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UPPSC Prelims 1997 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 117 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

117
Questions
6
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History2824%
  • Science and Technology2622%
  • Polity and Governance2521%
  • Economy1715%
  • Geography1210%
  • Art and Culture98%
1Economy
Assertion (A): Indian economy has moved to a higher average GDP growth rate in the last 15 years. Reason (R): The saving ratio has consistently increased in this period.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

In the decade and a half leading up to 1997, the Indian economy transitioned from the historical low growth rates of previous decades to a higher trajectory, averaging approximately 5.5% to 6% per annum. This acceleration was supported by a structural increase in the domestic saving ratio, which rose from roughly 19% of GDP in the early 1980s to over 24% by the mid-1990s. According to the Harrod-Domar growth model, the rate of economic growth g is determined by the saving ratio s and the incremental capital-output ratio k, expressed as g = s/k. The consistent rise in domestic savings provided the necessary financial resources to fund higher levels of investment, thereby acting as a fundamental cause for the sustained elevation in India's average GDP growth rate.

2Economy
Assertion (A): Many industries in India have obtained ISO 9001 and ISO 9002 certification in the recent past. Reason (R): There has been considerable liberalisation in the licensing policy of the Government of India.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The assertion that many Indian industries obtained ISO 9001 and ISO 9002 certifications in the 1990s is true. Following the 1991 economic reforms, Indian firms sought these international quality management standards to improve internal efficiency and gain credibility in global export markets. The reason is also true, as the New Industrial Policy of 1991 significantly liberalized industrial licensing by abolishing the requirement for most industries, thereby dismantling the License Raj. However, while both events were part of the broader Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) era, they address different economic aspects. Licensing liberalization concerns the ease of starting and expanding businesses, whereas ISO certification is a quality assurance tool. Therefore, the removal of licensing hurdles is not the causal factor behind the industry-wide move toward ISO certification.

3Economy
Assertion (A): Presently, there is no clear picture about the extent of poverty in India. Reason (R): There have been major shifts in the strategy of poverty eradication programmes.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

By 1997, India had a well-defined framework for estimating poverty. The Planning Commission utilized comprehensive data from the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) and adopted the Lakdawala Committee methodology (1993), which provided specific state-wise poverty lines. The 50th NSSO round (1993-94) offered a clear and detailed statistical picture of poverty levels across the country, making the assertion that no clear picture existed factually incorrect. However, the reason is true as there were significant shifts in poverty alleviation strategies during the 1990s. Following the 1991 economic reforms and the Eighth Five Year Plan (1992-97), the approach moved from top-down centralized planning to decentralized implementation through Panchayati Raj Institutions. Strategies shifted toward targeted self-employment schemes, rural infrastructure development, and an increased emphasis on social sector investments like education and health to create a more sustainable impact on poverty reduction.

4Economy
Assertion (A): In recent times, the growth in the public sector employment has been very sluggish in India. Reason (R): There has been reassessment of the role of State in economic development.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Following the 1991 New Economic Policy, India underwent a significant paradigm shift from a state-led development model to a market-oriented economy. This period marked a critical reassessment of the role of the State, moving away from being a direct producer and provider of employment toward becoming a facilitator and regulator. The government implemented policies focused on disinvestment in Public Sector Undertakings, fiscal consolidation, and administrative reforms aimed at downsizing the bureaucracy to reduce the fiscal deficit. Consequently, the creation of new positions in the public sector was curtailed and recruitment was restricted in many departments and state-owned enterprises. This policy-driven shift directly resulted in the sluggish growth of public sector employment during the 1990s, making the reassessment of the State's economic role the underlying cause for the observed stagnation in government job growth.

5Economy
The Meera Seth Committee was concerned with:
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Answer: (A) development of handlooms

Explanation

The Meera Seth Committee was a high-powered body constituted by the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India, to address the challenges and potential of the handloom sector. The committee submitted its comprehensive report in 1997, providing a detailed roadmap for the development and modernization of the handloom industry. Its recommendations focused on improving the socio-economic conditions of weavers through better access to credit, the establishment of a national handloom fund, and the enhancement of marketing facilities to ensure the sector's growth. The committee emphasized shifting the focus from mere production to a market-driven approach to help traditional weavers compete in a liberalized economy.

6Economy
According to the 10th Finance Commission, the share of States in the divisible pool of taxes will be:
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Answer: (B) 29 per cent

Explanation

The Tenth Finance Commission, chaired by K.C. Pant for the period 1995-2000, introduced the Alternative Scheme of Devolution. Under this landmark recommendation, the commission proposed that 29 per cent of the total gross proceeds of all central taxes and duties should be transferred to the states. This replaced the older system where states received fixed, disparate shares of specific taxes like income tax and basic excise duties. By pooling all central taxes, the commission aimed to provide states with a share in the overall buoyancy of the Union's tax revenue and ensure a more stable and predictable flow of resources. This recommendation formed the basis for the 80th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

7History
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Raja Ram - Adi Brahmo Samaj Mohan Roy

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to propagate monotheism and social reform. The specific organizational title Adi Brahmo Samaj was not used during his lifetime. This name emerged only after the first major split in the movement in 1866. When Keshab Chandra Sen broke away to form the Brahmo Samaj of India, the original parent body under the leadership of Debendranath Tagore began calling itself the Adi Brahmo Samaj to signify its status as the original society. Therefore, the Adi Brahmo Samaj is historically associated with Debendranath Tagore rather than Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

8History
Who among the following was not present in the founding session of the Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (D) Surendra Nath Banerjee

Explanation

Surendra Nath Banerjee was absent from the founding session of the Indian National Congress in December 1885 because he was presiding over the second session of the Indian National Conference in Calcutta at that same time. The Indian National Conference, which Banerjee had co-founded with Anand Mohan Bose in 1883, was the first major all-India political organization. Recognizing the identical objectives of both bodies, the Indian National Conference merged with the Indian National Congress during the latter's second session held in Calcutta in 1886. Banerjee later played a central role in the Congress movement and served as its President in 1895 and 1902.

9History
Who among the trio- Lal, Bal and Pal became President of the Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (A) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was the only leader among the Lal-Bal-Pal trio to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress. He presided over the special session of the Congress held in Calcutta in September 1920. This session was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement as it was where the Congress adopted the resolution for the Non-Cooperation Movement proposed by Mahatma Gandhi. Known as the Lion of Punjab, Lala Lajpat Rai was a key figure in the extremist faction of the party, yet he was the only one of the three influential nationalist leaders to officially head the organization during his political career.

10History
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List-I (Newspapers): (A) Hindu (B) Sudharak (C) Voice of India (D) Bengali List-II (Editors): 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. G.Subramaniya Iyer 4. Surendra Nath Banerjee
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Answer: (B) 3, 2, 1

Explanation

The Hindu was founded and edited by G. Subramaniya Iyer in 1878 to promote nationalist ideas and public awareness in Southern India. Sudharak was an Anglo-Marathi journal edited by Gopal Krishna Gokhale to focus on social reform and moderate political thought. Voice of India was launched by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1883 to highlight Indian issues and grievances within British political circles. The Bengalee was a prominent nationalist newspaper edited by Surendra Nath Banerjee, which served as a primary platform for the early Indian political movement.

11Polity and Governance
Which one of the following acts empowered the Governor General of India to issue ordinances?
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Answer: (B) Indian Council Act of 1861

Explanation

The Indian Council Act of 1861 empowered the Governor-General to issue ordinances for the peace and good government of British India during emergencies. These ordinances had the same force and effect as an act passed by the Legislative Council but were valid for a maximum duration of six months. This provision granted the executive significant discretionary powers to legislate independently of the council in urgent situations, a feature that has influenced subsequent constitutional developments in India.

12History
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below? List-I: (A) August Declaration (B) August Offer (C) August Resolution (D) Direct Action Day List-II: 1. Lord Linlithgow 2. Montague UPPSC (Pre) GS Solved Paper-1 Exam-1997 Solved Paper-1 Exam-1997 87 3. Mohammad Ali Jinnah 4. Mahatma Gandhi
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The August Declaration of 1917 was a statement made by Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India, which defined the goal of British rule as the gradual development of self-governing institutions in India. The August Offer was issued in 1940 by Viceroy Lord Linlithgow to seek Indian cooperation in World War II by promising dominion status and the expansion of the Viceroy's Executive Council. The August Resolution refers to the Quit India Resolution passed by the Indian National Congress in 1942 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, initiating a mass civil disobedience movement. Direct Action Day was observed on August 16, 1946, following a call by Mohammad Ali Jinnah and the Muslim League to press their demand for the partition of India and the creation of Pakistan.

13Science and Technology
The 'Biojector' is:
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Answer: (D) a painless needleless injector

Explanation

The Biojector is a needle-free jet injection system developed for the delivery of vaccines and medications. It operates by using a compressed CO₂ cartridge to force liquid medication through a micro-orifice at high pressure, creating a thin, high-velocity stream that penetrates the skin. This mechanism allows for subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intradermal delivery without the use of a conventional hypodermic needle. By the late 1990s, it was widely recognized for its ability to reduce patient pain and eliminate the risk of needle-stick injuries and cross-contamination in clinical environments.

14Science and Technology
Which is a celestial phenomenon occurring due to stars:
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Answer: (B) Black hole

Explanation

A black hole is a celestial phenomenon that represents the final stage in the life cycle of a massive star. When a star with a mass significantly greater than that of the Sun exhausts its nuclear fuel, it can no longer sustain the outward pressure required to counteract its own gravity. This leads to a catastrophic gravitational collapse. If the remaining core mass is sufficiently high, it collapses into a singularity—a point of infinite density. This creates a region of spacetime where the gravitational pull is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape from within its event horizon. Therefore, black holes are intrinsic products of stellar evolution and the death of high-mass stars.

15Geography
At the time of summer solstice in the northern hemisphere the length of the day will be 12 hours at the:
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Answer: (D) Equator

Explanation

The Equator, located at 0° latitude, is the only circle on Earth's surface where the circle of illumination always bisects the latitude into two equal parts throughout the year. Because the Sun's rays always strike the Equator at a relatively direct angle and the geometric division of the sphere by the circle of illumination always cuts through the center of the Equatorial plane, day and night remain approximately 12 hours each. This constant 12-hour day length persists regardless of the seasonal tilt of the Earth's axis, meaning that even during the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Equator experiences equal periods of light and darkness.

16Science and Technology
Which hormone is injected to cows and buffaloes to make the milk descend to the udders?
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Answer: (B) Oxytocin

Explanation

Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for the milk let-down reflex in mammals. When the udder is stimulated, the posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin into the bloodstream. Once it reaches the mammary glands, it binds to receptors on the myoepithelial cells surrounding the milk-filled alveoli. This causes these cells to contract, squeezing the milk out of the alveoli and into the duct system, making it available for milking or suckling. In livestock management, exogenous oxytocin is sometimes injected to trigger this physiological contraction and facilitate the rapid descent of milk into the cisterns and teats.

17Science and Technology
The famous 'Bubble Baby Disease' is so called because:
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Answer: (C) the suffering baby is treated in a germ-free plastic bubble

Explanation

Bubble Baby Disease is the popular name for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID), a rare genetic disorder characterized by the complete or near-complete absence of a functional immune system. Because infants with SCID are unable to fight off even the most common environmental pathogens, they are extremely susceptible to life-threatening infections. To prevent exposure to germs, affected children were traditionally kept in sterile, germ-free environments. The term became widely recognized in the 1970s and 1980s through the case of David Vetter, who lived for twelve years inside a specially designed, sterile plastic isolator or bubble. This enclosure maintained a pressurized, filtered atmosphere to ensure that no bacteria, viruses, or fungi could reach him while he awaited medical treatments such as bone marrow transplantation.

18Science and Technology
Which of the following is found in the composition of vitamin D?
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Answer: (D) Calciferol

Explanation

Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids, with the two most important forms being vitamin D₂ and vitamin D₃. Calciferol is the chemical name used to describe these compounds, specifically ergocalciferol for vitamin D₂ and cholecalciferol for vitamin D₃. It is essential for the human body as it facilitates the intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, which are vital for the mineralization and maintenance of bone health. Vitamin D can be obtained from certain foods or synthesized by the skin when it is exposed to ultraviolet radiation from sunlight.

19History
The first cereal used by man was:
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Answer: (C) Barley

Explanation

Barley was the first cereal grain to be used and domesticated by humans. Archaeological evidence indicates that wild barley was harvested by hunter-gatherers in the Fertile Crescent, particularly in the Levant region, as early as the Epipaleolithic period. Evidence from sites such as Ohalo II in Israel suggests that humans were processing wild cereal grains like barley as far back as 23,000 years ago. During the Neolithic Revolution, approximately 10,000 BCE, barley became one of the primary founder crops of agriculture due to its ability to grow in diverse environments and its high nutritional value. It served as a fundamental staple for early civilizations in the Near East and the Mediterranean before the widespread cultivation of other grains.

20Geography
The ozone layer lies in the:
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Answer: (B) Stratosphere

Explanation

The ozone layer, or ozonosphere, is a region of the atmosphere characterized by a high concentration of ozone (O₃) molecules. It is primarily located in the stratosphere, extending from approximately 15 to 35 kilometers above the Earth's surface. Ozone is produced in this layer when high-energy solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation strikes oxygen molecules (O₂), splitting them into individual oxygen atoms that then combine with unbroken O₂ molecules. This concentration of ozone is vital for terrestrial life as it absorbs the vast majority of the sun's harmful medium-frequency ultraviolet light, and its presence causes the temperature increase with altitude that defines the stratospheric layer.

21Economy
Bauxite is an ore of:
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Answer: (B) Aluminium

Explanation

Bauxite is the primary commercial source of aluminium. It is a sedimentary rock with a high aluminium content, typically composed of aluminium hydroxide minerals such as gibbsite Al(OH)₃, boehmite γ-AlO(OH), and diaspore α-AlO(OH). In the industrial production of the metal, bauxite is first refined into alumina (aluminium oxide) through the Bayer process. This alumina is then converted into metallic aluminium via the Hall-Heroult electrolytic process. Most bauxite deposits are found in tropical or subtropical regions where intense chemical weathering of rocks under hot, humid conditions has concentrated the aluminium oxides while leaching away more soluble materials like silica.

22Science and Technology
The planet nearest to the earth is:
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Answer: (B) Venus

Explanation

Venus is the planet that comes closest to Earth during its orbital cycle. At its point of closest approach, known as inferior conjunction, Venus reaches a distance of approximately 40 million kilometers from Earth. This is the shortest distance between Earth and any other planet in the solar system. Because its orbit is situated between Earth and the Sun, its proximity during these alignment periods makes it Earth's nearest planetary neighbor. Venus is also similar to Earth in diameter, mass, and composition, leading to its frequent classification as Earth's sister planet.

23Economy
The 'blue revolution' is related with:
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Answer: (D) fish production

Explanation

The Blue Revolution refers to the significant growth and intensification of fish production and aquaculture. In India, this initiative was launched during the Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) to increase the productivity of fish and marine products through the adoption of new technologies and scientific methods. It aimed at transforming the fisheries sector into a modern industry to enhance the economic status of fishermen and increase foreign exchange earnings through exports. The Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA) played a central role in promoting intensive fish farming and improving the utilization of water resources for pisciculture.

24Science and Technology
The 'universal donor' is a person whose blood-group is:
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Answer: (D) O

Explanation

Blood group O is characterized by the absence of both A and B antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. In the ABO blood typing system, an immune reaction occurs when a recipient's antibodies recognize and attack foreign antigens on donor cells. Because group O red blood cells do not possess these antigens, they do not trigger an immune response when introduced into the bloodstream of a person with any other blood type. This lack of reactive surface antigens allows group O blood to be safely transfused into recipients of blood groups A, B, or AB, making individuals with this blood type universal donors.

25Geography
At the winter solstice the noon altitude of the sun at the Tropic of Cancer is:
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Answer: (B) 43.0°

Explanation

The altitude of the sun at noon is determined by the formula h = 90° - |ϕ - δ|, where ϕ represents the latitude of the observer and δ represents the solar declination. During the winter solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn, which means the solar declination δ is -23.5°. The Tropic of Cancer is located at a latitude ϕ of 23.5°N. Substituting these values into the formula, the zenith distance is calculated as the absolute difference between the latitude and the declination: |23.5° - (-23.5°)| = 47.0°. Subtracting this zenith distance from 90° gives 90° - 47.0° = 43.0°. This value represents the angle of the sun above the horizon at noon for a person standing on the Tropic of Cancer during the winter solstice.

26Science and Technology
Match List-1 with List-I: (A) Hormone (B) Enzyme (C) Phospholipid (D) Polymer List-II: 1. Lipase 2. Testosterone 3. Lecithin 4. Polyethene
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Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

Explanation

Testosterone is a steroid hormone produced primarily in the testes and is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Lipase is a digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats into fatty acids and glycerol. Lecithin is a phospholipid found in animal and plant tissues, composed of phosphoric acid, choline, fatty acids, and glycerol, and is a major component of cell membranes. Polyethene is a common synthetic polymer formed by the addition polymerization of ethylene monomers (C₂H₄), widely used in the production of plastic films and containers.

27Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used as the coolant in the 'Fast Breeder Test Reactor' at Kalpakkam?
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Answer: (D) Molten sodium

Explanation

The Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at Kalpakkam utilizes molten sodium as its primary and secondary coolant. In fast breeder reactors, the objective is to maintain high-energy (fast) neutrons to facilitate the breeding of new fissile material from fertile isotopes like Uranium-238. Molten sodium is ideal for this purpose because it has a high thermal conductivity and a high boiling point of approximately 883°C, allowing the reactor to operate at high temperatures and near-atmospheric pressure without boiling. Unlike water, sodium does not act as a significant moderator, ensuring that the neutrons remain at high energy levels necessary for the breeding process and efficient heat removal from the compact reactor core.

28Science and Technology
The Ozone layer in the atmosphere:
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Answer: (C) protects life on earth from ultraviolet radiation

Explanation

The ozone layer, located primarily in the stratosphere between 15 and 30 kilometers above the Earth's surface, acts as a vital shield by absorbing the majority of the sun's high-energy ultraviolet radiation. Specifically, it filters out harmful UV-B and UV-C rays, which possess sufficient energy to cause DNA damage, skin cancers, and cataracts in humans, while also protecting marine ecosystems and terrestrial vegetation from biological damage. Through the continuous ozone-oxygen cycle, ozone molecules (O₃) absorb UV photons and dissociate into oxygen molecules and atoms, effectively converting radiative energy into heat and preventing lethal levels of radiation from reaching the biosphere.

29Science and Technology
Match List-1 with List-I (Acid): (A) Lactic acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Citric acid (D) Butyric acid List-II (Source): 1. Lemon 2. Rancid butter 3. Milk 4. Vinegar
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation

Lactic acid is in milk (3), acetic acid in vinegar (4), citric acid in lemon (1), butyric acid in rancid butter (2). Correct sequence for A, B, C, D = 3, 4, 1, 2 = Option D.

30Science and Technology
In human body vitamin A is stored in:
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Answer: (A) Liver

Explanation

Vitamin A is a fat-soluble nutrient that the human body primarily stores in the liver. Approximately 80% to 90% of the body's total vitamin A reserves are sequestered within the hepatic stellate cells, also known as Ito cells, located in the liver. The vitamin is stored in the form of retinyl esters, predominantly retinyl palmitate, within lipid droplets. This storage system enables the liver to regulate the release of retinol into the bloodstream, maintaining stable plasma levels and ensuring a constant supply to peripheral tissues despite fluctuations in dietary intake. When needed, these esters are hydrolyzed back into retinol and transported throughout the body bound to retinol-binding protein.

31Geography
The world's wettest spot is:
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Answer: (B) Mawsynram

Explanation

Mawsynram, located in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, India, is recognized as the wettest place on Earth. It receives an average annual rainfall of approximately 11,872 millimeters. The extreme precipitation is primarily due to its geographical location; it sits on the windward side of the Khasi Hills, which act as a barrier to the moisture-laden monsoon winds blowing from the Bay of Bengal. As these clouds are forced to rise over the steep hills, they undergo rapid cooling and condensation, leading to intense orographic rainfall. By the late 20th century, meteorological records and the Guinness Book of World Records identified Mawsynram as having the highest mean annual rainfall globally.

32Science and Technology
The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is:
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Answer: (B) chromium

Explanation

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that contains a minimum chromium content of approximately 10.5 percent to 11 percent by mass. Chromium is the essential alloying element because it reacts with oxygen in the atmosphere to form a microscopic, stable, and passive layer of chromium oxide on the surface of the metal. This thin film protects the underlying iron from oxidation and corrosion by acting as a barrier against moisture and air. Unlike ordinary steel, which forms porous rust that allows further decay, the chromium oxide layer in stainless steel is self-healing; if the surface is scratched or damaged, the protective layer quickly reforms in the presence of oxygen to maintain the metal's corrosion resistance.

33Science and Technology
The limit beyond which stars suffer internal collapse is called:
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Answer: (A) Chandrasekhar limit

Explanation

The Chandrasekhar limit is the maximum theoretical mass that a stable white dwarf star can possess. Named after the Indian-American astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, who calculated the value in 1930, this limit is approximately 1.44 times the mass of the Sun (1.44 Mₒ). In a white dwarf, the inward force of gravity is balanced by electron degeneracy pressure, which arises from the Pauli exclusion principle. If a star's core exceeds this critical mass, the electron degeneracy pressure is no longer sufficient to counteract the gravitational pull, leading the star to undergo a catastrophic internal collapse. This collapse results in the formation of a more dense remnant, such as a neutron star or a black hole, depending on the remaining mass of the stellar remnant.

34Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not related with space terminology?
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Answer: (D) Byte

Explanation

A byte is a fundamental unit of digital information in computer science and telecommunications, typically consisting of eight bits. It is used to quantify data storage, memory capacity, and transmission speeds within electronic computing systems. While digital computers are essential for managing spacecraft operations and processing astronomical data, the term byte characterizes the volume of binary information rather than the physical, orbital, or environmental phenomena specific to the field of astronautics or space exploration.

35Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Detergents easily remove oil and dirt from soiled garments. Reason (R): Detergents increase the surface tension of water.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

Detergents are effective cleaning agents because they function as surfactants, which are molecules containing both a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The hydrophobic tails attach to oil and grease, while the hydrophilic heads remain attracted to water, forming micelles that trap and remove dirt from the fabric. Crucially, detergents work by decreasing the surface tension of water rather than increasing it. High surface tension causes water to form droplets and prevents it from wetting surfaces effectively. By reducing this tension, detergents allow the water to spread out and penetrate the tiny gaps between the fibers of the soiled garment, which is essential for the mechanical removal of dirt and oil.

36Science and Technology
Match List-I: (A) Dry Ice (B) Gene therapy (C) Cryonics (D) Cobalt-60 List-II: 1. Treatment of Cancer 2. Freezing living bodies to be revived later 3. Solid carbon dioxide 4. Treatment of blood diseases
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Dry Ice corresponds to Solid carbon dioxide because it is the solid form of CO₂ used for refrigeration through sublimation. Gene therapy matches the Treatment of blood diseases as it was pioneered to correct genetic defects in human blood cells and immune systems. Cryonics relates to Freezing living bodies to be revived later because it is the speculative practice of deep-freezing bodies for future medical restoration. Cobalt-60 corresponds to the Treatment of Cancer because this radioactive isotope emits gamma radiation essential for external beam radiotherapy to kill tumor cells.

37Science and Technology
PARSEC 18 the unit of:
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Answer: (A) Distance

Explanation

Parsec, which stands for parallax second, is a fundamental unit of distance in astronomy. It is defined as the distance at which the radius of the Earth's orbit around the Sun, known as one astronomical unit (AU), subtends an angle of one arcsecond. This unit allows scientists to calculate the proximity of stars and galaxies using the principle of trigonometric parallax. Numerically, one parsec is approximately equal to 3.08 × 10¹⁶ meters, 206,265 AU, or about 3.26 light-years. It provides a practical scale for expressing interstellar and intergalactic distances that are far too large for standard terrestrial measurement systems.

38Science and Technology
In human eye light rays get transformed into neural impulses at:
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Answer: (C) retina

Explanation

The retina serves as the light-sensitive innermost layer of the eye where the process of phototransduction occurs. It contains specialized photoreceptor cells known as rods and cones which contain light-sensitive pigments. When light rays strike these pigments, a photochemical reaction is triggered that generates electrical signals. These neural impulses are then transmitted through the optic nerve to the visual cortex of the brain, allowing for the perception of sight. The retina essentially acts as the biological transducer that converts electromagnetic light energy into the electrochemical language of the nervous system.

39Science and Technology
Cyclotrons are used to accelerate?
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Answer: (B) Protons

Explanation

Cyclotrons are electromagnetic devices designed to accelerate charged particles to high velocities. The operational principle relies on the Lorentz force, where a magnetic field B perpendicular to the path of a particle with charge q and velocity v exerts a force F = qvB, causing it to move in a circle. In a cyclotron, protons are injected into the center of two D-shaped hollow electrodes. An alternating electric potential is applied to these electrodes, ensuring that the protons receive an energy kick every time they cross the gap. This continuous acceleration increases the radius of the proton orbit, resulting in a spiral trajectory until the particles reach the periphery with high kinetic energy. Protons are primarily used in these accelerators for nuclear research and the production of medical isotopes.

40Science and Technology
What changes will the volume of water show if the temperature is lowered from 9^ degreesC to 3^ degreesC
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Answer: (C) the volume will first decrease and than increase

Explanation

Water exhibits a unique property known as anomalous expansion between 0°C and 4°C. Under normal cooling conditions above 4°C, water behaves like most other liquids where the volume decreases as the temperature drops. Water reaches its state of maximum density and minimum volume at exactly 4°C. As the temperature is lowered from 9°C towards 4°C, the volume of water decreases. However, as cooling continues from 4°C down to 3°C, the volume begins to increase again. This reversal occurs because the water molecules start to form a more open, cage-like hexagonal structure through hydrogen bonding as they approach the freezing point. Therefore, the volume shows a decrease until 4°C followed by an increase as it reaches 3°C.

41Science and Technology
In cold countries alcohol is preferred to mercury as a thermometric liquid because:
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Answer: (A) alcohol has a lower freezing point

Explanation

Alcohol thermometers are preferred in extremely cold climates because ethyl alcohol has a much lower freezing point compared to mercury. While mercury solidifies at approximately -38.8°C, alcohol remains in a liquid state down to about -114°C. In many cold regions and polar environments, temperatures frequently drop below the freezing point of mercury, which would cause a mercury thermometer to fail as the liquid becomes a solid. The significantly lower freezing point of alcohol ensures that the thermometer remains functional and can accurately measure extreme sub-zero temperatures.

42Art and Culture
The Tex-Styles India-1997 was held at:
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Answer: (C) New Delhi

Explanation

Tex-Styles India-1997 was a major international textile trade fair organized by the India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO). The exhibition was held from January 28 to January 31, 1997, at the Pragati Maidan complex in New Delhi. The event was designed to promote Indian textile products in the global market, showcasing a comprehensive range of items including cotton, silk, wool, synthetics, and jute, along with home furnishings and accessories. Pragati Maidan remains the primary venue for these large-scale annual export-oriented fairs organized by the government to facilitate interaction between Indian exporters and international buyers.

43Economy
Who represented India at the Micro Credit Summit-1997?
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Answer: (A) Self-Employed Women's Association

Explanation

The first Microcredit Summit was held in Washington, D.C., in February 1997, marking the launch of a global campaign to reach 100 million of the world poorest families with credit for self-employment. The Self-Employed Women Association (SEWA) represented India at this landmark event, with its founder Ela Bhatt serving as one of the co-chairs of the summit. SEWA was recognized globally for its pioneering work in the informal sector and its successful implementation of the SEWA Bank model, which provided microfinance and banking services specifically tailored to poor, self-employed women. This participation underscored the organization role in demonstrating how microcredit could serve as a powerful instrument for poverty alleviation and women empowerment.

44Art and Culture
Who amongst the following was awarded the Bharat-Bharati-1996 award:
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Answer: (A) Vijayendra Snatak

Explanation

Vijayendra Snatak was a renowned Hindi scholar and critic who was conferred with the Bharat Bharati Award for the year 1996. This award is the highest literary honor bestowed by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan, Lucknow, and includes a citation along with a significant monetary prize. Snatak is highly regarded for his extensive research and critical works in the field of Hindi literature, particularly his deep analysis of medieval and modern Hindi poetry. His receipt of this award in 1996 recognized his lifelong dedication and intellectual impact on the Hindi language and its literary traditions.

45Art and Culture
Indian Open Grand Prix Single Men's Champion for 1997 is?
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Answer: (C) Heryanto Arbi

Explanation

Heryanto Arbi won the Men's Singles title at the 1997 Indian Open badminton tournament, which was an official part of the IBF World Grand Prix circuit. In the final match held in New Delhi, the Indonesian star defeated the reigning Olympic champion Poul-Erik Hoyer-Larsen of Denmark in a dominant straight-sets victory with a score of 15-4, 15-7. Arbi, famously known for his aggressive jumping smashes, was one of the leading figures of the Indonesian badminton golden era during the 1990s, and his triumph in 1997 marked a significant victory in the inaugural Grand Prix edition of the event.

46Polity and Governance
Who was awarded the Indira Gandhi International Prize for Peace-1996?
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Answer: (D) Olusegun Obasanjo

Explanation

Olusegun Obasanjo was awarded the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for his distinguished contributions to international peace and his efforts to promote democratic governance and development in Africa. As a former military ruler of Nigeria, he was highly regarded for being the first African leader to voluntarily hand over power to a civilian administration in 1979. He was also recognized for his influential work with the Commonwealth Eminent Persons Group, which played a critical role in the international effort to end apartheid in South Africa. At the time the prize was conferred, Obasanjo was a prominent advocate for political reform and the peaceful resolution of conflicts across the continent.

47Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not included in 'Prasthanatrayi'?
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Answer: (A) Bhagavata

Explanation

The Prasthanatrayi constitutes the three foundational texts of the Vedanta school of Hindu philosophy, providing the authoritative basis for its various sub-schools. This trio includes the Upanishads, which are considered the Shruti Prasthana (scriptural starting point); the Bhagavad Gita, referred to as the Smriti Prasthana (remembered starting point); and the Brahma Sutras, known as the Nyaya Prasthana (logical starting point). The Bhagavata, or the Bhagavata Purana, is a prominent devotional text focused on Lord Vishnu and his incarnations, but it is categorized as a Purana rather than one of the three primary pillars of the Vedantic Prasthanatrayi.

48Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not appointed by the President of India?
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Answer: (A) Vice-President

Explanation

Under Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. This election is conducted through a secret ballot in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Since the office is filled via an indirect election by the legislature, the President does not appoint the Vice-President. The role of the President regarding this office is limited to administering the oath or affirmation to the person elected before they enter upon the office.

49Art and Culture
Ardhana risvara, a figure of half Siva and half Parvati, represents:
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Answer: (C) Union of god with his Sakti

Explanation

Ardhanarishvara represents the inseparable union of Siva and his consort Parvati, signifying the identity of the God with his power or Sakti. This androgynous form illustrates the non-dual nature of reality, where the masculine principle of consciousness (Purusha) and the feminine principle of primordial energy (Prakriti) are fused into a single entity. It conveys that cosmic creation and sustenance are possible only through the balance and integration of these two fundamental aspects of the Divine. The iconographic depiction of half-Siva and half-Parvati emphasizes that the Supreme Being is a synthesis of the static and dynamic forces of existence.

50Art and Culture
The theory of Karma is linked with:
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Answer: (B) Mimamsa

Explanation

Mimamsa, specifically Purva Mimamsa, is deeply rooted in the philosophy of action and is frequently referred to as Karma-Mimamsa. It focuses on the ritualistic portion of the Vedas, asserting that the performance of Vedic sacrifices and prescribed duties constitutes the highest goal of human life. The school developed a sophisticated theory of Karma centered on the concept of Apurva, a unique causal link or unseen force generated by an action that remains latent until it yields its fruit in the future. In this framework, the universe is governed by the moral law of action and reaction, where rituals and deeds performed correctly inevitably produce specific results, making the theory of Karma the foundational pillar of the Mimamsa system.

51History
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Harisena-Harsha

Explanation

Harisena was a renowned 4th-century Sanskrit poet, panegyrist, and high-ranking official who served in the court of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta. He is most famous for composing the Prayag Prashasti, also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which serves as a primary historical source for the military conquests and political achievements of Samudragupta. Harsha, also known as Harshavardhana, ruled the Pushyabhuti dynasty during the 7th century CE, approximately three hundred years after Harisena's time. The primary court poet associated with Harsha was Banabhatta, who authored the Harshacharita and Kadambari. Consequently, Harisena is correctly associated with the Gupta dynasty rather than the Vardhana dynasty of Harsha.

52History
'Zawabits' were:
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Answer: (B) State laws

Explanation

In medieval Indian history, Zawabits refers to secular state laws or regulations promulgated by the Sultan or Emperor to govern administrative, political, and economic affairs. These laws were distinct from religious jurisprudence and were issued to address specific governance needs that were not explicitly covered by the Sharia. Sultans like Alauddin Khalji and later Mughal rulers used Zawabits to regulate land revenue, military organization, and market prices, ensuring that the state could function effectively within the diverse socio-political context of India. These decrees allowed the central authority to exercise power and maintain order through a framework of rules tailored to the exigencies of the state.

53Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List-I: (A) Dry Ice (B) Gene therapy (C) Cryonics (D) Cobalt-60 List-II: 1. Treatment of Cancer 2. Freezing living bodies to be revived later 3. Solid carbon dioxide 4. Treatment of blood diseases
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Answer: (B) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Dry ice is the solid state of carbon dioxide (CO₂) which sublimes at -78.5°C without melting into a liquid. Gene therapy involves modifying genes to treat disease, and early clinical trials successfully targeted blood disorders like ADA deficiency. Cryonics is the low-temperature preservation of human bodies with the goal of restoring them to health in the future. Cobalt-60 is a synthetic radioactive isotope that emits high-energy gamma rays used in radiotherapy to destroy cancer cells.

54History
Assertion (A): In matters of State Shivaji was advised by a Council of Ministers. Reason (R): Each minister held independent charge of his department.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

Shivaji established a council of eight ministers known as the Ashta Pradhan to assist in the administration of the Maratha Empire. This council consisted of positions such as the Peshwa, Amatya, Mantri, Sachiv, Sumant, Senapati, Pandit Rao, and Nyayadhish. While the council advised the Chhatrapati on matters of state, the ministers did not exercise independent authority or hold independent charge of their departments in the modern sense.

The ministers in the Ashta Pradhan served as the heads of specific administrative functions but acted primarily as secretaries who implemented the King's policies. Shivaji retained absolute control over the administration, and every minister was directly responsible to him. They held office at the pleasure of the King and could not take autonomous policy decisions, making the assertion regarding the council's existence true while the claim of independent charge is historically inaccurate.

55History
Which one of the following dynasties saw the heyday of the Vizarat?
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Answer: (C) The Tughlaq

Explanation

The Tughlaq period is widely regarded as the heyday of the Vizarat because the office of the Wazir reached its peak of influence and administrative authority during this era. Under the Tughlaq Sultans, the Wazir became the central figure of the state machinery, overseeing the Diwan-i-Wizarat which managed the empire's finances and general administration. This prominence was most evident during the reign of Firoz Shah Tughlaq, whose Wazir, Khan-i-Jahan Maqbul, exercised nearly absolute power over the civil and financial affairs of the Sultanate. The Sultan's reliance on his Wazir was so significant that the office evolved into a hereditary position for a time, marking the highest point of ministerial influence in the history of the Delhi Sultanate.

56History
To which missal did Ranjeet Singh belong?
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Answer: (A) Sukerchakia

Explanation

Maharaja Ranjit Singh belonged to the Sukerchakia Misl, which was one of the twelve sovereign Sikh states or confederacies that existed in the Punjab region during the 18th century. He was born in 1780 to Maha Singh, the chief of the Sukerchakia Misl, who was based in Gujranwala. Upon his father's death in 1792, Ranjit Singh succeeded him as the leader of the Misl at the age of twelve. From this power base, he eventually launched military campaigns to unify the fragmented Misls, capturing Lahore in 1799 and establishing the foundation of the sovereign Sikh Empire.

57History
Who among the following is associated with the policy of 'Masterly Inactivity'?
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Answer: (D) John Lawrence

Explanation

John Lawrence, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1864 to 1869, is the primary proponent of the policy of Masterly Inactivity. This policy was specifically directed toward Afghanistan following the disastrous First Anglo-Afghan War. Lawrence advocated for a strictly non-interventionist approach to the internal civil wars and succession disputes occurring in Afghanistan after the death of Dost Mohammad Khan in 1863. He believed that the British should not interfere in the domestic politics of the region or provide military assistance to any particular faction, as long as no external power like Russia attempted to gain influence. By maintaining a policy of watchful waiting and avoiding expensive military entanglements, Lawrence aimed to preserve Afghanistan as a neutral buffer state while safeguarding the financial and military resources of British India.

58History
The earliest specimen of 'Kavya' style is found in the inscription of?
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Answer: (A) Rudradaman of Kathiawar

Explanation

The Junagadh rock inscription of the Saka ruler Rudradaman I, dating to approximately 150 AD, is widely regarded as the earliest specimen of the classical Kavya style in Indian epigraphy. Unlike earlier royal proclamations which were predominantly composed in Prakrit, this inscription is written in chaste, elaborate Sanskrit prose. It exhibits the formal characteristics of Sanskrit literature, including the use of long compounds, sophisticated rhetorical figures, and a rhythmic flow typical of the Kavya tradition. The inscription records the history of the Sudarshana Lake and the benevolent rule of Rudradaman, serving as a landmark in the transition toward the use of literary Sanskrit for official and historical records.

59Art and Culture
Tolkappiyam text deals with:
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Answer: (C) Grammar and Poetics

Explanation

Tolkappiyam, authored by Tolkappiyar, is the earliest extant work of Tamil literature and serves as a comprehensive treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics. It is divided into three books or adhikaram. The first, Ezhuttadhikaram, deals with phonology and orthography. The second, Solladhikaram, focuses on morphology and syntax. The third, Poruladhikaram, is unique as it explores the subject matter of literature, providing rules for poetics, human emotions, and the social conventions of the Sangam era. By codifying the rules of the language and the themes of literary expression, it provided the structural framework for all subsequent classical Tamil literature.

60Polity and Governance
The judges of the Supreme Court after retirement, are permitted to carry on practice before:
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Answer: (D) None of the Courts

Explanation

Article 124(7) of the Constitution of India explicitly prohibits a retired judge of the Supreme Court from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India. This constitutional mandate ensures the independence and integrity of the judiciary by preventing former judges from exerting undue influence or creating a conflict of interest in legal proceedings. The provision is intended to uphold the prestige of the office of a Supreme Court judge, ensuring that once an individual has reached the apex of the judicial hierarchy, they do not return to the role of a legal practitioner before any judicial or quasi-judicial body in the country.

61History
Which one of the following ports was known as Padouke to the author of 'The Periphus of the Erythrean Sea'?
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Answer: (A) Arikamedu

Explanation

The Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, an anonymous 1st-century AD maritime manual, refers to the port of Arikamedu as Padouke. Located near modern-day Puducherry on the Coromandel Coast, Arikamedu was a major Indo-Roman trading station. Archaeological excavations led by Sir Mortimer Wheeler in the 1940s confirmed this identification through the discovery of significant Roman artifacts, including amphorae, Roman glass, and stamped Arretine ware. These findings established that the site served as a vital commercial hub where Indian goods like textiles and gemstones were exchanged for Roman wine, olive oil, and pottery. The name Padouke is generally accepted as the Greek transliteration of the local Tamil name that eventually evolved into Puducherry.

62Polity and Governance
The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of the:
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Answer: (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

According to Article 98 of the Constitution of India, each House of Parliament has a separate secretarial staff. The Lok Sabha Secretariat is an independent office that functions under the overall direction and control of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker acts as the administrative head of the Secretariat and is responsible for its functioning, recruitment, and conditions of service, ensuring the legislative body remains independent from the executive branch of the government.

63Geography
As per the 1991 census, the maximum concentration of population in class I towns is found in:
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra

Explanation

According to the 1991 Census, Class I towns are defined as urban areas having a population of 100,000 or more. Maharashtra recorded the highest concentration of population in these towns among all Indian states. During this period, Maharashtra was the most urbanized major state in the country, with approximately 38.7 percent of its total population residing in urban areas. The presence of massive urban agglomerations and industrial hubs such as Mumbai, Pune, Nagpur, and Thane contributed to a high degree of urban concentration. In the 1991 demographic data, Class I towns accounted for roughly 65.2 percent of India's total urban population, and Maharashtra led the states in terms of the absolute number of people living within these large urban centers.

64Art and Culture
The temples of Bhuvaneshwar and Puri were built in:
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Answer: (A) Nagar style

Explanation

The temples of Bhuvaneshwar and Puri represent the Kalinga school of architecture, which is a specialized regional branch of the Nagara style of temple architecture prevalent in Northern India. This style is primarily characterized by its curvilinear shikhara, known locally as the Rekha Deula, which rises over the sanctum sanctorum, and a square plan that transitions into a circular shape at the top. The temples typically feature a separate assembly hall called the Jagamohana. Prominent structures such as the Lingaraja Temple in Bhuvaneshwar and the Jagannath Temple in Puri follow these Nagara principles, focusing on verticality and intricate stone carvings on the exterior walls while maintaining a distinct regional identity through their specific proportions and silhouettes.

65History
Assertion (A): Allauddin's Deccan expeditions were financial ventures. Reason (R): He wanted to annex the Deccan States.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

Alauddin Khalji's Deccan expeditions, led primarily by his general Malik Kafur, were motivated by the objective of acquiring the immense wealth of the southern kingdoms to fund his large standing army and consolidate his power in Northern India. These campaigns resulted in the collection of vast quantities of gold, jewels, and elephants, confirming their nature as financial ventures. However, Alauddin did not intend to annex these territories. He realized that the direct administration of the Deccan from Delhi was geographically and logistically impractical. Instead, he followed a policy of political suzerainty, where he defeated local rulers, such as the Yadavas and Kakatiyas, and then reinstated them as tributary vassals. These rulers were allowed to govern their kingdoms as long as they acknowledged his authority and paid regular tribute.

66History
Which one of the following is not appointed by the President of India? (a) Vice-President (b) Prime Minister (c) Governor (d) Chief Election Commissioner 68. Ardhanarisvara, a figure of half Siva and half Parvati, represents: (a) Union of male and-female (b) Union of god and goddess (c) Union of god with his Sakti (d) None of the above 69. The theory of Karma is linked with: (a) Nyaya (b) Mimamsa (c) Vedanta (d) Vaisheshika 70. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Ravi Kirti-Pulakesin II (b) Bhavabhuti-Yasovarman of Kannauj (c) Harisena-Harsha (d) Dandin-Narasinhavarman 71. ‘Zawabits’ were: (a) Agricultural laws (b) State laws (c) Affairs concerning Hindus (d) None of the above 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List-I: (A) Akbar (B) Mohammad Tughlaq (C) Iltutmish (D) Sher Shah List-II: 1. Sarak-I-Azam 2. Chahalghani nobles 3. Ain-I-Dahsala 4. Token currency
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Akbar introduced the Ain-i-Dahsala in 1580, which was a land revenue settlement based on the average production and prices of the previous ten years. Mohammad Tughlaq launched the token currency experiment by issuing copper coins that were legally mandated to circulate at the same value as silver tankas. Iltutmish established the Turkan-i-Chahalghani, an elite group of forty Turkish nobles who provided the administrative and military backbone of his reign. Sher Shah Suri constructed the Sarak-i-Azam, an extensive road network connecting the eastern and western ends of North India to improve trade and communication.

67History
Assertion (A): By 1750 the Maratha kingdom had become a Confederacy presided over by the Peshwa. Reason (R): The successors of Sahu depended on the will of the Peshwa:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The death of Chhatrapati Shahu in 1749 led to the Sangola Agreement of 1750, which marked a definitive shift in the Maratha power structure. Under this settlement, the Peshwa emerged as the de facto ruler of the Maratha Empire, while the Chhatrapati was reduced to a mere figurehead confined to Satara. The successors of Shahu, starting with Rajaram II, lacked independent political or military power and were entirely dependent on the Peshwa for their position and maintenance. This systemic shift allowed the Peshwa to function as the presiding head of a confederacy of powerful Maratha chiefs, such as the Scindias, Holkars, and Gaekwads, who recognized the Peshwa's administrative leadership. The political eclipse and dependency of the titular monarchs were the primary factors that enabled the transition from a centralized monarchy to a Peshwa-led confederacy.

68History
In the Chalcolithic period people in Maharashtra buried their dead under the floor of their houses in the following orientation:
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Answer: (A) North to South position

Explanation

In the Chalcolithic Jorwe culture of Maharashtra, which flourished between 1400 BCE and 700 BCE at sites such as Inamgaon, Daimabad, and Nevasa, the prevailing funerary practice involved burying the deceased directly beneath the floors of their residential houses. Excavations have consistently revealed that these burials followed a specific North to South orientation, where the head of the deceased was placed towards the North and the feet were directed towards the South. This practice was observed for both adults and children, often accompanied by grave goods like pottery and copper objects. In some instances, particularly in child burials, the feet were deliberately chopped off before interment, possibly due to ritualistic beliefs.

69History
Match List-I: (A) Firoz Tughlaq (B) Balban (C) Allauddin (D) Jahangir ## List-II: 1. Diwan-i-Riyasat 2. Navroz 3. Construction of Canals 4. Sir Thomas Roe
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Answer: (B) 3, 2, 1

Explanation

Firoz Shah Tughlaq is recognized for developing a significant network of canals, such as the Yamuna and Sutlej canals, to support agricultural development and irrigation. Balban introduced the Persian festival of Navroz to the Delhi Sultanate to bolster the prestige and traditional authority of the monarchy. Alauddin Khalji created the department of Diwan-i-Riyasat to supervise his market reforms and ensure the strict implementation of fixed commodity prices. Sir Thomas Roe visited the court of Emperor Jahangir in 1615 as an official ambassador from King James I of England to negotiate commercial treaties for the East India Company.

70History
The following European Powers entered into Indian trade at one time or the other: 1. The English 2. The Dutch 3. The French 4. The Portuguese Select the correct chronological order of their entry from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The chronological order of European powers entering Indian trade is: Portuguese (1498, Vasco da Gama reached Calicut), English (1600, East India Company formed), Dutch (1602, VOC founded), and French (1664, French East India Company established under Colbert). In terms of the given list numbering (English=1, Dutch=2, Portuguese=3/4, French=4/3), the sequence 4, 1, 2, 3 corresponds to the order Portuguese, English, Dutch, French, making Option B correct.

71Polity and Governance
In which of the following cases the theory of 'basic feature' of the Constitution was first enunciated by the Supreme Court of India:
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Answer: (B) Kesavananda Vs. State of Kerala

Explanation

The theory of the basic structure of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973). A 13-judge bench, the largest in the history of the Indian judiciary, ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it does not have the authority to alter, damage, or destroy the basic features or the fundamental identity of the Constitution. The judgment shifted the focus from the procedural requirements of amendments to their substantive impact on the constitutional framework, establishing that certain core principles are beyond the reach of the amending power of the legislature. This doctrine serves as a vital check on the constituent power of Parliament to ensure the supremacy of the Constitution.

72Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Constitution protects the 'Right of minorities to establish and Administer educational institutions of their choice'?
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Answer: (D) 30

Explanation

Article 30 of the Indian Constitution specifically guarantees the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This fundamental right applies to both religious and linguistic minorities. Under Article 30(1), these communities are empowered to provide education to their members in their own languages and according to their own cultural or religious tenets. Furthermore, Article 30(2) ensures that the state, while providing aid to educational institutions, does not discriminate against any institution on the basis that it is managed by a minority community. This provision serves as a crucial safeguard for preserving the diverse cultural and educational identity of minority groups within the democratic framework of India.

73Polity and Governance
Which of the following Rights can be enforced under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights

Explanation

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which is itself a Fundamental Right listed in Part III. It guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights specifically conferred by Part III of the Constitution. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is limited to the protection and vindication of these Fundamental Rights alone. To this end, the Supreme Court has the power to issue directions, orders, or writs, such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari. This provision acts as a guarantor of the liberties of the citizens, ensuring that the Fundamental Rights are not mere paper declarations but are legally enforceable against the state.

74Polity and Governance
The joint sitting of both Houses of Indian Parliament is held in connection with:
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Answer: (C) Ordinary bill

Explanation

Under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution, the President can summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock regarding an ordinary bill. A deadlock occurs if one House rejects a bill passed by the other, if the two Houses finally disagree on the amendments to be made to the bill, or if the second House fails to pass the bill within six months of receiving it. The joint sitting is intended to facilitate the passage of legislation that might otherwise be stalled due to disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. During this session, the bill is voted upon, and it is passed if it receives the support of a simple majority of the total number of members from both Houses present and voting.

75Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions with respect to different states?
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Answer: (C) Art. 371

Explanation

Article 371 of the Indian Constitution, located in Part XXI, specifically deals with special provisions for different states. This article, along with its sub-clauses from 371A to 371I, was incorporated to meet the unique developmental, cultural, and administrative requirements of various regions. These provisions aim to protect the social and religious practices of local populations, preserve their customary laws, and ensure the socio-economic advancement of backward regions within those states. For instance, it provides for special responsibilities of the Governor for the establishment of separate development boards in Maharashtra and Gujarat, and special protections regarding land ownership and local recruitment in states like Nagaland, Sikkim, and Andhra Pradesh.

76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not included in the Union List in the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (D) Gas

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Gas and gas-works are included in the State List (List II) as Entry 25. This entry grants state legislatures the power to make laws regarding the production, supply, and distribution of gas and the establishment of gas-works within their respective territories. While the Union List covers related areas such as petroleum and mineral oil resources under Entry 53, the specific subject of gas and gas-works remains within the primary legislative competence of the states.

77History
The compilation of which among the following is based upon the Rigveda:
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Answer: (B) Samaveda

Explanation

The Samaveda is primarily a liturgical collection of melodies and chants, known as the Veda of Chants. Its compilation is fundamentally rooted in the Rigveda, as approximately 1,474 of its 1,549 total verses are taken directly from the Rigvedic text. These verses, largely drawn from the eighth and ninth mandalas of the Rigveda, were selected and rearranged to be sung by the Udgatri priests during Vedic sacrifices, particularly the Soma sacrifice. The Samaveda serves as a musical application of Rigvedic hymns, adding musical notation to the existing poetic verses to facilitate their use in ritualistic performances.

78History
Who were the first to worship Vasudeva Krishna?
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Answer: (A) Bhagawatas

Explanation

The Bhagawatas were the earliest sect to focus their devotion specifically on Vasudeva Krishna. This movement, known as Bhagawatism, emerged around the 5th to 4th century BCE and centered on the worship of Vasudeva, a hero of the Vrishni clan of the Yadavas. Historical evidence for this early worship is found in the grammar of Panini, who mentions the Vasudevakas (devotees of Vasudeva), and the accounts of Megasthenes, who noted the worship of a deity he identified with Herakles in the Mathura region. The Bhagawata religion emphasized bhakti, or personal devotion to a supreme lord, and served as the primary vehicle for the integration of Krishna worship into the broader Brahmanical tradition, eventually leading to the identification of Vasudeva with Vishnu and Narayana.

79Polity and Governance
'India is a Republic' means:
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Answer: (C) There are no hereditary rulers in India

Explanation

The term Republic in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution indicates that India has an elected head of state called the President. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. This concept stands in contrast to a monarchy, where the head of state usually the King or Queen occupies a hereditary position through succession. In a republic, political sovereignty is vested in the people rather than a single individual, ensuring that there are no hereditary rulers and that all public offices are open to every citizen.

80Polity and Governance
The reason for the Indian Constitution being the bulkiest is that:
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Answer: (D) it contains the Constitution of both Union and State Governments

Explanation

The Indian Constitution acts as a single, integrated document that governs both the Union and the State governments. In many other federal systems, such as the United States, the federal government and the individual states have their own separate constitutions. In India, the framers included exhaustive provisions regarding the organization, powers, and functions of both the Central and State levels of administration within one volume. By incorporating detailed chapters on the State Executive, State Legislature, and State Judiciary, alongside those for the Union, the document became significantly more voluminous than those of other nations. This unified approach was intended to maintain consistency and clarity across the entire federal structure.

81Polity and Governance
The objective of the 'Kamraj Plan' was:
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Answer: (C) vitalisation of the Indian National Congress

Explanation

The Kamraj Plan was proposed in 1963 by K. Kamaraj, the then Chief Minister of Madras, during the premiership of Jawaharlal Nehru. The plan was designed to rejuvenate the Indian National Congress party, which was perceived to be losing its organizational vigor and contact with the masses due to leaders prioritizing ministerial positions over party work. Under this initiative, senior Congress leaders were encouraged to resign from their high-ranking government posts and dedicate themselves to organizational work at the grassroots level. This move was intended to demonstrate a spirit of sacrifice, curb the lust for power within the party, and strengthen the party structure across the country. Key leaders, including Kamaraj himself, Lal Bahadur Shastri, Morarji Desai, and Jagjivan Ram, resigned from their ministerial roles to revitalize the party's foundation.

82Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Governor of an Indian State is not true?
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Answer: (D) He can be removed earlier if the Legislature of the concerned State passes a resolution for his removal

Explanation

The Governor of an Indian State holds office during the pleasure of the President as mandated by Article 156 of the Constitution. Consequently, there is no constitutional provision for the State Legislature to remove the Governor from office by passing a resolution or through impeachment. While the Governor typically serves a five-year term, they can be removed by the President at any time without the requirement of a formal procedure or the consent of the State Legislature. This ensures that the Governor remains a representative of the Union within the State administration, and their tenure is entirely dependent on the executive decision of the Central Government acting through the President.

83Polity and Governance
The power of High Court to issue writ covers:
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, High Courts possess the power to issue writs, directions, and orders for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other purpose. The phrase for any other purpose implies that the writ jurisdiction of a High Court can be invoked for the enforcement of any legal right. This includes statutory rights, which are created by specific laws passed by the legislature, and constitutional rights that exist outside of Part III of the Constitution. Consequently, the High Court’s power to issue writs is not restricted to Fundamental Rights alone but extends to the entire spectrum of legal and constitutional entitlements.

84Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States elects the largest number of members representing Schedule Tribes to the House of People?
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Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh had the highest number of seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha according to the demographic and delimitation status in 1997. Under Article 330 of the Constitution of India, seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People based on the proportion of their population to the total population of the state. Prior to the creation of Chhattisgarh in 2000, Madhya Pradesh encompassed a vast geographical area with a high concentration of tribal communities. This large population size resulted in the allocation of 9 reserved seats for Scheduled Tribes, which was the highest number for any state in India during that period.

85Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is included in the State List under seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Railway Police

Explanation

Entry 2 of the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with Police, which specifically includes railway and village police. While the Union Government has jurisdiction over the railway infrastructure and operations under Entry 22 of the Union List, the responsibility for maintaining law and order, preventing crime, and investigating offenses on railway premises belongs to the state governments. This function is carried out by the Government Railway Police (GRP), which operates under the administrative control of the respective state police departments.

86Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Indian Constitution protects person's right to travel abroad?
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Answer: (C) 21

Explanation

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court of India, in the landmark cases of Satwant Singh Sawhney v. Assistant Passport Officer (1967) and Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), interpreted the expression personal liberty to include the right to travel abroad. The Court held that the right to move out of the country and return to India is an essential part of an individual's personal liberty. Consequently, any law or executive action that restricts this right must satisfy the requirements of being fair, just, and reasonable, rather than being arbitrary or oppressive.

87Polity and Governance
When was the designation 'Sadar-I-Riyasat' of Jammu and Kashmir changed to 'Governor'?
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Answer: (D) 1965

Explanation

The designation Sadar-I-Riyasat of Jammu and Kashmir was changed to Governor through the J&K Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965. In 1965, Sadar-I-Riyasat became Governor and Prime Minister became Chief Minister, aligning with the rest of India.

88Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not caused by Infected mosquito bite?
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Answer: (A) Plague

Explanation

Plague is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Its primary mode of transmission to humans is through the bite of an infected flea, most commonly the Oriental rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis), which infests small rodents such as rats. When these rodents die from the infection, the fleas seek out alternative hosts, including humans, to continue feeding. The bacteria then enter the human body through the flea bite, leading to the development of the disease. Consequently, the transmission vector for plague is the flea, distinguishing it from diseases that rely on mosquitoes for their life cycle and spread.

89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following comes under exclusive power of the Council of States:
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Answer: (A) Creation of new All India Services

Explanation

Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) possesses the exclusive power to authorize the Parliament to create new All India Services common to both the Union and the States. For this to occur, the Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, stating that such a step is necessary or expedient in the national interest. This provision is a significant feature of Indian federalism, as it ensures that the House representing the States has the primary say in the creation of services whose members will serve in both central and state administrations. Following the adoption of such a resolution, the Parliament is empowered to enact the necessary legislation to establish the new service.

90Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Fundamental Right was amended as result of the decision of the Supreme Court of India in 'State of Madras Vs. Champakam Dorairajan' case?
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Answer: (B) Right against discrimination

Explanation

In the case of State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court of India struck down the Madras Communal G.O. (Government Order) which provided for the reservation of seats in state medical and engineering colleges based on caste and religion. The Court held that such classification was a direct violation of Article 15(1) of the Constitution, which prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. To nullify the effect of this judgment and provide a constitutional basis for reservations in educational institutions, the Parliament enacted the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. This amendment added Clause (4) to Article 15, empowering the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

91Polity and Governance
Object of the Sangam Yojana is to:
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Answer: (B) increase the welfare of the disabled

Explanation

The Sangam Yojana was launched by the Government of India on August 15, 1996, with the specific objective of promoting the welfare of disabled persons in rural areas. Under this scheme, individuals with disabilities living in villages are organized into groups known as Sangams. Each of these groups is provided with a one-time financial assistance grant, which was fixed at ₹15,000 at the time of its inception, to enable the members to undertake various income-generating activities. By encouraging collective effort and providing capital, the scheme aims to ensure the socio-economic empowerment and self-reliance of the rural disabled population.

92Economy
India Brand Equity Fund was established in:
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Answer: (C) 1996

Explanation

The India Brand Equity Fund (IBEF) was established in 1996 by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. It was created as a trust with the primary objective of promoting Indian products and services in overseas markets and enhancing the global perception of the Made in India label. The fund aims to build a strong brand identity for Indian exports, helping them achieve international quality standards and gain a competitive edge in global trade. It serves as a key resource center for providing information and conducting branding exercises to project India as a reliable and high-quality supplier of goods and services to the world.

93Economy
Which one of the following is the correct estimate of the capital output ratio for the Ninth Five Year Plan?
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Answer: (D) 4.0

Explanation

The Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) is an economic metric that represents the units of additional capital required to produce one additional unit of output. For the Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002), the Planning Commission targeted an average annual GDP growth rate of 6.5 percent. To achieve this objective, the plan projected a required investment rate of approximately 28.2 percent of the Gross Domestic Product. Using the relationship where the ICOR is the ratio of the investment rate to the growth rate, the estimate for the Ninth Plan was calculated to be 4.02, which is rounded to 4.0. This projected ratio reflected the planners' expectations for capital efficiency and the productive utilization of existing capacities during the plan period.

94Economy
Which one of the following is not of the same category?
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Answer: (D) ESSAR OIL

Explanation

ESSAR OIL is a private sector company, which distinguishes it from the other entities that are all major Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) owned by the Government of India. In 1997, companies like SAIL, BHEL, and ONGC were specifically designated as Navratnas, a status given to premier state-owned enterprises to grant them greater autonomy and help them become global players. As a private enterprise under the Essar Group, ESSAR OIL does not belong to this category of government-owned industrial units.

95Economy
The contribution of custom and excise duties in the Central Government revenue in 1995-96 was:
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Answer: (B) 37%

Explanation

In the fiscal year 1995-96, the revenue profile of the Central Government showed a significant reliance on indirect taxes. Based on the budgetary data presented in the Rupee Comes From chart for that period, Union Excise Duties contributed 19 percent and Customs Duties contributed 18 percent to the total receipts of the government. This combined share of 37 percent represented the largest portion of the government income compared to other individual sources like internal borrowings, non-tax revenue, or direct taxes such as corporation tax and income tax. This distribution reflects the fiscal landscape of the mid-1990s, where indirect taxation was the primary driver of central revenue collection before the subsequent shift toward a higher share of direct taxes in the Indian economy.

96Economy
G.D.P. growth rate in India in the year 1995-96 was:
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Answer: (C) 7.5 per cent

Explanation

The Indian economy witnessed a period of high growth in the mid-1990s following the structural adjustment and liberalization policies initiated in 1991. According to the data released by the Central Statistical Organization in early 1997, the Real Gross Domestic Product growth rate for the financial year 1995-96 was estimated at 7.5 per cent. This performance was largely underpinned by a strong industrial expansion, which recorded double-digit growth, and a steady contribution from the services sector. This period represented the peak of the Eighth Five-Year Plan, showcasing the immediate positive impact of economic reforms on the country's macroeconomic growth trajectory.

97Economy
Jayant Patil Committee is related to:
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Answer: (C) the development of scanty rainfall area

Explanation

The Jayant Patil Committee was established by the Planning Commission of India in the early 1990s to formulate strategies for the sustainable development of areas characterized by scanty rainfall and chronic drought. The committee emphasized an integrated watershed management approach to address the ecological and economic challenges of these water-scarce regions. Its recommendations focused on enhancing moisture retention through soil and water conservation, promoting drought-resistant crop varieties, and diversifying rural livelihoods through activities like social forestry and animal husbandry. This approach aimed to improve the productivity of rain-fed agriculture and provide long-term stability to the socio-economic conditions of communities residing in arid and semi-arid zones.

98Polity and Governance
The idea that India is a Welfare State is depicted in:
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Answer: (D) both (a) and (c)

Explanation

The Constitution of India establishes a Welfare State through the combined framework of the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Preamble sets the foundational goals by declaring India a Socialist Republic and pledging to secure Social, Economic, and Political Justice for all its citizens. These objectives reflect the core philosophy of a state committed to the well-being of its people. This vision is translated into specific governance guidelines within the Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV. Specifically, Article 38 directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order informed by justice and by striving to minimize inequalities in income, status, and opportunity. While the Preamble provides the ideological basis, the Directive Principles offer the practical instructions for achieving a welfare-oriented socio-economic order.

99Economy
Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of Tax relief to individuals:
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Answer: (C) Indira Vikas Patra

Explanation

Indira Vikas Patra was a small savings instrument that offered no tax relief, rebates, or deductions to individuals under the Income Tax Act. While other contemporary government savings schemes were specifically structured to provide tax incentives under provisions like Section 88 to encourage savings, Indira Vikas Patra was a bearer-style certificate primarily focused on doubling the invested capital over a specified duration. It lacked any provision for reducing the tax liability of the investor at the time of investment or upon accrual of interest, making it distinct from financial products designed for tax saving purposes.

100Polity and Governance
CAPART is associated with:
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Answer: (D) Helping and evaluating rural welfare Scheme

Explanation

CAPART (Council for Advancement of People's Action and Rural Technology) was established in September 1986 by merging two existing organizations, PADI and CART. It functions as an autonomous body under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development. The primary mandate of CAPART is to promote and assist voluntary action in the implementation of projects aimed at rural prosperity. It acts as a major nodal agency for funding, monitoring, and evaluating the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs) involved in rural development. By providing financial assistance and technical support to grassroot level organizations, CAPART ensures the effective execution of various rural welfare schemes and the dissemination of appropriate technologies to improve the socio-economic conditions of the rural population.

101History
Who was the first President of the Muslim League?
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Answer: (A) Agha Khan

Explanation

The All-India Muslim League was established in December 1906 in Dacca to safeguard the political rights and interests of Muslims in British India. Sir Sultan Muhammad Shah, popularly known as Aga Khan III, was appointed as the first permanent President of the League during its session held at Karachi in 1907. He was a highly influential leader who had previously led the Simla Deputation in 1906 to meet Lord Minto. Aga Khan III served in this presidential capacity until 1913, providing critical early leadership and advocating for the principle of separate electorates for the Muslim community.

102History
Who was the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist?
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Answer: (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first Indian to be imprisoned for his professional work as a journalist. In July 1882, Tilak and his associate Gopal Ganesh Agarkar were sentenced to four months of imprisonment in Dongri Jail. This legal action was a response to their critical writings published in the journals Kesari and Mahratta, where they had condemned the Diwan of Kolhapur for his treatment of the young Maharaja. This event established a precedent for Indian editors using the press to challenge colonial administrative decisions and marked the beginning of Tilak's career as a fearless critic of the British Raj through the medium of print media.

103History
Who became the President of the Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose.
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Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress in April 1939 following the Tripuri Session. His resignation was the result of a constitutional crisis and intense ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress Working Committee. After Bose stepped down, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected by the All India Congress Committee to take over the presidency for the remainder of the term. This appointment ensured the continuity of the party leadership as Bose went on to form the Forward Bloc.

104History
Who suggested the idea of the Indian National Army?
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Answer: (A) Mohan Singh

Explanation

Captain Mohan Singh, an officer in the British Indian Army, was the first to conceive the idea of forming the Indian National Army. During the Malayan campaign of World War II, he surrendered to the Japanese and was encouraged by Japanese Major Iwaichi Fujiwara to lead an army of Indian prisoners of war. Mohan Singh realized that the captured Indian soldiers could be organized into a revolutionary force to fight for Indias independence from British rule. This initiative led to the formal establishment of the first INA in September 1942, prior to the arrival of Subhash Chandra Bose in Southeast Asia.

105History
Who among the following ran 'Congress Radio' during the 'Quit-India' movement?
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Answer: (C) Usha Mehta

Explanation

Usha Mehta was a prominent freedom fighter who played a pivotal role in the Quit India Movement of 1942 by establishing and operating the clandestine Congress Radio. Also known as the Secret Congress Radio, this underground broadcasting station first went on air on August 14, 1942, to disseminate information about the progress of the national movement and to counter British propaganda and censorship. Working with a small group of associates, she helped broadcast news, patriotic songs, and speeches of national leaders across India from various shifting locations in Bombay to evade police detection. Her efforts were instrumental in keeping the spirit of the revolution alive during a period when most top-tier leaders were imprisoned. The secret broadcasts continued until November 1942, when the British police finally discovered the transmitter and arrested her.

106History
Which one of the following native States was a party to the 'Stand-Still' Agreement?
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Answer: (A) Hyderabad

Explanation

The Nizam of Hyderabad signed a Standstill Agreement with the Government of India on November 29, 1947. Following the Indian Independence Act of 1947, princely states were given the choice to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent. The Nizam, Mir Osman Ali Khan, sought to maintain Hyderabad as a sovereign entity and entered into this one-year agreement to preserve the administrative status quo while negotiations on accession continued. The treaty stipulated that the arrangements concerning defense, external affairs, and communications that had existed under British Paramountcy would remain in force between India and Hyderabad. This provided a temporary diplomatic framework before the state was eventually integrated into the Indian Union in September 1948 following the military intervention known as Operation Polo.

107Art and Culture
Match List-I (State): (A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Gujarat (D) Tamil Nadu List-II (Tourist Centre): 1. Udvada 2. Point Calimere 3. Gulmarg 4. Kasauli
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Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Gulmarg is a world-renowned hill station and premier skiing destination located in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir. Kasauli is a picturesque colonial-era cantonment town and hill station situated in the Solan district of Himachal Pradesh. Udvada is a coastal town in the Valsad district of Gujarat, widely recognized as a significant religious center for the Parsi community as it houses the Iranshah Atash Behram. Point Calimere, or Kodikkarai, is a low-lying headland on the Coromandel Coast in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu, known for its wildlife sanctuary and migratory birds.

108Geography
Assertion (A): The atmosphere receives most of the heat only indirectly from the sun and directly from the earth's surface. Reason (R): The conversion from shortwave solar to long wave terrestrial energy takes place at the earth's surface.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming solar radiation, which arrives in the form of shortwave energy. Only a small fraction of this energy is absorbed directly by atmospheric gases. Instead, the bulk of solar radiation reaches the Earth's surface, where it is absorbed and subsequently heats the ground. The Earth's surface then re-emits this energy back into the atmosphere as long-wave terrestrial radiation. Atmospheric components like water vapor and carbon dioxide are highly effective at absorbing these long waves, leading to the heating of the air from the ground upward through radiation, conduction, and convection. This fundamental conversion of shortwave solar energy into long-wave terrestrial energy at the surface explains why the atmosphere is heated directly by the Earth and only indirectly by the sun.

109Geography
The shortest distance between two places on the globe is along:
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Answer: (C) Prime Meridian

Explanation

The shortest distance between any two points on the surface of a sphere is the arc of a great circle that connects them. A great circle is defined as a circle on a sphere's surface whose plane passes through the center of the sphere, thereby dividing the sphere into two equal halves. On the Earth's surface, the Equator and all meridians of longitude are considered great circles. The Prime Meridian is a true meridian and therefore follows the path of a great circle, representing the shortest possible route between any two points located upon it. Conversely, parallels of latitude, such as 45 degrees N or 45 degrees S, are small circles because their planes do not pass through the center of the Earth. Therefore, the distance measured along these parallels is always greater than the corresponding great circle distance between the same longitudinal points.

110Geography
Match List-I: (1) Dodoma (2) Bern (3) Dushanbe (4) Canberra List-II: A. Australia B. Tajikistan C. Tanzania D. Switzerland
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

Dodoma is the national capital of Tanzania, designated in 1974 to move the seat of government to a more central inland location. Bern serves as the federal city and de facto capital of Switzerland, housing the federal administration and parliament. Dushanbe is the capital and largest city of Tajikistan, functioning as the administrative hub since its independence. Canberra is the capital of Australia, established as a planned city in the early 20th century to serve as the nation's political center.

111Economy
The First three leading producers of iron ore in the world are:
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Answer: (B) China, Russia, Australia

Explanation

In the period leading up to 1997, China was the world's largest producer of iron ore in terms of gross tonnage, primarily sourcing from regions like Anshan and Benxi to support its expanding steel industry. Russia maintained its status as a leading producer due to the enormous reserves in the Kursk Magnetic Anomaly, which is one of the largest iron ore concentrations in the world, alongside significant production in the Ural Mountains. Australia consistently ranked among the top three producers globally, driven by massive high-grade iron ore deposits in the Hamersley Range and the Pilbara region, which were developed for large-scale extraction and export. These three nations represented the primary hubs of global iron ore extraction during the late twentieth century.

112Geography
Transhumance is practised by the:
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Answer: (A) Bhotias

Explanation

The Bhotias are a prominent ethnic group inhabiting the high-altitude Himalayan regions, primarily in the state of Uttarakhand. They are traditionally known for practicing transhumance, which is the seasonal migration of people along with their livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures. During the summer months, they move their herds of sheep and goats to the high-altitude alpine meadows known as Bugyals to take advantage of the rich seasonal grass. As winter approaches and the high mountains become covered in snow, they migrate back down to lower altitude permanent settlements in the valleys where the climate is relatively milder. This cyclical movement is a vital adaptation to the extreme climatic conditions of the Himalayas and remains a core aspect of their pastoral economy.

113Geography
Vembanad Lake is in:
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Answer: (B) Kerala

Explanation

Vembanad Lake is the longest lake in India and the largest lake in the state of Kerala. It spans several districts, including Alappuzha, Kottayam, and Ernakulam, and forms the heart of the famous Kerala backwaters. The lake is fed by ten rivers, with the Pamba and Periyar being the most prominent. It is a major hub for inland navigation and tourism, and it serves as the venue for the historic Nehru Trophy Boat Race. The ecosystem of the lake is vital for the region's agriculture and fishing industries.

114Geography
The Bermuda triangle lies in:
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Answer: (A) North Atlantic Ocean

Explanation

The Bermuda Triangle, also known as the Devil Triangle, is a geographically defined region located in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean. Its vertices are commonly identified as Miami in Florida, the island of Bermuda, and San Juan in Puerto Rico. Situated off the southeastern coast of the United States, this area spans several hundred thousand square miles within the North Atlantic basin. It is characterized by the presence of the Gulf Stream, a swift and powerful ocean current that carries warm water from the Gulf of Mexico northward along the US coast. The region serves as a major hub for international maritime trade and aviation between the Americas, Europe, and the Caribbean.

115Science and Technology
Devasthal is in the news because of:
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Answer: (B) installation of the largest telescope in Asia

Explanation

Devasthal, located in the Kumaon Himalayas near Nainital in Uttarakhand, was selected by the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) as a premier site for astronomical observations. At an altitude of approximately 2450 meters, the site offers excellent atmospheric transparency, low moisture content, and minimal light pollution. It gained prominence for the installation of the 3.6-meter Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT), which was planned to be the largest steerable reflecting optical telescope in Asia. This facility, developed through international collaboration, enables advanced research in stellar evolution, deep-space galaxies, and high-energy astronomical phenomena using optical and near-infrared observations.

116Geography
Diamond Harbour and Salt Lake city are situated in:
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Answer: (D) Kolkata

Explanation

Diamond Harbour is a town and municipality located on the eastern banks of the Hooghly River in the South 24 Parganas district of West Bengal, situated south of Kolkata where the river widens before meeting the Bay of Bengal. Salt Lake City, officially known as Bidhannagar, is a prominent planned satellite town developed between 1958 and 1965 to accommodate the growing population of Kolkata. It is located in the North 24 Parganas district and forms an integral part of the Greater Kolkata metropolitan area, serving as a major residential, administrative, and later, an IT hub for the region.

117Science and Technology
ACREX-97 was organised at:
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Answer: (B) New Delhi

Explanation

ACREX-97 was the fifth international exhibition focusing on air-conditioning, refrigeration, and building services held in India. Organized by the Indian Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers (ISHRAE), the event took place in New Delhi. It functioned as a major trade fair and technical forum for the HVAC&R industry, bringing together global manufacturers and consultants to display the latest thermal management and climate control technologies during the late 1990s.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3D
  4. 4A
  5. 5A
  6. 6B
  7. 7C
  8. 8D
  9. 9A
  10. 10B
  11. 11B
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16B
  17. 17C
  18. 18D
  19. 19C
  20. 20B
  21. 21B
  22. 22B
  23. 23D
  24. 24D
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27D
  28. 28C
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31B
  32. 32B
  33. 33A
  34. 34D
  35. 35C
  36. 36C
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41A
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45C
  46. 46D
  47. 47A
  48. 48A
  49. 49C
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52B
  53. 53B
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60D
  61. 61A
  62. 62D
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69B
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72D
  73. 73B
  74. 74C
  75. 75C
  76. 76D
  77. 77B
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80D
  81. 81C
  82. 82D
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86C
  87. 87D
  88. 88A
  89. 89A
  90. 90B
  91. 91B
  92. 92C
  93. 93D
  94. 94D
  95. 95B
  96. 96C
  97. 97C
  98. 98D
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101A
  102. 102A
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105C
  106. 106A
  107. 107B
  108. 108A
  109. 109C
  110. 110C
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113B
  114. 114A
  115. 115B
  116. 116D
  117. 117B

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