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UPPSC Prelims 2007 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 149 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

149
Questions
6
Subjects
15
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Economy3926%
  • Science and Technology3725%
  • History3121%
  • Geography2114%
  • Polity and Governance139%
  • Art and Culture85%
1History
The word 'Arya' literally means:
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Answer: (A) Best

Explanation

The word Arya is derived from the Sanskrit language and signifies a person who is noble, honorable, or of high character. In ancient Vedic literature, it was used as a self-designation by the Indo-Aryan speaking people to distinguish themselves based on their cultural and linguistic identity. The term literally translates to one who is excellent, noble, or best, reflecting a status of moral and social superiority rather than a specific ethnic group. It represents an ideal of conduct and virtue associated with those who followed the Vedic way of life and its prescribed socio-religious duties.

2Art and Culture
The exponent of yoga philosophy is:
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Answer: (A) Patanjali

Explanation

Patanjali is recognized as the primary exponent and systematizer of the Yoga school of Indian philosophy, which is one of the six orthodox (astika) systems of Hindu thought. He authored the Yoga Sutras, a foundational collection of 196 aphorisms that codified the ancient traditions and practices of yoga into a comprehensive philosophical framework. This work defines yoga as the cessation of the modifications of the mind and outlines the eight-limbed path, known as Ashtanga Yoga, which serves as a practical guide for achieving spiritual liberation and mental discipline. Patanjali's contributions transitioned yoga from diverse oral traditions into a formal, structured philosophical system during the period between the 2nd century BCE and the 4th century CE.

3History
Which one of the following early ruler of Magadha killed his father for accession and for the same reason was killed by his son?
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Answer: (B) Ajatshatru

Explanation

Ajatshatru was a powerful ruler of the Haryanka dynasty who reigned over Magadha in the 5th century BCE. According to Buddhist and Jain traditions, he seized the throne by imprisoning and killing his father, Bimbisara. This cycle of violence continued into the next generation, as Ajatshatru was eventually murdered by his own son, Udayin, who sought to take control of the kingdom. This pattern of patricide was so characteristic of the Haryanka rulers that they are often noted in ancient historical accounts for this specific practice of succession through the assassination of the reigning father.

4History
Manusmriti is mainly related to
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Answer: (B) Law

Explanation

Manusmriti, also known as the Manav Dharma Shastra, is traditionally regarded as the preeminent legal text of ancient India. It serves as an exhaustive code of conduct and a foundational source of Hindu law, detailing the rules of civil and criminal justice, property rights, and inheritance. The text prescribes the legal duties of individuals and provides a systematic framework for the administration of justice by the state. Historically, it functioned as the primary reference for judges and rulers in matters of jurisprudence, establishing the legal standards that governed ancient Indian society for centuries.

5History
Who sent Huieng Tsang as an ambassador in Harsha's Court?
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Answer: (A) Tai-Tsung

Explanation

PROPOSED: D

Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang) was a renowned Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of King Harshavardhana to study at Nalanda and collect authentic Buddhist scriptures. He was not an official ambassador sent by the Chinese government; he was a private pilgrim who left the Tang capital in 629 AD without the formal permission of Emperor Taizong (Tai-Tsung). While the Tang Emperor did eventually establish diplomatic relations with Harsha and sent official envoys like Wang Xuance (Wang Hiuen-tse) to the Indian court, Hiuen Tsang's journey was a self-initiated religious quest and not a diplomatic mission.

6History
Who wrote 'Akbarnama'?
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Answer: (D) Abul Fazl

Explanation

Abul Fazl was the grand vizier and the official court historian of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. He was commissioned by the emperor to write the history of his reign, resulting in the Akbarnama, which is written in Persian. The work is divided into three volumes: the first volume covers the history of Akbar's ancestors, the second volume details the events of Akbar's reign up to 1602, and the third volume is the famous Ain-i-Akbari, which provides an exhaustive account of the empire's administration, geography, and culture. As one of the nine jewels of the court, Abul Fazl used official records and oral testimonies to compile this monumental historical record.

7History
In whose reign permanent settlement was started?
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Answer: (B) Lord Cornwallis

Explanation

Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in 1793 in the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha. This administrative measure, also known as the Zamindari System, sought to fix the land revenue permanently to ensure a stable and predictable income for the East India Company. Under this system, the zamindars were recognized as the legal owners of the land, tasked with collecting rent from the peasants and paying a fixed amount to the British government. The policy was designed to create a loyal class of landed aristocrats who would have a vested interest in the stability of British rule while encouraging agricultural investment by providing security of tenure to the landlords.

8History
Lord Maikelele is related
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Answer: (C) To English education

Explanation

Lord Macaulay, often transliterated as Maikelele in certain regional contexts, was the primary architect of the modern education system in colonial India. As the President of the General Committee of Public Instruction, he authored the famous Minute on Indian Education in 1835. He argued that the British government should focus its resources on teaching Western sciences and literature through the medium of the English language. Macaulay aimed to create a class of individuals who would be Indian in blood and color but English in taste, opinions, morals, and intellect, effectively serving as intermediaries between the British rulers and the Indian masses. His recommendations led to the passage of the English Education Act of 1835 under the Governor-Generalship of Lord William Bentinck, which shifted the focus of official educational policy from Oriental learning to Western education.

9History
Arrange the following events in chronological order choose the correct answer from the codes given below: A. Amritsar Incident B. Chauri Chaura Incident C. Champaran Movement D. Moplah Rebellion
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Answer: (C) C,A,D,B

Explanation

The Champaran Movement occurred in 1917 as Mahatma Gandhi's first Satyagraha in India, focusing on the grievances of indigo farmers in Bihar. The Amritsar Incident, also known as the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, took place on April 13, 1919, when British troops fired upon a crowd protesting the Rowlatt Act. The Moplah Rebellion began in August 1921 in the Malabar region of Kerala, characterized by an uprising of Muslim peasantry against British rule and local landlords. The Chauri Chaura Incident happened in February 1922 in Gorakhpur district, where a violent clash led Gandhi to suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement. Therefore, the sequence follows the timeline of 1917, 1919, 1921, and 1922.

10History
On 14th June, 1947, the resolution of the partition of India had been accepted in the Delhi session of Congress. The president of this session was
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Answer: (C) Acharya JB Kripani

Explanation

Acharya J.B. Kripalani was the President of the Indian National Congress during the crucial period of India's independence and partition. He was elected at the Meerut session in November 1946 and held the office through 1947. When the All India Congress Committee met in Delhi on June 14, 1947, to deliberate on the Mountbatten Plan, Kripalani presided over the session. It was during this meeting that the resolution for the partition of India was formally accepted by the Congress leadership. He continued to serve as the Congress President until his resignation in November 1947, following which Rajendra Prasad took over the position.

11History
Who said that Every attack on my back bone would prove to be a nail in the shroud of the British Empire. ?
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Answer: (A) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai made this historic declaration while leading a non-violent protest against the Simon Commission in Lahore on October 30, 1928. The commission was an all-British body appointed to study constitutional reforms in India, and its arrival was met with widespread opposition and the slogan Simon Go Back. During the demonstration, the police superintendent James A. Scott ordered a brutal lathi charge to disperse the protesters. Lala Lajpat Rai was struck repeatedly and sustained severe injuries to his chest and back. Despite his physical condition, he addressed the gathering and stated that the blows struck at him would eventually lead to the downfall of the British Raj. He succumbed to these injuries on November 17, 1928, an event that significantly intensified the Indian independence movement and fueled revolutionary activities across the country.

12History
Who was the founder of All India Muslim League?
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Answer: (D) Nawab Salimullah Khan

Explanation

Nawab Salimullah Khan of Dhaka was the primary architect and organizer of the meeting held on December 30, 1906, during the annual session of the All India Muhammadan Educational Conference. He formally proposed the resolution to establish a political organization dedicated to representing the interests of Muslims in British India and protecting their political rights. As the host of the conference in Dhaka, his initiative provided the necessary platform for Muslim leaders to converge and officially form the All India Muslim League. His leadership during this inaugural session is why he is historically credited as the founder of the organization.

13History
After the resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose, who was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (B) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress in April 1939 following the Tripuri Session. His resignation was prompted by significant ideological differences and a lack of cooperation from the Congress Working Committee and Mahatma Gandhi. Following this vacancy, Rajendra Prasad was elected to lead the party as the President for the remainder of the term. This period marked a pivotal shift in the internal politics of the Congress, leading Bose to eventually form the Forward Bloc while Rajendra Prasad steered the organizational affairs of the party during the transition.

14History
Who had a direct connection to the Pune Agreement of 1932?
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Answer: (D) Depressed classes

Explanation

The Poona Pact, signed on September 24, 1932, was a formal agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune. This agreement was specifically negotiated to address the political representation of the Depressed Classes in the wake of the Communal Award announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. While the Communal Award had proposed separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, Gandhi opposed this as a measure that would permanently divide the Hindu community. Through the Pune Agreement, the demand for separate electorates was replaced by a system of reserved seats for the Depressed Classes within the general electorate. This significantly increased the number of seats allocated to them in provincial legislatures from 71 to 148 and guaranteed eighteen percent of the seats in the Central Legislature.

15History
Who wrote the famous book The Indian Struggle?
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Answer: (D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose authored The Indian Struggle to chronicle the history of the Indian independence movement from 1920 to 1942. Written primarily for a European audience while Bose was in exile, the book provides a detailed analysis of the nationalist struggle, including the Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience movements. It is significant for articulating Bose's political philosophy and his critique of the leadership and methods of the Indian National Congress, particularly his strategic differences with Mahatma Gandhi regarding the path to independence. Due to its revolutionary content and critique of British administration, the colonial government banned the book in India shortly after its initial publication in London in 1935.

16History
Who was the first woman president of the All India Congress?
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Answer: (A) Mrs Annie Besant

Explanation

Annie Besant was elected as the president of the Indian National Congress during the Calcutta session held in 1917. An influential figure in the Indian nationalist movement, she was an Irish-born theosophist and social reformer who also founded the Home Rule League in 1916 to demand self-government for India. Her election to the presidency made her the first woman to lead the All India Congress, a role she assumed following her active campaigning and imprisonment by the British authorities for her political activities.

17History
'Here is a revolution in India and we should take it quickly.' Who said this?
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Answer: (A) Sir Stafford Cripps

Explanation

Sir Stafford Cripps was a pivotal member of the Cabinet Mission that arrived in India in March 1946 to negotiate the terms for the transfer of power. Following the end of World War II, the British administration realized that maintaining colonial rule was increasingly untenable due to the surge in nationalist sentiment, exemplified by the mass protests during the INA trials and the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny. Cripps made this statement to highlight the urgency of the situation, recognizing that India was on the brink of a massive political and social upheaval. He believed that the British government needed to act decisively and engage with Indian leaders immediately to manage the transition to independence through constitutional means rather than allowing it to descend into a violent and unorganized revolution.

18History
The first mass movement started by Mahatma Gandhi was:
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Answer: (A) Non-Cooperation Movement

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched in 1920, is recognized as the first nationwide mass movement led by Mahatma Gandhi. While Gandhi had previously successfully led localized struggles such as the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917, the Ahmedabad Mill Strike, and the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918, these were limited to specific regions and issues. The Non-Cooperation Movement was the first to involve a broad-based mobilization of various social groups—including students, peasants, workers, and the urban middle class—on a pan-India scale. Triggered by the Rowlatt Act, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and the Khilafat issue, the movement aimed at attaining Swaraj through non-violent means and the boycott of British institutions, marking the transition of the Indian national struggle from an elite-led protest to a mass-based political campaign.

19Geography
Which of the following states has the largest coastline?
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Answer: (A) Gujarat

Explanation

Gujarat possesses the longest coastline among all Indian states, stretching approximately 1,214.7 kilometers along the Arabian Sea. This extensive length is primarily attributed to the state's highly indented maritime boundary, which includes major features such as the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat. Gujarat's coastline accounts for nearly 23 percent of the total mainland coastline of India. The presence of the Kathiawar peninsula and numerous creeks further contributes to the overall length of its shore, making it the most significant coastal state in terms of geographical reach.

20Geography
The smooth graded plane extended across the sub Himalayan region of Northern India is
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Answer: (D) Bhabar

Explanation

The Bhabar is a narrow belt, approximately 8 to 16 km wide, running east to west along the base of the Shiwalik range in the sub-Himalayan region. It is a smooth, graded piedmont plain formed by the accumulation of heavy debris, such as boulders, gravel, and pebbles, deposited by Himalayan rivers as they lose velocity upon entering the plains. This region is highly porous due to the coarse nature of the sediments, causing smaller streams to disappear underground. It represents the northernmost part of the Indo-Gangetic plain, stretching from the Indus to the Teesta River.

21Geography
Silvassa is the capital of:
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Answer: (B) Dadar and Nagar Haveli

Explanation

Silvassa serves as the administrative headquarters and capital city of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Historically, the region was under Portuguese rule until its liberation in 1954, after which it was formally integrated into the Indian Union as a Union Territory in 1961. Silvassa is the largest town in the territory and houses the key government offices, the secretariat, and the residence of the Administrator, functioning as the central hub for the region's governance and industrial development.

22Geography
The famous Blair coral reef near the Port Blair is dying
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Answer: (C) Because of global warming

Explanation

The degradation and mortality of coral reefs near Port Blair are primarily attributed to the rise in sea surface temperatures resulting from global warming. Corals maintain a delicate symbiotic relationship with photosynthetic algae called zooxanthellae, which provide them with essential nutrients. When sea temperatures exceed specific thresholds for prolonged periods, corals experience thermal stress and expel these algae, a phenomenon known as coral bleaching. If the elevated temperatures persist, the corals are unable to recover their algal populations and eventually die from starvation and disease. Major global bleaching events, such as those triggered by El Nino cycles in the years preceding 2007, caused extensive damage to the reef ecosystems in the Andaman Sea, leading to significant loss of coral cover in the region.

23Geography
Located between the Narmada and Tapti rivers:
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Answer: (B) Satpura plateau

Explanation

The Satpura Range is a series of hills in central India that forms a significant part of the Deccan Plateau. It runs in a roughly east-west direction and is situated between two major westward-flowing rivers. The Narmada River flows through the rift valley to the north of the Satpuras, while the Tapti River flows through the valley to its south. Geographically, the Satpura plateau acts as a horst or a block mountain system that serves as a watershed and a natural divider between the drainage basins of the Narmada and the Tapti. This range extends across the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.

24Economy
Corn can be cultivated:
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Answer: (D) All the year

Explanation

Maize is a versatile crop with high genetic variability and photo-insensitivity, allowing it to be grown under a wide range of agro-climatic conditions throughout the year. While it remains a primary Kharif crop in most parts of India, it is also successfully cultivated during the Rabi season in states like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka, where clear skies and controlled irrigation often lead to higher productivity. Additionally, maize is grown as a spring or Zaid crop in northern India. Its ability to adapt to different temperature regimes and its lack of a strict photoperiod requirement enable farmers to plant and harvest maize in almost every month of the year across various regions of the country.

25Economy
India has the largest area of jute:
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Answer: (B) In the state of West Bengal

Explanation

West Bengal is the leading producer of jute in India, accounting for the largest share of both cultivated area and total production. The state's dominance is attributed to the fertile alluvial soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta and a hot, humid climate with annual rainfall exceeding 150 cm, which are ideal for jute growth. Additionally, the availability of abundant water from the Hooghly River and its tributaries facilitates the critical retting process necessary for extracting fiber from the stalks. By 2007, West Bengal consistently contributed over 70 percent of the nation's jute output, centered primarily in districts like Nadia, Murshidabad, and Hooghly.

26Economy
The highest amount of saffron is produced -
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Answer: (B) In Kashmir

Explanation

Saffron production in India is almost entirely concentrated in the Kashmir Valley, particularly in the Pampore region of the Pulwama district. The crop requires the specific ecological conditions provided by the Karewa highlands, which consist of fertile, well-drained lacustrine deposits. The temperate climate of the valley, characterized by cool summers and cold winters with specific rainfall patterns, is essential for the flowering of Crocus sativus. Historically and as of 2007, Jammu and Kashmir held a near-monopoly on saffron cultivation in India, making it the highest producer in the country.

27Economy
Statement A: India is a significant exporter country of tea. Reason R: The domestic consumption of tea in India is very less. Choose the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

India is historically one of the largest producers and exporters of tea in the world, maintaining a significant share in the global market. While it faces competition from countries like Kenya and Sri Lanka, its output and export volumes remain substantial. However, the claim that domestic consumption in India is very low is factually incorrect. India is the world largest consumer of tea, with approximately 75 to 80 percent of its total annual production being consumed within the country. The vast majority of the tea produced stays in the domestic market to satisfy the high local demand, which is a defining characteristic of the Indian tea industry.

28Geography
Benefits of which one of the following river valley projects is received by more than one state.
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Answer: (A) Chambal valley project

Explanation

The Chambal Valley Project is a major multipurpose river valley initiative jointly executed by the state governments of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Launched in 1954 to harness the waters of the Chambal River, the project serves the dual purpose of irrigation and hydroelectric power generation while also helping in soil conservation. It consists of three dams—the Gandhi Sagar Dam located in Madhya Pradesh, and the Rana Pratap Sagar and Jawahar Sagar Dams located in Rajasthan—along with the Kota Barrage. Both states share the hydroelectric power generated and the water diverted for irrigation through an extensive canal network, making it a collaborative effort that provides significant socio-economic benefits to more than one state.

29Economy
Jaduguda is famous:
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Answer: (D) For Uranium

Explanation

Jaduguda, located in the East Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, is home to the first uranium mine in India. The mine began its operations in 1967 and is managed by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited (UCIL), which functions under the Department of Atomic Energy. The deposit at Jaduguda was the first of its kind to be exploited in the country to support India's nuclear power program. The ore extracted from this site is processed into uranium concentrate, commonly known as yellow cake, which serves as a vital fuel component for India's nuclear reactors. The significance of Jaduguda lies in its historical and strategic role in providing the domestic raw material necessary for the nation's atomic energy and strategic requirements.

30Geography
Which of the following is not a natural port of India?
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Answer: (B) Chennai

Explanation

Chennai is an artificial, man-made harbor located on the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu. It was developed during the British colonial era because the natural coastline in this region was relatively straight and shallow, lacking any deep-water inlets or protected bays that could serve as a natural shelter for large vessels. To facilitate maritime trade, engineers constructed massive concrete breakwaters and piers to create an enclosed basin that protects ships from the high-energy waves of the Bay of Bengal. It is recognized as the oldest artificial port on India's eastern coast and requires regular dredging to maintain the depth of its shipping channels for modern maritime traffic.

31Science and Technology
Which planet is also called the Earth's twin?
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Answer: (B) Venus

Explanation

Venus is frequently referred to as Earth's twin because the two planets are remarkably similar in size, mass, density, and composition. Venus has a diameter of approximately 12,104 kilometers, which is about 95 percent of Earth's diameter, and its mass is roughly 81 percent of Earth's mass. Both are terrestrial planets with similar internal structures, consisting of a rocky crust, a mantle, and a metallic core. These fundamental physical resemblances in basic planetary dimensions and gravitational pull are the primary reasons for the designation.

32Geography
What types of forest are found near the equator?
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Answer: (D) Tropical forest

Explanation

Regions located near the equator, typically within 10 degrees north and south latitude, experience an equatorial climate characterized by high temperatures and significant rainfall throughout the year. The absence of distinct seasonal changes and the abundance of moisture and solar energy facilitate the growth of dense, evergreen vegetation known as tropical forests. These forests, often specifically called tropical rainforests, are distinguished by their stratified layers, high biodiversity, and continuous growing season, making them the primary forest type associated with the equatorial belt.

33Geography
Drakensberg mountain is located in
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Answer: (C) South Africa

Explanation

The Drakensberg is the highest mountain range in Southern Africa, forming the eastern portion of the Great Escarpment that encloses the central southern African plateau. Stretching for approximately 1,000 kilometers, the range is situated predominantly within South Africa, spanning the provinces of KwaZulu-Natal, the Free State, Mpumalanga, Limpopo, and the Eastern Cape. It also defines the international border between South Africa and the mountain kingdom of Lesotho. Known in Zulu as uKhahlamba, meaning barrier of spears, the range is characterized by massive basalt cliffs and deep valleys. It serves as a critical watershed for South Africa, feeding major rivers like the Orange and Tugela, and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage site for both its unique high-altitude biodiversity and its extensive collection of ancient San rock art.

34Economy
Kimberly is famous
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Answer: (B) For diamond mining

Explanation

Kimberley, a city in South Africa, gained worldwide fame following the discovery of diamonds in the late 19th century. The discovery in 1871 sparked a massive diamond rush, leading to the creation of the Kimberley Mine, famously known as the Big Hole, which became one of the largest hand-dug excavations in history. The city served as the headquarters for De Beers Consolidated Mines, a company that historically dominated the global diamond trade. Geologically, the igneous rock in which diamonds are typically found is named kimberlite, directly derived from the name of this city, marking its permanent significance in the field of mineralogy and gemstone mining.

35Geography
Donbass is famous
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Answer: (B) For coal

Explanation

The Donets Basin, commonly known as Donbass, is a major geographical and industrial region located in eastern Ukraine and southwestern Russia. It is world-renowned for its vast and high-quality coal deposits, making it one of the largest coal-mining regions in Europe. The basin contains significant reserves of both anthracite and bituminous coal. Since the 19th century, the presence of these massive coal fields has served as the backbone for the region's heavy industrial development, particularly in the sectors of metallurgy and power generation. Donbass has historically been the primary energy-producing hub for the Soviet Union and subsequently for independent Ukraine.

36Geography
Which of the following is not currently match?
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Answer: (B) Bishkek - Tajikistan

Explanation

Bishkek is the capital and largest city of Kyrgyzstan, not Tajikistan. The capital of Tajikistan is Dushanbe. Both nations are located in Central Asia and emerged as independent states following the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. Bishkek serves as the administrative and political center of Kyrgyzstan, situated in the Chuy Valley near the northern border with Kazakhstan. In contrast, Dushanbe is located in the western part of Tajikistan and has served as its capital since the early twentieth century.

37History
Which one of the following is called great diving year in the history of Indian population?
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Answer: (A) 1921

Explanation

The year 1921 is known as the Year of the Great Divide in the demographic history of India because it marks a major turning point in population growth trends. Before 1921, India's population was in the first stage of demographic transition, characterized by high birth rates and high death rates, resulting in stagnant or even negative growth. For instance, the decade of 1911-1921 recorded a negative growth rate of -0.03 percent due to severe famines and the 1918 influenza pandemic. After 1921, improvements in sanitation, health facilities, and food distribution led to a consistent decline in the mortality rate while birth rates remained high. This resulted in a steady and accelerated increase in the population, transitioning India into the second stage of demographic development. Consequently, 1921 stands as the dividing line between a period of fluctuating growth and a period of sustained population expansion.

38Geography
Consider the following statements 1. Chhattisgarh has large area than West Bengal. 2. According to the census 2001, the population of West Bengal is more than the population of Chhattisgarh. Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is correct.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Chhattisgarh covers an area of approximately 135,192 km², ranking it among the larger states of India in terms of physical territory. In contrast, West Bengal occupies a smaller geographical area of about 88,752 km². This makes Chhattisgarh significantly larger than West Bengal by size.

According to the 2001 Census data, West Bengal was one of the most densely populated states in India with a total population of approximately 8.02 crore (80.2 million). Chhattisgarh, which was carved out of Madhya Pradesh in November 2000, had a much smaller population of roughly 2.08 crore (20.8 million). Consequently, the population of West Bengal was nearly four times greater than that of Chhattisgarh during the 2001 Census period.

39Economy
Due to Urbanization in India:
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Answer: (A) Both birth rates and mortality rate have decreased

Explanation

Urbanization in India has facilitated a significant demographic transition characterized by a decline in both birth and mortality rates. Improved access to advanced healthcare facilities, better sanitation, and widespread immunization programs in urban areas have directly contributed to a lower mortality rate compared to rural regions. Concurrently, the birth rate has decreased due to socioeconomic factors inherent to urban life, including higher literacy levels, increased female participation in the workforce, and the higher cost of living, which encourages smaller family sizes. Data from the Sample Registration System up to 2007 consistently showed that urban environments accelerate the shift toward lower fertility and mortality levels through better education and awareness of family planning services.

40Geography
In India, the most decadal growth in urban population (in percentage) has been found:
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Answer: (B) Between 1971-81

Explanation

The decade of 1971-81 recorded the highest percentage decadal growth rate of the urban population in India's census history. During this period, the urban population grew by approximately 46.14 percent. This sharp increase was primarily attributed to a combination of a high rate of natural increase, significant rural-to-urban migration driven by industrialization, and the reclassification of numerous rural settlements into new statutory and census towns. Census data shows that the urban population rose from approximately 109 million in 1971 to 159 million in 1981, marking a peak in urban expansion before the growth rate began to decelerate in the subsequent decades leading up to 2001.

41Economy
Which of the following step is of paramount importance for living on the best of human population?
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Answer: (D) Reduce the use of natural resources

Explanation

Sustainable development and the long-term survival of the human population depend primarily on the judicial and reduced use of natural resources. As the human population grows, the demand for water, minerals, fossil fuels, and land increases, often exceeding the Earth carrying capacity. Reducing the consumption of these resources minimizes environmental degradation, prevents ecological collapse, and ensures that essential materials remain available for future generations. This approach aligns with the principles of conservation and resource efficiency, which are foundational for maintaining the ecological balance necessary to support human life and well-being over the long term.

42Geography
The states in having highest population of tribal's are:
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Answer: (C) In Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census, which provided the most current data available in 2007, Madhya Pradesh had the largest Scheduled Tribe population in India, with approximately 12.23 million people. This figure represented about 20.3 percent of the state's total population and roughly 14.5 percent of the total tribal population of the country. Chhattisgarh, which was partitioned from Madhya Pradesh in 2000, also maintained a very high tribal density, with nearly 6.62 million Scheduled Tribe individuals, accounting for approximately 31.8 percent of its state population. Together, these two states constitute the primary heartland of India's tribal communities, including major groups such as the Gonds and Bhils.

43Geography
Arrange the following States in decoding order of their urbanization— 1. West Bengal 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Maharashtra 4. Gujarat Select the correct answer using the following code.
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Answer: (B) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2001, Tamil Nadu was the most urbanized major state in the country with 44.04 percent of its population residing in urban areas. Maharashtra followed closely with an urbanization level of 42.43 percent. Gujarat recorded an urban population percentage of 37.36 percent, ranking it third among the states listed. West Bengal had the lowest urbanization level among these four states, with only 27.97 percent of its population living in urban regions. Consequently, the descending order of urbanization for these states is Tamil Nadu (2), Maharashtra (3), Gujarat (4), and West Bengal (1).

44History
Who was the National leader elected as the Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925?
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Answer: (B) Vithalbhai Patel

Explanation

Vithalbhai Patel was a prominent leader of the Swaraj Party and the elder brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. In August 1925, he was elected as the first Indian President, a position now known as the Speaker, of the Central Legislative Assembly. His election marked a significant milestone for the Swarajist strategy of entering the legislative councils to provide internal opposition to British rule. During his tenure, he was known for his impartiality and for upholding the dignity and autonomy of the House against the colonial executive. He continued to serve in this prestigious post until his resignation in 1930 following the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

45Polity and Governance
Statement (A): Indian Constitution is quasifederal. Reason (R): The Indian constitution is neither federal nor unitary. Choose the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is an explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Indian Constitution is characterized as quasi-federal because it combines the essential features of a federal system with strong unitary tendencies. This term was famously coined by Professor K.C. Wheare to describe a system where the government is federal in form but unitary in spirit. While the Constitution establishes a dual polity with a division of powers between the Union and the States, it also includes various provisions like the emergency powers of the President, the appointment of State Governors by the Center, and a single integrated judiciary that tip the balance toward central authority. Since the Indian Constitution does not strictly adhere to the classical model of federalism nor function as a purely unitary state, it is termed quasi-federal. Therefore, the statement that it is neither fully federal nor fully unitary serves as the foundational reason for classifying it as quasi-federal.

46Polity and Governance
At present, Right to Property under the Indian Constitution is a
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Answer: (B) Constitutional right

Explanation

The Right to Property was transitioned from a Fundamental Right to a constitutional right by the 44th Amendment Act in 1978. While it previously existed under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, the amendment repealed these provisions and inserted Article 300A into Part XII of the Indian Constitution. Article 300A declares that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. This status ensures that the right to property is still protected by the Constitution and requires legislative authorization for any state interference, though it lacks the status of a Fundamental Right.

47Polity and Governance
Which of the following Fundamental right is not available for foreign citizen?
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Answer: (B) Right to freedom of expression

Explanation

The Fundamental Right to freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India. This specific article belongs to a category of rights that are exclusively reserved for the citizens of India and are not extended to foreign nationals. The constitutional framework identifies Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 as rights available only to citizens. Consequently, while foreigners enjoy various legal protections and certain universal Fundamental Rights, they do not possess the constitutional entitlement to the six democratic freedoms listed under Article 19, which include the freedom of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.

48Polity and Governance
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed from his office before the end of his tenure.
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Answer: (B) If the Lok Sabha passed the resolution for this purpose.

Explanation

According to Article 94(c) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. This is known as an effective majority. The constitutional requirement for such a removal process stipulates that no such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Since the Speaker is the presiding officer of the lower house, the authority to remove them rests exclusively with the Lok Sabha, and the process does not require the concurrence of the Rajya Sabha or the intervention of the President. Under Article 96, while a resolution for their removal is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting of the House, although they maintain the right to speak and participate in the proceedings.

49Polity and Governance
Whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided by
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Answer: (B) Lok Sabha speaker

Explanation

Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises regarding whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. This constitutional authority ensures that the Speaker has the sole prerogative to classify the nature of the bill. Furthermore, Article 110(4) mandates that every money bill, when transmitted to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent, must carry a certificate signed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha confirming its status as a money bill. This certification is a conclusive proof of the bill's character and cannot be challenged in any court of law or in either House of Parliament.

50Polity and Governance
Finance is divided between the Central and the States:
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Answer: (B) On the recommendation of the finance commission

Explanation

Article 280 of the Constitution of India mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to define the financial relations between the Central Government and the State Governments. The Commission is responsible for recommending the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, a process known as vertical devolution, and the allocation of these proceeds among the States, known as horizontal devolution. It also establishes the principles that govern the grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring a balanced fiscal federalism.

51Economy
The slogan of 'poverty eradication' was given in the five year plan of
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Answer: (C) Fifth five year plan

Explanation

The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1979) formally adopted the removal of poverty (Garibi Hatao) and the attainment of self-reliance as its two main objectives. While the slogan was originally popularized by Indira Gandhi during the 1971 election campaign, it was specifically integrated into the policy framework of the Fifth Plan to address the needs of the bottom 30 percent of the population. This plan emphasized improving the living standards of the poor through the Minimum Needs Programme, which targeted essential services like rural health, education, and nutrition.

52Economy
The importance of agriculture in the Indian economy is known by which of its following contributions?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Agriculture serves as the backbone of the Indian economy through its multifaceted contributions across various sectors. It is a primary source of national income and remains the largest provider of employment, supporting more than half of the country's workforce. The sector facilitates industrial development by supplying essential raw materials to major agro-based industries, such as textiles, sugar, and jute, while also contributing significantly to international trade through the export of commodities like tea, coffee, and spices. Additionally, agriculture ensures the nation's food security by providing a steady supply of food grains to meet the needs of a growing population. These integrated roles make agriculture vital for the overall economic growth and stability of India.

53Economy
The first measure of Indian to measure national income
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Answer: (B) By Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, was the first person to estimate the national income of India in 1867-68. He published his findings in his influential book, Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, where he calculated that the per capita income of Indians was approximately ₹20 per annum. His pioneering work was centered on the Drain of Wealth theory, through which he argued that the British administration was systematically siphoning off India's resources and wealth to England. By using available agricultural output data and adding a percentage for non-agricultural income, he provided the first statistical evidence of the economic exploitation of the Indian colony, laying the groundwork for nationalist economic critiques and future formal accounting of the national economy.

54Economy
PAN card issued by an Income Tax Department can not be used for which of the following purposes?
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Answer: (A) As the proof of Address

Explanation

The Permanent Account Number (PAN) card is a 10-digit alphanumeric identifier issued by the Income Tax Department primarily to track financial transactions and prevent tax evasion. The physical PAN card contains the holder's name, father's name, photograph, signature, and date of birth. However, the card does not mention the residential or communication address of the holder. Consequently, while the PAN card is widely accepted as a valid proof of identity and date of birth, it cannot be used as a document for address verification. For any service requiring proof of residence, such as opening a bank account or applying for a passport, other documents that explicitly state the address, such as a voter ID card or utility bills, must be provided instead.

55Economy
The Indian planned economy is
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Answer: (D) On Mixed economy

Explanation

India adopted a mixed economy framework following its independence, which was formally established through the Industrial Policy Resolutions of 1948 and 1956. In this system, the public and private sectors coexist and participate in the economic development of the country. The state assumes a dominant role in strategic areas, infrastructure, and heavy industries through centralized planning, while the private sector is permitted to operate and grow in various other segments of the economy. This model was chosen to achieve the dual objectives of rapid industrialization and social justice, allowing for state-led welfare initiatives alongside the market-driven dynamics of private enterprise.

56Economy
Special Economic Zone Act was passed on:
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Answer: (A) May 2005

Explanation

The Special Economic Zones Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in May 2005. The primary objective of this legislation was to provide an internationally competitive and stable policy framework for export-oriented production, aiming to attract foreign and domestic investment and generate employment. After being passed by both houses of Parliament in May, it received the assent of the President of India on June 23, 2005. Although the Act and the corresponding SEZ Rules were officially notified and came into effect on February 10, 2006, the legislative passage of the bill itself was completed in May 2005.

57Economy
The cause of Low productivity in Indian agriculture is
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Low productivity in Indian agriculture is the result of a combination of structural, institutional, and technical factors. High population pressure on land leads to disguised unemployment, where more people are engaged in farming than necessary, reducing the per capita output. The continuous fragmentation of land through inheritance results in small and marginal holdings that are economically unviable for large-scale mechanization or modern irrigation techniques. Additionally, the continued reliance on traditional farming practices, outdated tools, and insufficient access to modern inputs like high-yielding seeds and fertilizers in many regions further suppresses yield levels compared to global standards. These factors collectively create a cycle of low investment and low output.

58Economy
Government of India first Nationalized of 14 major commercial banks:
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Answer: (C) In the year of 1969

Explanation

The Government of India nationalized 14 major commercial banks on July 19, 1969, under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This policy was implemented through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969. The nationalization targeted private banks with deposits exceeding 50 crore rupees to align the banking sector with the developmental and socialist goals of the government. The primary objectives were to expand the geographical reach of banks into rural and semi-urban areas, ensure adequate credit flow to priority sectors such as agriculture and small-scale industries, and prevent the concentration of economic power. This move transformed the Indian banking landscape from a focus on urban corporate lending to a model of social banking aimed at broad-based financial inclusion.

59Economy
Which of the following committee had examined the issue of full convertibility of Indian rupees?
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Answer: (C) Tarapore committee

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India appointed the Committee on Capital Account Convertibility in 1997 under the chairmanship of S.S. Tarapore, a former Deputy Governor of the RBI. The committee was tasked with examining the feasibility and proposing a roadmap for achieving full convertibility of the Indian rupee on the capital account. It recommended a phased transition over a three-year period, contingent upon achieving specific macroeconomic targets such as a lower fiscal deficit, a mandated inflation target, and a reduction in non-performing assets within the banking sector. In 2006, a second committee under the same chairmanship, the Committee on Fuller Capital Account Convertibility, was constituted to revisit the framework and provide a renewed path for further liberalizing capital flows while ensuring financial stability.

60Economy
IRDA regulates:
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Answer: (B) Insurance companies

Explanation

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was established as an autonomous statutory body under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999. Its primary objective is to protect the interests of insurance policyholders and to regulate, promote, and ensure the orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. The IRDA oversees the licensing of insurance providers and intermediaries, sets solvency margins, and monitors the overall financial health and market conduct of all companies operating in the life and general insurance sectors.

61Economy
In recent years, Indian Rupee has been strong against which of the following currency?
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Answer: (C) Dollar

Explanation

During the period leading up to 2007, the Indian Rupee witnessed a significant phase of appreciation against the US Dollar. This strengthening was primarily driven by a surge in capital inflows into India, including robust Foreign Institutional Investment and Foreign Direct Investment, reflecting high investor confidence in the Indian economy. The exchange rate moved from approximately 44-45 Rupees per Dollar in 2006 to levels reaching below 40 Rupees per Dollar by mid-2007. This appreciation was also supported by the global weakening of the US Dollar and India's strong macroeconomic performance, which resulted in a substantial increase in foreign exchange reserves.

62Economy
Which of the following Country is India's largest trading partner?
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Answer: (B) USA

Explanation

In the fiscal year 2006-07, the United States of America was India's largest trading partner. During this period, the USA was the primary destination for Indian exports, particularly in sectors such as information technology, textiles, and gems and jewelry. The total bilateral trade between the two nations reached record highs during the mid-2000s, maintaining the USA's position as the leading individual country for India's external trade before the significant surge in trade volumes with China in subsequent years.

63Science and Technology
The temperature for keep food fresh in the refrigerator is:
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Answer: (A) 4°C

Explanation

To maintain food safety and freshness, the internal temperature of a refrigerator should be maintained at or below 4°C (40°F). This temperature is critical because it stays below the danger zone, which is generally defined as the range between 5°C and 60°C where bacteria multiply rapidly. At 4°C, the growth of most foodborne pathogens and spoilage microorganisms is significantly inhibited without freezing the water content of the food, which would otherwise damage the cellular structure and texture of fresh produce and dairy products. Standard food safety guidelines recommend this specific threshold to prevent foodborne illnesses while ensuring optimal preservation of nutritional quality and taste over several days.

64Science and Technology
Automatic wrist watches get energy from:
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Answer: (D) From the various movements of our hands

Explanation

Automatic wrist watches, also known as self-winding watches, utilize a mechanical system centered around an internal oscillating weight called a rotor. This rotor is a semicircular metal component that pivots freely on a staff. When the wearer moves their hand or arm, the force of gravity and the kinetic energy of the motion cause the rotor to spin or oscillate. This rotational movement is transferred through a series of reduction gears to the mainspring, which serves as the power reservoir of the watch. As the rotor turns, it winds the mainspring, converting the kinetic energy of physical motion into stored potential energy. This stored energy is then regulated and released through the escapement mechanism to drive the gears and hands, ensuring the watch functions continuously without the need for manual winding or an external electrical battery.

65Science and Technology
Thermometer is an instrument that:
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Answer: (B) Measures the temperature

Explanation

A thermometer is a scientific instrument used to measure the temperature of a body or a system. Temperature is a physical quantity that expresses the degree of hotness or coldness of a substance, representing the average kinetic energy of the particles within that substance. Most traditional thermometers function based on the principle of thermal expansion, where a liquid like mercury or alcohol expands or contracts in a calibrated glass tube in response to changes in thermal energy. When the thermometer reaches thermal equilibrium with the object being measured, the level of the liquid indicates the temperature value on a standardized scale such as Celsius, Fahrenheit, or Kelvin.

66Science and Technology
Food gets cooked quickly in a pressure cooker because of
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Answer: (B) At high pressure water gets boiled at high temperature

Explanation

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the external pressure surrounding the liquid. In a pressure cooker, the steam generated during heating is trapped inside the sealed vessel, which significantly increases the internal atmospheric pressure. According to the principle that the boiling point of a liquid increases with an increase in external pressure, the water inside the cooker boils at a temperature much higher than its standard boiling point of 100°C. This higher temperature allows the food to absorb thermal energy at a faster rate, thereby significantly reducing the total cooking time.

67Science and Technology
It is comfortable to wear white clothes in summer because:
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Answer: (A) They Reflect all the heat that is falling it.

Explanation

White surfaces are poor absorbers and excellent reflectors of solar radiation. In summer, heat is primarily transferred through radiant energy from the sun. Light-colored fabrics, particularly white, reflect the majority of the incident visible light and infrared radiation that falls on them. Because the clothing reflects this energy instead of absorbing it, the fabric itself remains cooler, and significantly less heat is transferred to the wearer's body. This high reflectivity helps maintain a lower temperature near the skin surface compared to dark-colored materials that absorb thermal energy.

68Science and Technology
In Three pin electric plug longest pin should be connected with
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Answer: (A) Earth end

Explanation

The longest pin in a three-pin electric plug is designed to be the earth pin for safety reasons. Its increased length ensures that when the plug is inserted into a socket, the earth connection is established before the live and neutral pins make contact. This grounding path ensures that if there is any insulation failure or short circuit within the appliance, the metallic casing is already connected to the earth, protecting the user from electric shock. Similarly, when the plug is removed, the earth pin is the last to disconnect, maintaining the safety ground until the power is completely cut off. Additionally, the earth pin is usually thicker than the other two pins to prevent it from being accidentally inserted into the live or neutral terminals of the socket.

69Science and Technology
Statement (A): The signal of danger is made of red color. Reason (R): The scattering of red is least. Select the right answer with the help of code given below. Code:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

According to the Rayleigh scattering law, the intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength, represented by the formula I ∝ 1/λ⁴. In the visible spectrum, red light has the longest wavelength, which means it experiences the least amount of scattering when passing through the atmosphere. Because red light is not easily dispersed by air molecules, dust, or water droplets, it can travel much longer distances without losing its intensity. This characteristic ensures that a danger signal remains clearly visible to an observer from a great distance, even in challenging conditions such as fog, smoke, or rain. Thus, the minimal scattering of red light is the scientific reason why it is universally adopted for danger signals.

70Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Air conditioners and air coolers both regulate the humidity

Explanation

Air conditioners and air coolers function using different physical mechanisms regarding moisture. Air conditioners operate on a vapor compression cycle where air passes over cold evaporator coils; this process causes water vapor in the air to condense on the coils and be drained away, thereby actively reducing and regulating humidity. Conversely, air coolers work via evaporative cooling, where warm air is passed through water-saturated pads. In this process, the air absorbs moisture as water evaporates, which inherently increases the humidity of the environment. While an air conditioner can precisely control and lower humidity levels, an air cooler lacks the ability to regulate or decrease humidity, making it less effective in humid climates where it adds further moisture to the air.

71Science and Technology
When the TV is switched ON then:
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Answer: (B) The audio is heard immediately but the video is visible later because the video needs some practice time

Explanation

In a television set, particularly the Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) models common in 2007, the audio and video systems have different initialization speeds. The audio signal is processed through solid-state electronic circuits and amplifiers that become fully operational almost instantly when the power is applied. In contrast, the visual display relies on a cathode that must be heated to a specific temperature to initiate thermionic emission. This process allows the cathode to release electrons, which are then accelerated to strike the phosphors on the screen to create an image. Because this thermal warm-up process takes several seconds, the sound is heard immediately while the video display experiences a short delay before becoming visible.

72Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a molecule atomic particle?
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Answer: (C) Deuteron

Explanation

A deuteron is a composite particle rather than a primary subatomic particle. While protons, neutrons, and electrons are the fundamental constituents that make up atoms across the periodic table, a deuteron specifically refers to the nucleus of deuterium, which is an isotope of hydrogen (²H). It consists of one proton and one neutron bound together. Because it is a specific combination of subatomic particles rather than a singular basic building block of matter, it does not fall into the same category as the individual fundamental particles that define atomic structure.

73Science and Technology
Which among the following is the most abundantly found element in the world?
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Answer: (C) Nitrogen

Explanation

Nitrogen is the most abundantly found element in the Earth's atmosphere, comprising approximately 78.08% of its total volume. It exists primarily as a stable diatomic gas (N₂), serving as the largest single component of the air we breathe. Its high atmospheric concentration is due to its relative chemical inertness and volatility, which prevented it from being easily sequestered in the Earth's crust as solid minerals during the planet's formation, unlike elements such as oxygen or carbon. This abundance makes it a critical part of the atmospheric pressure and the global nitrogen cycle.

74Science and Technology
The reason for stinging smell near the urinals is:
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Answer: (C) Ammonia

Explanation

The pungent and stinging smell typically encountered near urinals is caused by the release of ammonia gas (NH₃). Human urine contains urea (NH₂CONH₂) as its primary nitrogenous waste product. When urine is excreted and comes into contact with the environment, various types of bacteria containing the enzyme urease facilitate a hydrolysis reaction. This process breaks down the urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. Ammonia is a colorless gas with a very sharp, irritating odor that is easily detectable even at low concentrations. The accumulation of this gas in poorly ventilated or frequently used urinal areas is responsible for the characteristic stinging sensation in the nose and eyes.

75Science and Technology
Sodium vapor lamps are used in road lighting because
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Answer: (B) Their light is monochromatic and does not scatter when passing through water droplets

Explanation

Sodium vapor lamps are preferred for street lighting because they produce a nearly monochromatic yellow light, primarily at wavelengths of 589 nm and 589.6 nm. The intensity of light scattering by particles like water droplets or fog is governed by Rayleigh scattering, which states that scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength, expressed as I ∝ 1/λ⁴. Since yellow light has a longer wavelength than blue or green light, it scatters significantly less when encountering moisture in the atmosphere. This property allows the light to penetrate through fog, rain, and mist more effectively without being dispersed, ensuring that the illumination remains concentrated on the road surface and providing better visibility and contrast for drivers in adverse weather conditions.

76Science and Technology
Polythene bags cannot be destroyed because it is made:
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Answer: (A) From Non degradable substances

Explanation

Polythene is a synthetic thermoplastic polymer made from the linkage of ethylene monomers. It is classified as a non-biodegradable substance because its chemical structure consists of very long and stable carbon-carbon chains. Natural decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, do not possess the enzymes necessary to break these strong covalent bonds. Because these materials cannot be broken down by biological processes, they persist in the environment for centuries without decaying, which is why they are considered nearly indestructible under natural conditions.

77Science and Technology
The cause of sweetness in the milk is because of the presence of
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Answer: (B) Lactose

Explanation

Lactose is a disaccharide carbohydrate found exclusively in mammalian milk, often referred to as milk sugar. It is composed of one molecule of D-galactose and one molecule of D-glucose linked by a β-1,4-glycosidic bond. This sugar is synthesized in the mammary glands and serves as a primary energy source for infants. While it is significantly less sweet than sucrose, lactose provides the characteristic mild sweetness associated with fresh milk. In the human digestive system, the enzyme lactase is required to break down lactose into its constituent monosaccharides for absorption into the bloodstream.

78Science and Technology
Keeping pigs away from the human habitat is helpful in eradication of
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Answer: (B) Japanese encephalitis

Explanation

Japanese encephalitis is caused by a virus that circulates in a cycle involving mosquitoes, specifically the Culex tritaeniorhynchus group, and vertebrate hosts. In this cycle, pigs serve as the primary amplifier hosts. When a mosquito bites an infected pig, it ingests the virus, which then multiplies within the mosquito. Pigs are particularly significant because they develop high levels of viremia (concentration of virus in the blood) without showing signs of illness, providing a large reservoir for mosquitoes to pick up the pathogen. Humans are incidental or dead-end hosts and do not contribute to the transmission cycle. By keeping pigs away from human habitats, the proximity between the amplifier host and the human population is reduced, effectively breaking the transmission chain and lowering the risk of mosquitoes transferring the virus to people.

79Science and Technology
ELISA Test is used for which of the following?
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Answer: (C) AIDS

Explanation

The Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is a biochemical technique primarily used to detect the presence of specific antibodies or antigens in a biological sample. It serves as the standard screening test for the diagnosis of AIDS by identifying antibodies that the body produces in response to the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The test utilizes the principle of antigen-antibody binding, where a color change indicates a positive reaction when an enzyme-labeled conjugate interacts with the target molecules. Because of its high sensitivity and efficiency, ELISA is widely used in clinical laboratories and blood banks for the early detection and management of HIV infection.

80Science and Technology
The instrument used to measure the blood pressure is:
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Answer: (B) Sphygmomanometer

Explanation

A sphygmomanometer is the standard medical device used to measure arterial blood pressure. The instrument typically consists of an inflatable rubber cuff that is applied to the arm, a measuring unit such as a mercury manometer or aneroid gauge, and a bulb for inflation. It works by inflating the cuff to a pressure higher than the systolic arterial pressure, then slowly releasing it to detect the Korotkoff sounds or oscillations that indicate systolic and diastolic levels. These measurements are recorded in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and are essential for evaluating cardiovascular health and diagnosing conditions such as hypertension. Developed in the late 19th century and refined by clinicians like Scipione Riva-Rocci and Harvey Cushing, it remains the primary tool for non-invasive blood pressure monitoring in clinical practice.

81Science and Technology
The normal temperature of human body is
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The standard normal body temperature for a healthy human is established at 37°C. The conversion between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales is determined by the linear equation F = 9/5C + 32. By substituting the physiological norm of 37 into this formula, the calculation is performed as:

F = (9/5 × 37) + 32 F = 66.6 + 32 = 98.6

Medical physiology identifies 98.6°F as the precise average baseline temperature for the human body under normal conditions. This specific temperature is the globally recognized clinical benchmark for health assessments.

82Science and Technology
The lack of which element leads to Goiter disease?
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Answer: (C) Iodine

Explanation

Iodine is a critical trace element required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid hormones, namely thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃). These hormones regulate the body's metabolism, growth, and development. When there is a deficiency of iodine in the diet, the thyroid gland is unable to produce sufficient quantities of these hormones. To compensate for this deficiency, the pituitary gland increases the secretion of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH). This elevated TSH level causes the thyroid gland to undergo hypertrophy and hyperplasia, leading to its physical enlargement. This visible swelling in the neck region is known as goiter. Consuming iodized salt is the primary public health strategy used to ensure adequate iodine intake and prevent this condition.

83Science and Technology
Super rice was developed by:
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Answer: (B) G.S. Khush

Explanation

Dr. Gurdev Singh Khush, a renowned plant breeder and geneticist at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), is the primary scientist credited with the development of Super rice. Developed in the early 1990s, this variety was designed using a new plant type architecture to increase the yield potential of rice by approximately 25 percent over existing high-yielding varieties. The plant was engineered to have fewer but more productive tillers, thicker stems to prevent lodging, and larger panicles to carry a higher number of grains. Dr. Khush received the World Food Prize in 1996 for his monumental contributions to global food security through his work on genetic improvement of rice varieties.

84Science and Technology
Seed less mango belongs to which of the following species?
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Answer: (D) Sindhu

Explanation

Sindhu is a hybrid mango variety developed by the Konkan Krishi Vidyapeeth at Dapoli, Maharashtra. It was created by crossing the varieties Ratna and Alphonso. Sindhu is technically stenospermocarpic, meaning it possesses a very thin, small, and non-viable stone that represents only about 3 percent of the total fruit weight. This extremely high pulp-to-stone ratio makes it functionally seedless for consumers. Developed in the early 1990s, it is recognized for its fiberless pulp, sweet taste, and pleasant aroma, making it a significant achievement in horticultural breeding for improved fruit quality.

85Economy
Yellow Revolution is associated with the production of
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Answer: (C) Oil seed

Explanation

The Yellow Revolution was launched in India during 1986-1987 to increase the production of edible oilseeds and achieve self-reliance in the sector. This initiative specifically targeted nine major oilseed crops, including mustard, groundnut, soybean, sunflower, and sesame. Led by Sam Pitroda, the revolution focused on the application of the Oil Technological Mission, which introduced high-yielding hybrid seeds, improved irrigation methods, and better distribution of fertilizers to significantly enhance domestic oil production and reduce the country's reliance on imports.

86Science and Technology
First computer was made by
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Answer: (C) Charles Babbage

Explanation

Charles Babbage is universally recognized as the father of the computer due to his pioneering designs in the early 19th century. He first conceptualized the Difference Engine, a mechanical calculator designed to tabulate polynomial functions. He subsequently developed the plans for the Analytical Engine, which is considered the first design for a general-purpose, programmable computer. The Analytical Engine incorporated essential logical structures found in modern computing, including an arithmetic logic unit, control flow through loops and conditional branching, and integrated memory. Although the technology of the era prevented the full physical construction of these complex machines during his lifetime, Babbage's fundamental architectural principles provided the theoretical foundation for the development of electronic digital computers in the 20th century.

87Science and Technology
Smaller forms of computers are possible because of use of which substance?
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Answer: (B) Integrated circuit chips

Explanation

Integrated circuit chips, often referred to as microchips or silicon chips, are the primary technology responsible for the miniaturization of computers. These chips allow for the integration of thousands or even billions of electronic components, such as transistors, resistors, and capacitors, onto a single small wafer of semiconductor material, typically silicon. By combining these components into a unified circuit, the physical space required for electronic processing is drastically reduced compared to using individual discrete components. This transition from large, separate parts to compact integrated systems enabled the development of microprocessors, leading to the creation of personal computers, laptops, and mobile devices that are significantly smaller, faster, and more energy-efficient than their predecessors.

88Science and Technology
Computer I.C. Chips are often made of:
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Answer: (C) Silicon

Explanation

Computer Integrated Circuit (IC) chips are manufactured using silicon because it is a semiconductor material with ideal electrical properties. Silicon allows for the precise control of electrical current through a process called doping, where small amounts of impurities are added to modify its conductivity. This enables the creation of millions of microscopic transistors and logic gates on a single wafer. Furthermore, silicon is highly abundant in nature and naturally forms a stable, high-quality insulating layer of silicon dioxide, which is critical for the complex layering and miniaturization required in modern microprocessor fabrication.

89Science and Technology
What is Jarvik-7?
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Answer: (C) Artificial heart

Explanation

The Jarvik-7 is the world's first permanent artificial heart designed to replace the natural ventricles of a human heart. Developed by Robert Jarvik and his team at the University of Utah, the device is a pneumatic pump made of plastic and aluminum. It achieved global prominence in 1982 when it was first implanted into patient Barney Clark, who survived for 112 days. The device operates by using compressed air from an external console to drive internal diaphragms that pump blood through the circulatory system. Its development represented a major milestone in medical engineering, providing a technological solution for patients suffering from end-stage heart failure when biological transplantation was not an immediate option.

90Geography
Which of the following tree is suitable to prevent dust pollution?
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Answer: (A) Sita Ashok

Explanation

Sita Ashok (Saraca asoca) is highly effective at preventing dust pollution due to its dense, evergreen canopy and broad leaf structure. The tree acts as a natural physical filter; its large total leaf surface area allows for the significant interception and accumulation of suspended particulate matter (SPM) from the air. Unlike deciduous trees, the evergreen nature of the Sita Ashok ensures that it provides a consistent barrier against dust and noise pollution throughout the year. Its thick foliage also helps in reducing wind velocity, which facilitates the settling of heavier dust particles onto the ground and leaf surfaces, thereby improving local air quality in urban and industrial areas.

91Economy
A BOD in a water body, the excess of BOD indicates that its water is
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Answer: (C) is polluted with sewage

Explanation

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose the organic matter present in a water sample. When sewage, which is rich in organic waste, enters a water body, it provides a massive food source for bacteria. As these microorganisms break down the organic pollutants through aerobic respiration, they consume a significant amount of the available dissolved oxygen. Therefore, a high BOD value directly correlates with a high concentration of organic matter, serving as a primary indicator that the water is heavily polluted with sewage and other organic effluents.

92EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Life expectancy of Male in Uttar Pradesh is
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Answer: (A) 63.5 years

Explanation

The life expectancy figure for males in Uttar Pradesh is based on the Report of the Technical Group on Population Projections, which was constituted by the National Commission on Population. In its 2006 report providing demographic estimates for the period 2001–2026, the technical group projected that the life expectancy at birth for males in Uttar Pradesh would reach 63.5 years during the 2006–2010 interval. These projections were calculated using the component method, incorporating observed trends from the Sample Registration System data and reflecting anticipated improvements in public health and nutritional standards at the time of the Eleventh Five Year Plan.

93GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Hindalo is located at:
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Answer: (B) Renukoot

Explanation

Hindalco Industries Limited, originally incorporated as Hindustan Aluminium Corporation Limited, operates its primary integrated aluminium facility in Renukoot, located in the Sonebhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. Established in 1958 and commissioned in 1962, the Renukoot plant is one of Indias largest aluminium manufacturing complexes. The site was specifically chosen for its strategic proximity to the Rihand Dam, which provides the consistent hydroelectric power essential for the energy-intensive process of aluminium smelting. The complex encompasses an alumina refinery and an aluminium smelter, serving as a critical center for the production of primary aluminium and various downstream products.

94GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following sentence is incorrect about Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Badau has the lowest sex ratio.

Explanation

According to the Census 2001 data, which was the applicable statistical record for the 2007 exam year, the district with the lowest sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh was Gautam Buddha Nagar, recording 801 females per 1000 males. This was followed by Baghpat with a sex ratio of 841. Budaun did not have the lowest sex ratio in the state, as its ratio was approximately 847, which was higher than several other districts in the region. Since the statement claims Budaun had the lowest sex ratio, it is the incorrect fact among the given choices.

95EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In which of the following crop production in Uttar Pradesh is not a highest producer?
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Answer: (D) Rice

Explanation

West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India, consistently maintaining the top position due to its favorable agro-climatic conditions and multiple cropping seasons. While Uttar Pradesh is a major contributor to India's total rice production, it typically ranks second behind West Bengal. Uttar Pradesh holds the leading position in the production of other major crops such as wheat and sugarcane, but in the case of rice, the high productivity and vast acreage in the eastern and coastal regions of West Bengal ensure its status as the primary producer in the country.

96GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following district of Uttar Pradesh getting benefit from Arjun Dam:
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Answer: (D) Hamirpur

Explanation

The Arjun Dam is constructed on the Arjun River in the Mahoba district of Uttar Pradesh. Historically, this area was part of the Hamirpur district, and the dam was primarily designed to provide irrigation benefits to the drought-prone Bundelkhand region. The irrigation network from the Arjun Dam specifically serves the agricultural lands of Hamirpur, aiding in the cultivation of crops in an area characterized by limited rainfall and water scarcity.

97Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
High priority is being given by Uttar Pradesh Govt. to the children of which age group to provide primary education
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Answer: (D) Up to 14 years

Explanation

The Government of Uttar Pradesh, in alignment with the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, prioritized the provision of free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years. This focus was primarily driven through the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), a flagship program aimed at universalizing elementary education. The policy framework mandated that the state ensure all children in the 6 to 14 age group have access to primary and upper primary schooling to fulfill the constitutional obligation under Article 21A, which established education as a fundamental right for this specific demographic.

98EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
The objective of Uttar Pradesh's Udyog Bandhu Scheme is the objective of Uttar Pradesh Udyog to
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Answer: (B) Ensure the timely establishment of Industrial units

Explanation

Udyog Bandhu is a dedicated organization under the Government of Uttar Pradesh that functions as a single-window facilitation mechanism to assist entrepreneurs in setting up industrial units. Its primary objective is to expedite the process of obtaining various clearances and licenses from different government departments, thereby ensuring the timely establishment and operationalization of industrial projects. By monitoring the progress of investment proposals and resolving bottlenecks at the district, divisional, and state levels, Udyog Bandhu streamlines the interface between the government and the private sector to foster a more conducive environment for industrial growth within the state.

99GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
According to 2001 census the district having highest sex ratio in U.P. is
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Answer: (C) Jaunpur

Explanation

Based on the final results of the 2001 Census of India, Jaunpur district recorded the highest sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh with 1021 females per 1000 males. This figure made it the leading district in the state for this demographic indicator during that census period. The higher sex ratio in Jaunpur, as well as in other districts of eastern Uttar Pradesh, is a notable demographic feature often associated with the out-migration of the male population for employment, which results in a relatively higher proportion of females in the resident population. Jaunpur continued to hold this position in the subsequent 2011 census as well.

100Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below. List-I (Organized at): (A) Bateshwar (B) Dewa (C) Haridas (D) Nauchandi List-II (Fairs): 1. Barabanki 2. Meerut 3. Agra Jayanti 4. Vrindavan
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Answer: (D) 3, 1, 4

Explanation

The Bateshwar fair is a major cultural event and one of the largest cattle fairs in India, organized annually in the Agra district on the banks of the Yamuna. The Dewa Mela, also known as Dewa Sharif, is a renowned fair held in the Barabanki district at the shrine of the Sufi saint Haji Waris Ali Shah to promote communal harmony. Haridas Jayanti is a significant festival of classical music and devotion held in Vrindavan to honor the legacy of the saint-musician Swami Haridas. The Nauchandi Mela is a historic fair celebrated annually in Meerut.

101HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Maharishi Valmiki Ashram is located at:
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Answer: (B) Bithoor

Explanation

Bithoor is a historic town located in the Kanpur Nagar district of Uttar Pradesh, situated on the banks of the River Ganga. It is traditionally identified as the site of the Maharishi Valmiki Ashram. According to the Ramayana, this is the place where Goddess Sita stayed during her exile and where her sons, Luv and Kush, were born and raised under the tutelage of Sage Valmiki. The ashram is also considered the location where Valmiki composed the Sanskrit epic Ramayana. The site remains a prominent religious and cultural landmark, attracting pilgrims due to its deep associations with the life of Lord Rama and the Vedic era.

102GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The Uranium deposits are found in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (B) Lalitpur

Explanation

Lalitpur district is the primary location for uranium deposits within the state of Uttar Pradesh. Geological surveys have identified uranium mineralization specifically in the Sonrai area of the district. These deposits are found within the Bijawar Group of rocks, which are part of the southern Bundelkhand craton. The presence of these radioactive minerals makes Lalitpur a unique and significant site for mineral exploration in Uttar Pradesh, as it is the only district in the state where such deposits have been confirmed.

103Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
The Atomic power station in Uttar Pradesh is located at:
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Answer: (C) Narora

Explanation

The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is located at Narora in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh. Operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), the facility comprises two pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) units, each having a capacity of 220 MWe. Unit 1 began commercial operations in January 1991, and Unit 2 followed in July 1992. As the only nuclear power plant in Uttar Pradesh, it plays a critical role in providing base-load electricity to the Northern Grid. The plant is designed to withstand seismic activities, being situated in the Indo-Gangetic plains.

104EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
India is looking for the setting a new factory for manufacturing of rail coaches at which town
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Answer: (B) Rae Bareli

Explanation

The Ministry of Railways announced the establishment of a new rail coach manufacturing unit at Lalganj in the Rae Bareli district of Uttar Pradesh during the 2006-07 period. This facility was planned as the third coach factory of the Indian Railways, following the Integral Coach Factory in Perambur and the Rail Coach Factory in Kapurthala. The primary objective of the Rae Bareli plant was to manufacture modern stainless steel coaches of the Linke Hofmann Busch design to improve safety and speed in rail travel. The project was intended to help meet the increasing demand for rolling stock and foster industrial development in the region.

105Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Charkula is the folk dance of:
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Answer: (B) Brajbhoomi

Explanation

Charkula is a traditional folk dance originating from the Braj region of Uttar Pradesh, commonly referred to as Brajbhoomi. The performance is characterized by women dancers balancing a heavy, multi-tiered circular wooden pyramid called a charkula on their heads. This structure typically supports 108 lighted oil lamps arranged in rows. The dance is traditionally performed on the third day after Holi, which is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Radha. It is a vibrant expression of the cultural and religious heritage associated with the legends of Lord Krishna and Radha in the Mathura and Vrindavan areas.

106Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
The Sangeet Ratna Award started by Uttar Pradesh in the memory of
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Answer: (C) Ustad Bismillah Khan

Explanation

The Sangeet Ratna Award was instituted by the Government of Uttar Pradesh in 2006 to commemorate the legendary Shehnai maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan following his death in August of that year. Ustad Bismillah Khan was a Bharat Ratna awardee who spent most of his life in Varanasi and was a global icon of Indian classical music. The state government established this award to honor his legacy and to recognize eminent musicians who have made significant contributions to the field of music. The award reflects the deep cultural connection between the maestro and the state of Uttar Pradesh, where he popularized the Shehnai from a traditional folk instrument to a respected concert instrument.

107Science and Technology
If 10, 20, 31, A, 56, 70 is a series then what is the value of A?
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Answer: (B) 43

Explanation

The series is constructed using a pattern of increasing differences between consecutive terms. Calculating the differences between the known initial terms reveals that 20 - 10 = 10 and 31 - 20 = 11. This indicates that the increment added to each term increases by 1 at each step. Following this progression, the increment to find A should be 12, and the subsequent increment to reach the next term should be 13. By adding 12 to the third term, we get A = 31 + 12 = 43. This logic is verified by checking the remainder of the series: 43 + 13 = 56 and 56 + 14 = 70. Since these additions perfectly match the given sequence, the value of A is 43.

108Science and Technology
If code 3, 4, 5, 6 means 0, 4, 10, 18 respectively. What will be the meaning of code 7?
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Answer: (B) 28

Explanation

The relationship between the code x and its corresponding value follows the mathematical rule f(x) = x(x - 3). By substituting the provided codes into this formula, we can verify the sequence: for x = 3, 3(3 - 3) = 0; for x = 4, 4(4 - 3) = 4; for x = 5, 5(5 - 3) = 10; and for x = 6, 6(6 - 3) = 18. Applying this same functional rule to the code x = 7 yields 7(7 - 3) = 7 × 4 = 28.

Alternatively, the pattern can be solved using the method of differences. The sequence of results is 0, 4, 10, 18. The first differences between consecutive terms are 4 - 0 = 4, 10 - 4 = 6, and 18 - 10 = 8. These differences (4, 6, 8) form an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 2. Therefore, the next difference in the sequence must be 8 + 2 = 10. Adding this difference to the last known value gives 18 + 10 = 28.

109Science and Technology
What will be the next number in the following given series? 12, 6, 18, 9, 26, 13, 36, 18?
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Answer: (B) 48

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where numbers are arranged in pairs, with the second number of each pair being exactly half of the first. The pairs are (12, 6), (18, 9), (26, 13), and (36, 18). To find the next number, which begins the next pair, we examine the sequence of the first numbers: 12, 18, 26, 36.

The differences between these successive first numbers are: 18 - 12 = 6 26 - 18 = 8 36 - 26 = 10

The differences are increasing by 2 each time (6, 8, 10). Following this arithmetic progression, the next difference must be 10 + 2 = 12. Adding this difference to the last first number gives 36 + 12 = 48. Since the series ends at the completion of the fourth pair, the next term is the first number of the fifth pair.

110Economy
In a group of 70 people 37 like coffee and 52 like tea. Everyone like one beverage from these two beverages? How many people like both the beverages?
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Answer: (B) 19

Explanation

To find the number of people who like both beverages, we use the principle of inclusion-exclusion for two sets. The formula is n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) - n(C ∩ T), where n(C ∪ T) represents the total number of people who like at least one beverage, n(C) is the number of people who like coffee, n(T) is the number of people who like tea, and n(C ∩ T) is the number of people who like both.

Given that n(C ∪ T) = 70, n(C) = 37, and n(T) = 52, we substitute these values into the formula:

70 = 37 + 52 - n(C ∩ T)

70 = 89 - n(C ∩ T)

Rearranging to solve for the intersection:

n(C ∩ T) = 89 - 70

n(C ∩ T) = 19

111Polity and Governance
Pointing out a lady in a photograph Ram said, She is the daughter of the daughter of the only son of my Grand father. What is the relationship of the lady with Ram?
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Answer: (C) Niece

Explanation

The relationship can be decoded by breaking down the description step-by-step starting from the final phrase. The only son of Ram's grandfather is Ram's father. The daughter of Ram's father is Ram's sister. The lady in the photograph is the daughter of this sister. In kinship terminology, the daughter of one's sister is defined as a niece.

112Science and Technology
In a given code TRIVANDRUM is written as VTKXGPFTWO, how will you write ERNAKULAM under the same code?
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Answer: (B) GTPCMWNCO

Explanation

The coding pattern involves shifting each letter of the word two positions forward in the English alphabetical order (n → n+2). In the word TRIVANDRUM, T becomes V, R becomes T, I becomes K, V becomes X, A becomes C, N becomes P, D becomes F, R becomes T, U becomes W, and M becomes O.

Applying the same +2 shift to each letter of the word ERNAKULAM: E + 2 = G R + 2 = T N + 2 = P A + 2 = C K + 2 = M U + 2 = W L + 2 = N A + 2 = C M + 2 = O

Following this sequence, the word ERNAKULAM is coded as GTPCMWNCO.

113Polity and Governance
In a queue, Mohan is standing at the ninth number from the end and Sohan is standing at the eighth number from the beginning. Ram is standing in the middle of both. How many boys are standing in the line?
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Answer: (C) 18

Explanation

To find the total number of boys in the queue, we consider the simplest arrangement where Ram is the only person standing between Sohan and Mohan.

Sohan is standing at the 8th position from the beginning. If Ram is the next person in the sequence, his position from the beginning is 9th. If Mohan is the person immediately after Ram, then Mohan's position from the beginning is 10th.

In this scenario, Ram is exactly in the middle of Sohan and Mohan, with zero people between Sohan and Ram, and zero people between Ram and Mohan.

We are given that Mohan is at the 9th position from the end. Using the standard formula for the total number of people in a row: Total = (Position from beginning) + (Position from end) - 1

Substituting the values for Mohan: Total = 10 + 9 - 1 Total = 18

114Science and Technology
What is the missing number in the following series? 2, 6, 20, 30
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Answer: (B) 12

Explanation

The series follows a consistent mathematical progression where each term Tₙ is defined by the formula Tₙ = n² + n. This can also be expressed as the product of consecutive integers Tₙ = n(n + 1) where n is the position of the term in the sequence. Applying this logic, the first term is 1(2) = 2 and the second term is 2(3) = 6. The missing third term is therefore 3(4) = 12. The validity of this pattern is confirmed by the subsequent terms, as the fourth term is 4(5) = 20 and the fifth term is 5(6) = 30.

Another approach involves examining the differences between consecutive terms. The difference between the first and second terms is 6 - 2 = 4. If the differences increase by 2 for each subsequent step, the sequence of differences is 4, 6, 8, and 10. Adding the second difference of 6 to the second term of the series gives 6 + 6 = 12. Continuing this logic, adding the next difference of 8 to 12 results in 20, and adding the final difference of 10 results in 30. This confirms that the logic is mathematically sound and consistent across all given values.

115Economy
A square whose perimeter is 48 cm then what will be the area of that square is
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Answer: (A) 144 sq. cm

Explanation

The perimeter of a square is defined by the formula P = 4s, where s represents the length of one side. Given that the perimeter is 48 cm, the side length is determined by dividing the perimeter by 4: s = 48/4 = 12 cm

The area of a square is calculated using the formula A = s². Substituting the side length of 12 cm into this formula yields: A = 12 × 12 = 144 sq. cm

116Economy
A man bought two shirts in 650. He sold one at 7% profit and other at 6% loss. He neither earned profit nor loss in this arrangement. What will be the cost price of each of the two shirt.
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Answer: (D) INR 300 | INR 350

Explanation

When a transaction involving two items results in neither profit nor loss, the absolute amount of profit earned on one item must exactly equal the absolute amount of loss incurred on the other. Let x be the cost price of the shirt sold at a 7% profit and y be the cost price of the shirt sold at a 6% loss.

Given that the total cost price is x + y = 650, the condition for no profit or loss is 0.07x = 0.06y. This equation simplifies to 7x = 6y, which establishes the ratio of the cost prices as x/y = 6/7.

To determine the specific values, the total amount of 650 is divided according to this ratio. The total number of parts is 6 + 7 = 13. The value of a single part is 650 / 13 = 50. Therefore, the cost price of the first shirt is 6 × 50 = 300 and the cost price of the second shirt is 7 × 50 = 350.

117Economy
A gardener planted 17956 plants in such a way that there are as many rows as the number of plants in every row. What is the number of plants in a row?
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Answer: (B) 134

Explanation

Let the number of plants in each row be x. Since the number of rows is equal to the number of plants in each row, the total number of plants is x · x = x². We are given that x² = 17956, which means x = √17956.

To find the square root quickly, we can use estimation and unit digit analysis. We know that 130² = 16900 and 140² = 19600. Since 17956 falls between these two values, the square root must be between 130 and 140. The last digit of 17956 is 6, which means the last digit of its square root must be either 4 or 6 because 4² = 16 and 6² = 36. Testing the two possibilities, we find that 134 × 134 = 17956, while 136 × 136 = 18496. Thus, there are 134 plants in each row.

118Economy
The ratio of the age of A and B is 6 : 5 and total of their age is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their age after 8 years?
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Answer: (C) 8 : 7

Explanation

Let the current ages of A and B be 6x and 5x respectively. According to the problem, the sum of their ages is 44 years, so we set up the equation 6x + 5x = 44. Solving for x, we get 11x = 44, which simplifies to x = 4.

The current age of A is 6 × 4 = 24 years, and the current age of B is 5 × 4 = 20 years. After 8 years, A will be 24 + 8 = 32 years old, and B will be 20 + 8 = 28 years old. The ratio of their ages after 8 years is 32 : 28. By dividing both sides by the common factor of 4, the ratio simplifies to 8 : 7.

119Science and Technology
√256 ÷ √x = 2 then, what will be the value of x?
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Answer: (B) 64

Explanation

The given equation is √256 ÷ √x = 2. Since 16² = 256, the square root of 256 is 16. Substituting this value into the equation, we get 16 ÷ √x = 2. This can be expressed as the fraction 16/√x = 2.

By rearranging the equation to isolate √x, we have √x = 16/2, which simplifies to √x = 8. To find the value of x, square both sides of the equation: (√x)² = 8², which results in x = 64.

120Economy
If a principle money doubles in 10 years when it is invested through compound interest. Then, when it will become four fold (4 times).
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Answer: (B) 20 years

Explanation

In compound interest, the growth of money follows a geometric progression where the amount increases by a constant factor over equal time intervals. If a principal P becomes x times in t years, it will become xᵏ times in k × t years.

Given that the money doubles (x = 2) in t = 10 years, we need to find the time required for it to become fourfold (4 times). Since 4 = 2², the value of the power k is 2.

By applying the relation T = k × t: T = 2 × 10 = 20 years.

Using the standard compound interest formula A = P(1 + r)ᵗ, where r is the periodic interest rate: 2P = P(1 + r)¹⁰ ⇒ (1 + r)¹⁰ = 2 To find the time n for the money to become 4P: 4P = P(1 + r)ⁿ ⇒ (1 + r)ⁿ = 4 (1 + r)ⁿ = 2² Substituting 2 = (1 + r)¹⁰ into the equation: (1 + r)ⁿ = ((1 + r)¹⁰)² (1 + r)ⁿ = (1 + r)²⁰ Equating the exponents, we get n = 20.

121Economy
In a given system 70% of the money has been spent on salaries then what will be angle corresponding to this expense in pie chart?
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Answer: (D) 252

Explanation

In a pie chart, the total distribution of 100% corresponds to the complete central angle of a circle, which is 360°. To find the angle for a specific portion, the formula used is Angle = (Percentage Value / 100) × 360°. By substituting the given expenditure of 70%, the calculation becomes (70 / 100) × 360°, which simplifies to 0.7 × 360° = 252°.

122Economy
Which of the following companies has been just taken by Tata Group (2006)?
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Answer: (B) Corus

Explanation

In October 2006, Tata Steel launched a significant bid to acquire Corus Group plc, an Anglo-Dutch steel manufacturer. This acquisition was a landmark event for the Indian corporate sector, representing the largest overseas takeover by an Indian company at that time with a deal value of approximately $12.1 billion. Corus was formed previously by the merger of British Steel and Koninklijke Hoogovens and was the ninth-largest steel producer in the world. The acquisition was part of Tata Group's strategy to expand its global footprint and gain access to high-end European markets and advanced technology, effectively making Tata Steel one of the top steel producers globally.

123Economy
The position of India in world's textile export is
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Answer: (C) Third

Explanation

During the period leading up to 2007, India established itself as the third largest exporter of textiles in the global market. According to reports from the World Trade Organization and the Ministry of Textiles, India followed China and the European Union in total textile export value. The growth in India's export position was significantly boosted by the termination of the Multi-Fiber Arrangement in 2005, which ended the quota system and allowed India to leverage its vast raw material base, particularly in cotton. By 2006-2007, India accounted for approximately 4 percent of the global textile trade, supported by a strong manufacturing infrastructure and competitive labor costs that enabled high-volume production for international markets.

124Polity and Governance
On 2nd and 3rd Feb 2007, 10th National E-governance held at the city of
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Answer: (C) Bhopal

Explanation

The 10th National Conference on e-Governance was held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, on February 2nd and 3rd, 2007. The event was organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) in collaboration with the Department of Information Technology (DIT), Government of India, and the Government of Madhya Pradesh. The conference focused on the theme of "e-Governance: From Vision to Reality," emphasizing the implementation of the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) and the integration of technology to enhance the efficiency and transparency of public service delivery across the country.

125Art and Culture
In the year 2007, which of the following had been awarded with Padam Bibhushan?
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Answer: (C) Khushwant Singh

Explanation

Khushwant Singh was conferred with the Padma Vibhushan in 2007 in the category of Literature and Education. He was a distinguished Indian novelist, journalist, and lawyer, widely recognized for his sharp wit and secular outlook. His most famous works include the novel Train to Pakistan and a definitive two-volume history of the Sikhs. Having previously received the Padma Bhushan in 1974, he was honored with this second-highest civilian award by the President of India for his long and influential career in Indian letters and his significant impact on English-language journalism in the country.

126Economy
Central Govt. declared the year 2007 year as the
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Answer: (B) Water Year

Explanation

The Union Cabinet of India declared 2007 as the Water Year to highlight the critical importance of water resource management and conservation in the country. This initiative aimed to sensitize the public about the growing scarcity of water and the need for its sustainable use. During this period, the Ministry of Water Resources launched various mass awareness programs, workshops, and campaigns to promote rainwater harvesting and the recharging of groundwater. By dedicating the year to water, the government sought to involve community participation and implement effective water management strategies to ensure long-term water security for agriculture, industry, and domestic needs.

127History
In February 2007, who was declared 'Man of the Series' in One day International Cricket match between India and Sri Lanka?
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Answer: (C) Sourav Ganguly

Explanation

Sourav Ganguly was declared the Man of the Series in the four-match One Day International (ODI) series between India and Sri Lanka held in February 2007. India won the series 2-1 after the first match in Kolkata was abandoned due to rain. Ganguly was the most consistent batsman of the series, accumulating 168 runs in three innings at an average of 84.00.

His performance included a score of 98 in the second ODI at Rajkot and an unbeaten 58 in the fourth and final ODI at Visakhapatnam. In that final match, he anchored India's chase of 260, leading the team to a seven-wicket victory and securing both the Man of the Match and the Man of the Series awards. This series served as a crucial warm-up for both teams ahead of the 2007 ICC Cricket World Cup.

128Science and Technology
Which of the tennis players just declared his retirement from game?
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Answer: (A) Andre Agassi

Explanation

Andre Agassi, an eight-time Grand Slam champion and former world number one, officially retired from professional tennis in September 2006. He announced his intention to retire during the 2006 Wimbledon Championships, choosing the US Open as his final competitive event. His storied career, which spanned two decades and included a career Grand Slam and an Olympic gold medal, came to an end after his third-round match against Benjamin Becker at Flushing Meadows. His retirement was the most significant departure from the sport in the period immediately preceding the 2007 competitive season.

129History
In February 2007, which of the following states bagged highest Gold medal in National games held in Guwahati.
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Answer: (D) Service

Explanation

The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) emerged as the leader in the gold medal tally during the 33rd National Games held in Guwahati, Assam, in February 2007. The Services contingent, which comprises athletes from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, secured a total of 59 gold medals. This achievement placed them at the top of the medal standings, earning them the prestigious Raja Bhalendra Singh Trophy for the best performing team in the competition. Their dominance across various sporting disciplines ensured they maintained their status as the overall champions of the national event.

130Science and Technology
In the field of information technology which of the following company had awarded international 'del Carnegie leadership' award 2007?
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Answer: (C) Wipro

Explanation

Wipro was honored with the Dale Carnegie Leadership Award in 2007 for its exceptional commitment to human resource development and employee training programs. The award recognized Wipro as a global organization that successfully aligned its corporate goals with the professional growth of its workforce, fostering a culture of continuous learning and leadership. By receiving this accolade, Wipro became the first Indian company to be recognized with this prestigious international award from Dale Carnegie Training, highlighting its excellence in organizational development and management practices within the information technology sector.

131History
In December 2006, Asian Games were held in Doha. Which of the following country won the maximum Gold medals?
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Answer: (B) Kazakhstan

Explanation

In the 2006 Asian Games held in Doha, Kazakhstan secured 23 gold medals, which was the highest number won by any of the countries listed in the options. This performance placed Kazakhstan fourth in the final medal standings, behind only China, South Korea, and Japan. The Kazakh team was particularly successful in disciplines such as boxing, athletics, and wrestling, contributing to an overall total of 85 medals during the competition.

132History
Which of the following country had participated 1st time in Cricket World Cup, 2007.
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Answer: (C) Bermuda | Ireland

Explanation

The 2007 ICC Cricket World Cup, held in the West Indies, featured 16 teams and saw two nations making their tournament debuts. Bermuda and Ireland both participated for the first time in their history after successfully qualifying through the 2005 ICC Trophy. Ireland secured their spot by finishing as runners-up in the qualifying tournament, while Bermuda claimed the fourth qualifying spot. This expansion of the tournament allowed these Associate members to compete on the global stage, where Ireland notably progressed to the Super Eight stage in their maiden appearance.

133History
Roger Federer defeated ...... and won Australian open Singles men in 2007?
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Answer: (B) Fernando Gonzalez

Explanation

In the 2007 Australian Open final, Roger Federer defeated Fernando Gonzalez in straight sets with a score of 7-6(2), 6-4, 6-4. This victory marked Federer's tenth Grand Slam title and his third Australian Open crown. Notably, Federer achieved this win without losing a single set throughout the entire tournament, a feat that had not been accomplished in a Grand Slam men's singles event since Bjorn Borg at the French Open in 1980. Fernando Gonzalez reached his first and only Grand Slam final during this tournament, having displayed exceptional form to reach the championship match against the world number one.

134History
In 2010, which game was added in National games?
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Answer: (A) Shooting

Explanation

Shooting was officially introduced as a competitive discipline in the National School Games by the School Games Federation of India (SGFI) during the 2010-2011 academic session. The inclusion of the sport was aimed at promoting shooting at the grassroots level following India's landmark achievements on the global stage, including the first individual Olympic gold medal in 2008. This allowed student-athletes to compete in various air rifle and air pistol categories at a national level, broadening the talent pool for the sport within the country.

135History
Hockey World cup 2010 would be held on?
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Answer: (B) India

Explanation

The International Hockey Federation (FIH) officially awarded the hosting rights for the 12th edition of the Men's Hockey World Cup to India. The decision was confirmed during the FIH Executive Board meetings as part of a strategy to revitalize hockey in one of the sport's most significant markets. The event was scheduled to take place in New Delhi at the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, which served as the primary venue for the tournament in early 2010. This selection marked the second time India was chosen to host the prestigious global event, following the 1982 World Cup held in Bombay.

136History
Which of the following Country had won the Kabadddi World Cup Tournament held in Mumbai in January 2007.
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Answer: (B) India

Explanation

India emerged victorious in the 2007 Kabaddi World Cup, which was the second edition of the tournament held in the standard style. The event took place in Panvel, Navi Mumbai, and concluded on January 26, 2007. In the final match, India defeated Iran with a score of 29-19 to clinch the title. India maintained an unbeaten record throughout the competition, showcasing its traditional dominance in the sport. This victory followed India's success in the inaugural 2004 World Cup, further cementing its position as the leading nation in international kabaddi.

137History
In Cricket World Cup 2007, which player had established a record of 6 sixes in an over?
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Answer: (D) Herschelle Gibbs

Explanation

Herschelle Gibbs achieved this historic milestone during the 2007 ICC Cricket World Cup in a group stage match between South Africa and the Netherlands. On March 16, 2007, at Warner Park in St. Kitts, Gibbs hit six consecutive sixes in a single over bowled by the Dutch leg-spinner Daan van Bunge. This feat made him the first player in the history of international cricket to hit six sixes in an over in an One Day International (ODI) match. South Africa went on to score 353 runs in the rain-reduced 40-over innings, securing a dominant victory.

138History
Pakistani cricket coach who died in mysterious circumstances in cricket world cup, his birth place was?
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Answer: (C) Kanpur

Explanation

Bob Woolmer was the coach of the Pakistan national cricket team who died under mysterious circumstances on March 18, 2007, during the ICC Cricket World Cup held in the West Indies. He was found unconscious in his hotel room in Kingston, Jamaica, a day after Pakistan was unexpectedly knocked out of the tournament following a defeat to Ireland. Bob Woolmer was born on May 14, 1948, in Kanpur, India, where his father, Clarence Woolmer, was a cricketer representing the United Provinces in the Ranji Trophy.

139Art and Culture
Who was the winner of Australian open Women singles 2007?
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Answer: (C) Serena Williams

Explanation

Serena Williams won the 2007 Australian Open Women's singles title by defeating Maria Sharapova in a dominant final performance that ended 6–1, 6–2. This victory was historically significant as Williams entered the tournament unseeded and ranked world No. 81, having struggled with injuries and limited match play in the preceding seasons. Her triumph in Melbourne marked her third Australian Open title and the eighth Grand Slam singles title of her career, completing one of the most remarkable comebacks in the history of the sport.

140Art and Culture
Sri Aurobindo ashram is situated in
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Answer: (D) Pondicherry (Now Puducherry)

Explanation

Sri Aurobindo Ghosh moved to Pondicherry in 1910 to seek refuge from British prosecution and to dedicate himself to spiritual practice. He established the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in 1926 along with his spiritual collaborator, Mirra Alfassa, known as The Mother. The ashram serves as a center for Integral Yoga and grew into a significant spiritual community within the city of Pondicherry, which was a French territory at the time of its founding.

141Art and Culture
Sun Temple (Surya Mandir) is situated
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Answer: (C) In Konark

Explanation

The Sun Temple, also known as the Black Pagoda, is located in Konark, Odisha. It was constructed in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is a monumental representation of the chariot of the Sun God, Surya, featuring twenty-four intricately carved stone wheels and seven horses that appear to pull the structure. Recognized for its architectural grandeur and precision, the site was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 and remains one of the most prominent examples of Kalinga architecture.

142Economy
At present, India's crude mortality rate is
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Answer: (A) In Below 9%

Explanation

The Crude Death Rate (CDR) or crude mortality rate in India has shown a consistent declining trend due to improvements in healthcare and medical facilities. According to the data provided by the Sample Registration System (SRS) under the Registrar General of India, the crude death rate was approximately 7.6 per 1000 population in 2005 and remained around 7.4 to 7.5 per 1000 population by 2007. Since these figures are significantly lower than 9 per 1000 population, the rate falls into the category of being below 9. While the options use the percentage symbol, in demographic studies, these rates are standardly measured per 1000 individuals, and a CDR of 7.5 per 1000 corresponds to 0.75 percent.

143Polity and Governance
Baglihar power project, on which Pakistan raised an issue to the World bank, was being made by India on which river?
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Answer: (C) Chenab

Explanation

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river power project located in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir on the Chenab River. Under the terms of the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the waters of the three western rivers—Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—are allocated to Pakistan, but India is permitted to construct run-of-the-river hydroelectric plants on them provided they meet specific design criteria. Pakistan raised formal objections regarding the design of the Baglihar dam, asserting that its storage capacity and gate structure violated the treaty. This led to the World Bank appointing a Neutral Expert, Raymond Lafitte, in 2005 to resolve the technical dispute. The expert delivered his final verdict in February 2007, which largely upheld the Indian design while suggesting minor modifications to the pondage and dam height.

144Polity and Governance
National Rural Health Mission was started in?
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Answer: (B) April 2005

Explanation

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was officially launched by the Government of India on April 12, 2005. The primary objective of this mission was to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, particularly the vulnerable sections and those living in remote areas. It focused on strengthening the primary healthcare system by decentralizing health management and enhancing community participation through initiatives like the Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) program. The mission was initially designed for a seven-year period with a special emphasis on 18 states that exhibited poor public health indicators and infrastructure at the time of its inception.

145History
Who was the secret author of Parvez Musharraf's biography 'in the line of fire'
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Answer: (A) Humayun Gauhar

Explanation

Humayun Gauhar is a prominent Pakistani columnist and intellectual who served as the ghostwriter for Pervez Musharraf's autobiography, In the Line of Fire: A Memoir, published in 2006. As a close confidant of the former President, Gauhar was responsible for drafting the manuscript and structuring the narrative of Musharraf's life, covering critical events such as the 1999 coup, the Kargil conflict, and Pakistan's role in the global War on Terror. Gauhar, the son of the well-known bureaucrat and writer Altaf Gauhar, utilized his literary background to translate Musharraf's experiences into the published memoir that gained significant international attention.

146Economy
Muhammad Yunus who had been awarded Noble peace award 2006 is a citizen of
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Answer: (A) Bangladesh

Explanation

Muhammad Yunus is a Bangladeshi economist and social entrepreneur who founded the Grameen Bank in 1983. Born in Chittagong, Bangladesh, he developed the concepts of microcredit and microfinance to provide small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral. These efforts aimed to create economic and social development from the grassroots level. In 2006, Muhammad Yunus and the Grameen Bank were jointly awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for their work in helping millions of people, particularly women in rural Bangladesh, escape poverty through self-employment and financial inclusion. His innovative banking model gained international recognition as a powerful tool for global poverty alleviation.

147Science and Technology
Till March 2007, how many times Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was launched?
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Answer: (C) 10 times

Explanation

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conducted a total of ten launches of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) between its inaugural flight in 1993 and March 2007. This sequence comprised three developmental flights, designated as PSLV-D1 (September 1993), PSLV-D2 (October 1994), and PSLV-D3 (March 1996), followed by seven operational missions from PSLV-C1 (September 1997) through PSLV-C7 (January 2007). The PSLV-C7 mission, which successfully deployed the Cartosat-2 and Space Capsule Recovery Experiment (SRE-1) on January 10, 2007, marked the tenth launch of the vehicle. The eleventh mission, PSLV-C8, occurred later in April 2007, placing the tenth launch as the final one within the specified timeframe.

148Polity and Governance
Which of the following state of United states of America will celebrate next Indian Republic day as Indian American day on 26 th January?
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Answer: (D) Virginia

Explanation

The Commonwealth of Virginia officially recognized January 26 as Indian American Day. In early 2007, Governor Timothy M. Kaine issued a proclamation to celebrate the contributions of the Indian American community to the state's economic and cultural life. This designation was timed to coincide with India's Republic Day, highlighting the shared democratic values and the growing influence of the Indian diaspora in Virginia. The move aimed to foster stronger ties between the state and India while acknowledging the professional and civic achievements of Indian Americans residing in the Commonwealth.

149Economy
For the revision of the pay scale of central Government employee, sixth pay commission has been constituted which of the following one is the Chairman of this Commission.
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Answer: (B) B.N. Krishna

Explanation

Justice B.N. Srikrishna, a former judge of the Supreme Court of India, was appointed by the Government of India as the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission in October 2006. The commission was mandated to evaluate and suggest revisions to the pay scales, allowances, and pension structures of central government employees. Under his leadership, the commission introduced a streamlined system of pay bands and grade pay, replacing the traditional tiered pay scales to ensure a more flexible and modern compensation architecture. The final report of the commission was submitted to the government in March 2008.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7B
  8. 8C
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11A
  12. 12D
  13. 13B
  14. 14D
  15. 15D
  16. 16A
  17. 17A
  18. 18A
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21B
  22. 22C
  23. 23B
  24. 24D
  25. 25B
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30B
  31. 31B
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34B
  35. 35B
  36. 36B
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39A
  40. 40B
  41. 41D
  42. 42C
  43. 43B
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47B
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55D
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65B
  66. 66B
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73C
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76A
  77. 77B
  78. 78B
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83B
  84. 84D
  85. 85C
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92A
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95D
  96. 96D
  97. 97D
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101B
  102. 102B
  103. 103C
  104. 104B
  105. 105B
  106. 106C
  107. 107B
  108. 108B
  109. 109B
  110. 110B
  111. 111C
  112. 112B
  113. 113C
  114. 114B
  115. 115A
  116. 116D
  117. 117B
  118. 118C
  119. 119B
  120. 120B
  121. 121D
  122. 122B
  123. 123C
  124. 124C
  125. 125C
  126. 126B
  127. 127C
  128. 128A
  129. 129D
  130. 130C
  131. 131B
  132. 132C
  133. 133B
  134. 134A
  135. 135B
  136. 136B
  137. 137D
  138. 138C
  139. 139C
  140. 140D
  141. 141C
  142. 142A
  143. 143C
  144. 144B
  145. 145A
  146. 146A
  147. 147C
  148. 148D
  149. 149B

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