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CDS I 2014 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 119 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

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  • Polity and Governance3328%
  • Science and Technology3126%
  • Geography2017%
  • History1916%
  • Economy1311%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Science and Technology
Indian Navy commissioned its first Advanced Light Helicopter Squadron at Kochi in November 2013. What is the name of the helicopter?
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Answer: (B) Dhruv

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Indian Naval Air Squadron (INAS) 322, also known as the Guardians, was commissioned at INS Garuda in Kochi on November 12, 2013, as the Indian Navy first squadron of the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Dhruv. Developed indigenously by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), the Dhruv is a twin-engine, multi-role, new-generation helicopter in the 5.5-ton weight class. The naval variant commissioned at Kochi is primarily utilized for search and rescue, maritime reconnaissance, and casualty evacuation, featuring advanced electronic warfare suites and sensors tailored for maritime operations.

2Economy
Which of the following statements about India's unorganized sector are true? 1. Labour is more in number than that in the organized sector. 2. Job security and work regulation are better in unorganized sector. 3. They are usually not organized into trade unions. 4. Workers are usually employed for a limited number of days. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The unorganized sector in India accounts for the vast majority of the total workforce, employing approximately 90 percent of all laborers, which is significantly more than those in the organized sector. This sector is characterized by a lack of formal organization, meaning that workers are usually not organized into trade unions to negotiate for better conditions or wages. Furthermore, the nature of work in this sector is often precarious, with a large proportion of the workforce consisting of casual or seasonal laborers in fields such as agriculture and construction who are usually employed for a limited number of days rather than having permanent, year-round employment. These characteristics define the informal and vulnerable nature of the labor market in the unorganized segment of the Indian economy.

3History
Consider the following statements : 1. Battle of Buxar provided the key to the English to establish their rule in India. 2. The Treaty of Allahabad, concluded in 1765, enabled the British to establish their rule in Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Battle of Buxar in 1764 was a decisive military conflict where the British East India Company defeated the combined forces of the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, the Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula, and the Nawab of Bengal Mir Qasim. Unlike the Battle of Plassey, which was largely won through conspiracy, Buxar demonstrated British military superiority and established them as a sovereign political power in India, rather than just a commercial entity or kingmaker. It laid the foundation for British paramountcy over the Indian subcontinent.

The Treaty of Allahabad, signed in 1765, was the political consequence of the Battle of Buxar. Through this treaty, the Mughal Emperor granted the Diwani rights to the British East India Company, which gave them the legal authority to collect revenues and manage civil justice in the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha. This arrangement allowed the British to control the financial resources of the region while leaving the administrative responsibility to the Nawab, effectively establishing British rule in Bengal under the Dual System of Government.

4Economy
Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company. Which one of the following does not include Corporation tax?
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Answer: (D) Sale proceed of assets

Explanation

Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the net income or profit of corporate entities. In India, under the Income Tax Act, 1961, a company's taxable income is calculated by aggregating income from various heads, including profits and gains from business, capital gains, and income from other sources such as interest on securities. Sale proceeds of assets represent the gross amount received from a transaction, which is a capital receipt rather than income. Corporation tax is specifically levied on the capital gain, which is the profit derived after subtracting the cost of acquisition and improvement from the sale proceeds. Therefore, the gross sale proceeds themselves are not included in the taxable base for corporation tax.

5Polity and Governance
The concept of hegemony is used to understand the capacity to 'manufacture consent'. Here hegemony implies 1. class ascendency in ideological spheres 2. deploying ideological resources to shape behaviour of weaker States/powers 3. provision of global public goods by a dominant power 4. military dominance in relative and absolute terms Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

The concept of hegemony, specifically in the context of manufacturing consent, is rooted in the theories of the Italian Marxist thinker Antonio Gramsci. It refers to the leadership or dominance exercised by a ruling class or a dominant power through ideological and cultural means rather than through physical force or coercion. Hegemony implies class ascendancy in the social, political, and particularly ideological spheres, where the dominant group's values and worldviews are disseminated through civil society institutions like the media, schools, and religion until they are accepted as common sense by the subordinate groups.

In international relations, this concept is often identified with soft power, where a dominant state deploys its ideological resources, such as its political values, culture, and foreign policy, to shape the behavior and preferences of weaker states. This process ensures that the led or dominated groups consent to the leadership of the dominant power because they perceive it as legitimate or beneficial. While hegemony can also involve military dominance or the provision of global public goods, those aspects relate to hard power and structural power respectively, rather than the specific mechanism of manufacturing consent through ideology.

6Geography
On November 8, 2013, many people died in Philippines after a super typhoon ravaged the country. What was the name of the typhoon?
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Answer: (A) Haiyan

Explanation

Typhoon Haiyan, known locally in the Philippines as Super Typhoon Yolanda, made landfall on November 8, 2013, as one of the most powerful tropical cyclones ever recorded. It brought catastrophic destruction to the Visayas region, particularly hitting Leyte and Samar provinces with sustained winds reaching up to 315 km/h and massive storm surges. The event resulted in over 6,000 confirmed deaths and displaced millions, making it one of the deadliest natural disasters in Philippine history.

7Polity and Governance
Non-military Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) in a peace process include 1. people to people contact across borders 2. literary and cultural interaction under governmental and non-governmental agencies 3. increase in travel facilities 4. joint initiatives to tackle common socio-economic problems Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Non-military Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) are strategic tools used in international relations to reduce suspicion and build trust through soft diplomacy. These measures focus on increasing transparency and humanizing the relationship between adversarial nations. All four points listed are integral to this process. People-to-people contact and literary or cultural exchanges, whether facilitated by the state or civil society, help erode deep-seated prejudices and foster mutual understanding. Increasing travel facilities, such as simplifying visa regimes or establishing cross-border transport links, provides the necessary infrastructure for these interactions. Furthermore, joint initiatives to address shared socio-economic challenges, such as environmental issues or regional trade, create functional interdependence and demonstrate the tangible benefits of peace. By shifting focus from security dilemmas to human and economic cooperation, these measures create a stable environment for high-level political negotiations.

8Economy
In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by
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Answer: (B) Competition Commission of India

Explanation

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002, with the mandate to prevent practices that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India. Under the provisions of Sections 5 and 6 of this Act, which came into force in June 2011, the CCI regulates combinations, a legal term that includes mergers, acquisitions, and amalgamations. It ensures that such corporate restructuring does not result in a concentration of economic power that harms market competition. Firms exceeding specific financial thresholds regarding assets or turnover are required to seek prior approval from the CCI before executing a merger or acquisition.

9History
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Feudalism in the early medieval period : 1. The revenue assignments were called Bhoga. 2. The hereditary chiefs neither collected revenues nor assumed administrative powers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

In the early medieval period of India, the term Bhoga referred to a specific type of tax or levy rather than the revenue assignment system itself. It consisted of the periodic supply of items such as fruits, flowers, and firewood that villagers were required to provide to the king or the local lord. The overall system of assigning land and its revenue to intermediaries or officials is more accurately associated with terms like Samanta system or secular and religious land grants (such as Agrahara or Brahmadeya).

The political and economic structure of Indian feudalism was defined by the decentralization of authority. Hereditary chiefs and vassals, often referred to as Samantas, were central to this system. These intermediaries were granted the right to collect land revenue and were also entrusted with significant administrative, judicial, and military powers over their territories. This delegation of power meant that the chiefs were directly involved in local governance and revenue collection, functioning as autonomous or semi-autonomous rulers under a sovereign.

10Polity and Governance
The Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, are inherent and cannot be extinguished by any constitutional and statutory provision. This was made clear in the case of
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Answer: (C) State of West Bengal v. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal

Explanation

In State of West Bengal v. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal (2010), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights are inherent rights that belong to individuals by virtue of their birth and are not a bounty or gift from the State. The Constitution Bench clarified that because these rights are primordial and intrinsic to human existence, they cannot be extinguished by any constitutional or statutory provision. This ruling was significant in establishing that the power of the High Courts and the Supreme Court to protect these rights under Articles 226 and 32 respectively cannot be curtailed by legislation, as it forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution. The court emphasized that the state has a duty to protect these inherent rights rather than just refrain from violating them, ensuring that the essence of Part III remains beyond the reach of ordinary legislative or executive action.

11History
Consider the following statements : 1. The Jains believed that Mahavira had twenty-three predecessors. 2. Parshvanatha was twenty-third Tirthankara. 3. Rishava was immediate successor of Mahavira. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

Jain tradition maintains that there are 24 Tirthankaras (great teachers) in the current half-cycle of time. Vardhamana Mahavira is recognized as the 24th and final Tirthankara, which means the Jain faith holds that he had 23 predecessors. Among these predecessors, Parshvanatha is established as the 23rd Tirthankara, believed to have lived approximately 250 years before Mahavira. Rishabha (also known as Rishabhanatha or Adinatha) is traditionally revered as the first Tirthankara of this age, establishing the path long before Mahavira, rather than following him. Therefore, the statements asserting the existence of twenty-three predecessors and identifying Parshvanatha as the twenty-third are correct according to Jain canonical history.

12Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Rim Association : 1. The 13th Council of Ministers Meeting of the Association was held in November 2013 in Perth. 2. India was elected Chair of the Association from 2013 to 2015. 3. There are twenty member nations in the Association. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The 13th Council of Ministers meeting of the Indian Ocean Rim Association took place in Perth, Australia, on November 1, 2013. During this session, the member states issued the Perth Communique and formally transitioned the name of the organization from the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC) to the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA). Regarding the composition of the body, the association reached a total of twenty member states by late 2012. This occurred when the Union of Comoros was officially admitted as the twentieth member during the 12th Council of Ministers meeting held in Gurgaon, India. Consequently, as of the Perth meeting in 2013, the association accurately represented a group of twenty diverse nations bordering the Indian Ocean.

13Economy
'Population dividend' refers to
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Answer: (B) youthful age structure of a population

Explanation

Population dividend, also known as the demographic dividend, refers to the economic growth potential that arises from a shift in a population's age structure. This occurs when the proportion of the working-age population, typically aged 15 to 64, is larger than the non-working-age or dependent share of the population, which includes children under 15 and the elderly over 64. A youthful age structure indicates a low dependency ratio, meaning there are more productive individuals contributing to the economy relative to those who require support. This transition allows for increased labor supply, higher personal savings, and greater investment in human capital, provided that the government implements supportive policies in health, education, and employment to harness the productivity of the younger cohorts.

14Polity and Governance
Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognizing a parliamentary party or group? 1. An association of members who have an organization both inside and outside the House 2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House 3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The recognition of parliamentary parties or groups in the Lok Sabha is governed by Directions 120 and 121 issued by the Speaker under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. To be recognized as a parliamentary party, an association of members must satisfy three primary conditions. It must have a distinct programme of parliamentary work and its own ideology. It must have a formal organization both inside the House for legislative coordination and outside the House among the public. Finally, it must have a numerical strength of at least one-tenth (1/10) of the total membership of the House, which corresponds to the quorum required for a sitting. If an association meets the first two criteria but has a strength of at least 30 members (but less than one-tenth of the House), it is recognized as a parliamentary group. Statement 2 is incorrect because the threshold is one-tenth, not one-third. Therefore, only the principles involving internal/external organization and a distinct parliamentary programme are correctly identified as considerations for the Speaker.

15History
The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of
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Answer: (D) Kanishka

Explanation

The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened by the Kushan Emperor Kanishka around 72 AD at Kundalvana in Kashmir. The council was presided over by Vasumitra, with the celebrated scholar Ashvaghosa serving as the vice-president. The primary objective of this assembly was to resolve the ideological differences between various Buddhist sects and to systematize the Buddhist doctrines. This council is historically significant because it led to the formal division of Buddhism into two major branches: Hinayana and Mahayana. During the proceedings, extensive commentaries known as the Mahavibhasha Shastras were composed on the three canonical collections of Buddhist teachings. Kanishka's patronage of this council played a pivotal role in the expansion of Mahayana Buddhism across Central Asia and into East Asia.

16Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about UN Frontline Workers Global Leadership Award : 1. Martha Dodray, an auxiliary nurse and midwife from Bihar, was conferred the Award in the year 2013. 2. Martha Dodray was awarded for her dedicated service in the bird flu affected areas of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Martha Dodray, an Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) from the Purnia district of Bihar, was honored with the UN Frontline Workers Global Leadership Award in June 2013. This recognition was part of the Every Woman Every Child initiative by the United Nations Foundation. She was specifically recognized for her heroic and tireless efforts in the polio eradication campaign within the flood-prone Kosi region. Her work involved navigating waist-deep water and overcoming local resistance to ensure that every child received the polio vaccine, contributing significantly to India being declared polio-free. Since her award was for polio immunization and not for bird flu mitigation, only the first statement is factually accurate.

17Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?
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Answer: (D) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

Explanation

The Committee on Empowerment of Women is a joint parliamentary committee constituted to monitor the status of women in India and ensure gender equality. Its primary mandate involves examining the reports submitted by the National Commission for Women and reporting on the functioning of various welfare programmes and developmental activities initiated by the Union Government for women. The committee assesses the measures taken to improve the socio-economic conditions of women and suggests legislative or policy changes to better implement schemes related to women's education, health, and legal rights, thereby ensuring executive accountability in matters of gender justice.

18History
The University of Nalanda was set up by which Gupta ruler?
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Answer: (B) Kumaragupta I

Explanation

Nalanda University was established in the 5th century CE during the reign of the Gupta Emperor Kumaragupta I. Historical records, including the accounts of the Chinese traveler Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang), identify the founder as Sakraditya, a title traditionally associated with Kumaragupta I. Under his royal patronage, the site developed from a collection of monasteries into a world-renowned center of higher learning. Archaeological findings, such as seals and inscriptions discovered at the Nalanda ruins, corroborate the university's origins and its sustained growth under the Gupta dynasty.

19Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about Prof. C. N. R. Rao is/are correct? 1. He is considered to be an international authority in solid-state and structural chemistry. 2. He is the first Indian to reach the H-index of 100, reflecting the economy of the body of his published research work. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Prof. C. N. R. Rao is a globally recognized scientist distinguished for his pioneering contributions to solid-state and structural chemistry, particularly in the study of transition metal oxides and nanomaterials. His extensive research has earned him numerous international accolades and the Bharat Ratna in 2014. Additionally, he was the first Indian scientist to achieve an h-index of 100, a metric that quantifies a researcher's productivity and the citation impact of their publications. Reaching this milestone signifies that at least 100 of his research papers have been cited 100 or more times, reflecting the profound influence and high density of impact within his vast body of published work.

20History
Consider the following statements about Sher Shah's administration: 1. He divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further subdivided into Parganas. 2. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly administered by Sher Shah without the help of any other officials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Sher Shah Suri reorganized the administrative structure of the Sur Empire by dividing it into 47 administrative units called Sarkars. Each Sarkar was further subdivided into smaller units known as Parganas, which formed the basic unit of local administration. To ensure efficient governance, Sher Shah appointed specific officials to oversee these divisions rather than administering them directly. In every Sarkar, he appointed a Shiqdar-i-Shiqdaran to maintain law and order and a Munsif-i-Munsifan to supervise revenue assessment and civil justice. At the Pargana level, the administration was carried out by a Shiqdar (executive officer), a Munsif or Amil (revenue officer), a Fotedar (treasurer), and two Karkuns (clerical writers). This decentralized bureaucratic framework allowed for systematic tax collection and local security while keeping the central authority informed of provincial affairs.

21History
Consider the following statements : 1. B. G. Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April 1916 in Maharashtra. 2. N. C. Kelkar was not associated with Home Rule Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at the Belgaum session of the Bombay Provincial Conference. Tilak's league operated across Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, the Central Provinces, and Berar. N. C. Kelkar was a close lieutenant of Tilak and actively served as the Secretary of the Indian Home Rule League, which makes the claim that he was not associated with the movement factually incorrect.

22Economy
In India, contribution of food inflation to overall inflation is around 1/3rd to 2/5th. Within food inflation, contribution of food articles is higher because price rise in food articles is
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Answer: (A) higher and their weight is also higher compared to food products

Explanation

In the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) series relevant to 2014, food inflation is calculated by combining Food Articles from the Primary Articles group and Food Products from the Manufactured Products group. Food Articles carry a higher weight of approximately 14.34%, whereas Food Products have a lower weight of about 9.97%. Furthermore, during the period leading up to 2014, the price rise in Food Articles was significantly higher due to supply-side constraints, seasonal fluctuations, and high demand for protein-based items and vegetables. Because Food Articles represent raw, unprocessed commodities, they are more susceptible to sharp price spikes than processed Food Products, leading to their dominant contribution to the overall inflation index.

23Polity and Governance
What do you understand by the term 'propaganda'? 1. It is an unverified story that is spread from one person to another. 2. It is communication tailored to influence opinion. 3. It is an enthusiasm among a relatively large number of people for a particular innovation. 4. It is a tool of oration used only by political parties. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 2 only

Explanation

Propaganda is defined as the systematic dissemination of information, ideas, or rumors specifically designed to influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes, or behavior of a target audience. It is a deliberate and biased form of communication used to promote a particular cause, ideology, or political agenda. Unlike neutral information, propaganda often employs psychological manipulation, selective presentation of facts, or emotionally charged language to achieve its persuasive objectives. While it is heavily associated with psychological warfare and political campaigns, it is a fundamental tool used by any organization or individual seeking to shape public perception through tailored messaging.

24Polity and Governance
The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the
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Answer: (B) President of India may direct

Explanation

Under Rule 204(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the Annual Financial Statement, commonly referred to as the Budget, must be presented to the House on such day as the President of India may direct. This procedural rule aligns with Article 112 of the Constitution of India, which stipulates that the President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India. Although the Union Finance Minister traditionally presents the Budget and delivers the Budget Speech, the constitutional and procedural authority to appoint the specific day for its presentation is vested in the President.

25History
The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in
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Answer: (A) Hind Swaraj

Explanation

Hind Swaraj, written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 during his return voyage from London to South Africa, is the first comprehensive statement of his social and political philosophy. In this seminal work, Gandhi articulated his core social ideals by critiquing modern Western civilization and proposing a vision of Indian society rooted in moral regeneration, self-reliance, and non-violence. He introduced concepts such as Swaraj, the significance of the village economy, and the necessity of ethical conduct in public life. Because it establishes the theoretical framework for his later movements and his vision of an ideal society, it is regarded as the primary document where his social ideals were first systematically put forth.

26Art and Culture
Carefully read the following passage and identify the person referred to in that: Her best known works are 'The Golden Notebook', 'Memoirs of a Survivor' and 'The Summer Before the Dark'. She was the oldest recipient of the Nobel Prize in Literature.
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Answer: (B) Doris Lessing

Explanation

Doris Lessing was a British-Zimbabwean novelist who received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2007. She is most famous for her 1962 novel The Golden Notebook, which is considered a landmark work for its fragmented structure and its exploration of the social and political lives of women. Her other notable bibliography includes the dystopian Memoirs of a Survivor and the psychological study The Summer Before the Dark. At the time of her award in 2007, Lessing was 88 years old, making her the oldest person to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature. Her writing is characterized by its focus on the individual caught in the sweep of 20th-century history, covering themes ranging from communism and feminism to the psychological depths of the human mind.

27Polity and Governance
The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

An adjournment motion is an extraordinary procedure in the Lok Sabha used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. For the motion to be admissible, the subject matter must be directly related to the conduct or administrative responsibility of the Union Government. This requirement exists because the motion carries an inherent element of censure, and the House cannot debate a matter for which the Union executive is not accountable. Additionally, the motion is frequently used to highlight the failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution and the law. Such a failure provides a specific and urgent ground for the House to set aside its scheduled business to discuss the executive's lapse in fulfilling its constitutional obligations. As both statements accurately describe the jurisdictional and functional requirements for raising an adjournment motion, both are correct.

28Economy
Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as per capita income grew over time in last sixty years because
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Answer: (C) growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income

Explanation

This trend is a manifestation of Engel's Law, which observes that as per capita income rises, the proportion of income spent on food declines, even if the absolute expenditure on food increases. Food is considered a necessity with an income elasticity of demand less than one. As households move beyond subsistence levels, they allocate a larger share of their incremental income toward non-food items such as education, healthcare, entertainment, and consumer durables. Therefore, while total spending on food might grow due to a shift toward higher-value products, its growth rate remains lower than the growth rate of overall income, leading to a consistent reduction in its percentage share of total consumption expenditure.

29History
Consider the following statements about Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of Muhammadan Anglo- Oriental College, Aligarh : 1. He was a staunch supporter of Indian National Congress. 2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was set up with the objective of promoting learning of Islamic education among the Muslims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was a strong critic of the Indian National Congress from its inception. He believed that the interests of the Muslim community were not aligned with the political objectives of the Congress, particularly its demands for representative government and competitive examinations, which he feared would lead to the domination of the Hindu majority over the Muslim minority. To counter the influence of the Congress, he organized the United Indian Patriotic Association in 1888.

The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, established in 1875 at Aligarh, was primarily intended to provide modern Western education to the Muslim community. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan realized that the progress of Muslims depended on their adoption of English language and modern scientific knowledge. While the college provided for religious instructions, its core objective was to reconcile Islamic teachings with modern scientific thought and to prepare Muslims for roles in the British colonial administration. Therefore, its primary goal was the promotion of modern English education rather than traditional Islamic education.

30Polity and Governance
Political theory 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Political theory encompasses the systematic study of the fundamental values and institutions that govern collective life. It deals with the foundational ideas and principles that shape Constitutions, such as democracy, secularism, and federalism, by examining how these concepts guide the creation of a legal framework. Additionally, it clarifies the complex meanings and evolving interpretations of normative concepts like freedom, equality, justice, and rights, ensuring they are understood in both historical and contemporary contexts. Political theory also probes the significance and implementation of structural principles like the rule of law, separation of powers, and judicial review, which are essential for maintaining limited government and protecting individual liberties. Since these tasks define the scope of political inquiry, all three statements accurately describe the functions of political theory.

31History
Which one of the following statements about Rig Veda is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The sacrifices were performed in the temples

Explanation

The Rig Vedic period was characterized by aniconic worship, meaning there were no idols or temples dedicated to the deities. Religious practices during this era focused on the performance of Yajnas (sacrifices) and the recitation of prayers in open spaces or at specially prepared altars called Vedis. The concept of structural temples and formal shrines only developed much later in Indian history, beginning to take shape during the late post-Vedic period and reaching maturity during the Gupta Empire. Consequently, the assertion that sacrifices were performed in temples is historically incorrect for the Early Vedic age.

32Economy
Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector is based on
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Answer: (B) ownership of assets of the enterprise

Explanation

The classification of economic activities into public and private sectors is determined primarily by the ownership of assets and the responsibility for the delivery of services. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides services to the citizenry, often prioritizing social welfare and public utility over profit. In contrast, the private sector is characterized by the ownership of assets and management by private individuals or companies, where the primary objective is usually to generate profit. This distinction identifies which entity—the state or a private party—exercises control over the enterprise's resources and operations.

33Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Democracy: 1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people. 2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. 3. Each vote has one value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

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Democracy is a system of government where the power is vested in the people and exercised by them directly or through freely elected representatives. The first statement is correct because periodic elections are the primary mechanism through which people choose their government. The second statement is correct as a functional democracy requires a level playing field where elections are free and fair, ensuring that the party or individuals in power have a genuine possibility of being defeated by the opposition. The third statement reflects the principle of political equality and universal adult suffrage, where every citizen's vote is counted equally, satisfying the democratic ideal of one person, one vote, and one value. Together, these three principles form the foundational pillars of democratic governance.

34Polity and Governance
Which of the following nations were recently suspended with regard to the voting rights by the UNESCO for not paying their dues to it? 1. USA 2. Israel 3. Iran 4. Iraq Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

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In November 2013, the United States and Israel lost their voting rights at the UNESCO General Conference after failing to pay their financial contributions for two consecutive years. This non-payment was a deliberate policy response to UNESCO's 2011 decision to admit Palestine as a full member state. Under Article IV.C.8 of the UNESCO Constitution, a member state is automatically deprived of its vote if the total amount of its arrears equals or exceeds the amount due from it for the current year and the immediately preceding calendar year. The United States had previously provided approximately 22 percent of UNESCO's annual budget, but stopped funding the organization immediately after the Palestinian admission due to domestic legislative restrictions that prohibit funding UN agencies that recognize Palestinian statehood prior to a negotiated settlement with Israel.

35History
Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian Mahajanapadas is correct?
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Answer: (D) Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas

Explanation

The early Buddhist and Jaina texts are the primary sources for the political history of the 6th century BCE in India. The Anguttara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture from the Sutta Pitaka, provides a standard list of sixteen great states known as the Sodasa Mahajanapadas. This list is corroborated by Jaina literature, most notably the Bhagavati Sutra, though it contains some variations in the names of the states. These sixteen entities represented the major political powers of the time, ranging from the northwest frontiers of Gandhara to the eastern regions of Anga and Magadha, signifying the rise of large territorial states and the second phase of urbanization in the Indian subcontinent.

36Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Person) (Role in making of the Constitution of India) A. Rajendra Prasad 1. Member, Drafting Committee B. T. T. Krishnamachari 2. Chairman, Constituent Assembly C. H. C. Mookherjee 3. Chairman, Drafting Committee D. B. R. Ambedkar 4. Vice-Chairman, Constituent Assembly
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

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Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946, providing leadership throughout the constitution-making process. T. T. Krishnamachari served as a Member of the Drafting Committee, having been appointed to the seven-member committee following the death of D. P. Khaitan. H. C. Mookherjee was elected as the Vice-Chairman of the Constituent Assembly, playing a key role in presiding over sessions in the absence of the Chairman. B. R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was the most important committee tasked with preparing the actual text of the Constitution of India.

37Science and Technology
Heena Sidhu, who recently won a World Cup Gold Medal for India, is associated with
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Answer: (A) Shooting

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Heena Sidhu is a professional Indian sport shooter who competes in the 10 metre air pistol event. She achieved international acclaim by winning the gold medal at the ISSF World Cup Finals in Munich, Germany, in November 2013. This victory made her the first Indian pistol shooter to win a gold medal at the World Cup Finals. Building on this momentum, she reached the top of the world rankings in April 2014, becoming the first Indian pistol shooter to be ranked World No. 1 by the International Shooting Sport Federation.

38History
The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found at
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Answer: (C) Kanaganahalli

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Kanaganahalli, located in the Gulbarga district of Karnataka on the banks of the Bhima River, is the site of an ancient Buddhist stupa complex. Excavations conducted by the Archaeological Survey of India between 1994 and 2001 unearthed a unique relief sculpture depicting a royal couple with their attendants. This limestone slab is of immense historical importance because it bears a Brahmi inscription reading Ranyo Ashoka, which translates to King Ashoka. This find represents the first and only identified stone portrait of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka that is explicitly labeled with his name, providing a rare contemporary or near-contemporary visual record of the monarch who played a pivotal role in the expansion of Buddhism across the Indian subcontinent.

39Polity and Governance
The citizenship means 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State 3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Citizenship signifies the full legal relationship between an individual and the state, which grants the individual specific rights and imposes certain duties. In the Indian context, citizens enjoy full civil and political rights, many of which are denied to aliens, such as the fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 of the Constitution. The right of suffrage, which is the right to vote in elections for the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of the States, is specifically reserved for citizens under Article 326. Furthermore, the eligibility to hold public offices and represent the people in the legislature is a privilege of citizenship. Articles 84 and 173 stipulate that only a citizen of India is qualified to be chosen as a Member of Parliament or a Member of a State Legislative Assembly, respectively. Therefore, citizenship encompasses all these aspects of legal and political status within the country.

40Polity and Governance
The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for 1. the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India 2. scrutinizing the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

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The Committee on Public Accounts is primarily responsible for examining the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Its main objective is to ensure that the money granted by Parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of the demand and for the specific purposes for which it was authorized. By scrutinizing the CAG reports, the committee identifies financial irregularities, technical lapses, and cases of waste or extravagance, thereby facilitating parliamentary control over the executive's expenditure and ensuring financial accountability.

41Art and Culture
Which one of the following was a temple built by the Chola Kings?
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Answer: (A) Brihadiswara Temple, Tanjavur

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The Brihadiswara Temple at Thanjavur is a premier example of Dravidian architecture commissioned by the Chola emperor Rajaraja I and completed around 1010 CE. Often referred to as the Big Temple or Rajarajeswaram, it is constructed entirely of granite and is famous for its massive vimana, which rises to a height of approximately 66 meters. The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and features a monolithic shikhara at the top of the tower weighing nearly 80 tons. This structure stands as a testament to the engineering and artistic capabilities of the Chola dynasty and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

42Polity and Governance
Which among the following was the reason of the resignations of the Indian ministers in all the provinces in the year 1939?
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Answer: (D) India was declared a party to the Second World War without the consent of the provincial governments

Explanation

Upon the outbreak of the Second World War in September 1939, the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, unilaterally declared India to be a belligerent party on the side of the Allies against Germany. This declaration was made without any prior consultation with the Indian leadership or the provincial ministries that had been elected under the Government of India Act of 1935. The Indian National Congress objected to this decision, asserting that India should not be committed to a war supposedly fought for democratic freedom while being denied that very freedom itself. When the British government refused to clarify its war aims or guarantee immediate self-government and the right to frame a constitution after the war, the Congress Working Committee directed all its provincial ministries to resign in protest. Consequently, by the end of 1939, the Indian ministers in all eight Congress-ruled provinces resigned from their offices.

43Geography
The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest recently approved in principle a proposal for Western Ghats Development prepared by K. Kasturirangan-led panel. The panel has recommended a ban on development activities in around 60000 sq. km ecologically sensitive area spread over
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Answer: (B) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

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The Kasturirangan Committee, officially known as the High-Level Working Group on Western Ghats, was constituted by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to examine the recommendations of the Madhav Gadgil report. The panel identified approximately 37 percent of the Western Ghats, encompassing an area of nearly 60,000 square kilometers, as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). This region stretches across the six states through which the Western Ghats mountain range passes: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The committee recommended a complete ban on mining, quarrying, setting up of thermal power plants, and highly polluting industries within this delineated ESA to preserve the biodiversity and ecological integrity of the mountain system.

44Polity and Governance
The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable 3. for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 248 of the Constitution of India vests the residuary power of legislation in the Parliament, giving it the authority to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List. Under Article 252, if the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions stating that it is desirable for Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List, the Parliament acquires the power to enact a law for those specific states. Article 253 further empowers the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country, even if the subject matter falls within the State List. These provisions collectively define the circumstances under which the Parliament's legislative authority extends beyond the Union and Concurrent Lists.

45Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Temple) (Town) A. Kailasanathar 1. Bhubaneshwar B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho C. Kandariya Mahadev 3. Mount Abu D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

The Kailasanathar Temple is the oldest structural temple in Kanchipuram, commissioned by the Pallava King Narasimhavarman II (Rajasimha) in the early 8th century. The Lingaraj Temple is the most prominent landmark of Bhubaneswar, representing the culmination of the Kalinga style of architecture under the Somavamsi dynasty. The Kandariya Mahadev Temple is the largest and most ornate Hindu temple within the Khajuraho group of monuments, constructed by the Chandela ruler Vidhyadhara in the 11th century. The Dilwara Temples are a world-renowned group of Jain temples located at Mount Abu, constructed between the 11th and 13th centuries and famous for their extraordinary marble carvings and intricate craftsmanship.

46Economy
Inclusive growth's a phrase used in India's 1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan 3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

The concept of inclusive growth became the formal cornerstone of India's developmental strategy starting with the Eleventh Five-Year Plan (2007–2012). The official title of the Eleventh Plan was Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth, which aimed to ensure that the benefits of economic expansion were shared across all sections of society, particularly the marginalized. This objective was further emphasized and carried forward in the Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–2017), titled Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth. While earlier plans focused on growth with equity or human development, the specific phrase inclusive growth was explicitly adopted as the overarching theme for these two consecutive planning periods to address regional and social disparities.

47History
Who among the following was not associated with the activities of the Theosophical Society?
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Answer: (B) Mr. A. O. Hume

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Allan Octavian Hume was a retired British civil servant primarily recognized for his instrumental role in founding the Indian National Congress in 1885. While he initially explored theosophical ideas in the early 1880s, he eventually became critical of the movement's emphasis on mysticism and esoteric spiritualism. This led him to distance himself from the organization and devote his efforts entirely to secular political mobilization and administrative reforms in India. His historical significance is rooted in the early stages of the Indian nationalist movement, distinguishing him from the central figures who directed the spiritual and philosophical activities of the Theosophical Society.

48Polity and Governance
There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include 1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States) 2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States) 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 4 of the Indian Constitution provides the mechanism for the Parliament to modify specific constitutional provisions without following the formal amendment procedure laid down in Article 368. According to Article 4(1), any law made under Article 2, which pertains to the admission or establishment of new States, or Article 3, which involves the formation of new States and the alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States, must contain necessary provisions for the amendment of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule. The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories, while the Fourth Schedule details the allocation of seats in the Council of States. Article 4(2) explicitly stipulates that no such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. This allows the Parliament to reorganise the states and update the corresponding schedules through a simple majority and ordinary legislative process, effectively modifying the operation of these constitutional provisions without a formal constitutional amendment.

49Economy
Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of 'Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana'? To encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by giving Government contribution to 1. save for their return and resettlement 2. save for their old age 3. obtain a life insurance cover against natural death for the entire life of the worker Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana (MGPSY) was launched by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs as a voluntary social security scheme for overseas Indian workers with Emigration Check Required (ECR) status. The scheme was designed to provide three key benefits through government co-contributions. It encouraged workers to save for their return and resettlement by providing an annual government contribution of ₹1,000 for male workers and ₹2,000 for female workers for up to five years or until they returned to India. It also enabled workers to save for their old age by providing a co-contribution of ₹1,000 per year towards the National Pension System (NPS-Lite). While the scheme included a life insurance cover of ₹30,000 against natural death through the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), this protection was only available during the worker's period of stay abroad and was not intended to cover the entire life of the worker.

50History
The Society of Jesus, whose followers were called Jesuits, was set up by
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Answer: (D) Ignatius Loyola

Explanation

The Society of Jesus was founded by Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish nobleman and former soldier who underwent a spiritual transformation while recovering from battle wounds. In 1534, at the University of Paris, Loyola and six companions took vows of poverty and chastity with the intention of serving the Church. The order was formally established and given papal approval by Pope Paul III in 1540 through the bull Regimini Militantis Ecclesiae. As a central pillar of the Counter-Reformation, the Jesuits were characterized by their rigorous education, missionary zeal, and a special vow of direct obedience to the Pope regarding missions.

51Polity and Governance
The functions of the Committee on Estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to 1. report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

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The Estimates Committee is a permanent standing committee of the Lok Sabha that plays a significant role in financial oversight. Its functions involve reporting on what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reform may be effected consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. It is also authorized to suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in the administration. Additionally, the committee examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. By scrutinizing the estimates after they have been presented to the House, the committee functions as a continuous economy committee, helping Parliament ensure that public funds are allocated and utilized in the most efficient and economical manner possible.

52Polity and Governance
The principle of 'collective responsibility' under parliamentary democracy implies that 1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister 2. no person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister 3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3

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The principle of collective responsibility, as enshrined in Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, mandates that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This implies that the ministry functions as a single unit and stands or falls together. To ensure this unity, the Prime Minister is the keystone of the cabinet arch and possesses the ultimate authority over its composition. No individual can be appointed to the Cabinet by the President except on the specific advice of the Prime Minister, ensuring that the team is composed of individuals who the leader can work with to maintain a common policy.

Furthermore, collective responsibility requires that all ministers publicly support cabinet decisions, even if they personally disagree. If a minister is unable or unwilling to defend a cabinet decision or fails to work in harmony with the government's collective stance, the Prime Minister can demand their resignation or advise the President to dismiss them. This power of dismissal is the primary mechanism through which the Prime Minister enforces collective responsibility, ensuring that the government always presents a united front to the legislature and the public.

53Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India. 2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, amended Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution to include the term cooperative societies, effectively establishing the right to form them as a Fundamental Right. This amendment also added Article 43B as a Directive Principle of State Policy and inserted Part IXB into the Constitution to govern the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of cooperative societies.

In the 2013 landmark judgment of Thalappalam Service Cooperative Bank Ltd. v. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court of India clarified the legal status of cooperatives regarding transparency laws. The court ruled that cooperative societies are not public authorities as defined under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Unless a society is owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the government, it remains outside the ambit of the RTI Act and is not legally bound to respond to information requests from the general public.

54History
Consider the following statements concerning the initial phase of the Industrial Revolution in England : 1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore were plentifully available to be used in industry. 2. Until the eighteenth century, there was a scarcity of usable iron. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

England was geographically blessed with abundant and easily accessible reserves of coal and iron ore, which were often found in close proximity in regions such as the Midlands, Yorkshire, and South Wales. This availability provided the necessary fuel for steam engines and the raw material for building the machinery and infrastructure of the early Industrial Revolution. Before the eighteenth century, iron production relied on charcoal derived from wood. However, the depletion of forests led to a severe shortage of charcoal, creating a scarcity of usable iron and limiting the industry's growth. This bottleneck was resolved in the early 1700s when Abraham Darby pioneered the use of coke, a derivative of coal, for smelting iron. This shift from timber-based fuel to mineral-based fuel allowed for the large-scale production of high-quality iron, fundamentally transforming the industrial landscape.

55Polity and Governance
Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required?
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Answer: (C) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax

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Under Article 117(1) of the Constitution of India, which deals with special provisions as to Financial Bills, any Bill or amendment making provision for matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of Article 110(1) cannot be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President. However, the proviso to Article 117(1) explicitly states that no recommendation shall be required for the moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. This constitutional provision allows members of the legislature to propose the lowering or removal of tax burdens without the procedural prerequisite of prior presidential sanction, whereas the imposition, increase, or regulation of taxes remains subject to the executive's recommendation to safeguard the fiscal stability of the Consolidated Fund of India.

56Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about Pragati missile system of India: 1. It is short range solid fuel missile system 2. It has all weather day and night operational launch capability Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Pragati is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile developed by DRDO. While Statement 1 describes it as a solid-fuel system, Pragati is actually derived from the Prithvi missile family and uses liquid propellant, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct — Pragati is designed with all-weather, day and night operational launch capability. Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the right answer.

57History
Consider the following statements about the first session of Indian National Congress: 1. It was held in Bombay in 1885 2. Surendranath Banerji could not attend the Session due to the simultaneous session of the Indian National Conference.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) in December 1885 at the Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, presided over by Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee. It was originally planned for Pune but relocated due to a cholera epidemic. Surendranath Banerji, founder of the Indian National Conference, could not attend as he was simultaneously presiding over the Indian National Conference session in Calcutta in 1885.

58Polity and Governance
After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or withhold his assent. The President may
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Answer: (C) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill

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Article 111 of the Constitution of India governs the process of presidential assent to Bills passed by the Parliament. The proviso to this Article states that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation of a Bill (other than a Money Bill), return it to the Houses with a message requesting that they reconsider the Bill or any specific provisions thereof. This mechanism allows the President to suggest amendments or request a review of the legislation. If the Bill is passed again by the Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President for assent, the President is then constitutionally obligated to give his assent and cannot withhold it a second time.

59Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development : 1. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany, was selected for the Prize for the year 2013. 2. The award is accorded annually to individuals only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is a prestigious award presented annually by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust. For the year 2013, the jury headed by Vice President M. Hamid Ansari selected German Chancellor Angela Merkel for the prize. She was recognized for her exemplary leadership in Europe and the world following the financial crisis and her commitment to international cooperation and peace.

The prize is not limited to individuals; it is awarded to individuals or organizations that have made outstanding contributions towards promoting international peace, ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom. Notable institutional recipients include the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR). Since the award can be given to organizations, the second statement is incorrect.

60Economy
According to the Companies Act, 2013, 'nominal capital' implies
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Answer: (B) the maximum amount of share capital of a company

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Section 2(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, defines authorised capital or nominal capital as such capital as is authorised by the memorandum of a company to be the maximum amount of share capital of the company. It represents the legal limit on the number of shares a company can issue to its shareholders. This figure must be specified in the Capital Clause of the Memorandum of Association during the incorporation process. If a company wishes to issue shares beyond this limit, it must first increase its nominal capital by following the statutory procedures to amend its Memorandum of Association and paying the requisite stamp duties and fees to the Registrar of Companies.

61Polity and Governance
The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to
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Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, made this observation while introducing the Draft Constitution in the Constituent Assembly on November 4, 1948. He was responding to criticisms that the Constitution lacked a specific ideological tilt or failed to mandate a particular social or economic order. Ambedkar argued that a Constitution is essentially a mechanism for governance and should not be used as a tool to permanently entrench the political or economic views of a single party. By keeping the document ideologically neutral regarding the choice of government, he ensured that the power to decide who should rule and what policies should be followed remained with the people through periodic elections. This distinction between the constitutional framework and the political process was central to his vision of a sustainable parliamentary democracy.

62Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. 3. It is being notified by the President. 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides the mechanism for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over the passage of an ordinary bill. It is an enabling provision that empowers the President to take the necessary steps to bring the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha together when they disagree on a bill. The use of the word may in the constitutional text indicates that it is not obligatory for the President to summon a joint sitting; the President may choose to do so on the advice of the Council of Ministers, or the bill may simply be allowed to lapse. Before the joint session can occur, the President must formally notify the Houses of the intention to summon them. This notification is issued as a message if the Houses are in session or as a public notification if they are not, which prevents either House from proceeding further with the bill independently.

63History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Text) List-II (Author) A. Kitab-al Hind 1. Ibn Battuta B. Rehla 2. Al-Biruni C. Humayun Nama 3. Lahori D. Badshah Nama 4. Gulbadan Begum
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3

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Kitab-al Hind is a comprehensive work on Indian sciences, religion, and social customs written by Al-Biruni, a Persian scholar who visited India in the 11th century. Rehla is the famous travelogue of the Moroccan traveler Ibn Battuta, which provides detailed descriptions of the socio-political conditions in India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Humayun Nama was authored by Gulbadan Begum, the sister of Emperor Humayun, at the request of Emperor Akbar to record the history of her brother's reign. Badshah Nama is the official history of the reign of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan, meticulously documented by his court historian Abdul Hamid Lahori.

64Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct? 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People. 2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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Article 79 of the Constitution of India defines the structure of the Parliament, specifying that it consists of the President and the two Houses, known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Although the President is not a member of either House, they are an integral part of the Parliament because no bill passed by the Houses can become law without receiving the President's assent.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the President of India is elected indirectly rather than directly. According to Article 54, the electoral college responsible for electing the President consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The use of the word only in the statement is inaccurate as it excludes the participation of the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

65Polity and Governance
Internal Security Academy is located at
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Answer: (B) Mount Abu

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The Internal Security Academy (ISA) is the premier training institution of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). It was established on February 1, 1975, and is located at Mount Abu, Rajasthan. The academy is responsible for the direct training of CRPF officers as well as conducting specialized courses on internal security, counter-insurgency, and public order for officers of the Indian Police Service and other various state and central police organizations. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs and plays a critical role in developing strategies and human resources to tackle internal security challenges in India.

66History
Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?
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Answer: (D) British Government was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly

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The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 envisioned the Constituent Assembly as a sovereign body responsible for drafting the future constitution of India. It was explicitly intended that the British Government would not supervise or interfere with the internal affairs, deliberations, or the constitutional drafting process of the Assembly. The role of the British was limited to providing the initial framework for the Assembly's formation and the grouping of provinces, after which the Indian representatives were to function independently to determine the nation's political future.

67Polity and Governance
Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950. 2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

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The office of the Deputy Speaker is a constitutional post established under Article 93 of the Constitution of India, which stipulates that the Lok Sabha shall choose two members of the House to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The position gained significantly more prominence after 1950 because the Constitution provided it with specific protections, such as the requirement for a formal resolution for removal and having the salary charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Furthermore, by parliamentary convention and rules, if a Deputy Speaker is appointed to a Parliamentary Committee, they automatically become its Chairman. Article 94 specifically provides that a member holding office as Deputy Speaker shall vacate their office if they cease to be a member of the House of the People, ensuring that the holder of the office must always be an elected representative of the House.

68History
Consider the following statements from Kalhana's Rajatarangini: 1. The common people ate rice and Utpala-saka (a wild vegetable of bitter taste). 2. Harsha introduced into Kashmir a general dress befitting a king which included a long coat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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Kalhana's Rajatarangini provides detailed insights into the social and cultural life of medieval Kashmir. Statement 1 is correct as rice was the staple food of the Kashmiri people, and Utpala-shaka, a bitter wild vegetable, is frequently mentioned as a common dietary item, particularly for the lower classes and during periods of economic hardship. Statement 2 is also correct because King Harsha, who ruled Kashmir from 1089 to 1101 AD, was known for his interest in foreign fashions and innovations. Kalhana records that Harsha introduced a new dress code for the royalty and court officials, which included the use of a long coat (kanchuka) and other elegant attire influenced by the styles of the Deccan and the Turushkas, replacing the simpler traditional garments of the region.

69Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct? 1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President. 2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 only

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The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India. Although the CAG acts as an agent of the Parliament to audit expenditure and assist the Public Accounts Committee, the CAG is not directly answerable to the House in the same manner as the executive. Unlike ministers, the CAG does not sit in the House, does not answer questions during Question Hour, and cannot be removed by a simple vote of the House. Instead, the CAG's independence is secured by the Constitution, with a removal process identical to that of a Supreme Court judge, ensuring the office remains free from administrative control or political interference from either the House or the President. The CAG submits reports to the President, who then causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament.

70Polity and Governance
The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) is a parliamentary standing committee consisting of 30 members, with 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Its primary mandate involves examining the reports of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. As part of its duties, the committee scrutinizes whether the Union Government has ensured adequate representation for SCs and STs in services and posts under its control, including those in public sector undertakings and statutory bodies. Furthermore, the committee is specifically tasked with reviewing and reporting on the implementation and efficacy of various welfare programmes and developmental schemes meant for these communities within the Union Territories, ensuring that constitutional safeguards and administrative measures are being effectively applied.

71Geography
Statement I: Clay layers are poor aquifers. Statement II: The inter- particle space of clay minerals is the least. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is true because an aquifer must possess high permeability to allow for the effective transmission and yield of water. Although clay has high total porosity (the volume of void space), it has extremely low permeability. Statement II is true because clay particles are the smallest sediment particles, defined as having a diameter less than 0.002 mm. Due to the minute size of these particles, the individual pores or inter-particle spaces between them are the smallest among all soil types.

The small size of these inter-particle spaces is the direct cause of clay's poor performance as an aquifer. In such tiny pores, the surface area relative to the volume of water is very high, leading to significant friction and strong molecular attraction (adsorption) between the water molecules and the clay surfaces. These forces overcome the pull of gravity, preventing water from flowing through the material. Therefore, the minimal size of the inter-particle spaces explains the low permeability that characterizes clay as a poor aquifer.

72Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Irrigation/Power project) List-II A. Bhakra Nangal 1. Bhagirathi B. Dul Hasti 2. Mahanadi C. Hirakud 3. Chandra D. Tehri 4. Sutlej
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

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The Bhakra Nangal project is a major concrete gravity dam constructed on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. The Dul Hasti hydroelectric power plant is located on the Chandra River, which is a primary headstream of the Chenab River, in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir. The Hirakud Dam is a large-scale multipurpose river valley project built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha. The Tehri Dam, serving as a primary source of hydroelectricity and irrigation, is the highest dam in India and is situated on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand.

73Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding fats? 1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane. 2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food. 3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue. 4. Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4

Explanation

Fats are essential structural components of the cell membrane, which is primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer along with cholesterol. These lipids provide the necessary fluid matrix and structural integrity for all cellular boundaries. Additionally, while fats are a highly concentrated source of energy, the body cannot release that energy as quickly as it can from carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are the preferred source for immediate energy because they are rapidly converted into glucose and processed through glycolysis. In contrast, the metabolic breakdown of fats via beta-oxidation is a more complex and slower process, requiring more oxygen to convert stored lipid molecules into usable ATP.

74Science and Technology
Addition of ethylene dibromide to petrol
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Answer: (B) helps elimination of lead oxide

Explanation

Ethylene dibromide is added to leaded petrol to act as a lead scavenger. When tetraethyl lead (TEL) is used as an antiknock agent, its combustion results in the formation of lead oxide (PbO), which is a solid that can deposit on engine components like spark plugs and valves, leading to engine wear and failure. Ethylene dibromide reacts with these lead oxides during the combustion process to form volatile lead bromide (PbBr₂). Because lead bromide remains in a gaseous state at the high temperatures of the engine exhaust cycle, it is efficiently carried out of the combustion chamber along with the exhaust gases, thereby preventing the accumulation of harmful lead deposits within the engine.

75Geography
Which of the following statements regarding the duration of day and night is correct?
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Answer: (A) Difference is least near the Equator and progressively increases away from it

Explanation

The Earth's axis is tilted at an angle of 23.5° relative to its orbital plane. Because of this tilt, the circle of illumination—the boundary between the lit and unlit halves of the Earth—always bisects the Equator regardless of the Earth's position in its orbit. As a result, regions at the Equator experience approximately twelve hours of daylight and twelve hours of darkness every day of the year, meaning the difference in duration is minimal. As latitude increases toward the North or South Poles, the circle of illumination cuts the parallels of latitude into increasingly unequal segments. This leads to a progressively larger variation in the length of day and night across the seasons, culminating at the poles where the difference reaches its maximum with six months of continuous daylight or darkness.

76Science and Technology
The position, relative size and nature of the image formed by a concave lens for an object placed at infinity are respectively
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Answer: (A) at focus, diminished and virtual

Explanation

For a concave lens, when an object is placed at infinity, the incident rays are parallel to the principal axis. Upon passing through the diverging lens, these rays refract and spread apart. When these divergent rays are produced backwards, they appear to meet at the principal focus F on the same side of the lens as the object. According to the lens formula 1/v - 1/u = 1/f, as the object distance u approaches infinity, the term 1/u tends to zero, resulting in the image distance v being equal to the focal length f. Because the light rays do not actually intersect but only appear to do so, the nature of the image is virtual and erect. Additionally, the image formed at the focus is point-sized or highly diminished.

77Science and Technology
People suffering from 'anorexia nervosa'
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Answer: (D) eat very little and fear gaining weight

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa is a serious psychological eating disorder characterized by an intense and irrational fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even when the individual is significantly underweight. This condition involves a distorted body image where patients perceive themselves as overweight despite evidence to the contrary. To manage this fear, individuals typically restrict their food intake to dangerously low levels, often skipping meals or eating only specific low-calorie foods. The primary behavioral symptoms include self-starvation and an obsession with weight control, which can lead to severe malnutrition and other life-threatening physical complications. In clinical psychology and medicine, it is classified as a condition where the patient intentionally maintains a body weight well below the minimum expected for their age and height.

78Science and Technology
Date of manufacture of food items fried in oil should be checked before buying because oils become rancid due to
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Answer: (A) oxidation

Explanation

Rancidity in oils and fats is primarily caused by oxidation, a chemical reaction that occurs when oxygen from the atmosphere reacts with the unsaturated fatty acid chains present in the oil. This process is often accelerated by exposure to light, heat, or moisture. During oxidation, the oxygen molecules break the double bonds in the fatty acids, leading to the formation of volatile compounds like aldehydes, ketones, and peroxides. These secondary metabolites are responsible for the unpleasant odor and off-flavor characteristic of spoiled fried foods. Checking the date of manufacture is crucial because the longer a fried food item is stored, the more time these oxidative reactions have to occur, eventually making the food unpalatable and potentially harmful to health.

79Science and Technology
No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
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Answer: (A) either plane or convex

Explanation

Both plane and convex mirrors consistently produce virtual and erect images regardless of the distance between the object and the mirror surface. In a plane mirror, the image is always upright, lateral inverted, and the same size as the object. For a convex mirror, the reflection occurs from the outer bulging surface, causing light rays to diverge; these diverged rays, when produced backwards, always meet at a point to form a virtual, erect, and diminished image. Since both of these mirrors maintain an erect image profile at all positions, the mirror in the given scenario could be either plane or convex.

80Geography
Veliconda group of low hills is a structural part of
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Answer: (C) Eastern Ghats

Explanation

The Veliconda Hills are a range of low hills situated in the southeastern part of India, primarily in the Nellore and Kadapa districts of Andhra Pradesh. Geographically and geologically, they form a distinct section of the Eastern Ghats, which is a discontinuous range of mountains running parallel to the eastern coast of the Indian Peninsula. These hills were formed through ancient tectonic activity and folding processes associated with the Eastern Ghats belt. The Veliconda Range lies to the east of the Nallamala Hills and is characterized by its folded structure and relatively low elevation, fitting into the broader structural framework of the eastern coastal highlands of India.

81Geography
Rachel Carson's famous book, Silent Spring refers to
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Answer: (D) the death of songbirds due to eating insects poisoned with pesticides

Explanation

Published in 1962, Rachel Carson's Silent Spring is a seminal work in environmental science that documented the detrimental effects of indiscriminate pesticide use, particularly synthetic organic compounds like DDT. The title refers to a hypothetical future where the arrival of spring is silent because the bird populations have been decimated by chemical poisoning. Carson explained how these persistent pesticides enter the food chain and accumulate in the bodies of insects. When songbirds and other avian species consume these poisoned insects, the toxins lead to acute mortality or reproductive failure, such as the thinning of eggshells. Her research highlighted the concept of bioaccumulation and spurred a global shift in environmental consciousness, eventually leading to significant changes in pesticide regulation and the birth of the modern environmental movement.

82Geography
What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over the north-western part of India? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high pressure area. 2. The northern plain would become cold. 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the daytime. 4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

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During the mid-winter season, the cooling of the Indian landmass, particularly in the north-western region, leads to the development of a feeble high-pressure center. This high pressure results in the outward movement of winds in an anticyclonic pattern. These winds are generally dry and cold because they originate from the continental interior and the Himalayan region. The presence of this high-pressure system is associated with stable atmospheric conditions and clear skies. Such clear weather allows for maximum terrestrial radiation during the night, which leads to a sharp drop in temperatures across the northern plains, causing the characteristic cold weather of the Indian winter.

83Science and Technology
When an incandescent electric bulb glows
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Answer: (B) the electric energy is partly converted into light energy and partly into heat energy

Explanation

When an incandescent electric bulb glows, electric energy is partly converted into light energy and partly into heat energy. An incandescent bulb converts only about 5–10% of electrical energy into visible light; the remaining 90–95% is dissipated as heat (infrared radiation). This low efficiency is the primary reason incandescent bulbs have been replaced by more energy-efficient alternatives such as compact fluorescent lamps (CFL) and LED lamps.

84Science and Technology
Which method of water purification does not kill micro organism?
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Answer: (B) Filtration

Explanation

Filtration does not kill microorganisms. It is a physical separation process that removes suspended particles and large microorganisms by passing water through a filter medium, but the microorganisms are trapped, not killed. Boiling kills microorganisms through heat denaturation of proteins. Chlorination kills bacteria and most viruses through chemical oxidation. UV irradiation kills microorganisms by damaging their DNA and preventing reproduction.

85Geography
Which one of the following is a landlocked harbour?
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Answer: (A) Vishakhapatnam

Explanation

Vishakhapatnam is a premier landlocked harbour located on the East Coast of India in the state of Andhra Pradesh. A landlocked harbour is characterized by being surrounded by land with only a narrow channel connecting it to the open sea. This specific geographical feature provides natural protection to the vessels from heavy winds and waves. In the case of Vishakhapatnam, the harbour is protected by a high promontory known as the Dolphin Nose hill range, which acts as a natural barrier against cyclones and tidal surges. This makes it one of the safest and deepest natural ports in the country, facilitating year-round operations for both commercial shipping and naval activities.

86Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Amnion contains fluid. 2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The amnion is one of the four extraembryonic membranes that surround a developing embryo in amniotes, including humans. It forms a sac-like structure called the amniotic cavity, which is filled with amniotic fluid. This fluid serves critical biological functions, such as protecting the embryo from mechanical shocks, maintaining a constant temperature, and allowing for fetal movement and development.

Ultrasound imaging, or sonography, is a diagnostic technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to visualize the internal structures of the body. In obstetric care, it is used to monitor the growth and health of the fetus. By observing the morphological development of the external genitalia, which usually becomes distinguishable during the second trimester of pregnancy, ultrasound technology can accurately identify the biological sex of the fetus. While the disclosure of the sex is strictly prohibited in India under the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act of 1994 to prevent female foeticide, the technological capability to detect it remains a scientific fact.

87Science and Technology
Iron sheet kept in moist air gets covered with rust. Rust is
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Answer: (B) a compound

Explanation

Rust is the result of a chemical reaction between iron, oxygen, and moisture in the atmosphere, a process known as corrosion. This reaction produces hydrated iron(III) oxide, which is represented by the chemical formula Fe₂O₃ · nH₂O. In this substance, the iron and oxygen atoms are chemically bonded in a fixed proportion, along with a variable number of water molecules of crystallization. Because it is a new substance with unique chemical properties formed through a chemical change, rust is classified as a compound rather than a simple physical mixture or an element.

88Science and Technology
You are asked to jog in a circular track of radius 35 metres. Right at one complete round on the circular track, your displacement and the distance covered by you are respectively
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Answer: (A) zero and 220 metres

Explanation

Displacement is defined as the vector quantity representing the shortest straight-line distance between an object's initial and final positions. When completing one full round on a circular track, the final position coincides exactly with the starting position. Because there is no change in position relative to the start, the displacement is zero.

Distance is a scalar quantity that measures the total path length traveled. For a circular track, one complete round is equal to the circumference of the circle, which is calculated using the formula C = 2πr. Given a radius r = 35 metres and using the standard approximation π = 22/7:

Distance = 2 × 22/7 × 35

Distance = 2 × 22 × 5

Distance = 220 metres

89Geography
Consider the following statements: 1. Weathered rock with change of volume is called saprolite. 2. The process of landscape formation by deep weathering followed by stripping of the saprolite is called etching. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Saprolite is chemically weathered rock that retains the structure and fabric of the original parent rock. A key characteristic of saprolite formation is that it is an isovolumetric process, meaning the weathering occurs without a significant change in the total volume of the rock. Since statement 1 suggests weathering with a change of volume, it is incorrect.

The etching process, also known as etchplanation, is a two-stage geomorphic model. The first stage involves intensive chemical weathering (sub-surface) that produces a thick layer of saprolite or regolith. The second stage involves the stripping or removal of this weathered mantle by mechanical erosion, which exposes the irregular basal weathering front. This process creates distinct landforms such as etchplains, tors, and inselbergs. Therefore, statement 2 is a correct description of the etching process.

90Geography
Nitric oxide pollution can lead to all of the following, except
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Answer: (D) silicosis in human

Explanation

Silicosis is a chronic and irreversible occupational lung disease caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica (SiO₂) dust. This condition typically occurs in workers involved in mining, quarrying, stonecutting, and sandblasting, where fine particles of silica are inhaled and become trapped in the alveolar sacs. The presence of these mineral particles triggers an inflammatory response and the formation of scar tissue, or fibrosis, in the lungs. Because silicosis is caused specifically by solid mineral particulates rather than gaseous chemical pollutants, it is unrelated to the atmospheric presence of nitric oxide (NO).

91Economy
Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of India from west to east.
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Answer: (A) Koyali—Kochi—Panipat—Mathura

Explanation

The geographical arrangement of these oil refineries from west to east is determined by their longitudinal positions. The Koyali refinery, also known as the Gujarat refinery, is located in Vadodara, Gujarat, at approximately 73.18 E longitude. The Kochi refinery in Kerala is situated at approximately 76.27 E longitude. Moving further towards the east, the Panipat refinery in Haryana is located at approximately 76.94 E longitude. The Mathura refinery in Uttar Pradesh is the easternmost among the given set, situated at approximately 77.70 E longitude. This sequence follows the longitudinal progression across the Indian subcontinent from the western state of Gujarat to the northern states of Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

92Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Author) List-II (Concept/Book) A. Hobbes 1. Natural Law B. Rousseau 2. 'Might is Right' C. Locke 3. Discourse on Inequality D. Adam Smith 4. The Wealth of Nations
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Answer: (B) 2 3 1 4

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Thomas Hobbes is associated with the concept of 'Might is Right' as his political philosophy in Leviathan describes a state of nature where absolute power and the right of the stronger prevail in the absence of a sovereign.

Jean-Jacques Rousseau wrote the Discourse on the Origin and Basis of Inequality Among Men in 1755, which is a fundamental text in modern political and social thought regarding the development of social hierarchy.

John Locke is a central figure in the development of the theory of Natural Law, asserting that individuals possess fundamental, inalienable rights to life, liberty, and property that precede the formation of any government.

Adam Smith published his magnum opus, The Wealth of Nations, in 1776, which laid the foundations of classical free-market economic theory and the concept of the invisible hand.

93Geography
Which of the following statements relating to earthquakes is/are correct? 1. The point of origin of an earthquake is called the epicenter. 2. The lines joining the places which were affected by earthquake at the same point of time are called homoseismal lines. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The point of origin of an earthquake within the Earth crust is known as the focus or hypocenter, while the epicenter is the point on the Earth surface vertically above the focus. Lines joining places that experience the earthquake shocks at the same time are referred to as homoseismal or coseismal lines. Isoseismal lines are defined as lines connecting locations that recorded the same intensity of earthquake shaking on the Mercalli scale. Since the first statement misidentifies the point of origin and the second statement misdefines isoseismal lines, both statements are incorrect.

94Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements is present in green pigment of leaf?
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Answer: (A) Magnesium

Explanation

Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants, which is essential for the process of photosynthesis. The chemical structure of chlorophyll features a porphyrin-like ring system known as a chlorin ring. At the center of this ring, a single atom of magnesium (Mg²⁺) is coordinated to four nitrogen atoms. This magnesium ion plays a critical role in the stabilization of the pigment structure and facilitates the absorption of light energy from the sun. Because magnesium is the core metallic component of the chlorophyll molecule, its presence is fundamental to the green coloration of plant foliage and the plant ability to convert light energy into chemical energy.

95Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Gland) (Hormone) A. Pancreas 1. Cortisol B. Pituitary 2. Vitamin D C. Adrenals 3. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Kidneys 4. Glucagon
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Answer: (A) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

The pancreas matches with glucagon because the alpha cells in the Islets of Langerhans secrete this hormone to increase blood glucose levels. The pituitary gland matches with thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), which is synthesized and secreted by thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to regulate thyroid function. The adrenal glands match with cortisol, a glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex that helps the body respond to stress and regulates metabolism. The kidneys match with Vitamin D because they produce the enzyme 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which converts calcidiol into calcitriol, the active hormonal form of Vitamin D necessary for calcium homeostasis.

96Geography
The vegetation type characterized by (i) a large expanse of grassland with scattered trees and shrubs, (ii) lying between tropical rain forest and tropical steppes and deserts and (iii) flat-topped trees, is called
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Answer: (C) tropical savanna

Explanation

The tropical savanna, also known as the Sudan type climate, serves as a transitional zone between the humid equatorial rainforests and the arid tropical deserts. This vegetation type is primarily defined by a continuous carpet of tall grasses interspersed with scattered, drought-resistant trees and shrubs that do not form a closed canopy. The distinct seasonal rainfall pattern, featuring a long dry season, restricts tree growth and favors fire-resistant species. A hallmark of savanna flora is the presence of flat-topped or umbrella-shaped trees, such as the Acacia, which have adapted this structure to maximize leaf surface area for photosynthesis while minimizing water loss and resisting wind damage in open landscapes.

97Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases is supporter of combustion?
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Answer: (D) Oxygen

Explanation

Oxygen is chemically classified as a supporter of combustion because it is essential for the process of burning to occur. Although oxygen itself is not flammable or combustible, it acts as an oxidizing agent that reacts with fuels. In a combustion reaction, the fuel reacts with oxygen to release energy in the form of heat and light. Without a continuous supply of oxygen, most common fires cannot be sustained and will be extinguished.

98Geography
Which of the following is/are west-flowing river(s) of India? 1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 3. Narmada 4. Cauvery Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

The Narmada River originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and serves as the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India. It flows through a distinct rift valley located between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. This structural rift, formed due to tectonic faulting, compels the river to flow westward despite the general eastward tilt of the Indian Peninsula. Over its course of approximately 1,312 kilometers, it passes through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat. The river forms a significant estuary at its mouth rather than a delta, which is a common characteristic of major west-flowing rivers in the region.

99Science and Technology
A typical black hole is always specified by
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Answer: (B) a horizon

Explanation

In general relativity, a black hole is fundamentally specified by the existence of an event horizon, which is the boundary of a region in spacetime from which nothing, not even light, can escape. For a non-rotating, uncharged mass M, this boundary is defined by the Schwarzschild radius Rₛ:

Rₛ = 2GM/c²

where G is the gravitational constant and c is the speed of light. The event horizon serves as a point of no return; once an object or light pulse crosses this threshold, its future light cone is directed entirely toward the interior, making escape impossible. This horizon is the unique defining property that distinguishes a black hole from other dense celestial objects and establishes its causal disconnection from the external universe. While mathematical models also predict a singularity at the center, the event horizon is the physical specification that defines the black hole as an object.

100Science and Technology
Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible for transpiration?
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Answer: (C) Stomata

Explanation

Transpiration is the physiological process by which water is lost in the form of water vapor from the aerial parts of a plant. The primary structures responsible for this process are the stomata, which are microscopic pores located on the epidermal layer of leaves and young stems. Each stoma is surrounded by two specialized guard cells that regulate the opening and closing of the pore based on the plant's hydration and environmental conditions. When the stomata open to facilitate the intake of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis, water vapor within the leaf's internal air spaces diffuses out into the atmosphere. Stomatal transpiration typically accounts for over 90 percent of the total water loss from a plant, creating the necessary suction force known as transpirational pull that helps transport water and minerals from the soil to the upper parts of the plant.

101Geography
Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil conservation in hilly region? 1. Terracing and contour bunding 2. Shifting cultivation 3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Terracing and contour bunding are essential mechanical measures for soil conservation on steep slopes. By transforming a continuous slope into a series of level steps or creating embankments along contour lines, these methods significantly decrease the speed of surface runoff and facilitate water absorption, thereby preventing the removal of fertile topsoil. Contour ploughing is an agronomic practice where rows are ploughed across a slope following its elevation contour lines. These rows act as small dams that check the flow of water downhill, effectively reducing soil erosion caused by heavy rainfall in hilly regions.

102Science and Technology
A mobile phone charger is
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Answer: (C) a step-down transformer

Explanation

A mobile phone charger functions by converting the high-voltage alternating current (AC) from a wall outlet—usually 220V in India—to the low-voltage direct current (DC) required by a phone battery, typically around 5V. To achieve this significant reduction in voltage, the device employs a step-down transformer. According to the transformer principle, the output voltage is proportional to the ratio of the number of turns in the secondary coil (Nₛ) to the primary coil (Nₚ). Since the charger must produce a much lower voltage than it receives from the mains, it uses a secondary coil with significantly fewer turns than the primary coil. While modern chargers incorporate high-frequency switching circuits (SMPS) to maintain a compact size and improve efficiency, the fundamental task of decreasing the incoming voltage to a safe level is performed by the step-down transformation.

103Geography
Which one of the following is depositional landform?
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Answer: (A) Stalagmite

Explanation

Stalagmites are depositional landforms that develop on the floors of limestone caves within karst regions. They are created through the process of chemical precipitation when mineral-rich groundwater drips from the cave ceiling. As these water droplets strike the floor, they release carbon dioxide and evaporate, causing the dissolved calcium carbonate to precipitate and settle. Over thousands of years, these successive layers of calcite accumulate and grow upwards to form pillars or mounds. Because they are built by the gradual addition and crystallization of mineral matter transported by water, they are classified as primary depositional features of subterranean landscapes.

104Science and Technology
Which of the following solutions will not change the colour of blue litmus paper to red? 1. Acid solution 2. Base solution 3. Common salt solution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation

Blue litmus paper is an indicator used to test the acidity or basicity of a substance. It turns red specifically when it comes into contact with an acidic solution, which has a pH value less than 7. Basic solutions, which have a pH value greater than 7, and neutral solutions, which have a pH value of approximately 7, do not change the color of blue litmus paper to red. A base solution will typically turn red litmus paper blue but has no effect on blue litmus. Common salt, or sodium chloride (NaCl), is a neutral salt formed by the reaction of a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base (NaOH). Since its solution is neutral, it does not possess the acidic properties required to change the color of blue litmus paper. Thus, both the base solution and the common salt solution will leave the blue litmus paper unchanged.

105Geography
Biodiversity is richer in
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Answer: (A) tropical regions

Explanation

Tropical regions harbor the highest levels of biodiversity on Earth due to the latitudinal gradient of species diversity, which demonstrates that species richness increases as one moves from the poles toward the equator. These regions, situated between 23.5°N and 23.5°S, benefit from a relatively stable and predictable climate with less seasonal variation compared to temperate and polar zones. This environmental stability allows for greater niche specialization. Furthermore, tropical areas receive more intense solar energy, which results in higher primary productivity that can support a larger number of species. From an evolutionary perspective, the tropics remained largely undisturbed by glaciations during the Pleistocene epoch, providing a longer period of evolutionary time for species to originate and diversify without catastrophic interruptions.

106Science and Technology
Which of the following does not possess a specialized conducting tissue for transport of water and other substances in plants?
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Answer: (A) Marchantia

Explanation

Marchantia is a genus of liverworts belonging to the division Bryophyta. Bryophytes are classified as non-vascular plants because they lack specialized vascular tissues, namely xylem for water transport and phloem for food transport. Since they do not have these conducting tissues, they rely on simple diffusion and capillary action to move water and nutrients across their thallus. In contrast, vascular plants like pteridophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms possess complex tissues to facilitate internal transport.

107Economy
Which one of the following is the example of subsistence farming?
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Answer: (A) Shifting cultivation

Explanation

Shifting cultivation is a traditional form of subsistence agriculture where farmers clear a plot of land by burning vegetation, cultivate it for a short period until the soil loses its fertility, and then abandon it to move to a new area. The primary objective is to meet the immediate food requirements of the household or community rather than producing for the market. This method is prevalent in tropical regions and relies on simple tools and manual labor, making it a definitive example of subsistence-based farming practices.

108Science and Technology
Deficiency of which of the following elements is responsible for weakening of bones? 1. Calcium 2. Phosphorus 3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The structural integrity of human bones is primarily dependent on the mineralization process involving calcium and phosphorus. Approximately 99 percent of the body calcium and 85 percent of its phosphorus are stored in the bones and teeth in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals, represented by the chemical formula Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂. Calcium provides the necessary hardness and density to the skeletal framework, while phosphorus works synergistically with calcium to form the inorganic mineral matrix. A deficiency in either of these elements leads to a decrease in bone mineral density, resulting in conditions such as osteoporosis, osteomalacia, or rickets, which significantly weaken the bones and increase the risk of fractures. Calcium and phosphorus are the two most abundant minerals in the bone and are essential for maintaining skeletal strength throughout life.

109Science and Technology
Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layer of cloth with double the thickness. Why?
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Answer: (A) Because of the air encapsulated between two layers

Explanation

The superior insulation provided by two layers of cloth compared to a single layer of double thickness is due to the layer of air trapped between them. Air is an excellent thermal insulator and a very poor conductor of heat. When two layers are used, a thin film of stagnant air is encapsulated in the space between the fabrics. This trapped air significantly reduces the rate of heat transfer from the body to the external environment by both conduction and convection. Even though the total amount of fabric material is the same, the presence of this additional insulating air barrier ensures that more body heat is retained, making the two-layer covering warmer.

110Economy
Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of demographic transition? 1. High death rate and birthrate, low growth rate 2. Rapid decline in death rate, continued low birthrate, very low growth rate 3. Rapid decline in birthrate, continued decline in death rate 4. Low death rate and birthrate, low growth rate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4

Explanation

The Demographic Transition Model describes the sequence of changes in birth and death rates as a society develops. Statement 1 describes the first stage, known as the high stationary stage, where both birth and death rates are high due to poor medical facilities and lack of family planning, resulting in low population growth. Statement 4 describes the fourth stage, or low stationary stage, where both birth and death rates have fallen to low levels, leading to a stable or slowly growing population.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the stage featuring a rapid decline in death rates (Stage 2) is characterized by high birth rates, leading to high population growth, not low growth. While statement 3 accurately describes the late transition stage (Stage 3), the combination of the two primary equilibrium states (stages 1 and 4) makes option d the most appropriate choice among the given codes.

111Geography
In a forest, animals like voles and wood lice feed on plant roots and barks respectively. Among the other carnivores, foxes, shrews and owls are present in that forest. Following predictions are made by a group of observers who have visited the forest: 1. If the roots of the tree develop a disease, then voles and foxes will starve and not the owls. 2. Population of voles is dependent on wood lice population through food web. 3. If owl population declines, it will indirectly affect wood lice population. 4. If barks of tree are affected due to a disease, then reduction of wood lice will affect the shrew population forcing owls to eat more voles. Which of the above predictions is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 3

Explanation

Prediction 3 is correct because it describes a trophic cascade, where a change in the population of a top predator leads to alternating effects down the food chain. In this forest ecosystem, owls act as predators of shrews, and shrews are predators of wood lice (as implied by the ecological roles of these animals and the context provided in prediction 4). If the owl population declines, the predation pressure on shrews is reduced, leading to an increase in the shrew population. Consequently, a larger number of shrews will consume more wood lice, resulting in a decrease in the wood lice population. This indirect interaction between owls and wood lice, mediated by shrews, is a standard functional relationship in a food web.

112Geography
Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the earth? 1. Earthquake wave 2. Volcano 3. Gravitational force 4. Earth magnetism Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Direct sources of information about the Earth interior involve the physical examination of materials or direct observations of the interior. Volcanic eruptions are considered a direct source because they bring molten material, known as magma, from the deep interior (the crust and upper mantle) directly to the Earth surface, allowing scientists to analyze its chemical composition and physical properties in a laboratory. Other direct sources include surface rocks, deep-sea drilling projects, and materials obtained from deep mining operations. In contrast, seismic waves, gravity anomalies, and magnetic fields are classified as indirect sources because the properties of the interior are inferred through the analysis of wave behavior or variations in physical forces rather than direct physical contact with the material.

113Science and Technology
What causes dough (a mixture of flour, water, etc.) to rise when yeast is added to it?
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Answer: (D) Release of carbon dioxide gas

Explanation

Yeast is a unicellular fungus that acts as a leavening agent through the biological process of fermentation. When yeast is added to dough, it consumes the sugars present in the flour and converts them into ethanol and carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas. This gas becomes trapped within the elastic gluten network of the dough, forming numerous tiny bubbles. As the volume of CO₂ gas increases and expands, it exerts pressure on the surrounding dough structure, causing it to swell and rise. This process gives the final baked product a light, porous, and airy texture.

114Science and Technology
Which of the following are the two main constituents of granite?
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Answer: (C) Silica and aluminium

Explanation

Granite is a coarse-grained intrusive igneous rock that primarily forms the Earth's continental crust. The term SIAL is frequently used in geology to describe the composition of this upper crustal layer, representing the dominance of silica (SiO₂) and aluminium (Al). In terms of mineralogy, granite is composed mostly of quartz, which is pure silica, and feldspars, which are aluminosilicates of potassium, sodium, or calcium. Chemical analysis of typical granite shows that silica accounts for approximately 70% to 77% of its mass, while alumina accounts for about 11% to 15%. These two compounds together constitute the vast majority of the rock's chemical makeup, far exceeding the concentrations of other elements like iron, magnesium, or calcium.

115Science and Technology
In cricket match, while catching a fast-moving ball, a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball to reduce the velocity to zero. The act represents
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Answer: (B) Newton's second law of motion

Explanation

Newton's second law of motion states that the force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum, expressed by the formula F = Δp/Δt. In this scenario, the cricket ball has a specific initial momentum p = mv which must be reduced to zero to complete the catch, making the change in momentum Δp a constant value. By pulling the hands backward along the path of the ball, the fielder increases the time interval Δt over which this change in momentum occurs. According to the formula, since the force F is inversely proportional to the time Δt for a fixed Δp, increasing the time significantly reduces the impact force exerted by the ball on the fielder's palms, thus preventing injury.

116Science and Technology
Two strands of DNA are held together by
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Answer: (A) hydrogen bonds

Explanation

DNA is composed of two long polynucleotide strands that wrap around each other to form a double helix. The two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds that form between the nitrogenous bases of the opposing strands. This interaction follows the base-pairing rule where adenine (A) on one strand always pairs with thymine (T) on the other through two hydrogen bonds, and guanine (G) always pairs with cytosine (C) through three hydrogen bonds. These hydrogen bonds are weak enough to allow the DNA strands to be separated during replication and transcription but numerous enough to provide the overall structural stability required to maintain the double-stranded integrity of the genetic material.

117Geography
Which one of the following dams is constructed across Krishna River?
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Answer: (C) Srisailam Dam

Explanation

The Srisailam Dam is a major gravity dam constructed across the Krishna River in the Nallamala Hills. Located on the border between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it is one of the largest hydroelectric power stations in India. The dam creates a massive reservoir that provides irrigation water for the Rayalaseema region and supports power generation through the Srisailam Right Bank and Left Bank power houses. It plays a critical role in the management and distribution of Krishna River waters for both agricultural and energy needs in the surrounding states.

118Science and Technology
A metal screw-top on a glass bottle which appears to be stuck could be opened by using the fact that
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Answer: (A) the metal expands more than the glass when both are heated

Explanation

The phenomenon is based on the principle of thermal expansion, where materials increase in volume as their temperature rises. Metals possess a significantly higher coefficient of linear expansion (α) compared to glass. When heat is applied to the assembly, such as by running hot water over the lid, the metal screw-top expands much more than the glass bottle neck beneath it. This differential expansion results in the metal lid becoming slightly larger relative to the glass threads, which reduces the friction and tightness of the seal, making it easier to unscrew the lid.

119Science and Technology
Among the following animals, choose the one having three pairs of legs.
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Answer: (C) Bug

Explanation

Bugs are members of the class Insecta. A defining anatomical characteristic of all insects is the presence of exactly three pairs of jointed legs, totaling six legs. These legs are attached to the thorax, which is the central body segment of the organism. This hexapod body plan distinguishes insects from other arthropod classes.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4D
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7D
  8. 8B
  9. 9D
  10. 10C
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14C
  15. 15D
  16. 16A
  17. 17D
  18. 18B
  19. 19C
  20. 20A
  21. 21A
  22. 22A
  23. 23A
  24. 24B
  25. 25A
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29D
  30. 30D
  31. 31D
  32. 32B
  33. 33B
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36A
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39D
  40. 40C
  41. 41A
  42. 42D
  43. 43B
  44. 44D
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53C
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56B
  57. 57C
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63D
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66D
  67. 67C
  68. 68C
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73A
  74. 74B
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77D
  78. 78A
  79. 79A
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82A
  83. 83B
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89B
  90. 90D
  91. 91A
  92. 92B
  93. 93D
  94. 94A
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97D
  98. 98C
  99. 99B
  100. 100C
  101. 101A
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109A
  110. 110D
  111. 111D
  112. 112B
  113. 113D
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116A
  117. 117C
  118. 118A
  119. 119C

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