Which one of the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India ?
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Answer: (B) Singareni Collieries Company Limited
Explanation
The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is the oldest government-owned coal mining company in India. It was originally incorporated on December 23, 1920, as a public limited company under the Hyderabad Companies Act. In 1945, the Nizam of Hyderabad purchased the majority shares of the company, transitioning it into a government-controlled entity well before the nationalization of the Indian coal industry in the 1970s. Following the reorganization of states, the ownership was shared between the Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) and the Government of India. Its long history of operation in the Pranhita-Godavari valley of Telangana makes it the pioneer of organized coal mining under state ownership in the country.
2Geography
Which one of the following is a tributary of Barak River in Manipur ?
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Answer: (A) Dhaleswari
Explanation
The Barak River originates in the Manipur Hills at Liyai Village in the Senapati district and serves as a major river system in Northeast India. The Dhaleswari River is a significant tributary belonging to the Barak drainage basin. It flows through the state of Mizoram and the Cachar district of Assam before merging with the main channel of the Barak River. As part of this hydrological network, the Dhaleswari contributes to the overall flow of the Barak before the system enters Bangladesh and bifurcates into the Surma and Kushiyara rivers.
3Geography
Which types of vegetation will you find on the way as you travel from Bikaner to Konark by road by shortest distance ?
Bikaner is located in the heart of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan, which is characterized by desert vegetation such as xerophytes and cacti. Traveling southeast toward Konark, the shortest route passes through the semi-arid regions of eastern Rajasthan and western Madhya Pradesh, where tropical thorny forests are the dominant vegetation type due to slightly higher rainfall. As the journey continues into the more humid areas of the Deccan Plateau, Chhattisgarh, and interior Odisha, the vegetation transitions into moist deciduous forests, which thrive in regions receiving 100 to 200 centimeters of rainfall. Finally, upon reaching the coastal destination of Konark in Odisha, mangrove vegetation is encountered along the saline deltas and tidal marshes of the Bay of Bengal coastline.
4Geography
Consider the following statements about Karewas :
1. These are the lacustrine deposits of Pleistocene period.
2. These are found along the lower slopes of Pir Panjal.
3. Karewas are well known for the cultivation of saffron, almond and walnut.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 3
Explanation
Karewas are thick lacustrine deposits consisting of clay, sand, and silt embedded with glacial moraines, formed during the Pleistocene epoch when the Kashmir Valley was a vast lake. These deposits were exposed when the lake drained through the Baramulla gorge due to tectonic activity. Geographically, they are found as flat-topped mounds or plateaus along the lower slopes and foothills of the Pir Panjal Range and the Great Himalayas in Jammu and Kashmir. The unique composition of these deposits provides high fertility and excellent drainage, making them world-famous for the cultivation of the Lacha and Mongra varieties of saffron. Additionally, the Karewa soil is extensively used for the commercial production of almonds, walnuts, and apples.
5Geography
Consider the following statements about an Indian State :
1. It is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals.
2. It has the largest deposits of Chrysotile Asbestos in the country.
3. The Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project is located in this State.
Identify the State from the following :
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Andhra Pradesh is historically and geologically significant for its vast mineral wealth, including being the sole provider of the superior chrysotile variety of asbestos in India, primarily found in the Pulivendula taluk of the Kadapa district. The state is globally recognized for its diverse mineral resources such as barite, limestone, and bauxite. Furthermore, the Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project refers to the Srisailam Dam project constructed across the Krishna River. It is named after the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and the sixth President of India, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy. This project is one of the largest hydroelectric power stations in the country and is a vital component of the state's irrigation and power infrastructure.
6Economy
During 2020-21, when India was passing through the adverse effects of COVID-19, which one of the following sectors witnessed positive growth ?
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Answer: (B) Electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services
Explanation
According to the provisional estimates released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for the financial year 2020-21, the electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services sector was one of the few sectors to register positive growth, recording an expansion of 1.9 percent. While the overall Indian economy faced a contraction of approximately 7.3 percent due to the stringent lockdowns and pandemic-related disruptions, these essential utility services remained operational to support residential needs and the critical healthcare infrastructure. Beside agriculture, forestry and fishing which grew at 3.6 percent, the utilities sector stood out as a resilient component of the industrial segment during the adverse economic conditions of the pandemic period.
7Economy
Which one of the following statements about a borrower from a Microfinance Company is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) The borrower should not refuse to offer a collateral.
Explanation
According to the Reserve Bank of India (Regulatory Framework for Microfinance Loans) Directions, 2022, a microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having an annual household income up to ₹3,00,000. This definition applies to all regulated entities, including commercial banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC-MFIs). Because the core regulatory characteristic of these loans is that they are extended without any security or asset backing, the statement that a borrower should not refuse to offer collateral is incorrect.
The regulatory framework further stipulates that the total monthly loan repayment obligations (including principal and interest) for a household should not exceed 50 percent of the monthly household income. This ensures debt sustainability and effectively places a limit on the total loan amount a borrower can seek relative to their income. While the RBI has removed the interest rate ceiling to allow for market-based pricing, it mandates that interest rates must not be usurious and must be transparently disclosed to the borrower through a standardized factsheet.
8Economy
Which one of the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is not correct?
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Answer: (B) NBFCs cannot give loans.
Explanation
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions registered under the Companies Act that are primarily engaged in the business of loans and advances. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the core activity of an NBFC involves providing credit through various channels such as retail lending, hire-purchase, leasing, and infrastructure finance. They serve as vital intermediaries in the financial system by catering to the credit needs of diverse sectors, including micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) and unbanked populations. While they are subject to certain restrictions that differentiate them from commercial banks, the authority to extend loans is the fundamental basis of their operations under the RBI Act, 1934.
9Economy
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has revised the base year index of Eight Core Industries having a combined weight of about 40.27 percent in the Index of Industrial Production. Which one of the following is not one of the Eight Core Industries?
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Answer: (C) Rubber products
Explanation
Rubber products are excluded from the list of Eight Core Industries as they are not considered primary infrastructure or basic energy inputs. The Eight Core Industries, which carry a weight of 40.27 percent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), are limited to sectors with significant multiplier effects on the economy, specifically those involved in energy generation, fuel production, and basic industrial inputs like fertilizers and steel. Rubber manufacturing is instead categorized under the general manufacturing basket of the IIP. The specific core group monitored by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade includes only eight specific sectors, and rubber products do not fall within this designation.
10Economy
Consider the following statements about the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs):
1. The MSMEs comprise a dynamic sector of the Indian economy providing large employment opportunities.
2. MSMEs require low capital cost and help industrialization of backward regions.
3. MSMEs contribute enormously to socio-economic development.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 3
Explanation
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) function as a vital pillar of the Indian economy by providing extensive employment opportunities, second only to the agricultural sector. Due to their labor-intensive nature, these units require significantly lower capital investment compared to large-scale industries, making them highly effective for the industrialization of backward and rural regions. This geographic dispersion helps in reducing regional imbalances and curbing rural-to-urban migration. Additionally, MSMEs drive socio-economic development by contributing approximately 30 percent to the countrys Gross Domestic Product and nearly 48 percent of total exports, while promoting inclusive growth by empowering entrepreneurs from diverse social backgrounds.
11Science and Technology
Stinging hair of nettle leaves inject fluid in the human body causing burning pain. The fluid is
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Answer: (A) Methanoic acid
Explanation
Nettle leaves are covered with tiny, stinging hairs known as trichomes that serve as a defense mechanism against herbivores. These hairs are brittle and contain a hollow tube filled with stinging fluid. Upon contact, the tips of the hairs break off, acting like a syringe to inject chemicals into the human body. The primary chemical constituent responsible for the acute burning pain and stinging sensation is methanoic acid, which is also commonly referred to as formic acid (HCOOH). This acid triggers a localized inflammatory response on the skin surface.
12Science and Technology
Milk of Magnesia is used when people suffer from indigestion of food. It is a
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Answer: (B) Mild base
Explanation
Milk of Magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)₂, which is commonly used as an antacid. During indigestion, the stomach produces an excess of hydrochloric acid, leading to pain and irritation. Magnesium hydroxide is a mild base that reacts with the excess acid in a neutralization reaction to form magnesium chloride and water. It is classified as a mild base because it is only slightly soluble in water and has a pH of approximately 10.5, which is strong enough to neutralize stomach acid effectively but gentle enough to be safely ingested without damaging the digestive tract.
13Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs of metals are very good conductors of heat?
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Answer: (A) Silver and Copper
Explanation
Silver and copper are the two most efficient thermal conductors among all metals due to their high density of free electrons. In metallic solids, heat is primarily transferred through the movement of valence electrons; since silver and copper have electronic structures that allow for high electron mobility, they facilitate the rapid transfer of thermal energy. Silver holds the highest thermal conductivity of any element, followed closely by copper, making this pair the most effective for applications requiring superior heat dissipation or transfer.
14Science and Technology
School bells are made of metals because metals are
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Answer: (B) Sonorous
Explanation
Metals are characterized as sonorous because they possess the physical property of producing a deep, ringing sound when struck by a hard object. This occurs because the metallic lattice structure allows vibrations to propagate efficiently through the material with minimal energy loss. This resonance is the specific quality required for the construction of bells, ensuring that the sound produced is clear, loud, and capable of traveling over long distances to signal students and staff.
15Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about Tincture of Iodine:
1. It is an antiseptic solution.
2. Iodine is kept in alcohol-water mixture.
3. Concentration of iodine is very low.
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Answer: (C) 3
Explanation
Tincture of iodine is a common antiseptic used to treat minor cuts and wounds. It is prepared by dissolving 2-7% elemental iodine (I₂) along with potassium iodide (KI) or sodium iodide (NaI) in a solvent mixture of ethanol (alcohol) and water. The addition of iodide salts is necessary to increase the solubility of iodine in the alcohol-water solvent through the formation of the triiodide complex (I₃⁻). In these medical formulations, the concentration of iodine is maintained at a relatively low level, typically around 2% to 3% for mild tinctures, to ensure effective antimicrobial action without causing chemical irritation or tissue damage. Consequently, the solution acts as an effective antiseptic, uses an alcohol-water mixture as a solvent, and contains a low solute concentration.
16Science and Technology
CI is not isoelectronic with
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Answer: (B) Mg²⁺
Explanation
Isoelectronic species are atoms, ions, or molecules that have the same number of electrons. The number of electrons in an ion is calculated using the formula Electrons = Z - (Charge), where Z is the atomic number.
The chloride ion Cl⁻ has an atomic number of 17. Its total electron count is 17 - (-1) = 18. Species that are isoelectronic with Cl⁻ must also have 18 electrons, which corresponds to the electronic configuration of the noble gas Argon.
Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. The magnesium ion Mg²⁺ is formed by the loss of two electrons, resulting in a total electron count of 12 - (+2) = 10. This electron count corresponds to the noble gas Neon. Since 10 electrons is not equal to 18 electrons, Mg²⁺ is not isoelectronic with Cl⁻. Other species like K⁺, S²⁻, and P³⁻ all possess 18 electrons, making them isoelectronic with the chloride ion.
17Science and Technology
In plant cells
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Answer: (B) Nucleus and chloroplasts are surrounded separately by their own membrane.
Explanation
Plant cells are eukaryotic organisms, which are defined by the presence of membrane-bound organelles that compartmentalize specific biological processes. The nucleus is enclosed by a double-membrane structure called the nuclear envelope, which contains nuclear pores to regulate the exchange of materials between the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm. Similarly, chloroplasts, which are the sites of photosynthesis, are also surrounded by a distinct double-membrane system consisting of an outer membrane and an inner membrane. These separate membrane systems allow the nucleus to manage genetic information and the chloroplasts to perform energy conversion independently within the cellular environment.
18Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about starch and glycogen is correct?
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Answer: (C) Starch is present in plant cells and glycogen is present in animal cells.
Explanation
Starch is the primary storage carbohydrate in plant cells, consisting of α-glucose polymers in the forms of amylose and amylopectin. It is synthesized during photosynthesis and stored in specialized organelles called amyloplasts in organs such as tubers, seeds, and roots. Glycogen serves the equivalent storage function in animal cells and is often referred to as animal starch. It is a highly branched polymer of glucose stored primarily in the liver and skeletal muscles, where it is broken down into glucose to maintain blood sugar levels and provide energy for metabolic activities.
19Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct?
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Answer: (D) Chlorophyll absorbs light energy which causes splitting of water molecules and reduction of carbon dioxide.
Explanation
Chlorophyll is the primary pigment that captures radiant light energy during the first stage of photosynthesis. This absorbed energy facilitates the photolysis of water molecules, where H₂O is split into hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen. The chemical energy generated during these light-dependent reactions, stored in molecules like ATP and NADPH, is then used to power the light-independent reactions. During this subsequent phase, carbon dioxide (CO₂) undergoes reduction, meaning it gains electrons and hydrogen to be synthesized into carbohydrates such as glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆).
20Science and Technology
Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by the deficiency of
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Answer: (D) Proteins
Explanation
Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) primarily caused by an inadequate intake of proteins despite a sufficient or nearly sufficient caloric intake. It is most commonly observed in infants and young children, particularly in regions where the diet transitions from protein-rich breast milk to high-carbohydrate, low-protein staples such as maize, rice, or cassava. The deficiency of essential amino acids leads to several physiological issues, most notably a decrease in plasma albumin levels. This reduction in albumin causes a decrease in oncotic pressure, leading to the characteristic edema or swelling of the feet, legs, and abdomen (often called a pot belly). Additionally, protein deficiency impairs cell growth, immune function, and the synthesis of structural proteins, resulting in stunted growth, thinning hair, and skin lesions.
21Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs of enzymes do not work at acidic pH?
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Answer: (C) Trypsin and Amylase
Explanation
Trypsin and pancreatic amylase are enzymes that function within the small intestine, where the environment is maintained at an alkaline pH of approximately 7.5 to 8.5. This alkalinity is achieved through the secretion of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas, which neutralizes the acidic chyme entering from the stomach. Trypsin is a protease that breaks down proteins, while amylase facilitates the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Both enzymes are structurally unstable and biologically inactive in acidic conditions; for instance, the highly acidic environment of the stomach, which typically ranges from a pH of 1.5 to 3.5, would denature these proteins and eliminate their catalytic ability. Consequently, their physiological activity is restricted to neutral or basic environments.
22Science and Technology
Urea is produced by metabolism of
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Answer: (A) Proteins
Explanation
Urea is the primary nitrogenous waste product in humans, synthesized in the liver through a biochemical pathway known as the urea cycle or the ornithine cycle. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which contain nitrogen in their amino groups (-NH₂). When proteins are metabolized and broken down, these amino acids undergo deamination, a process in which the nitrogen-containing amino group is removed and converted into ammonia (NH₃). Because ammonia is highly toxic to biological tissues, the liver rapidly converts it into urea (NH₂CONH₂) by combining it with carbon dioxide (CO₂). This water-soluble urea is then released into the bloodstream, filtered by the kidneys, and excreted from the body in urine. The production of urea is therefore a direct result of the catabolism of nitrogen-rich protein molecules.
23Science and Technology
Deficiency of iron causes
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Answer: (A) Anaemia
Explanation
Iron is an essential mineral required for the synthesis of hemoglobin, which is the protein in red blood cells responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. When the body lacks sufficient iron, it cannot produce an adequate amount of hemoglobin, leading to a condition known as iron-deficiency anaemia. This condition results in a decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen, which typically manifests as symptoms such as persistent fatigue, physical weakness, pale skin, and shortness of breath. Iron is also a critical component of myoglobin, a protein that provides oxygen to muscles, and various enzymes necessary for energy metabolism.
24Science and Technology
If an object of mass 10 kg is moving with a uniform speed of 10 m / s , then the linear momentum and the kinetic energy of the object, respectively, are
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Answer: (A) 100 N·s and 500 J
Explanation
Linear momentum p is defined as the product of the mass m and velocity v of an object, expressed by the formula p = mv. Given a mass of 10 kg and a speed of 10 m/s, the calculation is p = 10 kg × 10 m/s = 100 kg · m/s. The unit kg · m/s is equivalent to the Newton-second (N · s), so the momentum is 100 N · s.
Kinetic energy K is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion, calculated using the formula K = 1/2mv². Substituting the given values, K = 1/2 × 10 kg × (10 m/s)² = 5 × 100 = 500 J. Thus, for an object of 10 kg moving at 10 m/s, the linear momentum is 100 N · s and the kinetic energy is 500 J.
25Science and Technology
The pitch of a sound wave depends upon which one of its following characteristics?
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Answer: (D) Frequency
Explanation
Pitch is the auditory sensation by which a listener assigns musical tones to relative positions on a musical scale based primarily on the frequency of vibration. Frequency represents the number of sound wave cycles that pass a fixed point per unit of time, typically measured in Hertz (Hz). A higher frequency of vibration produces a sound with a higher pitch, making it sound shriller, whereas a lower frequency results in a sound with a lower pitch. This direct relationship means that as the frequency of a sound wave increases, the perceived pitch also increases, making frequency the fundamental physical characteristic responsible for the pitch of a sound.
26Science and Technology
The device used for measuring electric current in a circuit is called
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Answer: (A) Ammeter
Explanation
An ammeter is an instrument used to measure the magnitude of electric current flowing through a circuit in units of amperes (A). To measure the current accurately, the device is always connected in series with the circuit component through which the current is to be measured. This ensures that the same charge flowing through the circuit also passes through the ammeter. It is designed with very low internal resistance so that it does not significantly oppose the flow of current or cause a substantial voltage drop, thereby maintaining the integrity of the circuit's original electrical state.
27Science and Technology
A metal wire of length l and diameter d has a resistance R . What would be the resistance of another wire of the same metal and of same length but having double the diameter?
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Answer: (B) R / 4
Explanation
The resistance R of a wire is determined by the formula R = ρ l/A, where ρ is the resistivity, l is the length, and A is the cross-sectional area. For a wire with diameter d, the area is A = πd²/4. Substituting this into the formula gives R = 4ρl/πd². For wires of the same material and length, resistance is inversely proportional to the square of the diameter (R ∝ 1/d²). If the diameter is doubled to 2d, the new resistance R' is calculated using the ratio:
R' = R × (d/2d)² = R × 1/4 = R/4
28Polity and Governance
In India, which one of the following is responsible for the implementation of the Government of India's policy in all matters concerning telecommunications?
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Answer: (A) Digital Communications Commission
Explanation
The Digital Communications Commission, which was renamed from the Telecom Commission in 2018, is the highest decision-making body within the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications. It was established with the specific mandate to formulate and implement the policies of the Government of India in all matters related to telecommunications. The Commission is chaired by the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications and includes both full-time and part-time members. It is vested with the administrative and financial powers of the Government to oversee the development of the telecom sector, prepare the department's budget, and ensure the execution of the National Digital Communications Policy.
29Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about James Webb Space Telescope (JWST):
1. It is the largest observatory ever launched into space.
2. It has been developed by NASA in partnership with the European Space Agency and the Canadian Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The James Webb Space Telescope is the largest and most powerful space observatory ever launched, featuring a primary mirror that is 6.5 meters across, which is significantly larger than the 2.4-meter mirror of the Hubble Space Telescope. Its sunshield, which protects the sensitive instruments from heat, is approximately the size of a tennis court. The project is a major international mission led by NASA in collaboration with the European Space Agency and the Canadian Space Agency. While NASA served as the lead agency for the design and development, the European Space Agency provided the Ariane 5 launch vehicle and critical science instruments like the Near-Infrared Spectrograph, and the Canadian Space Agency provided the Fine Guidance Sensor and the Near-Infrared Imager and Slitless Spectrograph.
30Economy
India has achieved the 10 percent Ethanol blending much ahead of the targeted date. Which one among the following greatly benefits from this?
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Answer: (C) Sugar industry
Explanation
The sugar industry is the primary beneficiary of the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme as ethanol is largely produced from sugarcane molasses, B-heavy molasses, and direct sugarcane juice in India. Increased blending targets allow sugar mills to divert surplus sugarcane and molasses away from sugar production, which helps in stabilizing domestic sugar prices and improving the financial liquidity of the mills. This improved cash flow enables mills to clear pending cane price arrears to farmers more efficiently, transforming the sugar sector from a surplus-commodity industry into a more sustainable energy-cum-sugar complex. The diversion of excess sugar to ethanol is a key strategy for the government to manage the cyclical nature of the sugar industry and ensure the economic viability of sugar mills.
31Economy
Consider the following statements regarding e-RUPI prepaid digital vouchers:
1. The maximum amount of e-RUPI is rupees one lakh.
2. Beneficiaries can receive e-RUPI without having a bank account.
3. To receive e-RUPI on mobile phones, beneficiaries need a smart phone with Internet connection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because in February 2022, the Reserve Bank of India increased the cap on e-RUPI vouchers issued by the government from ₹10,000 to ₹1,00,000 per voucher to ensure more efficient delivery of welfare benefits. Statement 2 is correct because e-RUPI is a person-specific and purpose-specific digital payment instrument that does not require the beneficiary to have a bank account. It functions as a prepaid voucher that can be redeemed at specific accepting centers without the need for a debit card, mobile app, or internet banking. This design facilitates leak-proof delivery of services to the unbanked population. Furthermore, the system is designed to work on basic feature phones through SMS strings or QR codes, meaning beneficiaries do not require a smartphone or an active internet connection to receive or use the voucher.
32Science and Technology
Recently, India's first green hydrogen-based advanced fuel cell electric vehicle (FCEV) was launched. It has no tailpipe emissions other than
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Answer: (D) Water
Explanation
In March 2022, India launched its first hydrogen-based Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV), the Toyota Mirai, as part of a pilot project to demonstrate the efficacy of green hydrogen technology. A fuel cell vehicle operates by utilizing a fuel cell stack where hydrogen fuel from an onboard tank undergoes an electrochemical reaction with oxygen extracted from the ambient air. This process generates electricity to power the vehicle's motor, with the chemical reaction represented as 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O + electricity. Because there is no combustion of fossil fuels, the only byproduct emitted from the tailpipe is pure water vapor, making the technology truly zero-emission at the point of use.
33Polity and Governance
Which one of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by a Constitutional Amendment in 1967?
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Answer: (C) Sindhi
Explanation
The 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967, amended the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to include Sindhi as the fifteenth regional language. Prior to this amendment, the Eighth Schedule contained only fourteen languages that were recognized at the commencement of the Constitution. This inclusion followed persistent demands from the Sindhi-speaking community, which had been displaced during the Partition but maintained a significant cultural and linguistic presence across various states in India. Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule means the language is represented on the Official Languages Commission and that the Union government has a responsibility to encourage its development.
34History
What were Manipramam and Nanadesi in early medieval India?
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Answer: (C) Guilds of Indian merchants
Explanation
In early medieval South India, Manigramam (often transliterated as Manipramam) and Nanadesi were prominent merchant guilds that played a crucial role in internal and overseas trade. The Manigramam guild emerged around the 9th century, particularly along the Malabar coast, and was involved in organizing commerce between the hinterland and coastal ports. The Nanadesi, whose name signifies merchants from various regions, was a powerful itinerant guild that operated extensively across South India and Southeast Asia, including regions like Sumatra and Java. These guilds functioned as autonomous corporate bodies that protected the interests of traders, maintained their own security forces for caravans, and negotiated trade privileges with ruling dynasties like the Cholas and Pandyas. They were instrumental in the urbanisation and commercial expansion of the period, managing market towns known as pattinams and contributing to temple endowments.
35History
The Dutch were defeated by Marthanda Varma of Travancore Kingdom in the battle of
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Answer: (D) Colachel
Explanation
The Battle of Colachel was fought in August 1741 between the Kingdom of Travancore, under Maharaja Marthanda Varma, and the Dutch East India Company. The conflict arose from the Dutch attempt to maintain their monopoly over the lucrative pepper trade in the Malabar region by seizing the port of Colachel. Marthanda Varma's forces achieved a decisive victory, forcing the Dutch to retreat and eventually surrender. This engagement is historically significant as it marked the first time an Asian power had decisively defeated a European naval power in India, leading to the permanent decline of Dutch political influence in the subcontinent. Subsequently, the Dutch commander Eustachius De Lannoy was captured and later served as a military commander for Travancore, modernizing its army.
36Art and Culture
To which one of the following schools of philosophy did Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara belong?
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Answer: (C) Purva-Mimamsa
Explanation
Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara Misra were the two most prominent proponents of the Purva-Mimamsa school of Indian philosophy. This school focuses on the investigation of the nature of Dharma through the interpretation of the ritualistic sections of the Vedas. Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara founded the two major sub-schools within Mimamsa, known as the Bhatta school and the Prabhakara school respectively. Their primary objective was to establish the supreme and eternal authority of the Vedas as apaurusheya (not authored by any human or divine being). They developed sophisticated epistemological and linguistic theories to justify Vedic ritualism and the performance of sacrifices. While they agreed on the primacy of the Vedas, they differed on specific philosophical nuances such as the nature of error (khyati) and the number of valid sources of knowledge (pramanas). Their works, particularly Kumarila's Shlokavartika, remain central to the methodology of Vedic exegesis.
37Art and Culture
The Tolkappiyam is
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Answer: (A) A work of grammar.
Explanation
The Tolkappiyam is the oldest extant work of Tamil literature and serves as the foundational treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics. Attributed to the scholar Tolkappiyar, it is a core text of the Sangam period. The work is divided into three sections known as Atikarams. The first section, Eluttatikaram, focuses on orthography and phonology. The second, Sollatikaram, deals with morphology and syntax. The third section, Porulatikaram, is unique as it discusses the subject matter of poetry, the classification of landscapes known as tinai, and the social conventions of the time. While it includes observations on culture and ethics, its primary purpose is to define the linguistic and literary rules of the Tamil language. It provides a systematic framework for classical Tamil that guided subsequent literary production for centuries.
38History
On the banks of which one of the following rivers was the ancient Mahishmati located?
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Answer: (C) Narmada
Explanation
Mahishmati was a significant urban center in ancient India and served as the capital of the southern region of the Avanti kingdom, known as Avanti-dakshinapatha. Historical texts, including the Mahabharata and various Puranas, consistently associate the city with the Narmada River. In the Puranic tradition, it is often linked to the Haihaya ruler Kartavirya Arjuna. Geographically, modern historians and archaeologists identify ancient Mahishmati with the present-day town of Maheshwar in Madhya Pradesh, which is situated directly on the northern bank of the Narmada. The city played a crucial role as a junction on the Dakshinapatha trade route, facilitating commerce between the Indo-Gangetic plain and the Deccan plateau.
39Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Parliament is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The Chairperson of the Committee is elected by its members.
Explanation
The Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst the members of the Committee. According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the Chairperson is a nominee of the Speaker and is not elected by the members of the Committee. While the Committee members themselves are elected by the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha using the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, the leadership role is filled through appointment. Furthermore, a long-standing parliamentary convention since 1967 dictates that the Speaker appoints a member from the Opposition to head the Committee to facilitate independent and effective scrutiny of executive accounts.
40Polity and Governance
Consider the following:
1. M.A. Ayyangar
2. G.S. Dhillon
3. Balram Jakhar
4. P.A. Sangma
How many of them were the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (D) 4
Explanation
All four individuals listed have served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. M.A. Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker and subsequently the second Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1956 to 1962. G.S. Dhillon held the office of the Speaker from 1969 to 1975 during the Fourth and Fifth Lok Sabhas. Balram Jakhar served as the Speaker for two consecutive terms from 1980 to 1989, making him the longest-serving Speaker in the history of the Indian Parliament. P.A. Sangma presided over the Eleventh Lok Sabha as Speaker from 1996 to 1998, notably being the first Speaker from the Northeast and the first to be elected from the opposition benches. Since all four figures occupied this constitutional post, the correct count is four.
41Polity and Governance
Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constitution of India:
1. First Schedule : Forms of Oaths or Affirmations
2. Third Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
3. Fifth Schedule : Provisions related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
4. Ninth Schedule : Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas in certain States
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
The Fifth Schedule is the only correctly matched pair, as it specifies the provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in India. The First Schedule details the names and territorial extent of States and Union Territories. The Third Schedule outlines the forms of Oaths or Affirmations for various constitutional posts. The Ninth Schedule deals with the validation of certain Acts and Regulations, primarily relating to land reforms. The allocation of seats in the Council of States is defined in the Fourth Schedule, and the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is governed by the Sixth Schedule.
42Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (C) Only religious and linguistic minorities find mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.
Explanation
Article 30 of the Constitution of India provides for the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Clause (1) of the Article explicitly states that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This means the Indian Constitution recognizes only two specific bases for identifying minorities who are eligible for the protections and institutional rights afforded under this Article: religious affiliation and linguistic identity. This provision ensures that such communities can preserve and promote their distinct culture and heritage through their own educational systems. No other categories of minorities, such as those defined by ethnicity or caste, are mentioned within the text of Article 30.
43Geography
Which one of the following do not influence the ocean currents?
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Answer: (C) Gravitational pull by Sun and Moon
Explanation
The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon is the primary force responsible for the generation of tides, which involve the periodic rise and fall of sea levels. This force results in rhythmic, temporary tidal currents that reverse direction, but it does not drive the permanent and continuous flow of water across the global ocean basins. The influence exerted by the Sun and the Moon primarily affects the vertical displacement of water based on astronomical positions. It does not provide the persistent mechanical energy required to initiate or maintain the steady, long-distance horizontal movement of water masses defined as ocean currents.
44Geography
Which one of the following sedimentary rocks has not been formed mechanically?
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Answer: (D) Geyseries
Explanation
Geyserite is a chemical sedimentary rock composed of opaline silica that precipitates from the hot, mineral-rich waters of geysers and thermal springs. Its formation occurs through the chemical process of mineral deposition from solution as the water cools or evaporates at the surface. Because it is formed by the precipitation of dissolved substances rather than the physical accumulation and compaction of weathered rock fragments, it is classified as a non-clastic or chemical deposit.
45Geography
Which of the following statements about inversion of temperature is/are correct?
1. Temperature increases with increasing altitude.
2. A long winter night with clear skies is an ideal situation.
3. It is a short term phenomenon and is common all over the globe except at the poles.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Temperature inversion is a meteorological phenomenon characterized by an increase in temperature with increasing altitude, which is the reverse of the normal lapse rate. This occurs when a layer of warmer air acts as a lid over a layer of cooler air near the Earth's surface.
Surface inversions typically develop during long winter nights under clear skies. During the winter, the Earth's surface radiates heat for a longer duration than it receives solar energy. Clear skies facilitate the rapid escape of this terrestrial radiation into the upper atmosphere. As the surface cools, the air in immediate contact with the ground also cools through conduction, while the air layers higher up retain more heat. This creates a stable temperature profile where the lower air is denser and colder than the air above it. These inversions are common throughout the globe, particularly in polar regions where the lack of sunlight for extended periods leads to persistent and strong surface inversions.
46Geography
In which one of the following States/UT, is the Lake Tsomgo located?
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Answer: (C) Sikkim
Explanation
Lake Tsomgo, also known as Changu Lake, is a high-altitude glacial lake located in the East Sikkim district of Sikkim. Situated at an elevation of approximately 3,753 meters (12,313 feet), it lies about 40 kilometers from the state capital, Gangtok, on the route leading to the Nathu La pass. The lake is considered sacred by the local people and is a significant geographical feature of the eastern Himalayas, remaining frozen during the winter season and reflecting different colors with the changing seasons. Its name is derived from the Bhutia language, where Tso means lake and Mgo means head, signifying the source of the water.
47Geography
Which of the following statements about the coasts of India is/are correct?
1. The West Coast of India is a high rocky, retreating coast.
2. The West Coast of India is dominated by erosional landforms.
3. The East Coast of India, however, is a low sedimentary coast exhibiting depositional forms.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The West Coast of India is primarily a submergent coast characterized by high rocky cliffs, headlands, and a narrow continental shelf where the Western Ghats run close to the sea. These features make it a high rocky retreating coast where wave energy is concentrated against hard rock, leading to the dominance of erosional landforms such as sea caves and wave-cut platforms. In contrast, the East Coast is an emergent coast defined by a broad continental shelf and the massive sediment load carried by large peninsular rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri. This results in a low-lying sedimentary coastline characterized by depositional landforms including extensive deltas, sandy beaches, lagoons, and spit formations. The fundamental difference lies in the tectonic history and the volume of fluvial deposits reaching the respective coastlines.
48Geography
Which one of the following States/UTs has the largest area under Coral Reefs in India?
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Answer: (C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands possess the most extensive coral reef ecosystems in India, covering an estimated area of approximately 948 square kilometers. This accounts for the vast majority of the total coral reef area in the country. The reefs in this region are primarily fringing reefs that grow along the shores of the islands in the archipelago. The geographical scale of the Andaman and Nicobar chain, combined with its favorable marine environment, supports a much larger reef area than the atolls of Lakshadweep or the fringing and patch reefs found in the Gulf of Mannar and the Gulf of Kachchh.
49Economy
Which one of the following is considered as an agency function of commercial banks in India?
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Answer: (C) Acceptance of income tax payments
Explanation
Commercial banks in India perform agency functions when they act as an agent on behalf of their customers or the government. The acceptance of income tax payments is a classic example of an agency function where the bank acts as an intermediary between the taxpayer and the government. Under this arrangement, the bank collects the tax amount and remits it to the government treasury, specifically the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), following a mandate from the state or central authorities. Other common agency functions include the collection and payment of checks, dividends, and interest, as well as acting as a trustee, executor, or attorney for the customer. These services are distinct from the primary banking functions of mobilising deposits and lending money, as they are service-oriented tasks performed based on the principal-agent relationship.
50Economy
Which one of the following forms of money supply is considered as the most widely used in the Indian monetary system?
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Answer: (C) M3
Explanation
M3, commonly referred to as Broad Money, is the most widely used measure of money supply in the Indian monetary system for economic analysis and policy formulation. It serves as the primary indicator for the Reserve Bank of India to monitor aggregate monetary resources and liquidity in the economy. The components of M3 are defined by the relation M₃ = M₁ + Time Deposits with the banking system, where M1 includes currency with the public and demand deposits. By including time deposits, such as fixed deposits and recurring deposits which constitute a significant portion of household savings in India, M3 provides a comprehensive reflection of the total volume of money available. This makes it the standard benchmark for assessing inflationary pressures and determining monetary policy targets.
51Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the first State in India to have 100 percent households with tap water connection?
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Answer: (B) Goa
Explanation
Goa became the first Har Ghar Jal State in India in October 2020 by providing functional household tap connections to all its rural households. This milestone was achieved under the Jal Jeevan Mission, a flagship program of the Government of India launched in August 2019. The state government successfully covered approximately 2.30 lakh rural households across North and South Goa, ensuring access to safe and adequate drinking water through taps. This achievement was officially recognized after a rigorous verification process involving gram sabhas and third-party assessments, making Goa the pioneer in achieving universal tap water coverage in the country.
52Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Labour Codes notified by the Government of India incorporated various provisions of the Central Labour Acts such as the Factories Act, 1948 and Plantations Labour Act, 1951?
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Answer: (A) The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
Explanation
The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, was enacted to consolidate and simplify thirteen central labour laws related to the safety, health, and welfare of workers. This Code incorporates the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, which sets standards for safety and working conditions in manufacturing units, and the Plantations Labour Act, 1951, which governs the welfare of labour in the plantation sector. It also integrates other significant legislations such as the Mines Act, 1952, and the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970. By merging these diverse Acts, the Code creates a comprehensive regulatory framework that covers a wide range of establishments and ensures uniform standards for occupational safety and health across different industries in India.
53Economy
If you were to browse a table of a recent period showing life expectancy at birth for all categories of rural-urban and male-female divisions for all States of India, you are not likely to observe that
1. Urban life expectancy is higher than the rural one.
2. Male life expectancy is higher than the female one.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
According to data from the Sample Registration System (SRS) and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, female life expectancy at birth in India is consistently higher than male life expectancy at birth. For the period 2015-2019, the average life expectancy for females in India was approximately 71.1 years, while for males it was 68.4 years. This biological and demographic trend is observed globally and persists across almost all Indian states and both rural and urban divisions. Because females generally have a higher survival rate and longer lifespan than males in contemporary Indian demographics, one is not likely to observe a table where male life expectancy exceeds that of females.
54Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
The Government is promoting the 'Kisan Drone' for
1. Spraying weedicides.
2. Digitisation of land records.
3. Crop assessment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Union Budget 2022-23 announced the promotion of Kisan Drones to foster technology integration in the Indian agricultural sector. One of the central roles of these drones is the digitization of land records, which involves high-resolution mapping of rural land parcels to ensure accurate ownership data and streamline land management under schemes like SVAMITVA. Another vital application is crop assessment, where drones equipped with advanced sensors monitor plant health, growth patterns, and yield potential. This provides farmers and insurers with critical data-driven insights for precision farming and timely intervention. While the initiative also includes the spraying of chemicals, the official policy mandate specifically highlights the assessment of crops and the survey of land as primary technological objectives for modernizing agricultural monitoring.
55Polity and Governance
Recently launched 'Jan Samarth' portal
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Answer: (D) provides link to Government credit schemes.
Explanation
The Jan Samarth portal is a first-of-its-kind national digital platform launched in June 2022 to provide a one-stop shop for credit-linked government schemes. Developed by the Ministry of Finance, the portal facilitates direct interaction between lenders and beneficiaries by integrating thirteen government schemes under four specific loan categories including education, agricultural infrastructure, business activity, and livelihood. The platform uses a digital-first approach to automate the loan application process, allowing applicants to check their eligibility and apply for multiple schemes simultaneously through a single interface, thereby streamlining access to government-backed credit facilities.
56Science and Technology
Recently India commissioned its first liquid mirror telescope at
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Answer: (B) Uttarakhand
Explanation
The International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) was commissioned at the Devasthal Observatory campus of the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. Located at an altitude of 2,450 metres, it is the first liquid mirror telescope in India and the largest of its kind in Asia. The telescope employs a 4-metre-diameter mirror consisting of a thin layer of liquid mercury that is rotated to maintain a parabolic shape, allowing it to focus light from distant celestial objects. It is specifically designed for large-sky surveys to detect transient astronomical phenomena such as supernovae, space debris, and asteroids. This facility represents a significant international collaboration involving scientific institutions from India, Belgium, Canada, Poland, and Uzbekistan.
57Polity and Governance
National Tribal Research Institute is situated at
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Answer: (D) New Delhi
Explanation
The National Tribal Research Institute (NTRI) was inaugurated on June 7, 2022, in New Delhi as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations. Located within the campus of the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), it serves as the premier national-level body for tribal research and policy formulation. The institute acts as a central hub for coordinating activities among various state Tribal Research Institutes, providing specialized inputs to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and state governments to ensure the preservation of tribal heritage and the effective implementation of developmental programs.
58Art and Culture
Avani Lekhara excels in which one of the following sports?
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Answer: (C) Shooting
Explanation
Avani Lekhara is a premier Indian para-shooter who specializes in rifle shooting events. She achieved historic success at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games, where she became the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic gold medal, finishing first in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 category. At the same Games, she also won a bronze medal in the women's 50m rifle 3 positions SH1 event, making her the first Indian woman to earn multiple medals at a single Paralympic edition. Following these achievements, she attained the world number one ranking in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 and was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021 for her exceptional contributions to the sport.
59Science and Technology
The atmosphere of Planet Venus is made up of thick and yellowish clouds of
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Answer: (B) Sulphuric acid
Explanation
The atmosphere of Venus is characterized by a dense and opaque layer of clouds that completely shrouds the planet. These clouds are primarily composed of concentrated droplets of sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), which form through photochemical processes involving sulphur dioxide and water vapor in the upper atmosphere. This thick layer of acidic clouds is responsible for the planet's high albedo, reflecting the majority of sunlight and giving Venus its distinct yellowish-white appearance. These clouds remain suspended in the upper atmosphere due to the extreme atmospheric pressure and complex circulation patterns, creating a permanent chemical haze that blocks direct observation of the Venusian surface in visible light.
60Science and Technology
A patient's abdomen (alimentary canal) can be examined by X-ray after administering which one of the following metal salts in the patient's meal?
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Answer: (A) Barium sulphate
Explanation
Barium sulphate (BaSO₄) is used as a radio-opaque contrast medium for X-ray imaging of the gastrointestinal tract. Because barium has a high atomic number (Z = 56), it effectively absorbs X-rays, providing the necessary contrast to clearly define the shape and condition of the esophagus, stomach, and intestines on the radiographic image. While many barium salts are toxic if absorbed, barium sulphate is extremely insoluble in water and the gastric acid found in the stomach. This property ensures that the compound remains in the alimentary canal and is eventually excreted without entering the bloodstream, making it a safe diagnostic tool for examining the digestive system.
61Science and Technology
Storage of biological tissues such as blood, organs, semen requires low temperature which is achieved upon the usage of
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Answer: (A) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation
Liquid nitrogen is the primary medium used for cryopreservation, which involves the storage of biological materials such as blood, semen, and various tissues at ultra-low temperatures. It has an extremely low boiling point of -196°C (77 K) at atmospheric pressure, which allows it to maintain a thermal environment where biological activity and metabolic processes are virtually suspended. This state of suspended animation prevents the degradation of cells and tissues over long periods. Liquid nitrogen is preferred because it is chemically inert, non-flammable, and capable of providing the rapid cooling rates necessary to minimize cellular damage during the freezing process.
62Science and Technology
In the joining of railway tracks, iron oxide is made to react with
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Answer: (A) Aluminium
Explanation
The joining of railway tracks utilizes a process known as the Thermite reaction or aluminothermy. In this highly exothermic chemical reaction, iron(III) oxide (Fe₂O₃) reacts with aluminium powder (Al), which acts as a powerful reducing agent. Because aluminium is more reactive than iron, it displaces the iron from its oxide, producing molten iron and aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). The chemical equation for this displacement is Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → 2Fe + Al₂O₃ + Heat. The heat generated by the reaction is intense enough to keep the produced iron in a liquid state, allowing it to flow into the gap between the rail ends, where it solidifies to create a permanent and continuous weld.
63History
What was a munjanig in medieval period?
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Answer: (B) Catapult
Explanation
The munjanig was a mechanical siege engine used extensively during the medieval period for military operations. It functioned as a heavy catapult or trebuchet designed to hurl large stone projectiles, boulders, or incendiary substances like naphtha at enemy fortifications and city walls. The device operated on the principle of a lever, where a long wooden beam was pivoted on a frame; one end held a sling for the projectile, while the other was pulled down by a team of men or a heavy counterweight to launch the missile with high velocity. In Indian history, the munjanig is notably associated with the early Islamic conquests and the Delhi Sultanate, where it served as a critical piece of siege artillery for breaching the massive stone defenses of fortified strongholds.
64History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Literary Work) List II (Author)
A. Duta Ghatotkachha 1. Bhatti
B. Mrichchhakatikam 2. Bhasa
C. Kiratariyinyam 3. Shudraka
D. Ravanavadha 4. Bharavi
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Duta Ghatotkachha is a one-act Sanskrit play based on the Mahabharata and is attributed to Bhasa, who is considered one of the earliest and most prolific Indian dramatists. Mrichchhakatikam, or The Little Clay Cart, is a classic social drama written by Shudraka that portrays the romantic relationship between a merchant and a courtesan. Kiratarjuniyam is a celebrated epic poem composed by Bharavi in the 6th century, detailing the encounter between Arjuna and Lord Shiva in the guise of a mountain hunter. Ravanavadha, famously known as Bhattikavya, was written by the poet Bhatti to serve the dual purpose of narrating the story of the Ramayana and illustrating the rules of Sanskrit grammar.
65History
At the banks of which of the following rivers was the Battle of Ten Kings fought in the Early Vedic Period?
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Answer: (C) Parushni
Explanation
The Battle of Ten Kings, known as the Dasharajna War, is a major historical event described in the 7th Mandala of the Rigveda. This battle was fought on the banks of the river Parushni, which is the Vedic name for the modern Ravi river. The conflict pitted King Sudas of the Bharata tribe against a confederacy of ten prominent tribes, including the Purus, Yadus, and Turvashas. The war was largely fueled by a rivalry between the sages Vashistha and Vishvamitra over the position of the chief priest to King Sudas. The Bharatas emerged victorious, establishing their supremacy in the region and setting the stage for the socio-political evolution of the Early Vedic society into the later Kuru kingdom.
66History
The Bengal Famine of 1769-70 was worsened by
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Answer: (C) High levels of taxation
Explanation
The Bengal Famine of 1769-70 was significantly worsened by the exploitative and rigid revenue policies of the East India Company. Following the Grant of Diwani in 1765, the Company assumed control over the collection of land revenue in Bengal. When the monsoons failed in 1768 and 1769, leading to a massive collapse of the rice crop, the Company prioritized revenue maximization to ensure its dividends and administrative expenses were met. Instead of providing relief or remitting taxes, the Company administration increased the land tax by nearly 10 percent in 1770 to compensate for the loss of revenue from those who had died or fled. This aggressive extraction of resources deprived the rural population of their food reserves and capital, preventing any possibility of a local recovery and transforming a natural drought into a man-made catastrophe that claimed approximately 10 million lives.
67History
Which one of the following is not the work of Ashvaghosha?
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Answer: (D) Manjushrimulakalpa
Explanation
Manjushrimulakalpa is a significant Mahayana-Vajrayana Buddhist text classified under the Kriya-tantra category. It is an extensive work that focuses on the Bodhisattva Manjushri and contains detailed instructions on rituals, mantras, and mandalas. A notable portion of the text includes a historical chronicle that provides a Buddhist perspective on the history of India, covering various dynasties such as the Guptas and the Palas. The compilation of this text is generally dated by scholars to have occurred between the 4th and 9th centuries CE, placing it in the later Tantric tradition of Buddhism. This temporal and stylistic context distinguishes it from the classical Sanskrit kavyas and dramas produced during the Kushan period in the 1st or 2nd century CE.
68Science and Technology
Fat in human body is stored in
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Answer: (A) Adipose tissue
Explanation
Adipose tissue is a specialized type of connective tissue that serves as the primary reservoir for fat storage in the human body. It is composed of cells known as adipocytes, which contain large globules of stored lipids, mainly triglycerides. These tissues are primarily located beneath the skin in the subcutaneous layer and around internal organs, where they function to store excess energy, provide thermal insulation to maintain body temperature, and act as a protective cushion for vital organs.
69Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a feature of Membrane?
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Answer: (A) Bilayer of phospholipid molecule in which proteins and cholesterol are embedded
Explanation
The fundamental structure of a biological membrane is defined by the Fluid Mosaic Model. It consists of a bilayer of phospholipid molecules, which are amphipathic, possessing both hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. This bilayer forms a stable barrier between two aqueous compartments. Interspersed within this lipid framework are various functional proteins, categorized as integral proteins that span the membrane or peripheral proteins attached to its surface. Additionally, cholesterol molecules are embedded within the hydrophobic core of the bilayer in animal cells. These cholesterol molecules play a critical role in modulating membrane fluidity and providing structural stability, preventing the membrane from becoming too rigid in cold temperatures or too fluid in warm temperatures.
70Science and Technology
Which one of the following parts of human alimentary canal can be of maximum length?
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Answer: (B) Small intestine
Explanation
The small intestine is the longest part of the human alimentary canal, typically measuring between 6 and 7 meters (approximately 20 to 23 feet) in an adult. It is divided into three functional regions: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. This significant length is a biological adaptation that provides the necessary time and surface area for the thorough chemical digestion of food and the maximum absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. The interior of the small intestine is further optimized for this purpose through structural features like plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli, which exponentially increase the effective area beyond its literal physical length.
71Polity and Governance
While forming the 'Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity', the member countries launched collective discussions towards future negotiations on four pillars. Which one of the following is not one of those pillars?
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Answer: (B) Defence cooperation and intelligence sharing
Explanation
The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is an economic initiative launched by the United States and other partner nations in May 2022. It is designed to strengthen economic engagement and cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region through four specific pillars: Trade; Supply Chains; Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure; and Tax and Anti-Corruption. Defence cooperation and intelligence sharing are not part of this framework, as the IPEF is intended to be an economic arrangement rather than a security or military alliance. While security partnerships exist in the region through other mechanisms, the IPEF focuses exclusively on promoting economic resilience, sustainability, and fairness among its member countries.
72Geography
The regions known as Donetsk and Luhansk are sometimes mentioned in the news. They are the separatist regions of
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Answer: (C) Ukraine
Explanation
Donetsk and Luhansk are administrative regions located in the Donbas area of eastern Ukraine. Following the Euromaidan protests and the Russian annexation of Crimea in 2014, pro-Russian separatist groups in these regions declared independence from Ukraine, establishing the Donetsk People's Republic and the Luhansk People's Republic. These territories became the center of a protracted armed conflict between the Ukrainian military and separatist forces backed by Russia. In February 2022, shortly before launching a full-scale invasion of Ukraine, the Russian government officially recognized the independence of these two breakaway regions, bringing them to the forefront of global news and international diplomatic crises.
73Economy
Recently which of the following countries were placed in the 'Grey List' of Financial Action Task Force?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Turkey and UAE
Explanation
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization that establishes global standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing. Countries that do not meet these standards but commit to working with the FATF to address deficiencies are placed on the increased monitoring list, commonly referred to as the Grey List. Turkey was added to the Grey List in October 2021 due to strategic deficiencies in its efforts to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism. Following this, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) was added to the Grey List in March 2022 after the FATF identified the need for the country to strengthen its effectiveness in areas such as financial investigations, international cooperation, and the identification of suspicious transactions within its high-risk sectors.
74Economy
Which one of the following assists a country through 'Extended Fund Facility', often talked about in news?
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Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund
Explanation
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) provides the Extended Fund Facility (EFF) to assist member countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems. These issues typically stem from structural weaknesses in the economy that require significant time and fundamental reforms to address. Programs under the EFF are designed to provide longer-term financial support, usually lasting three to four years, allowing countries enough time to implement comprehensive structural changes. This facility is particularly aimed at correcting systemic imbalances, improving economic efficiency, and fostering sustainable growth through rigorous policy adjustments agreed upon between the IMF and the borrowing nation.
75Science and Technology
The terms 'Ethereum, Solana, Polkadot and Tether', sometimes mentioned in the news, refer to
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Answer: (A) Cryptocurrencies
Explanation
Ethereum, Solana, and Polkadot are prominent blockchain platforms that support decentralized applications and smart contracts, with their native digital tokens being used for network transactions, staking, and governance. Tether is a widely used stablecoin, a specific type of cryptocurrency designed to maintain a stable value by being pegged to a fiat currency like the US Dollar. These terms represent various technologies and assets within the decentralized finance and digital currency ecosystem, utilizing cryptography and distributed ledger technology to facilitate secure peer-to-peer transactions.
76Polity and Governance
In which one of the following States has the President's Rule been imposed most number of times?
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Answer: (C) Manipur
Explanation
Manipur has experienced the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India a total of 10 times, which is the highest frequency among the states provided in the options. These impositions occurred in 1967 (twice), 1969, 1973, 1977, 1979, 1981, 1992, 1993, and 2001. Article 356 allows the Union government to take direct control of a state's administration if the constitutional machinery breaks down. While Bihar and Punjab have each seen 8 instances and Karnataka has seen 6, Manipur's history of political instability and legislative shifts led to more frequent central interventions compared to the other choices.
77Polity and Governance
The use of 'Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC)' by the Election Commission of India was started in which one of the following years?
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Answer: (B) 1993
Explanation
The Election Commission of India introduced the Electors Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) in 1993 during the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan. The primary objective of issuing these cards was to improve the accuracy of the electoral rolls and to prevent electoral fraud, impersonation, and bogus voting during the polling process. Although the concept had been discussed in previous years, 1993 marked the official commencement of the nationwide project to provide every eligible voter with a photo identity card, a move that significantly transformed the conduct of elections in India by ensuring more robust voter identification.
78Polity and Governance
Which one of the following best describes the electoral system to elect the President of India?
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Answer: (B) Proportional Representation and Single Transferable Vote System
Explanation
Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India specifically mandates that the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Under this system, members of the electoral college—comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States and Union Territories—cast their votes by marking preferences for candidates. Unlike a simple plurality system, this method requires a candidate to secure a fixed quota of votes to be declared the winner. The quota is determined by the formula:
Quota = (Total number of valid votes polled/2) + 1
This ensures that the President is elected with the support of an absolute majority rather than just a relative majority. If no candidate reaches the quota in the first round of counting, the candidate with the fewest first-preference votes is eliminated, and their votes are transferred to the remaining candidates based on the second preferences indicated on those ballots. This process of elimination and transfer continues until a candidate crosses the required threshold, ensuring the final result reflects the broad consensus of the electors.
79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Council of States has no power to discuss the Money Bill.
Explanation
Under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha is required to return the bill to the Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. During this 14-day window, the Rajya Sabha has the constitutional authority to deliberate upon and discuss the bill. Although the Rajya Sabha lacks the power to amend or reject a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject any recommendations made by it, the House is permitted to conduct a full discussion on the bill's provisions after it is laid on the table. Therefore, the claim that the Council of States has no power to discuss a Money Bill is factually inaccurate within the Indian parliamentary framework.
80Polity and Governance
Which of the following States has/have bicameral legislature?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
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Answer: (D) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation
Under Article 168 of the Constitution of India, certain states are provided with a bicameral legislature consisting of two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). As of 2022, six states in India have a bicameral legislature: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh. Andhra Pradesh revived its Legislative Council in 2007. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have long-standing bicameral systems. Telangana, following its creation in 2014, also retained a bicameral structure. Since all four states mentioned in the question—Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh—possess both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council, the code encompassing all four is the accurate choice.
81Polity and Governance
By which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts, was the Article 21A (Right to Education) inserted into the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) 86th Amendment Act
Explanation
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India to make the right to education a Fundamental Right for children between the ages of six and fourteen years. This amendment stipulated that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in this age group in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Along with this addition, the Act substituted Article 45 in the Directive Principles of State Policy to cover early childhood care and education for children until they complete the age of six years. It also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), placing the responsibility on parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to their children or wards between the ages of six and fourteen.
82Science and Technology
An object is dropped from a height onto the floor. Which one of the following remains uniform as it falls?
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Answer: (A) Its acceleration
Explanation
When an object is dropped from a height, it undergoes free fall under the influence of the Earth's gravitational pull. According to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration a of an object is determined by the net force acting on it divided by its mass, expressed as a = F/m. For an object in free fall near the Earth's surface, the gravitational force is F = mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. Substituting this into the second law gives a = mg/m = g. Since the value of g is a constant (approximately 9.8 m/s²) near the Earth's surface, the acceleration remains uniform throughout the duration of the fall.
83Science and Technology
If an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, its image is
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Answer: (D) at infinity.
Explanation
According to the thin lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f, where f is the focal length, v is the image distance, and u is the object distance. When an object is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens, the object distance u is equal to -f according to the Cartesian sign convention. Substituting this value into the lens formula yields 1/v - 1/-f = 1/f, which simplifies to 1/v + 1/f = 1/f. This result leads to 1/v = 0, implying that the image distance v is at infinity.
From the perspective of ray optics, light rays originating from a point at the focus of a convex lens undergo refraction and emerge parallel to the principal axis. Since parallel rays do not intersect at any finite point, the image is formed at an infinite distance. This image is characterized as being real, inverted, and infinitely magnified.
84Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about the aperture of a convex lens is correct?
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Answer: (C) It is independent of its radius of curvature.
Explanation
The aperture of a convex lens is defined as the effective diameter of the circular periphery of the lens, which represents the maximum area available for light to enter the optical system. It is a physical dimension that determines the light-gathering power and the brightness of the image formed. While the radius of curvature (R) and the refractive index (n) determine the focal length (f) of the lens according to the lens maker's formula 1/f = (n-1) (1/R₁ - 1/R₂), the aperture is a structural characteristic of the lens's size and is not derived from its curvature. A lens can be manufactured with a specific radius of curvature to achieve a desired focal length regardless of whether its physical diameter (aperture) is large or small. Therefore, the aperture is an independent geometric property of the lens.
85Science and Technology
When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its density
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Answer: (B) increases.
Explanation
Water exhibits a property known as anomalous expansion between 0°C and 4°C. Unlike most substances that expand when heated, water contracts as its temperature rises from 0°C to 4°C. Since density is defined by the formula ρ = m/V, where m is mass and V is volume, a decrease in volume for a constant mass results in an increase in density. Therefore, as water is heated within this specific range, its density increases until it reaches its maximum value at approximately 4°C.
86Science and Technology
The acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's surface depends on
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Answer: (C) both its mass and radius.
Explanation
The acceleration due to gravity g at the Earth's surface is derived using Newton's law of universal gravitation and the second law of motion. For an object of mass m situated on the surface of the Earth, which has a mass M and a radius R, the gravitational force F acting on it is expressed as F = GMm/R², where G is the universal gravitational constant. Since this force provides the object's weight F = mg, the relation is established as mg = GMm/R². Dividing both sides by m yields the formula g = GM/R². This mathematical relationship shows that the value of g is directly proportional to the mass of the Earth and inversely proportional to the square of its radius, meaning it depends on both these physical parameters.
87Geography
In which one of the following highlands of India can you find temperate forests called 'Sholas'?
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Answer: (A) Nilgiris
Explanation
Shola forests are tropical montane evergreen forests found in the high-altitude regions of the Western Ghats, particularly in the Nilgiri, Anaimalai, and Palani hills. These forests exist as patches of stunted evergreen trees growing in sheltered valleys and depressions, surrounded by vast stretches of rolling grasslands. They are typically found at elevations above 1500 meters where the climatic conditions are relatively cool and moist, resembling a temperate environment within the tropical zone. The vegetation in the Nilgiris is characterized by a high degree of endemism and a dense, multi-layered canopy that plays a vital role in water conservation and regulating the flow of streams in the region.
88Geography
'Pingos' are associated with which one of the following process?
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Answer: (B) Peri-glacial
Explanation
Pingos are perennial ice-cored mounds found in periglacial environments, which are characterized by cold climates and the presence of permafrost. These landforms develop when groundwater under pressure freezes, heaving the overlying soil and vegetation upward into a dome-like shape. Closed-system pingos typically form in drained lake basins where the freezing of a saturated unfrozen zone, or talik, generates hydrostatic pressure. Open-system pingos form when groundwater from higher elevations migrates under hydraulic pressure through the permafrost to the surface. Their formation is a specific result of frost-heave and permafrost dynamics rather than the movement of glaciers, wind, or surface water.
89Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Drainage Pattern of River)
A. Insequent
B. Consequent
C. Subsequent
D. Resequent
List II (Feature)
1. Whose direction of flow is controlled by the rock structure
2. No apparent reason why it follows the path it takes
3. Flow in the same direction as the consequent stream but at a lower level
4. Whose course is determined by the original slope of the land
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Insequent streams (A-2) develop across a landscape without following the regional slope or geological structure, meaning there is no apparent reason for the specific path they take. Consequent streams (B-4) are the initial streams that form on a new surface, with their course determined entirely by the original slope of the land. Subsequent streams (C-1) develop later as tributaries that follow belts of weak rock or structural lines, so their direction of flow is controlled by the rock structure. Resequent streams (D-3) flow in the same direction as the original consequent stream but at a lower topographical level, often developing after significant erosion or rejuvenation of the landscape.
90Geography
Which one of the following processes leads to expansion of certain minerals as they take up water, causing additional stress in the rock?
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Answer: (B) Hydration
Explanation
Hydration is a chemical weathering process where water is chemically added to the molecular structure of a mineral. This absorption causes the mineral to expand significantly in volume. For example, when anhydrite (CaSO₄) absorbs water to transform into gypsum (CaSO₄ ⋅ 2H₂O), the mineral can increase in volume by approximately 33 to 50 percent. This physical expansion exerts immense internal pressure and mechanical stress on the surrounding rock matrix, eventually leading to its disintegration and the formation of cracks.
91Geography
The Indian desert also known as Marusthali is believed to be under the sea during which one of the following eras?
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Answer: (C) Mesozoic era
Explanation
The Indian desert, specifically the Marusthali region, provides geological evidence of being submerged under the sea during the Mesozoic era. This era, which includes the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods, was characterized by marine transgressions in western India. Paleontological evidence from the Akal Wood Fossil Park near Jaisalmer reveals fossils dating back to the Jurassic period, roughly 180 million years ago, indicating a marine environment. The presence of marine deposits, salt lakes, and specific sedimentary formations in the Jaisalmer and Bikaner regions further corroborates that the Tethys Sea extended over this area during the Mesozoic. These marine conditions persisted until the region underwent tectonic uplift and climatic changes that eventually led to its current arid state.
92History
Which among the following are Charvaka Schools of Philosophy?
1. Dhurtta
2. Nyaya
3. Sushikshita
4. Vaisheshika
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Charvaka philosophy, also known as Lokayata, is an ancient Indian school of materialism that rejects the authority of the Vedas and considers perception to be the only valid source of knowledge. Scholars of Indian philosophy categorize the followers of this school into two main groups: the Dhurtta and the Sushikshita. The Dhurtta Charvakas are described as the crude or naive materialists who believe that the soul is identical to the physical body and that consciousness is a mere byproduct of the combination of the four material elements. In contrast, the Sushikshita Charvakas are the refined or learned materialists who propose more sophisticated arguments. While they also maintain that there is no life after death, they may associate the concept of the self with the senses, the mind, or the vital breath, though they hold that these cease to exist once the body perishes. This distinction highlights the internal philosophical evolution within the Charvaka tradition regarding the nature of the self and consciousness.
93History
During the 8th - 14th centuries, in the Sanskrit texts and inscriptions, which of the following terms were used to denote Muslims?
1. Turushka
2. Tajika
3. Parashika
4. Kardamaka
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Answer: (A) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
During the period between the 8th and 14th centuries, Sanskrit inscriptions and literary texts frequently identified Muslims using terms based on their ethnic or regional origins rather than their religious affiliation. Turushka was a common term derived from the name of the Turks, used to describe the invaders and rulers from Central Asia. Tajika was derived from the Middle Persian Tazik, which was initially used for Arabs and later for Persians and Central Asians; it appears in numerous western Indian inscriptions to denote Arab governors and settlers. Parashika was used to designate people from Persia, reflecting the Persian heritage of various Muslim groups entering India. These terms show that medieval Indian writers integrated the new arrivals into the existing socio-political vocabulary of the subcontinent.
94History
In the citadel and lower-town areas of which one of the following Harappan cities, have several large cisterns and reservoirs been found?
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Answer: (C) Dholavira
Explanation
Dholavira, situated on the Khadir Bet island in the Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary, is distinguished by its unparalleled water management and harvesting system. Excavations at this Harappan site revealed a series of massive reservoirs and cisterns, many of which were cut into the local bedrock or lined with stone masonry. These water storage structures were strategically integrated into the city's complex layout, which featured a fortified citadel and a lower town. Because the site lacked a perennial river source, the inhabitants designed these reservoirs to collect and store runoff from seasonal streams and monsoon rains, ensuring a reliable water supply for the population throughout the year. This sophisticated engineering reflects the advanced urban planning characteristic of the Indus Valley Civilization at Dholavira.
95History
Consider the following statements about cavalry warfare in India:
1. The iron stirrup made it possible for the armoured warrior to sit firmly on a horse without falling off.
2. The iron stirrup also allowed a cavalry charge with lances held tightly to the body, without the rider being thrown off by the shock of impact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The introduction of the iron stirrup revolutionized medieval warfare in India by providing significant tactical advantages to cavalry. The stirrup acted as a crucial support system that allowed heavily armored riders to stay securely mounted even during vigorous movement or when struck by an opponent, which greatly enhanced their stability and endurance in combat. Furthermore, the stirrup enabled the transition from throwing spears to the couched lance technique. By bracing their feet in the stirrups, riders could lock the lance firmly against their body, effectively turning the horse and rider into a single projectile. This structural support allowed the massive kinetic energy and shock of a high-speed impact to be absorbed and transferred through the saddle to the horse rather than throwing the rider backward off the mount.
96History
The British policy towards Afghanistan in the first half of the 19th century aimed at
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Answer: (A) Strengthening Afghanistan as a buffer against Russia.
Explanation
The British policy towards Afghanistan in the first half of the 19th century was primarily driven by the Great Game, a period of strategic rivalry with the Russian Empire. Concerned that Russian expansion into Central Asia could lead to an invasion of India through the northwestern passes, the British sought to establish Afghanistan as a buffer state. This policy aimed to create a stable, friendly entity between the two empires that would absorb any potential Russian advance. To secure this buffer, the British attempted to bring Afghanistan under their sphere of influence, most notably through the First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842). By attempting to install a subservient ruler like Shah Shuja, they intended to ensure the Afghan government remained hostile to Russian diplomacy while serving as a geographical shield for the British Indian frontier.
97Polity and Governance
Recently, the United Nations agreed to change the name of which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (D) Turkey
Explanation
In June 2022, the United Nations officially changed the name of the Republic of Turkey to Türkiye following a formal request from the Turkish government. The transition was part of a rebranding effort initiated by President Recep Tayyip Erdoğan to better reflect the country's culture, values, and heritage. The change was also intended to distance the nation's name from the English word for a bird and other various dictionary definitions.
98Economy
The SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) frequently mentioned in news, is essentially a
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Answer: (C) Global money transfer system
Explanation
SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) is a vast messaging network used by banks and other financial institutions to quickly, accurately, and securely send and receive information, such as money transfer instructions. While it does not facilitate the actual transfer of funds itself, it provides the standardized communication channel that allows financial institutions to execute transactions across international borders. Based in Belgium, SWIFT connects more than 11,000 banking and security organizations in over 200 countries and territories. In 2022, it gained significant global attention due to the exclusion of major Russian banks from the system as part of international sanctions following the invasion of Ukraine, highlighting its role as the primary infrastructure for global money transfer communication.
99Science and Technology
P-75I (or P-75 India) project refers to manufacture of
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Answer: (A) Diesel-electric submarines.
Explanation
Project 75 (India), also known as P-75I, is a major defense acquisition initiative by the Indian Navy to build six advanced conventional diesel-electric attack submarines. This project is a follow-on to the earlier Project 75 Scorpene-class and is being executed under the Strategic Partnership model of the Department of Defence Production. The primary objective is to indigenously manufacture these vessels with significant technology transfer from foreign original equipment manufacturers. A critical requirement for the P-75I submarines is the integration of fuel-cell-based Air-Independent Propulsion systems, which significantly increases their underwater endurance and stealth compared to traditional diesel-electric boats. This project is a vital component of the Indian Navy’s 30-year submarine construction program aimed at strengthening maritime security and achieving self-reliance in defense manufacturing.
100Science and Technology
The term 'Thermal High Altitude Area Defense', sometimes mentioned in news, refers to
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Answer: (A) Anti-Missile system.
Explanation
Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is a sophisticated American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their final or terminal phase of flight. Developed by Lockheed Martin, the system utilizes hit-to-kill technology, where the interceptor relies on the kinetic energy of a direct impact to neutralize the incoming threat instead of using an explosive warhead. It is a highly mobile system that can be deployed globally and consists of four primary components: interceptors, truck-mounted launchers, the AN/TPY-2 radar system, and an integrated fire control unit. THAAD provides an essential layer of protection for military forces and civilian populations against missile threats.
101Science and Technology
With reference to BrahMos missile, consider the following statements:
1. It has a flight range of up to 290km .
2. It is capable of attaining a speed of 2.8Mach .
3. Its cruising altitude could be up to 30km .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
BrahMos is a joint venture between India and Russia, designed as a two-stage supersonic cruise missile. For many years, its flight range was capped at 290km to comply with the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) restrictions prior to India becoming a member in 2016. While extended-range versions are now being tested, the 290km range remains the standard operational specification for the baseline version. The missile is powered by a liquid ramjet engine in its second stage, which allows it to maintain a consistent supersonic speed of approximately 2.8Mach throughout its flight duration. Regarding its flight profile, BrahMos has a cruising altitude of up to 15km and can engage in sea-skimming at altitudes as low as 10 meters to evade radar detection. A cruising altitude of 30km is not characteristic of this missile, as it operates within the denser layers of the atmosphere to utilize its ramjet propulsion effectively.
102Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a category under which the President of India nominates Members of Parliament?
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Answer: (D) State Service
Explanation
Under Article 80(3) of the Constitution of India, the President nominates 12 members to the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) who possess special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service. The term State Service is not a constitutionally recognized category for these nominations. While the Governor of a state nominates members to the Legislative Council using similar criteria plus the Cooperative Movement, the category of State Service remains excluded from the constitutional framework for nominations to either the Union or State legislatures.
103Geography
India is still a young country as the median age of its population is
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Answer: (B) Between 25 to 30 years
Explanation
According to the National Family Health Survey 2019-21 (NFHS-5) and the United Nations World Population Prospects 2022, the median age of the Indian population is approximately 28 years. This indicates that half of the country's population is under the age of 28, positioning India as one of the youngest major economies in the world. This demographic structure represents a significant demographic dividend, as the majority of the population falls within the working-age group. While the median age has gradually increased from 24 years as recorded in the 2011 Census due to improvements in life expectancy and a decline in the total fertility rate, it remains well below the 30-year threshold. This youth bulge provides India with a competitive advantage in terms of labor supply and economic productivity compared to aging populations in developed nations.
104Polity and Governance
Blue Helmets are
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Answer: (A) United Nations Peacekeepers
Explanation
Blue Helmets is the widely recognized nickname for United Nations Peacekeepers, derived from the distinctive light blue helmets and berets they wear while deployed on missions. These personnel consist of military, police, and civilian experts contributed by UN Member States to assist countries in navigating the transition from conflict to peace. Operating under mandates from the UN Security Council, they perform critical tasks such as monitoring ceasefires, protecting civilian populations, and facilitating the implementation of peace agreements. The blue headgear serves as a visible symbol of their neutral status and their commitment to maintaining international peace and security in volatile regions across the globe.
105Economy
Which one of the following central features is not associated with Capitalist Economy?
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Answer: (D) Economic organisation is based on planning, a supposedly rational process of resource allocation.
Explanation
Economic organization based on planning is the defining characteristic of a command or socialist economy rather than a capitalist one. In such a system, a central planning authority makes decisions regarding the allocation of resources, production targets, and distribution, aiming for a coordinated and supposedly rational outcome directed by the state. Conversely, a capitalist economy operates through the price mechanism and market forces, where resource allocation is decentralized and driven by individual profit motives and consumer preferences. The reliance on centralized planning to determine economic activity is fundamentally distinct from the market-oriented principles that govern capitalist structures.
106Polity and Governance
Which among the following is not the strength or chief benefit of Bicameralism?
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Answer: (D) It often acts as a check on democratic rule, particularly when their members are non-elected or indirectly elected.
Explanation
The assertion that a second chamber acts as a check on democratic rule, especially when its members are non-elected or indirectly elected, represents a standard criticism or weakness of bicameralism rather than a strength. In democratic theory, an unelected or indirectly elected body that possesses the power to delay or block legislation passed by a directly elected house is often viewed as a democratic deficit. This feature can lead to legislative deadlock and prevent the timely implementation of the popular will as expressed by the people direct representatives. While other functions of a second chamber serve to enhance governance through deliberation and federal representation, the potential to undermine democratic responsiveness and institutionalize elitism is considered an inherent drawback of bicameral systems.
107Economy
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established in the year
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Answer: (C) 2016
Explanation
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established on October 1, 2016, under the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). It functions as a unique statutory regulator that oversees both the insolvency proceedings and the various entities involved in the process, such as Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, and Information Utilities. The board was created to implement the IBC, which aims to consolidate and amend the laws relating to the reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. By providing a structured regulatory framework, the IBBI ensures the efficient functioning of the bankruptcy system, promotes entrepreneurship, and balances the interests of all stakeholders involved in the credit market.
108Geography
Which one of the following is the other term used for 'Focus' in relation with an earthquake?
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Answer: (A) Hypocentre
Explanation
The hypocentre is the point of origin of an earthquake within the Earth's lithosphere where the actual rupture of the fault occurs and seismic energy is released. It is the three-dimensional location of the earthquake's source, defined by its latitude, longitude, and depth below the surface. This term is used interchangeably with focus to describe the internal starting point of the seismic waves that propagate outward through the Earth. While the epicentre refers to the location on the surface directly above this point, the hypocentre accounts for the focal depth where the stress accumulation exceeds the rock's strength, marking the precise site of the initial energy discharge.
109Geography
Which one of the following is not a mountain peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
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Answer: (C) Lhotse Peak
Explanation
Lhotse Peak is the fourth-highest mountain in the world, reaching an elevation of 8,516 meters above sea level. It is situated in the Himalayas on the border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, specifically connected to Mount Everest by the South Col. Its location in the high-altitude mountain ranges of South Asia distinguishes it from the geographical and geological features of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago, which consists of island peaks located in the Bay of Bengal.
110Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Cloud Form) List II (Characteristic)
A. Cirrus 1. Storm clouds
B. Cumulus 2. High fog Low Ceiling
C. Nimbostratus 3. Fair-weather clouds
D. Stratus 4. Entirely of ice particles
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Cirrus clouds are found at very high altitudes where temperatures are significantly below freezing, meaning they are composed entirely of ice particles rather than water droplets. Cumulus clouds are dense, white, puffy clouds with flat bases that are characteristic of fair-weather conditions when they show limited vertical growth. Nimbostratus clouds are dark, low-level cloud layers that bring steady, prolonged precipitation, marking them as typical storm clouds. Stratus clouds form a uniform, grayish layer that covers the sky and essentially acts as a high fog, frequently leading to a low ceiling for aircraft operations.
111Science and Technology
Which one among the following planets has the largest number of known satellites?
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Answer: (D) Saturn
Explanation
Saturn is recognized as having 82 known natural satellites as of late 2022. This total was confirmed following the discovery of 20 new moons in 2019, which significantly increased the planet's cataloged satellite count. The moons are divided into various groups, including 53 that are officially named and 29 that are awaiting formal naming. These satellites vary greatly in size and composition, ranging from the massive, atmosphere-shrouded Titan to dozens of small, irregular moons that follow distant and often retrograde orbits. This count of 82 confirmed satellites represented the highest number for any planet in the solar system during the period leading up to and including 2022.
112History
Who among the following usurped power in Kanyakubja after the death of Harshavardhana?
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Answer: (B) Arunashva
Explanation
Following the death of Harshavardhana in 647 CE, who died without leaving a direct heir, the Pushyabhuti Empire collapsed into political chaos. Historical accounts, most notably the records of the Chinese diplomat Wang Xuance, identify Arunashva as the individual who usurped the throne of Kanyakubja. Arunashva was a local official or minister under Harsha who seized power and subsequently attacked the Chinese embassy led by Wang Xuance. This conflict prompted the Chinese envoy to flee to Tibet and Nepal, where he raised a combined military force to return, defeat Arunashva, and take him as a captive back to the Tang court in China.
113History
The legend of Prahlad and his father Hiranyakashyap was first set out in the
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Answer: (B) Vishnu Purana
Explanation
The Vishnu Purana is considered one of the oldest and most authentic of the eighteen Maha Puranas, generally dated by scholars to a period between the 1st century BCE and the 4th century CE. It contains the earliest detailed Puranic account of the story of Prahlad, the devout son of the demon king Hiranyakashyap. The narrative in this text focuses on Prahlad's unwavering faith in Lord Vishnu despite the various tortures and assassination attempts orchestrated by his father. This version establishes the core elements of the legend, including the boon granted to Hiranyakashyap by Brahma and the eventual manifestation of Vishnu to protect his devotee and restore cosmic order. While the story appears in several other Puranic texts, the Vishnu Purana serves as the primary and earliest source for the evolution of the Narasimha-Prahlad cycle within the Vaishnava tradition.
114History
Which one of the following statements on the issue of ownership according to Smriti literature is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Stridhana was not inherited by the children without the permission of the husband.
Explanation
According to Smriti literature, Stridhana refers to the separate property of a woman, comprising gifts received from her parents, husband, and relatives at the time of marriage or during the bridal procession. A defining characteristic of Stridhana is that the woman exercises absolute ownership over these assets. In the event of her death, the Smritis specify that her Stridhana is inherited by her children, particularly the daughters, as a matter of legal right. The husband does not have the authority to control the devolution of this property, and his permission is not required for the children to claim their inheritance. In ancient legal texts like the Manu Smriti and Yajnavalkya Smriti, the husband is generally restricted from using this property except under extreme conditions like famine or disease, reinforcing the independent nature of the woman's estate and its succession.
115History
Who among the following was not a woman labour leader who organised workers in the strikes in the 1920s?
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Answer: (A) Sarala Devi Chaudhurahi
Explanation
Sarala Devi Chaudhurani was a prominent nationalist leader, writer, and feminist who was primarily active in the early 20th century. Her major contributions included founding the Bharat Stree Mahamandal in 1910 and promoting the Swadeshi movement through the sale of indigenous products and the establishment of physical culture clubs (akhadas) to prepare youth for the freedom struggle. While she was deeply involved in the nationalist movement and women's education, she did not play a direct role as a trade union leader or organizer of industrial labour strikes during the 1920s. This decade saw a surge in organized labour activism led by women like Anasuya Behn in Ahmedabad, Ushabai Dange in Bombay, and Prabhabati Das Gupta (often referred to as Prabhabati Devi) in the Bengal jute mills.
116Economy
Among the following countries, where did the idea of 'Social Market Economy' emerge in 1950s?
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Answer: (A) Germany
Explanation
The Social Market Economy originated in Germany as the foundational economic model for West Germany post-World War II reconstruction. Coined by economist Alfred Müller-Armack in 1946 and championed by Ludwig Erhard, who served as the Minister of Economic Affairs and later as Chancellor, this model aimed to synthesize the efficiency of a free-market system with social equity. It emphasizes fair competition, private property, and free price formation, while simultaneously providing a robust social safety net to protect citizens from market failures and extreme inequality. During the 1950s, this framework facilitated the West German Economic Miracle, successfully balancing rapid industrial growth with social stability and high standards of living.
117History
Who among the following Indian thinkers first spoke of food-for-work programmes to counteract the effects of famines?
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Answer: (A) Kautilya
Explanation
Kautilya, in his treatise Arthashastra, outlined comprehensive strategies for famine management and state relief. He suggested that during a famine, the king should distribute seeds and food from royal storehouses, but more significantly, he recommended starting major public works projects. These projects included the construction of forts, irrigation tanks, and water embankments. By employing the affected population in these labor-intensive activities, the state provided them with essential food and wages, thereby creating a historical precursor to modern food-for-work programs. This approach aimed to preserve the dignity of the subjects while simultaneously developing the kingdom's infrastructure.
118Geography
The 'Ramsar Convention' relates to which one of the following areas?
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Answer: (A) Wetland preservation
Explanation
The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty officially titled the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat. Adopted in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar, it serves as a global framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The treaty defines wetlands broadly to include ecosystems such as lakes, rivers, swamps, marshes, peatlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Its primary objective is to prevent the loss and degradation of these ecosystems while promoting their sustainable utilization. It recognizes the critical ecological functions wetlands perform, including water purification, flood control, and providing vital habitats for diverse biological species.
119Economy
Which one among the following reports defines Sustainable Development as development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs?
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Answer: (A) Brundtland Report
Explanation
The Brundtland Report, officially titled Our Common Future, was published in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED). Named after the commission's chair, Gro Harlem Brundtland, the report provided the landmark definition of sustainable development as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It highlighted the interlocking crises of the environment and development, arguing for a path that integrates economic growth with social equity and environmental protection. This definition established the ethical and conceptual framework for international environmental policy, leading directly to the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.