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CDS I 2010 General Knowledge Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 119 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

119
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6
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3529%
  • Polity and Governance2521%
  • Geography2017%
  • Economy1916%
  • History1412%
  • Art and Culture65%
1Polity and Governance
Prominent Indian social activist Deep Joshi was awarded the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2009 for his
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Answer: (C) vision and leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO movement in India

Explanation

Deep Joshi co-founded Professional Assistance for Development Action (PRADAN) in 1983 with the objective of recruiting highly educated professionals from premier institutions like the IITs and IIMs to work in rural development. He was honored with the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2009 in the category of Community Leadership for his vision and leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO movement in India. His work demonstrated that the application of professional management and technical skills to rural poverty could yield sustainable development results, effectively bridging the gap between the corporate-style professional sector and the grassroots social sector.

2Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements about Gangubai Hangal, who died in July 2009, is not correct?
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Answer: (B) She was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2002

Explanation

Gangubai Hangal was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian honor, in 2002. She was never a recipient of the Bharat Ratna. A legendary doyenne of the Kirana Gharana of Hindustani classical music, she was celebrated for her deep, resonant voice and her mastery over the khyal style. In addition to her musical legacy, she was a committed social activist who campaigned to increase awareness for organ donation and famously pledged her eyes to the cause. Her career spanned over seven decades, during which she earned the distinction of being felicitated by several generations of Indian leadership, including multiple Prime Ministers and Presidents.

3Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) code is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Under the code, the use of any prohibited substance by an athlete for medical reasons is not possible

Explanation

The World Anti-Doping Code provides a specific mechanism known as Therapeutic Use Exemptions (TUE) which allows athletes to use prohibited substances for legitimate medical reasons. Under this provision, an athlete can apply for permission to use a medication on the Prohibited List if they can demonstrate through medical documentation that the substance is necessary to treat a diagnosed condition and that its use will not result in any unfair performance enhancement beyond returning to a normal state of health. These applications are evaluated by a Therapeutic Use Exemption Committee consisting of independent physicians. Because the code explicitly facilitates the use of necessary medication through this established legal framework, the assertion that medical use is not possible is incorrect.

4Geography
Consider the following statements about lawn tennis court : 1. Hard courts are faster than clay courts but not as fast as grass courts. 2. The French Open is played on a hard court, but the US Open is played on a clay court. 3. An approximate north/south orientation of the court is desirable during evening play. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Grass courts are the fastest playing surface in tennis because the ball skids off the grass with a low bounce, maintaining much of its horizontal velocity. Clay courts are the slowest because the gritty surface provides high friction and absorbs the ball's momentum, leading to a higher and slower bounce. Hard courts, typically made of acrylic or synthetic layers over a concrete or asphalt base, provide a speed and bounce level that is intermediate between grass and clay.

The orientation of a tennis court is critical for visibility and competitive fairness. A North-South orientation is preferred to ensure that the sun, which rises in the East and sets in the West, is positioned to the side of the players rather than directly in their line of sight. This is particularly important during the late afternoon and evening play when the sun is low on the horizon, as it prevents players from being blinded while serving or looking up for overhead shots.

5Science and Technology
If a limestone piece is dipped in water, a bubble evolves. The bubbling is due to
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Answer: (D) carbon dioxide

Explanation

Limestone is a sedimentary rock primarily composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃). It possesses a porous physical structure containing numerous tiny spaces and internal cavities that trap air. When a piece of limestone is immersed in water, the water enters these pores through capillary action and displaces the trapped air. This displaced air rises through the water and is released at the surface as bubbles. This is a purely physical phenomenon of air displacement and does not involve a chemical reaction releasing gases such as carbon dioxide, hydrogen, or oxygen. Bubbling due to water vapor is associated with the exothermic slaking of quicklime (CaO), not the immersion of limestone (CaCO₃) in water.

6Geography
Which one among the following Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance?
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Answer: (B) 2431 Trivandrum Central

Explanation

The Thiruvananthapuram Rajdhani Express (train number 2431) covers the longest distance among all Rajdhani Express trains in India. It travels approximately 3149 kilometers between Hazrat Nizamuddin in Delhi and Thiruvananthapuram Central in Kerala. The journey takes about 42 hours and passes through eight states, largely following the scenic Konkan Railway route along the western coast. This train serves as a vital long-distance link connecting the national capital with the southernmost part of the Indian peninsula.

7Polity and Governance
On which one of the following grounds, in August 2009, Scottish authorities released to return home Abdel Basset al-Megrahi, a former Libyan agent, jailed for life for the bombing of Pan Am Flight 103 on December 1988 that killed 270 people, most of whom were US nationals?
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Answer: (B) He was dying of cancer

Explanation

Abdelbaset al-Megrahi was released from prison in Scotland on August 20, 2009, by the Scottish Justice Secretary, Kenny MacAskill, acting on compassionate grounds. Megrahi had been diagnosed with terminal prostate cancer, and medical reports presented to the Scottish government indicated that he had a life expectancy of less than three months. Under the Scotland Act 1998 and the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989, the Justice Secretary has the discretionary power to release a prisoner on compassionate grounds if they are suffering from a terminal illness. This decision allowed Megrahi to return to Libya to spend his final days with his family.

8History
Consider the following paragraph : He was seriously injured in police lathi charge in Lahore during demonstrations against Simon Commission for which he subsequently died in November 1928. Later on the British officer, who was responsible for the lathi charge on him, was shot dead by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru. The revolutionary referred to in the above paragraph is
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Answer: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai, popularly known as Punjab Kesari, led a peaceful protest march against the all-white Simon Commission when it visited Lahore on October 30, 1928. During this demonstration, the Superintendent of Police, James A. Scott, ordered a brutal lathi charge against the protesters. Lala Lajpat Rai was struck repeatedly on the chest, leading to severe physical trauma. He famously declared that the blows struck at him would be the last nails in the coffin of British rule in India. He succumbed to his injuries on November 17, 1928. In retaliation for his death, Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru, members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, assassinated the Assistant Superintendent of Police John P. Saunders in December 1928, having mistaken him for Scott.

9Polity and Governance
Which one of the following can be provided under RTI Act, 2005?
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Answer: (D) Information relating to Cabinet Papers recording deliberations of Council of Ministers

Explanation

Under Section 8(1)(i) of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, Cabinet papers, which include records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries, and other officers, are generally exempt from disclosure while the matter is ongoing. However, a specific proviso in this section mandates that once a decision has been taken and the matter is complete or over, the decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons for those decisions, and the material on the basis of which the decisions were taken shall be made public.

This provision ensures that while the internal deliberative process is protected to encourage free and frank discussion, the underlying factual material and final outcomes become accessible to the public after the conclusion of the matter. This marked a significant shift from the previous regime of absolute secrecy regarding Cabinet proceedings.

10Science and Technology
In the month of October 2009, the Indian Air Force in Mumbai airport forced a flight of North American Airlines Boeing 767 to land. Which of the following statements in this respect is/are correct? 1. It was forced to land, because the Indian Air Force was reported that there was a bomb planted in the plane. 2. The plane was travelling to Bangkok, Thailand from Fujiriah, United Arab Emirates. 3. The plane was carrying US troops. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

On October 18, 2009, the Indian Air Force intercepted a North American Airlines Boeing 767 and forced it to land at Mumbai airport because the aircraft did not have the required Air Defence Clearance to fly over Indian airspace. The flight was a US military charter traveling on a route from Fujairah in the United Arab Emirates to Bangkok, Thailand. Investigation after landing confirmed that the aircraft was carrying approximately 205 passengers, the majority of whom were US troops. The discrepancy arose because the aircraft was using a civilian call sign while being a military charter, which triggered the air defense protocol. There was no report of a bomb on the plane; the forced landing was strictly due to the lack of proper technical and military clearances. Once the paperwork was coordinated between the US Embassy and Indian authorities, the flight was permitted to continue its journey.

11Economy
Consider the following statements about Tata Steel : 1. It is Asia's first privately owned integrated iron and steel plant. 2. It is the first company outside Japan to get the Deming Application Prize in 2008 for excellence in total quality management. 3. Immediately after the enactment of Provident Fund Law in India, Tata Steel introduced provident fund for its employees. 4. It is the first company in the world to get Social Accountability 8000 certification from Social Accountability International, USA. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1: Tata Steel, formerly known as the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), was established by Jamsetji Tata in 1907 at Sakchi (now Jamshedpur). It is the first privately owned integrated iron and steel plant in Asia, commencing its iron production in 1911 and steel production in 1912.

Statement 4: Tata Steel was the first company in the world to be awarded the Social Accountability 8000 (SA 8000) certification by Social Accountability International (SAI), USA. This certification, received in 2004, recognized the company's adherence to international standards for workplace conditions, including labor rights, health and safety, and the prohibition of child or forced labor.

12History
Consider the following statements about the Queen's Baton Relay : 1. The helix shape of the Baton for the 2010 Commonwealth Games, created out of aluminium, is coated with a graded and layered soil pattern in black, yellow and red to represent the diversity of Commonwealth nations. 2. This Relay traditionally begins with a commencement ceremony at Buckingham Palace, London, during which, the Queen entrusts the Baton containing her message to the athletes to the first honorary relay runner. 3. The Relay for the 1998 Games in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia was the first to travel to other nations of the Commonwealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Queen's Baton Relay traditionally begins at Buckingham Palace in London, where the Head of the Commonwealth, the Queen, places her message to the athletes inside the baton. She then hands the baton to the first honorary runner, marking the official start of its journey to the host city. This ceremony is a central tradition of the Commonwealth Games, symbolizing the unity of the member nations.

The 1998 Commonwealth Games held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, were the first in history where the Relay traveled to other member nations of the Commonwealth. Before 1998, the baton typically traveled only through the United Kingdom and the host country. This expansion transformed the relay into a major international event, designed to promote the Games across the diverse territories of the Commonwealth.

13Economy
Which one of the following crops' production has been exceeding target since 2004-2005 in India, but its growers have been committing suicide in large numbers in many parts of the country every year?
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Answer: (B) Cotton

Explanation

Cotton production in India underwent a major transformation following the commercial introduction of Bt cotton in 2002. Starting from the 2004-2005 crop year, India witnessed a period where cotton production consistently met or exceeded government targets, transforming the country into a leading global producer and exporter. While the yield increased significantly due to the adoption of genetically modified seeds, cotton remains a high-risk and high-input cash crop. Cultivators often incurred heavy debts to afford expensive seeds, specialized fertilizers, and pesticides. In regions lacking robust irrigation, such as Vidarbha in Maharashtra and parts of the Deccan plateau, the combination of high cultivation costs, dependency on rainfall, and volatile market prices frequently trapped farmers in a cycle of debt. This economic distress and the inability to repay loans have been identified by various socio-economic studies and government reports as the primary drivers behind the disproportionately high number of suicides among cotton growers during this timeframe.

14Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : 1. The DRDO developed two variants of Prithvi Missile. 2. Prithvi II is equipped with features of maneuverability to deceive the enemy defence system. 3. Induction of Prithvi Missile enhances the capability of the Indian Army to attack multiple targets simultaneously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Prithvi II is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile developed by the DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. It is equipped with advanced inertial navigation and guidance systems that allow it to follow a maneuvering trajectory. This ability to change its flight path makes it significantly more difficult for enemy anti-ballistic missile defense systems to track and intercept the projectile effectively.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the DRDO developed three variants of the Prithvi missile to meet the specific requirements of the different branches of the Indian Armed Forces: Prithvi I for the Army, Prithvi II for the Air Force, and Prithvi III (or Dhanush) for the Navy. Statement 3 is incorrect because Prithvi is a single-warhead ballistic missile system and does not feature Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle technology, which would be required to engage multiple separate targets simultaneously with a single launch.

15Science and Technology
High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian Army is located at
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Answer: (A) Gulmarg

Explanation

The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is a specialized training and research establishment of the Indian Army located in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir. Founded in 1948 as the 19th Infantry Division Ski School, it was later upgraded and redesignated to its current name to function as a nodal agency for mountain and winter warfare. The school is situated at an altitude of approximately 2,730 meters, providing an ideal environment for training personnel in diverse skills such as high-altitude survival, mountain climbing, and skiing. It plays a critical role in preparing Indian soldiers for deployment in some of the worlds highest and most inhospitable battlefields, including the Siachen Glacier and other Himalayan border regions.

16Polity and Governance
Consider the following paragraph and identify the person referred to therein using the code given below : She joined the diplomatic corps in 1949 and became the first woman diplomat of India. She was the Ambassador to Hungary, Ghana and the Netherlands. Code :
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Answer: (A) C. B. Muthamma

Explanation

C. B. Muthamma (Chonira Belliappa Muthamma) was the first woman to clear the Indian Civil Services examinations and joined the Indian Foreign Service in 1949, making her India's first woman career diplomat. Her career is notable for her successful legal challenge against the discriminatory rules of the service that required women to seek permission before marrying and allowed the government to terminate their services upon marriage. During her tenure, she served as the Ambassador to Hungary (1970–1975), the High Commissioner to Ghana (1975–1978), and finally as the Ambassador to the Netherlands (1978–1980) before her retirement.

17Geography
Consider the following features of a border district of India and identify the district using the code given below : Situated at the height of 10000 feet, which is enchanted with scenic beauty, the district is surrounded by two nations in the north and south-west. River Nyamjang-chu runs through it. Potato, maize and millet are the main crops of the district. Besides monasteries, tourist attractions of the district and its surrounding places include Sella Pass, P. Tso. Lake, War Memorial, Jaswant Garh, etc. Losar is one of the prominent festivals of the district. Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) Tawang

Explanation

Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh is situated at an average elevation of 10,000 feet and is renowned for its high-altitude landscape and scenic beauty. It occupies a strategic position, sharing international borders with Tibet (China) to the north and Bhutan to the south-west. The Nyamjang-chu is a prominent river that flows through the district after entering from Tibet. The region is home to the famous Tawang Monastery and several well-known tourist landmarks including the Sela Pass, which serves as the gateway to the district, the P. Tso (Pankang Teng Tso) Lake, the Tawang War Memorial, and Jaswant Garh, a site honoring the bravery of Rifleman Jaswant Singh Rawat during the 1962 war. Losar, the Tibetan New Year, is the most significant festival celebrated by the local Monpa population. The agro-climatic conditions of the district are suitable for the cultivation of potato, maize, and millet as the primary crops.

18Science and Technology
'AVAHAN'-the Indian segment of Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) is engaged in the prevention of
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Answer: (C) HIV/AIDS

Explanation

Avahan was launched in 2003 by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation as a massive HIV prevention initiative in India. It specifically targeted high-risk groups, such as female sex workers, men who have sex with men, and injecting drug users, as well as bridge populations like long-distance truck drivers. The program operated primarily in six Indian states with high HIV prevalence, focusing on peer-led outreach, clinical services for sexually transmitted infections, and the promotion of condom usage. By scaling up these interventions, Avahan aimed to reduce the transmission of HIV/AIDS and eventually integrated its operations into the government National AIDS Control Programme.

19Art and Culture
Consider the following paragraph and identify the person referred to in it: A Nobel Laureate in Literature, she is a member of Romania's ethnic German minority who was prosecuted for her critical depictions of life 'behind the Iron Curtain'. She made her debut in 1982 with a collection of short stories entitled 'Niederungen', which depicted the harsh life in a small, German- speaking village in Romania. This book was censored by the Communist Government.
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Answer: (C) Herta Mueller

Explanation

Herta Müller is a Romanian-born German author who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2009 for her work depicting the conditions of life under the repressive regime of Nicolae Ceaușescu. As a member of the Banat Swabians, a German-speaking minority in Romania, her writing often reflects the struggles of this community and the atmosphere of terror created by the secret police. Her first collection of short stories, Niederungen (Nadirs), was published in a heavily censored version in Romania in 1982 and portrayed the bleak, narrow life of an ethnic German village. Following continued persecution and her refusal to cooperate with the Romanian Securitate, she emigrated to West Germany in 1987. Her selection for the Nobel Prize recognized how she, with the concentration of poetry and the frankness of prose, depicts the landscape of the dispossessed.

20Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Carlos Ghosn : Nissan Motor Company 2. Bill Green : Accenture 3. Carol Bartz : Yahoo 4. Andy Bond : Vodafone Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Carlos Ghosn served as the Chairman and CEO of Nissan Motor Company during this period, famously leading the company's turnaround through its alliance with Renault. Bill Green, also known as William D. Green, was the CEO of Accenture from 2004 until late 2010 and served as its Chairman as well. Carol Bartz held the position of CEO at Yahoo, having been appointed in January 2009 to oversee the company's operations and strategic direction.

21Economy
Which one of the following Public Sector banks' emblem figures a dog and the words 'faithful, friendly' in it?
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Answer: (B) Syndicate Bank

Explanation

Syndicate Bank was established in 1925 in Manipal and evolved into a prominent public sector bank in India. Its distinctive emblem featured a dog, which was chosen as a symbol of loyalty, protection, and devotion to its customers. This visual identity was complemented by the official motto Faithful, Friendly, emphasizing the bank's core philosophy of building long-term, trustworthy relationships with its clientele. The use of the dog as a mascot was intended to humanize the institution and convey a sense of security and approachable service, distinguishing its brand identity within the Indian banking landscape during that period.

22Economy
Which one of the following countries' central bank has procured 200 metric tons of gold from the IMF in October 2009?
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Answer: (D) India

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India purchased 200 metric tons of gold from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in an off-market transaction concluded in late October 2009. This acquisition was part of the IMF's limited gold sales program, which sought to divest 403.3 metric tons of gold to provide the Fund with a more sustainable income model and enhance its ability to provide subsidized loans to poor countries. The purchase was valued at approximately $6.7 billion and was conducted at market prices prevailing during the period. This move allowed the Indian central bank to diversify its foreign currency assets and significantly increased the proportion of gold in its total official reserves during a period of global financial volatility.

23Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Name of warehead) A. Teja B. Arjun C. Dhanus D. Astra List-II 1. Air-to-air missile 2. Ship-based missile 3. Main battle tank 4. Light combat aircraft Code :
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Tejas is India's indigenous single-engine, multi-role Light Combat Aircraft designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. Arjun is a third-generation Main Battle Tank developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation, featuring indigenous Kanchan composite armor. Dhanush is a ship-launched surface-to-surface ballistic missile, which was developed as a naval variant of the Prithvi-II missile system for the Indian Navy. Astra is a beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile designed to be integrated onto fighter platforms like the Su-30MKI to engage aerial targets at high speeds.

24Economy
Piramal Life Science is a/an
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Answer: (B) drug research company

Explanation

Piramal Life Sciences Limited was an independent drug discovery and development company within the Piramal Group. It was demerged from Nicholas Piramal India Limited in 2008 to specifically focus on the research and development of New Chemical Entities (NCEs). The company maintained a robust pipeline of research projects targeting therapeutic areas such as oncology, diabetes, inflammation, and infectious diseases. By 2010, it operated a large research facility in Mumbai and was involved in conducting various levels of clinical trials to bring new pharmaceutical molecules to the market.

25Polity and Governance
Launched recently by the Central Board of Excise and Customs, 'ACES' is a
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Answer: (A) new centralized, web-based software application of the Board

Explanation

ACES, which stands for Automation of Central Excise and Service Tax, is a centralized, web-based software application developed by the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) in collaboration with Wipro. Launched as a mission-mode project under the National e-Governance Plan, it serves to automate all major business processes of Central Excise and Service Tax. The application facilitates the electronic filing of tax returns, online registration, electronic processing of claims, and provides a transparent interface between taxpayers and the department. By transitioning from manual to digital workflows, ACES significantly reduces the need for physical interaction and improves the efficiency of tax administration and compliance.

26Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States has won the overall championship title in the 63rd National Aquatic Championship held in Kerala in 2009?
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Answer: (B) Karnataka

Explanation

Karnataka maintained its long-standing dominance in Indian swimming by clinching the overall championship title at the 63rd National Aquatic Championship held at the Pirappancode Aquatic Complex in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, in August 2009. This victory marked the 18th consecutive time Karnataka secured the overall title. The state topped the points table with an impressive total of 472 points, demonstrating superior performance in both the men's and women's swimming categories. Karnataka's success was driven by a deep talent pool and consistent medal-winning performances across various strokes and distances throughout the five-day event.

27Polity and Governance
In the assembly polls that took place in three States in October 2009, the Indian National Congress got absolute majority in
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Answer: (D) Arunachal Pradesh only

Explanation

In the assembly elections held in October 2009, the Indian National Congress (INC) secured an absolute majority only in Arunachal Pradesh. In the 60-member Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly, the INC won 42 seats, comfortably crossing the majority mark of 31. In Maharashtra, the INC won 82 out of 288 seats and formed a coalition government with the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP). In Haryana, the party won 40 out of 90 seats, which was short of the 46 seats required for an absolute majority, leading it to form the government with the support of independent candidates and legislators from other parties.

28Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an issue straining Indo-China relations?
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Answer: (D) Linking Kashmir valley with the Indian Railways Network

Explanation

The linking of the Kashmir valley with the Indian Railways network is a domestic infrastructure project undertaken by the Government of India for the purpose of national integration and regional development. As an internal administrative and developmental activity within Indian territory, it does not infringe upon Chinese sovereignty or involve transboundary disputes. Unlike issues concerning international borders, transboundary river water rights, or the status of political figures, this internal transport project has not been a point of diplomatic contention or a source of bilateral strain between India and China.

29Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States has seen a series of strong public protests against the Armed Forces Special Powers Act in force in that State?
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Answer: (B) Manipur

Explanation

Manipur witnessed intense and sustained public agitations against the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) throughout the decade leading up to 2010. The movement gained global attention following the 2004 custodial death of Thangjam Manorama, which triggered unprecedented protests, including the historic naked demonstration by the Meira Paibis (Mothers of Manipur) in front of the Assam Rifles headquarters at Kangla Fort. These protests were further galvanized by the indefinite hunger strike of Irom Sharmila, which began in November 2000 following the Malom massacre. The persistent public demand for the repeal of the Act led the state government to eventually withdraw the Disturbed Areas status from the Imphal Municipal area in 2004 as a partial concession to the protesters.

30Science and Technology
Venkatraman Ramakrishnan has been jointly awarded the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his contributions in
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Answer: (A) identifying the molecular ruler in ribosomal assembly which ensures error-free synthesis of protein in cells

Explanation

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan was awarded the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his research on the structure and function of the ribosome. He used X-ray crystallography to map the 30S subunit, which is the smaller component of the ribosome responsible for decoding genetic information. His work identified a molecular ruler mechanism within the ribosome that monitors the fit between the mRNA codon and the tRNA anticodon. This mechanism involves specific ribosomal RNA bases that change shape to recognize a correct match, ensuring that only the appropriate amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain. This discovery was crucial for understanding how cells achieve extremely low error rates during the translation of genetic code into functional proteins.

31Polity and Governance
An underwater meeting held recently has drawn attention world over. The meeting was held by
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Answer: (D) the Cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for the country

Explanation

In October 2009, the Maldives government held the world first underwater cabinet meeting to draw global attention to the existential threat posed by climate change and rising sea levels. President Mohamed Nasheed and his cabinet ministers dived 6 meters below the surface off the island of Girifushi, where they used waterproof pens to sign a document calling for a reduction in global carbon emissions. As the lowest-lying nation in the world, with an average elevation of just 1.5 meters above sea level, the Maldives utilized this highly publicized event as a symbolic plea for help ahead of the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Copenhagen.

32Polity and Governance
Which Asian team will be out of the next FIFA Football World Cup for the first time after a gap of 20 years?
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Answer: (A) Saudi Arabia

Explanation

Saudi Arabia failed to qualify for the 2010 FIFA World Cup, marking their first absence from the tournament since 1990. Following their debut in 1994, the Saudi Arabian national team had established themselves as a dominant force in Asian football, qualifying for four consecutive World Cups in 1994, 1998, 2002, and 2006.

In the 2010 qualification cycle, Saudi Arabia finished third in their final-round group behind South Korea and North Korea. This led them to an AFC play-off against Bahrain to determine which team would advance to the inter-confederation play-off. After a 0-0 draw in the first leg, the second leg in Riyadh ended in a -2-2 draw. Consequently, Saudi Arabia was eliminated on the away goals rule, ending their 20-year period of successful or attempted qualification streaks that had begun after the 1990 tournament.

33Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not a football tournament?
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Answer: (B) Irani Trophy

Explanation

The Irani Trophy is a prominent first-class cricket tournament in India, established by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) during the 1959-60 season. It was created to mark the silver jubilee of the Ranji Trophy and is named in honor of Z.R. Irani, who served as a long-time treasurer and president of the BCCI. Unlike the other competitions mentioned, which are rooted in football, the Irani Trophy consists of a one-off annual match played between the reigning Ranji Trophy champions and a team representing the Rest of India, serving as a significant fixture in the Indian domestic cricket calendar.

34Art and Culture
Consider the following paragraph and identify the person referred to therein with the help of the code given below : After training under Ustad Abdul Rehman Khan of Patiala Gharana, he turned to Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan. 'Memories come Alive' is his autobiography. He was awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Code :
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Answer: (C) Manna Dey

Explanation

Manna Dey, the legendary playback singer, authored his autobiography titled Memories Come Alive, which was the English translation of his Bengali work Jiboner Jolsaghore. His musical foundation was laid by his uncle Krishna Chandra Dey, followed by rigorous training under Ustad Abdul Rehman Khan of the Patiala Gharana and later Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan. For his lifetime contribution to Indian cinema, he was honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2007, which was announced and presented in 2009.

35History
Which one of the following is the central theme of the Chipko Movement, started by Sunderla Bahuguna in 1973?
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Answer: (D) Conservation of forests

Explanation

The Chipko Movement was a non-violent social and ecological movement aimed at the conservation of forests. It originated in 1973 in the Reni village of Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, which was then part of Uttar Pradesh. The movement is characterized by the peaceful protest tactic where villagers, led significantly by women, would embrace or hug trees to prevent them from being felled by commercial loggers. Sunderlal Bahuguna, a prominent environmentalist, provided the movement with a clear ideological framework and a global platform. He advocated for the protection of the Himalayan ecology, arguing that the main products of the forests were soil, water, and oxygen rather than timber. His efforts and the grassroots resistance successfully campaigned for ecological sensitivity in government policy, resulting in a significant ban on commercial green-felling in the Himalayan regions to preserve the forest cover.

36Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the solitary aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy that turns 50 in 2009 and has the distinction of being the oldest floating airfield in service?
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Answer: (A) INS Viraat

Explanation

INS Viraat was originally commissioned into the British Royal Navy as HMS Hermes on November 18, 1959. After being acquired by India and commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1987, it completed 50 years of total service in 2009. During this period, it held the record for being the oldest aircraft carrier in active service globally and was the sole operational aircraft carrier in the Indian Navy. Often referred to as the Grand Old Lady, it served as the flagship of the Indian Fleet and provided a vital mobile platform for Sea Harrier jump jets and various naval helicopters.

37Science and Technology
In the year 2009, Japan launched its first satellite to monitor greenhouse gases. What is the name of the satellite?
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Answer: (D) Ibuki

Explanation

The Greenhouse gases Observing SATellite (GOSAT), nicknamed Ibuki, was launched by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) on January 23, 2009, from the Tanegashima Space Center. It was the first satellite in the world specifically dedicated to monitoring greenhouse gases from space. Ibuki is designed to measure the global distribution and concentration of carbon dioxide and methane, which are the two major gases responsible for the greenhouse effect. The data collected by the satellite is used to estimate the absorption and emission of these gases on a subcontinental scale, providing critical information for climate change research and supporting the verification of international carbon reduction commitments established under the Kyoto Protocol.

38Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs with respect to computer is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Plotter : An electronic device used to convert digital electronic signals to communication channel electronic signals and vice versa

Explanation

A plotter is a specialized output hardware device designed to produce high-quality vector graphics and large-scale drawings, such as architectural blueprints, engineering designs, and maps, by moving automated pens across paper. The function described in the option — converting digital electronic signals into communication channel signals and vice versa — actually defines a Modem (Modulator-Demodulator). A modem is used to enable data transmission over communication lines, such as telephone or cable lines, by modulating digital signals into analog form for transmission and demodulating incoming analog signals back into digital form for the computer to process.

39Polity and Governance
Who among the following were jointly awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2008?
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Answer: (A) M. C. Marykom, Vijender Singh, Sushil Kumar

Explanation

The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the 2008-09 period was jointly conferred upon M. C. Marykom, Vijender Singh, and Sushil Kumar. This marked the first time the award was presented to three individuals in the same year. The selection was primarily based on their historic achievements during the 2008 calendar year. Vijender Singh and Sushil Kumar were honored for winning bronze medals at the 2008 Beijing Olympics in boxing and wrestling, respectively, ending long medal droughts for India in those disciplines. M. C. Marykom was recognized for her consistent dominance in women boxing, specifically her fourth world title win at the 2008 World Boxing Championships. The awards were presented by the President of India on National Sports Day in 2009.

40Geography
If the earth did not have an atmosphere, temperature extremes between day and night would
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Answer: (A) increase

Explanation

The atmosphere functions as a thermal regulator for the planet. During the day, the atmosphere—specifically through clouds, dust, and ozone—reflects, scatters, and absorbs a portion of incoming solar radiation, which prevents the earth's surface from heating up excessively. At night, the atmosphere acts like an insulator; greenhouse gases such as water vapor and carbon dioxide trap outgoing long-wave terrestrial radiation (the greenhouse effect), preventing heat from escaping rapidly into space and keeping the surface relatively warm. Without this atmospheric blanket, the surface would receive the full intensity of solar radiation during the day and lose all its heat immediately after sunset. This lack of regulation would result in significantly higher maximum temperatures and much lower minimum temperatures, thereby increasing the temperature extremes between day and night.

41Geography
Which one of the following statements on biosphere reserves is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is situated in the state of Uttarakhand, specifically within the districts of Chamoli, Pithoragarh, and Bageshwar in the Himalayan mountain range. It was established in 1982 and was later integrated into the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2004. The reserve encompasses the Nanda Devi peak and its surrounding high-altitude glacial basins. It has no geographical connection to Madhya Pradesh, which is a state located in central India.

42Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Himalayas?
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Answer: (C) Himalayas contain three mountain ranges—Siwaliks, Great Himalayas and Kunlun Ranges

Explanation

The Himalayan mountain system is composed of three main parallel longitudinal ranges: the Greater Himalayas (Himadri), the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), and the Outer Himalayas (Siwaliks). The Kunlun Mountains are a separate mountain system located to the north of the Tibetan Plateau, forming the northern boundary of the plateau and separating it from the Tarim Basin. While the Himalayas mark the southern edge of the Tibetan Plateau, the Kunlun Mountains belong to a different tectonic belt in Central Asia. Therefore, the Kunlun Ranges are not considered one of the constituent ranges of the Himalayas.

43Geography
Which one of the following is not associated with monsoon climate in India?
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Answer: (B) South-equatorial warm currents of Indian Ocean

Explanation

The monsoon climate of India is defined by the seasonal reversal of winds and the associated atmospheric and oceanic phenomena. The South Equatorial Current is a permanent, westward-flowing warm ocean current located in the Southern Indian Ocean, typically between 10 degrees S and 20 degrees S. Driven by the Southeast Trade winds, it remains relatively stable throughout the year and does not participate in the seasonal reversal that characterizes the North Indian Ocean's monsoon currents. In contrast, factors like El Nino, Western Disturbances, and tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal are directly linked to the inter-annual variability, onset, and rainfall distribution of the Indian monsoon system.

44Geography
Which one of the following places is not located on the bank of river Ganga?
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Answer: (A) Uttarkashi

Explanation

Uttarkashi is situated on the banks of the Bhagirathi River in the state of Uttarakhand. According to geographical and hydrological nomenclature, the river is referred to as the Bhagirathi from its origin at the Gangotri Glacier until it merges with the Alaknanda River at Devprayag. The river is officially designated as the Ganga only from the point of this confluence onwards. Since Uttarkashi is located in the upper Himalayas, significantly upstream of the Devprayag confluence, it lies on the Bhagirathi and not on the main course of the river named the Ganga.

45Geography
Which is the correct arrangement of the following rivers from north to south?
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Answer: (A) Godavari, Penner, Kaveri, Periyar

Explanation

The geographic distribution of these river basins across the Indian peninsula follows a clear latitudinal gradient from north to south. The Godavari River, the largest of the peninsular rivers, originates in the Trimbakeshwar range of Maharashtra and flows eastwards through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Moving south, the Penner River originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka and flows through the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh before reaching the Bay of Bengal. Further south is the Kaveri River, which takes its rise in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu. The Periyar River is the southernmost among the options, originating in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats and flowing through the state of Kerala. This sequence aligns with their respective basin locations and drainage paths across the southern Indian landscape.

46Geography
The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is located at
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Answer: (B) 30° E longitude

Explanation

The longitudinal position of a place can be determined using the relationship between time and Earth rotation. The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, which means it covers 15° of longitude per hour (360° / 24 = 15°). If the time at a location is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), it is located to the East of the Prime Meridian; if it is behind, it is to the West. Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich, so its longitude is calculated as 2 × 15° = 30° E.

47Economy
Bolivar is the monetary unit of
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Answer: (A) Venezuela

Explanation

The bolívar is the official currency of Venezuela, named in honor of the South American independence leader Simón Bolívar. In January 2008, the Venezuelan government redenominated the currency by introducing the bolívar fuerte (strong bolívar) to replace the original bolívar at a rate of 1 to 1,000. This measure was intended to simplify transactions and manage the effects of high inflation by reducing the number of zeros in prices and financial records. The Central Bank of Venezuela is the sole authority responsible for issuing the currency and managing its exchange rate system.

48Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I A. Lithosphere B. Hydrosphere C. Atmosphere D. Biosphere List-II (Sphere of the earth) 1. Living objects 2. Mixture of gases 3. Water 4. Soil Code :
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Lithosphere corresponds to the solid outermost layer of the Earth, which includes the crust and soil where terrestrial plants grow. Hydrosphere encompasses all the water present on Earth's surface, including oceans, rivers, and ice caps. Atmosphere refers to the gaseous envelope surrounding the planet, consisting of a mixture of gases like nitrogen and oxygen. Biosphere is the specific zone where the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere interact to support living objects and biological processes.

49Geography
Which of the following seas are enclosed? 1. Andaman Sea 2. Aral Sea 3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation

The Aral Sea is an endorheic basin located in Central Asia between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan, meaning it is completely landlocked and has no natural outflow to the ocean. The Sea of Azov is situated in Eastern Europe and is often described as the most landlocked sea in the world because it is connected to the Black Sea only via the extremely narrow Strait of Kerch, which in turn connects to the Mediterranean and then the Atlantic. These bodies differ significantly from marginal seas like the Andaman Sea and Bering Sea, which maintain broad and deep connections with the open waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans respectively. Therefore, within the context of geographical isolation and restricted connectivity to global oceanic systems, the Aral Sea and the Sea of Azov are classified as enclosed seas.

50Geography
An earthquake epicentre is the
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Answer: (D) point on the surface directly above where the rupture along the fault zone occurs

Explanation

The epicenter of an earthquake is the specific point on the Earth surface located vertically above the focus or hypocenter. The focus is the actual point within the crust where the sudden release of stored energy occurs due to a rupture or movement along a fault zone. Because the epicenter is the surface location closest to the point of origin, it typically experiences the most immediate and often the most intense seismic waves. Seismologists determine the epicenter by analyzing the arrival times of P-waves and S-waves at multiple seismic stations to provide a geographic reference for the event.

51Economy
The concept of sustainable development relates to
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Answer: (D) intergenerational equity

Explanation

The concept of sustainable development is fundamentally defined by the principle of intergenerational equity, which gained global prominence following the 1987 Brundtland Commission Report, titled Our Common Future. This report defines sustainable development as development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The concept implies that the current generation holds the Earth's natural resources in trust and has a moral obligation to ensure that these resources and the environment are passed on in a state that allows future inhabitants to achieve a comparable level of well-being. This requires balancing economic growth with environmental protection and resource conservation to maintain the planet's carrying capacity over the long term.

52Geography
The jet streams are
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Answer: (C) narrow meandering bands of swift winds which blow in the midlatitudes near the tropopause and encircle the globe

Explanation

Jet streams are narrow ribbons of high-speed winds that circulate in the upper troposphere, typically near the tropopause at altitudes between 9 and 16 kilometers. These winds are driven by the significant temperature gradients between different air masses, specifically where cold polar air meets warmer tropical air. Due to the Earth rotation and the resulting Coriolis effect, these winds flow from west to east at speeds often exceeding 200 kilometers per hour. They follow a meandering path known as Rossby waves, which allows them to encircle the globe while significantly influencing weather patterns and the movement of high and low-pressure systems in the midlatitudes.

53Geography
If the movement of the earth's crust or a major climatic change makes an old stream young, it is called
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Answer: (B) rejuvenation

Explanation

Rejuvenation refers to the process where a river's erosive power is renewed, effectively reverting a landscape from an old or mature stage back to a youthful stage. This occurs when there is a change in the base level of the stream, which can be caused by tectonic movements such as the uplift of the earth's crust or by eustatic changes in sea level due to major climatic shifts. When the land rises or the sea level falls, the vertical gradient of the stream increases, giving the water more kinetic energy to resume active downcutting into its previously established floodplains or valley floors. Features associated with this process include incised meanders, knickpoints, and river terraces, all of which signify that a stream has regained the ability to erode vertically.

54Geography
Tsunamis are not caused by
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Answer: (A) hurricanes

Explanation

Hurricanes are powerful atmospheric storm systems driven by thermal energy and pressure gradients. The primary impact of a hurricane on the ocean is the creation of a storm surge, which is a rise in sea level caused by low atmospheric pressure and strong winds pushing water toward the shore. This is a surface-level meteorological event. A tsunami requires a massive displacement of the entire water column, typically initiated by geological shifts on the ocean floor. Since hurricanes operate solely through atmospheric interaction with the water surface and do not involve the tectonic or seafloor-based water displacement mechanisms necessary to move the deep-sea column, they are not a causative factor for tsunamis.

55Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to rainfall in India is/are correct? 1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the south-west monsoon. 2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from the Eastern Ghats. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

India receives the vast majority of its annual precipitation—approximately 75 to 80 percent—from the South-West monsoon between June and September. This seasonal wind system originates over the Indian Ocean and strikes the landmass in two branches, providing the crucial water supply required for the country's agriculture and economy. In the southern peninsula, the rainfall distribution is primarily governed by the orographic barrier of the Western Ghats. Moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea result in heavy rainfall on the western slopes, but as they move eastward across the Deccan Plateau, they lose moisture, creating a rain-shadow effect. Because the primary moisture source for most of the year is the Arabian Sea and the dominant topographical influence is the Western Ghats, rainfall generally decreases from west to east across the interior, making the claim that rainfall decreases away from the Eastern Ghats geographically inaccurate.

56Geography
Deltas are common in India for the east-flowing river systems, whereas they are nearly absent on the west coast, because west-flowing rivers
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Answer: (D) originate largely in the Western Ghats and have a short distance to cover to the sea

Explanation

The absence of deltas on the west coast of India is primarily due to the geographical positioning of the Western Ghats. These mountains are located very close to the Arabian Sea, acting as a water divide. Consequently, the west-flowing rivers have a very short distance to cover before reaching the sea.

Due to this short course and the steep gradient of the Western Ghats, these rivers flow with extremely high velocity. The high kinetic energy prevents the deposition of sediments at the river mouth, which is a prerequisite for delta formation. Additionally, these rivers flow over hard, crystalline rocks that are resistant to erosion, resulting in a low sediment load. Instead of forming deltas, these rivers discharge their waters into the sea through narrow, deep inlets known as estuaries.

57Economy
Which one of the following projects of the NHPC (National Hydroelectric Power Corporation) has the largest power generation capacity (installed)?
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Answer: (D) Salal

Explanation

The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. It was the first hydroelectric project built by India in Jammu and Kashmir under the Indus Waters Treaty. The project has a total installed capacity of 690 MW, which was completed in two stages. Stage I was commissioned in 1987 with a capacity of 345 MW (3 units of 115 MW each), and Stage II was commissioned between 1993 and 1995, adding another 345 MW (3 units of 115 MW each). Among the options provided, Salal's 690 MW capacity is greater than Chamera-I (540 MW), Baira-Siul (180 MW), and Loktak (105 MW).

58Geography
Which one of the following trains/ railways passes through Germany, France, Austria, Hungary and Romania?
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Answer: (C) Orient Express

Explanation

The Orient Express is the legendary long-distance passenger train service that historically linked Paris with Istanbul. Its primary route, established in the late 19th century, traversed the European continent from west to east, passing through France, Germany, Austria, Hungary, and Romania. Major cities served along this specific alignment included Paris, Strasbourg, Munich, Vienna, Budapest, and Bucharest. This international service was renowned for its luxury and its role in connecting major European capitals, providing a direct rail link through the heart of Central and Eastern Europe before reaching the Balkan Peninsula.

59Science and Technology
Which one of the following does not have a heavy water, plant?
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Answer: (B) Sriharikota

Explanation

Sriharikota is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR), a rocket launch facility operated by ISRO, and does not have a Heavy Water Plant. In India, Heavy Water Plants are operated by the Heavy Water Board under the Department of Atomic Energy at Kota (Rawatbhata), Vadodara, Hazira, Thal, Manuguru, and Tuticorin. Among the given options, Kota (Rawatbhata) hosts a Heavy Water Plant, while Sriharikota is exclusively a space launch facility with no heavy water production.

60Science and Technology
Bluetooth technology allows
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Answer: (A) wireless communication between equipments

Explanation

Bluetooth technology is a short-range wireless communication standard that enables the exchange of data between various electronic devices over short distances. It operates using radio waves in the 2.4 GHz Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) band to establish secure, low-power Personal Area Networks (PANs). This allows a wide range of equipment, including computers, mobile phones, peripherals like printers and keyboards, and audio devices, to interconnect and transfer information seamlessly without the requirement of physical cables or a direct line of sight.

61Science and Technology
At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for cooking, because the boiling point of water
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Answer: (B) reduces due to lower atmospheric pressure

Explanation

At high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower than at sea level because the weight of the air column above is reduced. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the external atmospheric pressure. Due to the lower external pressure, water reaches its boiling point at a temperature lower than 100°C. This reduced temperature is often insufficient to cook food efficiently in an open vessel. A pressure cooker is preferable because it seals the steam inside, artificially increasing the internal pressure. This higher pressure raises the boiling point of the water inside the cooker, allowing food to be cooked at a much higher temperature and significantly reducing the cooking time.

62Science and Technology
The vitamin(s), which is/are generally excreted in urine, is/are
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Answer: (C) vitamin C

Explanation

Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin that the human body cannot store in significant quantities. Once the body absorbs the necessary amount for its biological functions, such as collagen synthesis and immune support, the renal system filters the excess concentration from the blood. This surplus is then eliminated from the body through the urine. Because of its high solubility and lack of long-term storage mechanisms in adipose tissue, Vitamin C is consistently excreted whenever its plasma levels exceed the renal threshold.

63Economy
Which one among the following is a major source of sugar?
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Answer: (C) Sugarcane

Explanation

Sugarcane is the primary global source of sucrose, accounting for approximately 80 percent of the world's total sugar production. It is a perennial grass belonging to the Poaceae family that stores high concentrations of sugar in its stalks. In countries like India and Brazil, it serves as the backbone of the sugar industry. The process of sugar extraction involves crushing the harvested stalks to release juice, which is then purified, evaporated, and crystallized. Its high yield per hectare and efficient sugar accumulation make it the most economically significant crop for sugar manufacturing compared to other plants.

64Science and Technology
Itching due to insect bite is caused by
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Answer: (A) formic acid

Explanation

Formic acid (HCOOH), also known as methanoic acid, is the simplest carboxylic acid and is a common chemical defense found in nature. It is the primary irritant present in the venom of various insects, particularly ants of the Formicidae family and certain bees. When these insects bite or sting, they inject formic acid into the skin of the victim. This acid acts as a local irritant that triggers an inflammatory response in the surrounding tissues, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of redness, swelling, and a sharp itching or burning sensation.

65Science and Technology
If excess fertilizer is applied to a plant without water, the plant will
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Answer: (C) die due to plasmolysis

Explanation

Applying excess fertilizer increases the solute concentration of the soil solution, making it hypertonic relative to the cell sap of the plant roots. According to the principles of osmosis, water moves from a region of higher water potential (inside the cell) to a region of lower water potential (the soil). This process of exosmosis causes the protoplast of the plant cells to shrink and pull away from the cell wall, a phenomenon known as plasmolysis. The resulting loss of turgor pressure leads to cellular collapse, wilting, and the eventual death of the plant if the water deficit is not corrected.

66Science and Technology
Tips of leaves in grasses and common garden plants show water drops in early morning hours. This water accumulation is obtained from
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Answer: (D) hydathodes

Explanation

The appearance of water droplets on the tips of leaves in the early morning is a biological process known as guttation. This occurs through specialized structures called hydathodes, which are permanent pores located at the ends of vascular veins near the leaf margins or tips. When soil moisture is high and the transpiration rate is low—common conditions during the night and early morning—positive root pressure develops within the plant's xylem. This pressure forces water out of the leaf tissue in liquid form. Unlike dew, which is atmospheric moisture that condenses onto cold surfaces, guttation water is internal plant water expelled through these specific physiological openings.

67Economy
Which one of the following is not biodegradable?
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Answer: (B) Silver foil

Explanation

Silver foil is composed of the metallic element silver, which is an inorganic material. Biodegradation is a biochemical process where organic matter is decomposed by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi into simpler substances like water, carbon dioxide, and biomass. Metals do not possess the complex carbon-based molecular structures that microbes can metabolize for energy. Consequently, silver foil cannot be broken down by biological agents and remains in the environment indefinitely, although it may undergo physical weathering or chemical oxidation over time.

68Science and Technology
Which among the following elements is abundant on the lunar surface and holds the potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the earth?
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Answer: (C) Helium-3

Explanation

Helium-3 (³He) is a light, stable isotope of helium that is exceptionally rare on Earth but exists in vast quantities on the lunar surface. It is deposited into the lunar regolith by solar winds, as the Moon lacks a magnetic field and atmosphere to deflect these particles. Helium-3 is highly valued as a potential fuel for nuclear fusion. When fused with deuterium, the reaction is aneutronic, meaning it releases energy primarily in the form of charged particles rather than high-energy neutrons. This characteristic makes the fusion process cleaner, safer, and easier to convert into electricity with minimal radioactive byproduct. Scientists estimate that the lunar soil contains enough Helium-3 to meet the entire world's energy needs for centuries, making it a primary driver for future lunar exploration and mining.

69Science and Technology
The equipment SONAR is used to determine the
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Answer: (A) depth of the seabed

Explanation

SONAR, an acronym for Sound Navigation and Ranging, is a system that uses ultrasonic sound waves to detect and locate objects underwater or to map the seafloor. It operates on the principle of echo sounding, where a transducer sends out a pulse of sound and a receiver detects the reflected signal. By measuring the precise time interval t between the emission of the sound pulse and the reception of its echo, the depth d can be determined using the formula d = (v × t)/2, where v represents the speed of sound in water. This method allows for the accurate measurement of the distance to the seabed, providing critical data for navigation and bathymetry.

70Science and Technology
A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because banana leaf
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Answer: (C) makes the milk basic and resistant to yeast

Explanation

Banana leaves are traditionally used by milkmen to preserve milk because they contain natural polyphenols and antioxidant compounds that exhibit antimicrobial properties. The presence of the leaf helps maintain the milk in a slightly basic or alkaline state, which neutralizes the lactic acid produced by bacteria during the initial stages of spoilage. By preventing the milk from becoming acidic, the leaf slows down the curdling process and makes the environment resistant to the growth of yeast and other fermenting microorganisms, thereby increasing the shelf life of the milk during transportation.

71Science and Technology
The coil in a heater is made of
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Answer: (A) nichrome

Explanation

Nichrome is an alloy consisting primarily of nickel and chromium that is specifically designed for use as a heating element. It possesses high electrical resistivity, which ensures that it efficiently converts electrical energy into heat through Joule heating, defined by the relation H = I²Rt. Furthermore, nichrome has a high melting point and exceptional resistance to oxidation at high temperatures. When heated to a red-hot state, it forms a stable outer layer of chromium oxide that prevents further chemical degradation of the metal, allowing the coil to operate continuously in open air without breaking or burning out.

72Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II A. Wine 1. Barley B. Beer 2. Sugarcane juice C. Whisky 3. Grapes D. Rum 4. Molasses Code :
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2

Explanation

Wine - Grapes: This beverage is produced through the fermentation of the sugars naturally present in grapes.

Beer - Barley: This is a brewed drink made from cereal grains, most commonly using malted barley as the starch source.

Whisky - Molasses: While traditionally grain-based, in several industrial contexts like India, it is produced from spirits derived from molasses.

Rum - Sugarcane juice: This distilled spirit is made from sugarcane byproducts or through the fermentation of fresh sugarcane juice.

73Geography
Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?
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Answer: (A) Nerium

Explanation

Nerium oleander, commonly known as Kaner, is a hardy evergreen shrub extensively planted along road medians and highways due to its high Air Pollution Tolerance Index (APTI). It is particularly effective at absorbing and sequestering various vehicular pollutants, including toxic gases like sulfur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), and carbon monoxide (CO). Additionally, Nerium acts as a biological filter for heavy metals, specifically lead (Pb), which it can accumulate from vehicular exhaust without sustaining significant physiological damage. Its ability to thrive in the harsh, high-temperature, and water-stressed environments typical of roadside verges makes it an ideal choice for urban green belts designed to mitigate atmospheric pollution and trap suspended particulate matter (SPM).

74Science and Technology
Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles?
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Answer: (D) Ajinomoto

Explanation

Ajinomoto is the commercial brand name for Monosodium Glutamate (MSG), which is the sodium salt of the naturally occurring non-essential amino acid known as glutamic acid. It functions as a powerful flavor enhancer by stimulating specific receptors on the tongue to produce a savory taste profile referred to as umami. In the culinary preparation of noodles, particularly within Asian and Indo-Chinese cuisines, Ajinomoto is frequently used to intensify the depth of flavor and provide a characteristic richness to the dish. It was developed in the early 20th century and became a staple additive in processed foods and restaurant cooking to achieve a balanced and appetizing taste.

75Science and Technology
A boy throws four stones of same shape, size and weight with equal speed at different initial angles with the horizontal line. If the angles are 15°, 30°, 45° and 60°, at which angle the stone will cover the maximum distance horizontally?
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Answer: (C) 45°

Explanation

The horizontal range R of a projectile launched with an initial velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal is given by the formula R = u² sin(2θ)/g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. For a constant initial speed u, the range R is directly proportional to sin(2θ).

The maximum value of the sine function is 1, which occurs when the argument is 90°. Therefore, the range is maximized when sin(2θ) = 1, which implies 2θ = 90°, or θ = 45°. At this angle, the stone achieves the greatest horizontal displacement before returning to the same vertical level. For the other given angles of 15°, 30°, and 60°, the value of sin(2θ) is less than 1, resulting in a shorter horizontal distance.

76Science and Technology
The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is due to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by
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Answer: (D) forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of the aggregates

Explanation

Surfactant molecules in soaps and detergents possess a dual chemical nature, consisting of a hydrophilic (water-attracting) polar head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) non-polar hydrocarbon tail. When these molecules are added to water, they spontaneously organize into spherical clusters known as micelles. In this arrangement, the hydrophobic tails point inward to avoid contact with water, creating a non-polar core, while the hydrophilic heads face outward to interact with the water. Since most dirt and grease are non-polar and hydrophobic, they are attracted to the hydrophobic interior of the micelle. The surfactant molecules trap the dirt particles within the core of these aggregates, forming a stable emulsion that remains suspended in the water. This process allows the insoluble grime to be lifted from the fabric and washed away during rinsing.

77Science and Technology
The most familiar form of radiant energy in sunlight that causes tanning and sunburning of human skin, is called
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Answer: (A) ultraviolet radiation

Explanation

Ultraviolet radiation is the component of the solar electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths shorter than visible light, typically ranging from 100 nm to 400 nm. Because ultraviolet photons possess higher energy than visible or infrared light, they can penetrate the outer layers of human skin and cause photochemical reactions. Tanning occurs when the skin produces more melanin to protect itself from this radiation, while sunburning is an inflammatory response to the cellular and DNA damage caused by overexposure, particularly to the UV-B and UV-A bands of sunlight.

78Science and Technology
The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc., is
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Answer: (C) Orlon

Explanation

Orlon is the trade name for polyacrylonitrile, a synthetic polymer produced through the addition polymerization of acrylonitrile monomers. It is extensively used as a substitute for wool in the textile industry because it mimics the natural fibre properties of being soft, warm, and lightweight. Additionally, Orlon is highly resistant to moths, chemicals, and sunlight, making it a durable choice for manufacturing synthetic blankets, sweaters, and various types of knitwear.

79Economy
Which one of the following plants is used for green manuring in India?
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Answer: (B) Sunhemp

Explanation

Sunhemp (Crotalaria juncea) is a prominent leguminous crop extensively utilized for green manuring across various agro-climatic zones in India. It is preferred due to its ability to grow rapidly and produce a significant amount of succulent biomass in a short period. Being a legume, it facilitates biological nitrogen fixation through Rhizobium bacteria in its root nodules, contributing approximately 80 to 100 kilograms of nitrogen per hectare to the soil. When the crop is incorporated into the soil at the flowering stage, it decomposes quickly, improving soil aeration, water-holding capacity, and overall nutrient content for the following main crop.

80Economy
Which among the following are the major reasons behind preferring Eucalyptus tree in the planned forestation process? 1. Plantation grows very fast. 2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile. 3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is easily converted into pulp for paper industry. - Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Eucalyptus trees are widely preferred in planned forestation and commercial plantations primarily because they are one of the fastest-growing hardwood species in the world. This rapid growth allows for short rotation periods, enabling quick timber production and higher economic returns compared to most indigenous species. Additionally, Eucalyptus wood is an excellent source of raw material for the paper industry. Its high cellulose content and specific fiber length make it easily convertible into high-quality pulp, which is essential for manufacturing various grades of paper and cardboard. These industrial and economic advantages drive its large-scale cultivation in social forestry programs.

81Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Alloy) (Constituent) A. Solder 1. Iron and Carbon B. Brass 2. Copper and Zinc C. Bronze 3. Copper and Tin D. Steel 4. Lead and Tin Code :
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Answer: (B) 4 2 3 1

Explanation

A matches with 4: Solder is a fusible alloy used for joining metal parts, traditionally composed of a mixture of Lead (Pb) and Tin (Sn).

B matches with 2: Brass is a versatile metallic alloy formed by the combination of Copper (Cu) and Zinc (Zn).

C matches with 3: Bronze is a historical and structural alloy consisting primarily of Copper (Cu) with Tin (Sn) as the main additive.

D matches with 1: Steel is a crucial industrial alloy made of Iron (Fe) and a small amount of Carbon (C), which increases the strength and fracture resistance of the metal.

82Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : 1. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make adrenaline. 2. Iodine deficiency leads to goiter in human beings. 3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas and helps in regulating cholesterol level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 only

Explanation

Iodine is an essential trace element required specifically by the thyroid gland for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, such as thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). When the body lacks sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce these hormones effectively, leading to a compensatory enlargement of the gland known as goiter. Adrenaline is a hormone synthesized in the adrenal glands from the amino acid tyrosine and does not involve iodine in its chemical structure. Similarly, the pancreas is responsible for secreting digestive enzymes and hormones like insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels; it does not secrete iodine, nor is iodine's primary physiological role the regulation of cholesterol by the pancreas. Thus, statement 2 is the only factually correct statement among those provided.

83Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : 1. A person with myopia can see distant objects distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly. 2. A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly. 3. A person with presbyopia can see nearby objects without corrective glasses. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because myopia, also known as nearsightedness, is a vision condition in which people can see objects near them clearly but objects farther away appear blurry. Statement 2 is incorrect because hypermetropia, or farsightedness, is a condition where distant objects can be seen clearly but nearby objects appear out of focus. Statement 3 is incorrect because presbyopia is an age-related condition where the eye's lens loses its flexibility, making it increasingly difficult to focus on nearby objects, thereby requiring corrective glasses for reading or close-up work. Since all three statements accurately describe the inverse of each condition, they are all false.

84Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Item) (Toxic substance) A. CFL lamp 1. Nitrogen oxides B. Automobile battery 2. Phthalates C. Polymer 3. Lead D. Diesel engine 4. Mercury Code :
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) contain mercury vapor which is essential for the production of ultraviolet light when electricity passes through the tube. Automobile batteries are typically lead-acid batteries that utilize lead plates and lead oxide to facilitate the chemical reaction that stores and releases electrical energy. Polymers often utilize phthalates as plasticizers to increase the flexibility and durability of the material. Diesel engines emit nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) as a major pollutant because the high-pressure and high-temperature combustion environment causes nitrogen in the intake air to react with oxygen.

85Economy
Some statements about the benefits of organic farming are given below. Indicate whether they are true or false using the code given below the statements: 1. It reduces CO₂ emission. 2. It does not lead to toxic effect. 3. It improves the water-retention capacity of the soil. Code: 1 2 3
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Answer: (D) True True True

Explanation

Organic farming significantly reduces CO₂ emissions by sequestering carbon in the soil through increased organic matter and by eliminating the use of energy-intensive synthetic fertilizers. It avoids toxic effects because it prohibits the use of synthetic pesticides and chemical fertilizers that leave hazardous residues in the environment and the food chain. Additionally, the consistent application of organic manures improves soil structure and increases the level of soil organic carbon, which directly enhances the water-retention capacity of the soil, making crops more resilient to water stress.

86Science and Technology
Which one of the following chemicals is commonly used by farmers to destroy weeds?
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Answer: (D) 2,4-D

Explanation

2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, commonly known as 2,4-D, is a widely used systemic herbicide that acts as a synthetic auxin. It mimics natural plant growth hormones, causing uncontrolled and unsustainable growth in broadleaf weeds, which eventually leads to their death. Because it is a selective herbicide, it effectively targets dicotyledonous weeds while leaving monocotyledonous crops such as wheat, maize, and rice relatively unharmed. This selectivity and its relatively low cost have made it one of the most common chemicals used by farmers worldwide for weed management in cereal production and pasture maintenance.

87Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: 1. Clear sky appears blue due to poor scattering of blue wavelength of visible light. 2. Red part of light shows more scattering than blue light in the atmosphere. 3. In the absence of atmosphere, there would be no scattering of light and sky will look black. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

The scattering of light in the atmosphere is governed by Rayleigh scattering, which states that the intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength, I ∝ 1/λ⁴. Since blue light has a shorter wavelength compared to red light, it is scattered much more efficiently by atmospheric molecules, which causes the clear sky to appear blue. Red light, having a longer wavelength, undergoes the least amount of scattering. Because scattering requires the presence of gas molecules or dust particles, the absence of an atmosphere means there is no medium to redirect sunlight toward an observer from different parts of the sky. In such a vacuum, the sky appears completely black, as observed by astronauts in space.

88Science and Technology
Which one among the following plants cannot be multiplied by cuttings?
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Answer: (C) Banana

Explanation

Banana is a large herbaceous monocot that lacks a true woody aerial stem. The visible part of the plant that resembles a trunk is actually a pseudostem, which is composed of tightly packed, overlapping leaf sheaths. Because the pseudostem does not contain the functional nodes and internodes or the cambium layer necessary for regeneration, it cannot be used to produce new plants through traditional stem cuttings. Instead, bananas are propagated vegetatively through the use of suckers, which are lateral shoots that develop from the underground true stem known as a rhizome or corm. In commercial agriculture, bits of these rhizomes or tissue culture are also used for multiplication, but standard aerial cuttings are biologically ineffective for this species.

89Science and Technology
Hair of a shaving brush cling together when the brush is removed from water due to
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Answer: (B) surface tension

Explanation

Surface tension is the property of a liquid surface that causes it to behave like a stretched elastic membrane, tending to minimize its surface area. When a shaving brush is taken out of water, a thin film of water forms between the individual bristles. The force of surface tension acts on this film, causing the water surface to contract to reach its lowest energy state. As the water film shrinks to its smallest possible extent, it exerts a lateral force that pulls the adjacent hairs of the brush together, causing them to cling to one another.

90Economy
Consider the following statements with regard to Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) : 1. To meet SLR, commercial banks can use cash only. 2. SLR is maintained by the banks with themselves. 3. SLR restricts the banks' leverage in pumping more money into the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a requirement under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which mandates that commercial banks maintain a specific proportion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of liquid assets. These assets are not limited to cash; they can be held in the form of cash, gold, or unencumbered investment in approved securities, such as government bonds and treasury bills.

A key characteristic of SLR is that it is maintained by the banks themselves, rather than being deposited with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This ensures that banks always possess a minimum amount of liquid assets to meet any sudden demand from depositors. Furthermore, SLR acts as a monetary policy instrument to regulate the flow of credit in the economy. By increasing the SLR, the RBI forces banks to lock a larger portion of their resources into government securities and liquid assets, thereby reducing the funds available for lending to the commercial sector. This effectively restricts the banks' leverage and their ability to pump excess money into the economy, helping to control inflation and credit expansion.

91Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (D) 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 3 is correct because the Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The committee was constituted to suggest changes to the Constitution during the Emergency to emphasize that citizens have certain obligations alongside their rights.

Statement 4 is correct because the Fundamental Duties enumerated in Article 51A are applicable exclusively to the citizens of India. Unlike some Fundamental Rights, such as the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, which are available to all persons including foreigners, the constitutional mandates regarding duties do not extend to non-citizens. These duties serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while the Constitution specifically confers on them certain fundamental rights, it also requires them to observe certain basic norms of democratic conduct.

92History
When Lord Mountbatten became the first Governor-General of India, who among the following became the Governor-General for Pakistan?
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Answer: (B) M. A. Jinnah

Explanation

Muhammad Ali Jinnah was appointed as the first Governor-General of Pakistan upon the country's creation on August 14, 1947. As the Qaid-e-Azam of the Pakistan movement, he assumed this executive role to provide stability and leadership to the new nation during its formative period. He remained in this office until his death in September 1948, working to establish the legal and administrative framework of the state under the Government of India Act 1935, which served as the interim constitution for the Dominion of Pakistan.

93Polity and Governance
'Diarchy' was first introduced in India under
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Answer: (B) Montford Reforms

Explanation

The system of Diarchy, or dual government, was introduced at the provincial level by the Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford (or Montford) Reforms. Under this system, the provincial subjects of administration were divided into two categories: Transferred and Reserved. Transferred subjects, such as education, agriculture, and local self-government, were administered by the Governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council. Reserved subjects, such as police, justice, and finance, were administered by the Governor and his Executive Council without being responsible to the legislature. This marked the first formal implementation of a division of executive powers in the British Indian administration.

94Economy
Which one of the following is a major source of sugar?
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Answer: (C) Sugarcane

Explanation

Sugarcane (Saccharum officinarum) is the primary global source of sucrose, accounting for approximately 80 percent of the world's total sugar production. It is a tropical and subtropical grass that stores large quantities of sugar in its fibrous stalks. The extraction process involves crushing the stalks to obtain juice, which is then refined into granulated sugar. In India and many other tropical countries, sugarcane is the dominant commercial crop for the sugar industry due to its high yield and efficiency in converting solar energy into chemical energy stored as sucrose.

95Science and Technology
Itching due to
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Answer: (A) formic acid

Explanation

Formic acid (HCOOH), also known as methanoic acid, is the primary chemical responsible for the itching and stinging sensation associated with insect bites, particularly those from ants and bees. The name is derived from the Latin word formica, meaning ant, as the substance was historically obtained by the distillation of ant bodies. When injected into the skin during a bite or sting, formic acid acts as a potent irritant that causes immediate pain followed by persistent itching and localized swelling. It is also found in the trichomes of stinging nettle plants, where it serves as a chemical defense mechanism to cause irritation and discomfort to any organism that brushes against it.

96Polity and Governance
For which one of the following judgments of the Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of India case is considered a landmark?
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Answer: (C) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined in the Preamble, cannot be changed

Explanation

In the 1973 case of Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala, a 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India—the largest ever constituted—propounded the landmark Basic Structure Doctrine. The court ruled that while Article 368 of the Constitution grants Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, this power is not absolute and does not include the power to alter its basic structure or fundamental features. The judgment established that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and contains its basic elements. By defining this doctrine, the Supreme Court ensured that the essential identity of the Constitution, including principles such as democracy, secularism, and federalism, remains protected from being abrogated or destroyed by legislative amendments.

97Polity and Governance
Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Morarji Desai

Explanation

In July 1979, the Leader of the Opposition, Y.B. Chavan, moved the first-ever successful No-Confidence Motion against the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government. As the debate progressed, it became evident that the government had lost its majority due to large-scale defections led by Chaudhary Charan Singh and Raj Narain. To avoid the certain defeat and humiliation of a formal vote, Morarji Desai resigned from the post of Prime Minister on July 15, 1979, before the motion could be put to a final vote in the Lok Sabha.

While Chaudhary Charan Singh also resigned before a floor test, he was required to seek a Vote of Confidence (to prove his majority) rather than facing a No-Confidence Motion. Similarly, V.P. Singh actually faced the house and lost a Vote of Confidence in 1990, and Chandra Shekhar resigned in 1991 following the withdrawal of support by the Congress (I) before any formal motion was voted upon. Thus, Morarji Desai is the specific instance of a Prime Minister resigning while a No-Confidence Motion was active but before the actual vote took place.

98History
Which one of the following statements related to the Boston Tea Party of 16th December, 1773 during the American War of Independence is correct?
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Answer: (A) The revolutionaries stealthily entered into the ships and threw all the chests of tea into the water

Explanation

The Boston Tea Party was a significant political protest organized by the Sons of Liberty in Boston, on December 16, 1773. The demonstration was directed against the Tea Act of 1773, which allowed the British East India Company to sell tea from China in American colonies without paying taxes other than those imposed by the Townshend Acts. During the event, a group of colonists, some disguised as Native Americans, boarded three trade ships in Boston Harbor—the Dartmouth, the Eleanor, and the Beaver. They systematically broke open 342 chests of tea and threw the contents into the water to protest against British taxation policies and the lack of colonial representation in the British Parliament.

99Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and the area of the State. 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The 84th Amendment Act, 2001, authorized the readjustment and rationalization of territorial constituencies within each state based on the population figures of the 1991 census (which was later updated to the 2001 census by the 87th Amendment). This provision lifted the freeze on the delimitation of internal constituency boundaries that had been imposed by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which had prohibited such changes until after the year 2000. Although the 84th Amendment extended the freeze on the total number of seats allocated to each state in the Lok Sabha until 2026, it allowed for the redrawing of constituency boundaries within a state to ensure more equitable representation based on population shifts. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 81 of the Constitution mandates that the allocation of seats to the states be determined solely by population to maintain a uniform ratio of seats to population across the country; the physical area of a state is not a criterion for seat distribution.

100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Right to education

Explanation

The Right to Education is recognized as both a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution and a Human Right under international law. Article 21A was inserted into the Constitution of India via the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making free and compulsory education for children aged six to fourteen a Fundamental Right. This constitutional mandate was implemented through the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came into force on April 1, 2010. Additionally, the right to education is a cornerstone of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), where Article 26 explicitly states that everyone has the right to education and that it shall be free and compulsory in its initial stages.

101History
Which one of the following Commissions/Committees was appointed by the British Government to investigate into the massacre in Jalianwalla Bagh?
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Answer: (B) Hunter Committee

Explanation

The British Government constituted the Disorders Inquiry Committee on October 14, 1919, to investigate the shooting incident at Jallianwala Bagh and the widespread civil unrest in Punjab, Delhi, and Bombay. This committee is widely known as the Hunter Committee after its chairman, Lord William Hunter, a former Solicitor-General for Scotland. The committee was tasked with inquiring into the causes of the disturbances and the military measures taken to suppress them. It included both British and Indian members, such as Sir Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad, Pandit Jagat Narayan, and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan Ahmed Khan. During the inquiry, the committee examined the testimony of General Dyer, who admitted that his actions were intended to produce a moral effect and strike terror into the population. The final report, submitted in March 1920, provided an official colonial account of the massacre and the subsequent imposition of martial law.

102History
Consider the following statements and identify the person referred to therein with the help of the code given below : During his stay in England, he endeavored to educate the British people about their responsibilities as rulers of India. He delivered speeches and published articles to support his opposition to the unjust and oppressive regime of the British Raj. In 1867, he helped to establish the East India Association of which he became the Honorary Secretary. Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, founded the East India Association in London in 1866, which became fully operational in 1867. The primary objective of this association was to provide a platform for Indian grievances and to educate the British public and Members of Parliament about the responsibilities of the British government toward its Indian subjects. Serving as the Honorary Secretary of the organization, Naoroji delivered numerous speeches and wrote extensively to expose the economic exploitation of India, most notably through his Drain of Wealth theory. His work in England was aimed at mobilizing British opinion to support political reforms and to challenge the oppressive nature of the British Raj.

103Art and Culture
Which two of the following plays did Kalidasa write before writing Abhigyanashakuntalam? 1. Vikramorvashiyam 2. Malavikagnimitram 3. Swapnavasavadattam 4. Kadambari Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

Kalidasa is the author of three major Sanskrit plays, traditionally believed to have been written in the order of Malavikagnimitram, followed by Vikramorvashiyam, and finally Abhigyanashakuntalam. Malavikagnimitram is regarded as his earliest dramatic work, depicting the courtly love between King Agnimitra and the dancer Malavika. Vikramorvashiyam is his second play, based on the Vedic myth of the love between the mortal King Pururavas and the celestial nymph Urvashi. Since Abhigyanashakuntalam represents the culmination of his poetic and dramatic career, both Malavikagnimitram and Vikramorvashiyam were written before it.

104Art and Culture
Use of white marble, long legs and slender frames, human beings as central characters and prominence of kings, princess and palaces were the characteristic features of which one of the following ancient art forms of India?
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Answer: (A) Amaravati School of Art

Explanation

The Amaravati School of Art developed in the lower Krishna-Godavari valley under the patronage of the Satavahana and Ikshvaku dynasties. It is uniquely characterized by the use of white marble or white limestone for its sculptures and reliefs. Stylistically, the figures in this school are known for their physical grace, slender frames, and elongated limbs, particularly long legs, which convey a sense of movement and vitality. The art is predominantly narrative in nature, focusing on the life of the Buddha and Jataka stories through complex compositions that place human beings as central characters. These reliefs frequently depict secular themes, showing a high prominence of kings, princesses, courtly life, and ornate palaces, reflecting the social and royal environment of the period.

105History
Who drafted the Constitution of Muslim League, 'The Green Book'?
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Answer: (D) Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar

Explanation

The All India Muslim League was established in December 1906 during the meeting of the All India Muhammadan Educational Conference at Dhaka. To provide a formal structure and set of objectives for the newly formed political party, a constitution was required. Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar drafted the rules and regulations of the League, which were compiled and published under the title The Green Book. This document served as the foundational legal framework for the organization, detailing its aims such as safeguarding Muslim interests and fostering a sense of loyalty toward the British government among the Muslims of India. Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar, who later became a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement and served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1923, is thus credited with giving the Muslim League its initial constitutional shape.

106History
26th October, 1947 is an important date in the Indian history, because of
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Answer: (A) Maharaja Hari Singh's signing of Instrument of Accession

Explanation

On 26th October 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh, the ruler of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, signed the legal document known as the Instrument of Accession. This event took place amidst a crisis where the state was being invaded by tribal militias supported by the Pakistani military. Under the provisions of the Indian Independence Act 1947, the Maharaja exercised his right to join either India or Pakistan by signing this document, thereby formally acceding the territory to the Dominion of India. The signing of the Instrument of Accession granted the Indian government jurisdiction over the state in matters of defense, external affairs, and communications. This legal act provided the necessary authority for the Indian government to airlift troops to Srinagar on the following day to defend the region from the invaders.

107Polity and Governance
The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in 1950 to resolve the issue of
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Answer: (A) the protection of minorities

Explanation

The Nehru-Liaquat Pact, also known as the Delhi Pact, was signed on April 8, 1950, by the Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan. The agreement was a response to the severe communal violence and the resulting displacement of people in East Pakistan and West Bengal following the Partition. Its primary goal was to guarantee the security, rights, and equality of minorities in both nations. Under the pact, both governments committed to providing minorities with complete equality of citizenship, security of life and property, and freedom of movement and worship. It also established Minority Commissions in both countries to monitor the implementation of these safeguards and address grievances, aiming to prevent further exodus and restore confidence among minority communities.

108History
Consider the following statements relating to the famous Muzaffarpur murders (1908): 1. The bomb, which was hurled at the carriage of Mrs. Pringle and her daughter, was actually intended for Mr. Kingsford, the District Judge of Muzaffarpur. 2. The revolutionaries wanted to kill Mr. Kingsford, because he had inflicted severe punishments on Swadeshi activists. 3. Khudiram and Prafulla Chaki had to pay the penalty for their action by death. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Muzaffarpur conspiracy of 1908 was a revolutionary act carried out by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki of the Jugantar group. The primary objective was the assassination of Douglas Kingsford, the District Judge of Muzaffarpur, who had earned notoriety for inflicting brutal punishments, including public floggings, on Swadeshi and anti-partition activists during his previous tenure as the Chief Presidency Magistrate in Calcutta. On the night of April 30, 1908, the revolutionaries threw a bomb at a carriage exiting the European Club, believing it contained Kingsford. However, the carriage actually belonged to Pringle Kennedy, and the explosion killed his wife and daughter. Following the incident, Prafulla Chaki committed suicide at Mokama Ghat to evade capture, while Khudiram Bose was arrested, tried, and subsequently executed by hanging on August 11, 1908. Both revolutionaries died as a consequence of their attempt to assassinate the judge.

109History
The 'Dual Government' recommended by Lord Clive provided that the
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Answer: (A) criminal justice would be left to the Nawabi officials, while civil and fiscal matters would be controlled by the Company

Explanation

The Dual System of Government was introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive in 1765 following the Treaty of Allahabad. Under this arrangement, the functions of the government were divided into Diwani and Nizamat. The East India Company acquired the Diwani rights, which granted them the authority to collect revenues and decide civil judicial cases. The Nizamat functions, which included the administration of criminal justice, maintenance of law and order, and defense, were left to the Nawab of Bengal and his officials. This system created a situation where the Company possessed all the financial and military power without any administrative responsibility, while the Nawab bore the entire responsibility for the administration and criminal justice without any independent source of income or power.

110History
After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the Brahmo Samaj split into two sections; the Brahmo Samaj of India and the Adi Brahmo Samaj. Who were the leaders of the two sections respectively?
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Answer: (A) Keshab Chandra Sen and Debendranath Tagore

Explanation

The first major schism in the Brahmo Samaj occurred in 1866 due to ideological differences between the conservative and progressive factions. Keshab Chandra Sen, who advocated for radical social reforms such as the abolition of caste distinctions and the promotion of inter-caste marriages, led the breakaway group which adopted the name Brahmo Samaj of India. Conversely, Debendranath Tagore preferred a more cautious approach that remained closer to Hindu traditions and the original Vedantic philosophy of Raja Rammohan Roy. His group retained control of the original organization and became known as the Adi Brahmo Samaj to distinguish itself as the original body. This split reflected the broader tensions within the nineteenth-century Bengal Renaissance between universalist reformism and traditionalist preservation.

111Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: UNESCO's World Heritage mission is to 1. take over the management, maintenance and preservation of World Heritage sites. 2. encourage State parties to the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage to nominate sites within their national territory for inclusion on the World Heritage List. 3. provide emergency assistance for World Heritage sites in immediate danger. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

UNESCO encourages State Parties to the World Heritage Convention to nominate sites of outstanding universal value within their borders for inclusion on the World Heritage List. This mission involves supporting the establishment of management plans and reporting systems for these sites to ensure their long-term protection. Additionally, UNESCO provides emergency assistance to sites facing imminent destruction or significant threats, such as those caused by sudden natural disasters or armed conflicts, primarily through the mechanisms of the World Heritage Fund and the List of World Heritage in Danger. This assistance is designed to provide immediate technical or financial support to stabilize and protect heritage sites in crisis.

112History
Which one of the following statements regarding Harappan civilization is correct?
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Answer: (D) The inhabitants of Harappa grew and used cotton

Explanation

The Harappan civilization is credited with being the first in the world to cultivate cotton and manufacture textiles from it. Archaeological excavations at Mohenjo-daro yielded significant evidence in the form of a fragment of woven cotton cloth found attached to a silver vase. Furthermore, the recovery of numerous terracotta spindle whorls from various sites across the Indus Valley indicates that spinning and weaving were common household activities. The Greeks later referred to cotton as sindon, which is a derivative of Sindhu, the Sanskrit name for the Indus River, highlighting the historical association of the region with cotton production.

113Polity and Governance
Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be provided in India? 1. One should be born in India. 2. Either of whose parents was born in India. 3. Who has been ordinary resident of India for not less than five years. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) Either 1 or 2 or 3

Explanation

Article 5 of the Indian Constitution defines the requirements for citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950. It states that every person who has their domicile in the territory of India and fulfills any one of the three alternative conditions shall be a citizen of India. These conditions are: being born in the territory of India, having either parent born in the territory of India, or being an ordinary resident in India for not less than five years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution. The use of the word or in the legal text signifies that these criteria are disjunctive, meaning that the satisfaction of any single condition is sufficient for the provision of citizenship. Therefore, the eligibility is based on fulfilling either the first, the second, or the third condition.

114Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. The current global economic crisis owes its genesis to the subprime crisis in the United States. 2. The Indian economy is showing a faster recovery from the economic crisis than its western counterparts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The global financial crisis that began in 2008 was fundamentally rooted in the subprime mortgage crisis in the United States, where a sharp rise in home foreclosures led to the collapse of major financial institutions and a systemic credit crunch worldwide. Regarding the recovery process, the Indian economy demonstrated significant resilience compared to its Western counterparts. While developed economies in North America and Europe faced deep recessions, negative growth rates, and high unemployment, India maintained positive growth and achieved a rapid V-shaped recovery. This was driven by strong domestic consumption, conservative banking regulations that limited exposure to toxic assets, and proactive fiscal and monetary measures, with GDP growth rebounding toward 8 percent by the 2009-2010 period.

115History
Which one of the following inscriptions mentions Pulakesin II's military success against Harshavardhana?
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Answer: (B) Aihole Inscription

Explanation

The Aihole Inscription, issued in 634 CE, was composed by Ravikirti, the court poet of the Chalukya King Pulakesin II. Located at the Meguti Jain temple in Aihole, Karnataka, this Sanskrit prashasti provides a detailed account of Pulakesin II's various military campaigns and victories. It specifically highlights his decisive victory over the Pushyabhuti ruler Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada River. The text employs a pun on Harsha's name, stating that the emperor's mirth (harsha) vanished when he was defeated by Pulakesin II. This conflict checked Harsha's southward expansion and solidified Pulakesin II's status as the sovereign of Dakshinapatha.

116Polity and Governance
The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act mentions of the
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Answer: (C) functions of the State Finance Commission

Explanation

The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992, introduced Part IXA to the Constitution, which deals with the Municipalities. Under Article 243-Y of this Part, the State Finance Commission, which is primarily constituted under Article 243-I (via the 73rd Amendment), is mandated to review the financial position of the Municipalities. The Commission makes recommendations to the Governor regarding the principles that should govern the distribution between the State and the Municipalities of the net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees leviable by the State. It also determines the grants-in-aid to be given to Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State and suggests measures to improve their overall financial health. This ensures a constitutional mechanism for the fiscal empowerment and resource allocation of urban local bodies.

117Polity and Governance
Which one of the following International Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified?
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Answer: (D) Convention on the nationality of married women

Explanation

India signed the Convention on the Nationality of Married Women on May 15, 1957. This international treaty, adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, was designed to ensure that a woman's nationality would not be automatically affected by her marriage to a foreigner or by her husband's change of nationality. While India became a signatory to the instrument to signal its support for these principles, it did not proceed to the formal stage of ratification. By the year 2010, the convention remained signed by India but had not yet been ratified, as the government did not complete the final legal process required for the treaty to become binding under international law.

118Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. The gross revenue from the telecom sector in India accounts for 3% of the GDP (2009). 2. Centre for Development of Telematics is better known as C-DOT. 3. The switch from digital technology to the analog system revolutionized telephony in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Indian telecommunications sector experienced significant expansion in the late 2000s. According to the India Year Book 2010 and contemporary economic reports, the gross revenue from the telecom sector accounted for approximately 3% of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in 2009, reflecting its role as a key driver of the services sector.

The Centre for Development of Telematics is an autonomous research and development institution under the Department of Telecommunications, Government of India. Established in 1984, it is universally known by its acronym, C-DOT. The organization was instrumental in the indigenous development of digital switching technology, which was specifically designed to handle the high-traffic and harsh environmental conditions of the Indian subcontinent, facilitating the rapid expansion of the telephony network.

119Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Concordat : 1. It is an agreement between the Roman Catholic Church and the State. 2. The President of Brazil did not sign a Concordat during the Pope Benedict XVI's visit to Brazil in 2007. 3. Concordat of 2009 was signed between the Holy See and Portugal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

A Concordat is a formal agreement or treaty between the Holy See (the leadership of the Roman Catholic Church) and a sovereign state. It defines the legal relationship between the Church and the state regarding matters such as the legal status of the Church, religious education, property rights, and the appointment of bishops.

In May 2007, Pope Benedict XVI visited Brazil. During this visit, President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva did not sign a Concordat. While the Vatican pushed for a treaty to solidify the Church's legal standing in the country, the Brazilian government deferred the signing to maintain the secular character of the state and address concerns raised by other religious groups. The agreement (the Statute of the Catholic Church in Brazil) was eventually signed on November 13, 2008, in Vatican City and ratified by the Brazilian Congress in 2009.

The major Concordat between the Holy See and Portugal was signed in 2004, which replaced the Concordat of 1940. Although a supplementary agreement regarding religious assistance to the Portuguese Armed Forces and Security Forces was signed in February 2009, the term Concordat of 2009 is not used to describe the primary diplomatic framework between the two entities.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4C
  5. 5D
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8B
  9. 9D
  10. 10A
  11. 11D
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15A
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19C
  20. 20D
  21. 21B
  22. 22D
  23. 23A
  24. 24B
  25. 25A
  26. 26B
  27. 27D
  28. 28D
  29. 29B
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32A
  33. 33B
  34. 34C
  35. 35D
  36. 36A
  37. 37D
  38. 38D
  39. 39A
  40. 40A
  41. 41C
  42. 42C
  43. 43B
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49C
  50. 50D
  51. 51D
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55A
  56. 56D
  57. 57D
  58. 58C
  59. 59B
  60. 60A
  61. 61B
  62. 62C
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67B
  68. 68C
  69. 69A
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72C
  73. 73A
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76D
  77. 77A
  78. 78C
  79. 79B
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82D
  83. 83A
  84. 84B
  85. 85D
  86. 86D
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89B
  90. 90C
  91. 91D
  92. 92B
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98A
  99. 99B
  100. 100B
  101. 101B
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104A
  105. 105D
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108D
  109. 109A
  110. 110A
  111. 111D
  112. 112D
  113. 113D
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117D
  118. 118C
  119. 119B

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