was a prominent global banker leading one of the largest financial institutions in the United States during the 2008 financial crisis. He was never associated with the leadership of IDBI Bank, which was led by Yogesh Agarwal as its Chairman and Managing Director during the period around 2009. Consequently, the pairing of Vikram Pandit with IDBI is factually inaccurate.
25Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Nobel Laureate of 2008 | Discipline
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Answer: (D) Osamu Shimomura Physiology
Explanation
Osamu Shimomura was awarded the 2008 Nobel Prize in Chemistry, jointly with Martin Chalfie and Roger Y. Tsien, for the discovery and development of the green fluorescent protein (GFP). The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for 2008 was instead awarded to Harald zur Hausen for his discovery of human papilloma viruses causing cervical cancer, and to Françoise Barré-Sinoussi and Luc Montagnier for their discovery of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
26Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Player) List-II (Sport)
A. Gagan Narang 1. Archery
B. Akhil Kumar 2. Swimming
C. Mangal Singh Champia 3. Boxing
D. Virdhawal Khade 4. Rifle Shooting
Code :
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Gagan Narang is a distinguished Indian air rifle shooter who gained international prominence by winning gold medals at the 2006 Commonwealth Games and setting a world record in the 2008 World Cup.
Akhil Kumar is a renowned boxer known for his open-guard style who won a gold medal in the bantamweight category at the 2006 Commonwealth Games and reached the quarterfinals at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
Mangal Singh Champia is a leading Indian archer who won a bronze medal at the 2006 Asian Games in the team event and represented India in the individual recurve event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
Virdhawal Khade is a record-breaking swimmer who became the youngest Indian swimmer to qualify for an Olympics when he participated in three events at the 2008 Beijing Games.
27Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about IAEA :
1. It was set up as the world's Atoms for Peace organization in 1957.
2. The IAEA Secretariat is headquartered at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria.
3. In terms of its Statute, the IAEA reports annually to the UN General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was established on July 29, 1957, following the Atoms for Peace proposal presented by U.S. President Dwight D. Eisenhower to the UN General Assembly in 1953. Its primary mandate is to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy while inhibiting its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons. The organization is headquartered at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria. Although the IAEA is an independent international organization established by its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, it maintains a unique relationship with the United Nations. According to Article III.B.4 of its Statute, the IAEA is required to submit an annual report on its activities to the UN General Assembly and, when appropriate, to the Security Council regarding matters of international peace and security.
28Polity and Governance
Who among the following has been awarded the Officer of the Legion of Honour, the highest civilian distinction of the Government of France?
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Answer: (A) N. R. Narayana Murthy
Explanation
N. R. Narayana Murthy, the co-founder and former Chairman of Infosys, was conferred with the Officer of the Legion of Honour (Officier de la Légion d’honneur) by the Government of France in January 2008. This award is part of the Legion of Honour, which is the highest civilian distinction of France. Murthy was recognized for his significant role in the global development of the Information Technology industry and for his contributions to strengthening economic and bilateral ties between India and France.
29Geography
Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States?
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Answer: (C) 5
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh is a landlocked state located in central India that shares its geographical borders with five states. Following the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act of 2000, which led to the creation of Chhattisgarh, the state boundary was redefined. It is bordered by Uttar Pradesh to the north, Rajasthan to the northwest, Gujarat to the west, Maharashtra to the south, and Chhattisgarh to the east. This configuration of five neighboring states has been the status of Madhya Pradesh since the state bifurcation took effect on November 1, 2000.
30Economy
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Country | Currency
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Answer: (D) Thailand - Ringgit
Explanation
The Ringgit is the official currency of Malaysia, not Thailand. The national currency of Thailand is the Thai Baht (THB), which has been in use since the late 19th century. The Malaysian Ringgit (MYR) was officially introduced in 1967 to replace the Malaya and British Borneo dollar at par. Consequently, the association of Thailand with the Ringgit is factually incorrect.
31Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (City) List-II (Stadium)
A. Bangaluru 1. Sawai Mansingh
B. Chennai 2. Sardar Patel
C. Motera 3. Chinnaswami
D. Jaipur 4. Chidambaram
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
The M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru was commissioned in 1969 and serves as the home ground for the Karnataka state cricket team. The M. A. Chidambaram Stadium in Chennai, popularly known as Chepauk, was established in 1916 and is the second oldest cricket stadium in India. The Sardar Patel Stadium is located in the Motera locality of Ahmedabad and was the primary international venue in Gujarat before its recent reconstruction. The Sawai Mansingh Stadium in Jaipur was built during the tenure of Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II and serves as the home ground for the Rajasthan state cricket team.
32Science and Technology
Who among the following had won the Wimbledon Women's Singles Title, 2008?
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Answer: (D) Venus Williams
Explanation
Venus Williams won the 2008 Wimbledon Women's Singles title by defeating her sister, Serena Williams, in the final with a score of 7-5, 6-4. This victory marked her fifth Wimbledon singles championship and her seventh Grand Slam title overall. Throughout the tournament, she maintained a dominant performance, winning the title without dropping a single set.
33History
Who among the following is the first man (after Bjorn Borg in 1980) to win the French Open and Wimbledon Singles Title back to back?
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Answer: (A) Rafael Nadal
Explanation
Rafael Nadal completed the Channel Slam in 2008, becoming the first male player to win the French Open and Wimbledon singles titles back-to-back since Bjorn Borg achieved the feat in 1980. After winning his fourth consecutive title at Roland Garros in June 2008, he went on to win the Wimbledon final in July of the same year. This achievement marked the first time in 28 years that a man had successfully managed the transition between the slow clay surface and the fast grass surface to win both major tournaments in a single calendar year.
34Art and Culture
Which one of the following books had been named as winner of the Best of the Booker Award in 2008?
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Answer: (C) Midnight's Children
Explanation
The Best of the Booker was a special prize awarded in 2008 to commemorate the 40th anniversary of the Man Booker Prize. Salman Rushdie's novel Midnight's Children was declared the winner after a public vote, where it competed against a shortlist of six previous winners chosen by a panel of judges. The novel had originally won the Booker Prize in 1981 and was also awarded the Booker of Bookers in 1993 to mark the 25th anniversary of the award, making it the most celebrated work in the history of the prize at that time.
35Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries has recently carried out military operations in Georgia?
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Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation
In August 2008, Russia launched a large-scale military invasion of Georgia following escalating tensions and skirmishes in the breakaway region of South Ossetia. The conflict, often referred to as the Five-Day War, involved Russian ground forces, air strikes, and naval blockades targeting Georgian military infrastructure and several cities beyond the disputed territories. Russia officially justified the operation as a peace enforcement mission to protect Russian citizens and peacekeepers in South Ossetia. Following a ceasefire mediated by the European Union, Russia formally recognized the independence of South Ossetia and Abkhazia, maintaining a significant and permanent military presence in these regions.
36Economy
Which one of the following Committees/Commissions was formed to study and suggest pricing pattern for oil and natural gas sectors in India?
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Answer: (A) B. K. Chaturvedi Committee
Explanation
The B. K. Chaturvedi Committee was constituted in June 2008 by the Prime Minister of India to examine the financial position of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) and suggest a sustainable pricing strategy for petroleum products and natural gas. The committee was specifically tasked with addressing the mounting under-recoveries faced by these companies due to the rising international prices of crude oil compared to regulated domestic retail prices. In its report submitted in August 2008, the committee recommended a roadmap for the gradual deregulation of fuel prices, the elimination of subsidies on petrol and diesel, and the implementation of a more transparent pricing mechanism to ensure the long-term financial viability of the Indian energy sector.
37Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries has adopted a new Constitution in the year 2008 aiming to pursue a modern, multi-party, democratic system and giving more power to the judiciary and legislature?
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Answer: (C) Maldives
Explanation
The Maldives ratified a new Constitution on August 7, 2008, which served as the cornerstone for its transition into a modern, multi-party democracy. This document introduced a presidential system with a rigorous separation of powers, specifically designed to curtail the previously dominant executive authority. It significantly empowered the legislature, known as the People's Majlis, and established an independent judiciary to ensure the rule of law. The 2008 Constitution also incorporated a comprehensive Bill of Rights and paved the way for the nation's first-ever multi-party presidential elections, moving the country away from a long period of single-party influence toward a competitive democratic framework.
38Science and Technology
Which one of the following countries has recently tested a two-stage satellite launch rocket named the Safir-e-Omid or the Ambassador of Peace?
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Answer: (B) Iran
Explanation
Iran successfully launched its first domestically produced satellite, Omid (Hope), into orbit in February 2009 using the Safir-2 (Ambassador) launch vehicle. The Safir is a two-stage rocket developed by the Iranian Space Agency, utilizing liquid-fuel technology derived from the Shahab missile series. This launch made Iran the ninth nation to demonstrate an independent satellite launch capability. The designation Safir-e-Omid refers to the carrier rocket and its payload, which were part of a high-profile national space program aimed at establishing a presence in low Earth orbit for telecommunications and research purposes.
39Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
1. The treaty comes into force only if and when all nuclear capable countries sign it.
2. Iraq and India have not signed the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) contains a unique and stringent provision for its entry into force. Under Article XIV, the treaty will only come into force 180 days after it has been ratified by all 44 states specifically listed in Annex 2 of the treaty. These 44 states are those that participated in the 1996 session of the Conference on Disarmament and possessed nuclear power or research reactors at that time, making them the designated nuclear-capable countries. Consequently, the treaty cannot become legally binding international law until every one of these 44 nations, which include states like India, Pakistan, and North Korea, has formally joined.
Regarding the status of individual nations, India has consistently refused to sign the treaty, citing concerns over its discriminatory nature and the lack of a clear link to total nuclear disarmament. However, Iraq signed the CTBT on October 3, 2008. Since Iraq had already signed the treaty by the time of the 2009 exam, the assertion that Iraq has not signed is factually incorrect.
40Science and Technology
In appreciation of his environmental research and campaigns, space agency NASA has recently named a minor planet after whom among the following?
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Answer: (A) Sainudeen Pattazhy
Explanation
In 2008, the International Astronomical Union named minor planet 5178 after Dr. Sainudeen Pattazhy, a researcher and professor from Kerala, India. This honor was conferred in recognition of his significant environmental research and awareness campaigns. Dr. Pattazhy is well-known for his scientific studies on the red rain phenomenon in Kerala, the ecological impact of electromagnetic radiation from mobile phone towers on honeybees, and the environmental consequences of global warming. The asteroid, now officially designated as 5178 Pattazhy, is listed in the Jet Propulsion Laboratory Small-Body Database of NASA. His research has been instrumental in highlighting the threats posed by modern technology to biodiversity and natural ecosystems.
41History
Who among the following has issued the coin rupee for the first time?
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Answer: (C) Sher Shah
Explanation
Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the Sur Empire, introduced the silver coin known as the Rupiya during his reign from 1540 to 1545. The term is derived from the Sanskrit word rupya, which means wrought silver. This silver coin weighed approximately 178 grains and was characterized by its high purity and standardized weight. Sher Shah Suri's administrative and financial reforms aimed at stabilizing the economy, and the Rupiya served as the precursor to the modern rupee. The currency system he established, which also included the copper dam and gold mohur, was so robust that it was later adopted and refined by the Mughal emperors and eventually by the British in India.
42Art and Culture
Which one of the following was the original name of Tansen, the famous musician in the court of Akbar?
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Answer: (D) Ramtanu Pande
Explanation
Tansen was born as Ramtanu Pande in a Hindu family in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh. He was the son of Mukund Pande, a poet and musician. He received his early musical training under the tutelage of Swami Haridas, a renowned saint and musician, and was also significantly influenced by the Sufi saint Mohammad Ghaus of Gwalior. His exceptional mastery of the Dhrupad style led him to the court of King Ram Chand of Rewa. Upon hearing of his genius, Emperor Akbar invited him to the Mughal court in 1562. There, he was appointed as one of the Navaratnas (Nine Jewels) and was conferred the title Mian.
43History
Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
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Answer: (C) Radcliffe
Explanation
Cyril Radcliffe was a British lawyer who served as the Chairman of the Boundary Commissions in 1947, tasked with demarcating the borders between India and Pakistan. He arrived in India for the first time in July 1947, more than a year after the Cabinet Mission visited India in March 1946. Radcliffe's appointment was specifically for the partition process, meaning he was not a member of the three-minister delegation sent by the British government to negotiate constitutional reforms and the transfer of power.
44History
What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. Rowlatt Act
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Morley-Minto Reforms
4. Ilbert Bill
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code :
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Answer: (B) 4-3-1-2
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these historical events begins with the Ilbert Bill, which was introduced in 1883 during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon to address racial disqualifications in the judiciary. Next are the Morley-Minto Reforms, also known as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, which significantly increased Indian participation in the legislative councils and introduced separate electorates. This was followed by the Rowlatt Act in 1919, officially the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, which granted the British government emergency powers to intern political activists without trial. The final event in this sequence is the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, which was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin prior to the second Round Table Conference. Therefore, the correct chronological order is 4-3-1-2.
45History
Under which one of the following systems of assessment, the British Government collected revenue directly from the farmers?
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Answer: (B) Ryotwari
Explanation
The Ryotwari system, introduced by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in the early 19th century across the Madras and Bombay Presidencies, established a direct settlement between the British Government and the individual cultivators, known as Ryots. Under this arrangement, the peasant was recognized as the legal owner of the land and was responsible for paying land revenue directly to the state without the involvement of intermediaries. This system aimed to provide security of tenure to the farmer and ensure a steady flow of revenue to the government by assessing the land based on its quality and crop productivity, typically for a fixed period of twenty to thirty years.
46History
Who among the following has started the Public Works Department in India in AD 1848?
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Answer: (B) Lord Dalhousie
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, established the Public Works Department (PWD) to streamline the construction and maintenance of infrastructure. Prior to his reforms, these tasks were managed by a Military Board, which was often inefficient for large-scale civilian projects. Dalhousie organized the PWD into a dedicated administrative unit to oversee the building of roads, canals, and bridges across the country. His initiative led to significant engineering achievements, such as the completion of the Upper Bari Doab Canal and the modernization of the Grand Trunk Road, laying the foundation for modern engineering administration in India.
47History
Who among the following was thrice elected President of the Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji, popularly known as the Grand Old Man of India, served as the President of the Indian National Congress on three separate occasions. He first presided over the second session of the Congress held at Calcutta in 1886. His second tenure as President occurred during the 1893 Lahore session. He was elected for the third time to lead the party during the 1906 Calcutta session, a significant meeting where the Congress officially adopted the goal of Swaraj or self-government. His multiple terms as President highlight his influential role in the early Indian nationalist movement and his ability to bridge the gap between different factions within the party.
48History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Person) List-II (Associated in Formation of)
A. G. K. Gokhale 1. Servants of India Society
B. M. M. Malaviya 2. Benaras Hindu University
C. C. Rajagopalachari 3. Free India Society
D. V. V. Savarkar 4. Swatantra Party
Code :
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Answer: (A) 1 2 4 3
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to train Indians to devote themselves to the service of the country in a secular manner. Madan Mohan Malaviya was the primary founder of the Banaras Hindu University in 1916, envisioned as a center for modern scientific education combined with Indian cultural values. C. Rajagopalachari established the Swatantra Party in 1959, which advocated for free-market principles and individual liberty as an alternative to the socialist policies of the Congress. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, during his time in London, organized the Free India Society to mobilize Indian students and promote the cause of complete independence through revolutionary means.
49History
Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the Second and Third Round Table Conference?
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Answer: (C) Muhammad Iqbal
Explanation
Sir Muhammad Iqbal, a renowned philosopher and Urdu poet, played an active role in the constitutional discussions regarding the future of India. He was invited to attend the Second Round Table Conference in 1931 and the Third Round Table Conference in 1932 in London. During these sessions, he represented the interests of the Indian Muslim community and contributed to the debates on the communal award and the proposed federal structure for India. His participation followed his historic 1930 Allahabad Address, where he had formulated the initial vision for a separate political identity for Muslims in the northwestern provinces of the subcontinent.
50History
What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. Bardoli Satyagraha
2. Rajkot Satyagraha
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Nagpur Satyagraha
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
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Answer: (D) 3-4-1-2
Explanation
The chronological order of these events is based on their occurrence during the Indian national movement. The Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917, representing Mahatma Gandhi's first experiment with Satyagraha in India on behalf of indigo farmers. The Nagpur Satyagraha, primarily known as the Flag Satyagraha, occurred in 1923 to assert the right to fly the nationalist flag. The Bardoli Satyagraha followed in 1928, a successful no-tax movement led by Vallabhbhai Patel against the colonial government's decision to increase land revenue. The Rajkot Satyagraha took place in 1938-1939, directed against the local ruler for administrative reforms and civil liberties. Consequently, the correct sequence of these events is 3-4-1-2.
51History
In which of the following years was the first Railway line between Bombay and Thane laid?
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Answer: (A) 1853
Explanation
The first passenger train in India commenced its journey on April 16, 1853, running between Bori Bunder in Bombay and Thane. This inaugural run, operated by the Great Indian Peninsula Railway, covered a distance of approximately 34 kilometers. The train was hauled by three steam locomotives named Sahib, Sindh, and Sultan, carrying around 400 passengers in 14 carriages. This historical event occurred during the tenure of Governor-General Lord Dalhousie, who is often credited with introducing the railways to the Indian subcontinent to facilitate administrative control and commercial interests.
52History
Who among the following was not a party to the league that was defeated by the British in the Battle of Buxar?
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Answer: (C) Mir Jafar
Explanation
The Battle of Buxar, fought on October 22, 1764, was a conflict between the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and a triple alliance of Indian powers. This league consisted of Mir Kasim, the deposed Nawab of Bengal who sought to regain his lost authority; Shuja-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Awadh; and Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor. Mir Jafar was not a member of this confederacy because he had been reinstated as the Nawab of Bengal by the British in 1763, following their disagreements with Mir Kasim. At the time of the battle, Mir Jafar was the puppet ruler of Bengal under British protection and thus remained separate from the alliance that attempted to challenge British supremacy in the region.
53Art and Culture
In Buddhism, what does Patimokkha stand for?
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Answer: (C) The rules of the Sangha
Explanation
The Patimokkha refers to the basic code of monastic discipline that governs the conduct of Buddhist monks and nuns within the Sangha. Contained within the Suttavibhanga of the Vinaya Pitaka, it comprises a specific set of rules designed to regulate every aspect of monastic life, from ethical behavior to communal living. These rules are categorized according to the gravity of the transgression, with the most serious offenses leading to permanent expulsion from the order. Traditionally, the Patimokkha is recited collectively by the monastic community twice a month during the Uposatha ceremony, serving as a ritual of purification and confession to ensure the spiritual integrity and harmony of the Sangha.
54History
Who among the following was the founder of the Muslim League?
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Answer: (C) Nawab Salimullah
Explanation
The All India Muslim League was founded on December 30, 1906, at Dhaka during the annual meeting of the All India Muhammadan Educational Conference. Nawab Salimullah of Dhaka was the primary architect and initiator of the party; he proposed the formal resolution to create a political organization to represent the interests of Muslims in British India. As the host of the conference and the leader who issued the original circular for the formation of the League, he is recognized as its principal founder.
55Art and Culture
Whose philosophy is called the Advaita?
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Answer: (B) Shankaracharya
Explanation
Adi Shankaracharya is the primary exponent of the Advaita Vedanta school of Hindu philosophy. The core tenet of Advaita, which literally translates to non-dualism, is the fundamental identity of the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman). Shankaracharya posited that Brahman is the only unchanging, absolute truth, while the perceived material world is a temporary illusion known as Maya. According to this philosophy, liberation or Moksha is attained not through rituals, but through the profound experiential knowledge (Jnana) of one's own divinity and the realization that the self is not distinct from the supreme consciousness. His extensive commentaries on the Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita, and the Brahma Sutras provided the logical and scriptural foundation for this influential system of thought.
56Polity and Governance
Consider the following VicePresidents of India :
1. V.V. Giri
2. M. Hidayatullah
3. B.D. Jatti
4. G.S. Pathak
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?
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Answer: (A) 1-4-3-2
Explanation
The chronological order of the tenures of the Vice-Presidents listed is determined by their terms in office. V.V. Giri served as the third Vice-President of India from 1967 to 1969. Following his resignation to contest the presidential election, G.S. Pathak took office as the fourth Vice-President and served a full five-year term from 1969 to 1974. He was succeeded by B.D. Jatti, who served as the fifth Vice-President from 1974 to 1979. Subsequently, M. Hidayatullah served as the sixth Vice-President of India from 1979 to 1984. This sequence establishes the correct order as 1-4-3-2.
57Polity and Governance
In which one of the following Ministries the census organization has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961?
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Answer: (B) Home Affairs
Explanation
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, is responsible for conducting the decennial population census and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. While the first synchronous census in India was held in 1881 and the Census Act was passed in 1948, the organization operated on an ad-hoc basis for many years, with a Census Commissioner appointed only for the duration of each specific census operation. In 1961, the government established the organization on a permanent footing within the Ministry of Home Affairs to ensure continuity in demographic research, the maintenance of vital statistics, and the efficient planning of the massive nationwide exercise every ten years.
58Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?
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Answer: (B) Creation of a three-tier system
Explanation
The Ashok Mehta Committee, appointed in December 1977 by the Janata Government, recommended the replacement of the existing three-tier system of Panchayati Raj with a two-tier system. This proposed structure consisted of the Zila Parishad at the district level and the Mandal Panchayat, which was to be formed by a group of villages covering a total population of 15,000 to 20,000. The committee aimed to strengthen the Panchayati Raj institutions by focusing on the district as the first point of decentralization below the state level. In contrast, the three-tier system consisting of the Village Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad was the earlier recommendation of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1957.
59Polity and Governance
With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Subject | List
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Answer: (A) Stock Exchanges | The State List
Explanation
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Stock Exchanges and futures markets are placed under Entry 48 of the Union List (List I). This placement ensures that the Union Parliament has exclusive jurisdiction to legislate on these matters, providing a uniform regulatory framework for the country's financial markets. Because the pair in option a associates Stock Exchanges with the State List instead of the Union List, it is not correctly matched.
60History
The head of a district (Ahara), the principal coordinator of the revenue and the officer in charge of general and military functions in his jurisdiction during Mauryan Empire was known as
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Answer: (B) Rajuka
Explanation
The Rajukas were prominent district-level officials in the Mauryan administrative hierarchy, as evidenced by the Ashokan Edicts. The term is derived from rajju, meaning rope, reflecting their original role in land measurement and revenue settlement. Under Ashoka, their responsibilities expanded significantly to include judicial powers and general administration over several hundred thousand people. They functioned as the primary link between the central government and the rural population, serving as the principal coordinators of revenue collection while also maintaining law and order and performing military-executive duties within their jurisdiction, known as the Ahara.
61Polity and Governance
Which one among the following States has the highest gender disparity?
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Answer: (C) Haryana
Explanation
Gender disparity in Indian demographics is primarily measured by the sex ratio, which is the number of females per 1000 males. According to the 2001 Census data, which was the authoritative source for the 2009 exam period, Haryana recorded a sex ratio of 861. This was the lowest among the major Indian states, indicating the highest level of gender disparity. The imbalance was particularly acute in the child sex ratio (0 to 6 years), which stood at 819. Such a significant gap in the population structure was largely driven by socio-cultural factors, including a traditional preference for male children and the misuse of diagnostic technologies for female foeticide.
62Polity and Governance
Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?
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Answer: (D) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
Explanation
Article 169 of the Constitution of India prescribes the procedure for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. It stipulates that the Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State if the Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be passed by a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. The initiative and recommendation for such a constitutional process rests solely with the State Legislative Assembly, after which the Parliament completes the process through an ordinary law.
63Science and Technology
Nail polish remover contains
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Answer: (A) acetone
Explanation
Acetone, also known as propanone with the chemical formula CH₃COCH₃, is the primary active ingredient in most nail polish removers because it is a highly effective solvent. It works by breaking down the plasticizers and film-forming polymers, such as nitrocellulose, that comprise the nail lacquer. Because acetone is a polar solvent, it can efficiently dissolve these organic resins, allowing the hardened polish to be easily wiped away from the nail surface. Its high volatility also ensures that it evaporates quickly after use.
64Polity and Governance
Who among the following had moved the objectives resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946?
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Answer: (D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946. This resolution outlined the guiding principles and the philosophical framework that would govern the drafting of the Indian Constitution. It envisioned India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and promised to secure for all its citizens justice, social, economic and political; equality of status and of opportunity; and freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. The resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947, and its core ideals were later incorporated into the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
65Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
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Answer: (B) The Estimates Committee
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the Indian Parliament among the given options, consisting of 30 members. A unique feature of this committee is that all its members are elected annually exclusively from the Lok Sabha, meaning the Rajya Sabha has no representation in it. The members are elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. First established in 1950 on the recommendation of then Finance Minister John Mathai, the committee is tasked with examining the budget estimates and suggesting economies in public expenditure, earning it the description of a continuous economy committee.
66Polity and Governance
Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
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Answer: (C) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
Explanation
Jayprakash Narayan, famously known as Lok Nayak, was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. Although he was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and a key figure in the Congress Socialist Party, he chose to stay away from the Assembly. At the time of its formation, many socialists were skeptical of the body, viewing it as a creation of the British Raj that lacked genuine sovereign authority. Consequently, Narayan, along with Mahatma Gandhi, remains one of the few towering figures of the Indian national movement who did not participate in the formal process of drafting the Constitution within the Assembly.
67Polity and Governance
In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) 1976
Explanation
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This addition was made based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was appointed by the government to suggest changes to the Constitution during the National Emergency. The amendment introduced a new Part IV-A and Article 51A, which originally listed ten fundamental duties for citizens. These duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while they enjoy fundamental rights, they also have certain obligations to the country and society.
68Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with respect to Attorney General of India :
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a judge of High Court.
3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 76 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Attorney General of India. According to Article 76(1), the Attorney General is appointed by the President and must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court. The qualifications for a Supreme Court judge include being a citizen of India and having been a judge of a High Court for five years, or an advocate of a High Court for ten years, or being a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. Furthermore, Article 76(3) stipulates that in the performance of his duties, the Attorney General shall have the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. This makes him the highest law officer in the country, representing the Government of India in all legal matters as assigned by the President.
69Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Provision of the Constitution of India)
A. Amendment of the Constitution
B. Directive Principles
C. Emergency Power of the President
D. The Union-State Relations
List-II (Source)
1. Constitution of Germany
2. Constitution of Canada
3. Constitution of South Africa
4. Irish Constitution
Code :
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Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
The procedure for the Amendment of the Constitution as outlined in Article 368 is adopted from the Constitution of South Africa. The Directive Principles of State Policy, which serve as guidelines for the government to ensure social and economic justice, are borrowed from the Irish Constitution. The Emergency powers of the President, specifically the provision regarding the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency, are derived from the Weimar Constitution of Germany. The nature of Union-State Relations, featuring a federal structure with a strong central government, is modeled on the Constitution of Canada.
70History
Who among the following was elected as the President of All-India Khilafat Conference met at Delhi in 1919?
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
The All-India Khilafat Conference held its inaugural session in Delhi in November 1919, and Mahatma Gandhi was elected as its President. Gandhi was invited by the Ali brothers and other Muslim leaders because of his vocal support for the Khilafat cause, which he viewed as a vital opportunity to forge Hindu-Muslim unity in the national struggle against British rule. During this conference, the platform for the Non-Cooperation Movement was initially conceptualized, as the members resolved to boycott British goods and cease cooperation with the government if the religious and political demands regarding the status of the Ottoman Caliphate were not satisfied.
71Polity and Governance
According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article?
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Answer: (B) Punjab
Explanation
Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India contains a proviso that mandates the appointment of a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in specific states. Following the Constitution (94th Amendment) Act, 2006, these states are Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha. The provision was originally enacted to ensure that states with substantial tribal populations have dedicated cabinet-level oversight for their development and welfare. Punjab is not included in this list because it does not have any notified Scheduled Tribes, and therefore the constitutional requirement for such a specialized minister does not apply to it.
72History
In which of the following years was the All-India Trade Union Congress formed in Bombay?
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Answer: (C) 1920
Explanation
The All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established on October 31, 1920, in Bombay. It was founded as the first central trade union organization in India to coordinate the activities of various local unions and to represent Indian labor at the International Labour Organization (ILO). Lala Lajpat Rai was elected as its first president, and Dewan Chaman Lall served as its first general secretary. The formation of the AITUC marked a significant milestone in the Indian labor movement, providing a unified platform for workers to voice their grievances and demand better working conditions during the period of industrial unrest following World War I.
73History
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the tenures of the following Presidents of Indian National Congress?
1. Jagjivan Ram
2. K. Kamraj
3. P. D. Tandon
4. U. N. Dhebar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 3-4-2-1
Explanation
Purushottam Das Tandon was elected President of the Indian National Congress in 1950 for the Nasik session, shortly after India became a Republic. U. N. Dhebar served a continuous tenure as the Congress President from 1955 to 1959. K. Kamraj held the presidency from 1964 to 1967, overseeing the leadership transitions following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru and Lal Bahadur Shastri. Jagjivan Ram was elected President of the Indian National Congress (Requisitionists) in 1969 after the party split, serving in that capacity until 1971.
74Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (B) G. V. Mavalankar
Explanation
Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, popularly known as Dadasaheb, was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from May 15, 1952, until February 27, 1956. He played a foundational role in the Indian parliamentary system by transitioning the legislature from the colonial period into the democratic era of independent India. Having previously presided over the Central Legislative Assembly, the Constituent Assembly (Legislative), and the Provisional Parliament, he was instrumental in establishing the rules of business, the committee system, and the conventions that define the authority and neutrality of the Speaker's office. He is widely regarded as the Father of the Lok Sabha due to his immense contribution to the evolution of parliamentary procedures in India.
75Economy
In which of the following years was General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) absorbed into the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
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Answer: (B) 1995
Explanation
The World Trade Organization (WTO) was officially established on January 1, 1995, following the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations. This transition was formalized by the Marrakesh Agreement, signed in April 1994, which mandated the creation of the WTO to succeed the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). While GATT had functioned as a provisional agreement and de facto international organization since 1948, the 1995 establishment of the WTO provided a permanent institutional framework that absorbed the existing GATT rules while expanding trade governance to include services, intellectual property, and a more rigorous dispute settlement process.
76Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
X-rays
1. can pass through aluminum
2. can be deflected by magnetic field
3. move with a velocity less than the velocity of ultraviolet rays in vacuum
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 only
Explanation
X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic waves with high penetrating power, allowing them to pass through low-density materials like aluminum. Aluminum is frequently used as a filter in X-ray systems to remove low-energy radiation. Because X-rays consist of photons that carry no electric charge, they are not deflected by magnetic or electric fields. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic radiation, including X-rays and ultraviolet rays, travels at the constant speed of light c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s, meaning their velocities are identical.
77Science and Technology
If a small raindrop falls through air
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Answer: (C) its velocity goes on increasing for some time and then becomes constant
Explanation
When a raindrop falls through the atmosphere, it is subject to the downward force of gravity F_g and the upward opposing force of air resistance, also known as viscous drag F_d. Initially, as the drop begins its descent, the force of gravity is significantly greater than the drag force, causing the drop to accelerate. As the velocity v of the raindrop increases, the air resistance also increases, as it is a function of the velocity. Eventually, the upward drag force increases to the point where it, combined with the negligible buoyancy force, exactly balances the downward gravitational force. At this equilibrium point, the net force acting on the raindrop becomes zero (Fₙₑₜ = 0). According to Newton's second law, since there is no net force, the acceleration becomes zero, and the raindrop continues to fall at a constant speed called the terminal velocity. For a small spherical raindrop, the terminal velocity vₜ can be expressed using the formula vₜ = 2r²(ρ - σ)g/9η, where r is the radius of the drop, ρ is the density of the drop, σ is the density of air, and η is the coefficient of viscosity of air.
78Science and Technology
Television signal cannot be received generally beyond a particular distance due to
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Answer: (A) curvature of the earth
Explanation
Television signals utilize very high frequency (VHF) and ultra high frequency (UHF) electromagnetic waves, which propagate via line-of-sight communication. Unlike low-frequency radio waves that can reflect off the ionosphere to reach distant locations, these high-frequency signals travel in straight lines and pass through the ionosphere into space. Consequently, the transmission range is physically limited by the curvature of the earth, as the signal eventually moves away from the ground and over the horizon. The maximum line-of-sight distance d for a transmission tower of height h is approximately d = √(2Rh), where R represents the radius of the earth. Beyond this distance, the earth's surface drops away from the straight path of the signal, preventing reception.
79Geography
Because of which one of the following factors, clouds do not precipitate in deserts?
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Answer: (B) Low humidity
Explanation
Precipitation occurs when the air becomes saturated, meaning the relative humidity reaches 100% and water vapor condenses into droplets heavy enough to fall. In desert environments, the air is characterized by extremely low humidity. Because there is very little water vapor present in the atmosphere, it is difficult for the air to reach its dew point. Even if some condensation occurs at higher altitudes and clouds form, the air layers beneath the clouds are so dry that any falling moisture typically evaporates before reaching the surface, a phenomenon known as virga. Therefore, the lack of sufficient atmospheric moisture is the critical factor preventing precipitation.
80Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an object with such a strong gravitational field that even light cannot escape from its surface?
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Answer: (C) Black hole
Explanation
A black hole is an astronomical object with a gravitational pull so intense that no particle or even electromagnetic radiation such as light can escape from it. This phenomenon occurs when a massive star collapses under its own gravity at the end of its life cycle, concentrating its mass into an incredibly dense region. The boundary surrounding this mass is known as the event horizon. At the event horizon, the escape velocity required to break free from the gravitational field is equal to the speed of light (c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s). Since according to the laws of physics nothing can travel faster than light, any light emitted within or passing through the event horizon is pulled back toward the center, making the object invisible or black to outside observers.
81Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a medium range surface to air missile?
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Answer: (D) Akash
Explanation
Akash is a medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. It is designed to intercept multiple aerial targets simultaneously, including fighter aircraft, cruise missiles, and air-to-surface missiles. The missile utilizes a ramjet propulsion system, which provides sustained thrust and allows it to maintain high speeds of approximately Mach 2.5 throughout its flight. It has an effective interception range of up to 25 to 30 kilometers and can engage targets at altitudes reaching 18,000 meters. The system is integrated with the Rajendra multi-function phased-array radar, which performs target tracking and provides command guidance to the missile. By 2009, the Akash missile system had undergone extensive trials and was being inducted into the Indian Air Force and the Indian Army.
82Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Vitamin) (Chemical Compound)
A. Vitamin A 1. Thiamin
B. Vitamin B1 2. Retinol
C. Vitamin C 3. Ascorbic acid
D. Vitamin E 4. Tocopherol
Code :
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Answer: (D) 2 1 3 4
Explanation
Vitamin A is chemically known as retinol, which is a fat-soluble compound essential for vision, bone growth, and immune system health. Vitamin B1 is thiamin, a water-soluble vitamin that plays a critical role in energy metabolism by helping the body convert carbohydrates into glucose. Vitamin C is ascorbic acid, which acts as a powerful antioxidant and is necessary for the synthesis of collagen and the repair of tissues. Vitamin E refers to a group of fat-soluble compounds known as tocopherols, which protect cells from oxidative stress. Following the requirements of the list, the correct chemical compounds for A, B, C, and D are 2, 1, 3, and 4 respectively.
83Geography
Which one of the following is the tide produced as a consequence of moon and sun pulling the earth in the same direction?
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Answer: (A) Spring tide
Explanation
Spring tides occur when the Earth, Moon, and Sun are aligned in a straight line, a configuration known as syzygy. During the New Moon phase, the Sun and the Moon are positioned on the same side of the Earth, pulling the oceanic waters in the same direction. This alignment causes their gravitational forces to combine and reinforce each other, resulting in the maximum tractive force. This leads to the greatest tidal range, characterized by higher than average high tides and lower than average low tides. While spring tides also occur during the Full Moon when the celestial bodies are in opposition, the specific condition of pulling in the same direction describes the conjunction phase that produces these intensified tides.
84Science and Technology
Aqua regia used by alchemists to separate silver and gold is a mixture of
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Answer: (A) hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and nitric acid (concentrated)
Explanation
Aqua regia, traditionally known as royal water, is a highly corrosive and fuming mixture composed of concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and concentrated nitric acid (HNO₃), typically prepared in a volume ratio of 3:1. It is uniquely capable of dissolving noble metals such as gold and platinum, which are otherwise resistant to individual acids. In the dissolution process, nitric acid acts as a powerful oxidizing agent that produces gold ions (Au³⁺), while the hydrochloric acid provides chloride ions to form the stable soluble complex tetrachloroauric acid (HAuCl₄). When used to treat alloys of gold and silver, the gold dissolves into the solution while the silver reacts to form silver chloride (AgCl), an insoluble white precipitate that can be easily separated from the gold-bearing liquid.
85Science and Technology
Commercial vulcanization of rubber involves
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Answer: (A) sulphur
Explanation
Vulcanization is the chemical process of heating raw natural rubber with sulphur at temperatures ranging from 140°C to 160°C to improve its physical properties. Natural rubber consists of long polymer chains of cis-1,4-polyisoprene which are relatively weak and become sticky when heated. During commercial vulcanization, sulphur atoms create strong covalent cross-links between these polymer chains. These bridges anchor the chains together, preventing them from sliding independently. This modification significantly increases the elasticity, tensile strength, and resistance to temperature changes of the rubber, transforming it into a durable material suitable for industrial applications such as the manufacturing of automotive tires.
86Science and Technology
In which one of the following is higher percentage of carbon found?
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Answer: (D) Anthracite coal
Explanation
Anthracite is the highest rank of coal, representing the final stage of the coalification process. It contains the highest percentage of fixed carbon, typically ranging from 86% to 97%, and has the lowest levels of moisture and volatile matter. Due to this high carbon concentration, anthracite possesses the highest energy density among all coal types and burns with a clean, blue flame, producing significant heat with minimal smoke or soot.
87Science and Technology
Which one of the following when dissolved in H2O gives hissing sound?
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Answer: (D) Quicklime
Explanation
Quicklime is chemically known as calcium oxide (CaO). When quicklime is added to water, it undergoes a vigorous chemical reaction to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂), a process commonly referred to as the slaking of lime. The reaction is represented as:
CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(s) + heat
This reaction is highly exothermic, meaning it releases a significant amount of thermal energy. The intense heat generated causes some of the water to rapidly evaporate or boil at the point of contact, resulting in the characteristic hissing sound and the evolution of steam.
88Science and Technology
The rusting of iron nail
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Answer: (B) increases its weight
Explanation
When iron undergoes rusting, it reacts with atmospheric oxygen and moisture to form hydrated iron(III) oxide, chemically represented as Fe₂O₃ · nH₂O. This process is an oxidation reaction where iron atoms combine with oxygen atoms and water molecules from the surrounding environment. Because these additional elements are incorporated into the structure of the nail to form the rust layer, the total mass of the nail increases. The chemical equation 4Fe + 3O₂ + 2nH₂O → 2Fe₂O₃ · nH₂O shows that the product contains the original mass of the iron plus the mass of the reacted oxygen and water, leading to a net gain in weight.
89Science and Technology
Which one of the following is heavy water used in nuclear reactor?
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Answer: (B) Water having molecular weight 20 amu
Explanation
Heavy water, chemically known as deuterium oxide (D₂O), is a form of water that contains a larger than normal amount of the hydrogen isotope deuterium (²H or D), rather than the common hydrogen-1 isotope (protium). In a molecule of heavy water, two deuterium atoms are bonded to one oxygen atom. Since the atomic mass of deuterium is approximately 2 amu and the atomic mass of oxygen is approximately 16 amu, the total molecular weight of heavy water is 2 × 2 + 16 = 20 amu. In nuclear reactors, particularly Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), heavy water is utilized as an effective neutron moderator to slow down fast neutrons so they can maintain a fission chain reaction, as well as a coolant to transfer heat away from the reactor core.
90Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry?
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Answer: (D) Magnesium sulphate
Explanation
Magnesium sulphate, commonly known as Epsom salt, is utilized in the textile industry as a mordant to assist in the fixing of dyes onto fabrics. A mordant is a substance that combines with a dye to form an insoluble coordination complex, which then attaches firmly to the textile fibers, ensuring colorfastness. In the tanning industry, magnesium sulphate is used during the leather processing stage to facilitate the penetration of tanning agents and to add weight and firmness to the finished leather. It also serves as a buffering agent to maintain the required pH levels during chemical treatments.
91Science and Technology
By which one of the following, an old written material which cannot be read easily, can be read?
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Answer: (C) IR-rays
Explanation
Infrared (IR) rays are utilized to decipher old, faded, or charred written materials through a technique known as infrared reflectography. Many historical inks, particularly those containing carbon, absorb infrared radiation, while the writing surface such as parchment, paper, or papyrus tends to reflect it. When the document is illuminated with infrared light and viewed through an IR-sensitive camera, the hidden or obscured text appears as a high-contrast dark image against a lighter background. This allows researchers to see through layers of dirt, stains, or the effects of aging that render the material unreadable under visible light.
92Science and Technology
Which one of the following characteristics is common among parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
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Answer: (C) Homothermy
Explanation
Homothermy, commonly referred to as being warm-blooded, is the physiological ability of an organism to maintain a constant internal body temperature regardless of the fluctuations in the external environment. This characteristic is a fundamental trait shared by all members of the class Aves and the class Mammalia. The parrot, being a bird, and both the platypus and kangaroo, being mammals, all utilize internal metabolic processes to regulate their body heat. While these three animals represent different evolutionary lineages—specifically birds, monotreme (egg-laying) mammals, and marsupial (pouched) mammals—the presence of homothermy distinguishes them collectively from ectothermic or cold-blooded vertebrates such as reptiles, amphibians, and fish.
93Science and Technology
Which one of the following petroleum refinery products has the lowest boiling point?
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Answer: (C) Gasoline
Explanation
Gasoline, also known as petrol, consists of a mixture of volatile hydrocarbons with relatively short carbon chains, typically ranging from C₅ to C₁₀ or C₁₂. In the fractional distillation process of crude oil, components are separated according to their boiling points, which increase with the length of the carbon chain and molecular weight. Gasoline has a boiling point range of approximately 30°C to 200°C, which is lower than the ranges for kerosene, diesel, and lubricating oils because its smaller molecules have weaker intermolecular van der Waals forces, allowing them to vaporize at lower temperatures.
94Economy
In which one of the following places was Asia's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) set up?
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Answer: (B) Kandla
Explanation
The Kandla Export Processing Zone (KASEZ), located in Gujarat, was established in 1965 as the first Export Processing Zone in both India and Asia. It was designed as a multi-product zone to utilize the strategic proximity of the Kandla port for international trade. The primary objective was to stimulate export-oriented growth by providing a duty-free enclave with specialized infrastructure and fiscal incentives for manufacturing and processing activities. By creating a bonded area where goods could be imported duty-free for processing and subsequent export, it aimed to attract foreign investment and increase the country's foreign exchange earnings.
95Art and Culture
Which one of the following feature films is official nominee for Oscar, 2008 from India?
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Answer: (D) Tare Jamin Par
Explanation
Taare Zameen Par, directed and produced by Aamir Khan, was selected as India official entry for the 81st Academy Awards (Oscars 2009) in the Best Foreign Language Film category. The Film Federation of India made the selection in September 2008 from a pool of competing films. The movie tells the story of an eight-year-old boy who struggles with dyslexia and finds support through an unconventional art teacher. Although the film received critical acclaim and was the country official submission for the awards ceremony held in early 2009, it did not advance to the final shortlist of five nominations in its category.
96History
What is the correct chronological order of conferring Bharat Ratna to the following?
1. M. S. Subbalakshmi
2. Professor Amartya Sen
3. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
4. Sushri Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 3-1-2-4
Explanation
The chronological sequence of conferring the Bharat Ratna to these individuals begins with Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam in 1997 for his significant contributions to scientific research and defense modernization. He was followed by M. S. Subbalakshmi in 1998, who made history as the first musician to receive the honor. Professor Amartya Sen was conferred the award in 1999 in recognition of his groundbreaking work in welfare economics and social choice theory. Finally, Sushri Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar received the Bharat Ratna in 2001 for her legendary career and monumental contribution to the field of music. This timeline establishes the correct order as 3, 1, 2, and 4.
97Science and Technology
Which one of the following zones of the atmosphere is rich in ozone gas?
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Answer: (C) Stratosphere
Explanation
The stratosphere, which extends from approximately 10 to 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface, contains the highest concentration of ozone gas, forming the ozone layer. This layer is primarily situated in the lower portion of the stratosphere, between 15 and 35 kilometers. Ozone (O₃) is formed in this region through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O₂). When high-energy UV rays strike oxygen molecules, they split into individual oxygen atoms, which then combine with other O₂ molecules to create ozone. By absorbing the vast majority of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation, the ozone layer serves as a protective shield for life on Earth and is responsible for the temperature increase with altitude that characterizes the stratospheric thermal profile.
98Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an example of vestigial organ in man?
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Answer: (B) Ear muscles
Explanation
The auricular muscles, also known as the ear muscles, are considered vestigial in humans because they have lost their original ancestral function. In many other mammals, these muscles are used to rotate and orient the pinna (external ear) toward the source of sounds to improve hearing. While humans still possess these muscles, they are generally rudimentary and lack the strength or neural control to move the ears effectively. Since humans can easily turn their heads to localize sound, the evolutionary pressure to maintain functional ear-moving muscles was lost, rendering them vestigial structures.
99Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a freeliving bacterium that helps in nitrogen fixation in soil?
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Answer: (A) Azotobacter
Explanation
Azotobacter is a genus of free-living, aerobic, heterotrophic bacteria that reside in the soil and play a significant role in the nitrogen cycle. These bacteria are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), which eventually becomes available to plants. Unlike symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter functions independently of a host plant. It employs the enzyme nitrogenase to catalyze the reduction of atmospheric nitrogen. This process enhances soil fertility and provides a natural source of nitrogen for various ecosystems and agricultural crops without the need for chemical fertilizers.
100Geography
Which one of the following is associated with the formation of brown air in traffic congested cities?
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Answer: (B) Nitrogen oxide
Explanation
Brown air is a phenomenon primarily associated with photochemical smog, which is prevalent in urban areas with high vehicle density. The distinct brownish tint of the air is caused by the presence of nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), a member of the nitrogen oxide (NOₓ) family. In traffic-congested cities, internal combustion engines emit nitric oxide (NO), which subsequently reacts with oxygen or ozone in the atmosphere to form nitrogen dioxide. Because NO₂ absorbs light in the blue region of the spectrum, the transmitted light appears reddish-brown to the human eye. This gas, along with other secondary pollutants formed through sunlight-driven chemical reactions, creates the characteristic brown haze observed over cities during periods of heavy traffic and stagnant air.
101Geography
Which one of the following is the permissible level of noise in a silent zone at daytime?
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Answer: (A) 50 dB
Explanation
According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, different ambient air quality standards are set for noise in various areas. For a silence zone, which includes areas within 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions, and courts, the permissible noise limit is 50 dB during the daytime. Daytime is defined as the period from 6:00 AM to 10:00 PM. The limits are measured in dB (A) Leq, denoting the time-weighted average of the level of sound in decibels on scale A, which is related to human hearing.
102Geography
Which one of the following is the first National Park established in India?
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Answer: (B) Corbett
Explanation
Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, is the oldest national park in India. Located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, it was created to protect the endangered Bengal tiger and named after William Malcolm Hailey, the then Governor of the United Provinces. Shortly after India's independence, it was renamed Ramganga National Park before being renamed again in 1956 to honor the legendary hunter-turned-conservationist Jim Corbett. The park also holds the distinction of being the first to be included under the Project Tiger initiative launched in 1973.
103Science and Technology
Bryophytes are photosynthetic but do not have vascular tissue and true roots. This feature enables them to resemble with which of the following?
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Answer: (B) Algae
Explanation
Algae resemble bryophytes in being photosynthetic autotrophs that lack a specialized vascular system for the internal transport of water and minerals. Both groups are non-vascular plants because they do not possess xylem or phloem tissues. Furthermore, algae do not have true roots, stems, or leaves, often existing as a simple thallus. This shared absence of lignified conducting tissues and true root systems is a primitive botanical characteristic that differentiates them from higher vascular plants, requiring both groups to typically inhabit moist or aquatic environments to facilitate nutrient absorption and reproduction.
104Science and Technology
The genetically engineered 'Golden Rice' is rich in which of the following?
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Answer: (C) β-carotene and iron
Explanation
Golden Rice is a transgenic variety of Oryza sativa specifically engineered to biosynthesize β-carotene in the edible endosperm of the grain. This is achieved by inserting genes such as phytoene synthase (psy) from the daffodil or maize and phytoene desaturase (crtI) from the soil bacterium Erwinia uredovora. These enzymes enable the rice plant to complete the biosynthetic pathway for β-carotene, a precursor that the human body converts into Vitamin A. The characteristic yellow-orange color of the grain is a direct result of these accumulated carotenoids.
In the context of the same humanitarian biofortification project, researchers also integrated a ferritin gene from the French bean (Phaseolus vulgaris) into the rice genome to increase its iron content. Additional modifications involving phytase enzymes were often included to improve iron bioavailability by breaking down phytates that inhibit mineral absorption. This dual biofortification strategy was designed to address the simultaneous prevalence of Vitamin A deficiency and iron-deficiency anemia in developing countries where rice is the primary dietary staple. Consequently, Golden Rice is recognized for being rich in both β-carotene and iron.
105Geography
Consider the following statements :
1. National Parks are a special category of protected areas of land and sea coasts where people are an integral part of the system.
2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation of particular species.
3. Biosphere Reserves are connected with the habitat of a particular wild animal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Wildlife Sanctuaries are established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, primarily for the protection, propagation, or development of particular species of wildlife or their environment. They allow for a limited degree of human interference, such as the grazing of livestock or the collection of minor forest produce, provided these activities do not harm the specific animals or plants being protected.
Statement 1 is incorrect because National Parks are strictly protected areas where human activities such as forestry, grazing, and cultivation are prohibited, and no person is considered an integral part of the system. Humans are instead considered an integral part of Biosphere Reserves under the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme. Statement 3 is incorrect because Biosphere Reserves are designed to protect the entire ecosystem and the genetic diversity of a region, including the human communities living there, rather than being focused on the habitat of a single specific wild animal.
106Economy
Which one of the following is categorized as millet?
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Answer: (C) Sorghum
Explanation
Sorghum, scientifically known as Sorghum bicolor and commonly referred to as Jowar, is a member of the Poaceae family and is officially categorized as a major millet. Millets are a group of small-seeded grasses grown as cereal crops, predominantly in the marginal lands of dry areas in temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions. Sorghum is included in this category because of its physiological similarities to other millets, such as its C4 photosynthetic pathway, drought tolerance, and the small size of its grains. In India, it is traditionally grouped with Pearl millet and Finger millet as part of the staple millet crops that provide essential nutrients and food security in semi-arid environments.
107Science and Technology
The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour to skin and hairs due to its reaction with which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Proteins and amino acids
Explanation
Henna contains a natural coloring agent called lawsone (C₁₀H₆O₃), also known as hennotannic acid. This naphthoquinone compound has a strong chemical affinity for keratin, which is the primary fibrous structural protein found in human skin, hair, and nails. When henna paste is applied, the lawsone molecules migrate into the outermost layer of the skin or the hair shaft and bind covalently with the proteins through a Michael addition reaction. Specifically, lawsone reacts with the thiol groups of cysteine and the amino groups of various amino acids within the keratin structure. This permanent chemical bond results in the characteristic orange-red stain that persists until the skin cells naturally exfoliate or the hair grows out.
108Economy
Which one of the following plants is preferred for mixed cropping in order to enhance the bioavailability of nitrogen?
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Answer: (B) Gram
Explanation
Gram is a leguminous plant belonging to the family Fabaceae, which plays a crucial role in soil fertility management. These plants are preferred for mixed cropping because they host symbiotic bacteria, primarily of the genus Rhizobium, within specialized structures called root nodules. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) and convert it into ammonia and other nitrogenous forms that are easily accessible to plants. By incorporating gram into a cropping system, the soil is naturally enriched with nitrogen, thereby enhancing the bioavailability of this essential nutrient for the associated or subsequent crops and reducing the requirement for synthetic nitrogenous fertilizers.
109Geography
The 'Red Data Book' containing information on all wild plants and animals in danger of extinction has been published by which one of the following?
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Answer: (A) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
Explanation
The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is the global authority responsible for compiling and publishing the Red Data Book, which is now more widely known as the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Established in 1948, the IUCN provides a scientifically rigorous framework for assessing the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies across the globe. The Red Data Book categorizes wild plants and animals into various groups such as Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable based on specific criteria like population size reduction, rate of decline, and geographic distribution. This inventory serves as a critical tool for conservationists and policymakers to identify which species require immediate protection and to guide international biodiversity conservation efforts.
110Science and Technology
Wavelengths of which of the following colours of the visible spectrum of light are maximally absorbed by green plants?
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Answer: (B) Red and Blue
Explanation
Photosynthesis in green plants is primarily driven by chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b pigments. These pigments exhibit distinct absorption peaks within the visible light spectrum. Chlorophyll a maximally absorbs light in the blue-violet region (approximately 430 nm) and the red region (approximately 660 nm). Similarly, chlorophyll b shows peak absorption in the blue region (around 450 nm) and the orange-red region (around 640 nm). These wavelengths provide the necessary energy to drive the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. While blue light contains more energy per photon, red light is often considered more efficient for biomass production. Because these specific wavelengths are absorbed for energy, they are effectively removed from the light reflected by the plant, whereas green and yellow wavelengths are reflected or transmitted, making the plants appear green.
111Geography
Consider the following regions of India :
1. Western Ghats
2. Aravali Hills
3. Eastern Himalayas
Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot spots?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The concept of a biodiversity hotspot identifies regions that harbor high levels of endemic species while facing significant habitat loss. To qualify, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and have lost at least 70 percent of its original primary vegetation. As of 2009, India is recognized as having regions within three global biodiversity hotspots. The Western Ghats qualify due to their exceptional levels of plant and animal endemism, particularly among amphibians and flowering plants. The Eastern Himalayas are part of the broader Himalayan hotspot, which encompasses the entire mountain range and is noted for its diverse ecosystems and numerous species found nowhere else on Earth. These areas are critical global priorities for conservation because of their unique biological heritage and the high degree of threat they face.
112Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Medicinal Product)
A. Quinine
B. Morphine
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
List-II
1. Poppy plant
2. Bacterium
3. Cinchona bark
4. Fungus
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Quinine is a medication used to treat malaria and babesiosis that is naturally extracted from the bark of the Cinchona tree. Morphine is a potent opiate analgesic used for pain relief and is obtained from the dried latex of the opium poppy plant. Penicillin represents a group of antibiotics derived from Penicillium molds, which are classified as a type of fungus. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic discovered as a natural product synthesized by the soil bacterium Streptomyces aureofaciens.
113History
A Forgotten Empire, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which one of the following Empires?
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Answer: (C) Vijayanagar Empire
Explanation
Robert Sewell, a member of the Indian Civil Service and a noted historian, published A Forgotten Empire: Vijayanagar; A Contribution to the History of India in 1900. This pioneering work was instrumental in reconstructing the history of the Vijayanagar Empire, which had largely been overlooked by previous colonial historians. Sewell primarily relied on the detailed accounts of Portuguese travelers such as Domingo Paes and Fernão Nunes, who visited the capital during the 16th century. The book provides a comprehensive narrative of the empire's rise in the 14th century, its cultural and political zenith under rulers like Krishnadevaraya, and its eventual decline following the Battle of Talikota in 1565.
114Science and Technology
Which one of the following is considered as the drug of last resort for human being?
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Answer: (C) Chloramphenicol
Explanation
Chloramphenicol is categorized as a drug of last resort primarily due to its association with severe and potentially fatal side effects, most notably bone marrow suppression and aplastic anemia. Because of these serious safety concerns, medical guidelines reserve its administration for life-threatening situations where other safer antibiotics have failed or are contraindicated. It remains highly effective for treating specific conditions like bacterial meningitis and brain abscesses because it possesses excellent lipid solubility, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier more effectively than many other antibiotics. In the context of clinical practice, it was traditionally the fallback treatment for severe infections such as typhoid fever and rickettsial diseases when resistance to first-line agents occurred.
115Geography
Assertion (A) : Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the sun.
Reason (R) : Venus is the second planet from the sun in our solar system.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
The assertion is false because Venus is the third brightest object in the sky, not the second. The Sun is the brightest object seen from Earth, with an apparent magnitude of approximately -26.7, followed by the Moon, which has an apparent magnitude of about -12.6. Venus is the next brightest object, with a maximum apparent magnitude of approximately -4.9. The reason is a true statement as Venus is indeed the second planet from the Sun in our solar system, orbiting between Mercury and Earth. While its proximity to the Sun and Earth contributes to its brightness, the primary reason Venus is the brightest planet is its exceptionally high albedo (reflectivity). It is covered by a dense layer of clouds composed mostly of sulfuric acid, which reflect about 70% of the sunlight that reaches the planet.
116Geography
Assertion (A) : Despite low evaporation and stable stratification of the atmosphere, salinity is high in polar regions.
Reason (R) : Sea water freezes leaving the remaining water saline than before.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
Assertion (A) is false because polar regions are characterized by relatively low surface salinity, typically ranging between 30 and 34 parts per thousand. This is due to the low evaporation rates in cold climates and a significant influx of fresh water from the melting of sea ice, glaciers, and large river discharges into the Arctic basin. In the global ocean salinity profile, the highest salinity is found in the subtropics due to high evaporation, while the poles remain among the least saline surface waters.
Reason (R) is true because it describes the process of brine rejection. As sea water cools and freezes to form sea ice, the crystalline structure of the ice excludes salt ions. These salts are expelled into the surrounding unfrozen water, which increases the salinity and density of the remaining liquid. This specific mechanism is crucial for the formation of dense water masses, such as Antarctic Bottom Water, which drives the global thermohaline circulation.
117Geography
Assertion (A) : Physiological density is preferable to arithmetic density as an index of population density.
Reason (R) : Physiological density is based on arable land while arithmetic density is based on total area.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Arithmetic density is a crude measure of population pressure calculated as the ratio of total population to the total land area, which includes unproductive regions like deserts and mountains. In contrast, physiological density is defined as the ratio of total population to the total arable land area. By focusing specifically on the land capable of being used for agriculture, physiological density provides a more accurate and meaningful index of the actual pressure people exert on the food-producing capacity of a territory. Therefore, the fact that physiological density is based on arable land rather than total area makes it the preferable index for geographical and demographic analysis.
118Science and Technology
Assertion (A) : Water in an open pond remains cool even on a hot summer day.
Reason (R) : Water on heating evaporates and heat energy gets converted into latent heat.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The phenomenon of water remaining cool in an open pond is due to evaporative cooling. Evaporation is an endothermic process where liquid water absorbs heat from its surroundings or from the water body itself to change its state into vapor. This required energy is known as the latent heat of vaporization. When water molecules at the surface gain sufficient kinetic energy to escape into the air, they take this heat energy with them. Consequently, the average kinetic energy of the remaining water molecules decreases, leading to a reduction in the temperature of the bulk water. On hot summer days, the increased ambient temperature and lower humidity enhance the rate of evaporation, which continuously removes heat from the pond and keeps the water significantly cooler than the surrounding air. Thus, the conversion of heat energy into latent heat during evaporation directly explains the cooling effect observed.
119Science and Technology
Assertion (A) : Soaps do not form lather with water containing salts of calcium and magnesium.
Reason (R) : Calcium and magnesium salts of long- chain fatty acids are insoluble in water.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids, such as sodium stearate (C₁₇H₃₅COONa). Hard water contains dissolved salts of calcium and magnesium. When soap is added to hard water, a displacement reaction occurs where the sodium ions are replaced by calcium or magnesium ions. This reaction produces calcium or magnesium salts of the fatty acids, such as calcium stearate:
2C₁₇H₃₅COONa + Ca²⁺ → (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca + 2Na⁺
These resulting calcium and magnesium salts are insoluble in water and precipitate out as a sticky, curd-like substance called scum. Because the soap molecules are consumed in the formation of this insoluble precipitate rather than remaining dissolved to lower the surface tension of the water, the soap fails to produce lather. The insolubility of these salts is the specific reason why lathering does not occur in the presence of calcium and magnesium ions.