By using which one of the following techniques, is DNA fingerprint done?
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Answer: (D) Southern Blotting
Explanation
Southern Blotting is the primary laboratory procedure used in DNA fingerprinting to identify specific genetic patterns. Developed by Alec Jeffreys, the technique involves the transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments from a gel to a solid medium, such as a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane. In the context of DNA profiling, the process starts with the digestion of genomic DNA using restriction enzymes to produce fragments of varying lengths. These fragments are separated by size through gel electrophoresis and then blotted onto the membrane. The membrane is subsequently exposed to labeled probes that hybridize with specific Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs). The resulting hybridization pattern is visualized using autoradiography, producing a unique genetic profile that serves as a biological identifier for an individual.
2Science and Technology
On which one of the following conservative laws, does a rocket work?
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Answer: (C) Linear momentum
Explanation
A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum, which is a direct consequence of Newton's third law of motion. When the fuel in a rocket burns, it produces high-pressure gases that are expelled through the rear nozzle at a very high velocity. According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of an isolated system must remain constant. If the mass of the expelled exhaust gases is m and their velocity is v, they possess a downward momentum p = mv. To balance this, the rocket body must acquire an equal and opposite upward momentum P = MV, where M is the instantaneous mass of the rocket and V is its velocity. This reaction force, known as thrust, allows the rocket to accelerate forward even in the vacuum of space.
3Geography
Which one of the following is correct? The mean distance from the Sun to the Earth is called a/an
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Answer: (C) Astronomical Unit
Explanation
The mean distance from the Sun to the Earth is defined as the Astronomical Unit (AU). It serves as a fundamental unit of length in astronomy for measuring distances within our solar system. The value of one AU is approximately 149.6 million kilometers (1.496 × 10⁸ km). Because the Earth follows an elliptical orbit, its distance from the Sun varies throughout the year, reaching a minimum at perihelion and a maximum at aphelion. The Astronomical Unit represents the average of these distances, providing a standard baseline for calculating the orbital paths and positions of other planets and celestial bodies relative to the Sun.
4Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an element?
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Answer: (B) Diamond
Explanation
Diamond is a naturally occurring crystalline form of the chemical element carbon (C). It is an allotrope of carbon, meaning it consists entirely of carbon atoms arranged in a specific tetrahedral crystal lattice. Because it is composed of only one type of atom and cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means, it is classified as an element. Carbon is a fundamental non-metal found in group 14 of the periodic table, and diamond is one of its most well-known pure solid states.
5Science and Technology
Which one of the following substances used in the manufacture of safety matches
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Answer: (A) Red Phosphorus
Explanation
Safety matches are designed so that the combustible components are separated between the match head and the striking surface of the box to prevent accidental ignition. The striking surface contains a mixture of red phosphorus, powdered glass, and a binder. Red phosphorus is the preferred allotrope for this purpose because it is chemically stable at room temperature and non-toxic compared to other forms. When the match head is rubbed against the striking surface, friction converts a small amount of red phosphorus into white phosphorus. This minute quantity of white phosphorus immediately reacts with the oxidizing agents in the match head, such as potassium chlorate (KClO₃), to initiate the combustion process.
6Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correct? Butter is
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Answer: (B) an emulsion
Explanation
Butter is a colloid classified as an emulsion, which is a mixture of two or more liquids that are normally immiscible. Specifically, butter is a water-in-oil emulsion where water droplets serve as the dispersed phase within a continuous dispersion medium of liquid and semi-solid fat. This structure is created through the mechanical process of churning cream, which breaks down the fat globule membranes and allows the fats to coalesce, trapping tiny droplets of the aqueous phase within the resulting fat matrix.
7Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the softest?
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Answer: (A) Sodium
Explanation
Sodium is an alkali metal with a single valence electron and a large atomic radius, which results in relatively weak metallic bonding. In the metallic lattice of sodium, the electrostatic attraction between the positively charged ions and the delocalized sea of electrons is low compared to metals with more valence electrons or smaller atomic sizes. This weak interatomic force allows the atoms to slide past one another easily under minimal pressure. Consequently, sodium is exceptionally soft and possesses a Mohs hardness of approximately 0.5, making it malleable enough to be sliced with a common laboratory knife at room temperature.
8Science and Technology
Which one of the following properties changes with valency
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Answer: (B) Equivalent weight
Explanation
The equivalent weight of an element is the mass of the element which combines with or displaces a fixed quantity of a standard element like hydrogen, oxygen, or chlorine. It is calculated using the following fundamental relationship:
Equivalent weight = Atomic weight/Valency
While the atomic weight is a constant intrinsic property of an element, many elements exhibit variable valency (especially transition metals). Since valency is the denominator in the formula, any change in the valency of the element results in a corresponding change in its equivalent weight. For example, iron can have a valency of 2 in ferrous compounds (FeCl₂) or 3 in ferric compounds (FeCl₃), leading to two different equivalent weights for the same element.
9Polity and Governance
Sarkaria Commission was established to study
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Answer: (B) Centre-State relations
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission was constituted by the Government of India in 1983 under the chairmanship of Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States. Its primary objective was to examine the distribution of powers and responsibilities in all spheres and recommend changes that could improve the coordination and cooperation between the central and state governments. The commission thoroughly investigated various issues such as the appointment and role of Governors, the application of Article 356, the distribution of financial resources, and the functioning of the Inter-State Council. Its comprehensive report submitted in 1988 provided a roadmap for strengthening the federal structure of the Indian polity by ensuring a more balanced relationship between the Centre and the States.
10Science and Technology
For which one of the following is the density maximum?
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Answer: (A) Chloroform
Explanation
Density is defined as the mass of a substance per unit volume, represented by the formula ρ = m/V. Chloroform (CHCl₃) is a heavy, halogenated organic liquid with a density of approximately 1.489 g/cm³ at room temperature. This high density is a direct consequence of its molecular composition, which includes three chlorine atoms. Because chlorine has a relatively high atomic mass of approximately 35.5 u, the resulting molecular weight of chloroform is 119.38 g/mol. This concentration of mass within the molecular volume leads to a liquid state that is significantly denser than the other substances listed, including liquid water (which has a maximum density of 1.00 g/cm³ at 4°C), its solid form, or light aromatic hydrocarbons.
11Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution?
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Answer: (B) Iodine
Explanation
Iodine is a highly effective broad-spectrum antiseptic used for disinfecting skin and treating minor wounds. It functions by rapidly penetrating the cell walls of microorganisms and oxidizing critical proteins, nucleotides, and fatty acids, which leads to the destruction of bacteria, fungi, and viruses. One common antiseptic formulation is Tincture of Iodine, which consists of elemental iodine and potassium iodide dissolved in a solution of ethanol and water. Another widely used antiseptic is povidone-iodine, an iodophor complex that releases iodine slowly to provide sustained antimicrobial activity while being less irritating to human tissue than traditional alcoholic solutions.
12Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
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Answer: (C) Crystallisation of table salt from see water
Explanation
Crystallisation is a physical change because it involves the transition of a substance from a liquid or dissolved state into a solid crystalline structure without altering its molecular composition. In the case of sea water, the process involves removing the solvent through evaporation, which increases the concentration of sodium chloride (NaCl) until it precipitates out of the solution. The chemical identity of the salt remains identical throughout the process, and the change is reversible by simply adding water to dissolve the crystals again. Unlike chemical changes, no new substances are formed and no intramolecular bonds are broken or created.
13Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the nuclear power plants of India in the increasing order of their installed power generation capacity?
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Answer: (B) Narora-Kaiga-Rawatbhata-Tarapur
Explanation
By 2008, the installed power generation capacity of India's nuclear power plants was based on the number of operational units and their respective outputs. The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) in Uttar Pradesh consisted of two units of 220 MW each, totaling 440 MW. The Kaiga Generating Station (KGS) in Karnataka had three operational units of 220 MW each (Kaiga-1, 2, and 3), bringing its total capacity to 660 MW. The Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) at Rawatbhata had four operational units (RAPS 1-4) with a combined capacity of approximately 740 MW, including the 100 MW RAPS-1, 200 MW RAPS-2, and two 220 MW units. The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) in Maharashtra was the largest in the country, having added two large 540 MW units (TAPS 3 and 4) in 2005 and 2006 to its existing 160 MW units (TAPS 1 and 2), for a total capacity of 1400 MW. Consequently, the correct increasing order of capacity is Narora, Kaiga, Rawatbhata, and Tarapur.
14Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the Commonwealth Secretary General?
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Answer: (B) Kamalesh Sharma
Explanation
Kamalesh Sharma, a distinguished Indian diplomat, was elected as the Commonwealth Secretary-General during the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting held in Kampala, Uganda, in November 2007. He officially took office on April 1, 2008, becoming the first Indian and the first person from the South Asian region to hold this prestigious international position. Prior to this appointment, he had an extensive career in the Indian Foreign Service, including roles as India High Commissioner to the United Kingdom and as India Permanent Representative to the United Nations. He succeeded Don McKinnon of New Zealand and served as the fifth Secretary-General of the organization.
15History
Among the following persons whose birth anniversary is celebrated as Sadbhavana Divas and death anniversary as Antiterrorism Day?
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Answer: (B) Rajiv Gandhi
Explanation
Rajiv Gandhi, who served as the Prime Minister of India from 1984 to 1989, is the individual associated with both these observances. His birth anniversary, observed on August 20, is celebrated as Sadbhavana Divas or Harmony Day. The theme of this day is to promote national integration and communal harmony among Indian people of all religions and languages. His death anniversary, May 21, is observed as Anti-terrorism Day to commemorate his assassination by a suicide bomber in 1991. This day is marked to spread the message of peace, humanity, and unity, and to discourage the youth from moving towards terrorism and violence by highlighting the suffering it causes to the nation.
16History
Who among the following is the author of the book 'India Remembered'?
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Answer: (C) Pamela Mountbatten
Explanation
Pamela Mountbatten, the younger daughter of the last Viceroy of India, Lord Louis Mountbatten, authored the book India Remembered: A Personal Account of the Mountbattens During the Transfer of Power. Published in 2007, the work is based on her personal diaries and a collection of family photographs from her time in India between 1947 and 1948. It provides an intimate, first-hand perspective on the social and political atmosphere during the transition to independence and the Partition, including insights into the close relationship between the Mountbatten family and Indian leaders.
17History
Who among the following fast bowlers has taken a hat-trick in the very first over of a Test Cricket Match?
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Answer: (D) Irfan Pathan
Explanation
Irfan Pathan achieved the unique feat of taking a hat-trick in the very first over of a Test match during India's tour of Pakistan in 2006. This milestone occurred in the third Test at the National Stadium in Karachi on January 29, 2006. Pathan dismissed Salman Butt, Younis Khan, and Mohammad Yousaf with the fourth, fifth, and sixth deliveries of the opening over. He utilized his natural swing to find the edges and beat the defense of the Pakistani top-order batsmen, making him the only cricketer to record a hat-trick in the first over of a Test match.
18Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
A. Jeev Milkha Singh
B. Jayanta Talukdar
C. N. Kunjarani Devi
D. Jhulan Goswami
List-II
1. Archery
2. Cricket
3. Power lifting
4. Golf
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Jeev Milkha Singh is a pioneering Indian professional golfer who became the first Indian to join the European Tour in 1998 and topped the Asian Tour Order of Merit in 2006. Jayanta Talukdar is a prominent recurve archer who reached the world number one ranking in 2006 after winning a gold medal at the Archery World Cup in Porec. N. Kunjarani Devi is one of India's most decorated weightlifters, frequently associated with powerlifting and strength sports in competitive lists, who won a gold medal at the 2006 Commonwealth Games. Jhulan Goswami is a legendary former captain of the Indian women's cricket team and was the recipient of the ICC Women's Player of the Year award in 2007.
19Science and Technology
In which one of the following places is the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located?
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Answer: (C) Kalpakkam
Explanation
The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) was established in 1971 at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, as the second-largest research establishment of the Department of Atomic Energy. The center is primarily focused on the research and development of Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) technology, which constitutes the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear power program. It houses the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) and oversees the development of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). The facility conducts multidisciplinary research in areas such as sodium technology, reactor engineering, and materials science to support the long-term sustainability of nuclear power through the efficient use of uranium and thorium resources.
20Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
A. Girija Devi
B. Indira Nooyi
C. Kiran Desai
D. Chitra Bharucha
List-II
1. Leading woman executive
2. Leading writer
3. Hematologist turned executive of the BBC trust
4. Anti-liquor activist
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Girija Devi is a social activist recognized for her involvement in anti-liquor and prohibition campaigns in India. Indira Nooyi is a highly successful business executive who attained global prominence as the Chairperson and CEO of PepsiCo starting in 2006. Kiran Desai is a celebrated Indian author who won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for her novel The Inheritance of Loss. Chitra Bharucha is a consultant hematologist by profession who made history as the first woman and first person from an ethnic minority to serve as the Vice-Chair of the BBC Trust.
21Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
A. M. F. Hussain
B. Zakir Hussain
C. Ulhas Kashalkar
D. Yamini Krishnamurty
List-II
1. Tabla
2. Classical dance
3. Painting
4. Vocal classical
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
M. F. Hussain was a world-renowned modernist artist and a founding member of the Progressive Artists' Group, primarily known for his contribution to Indian painting. Zakir Hussain is a celebrated virtuoso and master of the Tabla, representing the Punjab gharana of Hindustani classical music. Ulhas Kashalkar is an eminent Hindustani classical vocalist who has gained mastery over the Gwalior, Jaipur, and Agra gharanas, specializing in vocal classical music. Yamini Krishnamurty is a legendary figure in the field of Indian classical dance, specifically recognized for her mastery and performances in Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi.
22Economy
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Kingfisher Airlines-MDLR Airlines
Explanation
Kingfisher Airlines acquired a controlling stake in Air Deccan (Deccan Aviation) in June 2007 to expand its operations and bypass the five-year domestic flying requirement for international routes. MDLR Airlines was a separate regional carrier based in Gurgaon and was never acquired by or merged with Kingfisher Airlines. Therefore, the pairing of Kingfisher Airlines with MDLR Airlines is inaccurate as it does not represent a major corporate acquisition or merger.
23Geography
Which one of the following days is observed as the World Environment Day?
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Answer: (C) 5th June
Explanation
World Environment Day is observed globally on 5th June every year to promote awareness and action for the protection of the environment. The observance was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972 to mark the opening of the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment, which was the first major international conference focused on environmental issues. Since the first celebration in 1974, the day has been led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and has become a primary vehicle for encouraging political attention and public outreach regarding environmental degradation, climate change, and biodiversity conservation. Each year, the day is hosted by a different country with a specific theme to highlight a particular environmental concern.
24Science and Technology
Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one of the following fields?
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Answer: (A) Physics
Explanation
Meghnad Saha was a distinguished Indian astrophysicist whose work laid the foundation for modern stellar astrophysics. He is most famous for the formulation of the Saha ionization equation in 1920, which provides a mathematical relationship between the ionization state of an element and the temperature and pressure of a gas. This equation, expressed as (nᵢ₊₁ nₑ)/(nᵢ) = (2)/(λ³) (gᵢ₊₁)/(gᵢ) exp(-χᵢ/kᵦ T), allowed scientists to relate the spectral lines of stars to their actual physical temperatures. His discovery enabled astronomers to determine the chemical composition and thermal conditions of stellar atmospheres with precision, fundamentally changing how researchers interpret the light received from distant celestial bodies. In addition to his theoretical work, he contributed significantly to the institutional development of science in India by establishing the Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics.
25History
Who among the following was the Governor-General of India immediately preceding Chakravarthi Rajgopalachari?
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Answer: (B) Lord Mountbatten
Explanation
Lord Mountbatten served as the last Viceroy of British India and the first Governor-General of the independent Dominion of India between August 15, 1947, and June 21, 1948. He remained in office after independence at the request of the Indian leadership to oversee the transition of power. Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari was appointed to succeed him on June 21, 1948, becoming the only Indian to hold the post until it was replaced by the office of the President of India in 1950.
26History
With which one of the following did the Civil Disobedience Movement in India commence?
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Answer: (A) The Dandi March
Explanation
The Civil Disobedience Movement was formally initiated with the historic Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha. Mahatma Gandhi commenced this march on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad toward the coastal village of Dandi with 78 designated followers. The march spanned approximately 240 miles and lasted 24 days. Gandhi chose salt as the central symbol of resistance because the British salt tax and government monopoly heavily burdened the poorest sections of Indian society. Upon reaching Dandi on April 6, 1930, Gandhi broke the law by manufacturing salt from seawater. This symbolic act of defiance served as the official commencement of the Civil Disobedience Movement, triggering a massive wave of non-violent protests and the illegal manufacture of salt across the country.
27History
After 1857, who of the following announced, at a Darbar at Allahabad, the assumption of the Government of India by the Sovereign of Great Britain?
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Answer: (A) Lord Canning
Explanation
Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 Revolt, presided over a grand Darbar held at Allahabad on November 1, 1858. During this event, he read the Royal Proclamation issued by Queen Victoria, which announced the formal transfer of the administration of India from the East India Company to the British Crown. This change in governance was mandated by the Government of India Act 1858, passed by the British Parliament to stabilize Indian administration after the rebellion. With this proclamation, Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India, signifying his role as the direct representative of the British Sovereign.
28History
Arrange the following in chronological order
1. Third Carnatic War
2. First Burmese War
3. First Mysore War
4. Second Afghan War
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above?
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Answer: (B) 1-3-2-4
Explanation
The Third Carnatic War took place between 1758 and 1763 as part of the global Seven Years War, resulting in the definitive defeat of the French in India. The First Anglo-Mysore War followed from 1767 to 1769, involving a conflict between Haidar Ali and the British East India Company that ended with the Treaty of Madras. The First Anglo-Burmese War occurred much later, from 1824 to 1826, ending with the Treaty of Yandabo after the British gained control over Assam and Arakan. The Second Anglo-Afghan War was fought between 1878 and 1880 during the Forward Policy of Lord Lytton to counter Russian influence, eventually leading to the Treaty of Gandamak.
29Geography
Which one of the following has geographical position of 0° latitude and 0° longitude?
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Answer: (A) In the South Atlantic Ocean
Explanation
The geographical position of 0° latitude and 0° longitude is the intersection of the Equator and the Prime Meridian. This point is located in the Gulf of Guinea within the Atlantic Ocean, situated off the western coast of Africa. The Equator serves as the reference line for latitude that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, while the Prime Meridian is the reference for longitude. This intersection is found in the open sea within the South Atlantic Ocean basin. It is located several hundred kilometers away from the nearest landmasses, marking the zero-point from which all other geographic coordinates are measured on the Earth's surface.
30History
Who among the following was the first Governor General of India?
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Answer: (B) Lord William Dentinck
Explanation
The Charter Act of 1833 redesignated the office of the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. This act centralized the administration of British India by vesting all civil and military powers in the hands of the Governor-General. Lord William Bentinck, who was already serving as the Governor-General of Bengal since 1828, became the first individual to hold the title of Governor-General of India under the provisions of this legislation. His tenure is historically significant for various administrative, educational, and social reforms, including the suppression of Thuggee and the implementation of English education.
31History
In which one of the following Sessions was the Indian National Congress split into Moderates and Extremists?
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Answer: (C) Surat
Explanation
The Surat Session of the Indian National Congress in 1907, presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh, is historically significant for the Surat Split. This session saw the party divide into the Moderates and the Extremists due to intense ideological differences. The conflict centered on the methods of agitation and the implementation of the Swadeshi and Boycott resolutions passed in earlier sessions. The Extremist leaders advocated for an all-India movement involving passive resistance and a total boycott of British institutions. The Moderates favored more cautious, constitutional methods and wished to confine the boycott specifically to the province of Bengal. Disagreements over the choice of the session president and the official stance on the boycott movement led to a total breakdown in order, resulting in the formal expulsion of the Extremists from the organization for nearly a decade.
32History
In which one of the following cities, was the East India Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?
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Answer: (B) London
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association in London in 1866 to serve as a platform for advocating Indian interests directly within the British capital. The organization was designed to influence British public opinion and provide members of the British Parliament with reliable information regarding Indian grievances and the socio-economic conditions under colonial rule. By facilitating discussions and presenting papers on Indian affairs, Naoroji aimed to promote the welfare of Indians and lobby for political reforms, making the association a crucial precursor to later nationalistic movements like the Indian National Congress.
33History
Who among the following had founded the Theosophical Society in the United States of America?
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Answer: (B) Madame Blavatsky
Explanation
The Theosophical Society was established in New York City, USA, on November 17, 1875. The movement was spearheaded by Madame Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, a Russian mystic, along with Colonel Henry Steel Olcott and William Quan Judge. Madame Blavatsky was the driving spiritual force behind the society, which aimed to promote the universal brotherhood of humanity and explore the esoteric laws of nature. Her seminal works, including Isis Unveiled and The Secret Doctrine, defined the philosophical framework of the organization. Although the society's international headquarters were later moved to Adyar, India, in 1882, its founding and initial growth occurred in the United States under the leadership and intellectual contributions of Madame Blavatsky.
34History
Who among the following was not a party to the coalition that fought against the English in the Battle of Buxar?
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Answer: (B) Mir Jafar
Explanation
Mir Jafar was not a member of the confederacy that challenged the British at the Battle of Buxar in 1764. Following the tensions between the British East India Company and Mir Kasim over trade duties and the misuse of dastaks, the British deposed Mir Kasim and reinstated Mir Jafar as the Nawab of Bengal in 1763. While Mir Kasim fled to Oudh to form a triple alliance with Shuja-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Awadh, and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, Mir Jafar remained the British-supported ruler in Bengal. Consequently, the coalition that fought against Hector Munro's forces consisted only of Mir Kasim, Shuja-ud-daulah, and Shah Alam II, while Mir Jafar maintained his puppet status under the Company's influence until his death in early 1765.
35Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right.
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 26 of the Constitution of India provides the freedom to manage religious affairs, granting specific collective rights to every religious denomination or any section thereof. These rights are subject to the limitations of public order, morality, and health. Under clause (a), denominations have the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. Clause (b) guarantees the right of these denominations to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, ensuring autonomy in their internal religious practices and rituals. Clause (c) specifically empowers them to own and acquire both movable and immovable property. Additionally, clause (d) mandates the right to administer such property in accordance with the law. Therefore, all three statements provided are verbatim constitutional provisions found within Article 26.
36Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Committee on Public Accounts and the Committee on Public Undertakings are both joint committees of Parliament consisting of 22 members each. In both committees, 15 members are elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 members are elected from the Rajya Sabha, meaning members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with both. The Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members who are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its own members. It is unique among the three financial committees in that its membership is drawn exclusively from the Lok Sabha, with no representation from the Rajya Sabha.
37Polity and Governance
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which one of the following Panchayati Raj structures?
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Answer: (C) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level
Explanation
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957 to review the Community Development Programme and National Extension Service, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system for democratic decentralization. This structure comprises the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zilla Parishad at the district level. The committee envisioned these tiers as being organically linked, with the Panchayat Samiti acting as the primary executive body and the Zilla Parishad serving as an advisory and supervisory body. Rajasthan was the first state to adopt this specific three-tier system in 1959 based on these recommendations.
38History
Consider the following statements
1. The USSR assisted in the building of the Bhilai Steel Plant.
2. The British assisted in the building of the Bokaro Steel Plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Bhilai Steel Plant, located in Chhattisgarh, was established through an agreement signed with the Soviet Union (USSR) in 1955. It was one of the key industrial projects of the Second Five-Year Plan intended to create a strong indigenous steel industry. While the Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand was also built with technical and financial support from the USSR starting in 1964, British collaboration was specifically dedicated to the development of the Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal.
39Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Secretary Generals of the United Nations?
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Answer: (A) U. Thant-K. Waldheim-B.B. Ghali-K. Annan
Explanation
U Thant of Burma served as the third Secretary-General of the United Nations from 1961 to 1971. He was succeeded by Kurt Waldheim of Austria, who served as the fourth Secretary-General from 1972 to 1981. Boutros Boutros-Ghali of Egypt held the office as the sixth Secretary-General from 1992 to 1996. Following him, Kofi Annan of Ghana served as the seventh Secretary-General for two terms spanning 1997 to 2006. This sequence accurately reflects the chronological progression of the leadership of the United Nations Secretariat.
40History
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the freedom movements of India?
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Answer: (B) Non-Cooperation Movement-Civil Disobedience Movement-Quit India Movement
Explanation
The Indian independence struggle witnessed these major movements in a distinct sequence. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 to protest the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and support the Khilafat cause. A decade later, the Civil Disobedience Movement commenced in 1930 with the Dandi March, focusing on the defiance of salt laws. The Quit India Movement, the final mass struggle, was initiated in 1942 following the failure of the Cripps Mission, calling for an immediate end to British rule in India.
41Geography
Assertion (A): The Equatorial regions bulge outwards by about 21 kilometre compared to Poles.
Reason (R): Earth's slow rotation reduces the effect of gravity around the Equator.
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The Earth is an oblate spheroid rather than a perfect sphere, characterized by a flattening at the poles and a bulge at the equator. This is evidenced by the difference in radii: the equatorial radius is approximately 6378 km, while the polar radius is approximately 6357 km. This difference of roughly 21 km confirms that the equatorial regions bulge outwards. This shape was primarily determined during the Earth's early formative stages when it was in a semi-molten state and responded to the centrifugal force generated by its rotation.
The rotation of the Earth also influences the effective gravity experienced at the surface. At the equator, the outward-directed centrifugal force (a꜀ = ω² R) is at its maximum and acts in direct opposition to the inward pull of gravity. This reduces the net gravitational acceleration (g) at the equator. While both statements are factually correct and result from the Earth's rotation, the reduction in the effect of gravity is a concurrent physical consequence of rotation rather than the direct causal explanation for the geometric bulge of the Earth's mass.
42Science and Technology
Assertion (A): It is easier to swim in seawater compared to ordinary water.
Reason (R): Density of sea-water is higher than that of ordinary water.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Seawater contains a high concentration of dissolved salts, primarily sodium chloride, which increases its mass per unit volume compared to fresh water. Consequently, the density of seawater is approximately 1025 kg/m³, while ordinary water has a density of about 1000 kg/m³. According to Archimedes' Principle, the upward buoyant force exerted on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Since the buoyant force is calculated as Fᵦ = ρVg, where ρ is the density of the fluid, a denser fluid provides a greater upward force. This increased buoyancy in seawater allows a person to float higher and with less effort, making it physically easier to swim than in less dense ordinary water. Thus, the higher density of seawater is the direct cause of the increased ease of swimming.
43Geography
Assertion (A): In temperate cyclones winds below from the periphery towards its centre.
Reason (R): There is high pressure in the centre of temperate cyclone.
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Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false
Explanation
A cyclone is a weather system characterized by a central area of low atmospheric pressure. In temperate cyclones, which form in the mid-latitudes due to the meeting of warm and cold air masses along a front, the pressure gradient force drives air from the surrounding higher-pressure regions toward the lower-pressure center. This inward flow of air from the periphery toward the core is a fundamental characteristic of all cyclonic systems. Because the center of a temperate cyclone is a region of low pressure (a depression) and not high pressure, the assertion accurately describes the wind direction while the reason provided is scientifically incorrect.
44Science and Technology
Assertion (A): In a pressure cooker food is cooked above boiling point.
Reason (R): Boiling point of water increases as the pressure increases.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the external pressure surrounding the liquid. In a pressure cooker, the steam generated during heating is trapped inside the sealed vessel, which causes the internal pressure to rise significantly above the standard atmospheric pressure. According to the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, an increase in external pressure leads to an increase in the boiling point of the liquid. Consequently, the water inside the cooker boils at a temperature higher than its standard boiling point of 100°C, typically reaching around 121°C. This higher temperature allows the food to cook much faster than it would in an open vessel, directly illustrating that the increased boiling point is a result of the increased pressure.
45Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HCl increases the pH.
Reason (R): Addition of water suppresses the ionisation of HCl.
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Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false
Explanation
The pH of an aqueous solution is defined by the formula pH = -log[H⁺]. When water is added to an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl), the total volume of the solution increases, which results in a decrease in the molar concentration of hydrogen ions [H⁺]. Due to the negative logarithmic relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration, a decrease in [H⁺] leads to an increase in the pH value of the solution. Hydrochloric acid is a strong electrolyte that dissociates almost completely into H⁺ and Cl⁻ ions in water. According to Ostwald's dilution law, the degree of ionization (α) of an electrolyte increases as the solution becomes more dilute. Consequently, adding water to the solution does not suppress the ionization of HCl; instead, it shifts the dissociation equilibrium toward the formation of more ions or maintains the complete ionization characteristic of strong acids.
46Science and Technology
Which chamber of human heart pumps fully oxygenated blood to aorta and thence to the body?
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Answer: (D) Left Ventricle
Explanation
The left ventricle is the strongest chamber of the human heart and is responsible for systemic circulation. After receiving oxygen-rich blood from the left atrium, the left ventricle contracts with high pressure to propel the blood through the aortic valve and into the aorta. The aorta then serves as the primary trunk that branches into smaller arteries to deliver oxygenated blood to the entire body. Because it must overcome the high resistance of the systemic circuit to reach distal tissues, the muscular wall of the left ventricle is significantly thicker than that of any other chamber.
47Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a major constituent of Biogas?
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Answer: (B) Methane
Explanation
Biogas is a renewable fuel produced through the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of organic materials such as animal manure, sewage, municipal waste, and agricultural residues. Methane (CH₄) is the primary and most significant component of biogas, typically comprising approximately 50% to 75% of its total volume. It is generated by methanogenic bacteria during the final stages of decomposition in an oxygen-free environment. Because methane is a combustible gas, its high concentration is what determines the energy content and heating value of biogas, making it a viable source for cooking, lighting, and power generation.
48Science and Technology
Which one of the following is responsible for converting milk into curd?
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Answer: (B) Bacteria
Explanation
The conversion of milk into curd is a biological process driven by lactic acid bacteria, primarily the genus Lactobacillus. These bacteria ferment the lactose sugar found in milk into lactic acid. The accumulation of lactic acid increases the acidity of the medium, which leads to the denaturation and coagulation of casein, the primary protein in milk. This structural change transforms the liquid milk into a semi-solid curd. The process is temperature-dependent and is commonly initiated by adding a small amount of pre-existing curd, which acts as an inoculum containing the live bacterial culture.
49Science and Technology
Sweating during exercise indicates operation of which one of the following processes in the human body?
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Answer: (B) Homeostasis
Explanation
Homeostasis is the physiological process through which the body maintains a stable internal environment despite external changes or internal fluctuations. When an individual exercises, muscle contractions generate a significant amount of metabolic heat, causing the internal body temperature to rise above its normal set point. In response, the body activates thermoregulatory mechanisms to dissipate this heat. Sweating allows for evaporative cooling, where the transition of liquid sweat into vapor on the skin surface removes thermal energy from the body. This negative feedback loop ensures that the core temperature returns to and remains within a narrow physiological range, which is a fundamental requirement for the proper functioning of cells and enzymes.
50Science and Technology
Malaria in the human body is caused by which one of the following organisms?
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Answer: (D) Protozoan
Explanation
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a genus of unicellular protozoan parasites. When an infected female Anopheles mosquito bites a human, it injects these protozoan parasites into the bloodstream in the form of sporozoites. These organisms first travel to the liver to multiply and then invade the red blood cells, where they continue to reproduce asexually. The rupture of infected red blood cells releases toxins and new parasites into the blood, leading to the symptomatic febrile paroxysms characteristic of the disease. Because the fundamental biological agent responsible for the pathology is the Plasmodium parasite, malaria is classified as a protozoan disease.
51Science and Technology
Which one of the following diseases is caused by virus ?
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Answer: (C) Influenza
Explanation
Influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by influenza viruses. These are RNA viruses belonging to the family Orthomyxoviridae. The virus primarily attacks the respiratory system, including the nose, throat, and lungs. It is classified into types A, B, and C, with types A and B being the primary causes of seasonal epidemics in humans. The virus spreads through respiratory droplets emitted when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. Once inside a host, the virus utilizes the host's cellular machinery to replicate, leading to symptoms such as high fever, body aches, fatigue, and sore throat.
52Science and Technology
Between which one of the following sets of blood groups, is the blood transfusion possible ?
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Answer: (C) A and AB (A donor)
Explanation
Blood group AB is characterized by the presence of both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the total absence of anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Because individuals with blood group AB lack these antibodies, their immune system does not attack or agglutinate red blood cells from a donor with blood group A. This compatibility makes blood group AB the universal recipient, allowing it to safely receive transfusions from donors with type A, type B, or type O blood without an adverse immune response.
53Science and Technology
The phenomenon of mirage occurs due to which one of the following ?
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Answer: (D) Total internal reflection of light
Explanation
A mirage is an optical illusion commonly observed in hot deserts or on asphalt roads during summer. It occurs because the air near the ground becomes much hotter and less dense than the cooler air above it, creating layers with varying refractive indices. As light rays from a distant object or the sky travel downwards from the cooler (denser) air to the hotter (rarer) air, they undergo successive refraction and bend progressively away from the normal. When the angle of incidence at a specific air layer interface exceeds the critical angle, the light undergoes total internal reflection and is directed upwards toward the observer. The human brain perceives this light as traveling in a straight line from the ground, resulting in an inverted image that resembles a reflection in a pool of water.
54Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the secondary source of light in a fluorelscent lamp ?
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Answer: (D) Fluorescent coating on the glass
Explanation
In a fluorescent lamp, the primary source of light is the discharge produced when an electric current passes through mercury vapor, which emits radiation mostly in the ultraviolet (UV) spectrum. Since ultraviolet radiation is invisible to the human eye, it must be converted into visible light. The inner surface of the glass tube is lined with a phosphor-based fluorescent coating. When the ultraviolet photons strike this coating, the phosphor atoms are excited and subsequently emit visible light through the process of fluorescence. Consequently, the fluorescent coating acts as the secondary source of light that provides the illumination used for practical purposes.
55Science and Technology
Which one of the following common devices works on the basis of the principle of mutual induction ?
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Answer: (B) Transformer
Explanation
A transformer is a static electrical device that transfers electrical energy between two or more circuits through electromagnetic induction. It operates on the principle of mutual induction, which occurs when two coils are inductively coupled. When an alternating current flows through the primary coil, it creates a continuously changing magnetic flux in the common magnetic core. This varying flux links with the secondary coil, inducing an electromotive force (EMF) according to Faraday's law. The magnitude of the induced voltage in the secondary coil depends on the mutual inductance M between the coils and the rate of change of current in the primary coil, expressed by the relation Eₛ = -M dIₚ/dt. This principle allows transformers to change voltage levels in AC circuits while maintaining the same frequency.
56Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a programme that converts high level language to machine language ?
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Answer: (D) Compiler
Explanation
A compiler is a specialized system software that translates the entire source code written in a high-level programming language into machine language or object code in a single process. Since computer processors can only execute instructions in binary format, the compiler serves as the essential bridge that converts human-readable instructions into the specific bit patterns understood by the hardware. During this translation, the compiler analyzes the syntax and semantics of the code to ensure it follows the rules of the language before generating an executable file that can run independently on the target system.
57Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correct ? Great Bear is a
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Answer: (D) constellation
Explanation
Great Bear, also known by its Latin name Ursa Major, is a prominent constellation visible in the northern hemisphere throughout the year. It is one of the most easily recognizable patterns in the night sky because it contains a well-known group of seven stars called the Big Dipper or Saptarishi. In astronomy, a constellation is defined as a specific area of the celestial sphere where a group of stars forms an imaginary shape or outline. Ursa Major was cataloged by the astronomer Ptolemy in the 2nd century and remains one of the 88 modern constellations officially recognized by the International Astronomical Union. It has historically served as a critical tool for navigation, as its pointer stars help observers locate Polaris, the North Star.
58Geography
Which one of the following is a global biodiversity hotspot in India ?
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Answer: (A) Western Ghats
Explanation
The Western Ghats is recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot due to its exceptional level of plant and animal endemism and the significant loss of its original habitat. According to the criteria established by Conservation International, a region must harbor at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and have lost at least 70 percent of its primary vegetation to be designated as a hotspot. The Western Ghats, often grouped with Sri Lanka in biodiversity assessments, is home to thousands of species of flowering plants, amphibians, and mammals that are found nowhere else on Earth. Its unique geographical positioning and varied climatic conditions support diverse ecosystems ranging from tropical evergreen forests to montane grasslands, making it one of the most biologically rich regions in the world.
59Science and Technology
The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of diseased plants into the country is done by which one of the following ?
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Answer: (C) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources
Explanation
The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is the nodal agency in India responsible for the quarantine processing of plant genetic resources, germplasm, and transgenic materials imported for research purposes. Operating under the administrative control of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), NBPGR is authorized under the Plant Quarantine (Regulation of Import into India) Order to ensure that imported seeds and plant materials are free from exotic pests, diseases, and weeds. It utilizes specialized containment facilities and advanced diagnostic tools to screen incoming materials, thereby protecting the country's agricultural biosecurity and preventing the introduction of harmful pathogens that could impact indigenous crop varieties.
60History
'The Musalman', the handwritten daily newspaper in circulation since 1927, is published from which one of the following places?
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Answer: (A) Chennai
Explanation
The Musalman is an Urdu language daily newspaper published in Chennai. Founded in 1927 by Syed Azmathullah, it is widely recognized as the oldest and perhaps the only handwritten newspaper in the world. The publication follows a unique traditional process where calligraphers, known as katibs, handwrite the entire four-page broadsheet in the Nastaliq script. Once the calligraphy is complete, the pages are reproduced using offset printing. The newspaper has been based in the Triplicane region of Chennai since its inception and continues to preserve this rare form of journalistic art.
61Polity and Governance
The 'Arthasastra' is a treatise on which one of the following ?
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Answer: (C) Political Philosophy
Explanation
The 'Arthasastra', authored by Kautilya (also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta) during the Mauryan period, is primarily a comprehensive manual on statecraft and political philosophy. Although the term 'Artha' translates to material well-being or wealth, the treatise extends far beyond mere economics to encompass the principles of governance, legal frameworks, military strategy, and foreign policy. It details the duties of a king, the structure of administration, and the Saptanga theory, which defines the seven essential elements of a state. The work serves as a pragmatic guide for a ruler to maintain power and ensure the welfare and security of the kingdom, making it one of the most significant historical texts on political science and administrative ethics.
62History
Arrange the following in chronological order
1. Partition of Bengal
2. Chauri-Chaura Incident
3. First Round Table Conference
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above ?
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Answer: (A) 1-2-3
Explanation
The Partition of Bengal was implemented on October 16, 1905, under the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, primarily to divide the nationalist stronghold of Bengal along communal lines. The Chauri-Chaura incident occurred on February 4, 1922, in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces, where a violent clash between Satyagrahis and the police led Mahatma Gandhi to abruptly suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement. The First Round Table Conference was convened in London on November 12, 1930, to discuss constitutional reforms for India following the Simon Commission report. Chronologically, these events occurred in 1905, 1922, and 1930.
63History
Who among the following was the Viceroy of India at the time of the formation of Indian National Congress ?
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Answer: (C) Lord Dufferin
Explanation
Lord Dufferin served as the Viceroy of India from 1884 to 1888, which encompasses the founding of the Indian National Congress in December 1885. The first session of the Congress was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay and was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. While the organization was founded with the initiative of retired British officer A.O. Hume, Lord Dufferin was the head of the British administration in India at the time. He is often associated with the safety valve theory regarding the birth of the Congress and later famously characterized the party as representing only a microscopic minority of the Indian people.
64History
Separate electorates for Muslims in India were introduced by which one of the following Acts ?
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Answer: (A) Government of India Act of 1909
Explanation
The Government of India Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the system of communal representation for Muslims by establishing separate electorates. Under this provision, Muslim representatives were elected exclusively by Muslim voters, which institutionalized political division along religious lines. This measure was a key component of the British policy of divide and rule, aimed at creating a separate political identity for the Muslim community to weaken the growing nationalist movement. Due to the implementation of this system, Lord Minto, the Viceroy of India at the time, is historically recognized as the Father of Communal Electorate.
65History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
A. 1st Session
B. 2nd Session
C. 3rd Session
D. 4th Session
List-II
1. Allahabad
2. Madras
3. Calcutta
4. Bombay
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 and held its initial sessions in major cities across India to establish a national identity. The 1st Session in 1885 was held in Bombay at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College and was presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee. The 2nd Session in 1886 took place in Calcutta with Dadabhai Naoroji as the president. The 3rd Session in 1887 was organized in Madras under the presidency of Badruddin Tyabji, who was the first Muslim president of the Congress. The 4th Session in 1888 was held in Allahabad and presided over by George Yule, who was the first European president of the organization. This geographical rotation helped the Congress gain support from different regions and communities during its formative years.
66Economy
Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable Socio-Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the head Environment, is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Increase forest and tree cover by 15 percentage points
Explanation
The Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) established twenty-seven monitorable targets to ensure inclusive and sustainable growth across various sectors. Under the category of environment, the specific target for increasing forest and tree cover was set at 5 percentage points. This objective was intended to move the country closer to the national goal of achieving 33 percent total forest and tree cover. The statement identifying a target of 15 percentage points is factually incorrect as it significantly overstates the actual planned increase specified in the official documents of the Eleventh Plan.
67Economy
Which one of the following is not a Navaratna Public Sector Enterprise?
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Answer: (D) Oil India Ltd.
Explanation
Oil India Ltd. (OIL) was a Miniratna Category-I company in 2008 and had not yet been elevated to the Navaratna category. The Government of India officially granted the Navaratna status to Oil India Ltd. in April 2010. This prestigious status is conferred upon Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) that are already Miniratna Category-I, Schedule A companies and have obtained an excellent or very good rating in their Memorandum of Understanding for three of the last five years. Additionally, the enterprise must achieve a composite score of 60 or above out of 100 based on six performance parameters, including net profit to net worth, earnings per share, and profit before depreciation, interest, and taxes to turnover. In 2008, Oil India Ltd. was still operating under the Miniratna status, which offers lower financial and operational autonomy compared to the Navaratna status.
68Economy
By which one of the following years does the 11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele-density in India from the present 1.9% ?
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Answer: (B) 2010
Explanation
The 11th Five Year Plan, spanning from 2007 to 2012, placed significant emphasis on improving rural infrastructure and bridging the digital divide. Under the sector of telecommunications, the Planning Commission set a specific interim milestone to increase rural tele-density from approximately 1.9 percent to 10 percent by the year 2010. This target was part of a phased approach to rural connectivity, which also envisioned reaching a tele-density of 25 percent in rural areas by the end of the plan period in 2012. These goals were intended to ensure that the benefits of the telecom revolution, including mobile telephony and broadband services, were extended to the interior parts of the country to support economic development and social services.
69Economy
Who among the following have won the Nobel Prize for Economics in 2007?
1. Eric S. Maskin
2. Roger B. Myerson
3. Hu Jintao
4. Leonid Hurwicz
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The 2007 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences was awarded jointly to Leonid Hurwicz, Eric S. Maskin, and Roger B. Myerson for having laid the foundations of mechanism design theory. This field, often described as the reverse of traditional game theory, focuses on designing institutions and mechanisms to achieve specific social or economic goals when participants have private information. Leonid Hurwicz initiated the research by defining mechanisms as communication games. Eric Maskin furthered the theory by introducing implementation theory, which identifies which social goals can be achieved through decentralization. Roger Myerson made significant contributions by applying the theory to situations with incomplete information and establishing the revelation principle, which provides a systematic way to identify the best possible mechanisms for various economic problems.
70Polity and Governance
In which of the following International Organisations is India a member?
1. Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation.
2. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
India is a founding member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC), which was established in March 1997. The organization aims to promote economic cooperation, trade facilitation, and sustainable development among the sovereign states of the Indian Ocean Rim. India maintains a significant role in its various initiatives, including maritime security and disaster risk management. The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization primarily composed of high-income, developed countries. India is not a member of the OECD. While India has been an Enhanced Engagement partner since 2007, participating in several OECD bodies and adhering to some of its instruments, it does not have the status of a full member state.
71Polity and Governance
In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?
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Answer: (B) Gorakhpur
Explanation
The North-Eastern Railway (NER) has its headquarters located in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. This railway zone was inaugurated on April 14, 1952, through the amalgamation of the Oudh and Tirhut Railway and the Assam Railway, along with the Kanpur-Achnera section of the Bombay, Baroda and Central India Railway. While the zone underwent a major reorganization in 1958 when the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) was carved out to better serve the Seven Sister states, the administrative control of the North-Eastern Railway remained situated in Gorakhpur. It covers vital rail networks across northern Uttar Pradesh and western Bihar.
72Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
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Answer: (D) India
Explanation
India is a South Asian nation and is not a member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), which is a regional intergovernmental organization specifically for countries located in Southeast Asia. Although India has been a Full Dialogue Partner of ASEAN since 1995 and actively participates in ASEAN-led platforms such as the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) and the East Asia Summit (EAS), it remains geographically and geopolitically categorized within South Asia. India's primary regional affiliation is with the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), whereas ASEAN membership is limited to the ten states located within the Southeast Asian subregion.
73Economy
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
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Answer: (B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Explanation
The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, by an executive resolution of the Government of India. It was created as an advisory and non-constitutional body to formulate Five-Year Plans for the effective and balanced utilization of the country's resources. According to the organizational structure defined at its inception, the Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Commission. Since Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India when the body was constituted, he served as its first Chairman. He played a pivotal role in shaping India's economic policy and guided the Commission in launching the First Five-Year Plan in 1951, which prioritized agricultural development and irrigation. He continued to lead the Commission until his passing in 1964.
74Economy
As per the Economic Survey 2007-2008, which one of the following is the largest source of revenue of the Government of India?
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Answer: (C) Corporation Tax
Explanation
According to the Economic Survey 2007-2008, Corporation Tax was the largest source of revenue for the Central Government. During this period, the Indian economy experienced a high growth phase, which resulted in a significant increase in the profitability of the corporate sector. This surge in earnings led to a robust rise in the collection of taxes from companies, making it the primary contributor to the Gross Tax Revenue. The dominance of Corporation Tax highlighted a shift in the fiscal structure where direct taxes became the leading component of the government's financial resources.
75Economy
The acronym SRO, being used in the capital market for various market participants, stands for which one of the following?
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Answer: (A) Self Regulatory Organisations
Explanation
In the context of capital markets, SRO stands for Self Regulatory Organisations. These are non-governmental entities that exercise a level of regulatory authority over a specific industry or profession. They function as an intermediate layer of oversight between market participants and the statutory regulator, such as the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The primary purpose of an SRO is to establish and enforce ethical standards, codes of conduct, and professional rules for its members to ensure fair dealing and investor protection. By allowing industry bodies to regulate their own members, the regulatory framework benefits from the technical expertise of market practitioners while reducing the direct administrative burden on the government regulator. Typical examples in the financial sector include stock exchanges and industry associations that manage the registration and discipline of financial intermediaries.
76Economy
Consider the following statements
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan.
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Food for Work Programme was originally launched in India in April 1977 during the Fifth Five Year Plan period, which was much earlier than the 10th Five Year Plan (2002-2007). While the National Food for Work Programme was launched in 2004, the nomenclature in the statement refers to the 1970s initiative. The Planning Commission was established on March 15, 1950, through an executive resolution of the Government of India. It was a non-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it was not mandated by the Constitution and was not created by an Act of Parliament. Its status was that of an advisory body to the government.
77History
Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947 ?
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Answer: (C) Liaquat Ali Khan
Explanation
Liaquat Ali Khan was the Finance Minister in the Interim Government of India, which was formed on September 2, 1946, to manage the transition to independence. Although the Muslim League initially refused to join the cabinet, they entered the government in October 1946, and Liaquat Ali Khan was assigned the Finance portfolio. He held this position until the partition of India in August 1947. During his tenure, he presented the interim budget for 1947-48 in February 1947, which became well-known for its high taxation on the business and industrial classes and was often referred to as the Poor Man's Budget.
78Polity and Governance
Holding a 'Bandh' was declared illegal for the first time in India by which one of the following High Courts ?
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Answer: (C) Kerala High Court
Explanation
The Kerala High Court was the first in India to declare the practice of calling and holding a Bandh as unconstitutional and illegal in the landmark 1997 case of Bharat Kumar K. Palicha v. State of Kerala. A full bench of the court ruled that no political party or organization has the right to paralyze the civil life of citizens by calling for a Bandh. The court emphasized that Bandhs involve an element of coercion and intimidation, which violates the fundamental rights of the public, including the freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d) and the right to carry on any occupation or trade under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution. This decision was later affirmed by the Supreme Court of India in 1998, which agreed that a Bandh is distinct from a peaceful strike or Hartal because it forcibly interferes with the rights of others.
79Economy
The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following?
1. Greater attention to land reforms.
2. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
3. Promote animal husbandry and fishery.
4. Interest free credit to the farmers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The 11th Five Year Plan (2007-2012) targeted an average annual growth rate of 4% in the agricultural sector to ensure inclusive development. To achieve this, the plan emphasized the completion of land reforms, including the distribution of ceiling-surplus land and providing security of tenure to cultivators, which were seen as essential for increasing investment and productivity. A central pillar of the strategy was the expansion of irrigation facilities, specifically aiming to double the rate of growth of the irrigated area through the Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme and improved water management practices. The plan also focused on the diversification of the rural economy by promoting allied sectors such as animal husbandry, dairying, and fisheries, which offered higher growth potential and served as a means to augment the income of small and marginal farmers. While the government expanded the flow of institutional credit and reduced interest rates through subvention schemes to approximately 7%, the provision of interest-free credit was not part of the national planning strategy.
80History
In which one of the following Indian States is the game of Polo said to have originated?
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Answer: (C) Manipur
Explanation
Modern polo is derived from the traditional Manipuri game known as Sagol Kangjei. Historical records and the royal chronicle Cheitharol Kumbaba suggest that the game has been played in Manipur for centuries, often associated with the reign of King Kangba. During the mid-19th century, British colonial officers and tea planters witnessed the game being played in the region. They established the world's first polo club in Silchar in 1859 and subsequently codified the rules, leading to the global spread of the sport. Because of this direct lineage, Manipur is internationally recognized as the birthplace of modern polo.
81Polity and Governance
In which one of the following years did the Right to Information Act come into force ?
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Answer: (C) 2005
Explanation
The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2005 to establish a practical regime for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities. While the legislation received the Presidential assent on June 15, 2005, it officially came into force on October 12, 2005. The Act mandates that public authorities provide information requested by citizens within a stipulated timeframe, thereby aiming to promote transparency and accountability in the functioning of the government.
82Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the fourth President of independent India ?
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Answer: (C) V.V.Giri
Explanation
Varahagiri Venkata Giri served as the fourth President of India from 1969 to 1974. He assumed the presidency after the death of the third President, Dr. Zakir Hussain, first serving as Acting President in his capacity as Vice President and then winning the presidential election as an independent candidate. His victory is notable in Indian political history for the conscience vote called by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. During his tenure, he exercised his constitutional powers during the 1971 war and oversaw the implementation of significant national policies.
83Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the first geostationary, telecommunication satellite of India ?
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Answer: (B) APPLE
Explanation
APPLE (Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment) was India's first experimental communication satellite placed in a geostationary orbit. Launched on June 19, 1981, from the Kourou Space Centre in French Guiana using the European Ariane-1 launch vehicle, it was positioned at an orbital slot of 102 degrees East longitude. The satellite was a three-axis stabilized spacecraft that carried C-band transponders used for various telecommunication experiments, including the relay of television programs and digital communications across the country. This mission was a critical milestone for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), as it provided the necessary technological expertise in station-keeping and orbital management required to develop the subsequent operational Indian National Satellite (INSAT) series.
84Economy
To encourage increase in the quality, quantity and availability of food in the world the World Food Prize is founded by
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Answer: (C) Prof.Norman Borlaug
Explanation
Norman Borlaug, the 1970 Nobel Peace Prize laureate and a primary architect of the Green Revolution, established the World Food Prize in 1986. Borlaug envisioned an international award that would recognize significant breakthrough achievements in the global food system, essentially creating an equivalent to the Nobel Prize for the fields of agriculture and nutrition. He founded the prize to honor and inspire those working to improve the quality, quantity, or availability of food throughout the world, thereby helping to alleviate hunger and malnutrition. The award is managed by the World Food Prize Foundation and recognizes contributions in various fields including plant science, animal science, soil science, food technology, and poverty alleviation.
85Polity and Governance
Billy Doctrove, a member of the Elite Panel of ICC umpires belongs to which one of the following countries ?
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Answer: (B) West Indies
Explanation
Billy Doctrove is a professional cricket umpire from Dominica, which is one of the island nations that forms the West Indies cricket federation. He was appointed to the International Cricket Council (ICC) Elite Panel of Umpires in 2006, representing the West Indies region. Doctrove made his international debut in 1998 and went on to officiate in numerous Test matches, One Day Internationals, and T20 Internationals, including high-profile events such as the 2007 ICC Cricket World Cup and the final of the 2009 ICC World Twenty20. He remained a prominent figure on the Elite Panel during the 2008 period.
86Polity and Governance
The boundary between North and South Korea is marked by which one of the following ?
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Answer: (C) 38th Parallel
Explanation
The 38th Parallel north is the circle of latitude that was chosen as the original boundary between the American and Soviet occupation zones in Korea at the end of World War II in 1945. Following the surrender of Japan, this line divided the peninsula into two distinct administrative regions. Although the Korean War resulted in the creation of a new Military Demarcation Line within the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) in 1953, this modern border still follows the general path of the 38th Parallel. It remains the most recognized geographical and political reference for the division between North Korea and South Korea.
87Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Person) (Organisation)
A. Juan Somavia 1. IAEA
B. Margaret Chan 2. ILO
C. Kemal Dervis 3. WHO
D. Mohamed ElBaradei 4. UNDP
Codes:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Juan Somavia, a Chilean diplomat, served as the ninth Director-General of the International Labour Organization (ILO) from 1999 to 2012, focusing on the Decent Work Agenda. Margaret Chan was elected as the Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO) in November 2006 and led the organization through various global health challenges until 2017. Kemal Dervis, a Turkish economist and politician, served as the Administrator of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) from 2005 to 2009. Mohamed ElBaradei served as the Director-General of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) for three terms from 1997 to 2009 and was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2005 for his efforts to prevent nuclear energy from being used for military purposes.
88Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I (Place) List-II (Industry)
A. Muzaffarnagar 1. Cotton textiles
B. Adoni 2. Sugar
C. Ranchi 3. Sports goods
D. Jalandhar 4. Engineering goods
Codes:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Muzaffarnagar, located in the fertile Western Uttar Pradesh region, is a prominent center for the sugar industry due to the high density of sugarcane cultivation in its hinterland. Adoni in Andhra Pradesh has a historical legacy as a major hub for cotton textiles and ginning, once significantly contributing to the regional textile economy. Ranchi is well-known for engineering goods, primarily because it hosts the Heavy Engineering Corporation (HEC), which manufactures large-scale industrial machinery. Jalandhar is a globally recognized cluster for the production of sports goods, specializing in high-quality equipment for cricket, hockey, and football.
89Polity and Governance
Who among the following has been selected for the Netherlands Golden Ark Award for the year 2008 ?
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Answer: (B) Charudutt Mishra
Explanation
Charudutt Mishra, a renowned conservation biologist and the Executive Director of the Snow Leopard Trust, was awarded the Order of the Golden Ark in 2008. This prestigious Dutch award, established by Prince Bernhard in 1971, recognizes individuals who have made significant contributions to the conservation of nature and endangered species. Mishra received this honor for his pioneering work in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas, where he implemented innovative community-based conservation models to protect the snow leopard and its habitat. His approach focused on reconciling the needs of local pastoralists with wildlife preservation by establishing community-managed livestock insurance programs and grazing-free reserves, which effectively reduced human-wildlife conflict and improved local livelihoods.
90Geography
Which of the following tributaries of the Ganga System flows northwards ?
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Answer: (D) Sone
Explanation
The Sone river originates from the Amarkantak plateau in the Maikala range of Madhya Pradesh and is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganga. Unlike the Himalayan tributaries that flow southward to meet the Ganga, the Sone follows a northerly course through the states of Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, and Jharkhand before entering Bihar. It cuts through the Kaimur Range and travels approximately 784 kilometers to join the Ganga near Maner, slightly upstream of Patna. Its northward flow is determined by the regional slope of the Central Indian Highlands, specifically the northern scarp of the Vindhyan plateau, which directs the drainage of this part of the Peninsular block toward the Indo-Gangetic plain.
91Geography
For which one of the following is planimeter used ?
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Answer: (A) To know the surface area on a map
Explanation
A planimeter is a precision surveying instrument designed to measure the area of a two-dimensional, irregular shape on a flat surface, such as a map or plan. The device works by tracing the entire perimeter of the closed boundary with a pointer; as the pointer moves, a measuring wheel rotates and records the displacement. Mathematically, the planimeter operates on the principle of Green's Theorem, which establishes a relationship between a line integral around a simple closed curve and a double integral over the plane region it encloses. By integrating the movement along the boundary, the instrument provides a direct reading of the total surface area contained within that boundary. This makes it an essential tool for cartographers, engineers, and geographers to calculate the size of land parcels, watersheds, or irregular geographic features without requiring complex geometric subdivisions.
92Geography
The city of Nasik is situated on the bank of which one of the following rivers ?
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Answer: (C) Godavari
Explanation
Nasik is a major city in Maharashtra located on the banks of the Godavari river. The Godavari originates at Trimbakeshwar in the Brahmagiri mountains, which is situated very close to Nasik. This river is of immense religious significance in Hinduism and is often referred to as the Dakshin Ganga. Nasik is one of the four sites for the Sinhastha Kumbh Mela, a mass Hindu pilgrimage held every twelve years specifically because of its location on the banks of the sacred Godavari. The river serves as a vital water source and a central geographic feature of the city.
93Geography
Rihand Valley Project is located in which one of the following States ?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
The Rihand Valley Project is a major multipurpose river valley scheme located at Pipri in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. It consists of a concrete gravity dam built across the Rihand River, which is a primary tributary of the Son River. The reservoir created by the dam is named Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, which is one of the largest man-made lakes in India by volume. The project was commissioned in 1962 to provide hydroelectric power, irrigation, and flood control, serving as a critical infrastructure component for the economic development of the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh and surrounding areas.
94Geography
Which one of the following States has the largest forest area to its total land area ?
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Answer: (A) Mizoram
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report 2005, Mizoram recorded a forest cover of 88.63 percent of its total geographical area. This represents the highest proportion of land under forest cover among all Indian states during that period. The state is characterized by hilly terrain and high annual precipitation, which supports dense tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests. Mizoram has consistently maintained one of the highest forest-to-land area ratios in the country due to its geographic isolation and favorable environmental conditions.
95Geography
What is the correct order of occurrence of the following places as one moves from east to west?
1. Murshidabad
2. Gorakhpur
3. Bhopal
4. Bhavnagar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) 1,2,3,4
Explanation
The geographical positions of these cities are determined by their longitudinal coordinates. Murshidabad, located in West Bengal, is the easternmost city with a longitude of approximately 88.23° E. Moving westward, Gorakhpur in eastern Uttar Pradesh is situated at approximately 83.37° E. Bhopal, located in central India within Madhya Pradesh, lies further west at roughly 77.41° E. Bhavnagar, situated on the eastern coast of the Kathiawar Peninsula in Gujarat, is the westernmost point among the four, with a longitude of about 72.15° E. Therefore, the correct sequence from east to west is Murshidabad, Gorakhpur, Bhopal, and Bhavnagar.
96Geography
Which one of the following Indian States does not have a common international border with Bangladesh ?
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Answer: (A) Manipur
Explanation
Manipur is located in the northeastern part of India and shares its international boundary exclusively with Myanmar to the east. It is geographically separated from Bangladesh by the Indian states of Mizoram, Tripura, and Assam. The Indian states that share a land border with Bangladesh are West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Since Manipur lies further east and is buffered by these other states, it does not possess a common international border with Bangladesh.
97Geography
28.38 N and 77.12 E are the respective latitude and longitude of which one of the following places ?
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Answer: (B) Delhi
Explanation
Delhi is geographically situated in Northern India within the latitudinal range of approximately 28.4° N to 28.9° N and the longitudinal range of 76.8° E to 77.3° E. The coordinates 28.38° N and 77.12° E pinpoint a location in the National Capital Region, specifically near the southern boundary of Delhi and the neighboring city of Gurugram. As the only major metropolitan hub located near the intersection of the 28° N parallel and the 77° E meridian, Delhi is the accurate geographical match for these coordinates.
98Geography
Mist is a result of which one of the following ?
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Answer: (A) Condensation
Explanation
Mist is an atmospheric phenomenon produced by the condensation of water vapor in the air. When warm, moist air undergoes cooling—either by radiation, conduction, or mixing with cooler air—its temperature falls toward the dew point. Once the air reaches a state where it can no longer hold all its moisture in gaseous form, the excess water vapor transforms into tiny liquid water droplets. These microscopic droplets remain suspended in the atmosphere, creating a thin veil that reduces visibility. Because mist is essentially a low-density suspension of liquid water, it is fundamentally a product of the phase change from gas to liquid.
99Geography
In which one of the following States is Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary located ?
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Answer: (C) Karnataka
Explanation
The Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is situated in the Mandya district of Karnataka. It is located on the banks of the Kaveri River and is composed of six small islets. The sanctuary was established in 1940 after the noted ornithologist Dr. Salim Ali identified the islands as a major nesting site for a variety of birds. It remains the largest bird sanctuary in Karnataka, hosting species such as the painted stork, Asian openbill stork, and common spoonbill.
100Art and Culture
Pattadakal group of monuments are located in which one of the following States ?
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Answer: (D) Karnataka
Explanation
The Pattadakal group of monuments is located in the Bagalkot district of Karnataka on the banks of the Malaprabha River. It served as a major center of the Chalukya dynasty, specifically during the 7th and 8th centuries, and was often used for the coronation ceremonies of the Chalukyan kings. The site is a UNESCO World Heritage site famous for its unique architectural fusion of the Nagara style from Northern India and the Dravida style from Southern India. Important temples at this site include the Virupaksha Temple, Mallikarjuna Temple, and the Sangameshwara Temple, representing the pinnacle of early Western Chalukya architecture.
101Art and Culture
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I List-II
A. Aurangabad 1. Auroville
B. Guwahati 2. Saranath
C. Puducherry 3. Ellora temples
D. Varanasi 4. Nilachal hills
Codes:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Aurangabad in Maharashtra serves as the gateway to the Ellora temples, which comprise 34 rock-cut caves dedicated to Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain faiths. Guwahati is the site of the Nilachal hills, where the ancient and culturally significant Kamakhya Temple is situated. Puducherry is home to Auroville, an international township established in 1968 to realize the vision of human unity as propounded by Sri Aurobindo. Varanasi is the ancient city associated with Sarnath, the sacred location where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon after attaining enlightenment.
102Art and Culture
For which one of the following is Sualkuchi famous ?
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Answer: (C) Silk centre
Explanation
Sualkuchi, located on the northern banks of the Brahmaputra in the Kamrup district of Assam, is one of the worlds largest weaving villages and is famously known as the Manchester of the East. It is a premier centre for the production of indigenous Assam silk, particularly the rare golden Muga silk, which is produced nowhere else in the world. Besides Muga, the town is also a major hub for Pat silk and Eri silk. The weaving tradition in Sualkuchi is a centuries-old cottage industry where almost every household is involved in the craft, producing exquisite traditional garments such as the Mekhela Chador and Gamosa. Due to its historical significance and the high quality of its handloom products, Sualkuchi remains the commercial heart of Assams silk industry.
103Geography
In which one of the following countries is the volcano 'Guallatiri' located ?
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Answer: (B) Chile
Explanation
Guallatiri is a massive, symmetrical stratovolcano located in the Arica and Parinacota Region of northern Chile, situated within the Central Volcanic Zone of the Andes. Reaching an elevation of approximately 6,071 meters, it is positioned near the border with Bolivia within Lauca National Park. It is one of the most active volcanoes in northern Chile, characterized by a dacitic lava dome and persistent fumarolic activity from its summit and flanks. Its geological history includes frequent explosive eruptions and the presence of active sulfur vents, making it a significant site for volcanic monitoring in the region.
104Geography
The island of Honshu is located in which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Japan
Explanation
Honshu is the largest and most populous island of Japan, serving as the nation's central mainland. It encompasses approximately sixty percent of Japan's total land area and contains the majority of the country's major urban and industrial centers, including the capital city of Tokyo. Geographically, the island is situated between the Pacific Ocean to the east and the Sea of Japan to the west. It is home to Japan's highest mountain, Mount Fuji, and other major cities such as Osaka, Nagoya, Kyoto, and Hiroshima. Honshu is connected to the other three main islands of the Japanese archipelago—Hokkaido, Kyushu, and Shikoku—via an extensive network of bridges and undersea tunnels.
105Geography
Which one of the following rivers flows into the Arabian Sea?
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Answer: (D) Narmada
Explanation
The Narmada River is one of the largest west-flowing rivers in peninsular India. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh. The river flows westward through a prominent rift valley formed between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. This structural depression directs the river's course toward the western coast, spanning a distance of approximately 1,312 kilometers across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. It eventually empties its waters into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat, forming a large estuary at its mouth.
106Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correct? Setting of Plaster of Paris is
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Answer: (C) hydration leading to another hydrate
Explanation
Plaster of Paris is chemically identified as calcium sulphate hemihydrate with the formula CaSO₄ · 1/2H₂O. When water is added to the powder, it undergoes a hydration reaction to form calcium sulphate dihydrate, which is commonly known as gypsum (CaSO₄ · 2H₂O). This chemical process leads to the formation of a hard, solid mass through the development of an interlocking network of dihydrate crystals. The reaction is exothermic and can be represented by the equation:
CaSO₄ · 1/2H₂O + 1.5H₂O → CaSO₄ · 2H₂O
Because the hemihydrate incorporates water molecules to transform into the dihydrate form, the setting of Plaster of Paris is fundamentally characterized as hydration leading to the formation of another hydrate.
107Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
A. Slate 1. Igneous rock
B. Lignite 2. Metamorphic rock
C. Bauxite 3. Non-ferrous mineral
D. Granite 4. Sedimentary rock
Codes:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 4 3 1
Explanation
Slate is a fine-grained foliated metamorphic rock created by the alteration of shale or mudstone by low-grade regional metamorphism. Lignite is a soft brown combustible sedimentary rock formed from the compression of peat and represents an intermediate stage in the coalification process. Bauxite serves as the primary ore for aluminum and is classified as a non-ferrous mineral because it lacks significant iron content. Granite is a light-colored intrusive igneous rock that crystallizes from the slow cooling of magma below the Earth's surface.
108Economy
Which one of the following places is famous for production of railway coaches?
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Answer: (B) Kapurthala
Explanation
Kapurthala is home to the Rail Coach Factory (RCF), which is one of the premier coach manufacturing units of the Indian Railways. Established in 1986, this factory has produced a significant portion of the passenger coaches used across the Indian rail network. It is particularly noted for manufacturing a wide variety of coaches, including air-conditioned, non-air-conditioned, and high-speed Linke Hofmann Busch (LHB) coaches. By 2008, RCF Kapurthala had already gained international recognition for its production capacity and technological standards in the railway sector.
109Geography
The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the following States?
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu
Explanation
Coonoor is the second largest hill station in the Nilgiri Hills and is located within the Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu. Positioned at an elevation of about 1,850 meters above sea level, it is renowned for its expansive tea plantations and pleasant climate. The town is a significant stop on the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, a historic rack railway and UNESCO World Heritage site that connects Mettupalayam to Ooty. Known for its lush greenery and colonial heritage, Coonoor features prominent tourist attractions such as Sim's Park, a well-maintained botanical garden, and vantage points like Lamb's Rock and Dolphin's Nose that offer panoramic views of the Western Ghats.
110Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) All meridians are always parallel to one another
Explanation
Meridians are lines of longitude that converge at the North and South Poles. Because these lines meet at common points at both poles, they cannot be parallel to one another. The geometric property of being parallel requires that the distance between lines remains constant and that they never intersect, which is not the case for meridians. Instead, the distance between meridians is greatest at the Equator and diminishes to zero at the poles where they all intersect.
111Science and Technology
In which one of the following states is Kakrapar nuclear power station located?
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Answer: (D) Gujarat
Explanation
The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is located in the state of Gujarat, situated near the Tapti River in the Tapi district (formerly part of the Surat district). Operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), the station began commercial operations in the 1990s with the commissioning of two indigenous Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), KAPS-1 and KAPS-2, each providing a capacity of 220 MWe. The facility plays a significant role in supplying electricity to the Western Grid of India. The site was selected due to its proximity to the Ukai Reservoir, which provides the necessary cooling water for the reactor operations.
112Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) International Atomic Energy Agency New York
Explanation
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an autonomous international organization established in 1957 within the United Nations system to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and prevent its use for military purposes. Its headquarters is located at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria, rather than in New York. While the IAEA maintains liaison offices in New York and Geneva, its primary administrative and permanent seat has been in the Austrian capital since its inception.
113Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Article 14 is a Fundamental Right that guarantees equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws to all persons within the territory of India. This principle ensures that the legal system operates without discrimination and that every individual is subject to the rule of law. Statement 1 is incorrect because the specific provision for free legal aid is mandated by Article 39A, which was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 to ensure that justice is not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities. Article 46 directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and to protect them from social injustice, but it does not explicitly provide for free legal aid.
114Polity and Governance
The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the following places?
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Answer: (C) Pune
Explanation
The Bombay High Court has its principal seat in Mumbai and maintains jurisdiction over the states of Maharashtra and Goa, along with the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Under the provisions of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and subsequent legal enactments, permanent benches of the High Court were established at Nagpur, Aurangabad, and Panaji. While Pune is a major administrative and judicial center in Maharashtra, it does not possess a permanent bench of the High Court. Legal matters arising from Pune are handled directly at the principal seat in Mumbai.
115Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.
2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Under Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President. This provision ensures that the leadership of the Union recruiting agency is appointed by the head of the state, reflecting its status as an independent constitutional body.
Article 319 of the Constitution imposes strict restrictions on the post-retirement employment of Commission members to safeguard their impartiality and independence. It specifically mandates that the Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State. Similarly, while a member of the UPSC may be appointed as the Chairman of the UPSC or a State Public Service Commission, they are ineligible for any other form of government employment. Because the constitutional framework generally prohibits further employment rather than allowing it, the second statement is incorrect.
116Economy
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is also known as
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Answer: (C) World Bank
Explanation
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) was created at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 and is the largest development bank in the world. It is the founding institution of the World Bank Group. In common and official usage, the term World Bank specifically refers to the IBRD and the International Development Association (IDA) combined. The IBRD supports the World Bank Group's mission by providing loans, guarantees, and analytical services to middle-income and creditworthy poorer countries to foster equitable and sustainable economic growth. It is the primary vehicle through which the organization pursues its goals of ending extreme poverty and promoting shared prosperity.
117Polity and Governance
Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries ?
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Answer: (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation
The Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) was established in June 1975 as an independent department under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is the nodal department responsible for implementing the constitutional provisions related to the official language of the Union and the provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963. The department formulates policies and creates programmes for the progressive use of Hindi for official purposes in central government offices. It also oversees the functioning of the Central Hindi Training Institute and coordinates with the Committee of Parliament on Official Language to ensure compliance with linguistic regulations across all central ministries and departments.
118Polity and Governance
With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State ?
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Answer: (C) Nagaland
Explanation
Article 371A provides special provisions for the state of Nagaland, having been inserted into the Constitution by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1962. Under Clause (1)(b) of this Article, the Governor of Nagaland is vested with special responsibility regarding law and order in the state. This responsibility persists for as long as internal disturbances continue in the Naga Hills-Tuensang Area. While the Governor is required to consult the Council of Ministers, he is empowered to exercise individual judgment and act in his discretion. The Constitution further clarifies that any decision made by the Governor in his discretion under this provision is final and cannot be challenged in any court of law. This unique administrative power was intended to provide the central representative with the authority necessary to maintain peace during the state's formative years.
119Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements
1. The Ministries/ Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretary serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board (CSB). This board is a high-level administrative body responsible for recommending the appointments, transfers, and postings of officers of the rank of Joint Secretary and above under the Central Staffing Scheme within the Union Government. By heading this board, the Cabinet Secretary ensures a structured and institutionalized process for senior-level appointments, providing administrative continuity and ensuring that personnel management at the top levels of the bureaucracy is conducted according to merit and professional requirements. The board also includes the Secretary (Personnel) and the Secretary of the concerned ministry, with the Establishment Officer serving as its Member-Secretary.
120History
The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the following?
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Answer: (D) Lord Minto
Explanation
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on April 25, 1809, between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and Charles T. Metcalfe, who acted as the representative of the British East India Company. At the time of this diplomatic settlement, Lord Minto I was serving as the Governor-General of India (1807–1813). He dispatched Metcalfe to negotiate with the Sikh ruler to prevent French influence in the region and to check the southward expansion of the Sikh Empire. The treaty formally recognized the Sutlej River as the boundary between the British territories and Ranjit Singh’s kingdom, compelling the Maharaja to renounce his claims over the Cis-Sutlej states while ensuring peace between the two powers for several decades.