What is the expected target of development in the vision paper of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) as accepted by the National Development Council?
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Answer: (B) 8%
Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) officially approved the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017) in December 2012, setting an average annual GDP growth target of 8%. While the initial Approach Paper had proposed a target of 9%, the figure was subsequently revised downward to 8% in the final plan document to reflect the prevailing global economic slowdown and domestic fiscal realities. The plan emphasized a strategy of faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth, aiming for significant improvements in poverty reduction, infrastructure development, and social sectors like health and education.
2Science and Technology
Who among the following won the first Indian Grand Prix Formula One car race?
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Answer: (C) Sebastian Vittel
Explanation
The inaugural Indian Grand Prix was held on October 30, 2011, at the Buddh International Circuit in Greater Noida. Sebastian Vettel, driving for Red Bull Racing, won the race after starting from pole position. He delivered a dominant performance by leading every lap of the event and setting the fastest lap, achieving a Grand Slam. This victory was a key highlight of his 2011 season, during which he secured his second consecutive Formula One World Drivers' Championship title.
3History
Who was the only India batsman to have hit a century in the recent (2011-12) Indian Australian Cricket Test Series?
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Answer: (B) Virat Kohli
Explanation
Virat Kohli was the only Indian batsman to score a century during the 2011-12 Test series in Australia, also known as the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. He achieved this milestone in the first innings of the fourth and final Test match held at the Adelaide Oval, where he scored 116 runs. This was his maiden Test century. While several senior batsmen such as Sachin Tendulkar and V.V.S. Laxman scored half-centuries during the tour, none were able to reach the hundred-run mark. Kohli finished the series as India's second-highest run-getter, and his performance in Adelaide was a significant highlight in a series where India suffered a 4-0 defeat.
4HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who among the following Journalists has written his autobiography entitled the Lucknow Boy ?
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Answer: (A) Vinod Merita
Explanation
Lucknow Boy: A Memoir is the autobiography of the veteran journalist Vinod Mehta, published in 2011. In this book, Mehta chronicles his life starting from his childhood in post-partition Lucknow to his rise as one of India's most influential editors. He provides a frank and witty account of his professional journey, which included founding and editing several major publications such as Sunday Observer, The Pioneer, and Outlook magazine. The memoir offers deep insights into the intersection of media, power, and politics in India.
5Art and Culture
At the 59th National Film Awards, who was declared the best actress?
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Answer: (D) Vidya Balan
Explanation
Vidya Balan was conferred with the Best Actress award at the 59th National Film Awards for her performance in the 2011 film The Dirty Picture. In this biographical drama, she portrayed the character Silk, which was inspired by the life of South Indian film actress Silk Smitha. The National Film Awards jury recognized her portrayal for its courage, vulnerability, and depth, awarding her the Rajat Kamal (Silver Lotus) at the ceremony held in 2012.
6Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Arjuna Awardees 2011):
(A) Preeja Sridharan
(B) Sunil Chhetri
(C) Rakesh Kumar
(D) Virdhaval Khade
List-II (Games/areas associated):
1. Football
2. Kabaddi
3. Swimming
4. Athletics
Codes:
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Answer: (D) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Preeja Sridharan is an acclaimed long-distance runner who secured the gold medal in the 10,000 meters and silver in the 5,000 meters at the 2010 Asian Games, earning her the Arjuna Award in Athletics.
Sunil Chhetri is the most prominent figure in Indian Football, serving as the long-term captain of the national team and its highest goal scorer, for which he was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2011.
Rakesh Kumar is a distinguished Kabaddi player who captained the Indian national team and was a crucial part of the squads that won gold medals at multiple Asian Games and World Cups, receiving the Arjuna Award in 2011.
Virdhaval Khade is a professional swimmer who represented India at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and won a bronze medal at the 2010 Asian Games in the 50m butterfly event, leading to his recognition with the Arjuna Award in 2011.
7Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
How many women have been elected in the UP Vidhan Sabha elections of 2012?
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Answer: (B) 35
Explanation
The 2012 Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly elections for the 16th Vidhan Sabha resulted in the election of 35 women candidates across the state's 403 constituencies. Data from the Election Commission of India indicates that these 35 winners emerged from a total of 583 women who contested the election. The party-wise breakdown of these elected women included 22 representatives from the Samajwadi Party, 7 from the Bharatiya Janata Party, and 6 from the Bahujan Samaj Party. Consequently, women held approximately 8.68 percent of the total seats in the assembly during this legislative term.
8History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from:
List-I (Modern Names):
(A) Kubha
(B) Parushni
(C) Sadanira
(D) Sutudri
List-II (Vedic Rivers):
1. Gandak
2. Kabul
3. Ravi
4. Satluj
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Answer: (B) 2, 3, 1
Explanation
Kubha is the Rigvedic name for the modern Kabul river in Afghanistan, signifying the western extent of the Vedic geography. Parushni is the Vedic designation for the Ravi river, famously cited as the site where King Sudas defeated the confederacy of ten tribes in the Battle of Ten Kings. Sadanira refers to the Gandak river, which served as a natural boundary during the eastward expansion of the Aryans toward the Videha kingdom according to the Shatapatha Brahmana. Sutudri is the ancient name for the modern Satluj river, which is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab and a significant watercourse in the Rigveda.
9History
Which of the following sacred Buddhist place was situated on the river Niranjana?
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Answer: (A) Bodh Gaya
Explanation
Bodh Gaya is situated on the banks of the river Niranjana, which is modernly identified as the Falgu River in the state of Bihar. This location holds the highest spiritual importance in Buddhism because it is where Siddhartha Gautama attained enlightenment after years of asceticism and meditation. Historical and religious texts record that Siddhartha bathed in the Niranjana River and received a bowl of milk rice from Sujata before beginning his final meditation under the Bodhi tree, where he eventually realized the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.
10Polity and Governance
Who among the following has been conferred Padma Vibhasan in the year 2012?
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Answer: (D) K.G. Subrananyan
Explanation
K.G. Subramanyan was a distinguished Indian painter, sculptor, and scholar who was honored with the Padma Vibhushan in 2012 for his exceptional contributions to the field of Art. He was a central figure in modern Indian art, known for his ability to synthesize traditional Indian craft techniques and folk art with modernist styles. As a prolific artist and influential teacher at institutes like Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan and the Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, his work left a significant impact on the post-independence Indian art scene. The award recognized his lifelong dedication to exploring diverse media including murals, paintings, and textiles.
11Art and Culture
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Karpuramanjari - Harsha
Explanation
Karpuramanjari is a Prakrit play written by the renowned poet and dramatist Rajasekhara, who served as the court poet of the Gurjara-Pratihara kings Mahendrapala I and Mahipala I during the late 9th and early 10th centuries. King Harshavardhana, who ruled in the 7th century, is well-known for authoring three other Sanskrit plays: Ratnavali, Priyadarsika, and Nagananda. Since Karpuramanjari was composed several centuries after Harsha's reign by a different author, the pairing of this work with Harsha is historically incorrect.
12History
Pundravardhana Bhukti was located in
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Answer: (A) North Bengal
Explanation
Pundravardhana Bhukti was the largest administrative province of the Gupta Empire in the eastern region and remained a vital division under the later Pala and Sena dynasties. Geographically, it corresponded to the ancient region of Varendra, which encompasses modern-day North Bengal, including parts of West Bengal in India and northern Bangladesh. The capital of this bhukti was Pundranagara, identified with the archaeological site of Mahasthangarh in the Bogra district. Inscriptions such as the Damodarpur copper plates provide clear evidence of its location and its governance by provincial governors known as Uparikas.
13History
Who was the Chola Monarch, who completely freed Sri Lanka and got his daughter married to the Simhala prince?
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Answer: (A) Kulottunga I
Explanation
Kulottunga I followed a policy of reconciliation and diplomacy regarding the island of Sri Lanka. During his reign, the Sinhalese king Vijayabahu I launched a successful liberation struggle to end Chola rule. Rather than pursuing a prolonged and exhausting war to reclaim the territory, Kulottunga I prioritized the stability of his empire and recognized Sri Lanka as an independent entity. To seal this new era of peaceful coexistence and diplomatic ties, he arranged the marriage of his daughter, Suttamalliyar, to the Simhala prince Viraperumal. This strategic matrimonial alliance transformed a historical enmity into a diplomatic partnership, allowing the Cholas to focus on internal administration and flourishing overseas trade with Southeast Asia and China.
14Art and Culture
Who among the following are known for their Telugu translations of the Mahabharata?
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Answer: (C) 3, 4 only
Explanation
The translation of the Sanskrit Mahabharata into Telugu was the monumental work of the Kavitrayam or the Trinity of Poets, which includes Nannaya, Tikkana, and Yerrana. Nannaya Bhattaraka, who lived in the 11th century, began the translation under the patronage of the Eastern Chalukya king Rajaraja Narendra. He completed the Adi Parva, Sabha Parva, and a portion of the Aranya Parva. Tikkana Somayaji, a 13th-century poet, carried the work forward by translating fifteen books, from the Virata Parva to the Swargarohana Parva. Their efforts, completed by Yerrana in the 14th century, produced the Andhra Mahabharatam, which remains one of the most revered literary works in the Telugu language.
15History
On whose coins the name of the last Caliph of Baghdad appeared for the first time?
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Answer: (D) Alauddin Masud Shah
Explanation
The last Abbasid Caliph of Baghdad was Al-Musta'sim Billah, who reigned from 1242 to 1258 AD. Alauddin Masud Shah, the Sultan of Delhi from 1242 to 1246 AD, was the first ruler to feature Al-Musta'sim's name on his currency. In the Delhi Sultanate, it was a traditional practice for rulers to acknowledge the Caliph as their formal spiritual and political superior to validate their own sovereignty. Since Al-Musta'sim's tenure as Caliph began in 1242, which coincided with the start of Alauddin Masud Shah's reign, the coins minted during this period were the earliest to bear the name of the final Caliph of the Baghdad line. This tradition of naming Al-Musta'sim on coins persisted in India even after the fall of Baghdad to the Mongols in 1258.
16History
Who was the renowned jain Acharya, who was greatly honoured by Akbar?
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Answer: (B) Hiravijaya Suri
Explanation
Hiravijaya Suri was the supreme pontiff of the Tapa Gaccha branch of Svetambara Jainism who significantly influenced the religious outlook of Emperor Akbar. Upon receiving an invitation from the Emperor in 1582, he traveled to Fatehpur Sikri and stayed at the Mughal court for about two years. His teachings on the principle of Ahimsa or non-violence led Akbar to renounce meat consumption on many days and issue royal decrees banning the slaughter of animals during Jain holy periods like Paryushana. Akbar was so impressed by his scholarship and spiritual character that he conferred the prestigious title of Jagadguru, meaning Teacher of the World, upon him. This interaction was a key element in the development of Akbar's policy of religious tolerance and his syncretic philosophy.
17History
Turamaya, a contemporary of Asoka, was the ruler of:
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Answer: (A) Egypt
Explanation
The name Turamaya mentioned in Emperor Ashoka's Major Rock Edict XIII is the Indianized or Prakrit version of Ptolemy II Philadelphus. He was the Hellenistic king of the Ptolemaic Kingdom of Egypt who reigned from 285 BCE to 246 BCE. Ashoka mentions him alongside other contemporary Greek rulers to highlight the success of his missions in spreading the principles of Dhamma to distant lands. This identification is part of the broader historical evidence showing active diplomatic and cultural exchanges between the Mauryan Empire and the Hellenistic world during the 3rd century BCE.
18History
Which one of the following was the Emperor of India when British East India Company was formed in London?
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Answer: (A) Akbar
Explanation
The British East India Company was established on December 31, 1600, when Queen Elizabeth I granted a Royal Charter to the Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading into the East Indies. During this period, the Mughal Emperor Akbar was the ruler of India, as his reign lasted from 1556 to 1605. Although later diplomatic missions and the establishment of physical trading posts occurred under subsequent sovereigns, the legal formation of the entity in London took place during the final years of Akbar's imperial rule.
19History
At the time of Aurangzeb's death, the Mavatha Leadership was in the hands of
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Answer: (D) Tarabai
Explanation
Aurangzeb died in March 1707 at Ahmednagar. Following the death of Chhatrapati Rajaram in 1700, his widow Tarabai assumed the leadership of the Maratha state as the regent for her minor son, Shivaji II. She was an exceptionally capable administrator and military strategist who effectively led the Maratha resistance during the final years of the Mughal-Maratha War. Under her direction, the Marathas moved beyond defensive guerrilla tactics and began raiding Mughal provinces such as Malwa and Gujarat. She remained the preeminent leader of the Marathas until the release of Shahu from Mughal custody later in 1707 triggered a struggle for succession.
20History
Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja by
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Answer: (B) Akbar (II)
Explanation
The title of Raja was conferred upon Ram Mohan Roy by the Mughal Emperor Akbar II in 1830. The Emperor bestowed this honor when he requested Ram Mohan Roy to travel to England as his envoy to represent him before King William IV. The primary purpose of this mission was to advocate for an increase in the Mughal Emperor's stipend and to address various grievances regarding the allowances provided by the British East India Company. This recognition by the titular head of India significantly enhanced Ram Mohan Roy's status during his diplomatic mission to the United Kingdom.
21History
Which of the following colleges was the first to be established?
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Answer: (A) Hindu College, Calcutta
Explanation
Hindu College, Calcutta, was established on January 20, 1817, making it the earliest of the institutions listed. It was founded through the collective efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, David Hare, and Radhakanta Deb with the primary objective of providing modern, Western-style education in English and science to the Indian youth. The establishment of this college represented a landmark in the history of modern education in India, transitioning from traditional learning to a secular and scientific curriculum. The institution was later taken over by the government and renamed Presidency College in 1855, eventually becoming Presidency University. Its founding in the early 19th century predates the development of the other colleges mentioned, which were established later during the British administration.
22History
Sharada Act fixed the minimum age of marriage of girls and boys respectively as
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Answer: (B) 14 and 18
Explanation
The Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929 is popularly known as the Sharada Act, named after its sponsor Harbilas Sarda, a judge and social reformer from Rajasthan. This legislative measure was introduced to combat the social evil of child marriage in British India. When it was passed in 1929 and implemented in 1930, it legally defined the minimum age for marriage as 14 years for girls and 18 years for boys. These specific age limits remained the standard under this act until they were later revised upward by the Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act of 1978.
23History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Language):
(A) Bharat Mitra
(B) Rashtramata
(C) Prajamitra
(D) Nayak
List-II (Newspaper):
1. Bengali
2. Gujarati
3. Hindi
4. Marathi
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Bharat Mitra was a highly influential Hindi newspaper published from Calcutta, playing a vital role in the development of Hindi journalism and the nationalist movement. Rashtramata was a Marathi newspaper that contributed to the socio-political awakening in the Maharashtra region. Prajamitra was a Gujarati journal published from Bombay, catering to the specific linguistic and cultural needs of the Gujarati-speaking population. Nayak was a Bengali daily newspaper edited by Panchkari Bandyopadhyay, known for its active participation in the political discourse of the Bengal province during the early 20th century.
24Art and Culture
Who among the following were Jahangiri painters?
1. Abdus Samad
2. Abul Hasan
3. Aqa Riza
4. Mir Sayyad Ali
Select the correct answer for the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation
Abul Hasan and Aqa Riza were the preeminent painters during the reign of Jahangir. Abul Hasan was the Emperor's favorite artist, whom Jahangir described as having no equal in the world, bestowing upon him the title Nadir-uz-Zaman. He was particularly known for his exceptional skill in portraiture and capturing the psychological depth of his subjects. Aqa Riza, who was Abul Hasan's father, was a Persian-born painter who served Jahangir from his time as a prince. He led the atelier at Allahabad and was instrumental in developing the distinctive naturalistic and individualistic style that characterized Jahangiri art. Their work transitioned Mughal painting away from the collective manuscript illustrations of the Akbari era toward highly detailed and individualized masterpieces.
25History
A Provisional Government of India with Raja Mahendra Pratap as its President was established during the First World War in
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Answer: (A) Afghanistan
Explanation
During the First World War, Indian revolutionaries in exile sought the support of the Central Powers to liberate India from British rule. Raja Mahendra Pratap, a prominent freedom fighter, led the Indo-German Mission to Kabul with the help of the Berlin Committee. On December 1, 1915, he established the Provisional Government of India in Kabul, Afghanistan. This government-in-exile featured Raja Mahendra Pratap as the President, Maulana Barkatullah as the Prime Minister, and Obeidullah Sindhi as the Home Minister. The mission aimed to mobilize Afghan and tribal support and gain international recognition from powers like the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire to launch an armed struggle against the British Raj.
26History
The National Leader who was elected President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 was
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Answer: (D) Vittalbhai Patel
Explanation
Vithalbhai J. Patel, a veteran leader of the Swaraj Party and the elder brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, was elected as the first Indian President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in August 1925. His election was a significant achievement for the Swarajists, who sought to undermine the British administration from within the legislative framework. He defeated T. Rangachariar, the candidate supported by the government, by a narrow margin. During his tenure, Vithalbhai Patel worked to assert the independence of the Speaker's office and the legislature, often coming into conflict with the executive authority to uphold parliamentary privileges and traditions. He served in this capacity until his resignation in 1930 in response to the call for the Civil Disobedience Movement.
27HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who of the following was entrusted with finance in unity province after the election of 1937?
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Answer: (D) Mohammed Ibrahim
Explanation
Hafiz Muhammad Ibrahim was entrusted with the Finance portfolio in the United Provinces (UP) ministry formed after the 1937 elections. Although Govind Ballabh Pant served as the Premier and initially held the Finance and Home portfolios, Hafiz Muhammad Ibrahim is historically recognized for his role in the financial administration of the province, specifically for presenting the provincial budget for the year 1938–39 in the Legislative Assembly.
Ibrahim's political journey was a significant event in the tenure of the first Congress ministry (1937–1939). He was originally elected to the UP Legislative Assembly on a Muslim League ticket but resigned his seat to join the Indian National Congress. He then contested a landmark by-election as a Congress candidate and won, which led to his appointment in the cabinet with the portfolios of Communications and Finance. His role as the minister presenting the budget in 1938 is often cited in the administrative history of the United Provinces.
28History
Which Act for the first time made it possible for Indians to take some share in the administration of their country?
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Answer: (A) Charter Act 1833
Explanation
The Charter Act of 1833 is historically significant for Section 87, which declared that no Indian subject of the Company should be debarred from holding any office, place, or employment under the Company on the grounds of religion, place of birth, descent, or color. This provision established the legal principle of equality of opportunity and removed the racial discrimination that had previously barred Indians from higher administrative positions. By formally stating that merit and eligibility, rather than race or creed, would be the criteria for public employment, this Act marked the first legislative step toward allowing Indians to participate in the administration of their own country. This clause laid the foundation for the eventual inclusion of Indians in the civil services and broader governance frameworks.
29Geography
Which of these west flowing rivers flow between two mountain ranges?
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Answer: (B) Narmada
Explanation
The Narmada River is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India that flows through a rift valley. This valley is structurally positioned between two prominent mountain ranges: the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. Originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh, the river follows a westward course through this narrow trough created by tectonic faulting before discharging its waters into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat. The parallel orientation of these two mountain systems defines the path of the river, making it a classic example of a river flowing in a graben or rift valley between mountain barriers.
30Geography
Which of the following is correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Kolleru - Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, located in the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is geographically positioned between the Krishna and Godavari deltas, spanning across the Eluru and Krishna districts. The lake is a significant wetland ecosystem and was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002. It serves as a vital habitat for numerous migratory birds and acts as a natural flood-balancing reservoir between the two major river systems, receiving water from seasonal streams such as the Budameru and Tammileru.
31Economy
Which of the following is not a kharif crop?
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Answer: (D) Mustard
Explanation
Mustard is classified as a rabi crop in India because it is sown at the beginning of the winter season, typically from October to December, and harvested in the spring months of March or April. Rabi crops require a relatively cool climate during the growing period and a warm, dry environment for ripening. Mustard specifically thrives in temperatures between 10 degrees Celsius and 25 degrees Celsius and depends on the moisture remaining in the soil after the monsoon or through irrigation. Unlike kharif crops, which are monsoon-dependent and sown in June or July with the arrival of the rains, mustard belongs to the winter cropping cycle.
32Economy
Which of the following States of India has the largest area (2010) under tobacco cultivation?
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Andhra Pradesh was the leading state in India in terms of area under tobacco cultivation during the 2010-2012 period. The state possessed the largest acreage dedicated to the crop, particularly for the Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) variety used extensively in cigarette manufacturing. Major tobacco-growing regions in the state included the districts of Prakasam, Guntur, and Nellore. According to the data from the Ministry of Agriculture and the Tobacco Board of India for the year 2010-11, Andhra Pradesh accounted for approximately 45 percent of the total tobacco area in the country, maintaining its position as the primary hub for tobacco farming in India.
33GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh the highest production of Aonla come from
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Answer: (A) Pratapgarh
Explanation
Pratapgarh district in Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of Aonla (Phyllanthus emblica / Indian gooseberry) in India, earning it the title "Aonla capital of India." The district accounts for a significant share of total national Aonla output and is a major hub for Aonla-based products and processing. Rae Bareli, while also a producer, is not the top district.
34History
Which of the following movements drew women out from the seclusion of home?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Swadeshi Movement
2. Home Rule Movement
3. Non-Cooperation Movement
4. Civil Disobedience Movement
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Indian national movement witnessed a progressive increase in the participation of women, starting with the Swadeshi Movement where women in Bengal boycotted foreign goods and observed fasts as a mark of protest. The Home Rule Movement, under the leadership of Annie Besant, further mobilized urban women for political advocacy and organizational work. The advent of Mahatma Gandhi significantly transformed this participation; the Non-Cooperation Movement saw women from diverse backgrounds picketing shops selling foreign cloth and liquor and contributing to the Tilak Swaraj Fund. Finally, the Civil Disobedience Movement marked a high point of female involvement, as thousands of women broke the salt law, led processions, and faced police repression and imprisonment. These movements collectively shifted the role of women from the private domestic sphere to the public political arena, effectively drawing them out from the seclusion of their homes.
35Geography
Which of the following ports of India is an open sea port?
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Answer: (C) Chennai
Explanation
Chennai Port is categorized as an artificial, open sea port because it is situated on a straight stretch of the Coromandel Coast that lacks any natural indentations, bays, or estuarine features to provide inherent protection. To create a functional harbor, extensive man-made breakwaters were constructed out into the Bay of Bengal to enclose a water area and provide a calm basin for vessels to dock. This type of port is characterized by its direct exposure to the open maritime environment, necessitating engineering interventions to protect the harbor from the force of the open sea.
36Geography
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Nagarjun Sagar - Godavari River
Explanation
The Nagarjun Sagar Dam is a major masonry dam constructed across the Krishna River, not the Godavari River. Located on the border between the Nalgonda and Guntur districts of Andhra Pradesh, it is one of the earliest and largest multipurpose irrigation and hydroelectric projects in India. The dam creates a massive reservoir and supplies water through the Jawahar and Lal Bahadur canals to several districts for agriculture. Because the Godavari River is a separate river system with its own distinct projects like the Sriram Sagar, the association of Nagarjun Sagar with the Godavari is incorrect.
37Geography
Teak forest is found in which of the following States of India?
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Answer: (A) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
Teak forests are a primary component of India's tropical deciduous vegetation, specifically the tropical moist and dry deciduous types. Madhya Pradesh possesses the largest area under teak forest in the country, where the species Tectona grandis thrives in the well-drained alluvial and loamy soils of the central Indian highlands. The climate of the state, characterized by a distinct dry season and moderate annual rainfall ranging from 75 cm to 150 cm, provides the ideal environment for these trees. Significant teak concentrations are found in the districts of Hoshangabad, Betul, Chhindwara, Seoni, and Jabalpur. Data from the India State of Forest Reports leading up to 2012 consistently identify Madhya Pradesh as the leading state for teak timber production and natural forest cover.
38Geography
Which of the following rivers is called 'biological desert' on account of its pollutants?
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Answer: (C) Damodar
Explanation
The Damodar River is referred to as a biological desert due to the extreme levels of industrial and chemical pollution it sustains while flowing through the mineral-rich Chota Nagpur Plateau. As it passes through major industrial hubs and coal mining belts in Jharkhand and West Bengal, the river receives vast quantities of untreated effluents, coal dust, and fly ash from steel plants, thermal power stations, and chemical industries. These pollutants drastically reduce dissolved oxygen levels and introduce toxic heavy metals into the water, making it nearly impossible for aquatic flora and fauna to survive. This ecological degradation has effectively turned long stretches of the river into a lifeless zone.
39Economy
Most of the production of Natural gas in India comes from
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Answer: (C) Bombay High
Explanation
The Mumbai Offshore region, which includes the Bombay High and Bassein fields, has historically been the leading producer of natural gas in India. As of 2012, offshore fields contributed approximately 75 percent of the total domestic natural gas production, with the Mumbai High basin being the most prolific contributor. Operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), this field provides the majority of the country's gas supply for industrial use, power generation, and the manufacturing of fertilizers. Its strategic importance is underlined by its integration with the national gas grid, ensuring a steady flow of energy from the Arabian Sea to various parts of the country.
40Geography
Which one of the following is the main area for producing 'Tidal Energy'
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Answer: (C) Gulf of Khambhat (Gambay)
Explanation
The Gulf of Khambhat, situated on the western coast of India in Gujarat, is identified as the primary area for tidal energy production due to its exceptionally high tidal range. For tidal energy to be commercially viable, a significant difference between high and low tides is required, and the funnel-shaped configuration of the Gulf of Khambhat naturally amplifies tidal heights. Estimates provided by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy indicate that this region holds a potential of approximately 7,000 MW, which represents the largest concentration of tidal power potential in India. This high energy density makes it the most suitable location for the installation of large-scale tidal power plants.
41Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Minerals):
(A) Guruma-
(B) Talchar
(C) Jaduguda
(D) Zavar
List-II (Mining Areas):
1. Lead hisani
2. Uranium
3. Iron ore
4. Coal
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Answer: (A) 3, 4, 2
Explanation
(A) Gurumahisani matches with 3 (Iron ore) as it is a major iron ore deposit in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha that has historically supplied ore to the Tata Steel plant.
(B) Talcher matches with 4 (Coal) because it is one of the most important coalfields in India, located in the Angul district of Odisha within the Brahmani River valley.
(C) Jaduguda matches with 2 (Uranium) since it is the site of the first uranium mine in India, situated in the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand and operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
(D) Zawar matches with 1 (Lead) because it is a prominent mining area in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan, famous for its extensive lead and zinc deposits in the Aravalli range.
42Geography
Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest population density?
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Answer: (C) Andaman and Nicobar
Explanation
According to the Census 2011 data, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the lowest population density among all Union Territories in India, with only 46 persons per square kilometer. This low density is attributed to the archipelago's vast geographical area of approximately 8,249 square kilometers, a significant portion of which consists of protected tropical rainforests and indigenous tribal reserves where human settlement is restricted or prohibited. While the total population remained relatively small, the extensive landmass ensured that the ratio of people to land area remained the lowest compared to the more urbanized or smaller land-base Union Territories.
43Geography
Which of the following is the highest peak in South India?
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Answer: (A) Anai Mudi
Explanation
Anai Mudi is the highest peak in South India and the Western Ghats, standing at an altitude of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above sea level. It is located in the Idukki district of Kerala, specifically within the boundaries of Eravikulam National Park. The peak marks the geographical junction where three mountain ranges meet: the Anaimalai Hills to the north, the Palani Hills to the northeast, and the Cardamom Hills to the south. Its name translates to elephant's forehead in local languages, and it is frequently referred to as the Everest of South India due to its status as the highest point in India south of the Himalayas.
44Geography
Which of the following pairs of countries are around Aral Sea?
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Answer: (A) Kazakhstan - Uzbekistan
Explanation
The Aral Sea is an endorheic lake located in Central Asia, situated between the Aktobe and Kyzylorda regions of Kazakhstan to the north and the Karakalpakstan autonomous republic of Uzbekistan to the south. Historically one of the largest inland bodies of water in the world, its primary inflows are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers. The northern part, known as the North Aral Sea, lies entirely within Kazakhstan, while the larger southern part, the South Aral Sea, is shared with Uzbekistan. By 2012, the sea had significantly recessed into several smaller basins due to long-term water diversion for agriculture, but its geographical boundaries remain defined by these two nations.
45Geography
Which of the following seas has the highest salinity?
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Answer: (D) Dead Sea
Explanation
The Dead Sea is a landlocked hypersaline lake located in the Jordan Rift Valley, bordered by Jordan to the east and Israel and Palestine to the west. It is one of the world's saltiest bodies of water, with a salinity level reaching approximately 33.7 percent. This extreme salt concentration is the result of its endorheic nature, meaning it has no outlet to the ocean. In the hot, arid climate of the region, water evaporates rapidly from the surface, leaving behind massive quantities of dissolved minerals and salts. While the Jordan River provides a primary source of inflow, the lack of an exit and the high rate of evaporation cause salts to accumulate over time, resulting in a density that allows for natural buoyancy and prevents most macroscopic aquatic organisms from surviving.
46Economy
Which of the following countries is the largest producer of diamond?
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Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation
Russia is the leading producer of diamonds in the world when measured by volume in carats. The country's production is dominated by the state-controlled company ALROSA, which accounts for the vast majority of the nation's output. Most of these diamond mining activities are concentrated in the Yakutia region of Siberia. By 2012, Russia consistently maintained its rank as the top global producer due to its extensive geological reserves and large-scale industrial mining operations that yield both gem-quality and industrial-grade diamonds.
47Geography
The Death Valley in South California, USA is an example of
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Answer: (D) Rift Valley
Explanation
Death Valley is a prominent example of a rift valley, specifically a graben formed by extensional tectonic forces within the Basin and Range Province of the western United States. It was created as the Earth's crust stretched and thinned, causing a massive block of the crust to drop down between two parallel normal faults. This down-faulted block is flanked by uplifted mountain ranges, namely the Panamint Range to the west and the Amargosa Range to the east. Because the valley floor continues to drop relative to the surrounding mountains due to active tectonic pulling, it contains the lowest elevation in North America at Badwater Basin.
48Economy
Which of the following State is the largest manganese producer in India?
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Answer: (D) Orissa
Explanation
Odisha has historically been the leading producer of manganese ore in India, supported by the largest reserves of the mineral in the country. In the years leading up to 2012, the state consistently contributed a major portion of the national output, often accounting for approximately one-fourth to one-third of the total production. The primary deposits are located in the Keonjhar, Sundergarh, and Bolangir districts, with the Bonai-Keonjhar belt being the most significant producing area. The manganese found in this region is typically of high grade and occurs in association with the Iron Ore Group of rocks. This geological wealth makes Odisha the most vital state for the supply of manganese to India's metallurgical and steel industries.
49Economy
The largest proven oil reserve of the world lies in
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Answer: (A) Venezuela
Explanation
Venezuela holds the title of having the largest proven oil reserves in the world, a status it attained in 2011 after the formal certification of massive extra-heavy crude oil deposits in the Orinoco Belt. According to data available in 2012 from the BP Statistical Review of World Energy and OPEC, Venezuela's proven reserves were estimated at approximately 296.5 billion barrels. This figure placed the nation ahead of long-time leader Saudi Arabia. These reserves are categorized as proven because geological and engineering data demonstrate with reasonable certainty that they can be recovered in future years from known reservoirs under existing economic and operating conditions.
50Economy
Peanuts are the main crop of
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Answer: (B) Gambia
Explanation
The economy of Gambia is predominantly agricultural, with groundnuts (peanuts) serving as the nation's primary cash crop and most significant export. Groundnut cultivation is the principal source of income for the majority of the rural population and provides the bulk of the country's foreign exchange earnings. For many decades, the Gambian economic structure has been characterized by its heavy reliance on this single crop, making groundnut production and processing central to its national development and trade balance. Up through 2012, it remained the most vital component of the country's primary sector.
51Geography
The correct sequence of the following countries in terms of area in descending order is:
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Answer: (A) Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina
Explanation
Arranged in descending order of area: Brazil (~8.51 million km²) is the largest country in South America and fifth in the world; Australia (~7.69 million km²) is the sixth largest country globally and the largest in Oceania; India (~3.29 million km²) is the seventh largest country; Argentina (~2.78 million km²) is the eighth largest. The correct descending sequence is therefore Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, which corresponds to Option A.
52Polity and Governance
India Parliament consists of
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Answer: (D) President and both the House
Explanation
Article 79 of the Constitution of India defines the composition of the Union Parliament, stating that it consists of the President and the two Houses, known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Although the President is not a member of either House, they are an integral part of the Parliament because the legislative process is only complete when a bill passed by both Houses receives the President's assent. The President also performs essential legislative duties, including summoning and proroguing the Houses and dissolving the Lok Sabha.
53Polity and Governance
The joint sitting of the House of People and the Council of States is summoned by
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Answer: (A) The President
Explanation
Under Article 108 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. This mechanism is intended to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of an ordinary bill. Such a deadlock is considered to have occurred if one House rejects a bill passed by the other, if the Houses finally disagree on amendments to be made in the bill, or if more than six months elapse from the date of reception of the bill by the other House without it being passed. The President notifies the intention to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting by a message if they are in session or by public notification if they are not. While the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over these sittings, the formal summons is issued only by the President.
54Polity and Governance
Money Bill is introduced in
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Answer: (A) Lok Sabha
Explanation
According to Article 109 of the Constitution of India, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Furthermore, under Article 117(1), a Money Bill cannot be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President. After a Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt. The Lok Sabha has the authority to either accept or reject any or all of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha. This constitutional provision ensures that the lower house, which is directly elected by the people, maintains ultimate control over the nation's finances.
55Polity and Governance
Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union Movement?
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Answer: (A) V.V. Giri
Explanation
V.V. Giri was a prominent leader in the Indian trade union movement and dedicated a significant portion of his political career to labor welfare. He was one of the founding members of the All India Railwaymen's Federation in 1923 and served as its general secretary for several years. He held the position of President of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) twice, in 1926 and 1942. His expertise in labor issues resulted in his appointment as the representative of Indian workers at the Second Round Table Conference in London in 1931. Throughout his tenure in various political offices, including as the Union Minister of Labour from 1952 to 1954, he continued to champion the rights of the working class before being elected as the fourth President of India.
56Geography
Which of the following is not a temperate grassland?
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Answer: (D) Savannah
Explanation
Savannah is classified as a tropical grassland rather than a temperate one. These ecosystems are typically located in the tropical zone, situated between equatorial rainforests and subtropical deserts. Savannahs are characterized by high temperatures throughout the year and distinct wet and dry seasons. Unlike temperate grasslands, which are found in mid-latitude regions and experience significant seasonal temperature variations including cold winters, savannahs feature a mixture of grasses and widely spaced trees that do not form a closed canopy.
57Polity and Governance
The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of
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Answer: (A) Lok Sabha
Explanation
According to Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This fundamental principle of the parliamentary system ensures that the executive remains accountable to the directly elected representatives of the people. A No-Confidence Motion is a specific parliamentary procedure that can only be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha. If the motion is carried by a majority of the members of the Lok Sabha, it signifies that the government has lost the confidence of the House, and the entire Council of Ministers must resign immediately. This constitutional obligation applies to all ministers, including those who may be members of the Rajya Sabha.
58Polity and Governance
State Governor is appointed by
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Answer: (D) President of India
Explanation
Article 155 of the Constitution of India stipulates that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. The Governor functions as the executive head of the state and serves as a crucial link between the Union government and the State government. According to Article 156, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, which typically lasts for a term of five years unless removed earlier or resigning. This system of appointment ensures that the central government maintains a degree of constitutional oversight over state administrations through the President.
59Polity and Governance
The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list
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Answer: (B) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
Explanation
Under Article 249 of the Constitution of India, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, it becomes lawful for Parliament to legislate on that subject for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding one year, although it can be renewed for subsequent periods of one year each through the same process. This provision is a unique feature of the Indian federal system that allows the Union Parliament to exercise legislative power over state subjects during normal times without a formal amendment or an emergency declaration.
60Polity and Governance
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
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Answer: (D) Lok Sabha
Explanation
Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People. This fundamental principle of the parliamentary system ensures that the executive remains accountable to the directly elected representatives of the citizens. Under this provision, all ministers are jointly responsible for every act of the government, and the ministry can only remain in power as long as it commands the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha. If a no-confidence motion is passed in this House, the entire Council of Ministers must resign as a unit, regardless of whether individual ministers are members of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
61Polity and Governance
No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of the a State, except on the recommendations of
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Answer: (B) the Governor of the State
Explanation
Article 207(1) of the Constitution of India specifies that a Money Bill, as defined in Article 199, cannot be introduced or moved in the Legislative Assembly of a State except on the recommendation of the Governor. This constitutional provision ensures that the executive branch maintains control over the state's fiscal policy and financial obligations. A Money Bill generally deals with matters such as the imposition, abolition, or regulation of taxes, the borrowing of money by the state government, and the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of the State. This requirement at the state level is a direct parallel to the requirement for the President's recommendation for introducing a Money Bill in the Lok Sabha at the Union level under Article 117(1).
62Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following elects the Vice President of India?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Members of Lok Sabha
2. Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Members Legislative Assemblies
4. Members of Legislative Councils
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India stipulates that the Vice President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. This electoral college comprises all members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, including both elected and nominated members. The election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The involvement is restricted to the Union Parliament because the Vice President primarily functions as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and therefore the constitutional framework does not provide for the participation of members from State Legislative Assemblies or Legislative Councils in this specific election.
63Polity and Governance
Which among the following functions as a coordinator between the Planning Commission and State Governments?
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Answer: (C) National Development Council
Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 to serve as the highest body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters in India. It functions as the primary coordinator between the Planning Commission and the State Governments because its composition includes the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories, and the members of the Planning Commission itself. This structure provides a formal platform where the Planning Commission's proposals, specifically the Five-Year Plans, are reviewed and approved by the executive heads of the states. By involving state leadership in the planning process, the NDC ensures that national developmental goals are aligned with regional requirements and that there is a unified approach to the implementation of socio-economic policies across the country.
64Polity and Governance
The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created
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Answer: (B) by the Constitution
Explanation
The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India. The Constitution provides for the appointment of the CAG by the President of India and secures the independence of the office through specific provisions regarding tenure and removal. As the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department, the CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the state governments, ensuring financial accountability of the executive to the legislature.
65Polity and Governance
What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
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Answer: (C) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
Explanation
The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is governed by the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. According to Section 4 of this Act, the Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years from the date of assumption of charge. However, if the individual attains the age of 65 years before completing the six-year term, they must vacate the office on the day they reach that age. This dual limit ensures both a fixed term for stability and an upper age limit for the constitutional authority, providing the office-holder with security of tenure similar to that of a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
66Polity and Governance
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India on the recommendation of
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Answer: (C) Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This addition was based on the specific recommendations made by the Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted by the government earlier that year to study the necessity of a set of fundamental duties for citizens. The committee suggested that citizens should be mindful that while they enjoy certain fundamental rights, they also have certain obligations towards the state and the society. Consequently, a new Part IV-A consisting of Article 51A was inserted into the Constitution, originally enumerating ten fundamental duties.
67Polity and Governance
Who has the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on Question of law?
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Answer: (A) President
Explanation
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution confers advisory jurisdiction upon the Supreme Court of India. It specifically empowers the President of India to consult the Supreme Court if it appears that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Court. Upon such a reference, the Supreme Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report its opinion to the President. This mechanism allows the executive head of the state to clarify legal complexities or the constitutionality of proposed legislations and actions before they are implemented. While the opinion provided by the Court under this article is advisory and not binding on the President, it carries significant legal weight.
68Polity and Governance
Which of the following are constitutional authorities?
Select the correct form the codes given below:
1. State Election Commission
2. State Finance Commission
3. Zila Panchayat
4. State Electoral Officer
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
PROPOSED: B
The State Election Commission is a constitutional authority established under Article 243K and Article 243ZA. It is vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities.
The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body constituted by the Governor of a state under Article 243I and Article 243Y. Its primary role is to review the financial position of local self-government institutions and make recommendations regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees between the State and the Panchayats or Municipalities.
The Zila Panchayat (District Panchayat) is a constitutional authority representing the apex tier of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Following the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, Article 243B made it mandatory for states to constitute Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, thereby granting these local bodies a formal constitutional status and mandate.
69Polity and Governance
In which of the following cases, Supreme Court held that: Fundamental Rights enable a men to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best. ?
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Answer: (B) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
Explanation
In the landmark case of I.C. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab (1967), the Supreme Court of India, led by Chief Justice K. Subba Rao, deliberated on the scope of the amending power of Parliament. The Court characterized Fundamental Rights as primordial rights that are essential for the development of the human personality. Justice Subba Rao, in the majority opinion, observed that these rights are the modern name for what are traditionally known as natural rights and are given a transcendental position by the Constitution. He stated that Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best, signifying that these rights provide the necessary autonomy and liberty for an individual to pursue their personal goals and development without arbitrary state interference. This philosophical stance was the basis for the Court holding that Parliament lacked the power to abridge or take away Fundamental Rights through constitutional amendments.
70Polity and Governance
In which of the following case Supreme Court has held that Preamble form is a part of the Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Bommai Vs. Union of India
Explanation
In the landmark case of S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court reaffirmed the legal status of the Preamble. The Court explicitly held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution of India. This judgment built upon the precedent established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which had originally overruled the earlier Berubari Union (1960) opinion. In the Bommai ruling, the Court emphasized that the Preamble contains the basic structure of the Constitution and serves as a significant guide for interpreting constitutional provisions, particularly in defining the secular and democratic nature of the Indian polity.
71Polity and Governance
In which of the following State Panchayti Raj was introduced first?
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan
Explanation
The Panchayati Raj system was first inaugurated in Rajasthan on October 2, 1959, by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in the Nagaur district. This implementation followed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, which had been appointed in 1957 to suggest measures for democratic decentralization. The committee proposed a three-tier structure consisting of Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and Zila Parishads at the district level. Rajasthan was the pioneer in adopting this system to involve rural populations in the developmental process and local self-governance.
72Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The number of seats reserved for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions in U.P. is
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Answer: (A) one-third of total seats
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Article 243D to the Constitution of India, which mandates that not less than one-third of the total number of seats in Panchayati Raj Institutions must be reserved for women. This reservation applies to the total number of seats filled by direct election as well as the offices of chairpersons at the village, intermediate, and district levels. In accordance with this constitutional mandate, the Uttar Pradesh government implemented provisions in its state Panchayati Raj laws to ensure that one-third of the total seats are reserved for women, facilitating their representation and participation in local self-governance.
73Polity and Governance
In which of the following years the Unorganized Workers Social Security Act was passed?
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Answer: (C) 2008
Explanation
The Unorganised Workers Social Security Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2008 to provide for the social security and welfare of workers in the unorganized sector. The Act received the assent of the President on December 30, 2008, and aimed to provide a legislative framework for providing social security benefits to workers who are not covered by the organized sector regulations. Under this Act, the Central Government is empowered to formulate welfare schemes for unorganized workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, health and maternity benefits, and old age protection. It also mandated the constitution of a National Social Security Board and State Social Security Boards to recommend and monitor the implementation of various welfare schemes for these workers.
74Economy
Tendulkar Committee has estimated that in India the percentage of the population below poverty line is
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Answer: (B) 37.2
Explanation
The Expert Group headed by Suresh Tendulkar was appointed by the Planning Commission in 2005 and submitted its report in 2009. It moved away from a poverty line based solely on calorie consumption to one based on per capita consumption expenditure, incorporating spending on health and education. For the reference year 2004-05, the committee estimated that 37.2 percent of India's total population was living below the poverty line. This figure was a significant upward revision from the previous Lakdawala Committee estimate of 27.5 percent for the same period. The Tendulkar Committee methodology arrived at this national average of 37.2 percent by calculating a rural poverty headcount ratio of 41.8 percent and an urban ratio of 25.7 percent.
75Polity and Governance
The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution is
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Answer: (D) five
Explanation
Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India specifically provides that the minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution, or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the President, shall be five. Such a composition is legally referred to as a Constitution Bench. This constitutional mandate ensures that issues of significant national and legal importance are adjudicated by a sufficiently large panel of judges to ensure a comprehensive and authoritative judicial pronouncement.
76Geography
As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census of India, which one of the following States has the highest child sex ratio?
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Answer: (A) Chhattisgarh
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census provisional data, Chhattisgarh reported a child sex ratio of 969 girls per 1,000 boys in the age group of 0-6 years. This state maintained one of the most favorable child sex ratios in the country, significantly exceeding the national average of 919. The child sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in the 0-6 year age bracket. Chhattisgarh's performance in this metric indicates a healthy demographic gender balance in its early childhood population during that census period.
77Geography
Which of the following is the most Populous State in India as per the provisional figures of Census of India 2011?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
According to the provisional data released for the Census of India 2011, Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest population among all states and union territories. The state reported a total population of approximately 199,812,341, which represents about 16.5 percent of the total population of India. This vast population size means that Uttar Pradesh alone contains more people than several large countries combined. The state's demographic scale ensures its rank as the most populous sub-national entity in the world, a position it has consistently held in recent decades.
78Economy
A country's natural capital included all of the following except:
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Answer: (C) roads
Explanation
Natural capital refers to the stock of natural assets which include geology, soil, air, water, and all living things. It is the extension of the economic notion of capital to goods and services provided by the natural environment. Roads are human-made physical assets created through engineering, labor, and the transformation of raw materials. They are classified as produced capital or infrastructure rather than natural capital because they are not naturally occurring components of the environment. While natural capital provides the raw materials for construction, the finished road network is a result of human intervention and technological application.
79Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which among the following States has launched 'Apna van apna dhan' scheme?
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Answer: (C) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Himachal Pradesh government launched the Apna Van Apna Dhan scheme to promote social forestry and enhance the state's green cover by encouraging community participation. Under this initiative, individuals are encouraged to plant commercially viable trees on their own private land. The scheme empowers landowners by granting them complete ownership and rights over the trees planted, including the right to harvest and sell the timber after maturity. This policy aims to transform the local economy by providing a sustainable source of income to farmers and rural residents while simultaneously addressing environmental concerns like soil erosion and climate change through increased afforestation on non-forest lands.
80Polity and Governance
'Swabhiman Scheme' launched in India is associated with
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Answer: (C) Rural banking
Explanation
The Swabhiman Scheme was a financial inclusion initiative launched in February 2011 by the Government of India, led by the Union Ministry of Finance and the Indian Banks Association. The program was specifically designed to extend formal banking services to unbanked rural areas, targeting habitations with a population of over 2,000 according to the 2001 census. By utilizing the Business Correspondent model, the scheme allowed banks to provide essential services such as savings accounts, credit facilities, and remittances through ICT-enabled handheld devices. This approach enabled branchless banking at the doorstep of rural residents, aiming to integrate the rural population into the mainstream financial system and promote a culture of savings and secure transactions in remote regions.
81Economy
The largest share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India comes from
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Answer: (C) service sector
Explanation
The service sector, also known as the tertiary sector, has been the dominant contributor to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for several decades. By the fiscal year 2011-12, the services sector accounted for more than 55 percent of the total GDP at factor cost. This sector encompasses a wide range of economic activities including trade, hotels, transport, communication, financing, insurance, real estate, and business services. The rapid expansion of information technology, telecommunications, and financial services following the economic liberalization reforms initiated in 1991 significantly accelerated this trend. Unlike the historical development patterns of many industrialized nations, the Indian economy underwent a structural transformation where it shifted directly from an agriculture-heavy base to a service-led growth model, making services the primary driver of national economic output.
82Economy
The most common measure of estimating inflation in India is
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Answer: (B) Wholesale Price Index
Explanation
Until the adoption of the new Consumer Price Index (CPI) as the primary anchor for monetary policy in 2014, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) served as the headline inflation measure in India. In 2012, the Reserve Bank of India and the government primarily used WPI to monitor price stability and formulate economic policy. WPI tracks the changes in the prices of goods traded and sold in bulk by wholesale businesses, focusing on the supply side of the economy. It includes categories such as primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products, providing a broad view of price pressures at the early stages of the distribution chain.
83Economy
What percentage of the total population of the world resides in India as estimated in the years 2011?
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Answer: (B) 17.5
Explanation
According to the Census of India 2011, the total population of the country was recorded at approximately 1.21 billion. This figure accounted for roughly 17.5 percent of the total world population, which was estimated to be about 7 billion during the same period. Despite occupying only 2.4 percent of the world's total land area, India is home to nearly one-sixth of the global population. This specific statistical estimate was highlighted in the provisional population totals released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, reflecting the demographic weight of the country in a global context as of 2011.
84Economy
Sustainable development is a case of inter-generational sensibility in respect of use of
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Answer: (A) natural resources
Explanation
The concept of sustainable development was formally defined by the Brundtland Commission in its 1987 report, Our Common Future, as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This principle centers on inter-generational equity, which is the ethical obligation of the current generation to use natural resources—such as water, minerals, forests, and soil—judiciously. Since these resources are finite or require time to regenerate, their over-exploitation leads to environmental degradation that would leave future generations with a diminished capacity to survive and thrive. Sustainable development therefore advocates for a management approach that preserves the Earth's natural capital and ecological balance to ensure long-term environmental stability and resource availability.
85History
'Chipko' movement was basically against
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Answer: (C) Deforestation
Explanation
The Chipko movement was a transformative non-violent forest conservation effort that originated in the early 1970s in the Garhwal region of the Himalayas. The movement was a response to the rapid increase in commercial logging and state-sanctioned deforestation, which threatened the ecological stability of the region and the livelihoods of local villagers. The name Chipko refers to the method used by protestors—primarily village women led by figures like Gaura Devi—who physically hugged trees to prevent contractors from felling them. Under the leadership of activists such as Sunderlal Bahuguna and Chandi Prasad Bhatt, the movement successfully raised global awareness about environmental protection and the importance of preserving natural forests to prevent soil erosion and floods. It eventually influenced the government to impose a 15-year ban on commercial green-felling in the Himalayan region.
86Economy
'Eco Mark' is given to the Indian products that are:
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Answer: (C) Environment friendly
Explanation
The Eco Mark scheme was established by the Government of India in 1991 to identify and label products that have a significantly lower environmental impact than other comparable products in the same category. It is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) to products conforming to a set of standards aimed at environmental protection and conservation. To qualify for the mark, a product must meet specific criteria regarding its production, use, and disposal, ensuring it is environment friendly. The logo for this scheme is an earthen pot (matka), which represents the use of earth as a renewable resource and underscores the concept of sustainability and minimal ecological footprint.
87Polity and Governance
The National Institute for the Visually Handicapped is situated at
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Answer: (B) Dehradun
Explanation
The National Institute for the Visually Handicapped (NIVH) is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. Situated in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, it serves as an apex center for research, training, and the provision of services to persons with visual disabilities. The institute originated from the St. Dunstan’s Hostel for the War Blinded established in 1943 and was upgraded to its current status as a national institute in 1979. It is responsible for developing human resources in the field of visual impairment, producing Braille literature and audiobooks, and designing assistive devices to enhance the independence and integration of the visually impaired into mainstream society.
88Economy
Who maintains the foreign exchange reserve in India?
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Answer: (A) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as the sole custodian and manager of India's foreign exchange reserves under the legal framework of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Additionally, the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, mandates the RBI to manage these reserves to facilitate external trade and payments while maintaining orderly conditions in the foreign exchange market. The reserves consist of foreign currency assets, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocated by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), and the reserve tranche position in the IMF. By maintaining these assets, the RBI ensures that the country has sufficient liquidity to meet its international obligations and provides a buffer to safeguard against external economic volatility and currency fluctuations.
89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries was the first to adopt family planning programme officially?
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Answer: (C) India
Explanation
India launched the National Family Planning Programme in 1952, making it the first country in the world to adopt an official state-sponsored population control policy. The program was initiated during the First Five-Year Plan to address the challenges posed by a rapidly growing population on the nation's economic resources and social development. It focused on reducing birth rates to stabilize the population at a level consistent with the requirements of the national economy. Over the decades, the program evolved from a clinic-based approach to a more comprehensive community-oriented strategy, integrating maternal and child health services with reproductive healthcare and family planning education.
90Economy
Which one of the following is the best source of generating electricity in India from the view point of sustainable development?
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Answer: (C) Hydro-electricity
Explanation
Hydro-electricity is considered the most suitable source for electricity generation from the perspective of sustainable development because it is a renewable energy source. It harnesses the kinetic energy of flowing water, which is a resource naturally replenished by the Earth's hydrological cycle. This method of power generation is characterized by the absence of greenhouse gas emissions and atmospheric pollutants during operation, thereby contributing to the mitigation of global warming and air pollution. In the Indian context, the utilization of perennial river systems provides a reliable and long-term energy solution that does not deplete finite natural resources. By providing a clean and persistent power supply, hydro-electricity ensures that current energy demands are met without compromising the environmental health or resource availability for future generations, fulfilling the core criteria of sustainable development.
91Geography
Which of the following represents the average increase in earth's temperature during the last century?
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Answer: (B) 0.7 degree Celsius
Explanation
According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Fourth Assessment Report (AR4) published in 2007, the global average surface temperature increased by 0.74 ± 0.18 °C during the hundred-year period spanning 1906 to 2005. This calculation reflects the linear warming trend observed across the twentieth century and the first few years of the twenty-first century. This warming trend is primarily attributed to the enhanced greenhouse effect caused by the accumulation of anthropogenic greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere. By 2012, this figure was the standard scientific benchmark used in environmental studies and competitive examinations to quantify the average increase in Earth's temperature over the preceding century.
92Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Part affected):
(A) Asbestos
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Carbon
List-II (Air Pollutant):
1. Brain dust
2. Stomach
3. Lung
4. Blood Monoxide stream
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Answer: (B) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Asbestos fibers are primarily respiratory hazards; when inhaled, they lodge deep in the lung tissues, causing scarring, asbestosis, and various forms of lung cancer. Lead is a heavy metal that acts as a neurotoxin, accumulating in the body and causing significant damage to the central nervous system and the brain. Mercury, especially when ingested through contaminated food or water, impacts the gastrointestinal system and the stomach, along with the kidneys and nervous system. Carbon monoxide is a dangerous air pollutant that enters the blood stream and binds with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin, which inhibits the transport of oxygen to vital organs and tissues.
93Geography
The United Nations Convention on Climate Change ratified by more than 50 countries became effective on
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Answer: (A) March 21, 1994
Explanation
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted on May 9, 1992, and opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992. According to Article 23 of the Convention, it entered into force on the ninetieth day after the date of deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval, or accession. This milestone was reached on December 21, 1993, making the treaty legally effective on March 21, 1994. The primary objective of the convention is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that prevents dangerous human interference with the climate system.
94Geography
Which of the following is not a Green House gas?
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Answer: (D) Nitrogen
Explanation
Nitrogen (N₂) constitutes the largest portion of the Earth's atmosphere but does not function as a greenhouse gas. Greenhouse gases are characterized by their ability to absorb and emit infrared radiation, a property determined by their molecular structure. Nitrogen is a homonuclear diatomic molecule, meaning it consists of two identical atoms. Such molecules lack a permanent dipole moment and do not experience a change in dipole moment during vibration. Because of this molecular symmetry, nitrogen is transparent to the long-wave infrared radiation emitted by the Earth's surface and cannot trap heat in the atmosphere. Only molecules with three or more atoms or those with asymmetrical structures can absorb infrared energy and contribute to the greenhouse effect.
95History
Naihati, where according to the Rail Budget 2012-13 a rail coach factory and museum is to be established, is the birth place of
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Answer: (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Explanation
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, the legendary Bengali novelist and the composer of Indias national song Vande Mataram, was born on June 27, 1838, in Kanthalpara, Naihati. In the Railway Budget of 2012-13, the government announced the setting up of a rail coach factory and a museum at Naihati as a tribute to his literary and patriotic contributions. This initiative was part of a larger plan to develop heritage sites associated with prominent national icons, transforming his ancestral town in the North 24 Parganas district into a center for both industrial activity and cultural preservation.
96Geography
As an ecosystem, wetland are useful for which of the following?
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
Wetlands function as the kidneys of the landscape by providing vital ecosystem services that maintain water quality and hydrological balance. They facilitate nutrient recovery and cycling by trapping nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff, utilizing these elements for plant growth and preventing eutrophication in downstream water bodies. Many wetland plants are capable of phytoremediation, a process where they absorb and sequester heavy metals and toxins from the water, effectively neutralizing pollutants. Furthermore, the dense vegetation within wetlands acts as a physical barrier that slows the velocity of flowing water, allowing suspended solids to settle. This sediment retention prevents the siltation of rivers and reservoirs, ensuring clearer water and protecting downstream aquatic habitats.
97Geography
Which of the following countries does not have a global atmosphere watch station to collect data on world temperatures?
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Answer: (D) India
Explanation
The Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW) program, established by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), is a worldwide network of monitoring stations that provide data on the chemical composition and physical characteristics of the atmosphere. The WMO classifies these stations into two categories: Global stations and Regional stations. Global stations are high-level facilities located in remote areas to establish baseline data for the Earth’s atmospheric trends, while Regional stations focus on regional-scale monitoring.
As of 2012, India did not have any station designated as a Global station. Although the India Meteorological Department (IMD) operates a robust network of ten GAW stations located in areas such as Pune, Port Blair, Nagpur, and Kodaikanal, these are all classified as Regional stations. In contrast, countries like Algeria and Kenya have long hosted designated Global stations at Assekrem and Mount Kenya, respectively, to contribute to the high-tier global monitoring network. India's stations provide essential data on atmospheric parameters like ozone, solar radiation, and precipitation chemistry, but they do not meet the specific comprehensive requirements and remote-site criteria defined by the WMO for the Global designation.
98Geography
The World Environment Day is celebrated on
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Answer: (B) June 5
Explanation
World Environment Day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment. It was first celebrated in 1974 with the theme Only One Earth. The day is observed annually on June 5 to raise global awareness and promote constructive action for the protection of the environment. It serves as a primary platform for the United Nations to encourage political attention and public involvement regarding pressing environmental issues such as marine pollution, human overpopulation, global warming, and sustainable consumption.
99Geography
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Indian Institute of Forest Management - Kolkata
Explanation
The Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, not Kolkata. The Centre for Ecological Sciences (CES) is indeed based in Bengaluru at the Indian Institute of Science. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is correctly located in Dehradun. The G.B. Pant National Institute of Himalayan Environment and Sustainable Development is headquartered in Almora, Uttarakhand. Since IIFM-Kolkata is the incorrect pairing, Option C is the answer.
100Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Nilgiri
(B) Nanda Devi
(C) Sunderban
(D) Kanchanjunga 4. 1986
List-II (Biosphere
(Year of
setting):
1. 2000
2. 1989
3. 1988
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve established in India in 1986, covering parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve in Uttarakhand was established in 1988 to preserve the unique Himalayan biodiversity. The Sunderban Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal, known for its extensive mangrove ecosystems, was designated in 1989. The Khangchendzonga (Kanchanjunga) Biosphere Reserve in Sikkim was established in the year 2000.
101Geography
The transitional zone between two distinct communities is known as
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Answer: (D) Ecotone
Explanation
An ecotone is a physical transition zone where two or more distinct ecosystems or biological communities meet and integrate. This area of transition can be narrow or wide, and it often exhibits characteristics of both bordering communities while also hosting unique environmental conditions. Because it represents a gradient between different habitats, an ecotone typically supports a high level of biodiversity and species richness, a phenomenon known as the edge effect. Common examples of ecotones include estuaries, which form the transition between freshwater rivers and saltwater oceans, and marshlands, which bridge the gap between terrestrial and aquatic environments.
102Geography
Which of the following regions of India have been designated as biodiversity hot spots?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Eastern Himalaya
2. Eastern Ghat
3. Western Ghat
4. Western Himalaya
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Eastern Himalaya and the Western Ghats are designated as biodiversity hotspots because they meet the specific global criteria of high species endemism and significant habitat loss. The Eastern Himalaya region serves as a crucial corridor for flora and fauna, featuring a high density of endemic vascular plants across its diverse altitudinal gradients. The Western Ghats, located along the west coast of India, is one of the world’s eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity, hosting numerous endemic amphibians, reptiles, and plant species in its moist deciduous and evergreen forests. These regions are part of the four major hotspots that cover parts of India, which also include the Indo-Burma and Sundaland regions. Their designation highlights the urgent need for conservation due to the high risk of extinction for the species unique to these specific geographical areas.
103Economy
The non-biotic pollutant underground water is
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Answer: (C) Arsenic
Explanation
Arsenic is a naturally occurring chemical element and a heavy metal that acts as a significant abiotic or non-biotic pollutant in groundwater. Unlike biological contaminants, arsenic enters the water supply through geological processes such as the weathering and leaching of arsenic-bearing minerals and sediments. In the context of the Indian subcontinent, particularly in the Ganga-Brahmaputra fluvial plains, arsenic contamination in tube wells and underground aquifers is a major geogenic environmental hazard. Exposure to this inorganic pollutant through drinking water is highly toxic and leads to severe health issues like arsenicosis, skin lesions, and various forms of cancer.
104Geography
Lichens are the best indicator of
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Answer: (A) air pollution
Explanation
Lichens are composite organisms consisting of a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. Because they lack roots and a protective waxy cuticle, they obtain their water and nutrients primarily from the atmosphere through wet and dry deposition. This physiological structure makes them highly sensitive to atmospheric impurities, especially sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). When air quality is poor, these pollutants accumulate in the lichen tissues, disrupting photosynthesis and other metabolic processes, which leads to their decline or disappearance. Consequently, the diversity and abundance of lichen populations serve as effective biological indicators for monitoring levels of air pollution.
105Geography
The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called
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Answer: (B) Biogeochemical cycles
Explanation
Biogeochemical cycles describe the pathways by which essential elements like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur circulate through the biotic components of living organisms and the abiotic components of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. The term integrates biological, geological, and chemical processes, reflecting how nutrients move from the physical environment into organisms and back again. These cycles are fundamental to ecosystem functioning because they ensure that finite resources are recycled and made continuously available for life. Elements are typically absorbed by autotrophs from the soil or air, passed through the food web, and eventually returned to the environment through metabolic waste and the decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms.
106Science and Technology
National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is situated at:
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Answer: (A) Nagpur
Explanation
The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) located in Nagpur, Maharashtra. It was established in 1958 as the Central Public Health Engineering Research Institute (CPHERI) and was renamed NEERI in 1974 to better reflect its mandate of addressing broader environmental challenges. The institute focuses on research and development in environmental science and engineering, including water supply, wastewater treatment, solid waste management, and air pollution control. NEERI provides technical solutions to both government and private sectors to ensure sustainable environmental management across India.
107Geography
Which of the following substances is/are ozone depleting?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Chlorofluoroo Carbons
2. Halans
3. Carbon tetrachloride
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons, halons, and carbon tetrachloride are all classified as ozone-depleting substances (ODS) under the Montreal Protocol. Chlorofluorocarbons release chlorine atoms when broken down by ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere, which then catalyze the destruction of ozone (O₃) molecules. Halons are brominated compounds primarily used in fire extinguishers; bromine is significantly more efficient than chlorine at destroying ozone on a per-atom basis. Carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄), widely used as a solvent and chemical intermediate, also releases chlorine into the atmosphere, contributing to the chemical depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer. Because all three chemicals contain halogens that reach the stratosphere and participate in catalytic cycles that break down ozone, they are all recognized as major contributors to ozone layer thinning.
108Geography
The maximum biodiversity is found in
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Answer: (A) Tropical rain forests
Explanation
Tropical rain forests harbor the highest levels of biodiversity because they receive consistent solar energy and abundant rainfall throughout the year. Located near the equator, these ecosystems maintain high temperatures and high humidity, which result in high net primary productivity. The absence of severe seasonal changes provides a stable environment that has allowed evolution to proceed without significant interruptions over geological time scales. This stability facilitates the development of complex vertical stratification and numerous specialized ecological niches, allowing a dense concentration of diverse plant and animal species to coexist. It is estimated that these forests contain more than half of the world's terrestrial species despite covering a small fraction of Earth's land surface.
109Geography
The minimum area of the land required to completely sustain the life of the person is called his.
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Answer: (B) Ecological foot print
Explanation
The ecological footprint is a metric used to measure the human demand on Earth's ecosystems. It specifically quantifies the amount of biologically productive land and water area required to produce the resources an individual consumes and to absorb the waste they generate, given prevailing technology and resource management. This concept provides a spatial representation of the environmental impact of a person's lifestyle, accounting for cropland, grazing land, fishing grounds, forest products, and the area needed for carbon sequestration. By comparing this demand against the Earth's total biocapacity, the ecological footprint helps determine the sustainability of human activities and the extent to which the biosphere is being utilized.
110Geography
The most populated desert in the world is
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Answer: (C) Thar
Explanation
The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is the most densely populated desert in the world. While most deserts have very low population densities, the Thar Desert supports a population density of approximately 83 people per square kilometer. This is primarily due to the historical presence of human settlements that have adapted to the arid conditions and the development of extensive irrigation systems like the Indira Gandhi Canal. These water resources have enabled agriculture and supported large communities in regions that would otherwise be uninhabitable. The desert serves as a significant cultural and economic hub in northwestern India and eastern Pakistan, facilitating activities such as animal husbandry, mining, and trade.
111Geography
Which one of the following is the most effective factor of coral bleaching?
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Answer: (C) Rise in normal temperature of sea-water
Explanation
Coral bleaching occurs when coral polyps expel the symbiotic algae known as zooxanthellae that reside within their tissues, which provide the corals with nutrients and their vibrant colors. The most significant and widespread trigger for this phenomenon is thermal stress caused by the rise in normal sea-water temperatures. Corals are highly sensitive to environmental changes and typically thrive within a narrow temperature range. An increase of as little as 1°C to 2°C above the average summer maximum can cause the zooxanthellae to produce compounds that are toxic to the coral, leading to their expulsion. Sustained elevations in sea surface temperatures, often associated with global warming and El Nino events, are the primary drivers of mass bleaching episodes observed across the world's oceans.
112Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) NAG - Anti-tank missile
Explanation
The Nag is a third-generation, indigenous, fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). It is specifically engineered to engage and destroy heavily armored enemy tanks in all-weather conditions, featuring both day and night operational capabilities. The missile utilizes an imaging infra-red (IIR) seeker to lock onto targets before launch, ensuring a high hit probability. It can be deployed from various platforms, including the Nag Missile Carrier (NAMICA), which is a modified BMP-2 infantry fighting vehicle, as well as from airborne platforms like the Dhruv helicopter.
113Science and Technology
The reason of mirage is
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Answer: (D) total internal reflection of light
Explanation
A mirage is an optical phenomenon caused by the total internal reflection of light. On hot days, the ground heats the adjacent air, creating a temperature gradient where the air nearest the ground is warmer and less dense than the cooler air above it. Since the refractive index of air decreases as its temperature increases, light rays traveling from a distant object towards the ground pass through layers of progressively lower refractive index. This causes the light to bend away from the normal. When the angle of incidence becomes greater than the critical angle for the air layers, the light undergoes total internal reflection and travels upwards. To an observer, these reflected rays appear to come from the ground, creating a virtual image that resembles a reflection in a pool of water.
114Science and Technology
The colour of light is determined by its
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Answer: (B) wavelength
Explanation
The color of light is fundamentally determined by its wavelength, which refers to the distance between consecutive crests or troughs of the light wave. The visible spectrum consists of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths ranging from approximately 400 nm for violet to 700 nm for red. Each color within this spectrum corresponds to a specific wavelength range; for instance, blue light has a shorter wavelength compared to red light. Although the frequency of light is also intrinsically linked to color and remains constant across different media, wavelength is the standard physical parameter used to define and categorize the colors of the visible spectrum in most scientific and educational contexts.
115Science and Technology
Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency
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Answer: (A) greater than 20,000 Hz
Explanation
Ultrasonic waves, commonly referred to as ultrasound, are sound waves that possess frequencies above the upper limit of human hearing. The typical range of human audibility is defined between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Consequently, any longitudinal mechanical waves with a frequency greater than 20,000 Hz are classified as ultrasonics. These high-frequency waves are characterized by short wavelengths, which enable them to travel in straight paths and penetrate various media, making them highly effective for applications in medical diagnostics, non-destructive industrial testing, and sonar technology. Animals such as bats and dolphins naturally utilize these frequencies for echolocation and navigation.
116Geography
Kaziranga is known for
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Answer: (A) Rhinoceros
Explanation
Kaziranga National Park, situated in the state of Assam, is globally famous for being the primary habitat of the Great One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). By 2012, the park was home to over 2,000 individuals, representing approximately two-thirds of the entire world population of this species. The park's geography, characterized by alluvial inundated grasslands, marshlands, and tropical wet evergreen forests along the Brahmaputra River, offers the ideal environment for these mega-herbivores. Its successful protection efforts led to its designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985, primarily due to its critical importance in the continued survival of the one-horned rhino.
117Science and Technology
The full form of SIM is
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Answer: (B) Subscriber's Identity Module
Explanation
A Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) is an integrated circuit that securely stores the International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI) number and its related cryptographic key. These are used to identify and authenticate subscribers on mobile telephony devices, such as mobile phones and computers. Developed originally for the Global System for Mobile communications (GSM) standard, the SIM card acts as a portable identity that allows users to move their subscription, contacts, and personal data between different handsets. It consists of a microprocessor and memory that manage network access credentials and provide secure storage for service-related information.
118Science and Technology
Which of the following gets deficient in the human body due to Dengue fever?
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Answer: (A) Platelets
Explanation
Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne viral infection caused by the dengue virus, which typically results in a condition known as thrombocytopenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in the number of platelets, or thrombocytes, in the human body. Platelets are cell fragments in the blood that are essential for the clotting process and for maintaining the integrity of blood vessel walls. The virus causes this deficiency by suppressing the bone marrow, which is responsible for platelet production, and by inducing the production of antibodies that target and destroy platelets in the peripheral circulation. When the platelet count falls below critical levels, it can lead to Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever, manifesting as internal or external bleeding.
119Science and Technology
The most important part of a computer is
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Answer: (A) C.P.U.
Explanation
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is considered the brain of a computer because it is responsible for interpreting and executing the majority of commands from the hardware and software. It performs all fundamental arithmetic, logical, and control operations, acting as the primary processing hub that coordinates the functionality of every other component in the system. Without the CPU, a computer cannot process data or run applications, making it the most essential hardware element for the operation of the entire machine.
120Science and Technology
In an earthen pitcher, the water remains cold due to the process of
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Answer: (B) evaporation
Explanation
The cooling of water in an earthen pitcher is driven by the process of evaporation. Earthenware is naturally porous, containing thousands of microscopic openings that allow water to slowly seep through to the outer surface of the vessel. Once this water reaches the exterior, it evaporates into the atmosphere. This phase transition from liquid to gas requires energy, specifically the latent heat of vaporization, which is extracted from the water remaining inside the pitcher and the pitcher's walls. This constant loss of thermal energy results in a significant reduction in the temperature of the internal water, keeping it cool despite high external temperatures.
121Science and Technology
Laser is a device for producing
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Answer: (D) stimulated radiation
Explanation
The acronym LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. The fundamental principle behind its operation is the process of stimulated emission, first proposed by Albert Einstein. In this process, an incident photon interacts with an atom or molecule in an excited state, inducing it to drop to a lower energy level. This transition results in the emission of a second photon that is identical to the original photon in terms of frequency, phase, polarization, and direction. By maintaining a population inversion where more atoms are in an excited state than in a ground state, this mechanism allows for the coherent amplification of light, producing the highly concentrated and monochromatic beam characteristic of a laser.
122Science and Technology
Pendulum clock become slow in summer because
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Answer: (C) the length of the pendulum increases.
Explanation
The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π√(l/g), where l is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity. During summer, the increase in temperature causes the metallic rod of the pendulum to expand due to thermal expansion, thereby increasing its effective length l. According to the formula, the time period T is directly proportional to the square root of the length (T ∝ √l). As the length increases, the time taken for the pendulum to complete one oscillation also increases. This means the pendulum swings more slowly and completes fewer oscillations in a day than required, leading the clock to lose time.
123Science and Technology
Homi Bhabha award is given for special contribution in the field of
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Answer: (B) Nuclear Energy
Explanation
The Homi Bhabha Award is conferred to recognize outstanding contributions in the field of nuclear energy and atomic research. Named after Homi Jehangir Bhabha, who is widely regarded as the father of the Indian nuclear program, the award honors scientists and researchers who have made significant advancements in nuclear science and technology. Bhabha was the visionary behind India's three-stage nuclear power program and instrumental in the establishment of key institutions such as the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and the Atomic Energy Commission. The award serves to encourage excellence in the development and application of nuclear energy for scientific and national progress.
124Science and Technology
Who had proposed for the first time the double helix model of DNA?
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Answer: (A) Watson and Crick
Explanation
James Watson and Francis Crick proposed the double helix structure of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) in 1953. Their molecular model was formulated by interpreting X-ray diffraction patterns produced by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins, which indicated that DNA was a multi-stranded helix. By incorporating Erwin Chargaff's observations on base ratios, Watson and Crick determined that DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains running in opposite directions, held together by hydrogen bonds between specific nitrogenous base pairs: Adenine with Thymine and Guanine with Cytosine. This structural model provided the first clear explanation of how genetic information is coded and replicated. In 1962, Watson, Crick, and Wilkins were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for this discovery.
125Science and Technology
The year 2011 has been marked for the livestock disease named
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Answer: (B) Rinderpest
Explanation
In June 2011, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) officially declared the global eradication of Rinderpest. This infectious viral disease, commonly known as cattle plague, affected cattle, buffalo, and other even-toed ungulates. It became the first animal disease and only the second disease in history, after smallpox in humans, to be completely eliminated worldwide. The declaration followed an intensive international effort known as the Global Rinderpest Eradication Programme, which combined vaccination campaigns with rigorous surveillance to ensure the virus no longer circulated in the wild.
126Science and Technology
Chlorophyll contains
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Answer: (C) Magnesium
Explanation
Chlorophyll is the primary pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria. The core of its chemical structure is a porphyrin ring, which consists of four nitrogen-containing pyrrole rings. At the exact center of this porphyrin head is a single magnesium ion (Mg²⁺). This central magnesium atom is essential for the molecule's ability to absorb light energy, particularly in the red and blue wavelengths, and is fundamental to the structural integrity of the pigment. Without magnesium, the complex electron-transfer processes required to convert solar energy into chemical energy could not occur.
127Science and Technology
Funk invented
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Answer: (A) Vitamins
Explanation
Casimir Funk, a Polish biochemist, is credited with formulating the concept of vitamins in 1912. While researching the cause of beriberi, he isolated a substance from rice polishings that could cure the disease and termed it a vitamine. This name was derived from the words vital and amine, based on his initial belief that these essential organic compounds were chemical amines necessary for life. Funk proposed that specific diseases such as scurvy, rickets, and pellagra were caused by the lack of these vital substances in the diet, effectively establishing the theoretical framework for the study of micronutrients and deficiency diseases in modern nutritional science.
128Science and Technology
When ice melts, then the
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Answer: (B) volume decreases
Explanation
Water exhibits an anomalous property where its solid form, ice, is less dense than its liquid form. In the solid state, water molecules are arranged in a rigid, hexagonal crystalline lattice held by hydrogen bonds. This structure is relatively open, creating a cage-like arrangement that occupies a larger volume. When ice melts, the thermal energy breaks some of these hydrogen bonds, causing the lattice to collapse and allowing the molecules to pack more closely together in the liquid phase. Since the mass m remains constant during the phase change and the density ρ increases, the relation V = m/ρ dictates that the volume V must decrease.
129Science and Technology
White colour of milk is due to the presence of
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Answer: (D) caseins
Explanation
The white color of milk is primarily due to the presence of caseins, which are the main proteins found in milk, accounting for approximately 80 percent of its total protein content. These proteins do not exist as individual molecules but instead aggregate into large, spherical complexes known as casein micelles. These micelles, typically ranging from 50 to 300 nanometers in diameter, are large enough to scatter and reflect light as it passes through the liquid. This phenomenon, known as light scattering, prevents light from passing straight through the milk, resulting in its characteristic opaque and white appearance.
130Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Plague
(B) AIDS
(C) Baldness
(D) Malaria
List-II:
1. Protozoa
2. Fungus
3. Virus
4. Bacteria
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Plague is a severe infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is primarily transmitted by fleas. AIDS is a condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) that damages the immune system. Baldness, in a biological and infectious context, is often caused by various types of fungi that infect the scalp and hair follicles. Malaria is an illness caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are single-celled protozoans transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
131Science and Technology
What is MRI?
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Answer: (C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Explanation
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a non-invasive medical imaging technique used to produce high-quality, three-dimensional anatomical images. It works on the principle of nuclear magnetic resonance, where powerful magnets generate a strong magnetic field that forces protons in the body to align with that field. When a radiofrequency current is pulsed through the patient, the protons are stimulated and spin out of equilibrium, struggling against the pull of the magnetic field. When the radiofrequency field is turned off, the MRI sensors detect the energy released as the protons realign with the magnetic field. The time it takes for the protons to realign and the amount of energy released change depending on the environment and the chemical nature of the molecules. This technique is particularly effective for imaging soft tissues, the brain, and the spinal cord because it provides superior contrast compared to CT scans or X-rays.
132Economy
Who was the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission?
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Answer: (C) Vijay Kelkar
Explanation
The 13th Finance Commission was established by the President of India in November 2007 under the provisions of Article 280 of the Constitution, with Dr. Vijay Kelkar appointed as its Chairman. The commission was responsible for providing recommendations on fiscal federalism for the period between April 2010 and March 2015. Under Dr. Kelkar's leadership, the commission introduced several transformative proposals, including a comprehensive roadmap for the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and a formula for the horizontal devolution of taxes that accounted for fiscal discipline and environmental factors. The final report was submitted in December 2009 and served as the primary framework for resource sharing between the Center and the States during the 13th five-year plan period.
133Polity and Governance
The first Indian State to pass the Lokayukta bill in 2011 is
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Answer: (C) Uttarakhand
Explanation
Uttarakhand became the first state in India to pass a new and more stringent Lokayukta Bill in 2011. The Uttarakhand Lokayukta Bill, 2011, was passed by the state legislative assembly on November 1, 2011, under the leadership of Chief Minister Bhuwan Chandra Khanduri. This legislation was considered a landmark move as it was heavily influenced by the Jan Lokpal Bill advocated by civil society during the nationwide anti-corruption movement. The bill was designed to be highly inclusive, bringing the office of the Chief Minister, all ministers, former Chief Ministers, and members of the legislative assembly, as well as all categories of government employees, under the jurisdiction of the Lokayukta. The passage of this bill in late 2011 marked a major step in institutionalizing a robust grievance redressal and anti-corruption mechanism at the state level.
134Polity and Governance
India has recently signed a Border Pact with which of The SAARC countries?
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Answer: (D) Bangladesh
Explanation
In September 2011, India and Bangladesh signed a historic protocol to the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) during Prime Minister Manmohan Singh's visit to Dhaka. This pact was designed to comprehensively settle long-standing boundary disputes between the two nations, including the demarcation of undemarcated land boundary segments, the exchange of 162 enclaves, and the resolution of adverse possessions. As a founding member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), Bangladesh's agreement with India represented a significant step in bilateral relations and regional stability.
135Polity and Governance
Who among the following dignitaries were in Delhi in February/March 2012?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Foreign Minister of Norway
2. Foreign Minister of China
3. Foreign Minister of Italy
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
During February and March 2012, Delhi hosted several high-level diplomatic visits. The Foreign Minister of Norway, Jonas Gahr Store, visited India in early March 2012 to co-chair the 4th India-Norway Joint Commission meeting, focusing on bilateral cooperation in energy and trade. The Foreign Minister of China, Yang Jiechi, arrived in late February 2012 to hold talks with his Indian counterpart on the strategic and cooperative partnership between the two nations and to prepare for the 4th BRICS Summit. The Foreign Minister of Italy, Giulio Terzi di Sant Agata, visited Delhi in late February 2012 to engage in diplomatic discussions with the Indian government, particularly addressing the legal and diplomatic situation following the Enrica Lexie incident involving Italian marines off the coast of Kerala. All three dignitaries were present in the capital during this specific two-month window.
136Polity and Governance
Kamla Prasad Bissessar is the Prime Minister of
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Answer: (D) Trinidad and Tobago
Explanation
Kamla Persad-Bissessar served as the seventh Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago from May 2010 to September 2015. She was the first woman to hold the office of Prime Minister in the country's history. Leading the People's Partnership coalition, she secured a victory in the 2010 general elections. Beyond her national role, she also served as the Chairperson-in-Office of the Commonwealth of Nations between 2010 and 2011, following the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting held in Port of Spain.
137History
What is the name of the luxury cruise ship which capsized near the western coast of Italy on 13th January 2012?
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Answer: (B) Costa Concordia
Explanation
The Costa Concordia was a large Italian cruise ship that capsized off the western coast of Italy near the island of Isola del Giglio on January 13, 2012. The vessel struck a reef after the captain ordered a maneuver to sail close to the shore for a maritime salute. The impact created a significant breach in the hull, causing the ship to lose power and tilt onto its starboard side in shallow water. This major maritime disaster necessitated a massive rescue operation for the more than 4,000 passengers and crew on board and resulted in 32 fatalities. The incident drew global attention to maritime safety protocols and the subsequent salvage operation became one of the largest and most expensive in history.
138Polity and Governance
Where was the Fifth Summit Conference of IBSA (Organization of India, Brazil and South Africa) held in 2011?
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Answer: (B) Pretoria
Explanation
The Fifth IBSA Summit was held in Pretoria, South Africa, on October 18, 2011. The summit involved the heads of state from the three member nations, including Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, Brazilian President Dilma Rousseff, and South African President Jacob Zuma. The leaders focused on deepening trilateral cooperation and discussed major global issues such as the reform of the United Nations Security Council, the global financial crisis, and international terrorism. The Tshwane Declaration was issued at the conclusion of this summit, reaffirming the commitment of the three emerging economies to South-South cooperation.
139Polity and Governance
Of which of the following countries Mariyano Rajoy has assumed the office of Prime Minister on 20 December 2011?
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Answer: (C) Spain
Explanation
Mariano Rajoy Brey, the leader of the conservative People's Party (Partido Popular), was elected as the Prime Minister of Spain by the Spanish Congress of Deputies on 20 December 2011. This followed the general election held on 20 November 2011, where his party achieved an absolute majority by winning 186 of the 350 seats in the lower house. He was officially sworn into office before King Juan Carlos I on 21 December 2011, succeeding Jose Luis Rodriguez Zapatero during a period of significant economic challenge for the nation.
140Polity and Governance
Which country has announced in December 2011 that it will set up its first military based abroad in the Indian Ocean Island of Seychelles?
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
In December 2011, the Chinese Ministry of National Defense confirmed that the People's Liberation Army Navy was considering the use of Seychelles as a resupply and replenishment location for its warships. This move followed an official invitation from the Seychelles government for China to establish a presence to help combat piracy in the Indian Ocean. The facility was designed to support Chinese naval vessels participating in international anti-piracy escort missions in the Gulf of Aden and the waters off Somalia. At the time, this was widely identified as a significant step in China's development of overseas logistics and support capabilities for its growing blue-water navy.
141Polity and Governance
Where was the 17th SAARC (2011) conference held?
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Answer: (D) Addu City
Explanation
The 17th SAARC Summit was held in Addu City, Maldives, on November 10-11, 2011. This summit was historically significant as it was the first SAARC meeting to be conducted in the southern hemisphere. The conference operated under the central theme of Building Bridges, which aimed to improve physical connectivity and deepen economic integration among South Asian nations. During the summit, the leaders of the eight member states signed the Addu Declaration, committing to enhance regional cooperation in diverse sectors such as trade, maritime security, and climate change adaptation. The event also prioritized the effective implementation of the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) to bolster intra-regional commerce.
142Polity and Governance
Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation (2011)
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Answer: (C) Dalai Lama
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation for the year 2011 was conferred upon the 14th Dalai Lama, Tenzin Gyatso. This award is presented by the Gandhi Development Trust, an organization based in Durban, South Africa, founded by Mahatma Gandhi's granddaughter, Ela Gandhi. The Dalai Lama was chosen for this honor in recognition of his lifelong commitment to the Gandhian principles of non-violence (ahimsa), peace, and religious harmony. His efforts in advocating for the peaceful resolution of the Tibetan issue and his global message of compassion and universal responsibility were central to his selection. Although he was unable to travel to South Africa to receive the award in person due to diplomatic visa issues, the recognition highlighted his role as a leading global practitioner of non-violent resistance and reconciliation.
143History
Which country will host 2014 FIFA World Cup?
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Answer: (A) Brazil
Explanation
Brazil was officially selected as the host nation for the 2014 FIFA World Cup by the FIFA Executive Committee on October 30, 2007. The selection followed FIFA's continental rotation policy, which designated South America as the host region for the 2014 edition. As the only country from the South American Football Confederation to submit a formal bid, Brazil was confirmed as the host, marking the second time the nation would hold the tournament after previously hosting it in 1950.
144Polity and Governance
The Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee for 2011 is?
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Answer: (B) Gagan Narag
Explanation
Gagan Narang was conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2011 in recognition of his exceptional achievements in shooting. This honor followed his stellar performance at the 2010 Commonwealth Games in New Delhi, where he won four gold medals in events including the 10m air rifle and 50m rifle 3 positions. His consistent performance at the international level and his status as a world-class marksman made him the sole recipient of India's highest sporting honor for that year.
145Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the Special Guest of India's Sixty-third Republic Day celebration?
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Answer: (A) Yingluck Shinawatra
Explanation
Yingluck Shinawatra, the then Prime Minister of Thailand, served as the Chief Guest for India's 63rd Republic Day parade on January 26, 2012. Her presence at the event was a strategic move by the Indian government to reinforce its Look East Policy, aimed at deepening economic and security integration with Southeast Asian nations. As Thailand's first female Prime Minister, her visit marked a significant milestone in India-Thailand bilateral relations, leading to discussions on maritime security, trade agreements, and counter-terrorism cooperation.
146Art and Culture
In January 2012 the Second DSC Prize for South Asian Literature was awarded to
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Answer: (D) Shehan Karunatilaka
Explanation
Shehan Karunatilaka, a Sri Lankan author, was awarded the second DSC Prize for South Asian Literature in January 2012 for his debut novel, Chinaman: The Legend of Pradeep Mathew. The award was announced during the Jaipur Literature Festival. The novel uses the search for a legendary but forgotten cricketer as a lens to explore the complex history, politics, and social fabric of Sri Lanka. The jury, chaired by Ira Pande, selected Karunatilaka's work for its ambition, technical skill, and its ability to use a popular sport to tell a profound human story about the South Asian region.