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UPPSC Prelims 2009 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 148 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

148
Questions
6
Subjects
15
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography3222%
  • Science and Technology3222%
  • Economy2517%
  • Polity and Governance2316%
  • History2014%
  • Art and Culture1611%
1Science and Technology
Scientist of Britain have built Gravity Tractor . Identify the same from the following:
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Answer: (D) A space craft with a mechanism which would check asteroids from hitting the earth.

Explanation

A gravity tractor is a spacecraft designed to act as a planetary defense mechanism by deflecting the trajectory of potentially hazardous asteroids. The concept relies on the principle of mutual gravitational attraction between the spacecraft and the asteroid. By hovering at a constant distance from the asteroid and using its thrusters to maintain its position, the mass of the spacecraft exerts a small but persistent gravitational pull. Over several years, this force is sufficient to nudge the asteroid into a different orbital path, ensuring it misses Earth. This non-contact method is advantageous because it works regardless of the asteroid's internal structure or rotation, providing a precise way to avoid cosmic collisions. British scientists and aerospace companies were instrumental in developing these concepts and mission studies for Near-Earth Object mitigation during the mid-to-late 2000s.

2Science and Technology
A colour-blind man marries a normal woman. The features of colour blindness will appear in his
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Answer: (D) daughter's sons

Explanation

Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder caused by a mutant gene located on the X chromosome. A colour-blind man has the genotype XᶜY. When he marries a normal woman (XX), he passes his Y chromosome to his sons and his Xᶜ chromosome to all his daughters. Since the daughters receive a normal X chromosome from their mother, they become carriers (XᶜX) but remain phenotypically normal. The sons are completely normal (XY) because they do not inherit the affected X chromosome from their father. When these carrier daughters have children, they have a 50% chance of passing the Xᶜ chromosome to their sons. If a grandson inherits this Xᶜ chromosome, he will express the trait because males have only one X chromosome. This pattern, where a trait is transmitted from a male parent to his grandson through his daughter, is characteristic of criss-cross inheritance.

3Science and Technology
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Lighting a candle in space does not produce a flame. Reason (R): A flame exists due to the pull of gravity. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The formation and sustenance of a candle flame are primarily governed by the process of natural convection, which requires the presence of gravity. On Earth, when a candle is lit, the heat from the combustion process warms the surrounding air, making it less dense. Gravity then causes the cooler, denser air to sink and the warmer, lighter air to rise. This buoyancy-driven movement creates a continuous cycle that draws fresh oxygen into the flame while carrying away combustion products like carbon dioxide and water vapor, resulting in the familiar elongated teardrop shape.

In the microgravity environment of space, this natural convection does not occur because there is no buoyancy. Without gravity to pull denser air downward and push lighter air upward, the combustion products do not move away from the wick. Instead, they accumulate in a stagnant layer around the flame, preventing fresh oxygen from reaching the fuel source. While a candle might momentarily produce a very dim, spherical blue glow through the much slower process of molecular diffusion, it cannot sustain a visible or traditional flame. Consequently, the characteristic existence and continuous burning of a candle flame are directly dependent on the pull of gravity.

4Science and Technology
The thermometer suitable to measure 2000^ degreesC is
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Answer: (C) total radiation pyrometer

Explanation

Total radiation pyrometers are designed to measure extremely high temperatures, typically ranging from 700°C up to 4000°C, without making physical contact with the heat source. They function based on the Stefan-Boltzmann law, which states that the total energy E radiated per unit surface area of a black body per unit time is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature T, expressed as E = σT⁴. Because these instruments detect thermal radiation from a distance, they are not limited by the melting points of the materials used in their construction. This non-contact method is essential for measuring temperatures as high as 2000°C, such as those found in industrial furnaces or molten metals, where standard contact thermometers would fail.

5Science and Technology
While lifting a bucket of water from a well, we feel that the bucket
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Answer: (A) becomes heavier above the surface of water.

Explanation

According to Archimedes' Principle, an object immersed in a fluid experiences an upward force called buoyancy, which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. When the bucket is submerged in the well, this buoyant force acts in the opposite direction to gravity, reducing the apparent weight of the bucket. The net force required to lift it is the actual weight minus the buoyant force (Wₐₚₚₐᵣₑₙₜ = Wₐ꜀ₜᵤₐₗ - F₆ᵤₒᵧₐₙ꜀ᵧ). Once the bucket is lifted above the water surface, the upward buoyant force from the water ceases to act. Although air also exerts a buoyant force, its density is negligible compared to water. Therefore, the bucket feels heavier above the surface because the person must now support its full actual weight without the assistance of water's upthrust.

6Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) EEG (B) ECG (C) EOG (D) EMG List-II: 1. Muscle 2. Eye 3. Brain 4. Heart
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

EEG or Electroencephalogram monitors electrical activity in the brain by recording impulses through electrodes placed on the scalp.

ECG or Electrocardiogram measures the electrical signals generated by the heart to assess its rhythm and overall cardiac health.

EOG or Electrooculogram records the standing potential between the cornea and the retina to track eye movements and retinal function.

EMG or Electromyogram evaluates the electrical activity of skeletal muscles and the nerve cells that control them to diagnose neuromuscular conditions.

7Science and Technology
When soggy biscuits are kept inside the fridge for sometime they become crisp because
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Answer: (B) humidity inside the fridge is low and extra moisture is absorbed.

Explanation

The air inside a refrigerator is maintained at a very low humidity level. During the refrigeration cycle, moisture from the internal air condenses onto the cold evaporator coils and is subsequently drained away or evaporated outside the unit. This process continuously dehumidifies the interior environment. When soggy biscuits, which have absorbed water vapor from the ambient air, are placed inside the fridge, the moisture moves from the region of higher concentration in the biscuits to the dry air inside the fridge. This removal of excess moisture through evaporation restores the crisp texture of the biscuits.

8Science and Technology
A third allotrope of Carbon, Fullerene was discovered by a team of 3 scientists who were awarded Chemistry Nobel Prize. Identify the one who was not a member of that team.
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Answer: (D) Feyman

Explanation

Richard Feynman was a theoretical physicist who received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1965 for his work in quantum electrodynamics. Although his 1959 lecture titled There is Plenty of Room at the Bottom is often credited with inspiring the field of nanotechnology, he was not part of the experimental team that discovered fullerenes. The discovery of the third allotrope of carbon, specifically the C₆₀ molecule known as Buckminsterfullerene, was made in 1985 by Harold W. Kroto, Robert F. Curl, and Richard E. Smalley. These three scientists were jointly awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1996 for their discovery, which revealed a new class of carbon structures with unique geometric and chemical properties.

9Science and Technology
Which one of the particles, claimed to have been discovered, can put Albert Einstein's theory of Relativity to the risk of being proved wrong?
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Answer: (B) Neutrinos

Explanation

Albert Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity is based on the postulate that the speed of light in a vacuum, c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s, is the absolute universal speed limit. According to the theory, as an object with mass approaches the speed of light, its relativistic mass increases toward infinity, making it impossible to reach or exceed c. In 2007, the Main Injector Neutrino Oscillation Search (MINOS) experiment at Fermilab reported results suggesting that neutrinos might travel at speeds slightly greater than the speed of light. The existence of such superluminal particles would violate the core principles of Relativity, potentially allowing for effects like time travel or the violation of causality, where an effect could precede its cause. These experimental claims regarding neutrinos represented the most significant challenge to Einstein's theoretical framework in contemporary physics up to 2009.

10Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Param - Land to land 10,000 missile

Explanation

Param is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in India, rather than a missile system. The Param 8000, launched in 1991, was India's first indigenous supercomputer. India's surface-to-surface (land-to-land) ballistic missiles are part of the Prithvi and Agni series developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). Therefore, Param is incorrectly matched with the description of a land-to-land missile.

11Science and Technology
Which of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
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Answer: (B) Semiconductor laser

Explanation

Laser printers utilize semiconductor lasers, commonly referred to as laser diodes, to create the high-precision light beam necessary for the printing process. These lasers are used because they are extremely compact, energy-efficient, and can be modulated (turned on and off) at very high speeds to represent individual pixels. In a laser printer, the semiconductor laser scans across a rotating photosensitive drum, altering the electrical charge on its surface to create an electrostatic image. This image then attracts toner particles which are transferred onto the paper. The integration of semiconductor technology allowed laser printers to become affordable and small enough for standard office and home use.

12Science and Technology
A fluorescent tube is preferred to an electric bulb because
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Answer: (C) in a tube electrical energy is almost full converted into light.

Explanation

Fluorescent tubes are significantly more energy-efficient than incandescent electric bulbs. In a traditional bulb, light is produced by heating a filament to a high temperature, causing a large portion of the electrical energy to be lost as heat rather than visible light. In contrast, a fluorescent tube uses a gas-discharge process and phosphor coating to generate light with much higher efficiency. This mechanism allows a much greater proportion of the input electrical energy to be converted into visible light, making the tube a more effective lighting solution. The high luminous efficacy ensures that for every watt of power consumed, the fluorescent tube provides more illumination while remaining relatively cool during operation.

13Science and Technology
Vinegar is an aqueous solution of
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Answer: (D) Acetic acid

Explanation

Vinegar is a liquid consisting mainly of water and acetic acid (CH₃COOH). It is produced through the fermentation of ethanol or sugars by acetic acid bacteria. Typically, table vinegar contains a concentration of acetic acid ranging from 4% to 8% by volume. The fermentation process involves the oxidation of ethanol into ethanoic acid, which provides vinegar with its characteristic acidic nature, sour taste, and preservative properties.

14Science and Technology
Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket: 1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space 2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form as fuel. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

Jet engines are air-breathing propulsion systems that function by drawing in atmospheric air, compressing it, and mixing it with fuel for combustion. Because they depend entirely on the surrounding atmosphere for their oxygen supply, they cannot operate in the vacuum of space. In contrast, rockets are designed for space travel because they carry their own oxygen supply internally to allow combustion without an external atmosphere. Statement 2 is incorrect because oxygen serves as the oxidizer, not the fuel. Furthermore, in practical rocketry, oxygen is typically carried in a dense liquid form (cryogenic) or as part of a solid chemical compound rather than as a gas, which would require prohibitively large and heavy storage tanks.

15Science and Technology
The inexhaustible source of energy of the star due to
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Answer: (A) Conversion of Hydrogen to Helium.

Explanation

The primary source of energy in stars like the Sun is nuclear fusion, specifically the conversion of hydrogen into helium. In the extremely high temperature and pressure conditions of a star core, hydrogen nuclei (protons) collide and fuse to form helium nuclei. During this process, a small fraction of the mass is converted into a tremendous amount of energy according to Albert Einstein's mass-energy equivalence formula, E = mc². This stellar nucleosynthesis provides a nearly inexhaustible supply of energy that allows stars to radiate light and heat for billions of years.

16Science and Technology
The leaning tower of Pisa does not fall because
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Answer: (D) the vertical line through the centre of gravity of the tower falls within the base

Explanation

The stability of a leaning object is determined by the position of its center of gravity relative to its base. In physics, a body is in stable equilibrium as long as the vertical line passing through its center of gravity falls within the area of its base. For the Leaning Tower of Pisa, despite its significant tilt, the center of mass is distributed such that the downward vertical line from that point still intersects the ground within the footprint of the tower's foundation. This prevents the gravitational force from creating a rotational moment or torque that would cause the structure to tip over. As long as this geometric condition is met, the tower remains standing without collapsing.

17Geography
The blue moon' phenomenon occurs
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Answer: (A) when two full moons occur in the same month.

Explanation

The phenomenon of a Blue Moon is defined in modern popular astronomy as the occurrence of a second full moon within a single calendar month. This event is possible because the synodic month, which is the time interval between two successive full moons, is approximately 29.53 days. Since most months in the Gregorian calendar consist of 30 or 31 days, a month can occasionally accommodate two full moons if the first full moon falls on the first or second day of that month. This occurrence is relatively rare, happening on average once every 2.7 years. The term refers to the timing of the full moons relative to the calendar year rather than any physical change in the Moon's appearance or color.

18Science and Technology
Enriched uranium are
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Answer: (B) Natural Uranium in which the component of radioactive isotope U^235 is artificially increased

Explanation

Natural uranium consists of approximately 99.3 percent ²³⁸U and only about 0.72 percent ²³⁵U by mass. While ²³⁸U is fertile, ²³⁵U is the fissile isotope capable of sustaining a nuclear chain reaction required for energy production. Enriched uranium is produced through physical processes, such as gaseous diffusion or gas centrifugation, which artificially increase the concentration of the ²³⁵U isotope. For use in most commercial nuclear power reactors, the uranium must be enriched to a level of 3 percent to 5 percent ²³⁵U, making it suitable for generating controlled thermal energy through nuclear fission.

19Science and Technology
Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. Which of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (D) The dimmer bulb has larger resistance.

Explanation

In a standard household wiring system, all electrical appliances, including light bulbs, are connected in parallel. This configuration ensures that each bulb receives the same operating voltage V. The electrical power P consumed by a bulb, which is directly proportional to its observed brightness, is given by the relationship P = V²/R, where R represents the electrical resistance of the bulb filament. Since the voltage V is constant for both bulbs in a parallel circuit, the power dissipated is inversely proportional to the resistance (P ∝ 1/R). This mathematical relationship dictates that the bulb with the lower power output, which appears dimmer, must possess a larger resistance to the flow of current compared to the brighter bulb.

20Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) LED (B) LCD (C) SARS (D) SCID List-II: 1. ‘Bubble boy’ Syndrome 2. Bird disease 3. Cost- effective light source 4. Popular and effective mobile screen
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

(A) LED: Light Emitting Diodes are semiconductor light sources that are highly energy-efficient and durable, making them a cost-effective lighting solution compared to traditional bulbs.

(B) LCD: Liquid Crystal Display is a technology that uses the light-modulating properties of liquid crystals to provide the thin and high-resolution screens used in mobile phones and portable electronics.

(C) SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome is a zoonotic viral respiratory illness that, in the context of early 2000s health threats, was frequently associated with animal-to-human transmission similar to avian or bird-borne diseases.

21Science and Technology
Nutraceuticals are products having
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Answer: (D) nutritional and medicinal effects

Explanation

Nutraceuticals are products derived from food sources that provide both basic nutritional value and additional health benefits, including the prevention and treatment of diseases. The term is a portmanteau of nutrition and pharmaceutical, coined to describe substances that possess physiological benefits or provide protection against chronic diseases. These products include isolated nutrients, dietary supplements, and functional foods that contain bioactive components like antioxidants or probiotics. By functioning as both a food source and a therapeutic agent, nutraceuticals are defined by their capacity to offer both nutritional and medicinal effects.

22Geography
'Chilgoza' is obtained from the seeds of a species of
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Answer: (A) Pine

Explanation

Chilgoza is the edible seed obtained from Pinus gerardiana, a species of pine tree belonging to the Pinaceae family. These trees are native to the northwestern Himalayan regions, including parts of India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. Unlike many other gymnosperms, the seeds of Pinus gerardiana are large, nutritious, and commercially valuable as dry fruits. The seeds are housed within woody cones and are harvested once the cones mature and begin to open. Due to its botanical classification within the genus Pinus, Chilgoza is specifically identified as a product of a pine species.

23Science and Technology
Apart from quinin, which one of the following herbal drug is used to cure malaria?
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Answer: (A) Arteether

Explanation

Arteether is a semi-synthetic derivative of artemisinin, a naturally occurring compound extracted from the herb Artemisia annua, also known as sweet wormwood. This plant has been used in traditional medicine for centuries and serves as the primary source for modern artemisinin-based antimalarial treatments. Arteether is particularly effective in treating severe malaria caused by multi-drug resistant strains of Plasmodium falciparum. It works by generating free radicals within the parasite, which damage its proteins and membranes, leading to rapid clearance of the infection from the bloodstream. By 2009, artemisinin derivatives like arteether were established as critical components of malaria therapy worldwide, especially for cases where traditional drugs like chloroquine failed.

24Science and Technology
The atoms, in which the number of protons is same but the number of neutrons is different, are known as
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Answer: (A) Isotopes

Explanation

Isotopes are atoms of the same chemical element that contain the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. The atomic number Z represents the number of protons and determines the element identity and chemical properties. The mass number A is the sum of protons Z and neutrons N, expressed by the formula A = Z + N. In isotopes, while Z remains constant, the variation in N results in different mass numbers. For example, Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon; both have 6 protons, but they possess 6 and 8 neutrons respectively. This difference in neutron count affects the physical stability and atomic mass of the isotopes without altering their position in the periodic table.

25Science and Technology
One kilowatt-hour equals
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Answer: (A) 3.6×10^6 J

Explanation

The kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy representing the amount of work done or energy consumed by a power source of one kilowatt operating for one hour. Using the relation Energy E = Power (P) × Time (t), the value is calculated by converting the units into the International System of Units (SI):

1 kilowatt (kW) = 10³ Watts (W) = 1000 Joules/second (J/s) 1 hour (h) = 60 minutes × 60 seconds = 3600 s

By substituting these into the energy formula: 1 kWh = (1000 J/s) × (3600 s) = 3,600,000 Joules

Expressing this value in scientific notation results in 3.6 × 10⁶ J.

26History
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Mohenjodaro and Harappa cities are dead now. Reason (R): They were discovered during excavations. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Mohenjodaro and Harappa are classified as dead cities because they are ancient urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization that were abandoned or destroyed thousands of years ago and are no longer inhabited. The assertion is true as they currently exist only as archaeological sites. The reason is also true because these sites remained hidden underground until they were systematically uncovered through archaeological excavations beginning in the early 1920s under the direction of the Archaeological Survey of India. However, the fact that they were discovered through excavation serves as the method of their modern recovery and does not explain the historical cause of their decline or why they became dead cities. The abandonment of these cities was likely due to environmental changes, shifts in river courses, or climate factors, which is unrelated to the act of excavation itself.

27History
Reasons for the spread of Buddhism included 1. Simplicity of religion. 2. Special appeal for the downtrodden. 3. Missionary spirit of the religion. 4. Use of local language. 5. Reinforcement of vedic spirit by philosophers. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Buddhism spread rapidly due to its rejection of the complex and expensive ritualistic practices of the Later Vedic period, offering instead a simple and practical path to salvation. It held a special appeal for the downtrodden and lower social orders because it discarded the rigid varna system and promoted social equality within the Sangha. The missionary spirit was a key driver, as the organized Buddhist Sangha and dedicated monks traveled extensively to propagate the Dhamma. Furthermore, the use of Pali, the local vernacular of the common people, instead of the elite and difficult Sanskrit, ensured that the teachings were accessible and easily understood by the masses. Since Buddhism was a heterodox school that challenged the authority of the Vedas and the supremacy of Brahmins, it flourished by providing a distinct alternative to the existing socio-religious order.

28History
The best preserved pillar erected by Ashoka is that of
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Answer: (A) Lauria - Nandangarh

Explanation

The Ashokan pillar at Lauria-Nandangarh in the West Champaran district of Bihar is widely regarded as the best preserved among all Ashokan pillars. It is unique because it remains in its original position (in situ) with its massive monolithic shaft and its single lion capital still intact and attached. Standing approximately 12 meters high, the pillar continues to exhibit the characteristic Mauryan mirror-like polish on the Chunar sandstone. While many other pillars were broken, moved, or had their capitals detached and placed in museums, the Lauria-Nandangarh pillar has survived in almost its original form, including the circular abacus decorated with a row of pecking geese (hamsa) that supports the seated lion.

29History
The rivers around which Indus Valley Civilization existed were 1. Indus 2. Chenab 3. Jhelum 4. Ganga Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization was geographically defined by the vast drainage basin of the Indus River and its five major tributaries. The Indus served as the primary waterway supporting major urban centers like Mohenjo-daro. The Chenab and Jhelum rivers, along with the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej, formed the system that irrigated the fertile plains of the Punjab. Settlements were extensively distributed along these riverbanks to leverage the alluvial soil and trade routes. Manda, situated on the banks of the Chenab in Jammu, marks one of the significant northern limits of this civilization, demonstrating the integral role these specific rivers played in its development and sustenance.

30Art and Culture
The total number of Puranas are
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Answer: (C) 18

Explanation

The Puranas are a vast genre of Indian literature covering a wide range of topics including cosmology, genealogy, medicine, and Hindu mythology. According to tradition, there are 18 major Puranas, collectively known as the Mahapuranas, which were compiled by the sage Vyasa. These eighteen texts are the Brahma, Padma, Vishnu, Shiva, Bhagavata, Narada, Markandeya, Agni, Bhavishya, Brahmavaivarta, Linga, Varaha, Skanda, Vamana, Kurma, Matsya, Garuda, and Brahmanda Purana. While there are also minor Puranas known as Upapuranas, the standard canonical count for the primary Puranic scriptures has remained 18 throughout Indian history.

31History
According to the Puranas, original place of the rulers of lunar dynasty was
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Answer: (C) Pratishthanpur

Explanation

The Lunar Dynasty, or Somavamsha, is one of the prominent lineages of the Kshatriya varna in ancient Indian tradition. According to the Puranas, the dynasty was founded by Pururavas, the son of Budha and Ila. Pururavas established his capital at Pratishthanpur, which is located near the confluence of the Ganges and Yamuna rivers at modern-day Jhusi in Prayagraj. This city served as the original seat of power for the early rulers of the Chandravamsha, including celebrated kings like Nahusha and Yayati, before the clan branched into multiple sub-lineages that moved to other regions of the Indian subcontinent.

32Art and Culture
In which one of the following places, the cave temples built by the Rashtrakutas in the Ellora mountains are located?
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Answer: (A) Aurangabad (Maharashtra)

Explanation

The Ellora cave temples are located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. These world-famous rock-cut structures represent the epitome of Rashtrakuta architecture, particularly the Brahmanical and Jain groups. The most iconic structure at this site is the Kailasa temple (Cave 16), which is a massive monolithic temple carved out of a single basalt cliff. This architectural feat was commissioned by the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the 8th century AD. The site as a whole contains 34 caves dedicated to Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism, illustrating the religious harmony and the artistic excellence achieved under the Rashtrakuta patronage in the Deccan region.

33History
What was the name of Ujjain in ancient times?
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Answer: (B) Awantika

Explanation

Ujjain, situated on the banks of the Kshipra River in present-day Madhya Pradesh, was known as Avantika or Awantika in ancient times. It served as the capital of the Avanti Mahajanapada, which was one of the sixteen prominent kingdoms of ancient India during the 6th century BCE. The city was a major political, commercial, and cultural hub, frequently mentioned in ancient Indian literature including the Puranas and the works of the poet Kalidasa. As one of the Sapta Puri, or seven sacred cities of Hinduism, it held immense religious significance and was a center for astronomical studies due to its location on the ancient prime meridian.

34History
Upanishads were translated into Persian during the reign of
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Answer: (B) Shahjahan

Explanation

The Persian translation of the Upanishads was carried out by Prince Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, during the latter years of his father's reign. Completed in 1657, the work is titled Sirr-i-Akbar, which translates to The Great Secret. Dara Shikoh was a profound scholar of both Islamic Sufism and Hindu Vedanta who sought to find common ground between the two traditions. He brought together several pandits from Benares to assist in translating fifty Upanishads from Sanskrit into Persian. This monumental effort was motivated by his belief that the Upanishads represented the hidden book mentioned in the Quran. Since this project was completed while Shah Jahan held the throne, it is categorized as a significant cultural achievement of the Shah Jahan era.

35History
Who of the following Mughal Emperors was coronated twice?
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Answer: (D) Aurangzeb

Explanation

Aurangzeb celebrated his accession to the throne twice. The first informal coronation ceremony was performed on July 31, 1658, at the Shalimar Gardens near Delhi, immediately after his victory in the Battle of Samugarh and the subsequent house arrest of his father, Shah Jahan. Since the war of succession among the brothers was still in progress and his position was not entirely secure, this first ceremony was brief. Following his final victory over Dara Shikoh at the Battle of Deorai and the successful pursuit of his other rivals, Aurangzeb held a second, more elaborate and formal coronation on June 5, 1659. During this grand ceremony at the Red Fort in Delhi, he adopted the imperial title Abul Muzaffar Muhi-ud-Din Muhammad Aurangzeb Bahadur Alamgir and had the Khutba read in his name to formalize his reign.

36History
The earliest inscription on stone were in which language?
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Answer: (C) Prakit

Explanation

The earliest deciphered stone inscriptions in India are the edicts of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, dating back to the 3rd century BCE. These inscriptions were composed in Prakrit, as it was the common vernacular language spoken by the general population during that era. By using Prakrit, Ashoka ensured that his messages of Dhamma and social conduct reached a wide audience across the Indian subcontinent. Although these edicts were written in various scripts such as Brahmi and Kharosthi, the linguistic medium for the vast majority of these stone records remained Prakrit.

37History
Let no man ask a man's sect or caste. This statement has been given by
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Answer: (B) Ramananda

Explanation

Ramananda was a pioneering 14th-century Bhakti saint in North India who advocated for spiritual equality and challenged the rigid social hierarchies of his time. He shifted the focus of devotion from Sanskrit-based rituals to the common language of the people, making spirituality accessible to all. His core philosophy is summarized in his famous couplet, Jati panti puchai nahi koi, Hari ko bhaje so Hari ka hoi, which translates to Let no man ask a man's sect or caste; whoever worships God becomes God's own. By emphasizing that divine grace is independent of birth or social status, Ramananda opened the path of devotion to everyone, including women and individuals from lower castes.

38History
Who among the following leaders was the supporter of 'Swadeshi'?
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Answer: (C) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji played a pivotal role in mainstreaming the Swadeshi movement during his presidency of the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress in 1906. Under his leadership, the Congress formally adopted the four-fold program of Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and Swaraj. Naoroji’s endorsement was a strategic move that unified the Moderate and Extremist factions of the party, ensuring that the movement for indigenous goods and economic self-sufficiency gained nationwide momentum. By supporting Swadeshi, he aimed to promote Indian industries and challenge British economic dominance, a stance deeply rooted in his Drain of Wealth theory which exposed the systematic exploitation of Indian resources. His advocacy provided the movement with formal political legitimacy and a clear objective centered on economic and political self-determination.

39History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List-I: (A) Non-cooperation (B) Civil Disobedience Movement (C) Formation of Congress Ministries (D) Quit India Movement List-II: 1. 1942 2. 1937 3. 1930 4. 1920
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

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Non-cooperation Movement was formally launched in 1920 following the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress to protest against the Rowlatt Act and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Civil Disobedience Movement began in 1930 with Mahatma Gandhi's iconic Dandi March to defy the British salt laws, marking a significant phase of mass mobilization.

Formation of Congress Ministries took place in 1937 in several provinces after the Indian National Congress won a majority in the provincial elections held under the Government of India Act 1935.

Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 during World War II, where the Congress passed a resolution demanding an immediate British withdrawal from India and Gandhi gave the call of Do or Die.

40History
Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with which one of the following movements as a woman organiser of underground activity?
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Answer: (C) Quit India Movement

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Aruna Asaf Ali gained prominence during the Quit India Movement of 1942. After the British authorities arrested the top leadership of the Indian National Congress on August 9, 1942, she stepped forward to hoist the Indian National Flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay. To sustain the momentum of the movement while avoiding the police, she transitioned into a role as a key organizer of underground activities. She worked alongside other socialist leaders like Ram Manohar Lohia and Jayaprakash Narayan to coordinate resistance and edited the monthly journal Inquilab to disseminate revolutionary ideas and instructions to the public. Her refusal to surrender despite a government reward for her capture made her a legendary figure of the 1942 rebellion.

41History
Who of the following presided over the session of Indian National Congress when resolution of 'Poorna Swaraj' was passed?
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Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the historic Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1929. During this landmark session, the Congress passed the resolution for Poorna Swaraj, which translated to Complete Independence, declaring it as the primary goal of the Indian national movement instead of Dominion Status. Nehru's presidency marked a significant shift toward a more radical and youthful leadership within the party. On the midnight of December 31, 1929, Nehru hoisted the tricolor flag on the banks of the River Ravi, and the Congress subsequently designated January 26, 1930, to be celebrated as the first Independence Day across the country. This session also authorized the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

42History
Given below are four events connected with India's struggle for independence. Select their correct chronological order by using the codes given below the events: 1. Second Round Table Conference. 2. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress. 3. Execution of Bhagat Singh. 4. Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Codes:
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Answer: (C) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, marking a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin that led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement. This event was followed by the execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev on March 23, 1931, at the Lahore Jail. Shortly after the executions, the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress was convened from March 26 to March 31, 1931, under the presidency of Vallabhbhai Patel to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Later in the same year, the Second Round Table Conference was held in London from September 7 to December 1, 1931, which Mahatma Gandhi attended as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.

43History
Who of the following had presided over the annual session of Indian National Congress held at Lucknow in 1916?
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Answer: (D) A.C. Majumdar

Explanation

Ambica Charan Majumdar presided over the 31st annual session of the Indian National Congress held in Lucknow in 1916. This session was historic as it marked the reunification of the Moderate and Extremist wings of the Congress, which had been divided since the Surat Split of 1907. Under Majumdar's presidency, the Congress also reached a significant agreement with the Muslim League known as the Lucknow Pact, whereby both organizations agreed to work together for constitutional reforms and a common demand for self-rule. Majumdar was a veteran Bengali leader and lawyer who played a crucial role in managing these complex political negotiations.

44History
Who of the following had called Subhash Chandra Bose as 'Desh Nayak'?
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Answer: (C) Rabindra nath Tagore

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore conferred the title Desh Nayak, which translates to Leader of the Nation, on Subhash Chandra Bose in 1938. This honor was bestowed upon Bose during a ceremony held at Santiniketan following his election as the President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. Tagore recognized Bose's exceptional leadership qualities, his unwavering commitment to India's independence, and his ability to inspire the youth and the masses. Through this title, Tagore expressed his deep admiration for Bose's role in the national movement and his vision for a free India.

45History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (B) Government of India Act, 1919 (C) Government of India Act, 1935 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 List-II: 1. Mountbatten Plan 2. Simon Commission Report / Joint Select Committee Recommendations 3. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms 4. Morley-Minto Reforms
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is famously known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, named after the then Secretary of State John Morley and Viceroy Lord Minto, which introduced separate electorates. The Government of India Act of 1919 is known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, named after Secretary of State Edwin Montagu and Viceroy Lord Chelmsford, introducing the system of dyarchy in provinces. The Government of India Act of 1935 was drafted based on the recommendations of the Simon Commission Report and the subsequent deliberations of the Joint Select Committee following the Round Table Conferences. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was the formal legislative enactment of the Mountbatten Plan, also known as the June 3 Plan, which detailed the partition and the grant of independence to India and Pakistan.

46Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs about the subject and the respective list under the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Stock Exchange - Concurrent List

Explanation

Stock exchanges and futures markets are subjects of national importance that require uniform regulation across the country. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Stock Exchange is specifically mentioned in Entry 48 of the Union List (List I), giving the Parliament exclusive power to legislate on this matter. It is not part of the Concurrent List, which includes subjects where both the Union and the States can exercise legislative authority.

47Polity and Governance
'Right to Equality' finds a place in the Constitution under
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Answer: (B) Art.14

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The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14-18. Article 14 ("Equality before law") is the foundational article directly identified with this right. Art. 15 deals with prohibition of discrimination, Art. 16 with equality in public employment, Art. 13 deals with laws inconsistent with FRs. Art. 14 is the primary article for Right to Equality.

48Polity and Governance
The Union Parliament can also, legislate on a subject of State List. 1. to give effect to international agreement. 2. with the consent of the State concerned 3. during President's rule in the State. 4. in the national interest, when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to this effect by a 2/3rd majority. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Indian Constitution provides five specific conditions under which the Union Parliament can legislate on subjects mentioned in the State List, overriding the normal distribution of powers. Under Article 249, the Parliament can make laws on a state subject if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring it necessary in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states if their legislatures pass resolutions requesting such a law. Article 253 empowers Parliament to enact legislation on state subjects to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions. Additionally, when a state is under President's Rule as per Article 356, the Parliament is authorized by Article 357 to exercise the legislative powers of that state. Parliament also acquires similar powers during a National Emergency under Article 250.

49Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution and state which of them are correct with the help of given codes: 1. The objective resolution proposed by Pt. Nehru Ultimately became the Preamble. 2. It is not justiciable in nature. 3. It cannot be amended. 4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, and adopted on January 22, 1947. It is non-justiciable in nature, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in a court of law. While it serves as an interpretative tool to clarify the intent of the framers when language in the Constitution is ambiguous, it cannot override the express and specific provisions of the Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided the basic structure is not destroyed. This was demonstrated when the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the terms Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble.

50Polity and Governance
Centre-State relations in India are dependent upon 1. Constitutional provisions 2. Conventions and practices 3. Judicial interpretations 4. Mechanisms for dialogue Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) All the four

Explanation

Centre-State relations in India are governed by a complex interplay of legal and informal factors. Constitutional provisions under Parts XI and XII explicitly delineate the legislative, administrative, and financial powers between the Union and the States. Conventions and practices also play a vital role, such as the informal norms surrounding the appointment of Governors and the fiscal transfers once guided by the Planning Commission. Judicial interpretations have further refined these relations, with the Supreme Court acting as the arbiter of federal disputes and establishing landmark principles in cases like S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, which restricted the arbitrary imposition of President's Rule. Additionally, mechanisms for dialogue, including the Inter-State Council established under Article 263, the National Development Council, and Zonal Councils, provide essential institutional platforms for negotiation, coordination, and the resolution of conflicts, ensuring the functional reality of cooperative federalism.

51Polity and Governance
Consider following statements and state which of them is/are correct with the help of given codes: 1. The term Union of States has been used in the Constitution because Indian States have no right to recede. 2. The S.K. Dhar Commission preferred reorganization of States on administrative convenience rather than on linguistic basis. 3. The Congress Committee under Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitara mayya did not favour linguistic basis for reorganisation of States. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) All the three

Explanation

Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a Union of States. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clarified that this term was preferred over Federation of States to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, and consequently, no state has the right to secede or recede from the Union. The federation is an indestructible union of destructible states.

The S.K. Dhar Commission, also known as the Linguistic Provinces Commission appointed in 1948, recommended that the reorganization of states should be based on administrative convenience, geographical contiguity, and financial self-sufficiency rather than purely on a linguistic basis. This was intended to maintain national unity and administrative efficiency in the newly independent nation.

The JVP Committee, consisting of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, was formed in December 1948 to examine the Dhar Commission's report. In its report submitted in 1949, the committee formally rejected language as the basis for the reorganization of states, emphasizing that the primary consideration should be the security, unity, and economic prosperity of India during its formative years.

52Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Political parties are the life blood of democracy. Reason (R): People generally curse political parties for poor governance. In the context of the above; which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Political parties are considered the lifeblood of democracy because they perform essential functions such as articulating public interests, mobilizing voters, and providing a structured mechanism for the representation of diverse viewpoints in government. Without organized parties, a modern representative democracy would lack the necessary framework for legislative stability and electoral competition. Simultaneously, it is a common empirical observation that citizens often express deep dissatisfaction and frustration with these institutions, frequently blaming them for administrative failures, corruption, or socio-economic issues. While both statements reflect accurate aspects of the democratic experience—one focusing on the structural necessity of parties and the other on public perception of their performance—the fact that people criticize parties for poor governance does not explain why they are fundamentally vital to the democratic process. Therefore, both statements are independently true, but the reason does not provide a logical explanation for the assertion.

53Polity and Governance
The cardinal features of political system in India are 1. It is a democratic republic. 2. It has a Parliamentary form of Government. 3. The Supreme power vests in the people of India. 4. It provides for a unified authority. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) All the four

Explanation

The Indian political system is defined by its democratic republic nature, as stated in the Preamble, where the head of state is elected and governance is based on the will of the people. It follows a Parliamentary form of government, modeled on the Westminster system, where the executive is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The principle of popular sovereignty ensures that the supreme power vests in the people of India, which is exercised through their representatives chosen via universal adult suffrage. Furthermore, the Indian Constitution provides for a unified authority through features like a single integrated judiciary, single citizenship, and a centralized administrative structure that maintains the integrity and unity of the nation within a federal framework.

54Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of persons who occupied the office of the President of India right from beginning?
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Answer: (D) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishnan, Zakir Hussain, V.V. Giri.

Explanation

Dr. Rajendra Prasad assumed office as the first President of India on January 26, 1950, and served until 1962. He was succeeded by Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who served a five-year term from 1962 to 1967. Dr. Zakir Hussain followed as the third President in 1967, serving until his death in May 1969. V.V. Giri, who had been the Vice-President, served briefly as acting President before winning the presidential election and serving as the fourth President of India from 1969 to 1974.

55Polity and Governance
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted on 26th November 1949 did not include the terms: 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Integrity 4. Republic Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once since its adoption, which occurred through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This specific amendment inserted three new words into the Preamble: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. At the time of the Constitution's adoption on 26th November 1949, the Preamble described India as a Sovereign Democratic Republic. Therefore, the terms Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were not part of the original text adopted in 1949, whereas the term Republic was included from the very beginning.

56Polity and Governance
Arrange the following Indian States in a chronological order, according to their formation, and select the correct answer by using the codes given at the end. 1. Chattisgarh 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Jharkhand 4. Sikkim
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Answer: (B) 4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation

Sikkim became a full-fledged state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, following the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. Arunachal Pradesh attained statehood on February 20, 1987, through the State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986. During the major reorganization in the year 2000, Chhattisgarh was created on November 1, 2000, by carving out the southeastern districts of Madhya Pradesh. Jharkhand was subsequently formed on November 15, 2000, by bifurcating the southern part of Bihar. This sequence places Sikkim first (1975), followed by Arunachal Pradesh (1987), then Chhattisgarh (early November 2000), and finally Jharkhand (mid-November 2000).

57Polity and Governance
The Governor of a State can act independent of the advice of the Council of Ministers in 1. asking the Government to prove its majority in the Assembly. 2. dismissing a Chief Minister. 3. reserving a bill for the consideration of the President of India. 4. returning the bill passed by the legislature for reconsideration. 5. seeking the opinion of the High Court. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Article 163 of the Constitution stipulates that the Governor shall exercise his functions with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in so far as he is required by the Constitution to exercise his functions in his discretion. The Governor can independently ask the Government to prove its majority in the Assembly if he has bona fide reasons to believe that the Council of Ministers has lost the confidence of the House. He possesses the discretionary power to dismiss a Chief Minister when the Ministry has lost its majority and the Chief Minister refuses to resign. Under Article 200, the Governor acts in his discretion when he reserves a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President of India. Similarly, the power to return a non-money bill to the legislature for reconsideration is a discretionary power exercised by the Governor independent of ministerial advice. The Constitution does not vest the Governor with the power to seek the opinion of the High Court in a discretionary capacity comparable to the President's power under Article 143.

58Economy
Non-performing assets in commercial banks means
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Answer: (C) loans in which interest or principal amount is not recovered.

Explanation

Non-performing assets (NPAs) refer to loans or advances where the payment of interest or the principal amount remains overdue for a specific period, generally 90 days in the case of commercial banks. According to Reserve Bank of India guidelines, an asset becomes non-performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank. This occurs when a borrower fails to meet their debt obligations, leading to a default. NPAs are categorized into substandard, doubtful, and loss assets based on the duration of the default and the perceived weakness in the security or the probability of recovery. These assets negatively impact a bank's liquidity, profitability, and overall financial health as they necessitate provisioning and reduce the capital available for further lending.

59Economy
Base year for estimation of Gross Domestic Product at constant prices in India, at present, is
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Answer: (A) 1999-2000

Explanation

The Central Statistics Office (CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for the estimation of National Accounts in India. In January 2006, the CSO shifted the base year for calculating the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at constant prices from 1993-94 to 1999-2000. This change was implemented to better reflect structural changes occurring in the Indian economy and to incorporate more recent data sources, such as the 55th round of the National Sample Survey on consumer expenditure and employment. By using 1999-2000 as the reference period, the government aimed to provide a more accurate representation of the relative price structure and the contribution of various sectors to the total economic output. For an assessment conducted in 2009, this series remained the active benchmark for economic growth measurements.

60Science and Technology
Which one of the following parts of Mentha possesses maximum oil percentage?
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Answer: (C) Leaf

Explanation

The essential oil in Mentha species is primarily synthesized and stored in specialized secretory structures known as peltate glandular trichomes. These glands are most densely distributed on the leaf surfaces, which serve as the main organ for oil accumulation. While other aerial parts like the stem and calyx may contain small amounts of oil, the highest concentration and overall percentage of volatile oil are found in the leaves, making them the most economically significant part of the plant for extraction.

61Economy
Consider following statements: 1. A watershed development fund has been established with a total corpus of ₹ 200 crores. 2. the objective is to under take integrated watershed development in selected 100 districts. 3. Under the scheme 2/3rd of amount is given for grant based projects in the State. With the help of given codes, find which of the above statement(s) is/are correct.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Watershed Development Fund (WDF) was established within the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) during the 1999-2000 union budget. It was created with an initial total corpus of ₹ 200 crore, contributed equally by NABARD and the Ministry of Rural Development. The primary objective of the fund was to promote participatory watershed development by replicating the success of the Indo-German Watershed Development Program across India. To achieve this, the initiative specifically targeted the implementation of integrated watershed development projects in 100 identified priority districts. While the fund provides financial assistance through a combination of grants and loans, the standard operational guidelines for the WDF do not specify a universal 2/3rd grant ratio for projects in the states; instead, the funding structure varies based on project components such as capacity building, livelihood support, and physical implementation.

62Economy
Now, packaging has assumed importance because
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Answer: (D) it provides all the above.

Explanation

Modern packaging serves multiple critical functions in the marketing and logistics chain. It ensures the physical protection of the product from environmental factors, breakage, and contamination during transportation and storage. From a marketing perspective, packaging acts as a silent salesman by making products visually attractive to consumers, which is vital in self-service retail environments where first impressions influence buying decisions. Furthermore, packaging enhances the credibility of a product by providing essential information such as branding, quality certifications, ingredient lists, and manufacturer details, which help build consumer trust and verify standard compliance. The integration of these protective, aesthetic, and informational roles makes packaging an indispensable tool for product differentiation and consumer satisfaction.

63Economy
The Bank rate is the rate at which
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Answer: (C) the RBI gives credit to the commercial banks.

Explanation

Under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Bank Rate is defined as the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial paper eligible for purchase. It is the interest rate charged by the central bank for providing long-term loans and credit facilities to commercial banks. By adjusting this rate, the RBI regulates the cost of borrowing for banks, which influences the overall supply of money and credit in the economy. When the RBI increases the Bank Rate, borrowing becomes more expensive for commercial banks, leading to a contraction in credit, while a decrease in the rate encourages banks to borrow more and expand credit to the public.

64Economy
Balance of Payment includes
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world during a given period. It consists of the current account and the capital account. Visible trade refers to the export and import of physical goods or merchandise. Invisible trade includes the exchange of services such as tourism, transportation, and financial services, along with income and transfer payments. Debts fall under the capital account, which tracks the flow of capital and includes external borrowings, loans, and other financial liabilities. Because the BoP captures all international receipts and payments, it encompasses merchandise trade, service transactions, and the movement of financial debt obligations.

65Economy
The National Agriculture Innovation Project is being implemented by ICAR with credit assistance from World Bank. It has got how many components?
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Answer: (D) Four components

Explanation

The National Agriculture Innovation Project (NAIP) was launched by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in July 2006 with financial assistance from the World Bank. The project was designed with four distinct components to modernize the Indian National Agricultural Research System. Component 1 focused on ICAR as a catalyzing agent for management of change, strengthening its role in governance, policy, and knowledge management. Component 2 was dedicated to research on production-to-consumption systems, aiming to improve the efficiency and profitability of agricultural value chains. Component 3 prioritized research on sustainable livelihood security, specifically targeting the improvement of living standards in disadvantaged regions of India. Component 4 emphasized basic and strategic research in frontier areas of agricultural sciences to keep the country at the forefront of global agricultural innovation.

66Economy
SEZ Act was passed by the Parliament in the year
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Answer: (B) 2005

Explanation

The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in May 2005. It received the assent of the President of India on June 23, 2005. This legislation was enacted to provide a long-term and stable policy framework for the establishment, development, and management of Special Economic Zones in India. The primary objectives of the Act include the generation of additional economic activity, promotion of exports of goods and services, promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources, and the creation of employment opportunities. While the Act was passed in 2005, it came into force along with the SEZ Rules on February 10, 2006.

67Economy
Poverty level in India is established on the basis of
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Answer: (C) house-hold consumer expenditure.

Explanation

In India, the poverty level is established based on household consumer expenditure data collected through periodic large-scale sample surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). The Planning Commission, serving as the nodal agency for poverty estimation, used this data to define a poverty line based on the Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) required to purchase a subsistence basket of goods and services. This methodology, rooted in the recommendations of expert groups like the Alagh Committee and the Lakdawala Committee, originally linked expenditure levels to the ability to afford a minimum daily calorie intake. Consumption expenditure is preferred over income as a measure of poverty in India because it more accurately reflects the actual living standards and nutritional status of the population, particularly for those in the informal sector whose incomes are often seasonal or irregular and difficult to track precisely.

68Economy
The largest item of public expenditure in the Union Budget in recent years has been
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Answer: (B) Interest payments

Explanation

Interest payments represent the largest single expenditure item in the Union Budget due to the government's massive accumulated debt. These payments are a committed and non-discretionary liability under the revenue expenditure category, used to service both internal and external borrowings. In the fiscal period around 2009, interest payments accounted for approximately 18 to 20 percent of the total budgetary expenditure. This high allocation is a direct consequence of persistent fiscal deficits over previous decades, which necessitated continuous borrowing, thereby making debt servicing the most significant component of the government's annual outgo.

69Economy
Which of the following items of works are included in Bharat Nirman? Find your answer with the help of given codes. 1. Accelerated irrigation benefits programme. 2. Inter-linking of River projects. 3. Scheme for repair, renovation and restoration of water bodies. 4. Rehabilitation of displaced persons due to irrigation projects.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Bharat Nirman was launched by the Government of India in 2005 as a time-bound business plan for rural infrastructure. It focused on six specific components: Rural Housing, Irrigation, Drinking Water, Rural Roads, Electrification, and Rural Telephone Connectivity. The irrigation component aimed to create an additional irrigation potential of 10 million hectares by 2009.

To achieve this target, the program identified specific items of work including the Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) for completing ongoing major and medium irrigation projects, and the Scheme for Repair, Renovation, and Restoration (RRR) of water bodies to reclaim lost irrigation potential in traditional tanks and ponds. Furthermore, the inter-linking of river projects was considered a strategic part of the broader vision to enhance water availability for meeting these irrigation targets. While rehabilitation of displaced persons is a critical legal and social requirement for irrigation projects under the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, it was not defined as an item of work under the Bharat Nirman program itself.

70Economy
Planning was considered a prerequisite 1. for balanced socio-economic development. 2. for extending the benefits of development in an even manner. 3. for focussing on removal of regional disparities. 4. for maximizing the utilization of available resources. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) All the four

Explanation

Economic planning in India was adopted as a comprehensive strategy to achieve rapid and inclusive growth after independence. It was viewed as a necessary prerequisite for balanced socio-economic development by integrating social welfare goals with industrial and agricultural targets. The planning process aimed to extend the benefits of development across all strata of society to ensure equity and social justice, preventing the concentration of wealth. Additionally, the state used planning as a tool to address regional imbalances by directing strategic investments and incentives toward backward and underdeveloped areas, thereby focusing on the removal of regional disparities. Given India's limited capital and technical expertise at the time, central planning was also essential for the optimal and rational allocation of scarce physical, human, and financial resources to maximize their utilization for national priorities.

71Economy
Which one of the following is not a measure of reducing inequalities?
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Answer: (B) Liberalization of economy

Explanation

Liberalization involves the reduction of state control and the promotion of market forces to drive economic development. Its primary objective is to enhance productivity, efficiency, and global competitiveness through deregulation and privatization. While it aims to accelerate the overall economic growth rate, it is a market-oriented strategy rather than a redistributive one. In practice, liberalization often results in a growth pattern where the gains are disproportionately distributed toward the owners of capital and skilled professionals, frequently leading to an increase in economic disparities. Consequently, it is recognized as a tool for fostering growth and market efficiency rather than a direct mechanism designed to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

72Economy
India in recent past has succeeded in attracting large foreign investments in 1. Life Insurance Business 2. Banking Sector 3. Automobiles Sector 4. Film-making 5. Medical Tourism Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Following the economic liberalization initiated in 1991 and subsequent sectoral reforms, India specifically targeted core service and manufacturing industries to attract foreign capital. In the Life Insurance business, the IRDA Act of 1999 opened the sector to private players and allowed FDI up to 26 percent, leading to the formation of numerous joint ventures with global insurance leaders. The Banking sector witnessed significant growth after 2004 when the government increased the FDI limit in private sector banks to 74 percent, encouraging large capital infusions from foreign investors. The Automobile sector became one of the most successful areas for foreign investment after the government permitted 100 percent FDI through the automatic route in 2002. This policy enabled global manufacturers to establish large-scale production facilities in India, making it a global hub for automotive manufacturing and exports by 2009.

73Geography
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): The dividing line between village and town begins to be passed with the presence of traders and manufacturers. Reason (R): The traders and manufacturers wholly depend on village resources. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation

The transition from a rural to an urban settlement is primarily defined by the occupational structure of the inhabitants. A village is characterized by a population predominantly engaged in primary activities like agriculture. The dividing line into a town is crossed when a significant portion of the community shifts toward secondary and tertiary activities, such as manufacturing and trade. These functions require the specialized labor and exchange mechanisms that define urban centers. However, the assertion that traders and manufacturers depend wholly on village resources is factually incorrect. While towns often serve as market centers for rural produce, urban industries and commerce also rely on inter-city trade, imported raw materials, financial capital, and technological inputs that are independent of the local village economy.

74Economy
In October 2009, a decision has been taken to shift the wholesale Price Index base year from 1993-94 to
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Answer: (D) 2004-2005

Explanation

The revision of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) base year from 1993-94 to 2004-05 was initiated based on the recommendations of the Working Group chaired by Prof. Abhijit Sen. This shift was necessary to capture the structural changes in the Indian economy and to include new products that had gained significance in the market since the previous decade. The 2004-05 series expanded the commodity basket from 435 to 676 items and updated the weighting diagram for the three main categories: Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products. This update provided a more comprehensive and accurate measurement of inflation by reflecting contemporary production and consumption patterns.

75Economy
Which of the following statements about Sugar industry are correct? 1. In the world, India's share in sugar production is over 15 percent. 2. Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India. 3. India is the largest consumer of sugar. 4. India is the largest producer of sugar. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation

The sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India after the cotton textile industry, playing a vital role in the rural economy by providing employment to millions of farmers and industrial workers. It also contributes significantly to the energy sector through bagasse-based power co-generation and the production of ethanol. In the global context, India is the largest consumer of sugar, driven by its massive population and the high demand for sugar in traditional sweets, beverages, and the food processing sector. While India is a top-tier producer, its status as the leading consumer is a consistent feature of the global sugar market, often consuming nearly its entire domestic production.

76Economy
Consider following statements about Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana and state which one of them is incorrect?
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Answer: (C) Additional Central assistance under the scheme would be available as 80% grant to the States.

Explanation

Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in August 2007 as a 100 percent Central Grant-in-aid scheme. The program was designed to provide additional central assistance to states to incentivize them to increase their public investment in agriculture and allied sectors. During the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the funding mechanism required states to prepare District Agriculture Plans and State Agriculture Plans to access these funds, which were provided entirely by the Central Government. The provision of these funds as a 100 percent grant ensures that the statement regarding an 80 percent grant is factually incorrect.

77Economy
'Nitrogen use efficiency' in crop production may be enhanced by
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Nitrogen use efficiency is enhanced by management practices that reduce nutrient losses and synchronize nitrogen availability with crop demand. Split application involves dividing the total fertilizer requirement into multiple doses applied at critical growth stages, which prevents excess nitrogen accumulation in the soil that would otherwise be lost to leaching or denitrification. Nitrogen inhibitors, such as nitrification or urease inhibitors, slow down the biological conversion of nitrogen into more mobile or volatile forms, maintaining it in the root zone for a longer duration. Slow-release fertilizers use physical or chemical coatings to release nutrients gradually over time, ensuring a steady supply to the plants and minimizing the risk of environmental runoff or gaseous emissions. These techniques collectively maximize the proportion of applied nitrogen actually absorbed by the crop.

78Science and Technology
Research and development of farm tools and machinery are being carried out by Central Institute of Engineering which is located at
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Answer: (B) Bhopal

Explanation

The Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering (CIAE) is a premier research organization under the administrative control of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Established on February 15, 1976, the institute is dedicated to the development and promotion of agricultural engineering technologies. Its primary mandate involves the research and development of modern farm tools, machinery, and power systems designed to improve agricultural productivity and reduce the physical drudgery of farmers. The institute also focuses on post-harvest technology, renewable energy applications in farming, and the standardization of agricultural equipment to ensure efficiency and safety in Indian agriculture.

79Geography
About one-third of India's cattle population is found in three States. They are
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Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

According to the 18th Livestock Census of 2007, which provides the most relevant data for the 2009 period, India's total cattle population was approximately 199.1 million. The states with the highest cattle populations were Madhya Pradesh with 21.9 million, West Bengal with 19.1 million, and Uttar Pradesh with 19.1 million. The combined cattle population of these three states is 21.9 + 19.1 + 19.1 = 60.1 million. By calculating the ratio of this sum to the national total, we find that 60.1 / 199.1 ≈ 0.3018, or approximately 30.2 percent. This confirms that these three states account for nearly one-third of the country's total cattle population. These regions have historically maintained high livestock numbers due to their vast agricultural plains and the high demand for cattle in both dairy and traditional farming practices.

80Geography
Among the SAARC countries the most densely populated country is
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Answer: (A) Bangladesh

Explanation

Population density is calculated using the formula: Density = Population/Land Area As of 2009, Bangladesh had a population of approximately 146 million residing on a land area of about 130,170 square kilometers. Substituting these values: Density = 146,000,000/130,170 ≈ 1,121 persons per km² This concentration is the highest among SAARC nations, driven by the extremely fertile deltaic soil of the Ganges-Brahmaputra river system which allows for a very high population carrying capacity. The land area excluding inland water bodies is significantly smaller than the total territory, which further increases the density of human settlement on the available habitable land. This demographic pattern has consistently placed the country at the top of density rankings in the South Asian region.

81Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Most (B) State having (C) Most densely 3. Maharashtra populated State (D) Least density 4. Tamil Nadu populated State List-II: 1. Delhi Urbanised State 2. Arunchal largest urban Pradesh population
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Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

According to the Census 2001 data, which was the relevant data available up to 2009:

(A) Tamil Nadu was the most urbanized major state in India, with approximately 44 percent of its population residing in urban areas.

(B) Maharashtra had the largest absolute urban population in the country, with over 41 million urban dwellers.

(C) Delhi recorded the highest population density among all states and union territories, with 9,340 persons per square kilometer.

(D) Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in India, with only 13 persons per square kilometer.

82Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Union Territories in India has the sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) above 1000?
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Answer: (A) Puducherry

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Puducherry was the only Union Territory to record a sex ratio exceeding 1,000, specifically reporting 1,001 females per 1,000 males. This favorable demographic indicator is largely attributed to the region's high literacy rates and better social and healthcare infrastructure, which promote higher female survival rates. Puducherry's gender balance reflects the broader socio-cultural patterns of South India, where traditional norms and developmental priorities have historically resulted in more equitable sex ratios compared to the national average.

83Geography
The percentage of urban population in India according to Census 2001 is
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Answer: (D) 27.8

Explanation

The Census of India 2001 recorded the total population at 1,028,610,328 and the urban population at 286,119,689. The level of urbanization is calculated using the following formula:

Percentage of Urban Population = Urban Population/Total Population × 100

Substituting the recorded values:

Percentage = 286,119,689/1,028,610,328 × 100 ≈ 27.81%

This figure of 27.8 percent represents the proportion of the Indian population residing in urban areas as of the 2001 Census. It encompasses residents in all statutory places, such as municipal corporations, municipalities, and cantonment boards, as well as census towns. These census towns are specifically defined as areas with a minimum population of 5,000, at least 75 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, and a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer.

84Geography
Which of the following conditions determine an area as urban as given in the Census Report of 2001? 1. Its minimum population will have to be 5,000. 2. The minimum percentage of its working male population, engaged in non-agricultural work, will have to be 75. 3. The density of its population will have to be at least 400 persons for sq. km. 4. It will have to have a minimum area of 10 sq. km. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Census of India 2001 identifies urban areas using two distinct categories: Statutory Towns and Census Towns. Statutory Towns are places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, or notified town area committee. Census Towns are defined by satisfying three specific criteria simultaneously. First, the settlement must have a minimum population of 5,000. Second, at least 75 percent of the male main working population must be engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. Third, the density of population must be at least 400 persons per square kilometer. The criteria focus on population size, employment structure, and density to distinguish urban characteristics from rural ones, but they do not include a specific minimum land area requirement.

85Economy
Which one of the following years is known as the 'Year of the Great Divide' with regard to population, after which there has been a continuous and rapid growth in India's population?
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Answer: (B) 1921

Explanation

The census year 1921 is known as the Year of the Great Divide because it marks a crucial turning point in India's demographic history. Prior to 1921, India's population growth was irregular and stagnant, characterized by high birth rates balanced by high death rates due to frequent famines, plagues, and the 1918 influenza pandemic. Specifically, the decade 1911–1921 recorded a negative growth rate of approximately 0.03 percent. After 1921, improvements in food security and public health led to a steady decline in mortality rates while birth rates remained high, resulting in a continuous and rapid acceleration of population growth that has persisted in subsequent decades.

86Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about Radioactive pollution are correct? 1. It causes hereditary change in the animals. 2. It causes disbalance among different minerals in the soil. 3. It hinders blood circulation. 4. It causes carcinogenesis. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Radioactive pollution involves the release of ionizing radiation into the environment, which has significant biological and physiological impacts. Statement 1 is accurate because ionizing radiation can penetrate cells and damage DNA structures; if these mutations occur in reproductive cells, they result in hereditary changes that are transmitted to offspring. Statement 3 is correct as high-level radiation exposure causes damage to the hematopoietic system, particularly the bone marrow, and the endothelial lining of blood vessels. This leads to issues such as internal hemorrhaging and a reduction in blood cell counts, which directly hinders effective blood circulation. Statement 4 is correct because radiation is a well-established cause of carcinogenesis. It induces direct DNA strand breaks and the formation of reactive oxygen species, leading to cellular transformations that result in various types of cancer, such as leukemia and bone cancer.

87Geography
Among the following 4 cities (Principal Corporation) which one had the least population as per 2001 census.
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Answer: (D) Varanasi

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, the population of the Varanasi Municipal Corporation was recorded at approximately 1,103,952. Among the four major cities of Uttar Pradesh listed, Varanasi had the lowest population figure. For comparison during the same census period, Kanpur had a population of 2,551,337, Lucknow had 2,185,997, and Agra had 1,275,134. Therefore, Varanasi was the least populated principal corporation in this specific group.

88Geography
Which of the following conditions indicate the impact of global warming? 1. Melting of glaciers 2. Rise in sea level 3. Changes in weather conditions 4. Rise in global temperature Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) All the four

Explanation

Global warming refers to the long-term increase in Earth average surface temperature due to the greenhouse effect. This rise in global temperature is the primary driver that triggers a series of interconnected environmental changes. As temperatures climb, mountain glaciers and polar ice sheets experience accelerated melting. The resulting meltwater flows into the oceans, which, when coupled with the thermal expansion of seawater as it absorbs heat, causes a measurable rise in global sea levels. Additionally, the increased thermal energy in the atmosphere and oceans disrupts traditional climate patterns, leading to significant changes in weather conditions. these changes manifest as shifts in precipitation, increased frequency of extreme weather events, and alterations in seasonal cycles, making all four conditions definitive indicators of global warming impact.

89Geography
As per 2001 Census arrange the following States/Union Territories in descending order of population.
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Answer: (C) Puducherry - Chandigarh - Mizoram - Sikkim.

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Puducherry had a population of approximately 9,74,345, making it the most populous among the given entities. The Union Territory of Chandigarh followed with a population of about 9,00,635. Among the states, Mizoram recorded a population of 8,88,573, while Sikkim was the least populous with 5,40,851 inhabitants. This distribution establishes the descending order of population as Puducherry, Chandigarh, Mizoram, and Sikkim.

90Economy
Arrange the following States in the descending order of literacy as per Census Report of 2001 and select the correct answer from the codes given at the end: 1. Kerala 2. Manipur 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Himachal Pradesh
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Answer: (A) 1, 4, 3, 2

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, the literacy rates of the mentioned states demonstrate a clear hierarchy. Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate in the country at 90.86 percent. Himachal Pradesh followed with a literacy rate of 76.48 percent, reflecting significant progress in primary education in the hill state. Tamil Nadu registered a literacy rate of 73.45 percent, while Manipur recorded 70.53 percent. Arranging these states in descending order based on these specific percentages yields the sequence of Kerala (1), Himachal Pradesh (4), Tamil Nadu (3), and Manipur (2).

91Geography
About 30 percent of India's area lies in the three States of
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Explanation

India has a total geographical area of approximately 3,287,263 km². Rajasthan is the largest state, covering an area of 342,239 km², which accounts for roughly 10.41% of the country. Madhya Pradesh is the second-largest state with an area of 308,245 km², representing about 9.38%. Maharashtra follows as the third-largest state, occupying 307,713 km², or approximately 9.36%. The combined area of these three states is 958,197 km², which constitutes about 29.15% of India's total landmass, closely approximating the thirty percent threshold.

92GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In which State of India, Fulhar Lake is situated?
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Fulhar Lake, also known as Gomti Taal or Panguili Fulhar Lake, is located in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. It is a geographically significant wetland area as it serves as the primary source of the Gomti River. The river originates from this lake near Madhotanda and flows across the plains of Uttar Pradesh, passing through major cities like Lucknow and Sultanpur before eventually merging with the Ganga River.

93Geography
Tree cover is maximum in
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Answer: (A) East Deccan

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) data released by the Forest Survey of India in the period leading up to 2009, the East Deccan physiographic zone possessed the maximum tree cover in the country. In the ISFR 2003 and 2005 assessments, the East Deccan region—which encompasses parts of states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh—consistently recorded the highest area of tree cover. Tree cover is specifically defined as tree patches less than 1 hectare in size found outside the recorded forest areas, including scattered trees and those found in agro-forestry or urban settings. The geographical vastness and the prevalent land-use patterns in the East Deccan zone contribute to its leading position in this category compared to the plains or coastal regions.

94Geography
Which of the following rivers has the largest catchment area?
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Answer: (C) Godavari

Explanation

The Godavari is the largest river system in Peninsular India and the second largest in the country after the Ganga. Its catchment area, also known as the Godavari basin, extends over approximately 3,12,812 square kilometers, which represents nearly 9.5% of the total geographical area of India. The river originates in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its vast basin spreads across several states, including Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, with smaller portions in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Puducherry. Because of its massive drainage area and long course of 1,465 kilometers, it is often referred to as the Dakshina Ganga or Vridha Ganga.

95Geography
Which is the highest peak in Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
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Answer: (A) Saddle Peak

Explanation

Saddle Peak is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, reaching an elevation of approximately 732 meters above sea level. Located on North Andaman Island, it is surrounded by the Saddle Peak National Park. The peak consists of a twin-peak formation, which gives it its name, and it is the highest elevation in the entire archipelago, including both the Andaman and the Nicobar groups. Its slopes are covered with lush tropical evergreen forests, and it remains a significant geographical feature of the Bay of Bengal region.

96Geography
Which one of the following waterfalls in India has the most height?
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Answer: (D) Kunchikal Falls

Explanation

Kunchikal Falls is located in the Agumbe valley of the Shimoga district in Karnataka. It is formed by the Varahi River and reaches a total height of 455 meters (1,493 feet). It is classified as a tiered waterfall, consisting of several steps or cascades rather than a single vertical plunge. Due to its significant vertical drop, it is officially recognized as the highest waterfall in India. The falls are situated in the Western Ghats, an area known for high rainfall and dense tropical forests, which supports the flow of the Varahi River before it is diverted for hydroelectric power generation.

97Geography
The State having the highest rainfall by North East Monsoon is
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

The North East Monsoon, also known as the Winter Monsoon or the Retreating Monsoon, occurs between October and December. During this period, the winds blow from the north-east direction across the Bay of Bengal towards the Indian peninsula. These winds pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal and hit the Coromandel Coast, resulting in significant precipitation for the state of Tamil Nadu. While the rest of India receives the majority of its rainfall from the South West Monsoon, Tamil Nadu is uniquely positioned such that the Western Ghats create a rain-shadow area during the summer months, making the North East Monsoon its primary source of annual rainfall.

98Geography
Which one of the following places gets the least rainfall?
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Answer: (B) Leh

Explanation

Leh is located in the trans-Himalayan region of Ladakh and is characterized as a high-altitude cold desert. Its extreme aridity is due to its position in the rain shadow area of the Great Himalayan and Zanskar ranges. These massive mountain systems act as physical barriers that block moisture-laden monsoon winds from the south, causing the winds to lose their moisture on the windward slopes before reaching the plateau. Consequently, Leh receives an extremely low average annual precipitation of approximately 10 cm. This unique geographical setup prevents significant rainfall throughout the year.

99Art and Culture
Which of the following tribes of India practise polyandry? 1. Goods 2. Nagas 3. Jaunsaris 4. Todas Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

The Jaunsari tribe, located in the Jaunsar-Bawar region of Uttarakhand, is well-known for the tradition of fraternal polyandry. In this social structure, a group of brothers marries a single woman, a custom the community historically associates with the heritage of the Pandavas from the Mahabharata.

The Toda people, a pastoral community residing in the Nilgiri plateau of Tamil Nadu, also traditionally practice polyandry. In their culture, fraternal polyandry was the standard form of marriage, where a woman became the wife of all brothers in a family simultaneously. This practice was historically linked to their unique socio-economic conditions and served to keep ancestral property and livestock within a single family unit. Both tribes represent distinct geographical and cultural instances of this marital system within India.

100Geography
The largest tribal group of India is
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Answer: (A) Bhils

Explanation

The Bhils are recognized as the largest tribal group in India based on the 2001 Census data, which was the relevant statistical source for examinations in 2009. They have a massive population presence primarily across the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh. Known historically as expert archers, the term Bhil is derived from the Dravidian word billu, meaning bow. Their widespread demographic distribution in the western and central regions of India accounts for their status as the most populous Scheduled Tribe in the country.

101Geography
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Natural vegetation is the true index of climate. Reason (R): Water- loving plants are found in moist climate. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The principle that natural vegetation is the true index of climate is a cornerstone of biogeography and climatology, most famously applied in the Köppen climate classification system. Vegetation acts as a cumulative indicator of environmental conditions because plant species are sensitive to variations in temperature, sunlight, and moisture over long periods. Since water-loving plants, or hygrophytes, require high humidity and consistent rainfall to survive, their presence in a region serves as biological evidence of a moist climate. This direct relationship between plant physiology and climatic variables confirms that observing the distribution and type of natural vegetation allows for the accurate identification and mapping of different climatic zones.

102Geography
On which one of the following rivers is located Indo- Pak Bagalihar Project?
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Answer: (D) Chenab

Explanation

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is a major run-of-the-river power station constructed on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir. The project was developed by the Jammu and Kashmir State Power Development Corporation and consists of two stages, each designed to generate 450 MW of electricity. Stage I of the project was completed and dedicated to the nation in October 2008. Under the terms of the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty, the Chenab is classified as one of the three Western Rivers, which gives Pakistan rights over its waters, while India is permitted to use the water for limited domestic, agricultural, and non-consumptive purposes such as run-of-the-river power generation. The project's design was scrutinized by a World Bank-appointed neutral expert following objections from Pakistan, and the final determination allowed India to proceed with the construction after making certain technical adjustments to the pondage and intake levels.

103Geography
Which of the following are cold ocean currents 1. Humboldt current 2. Brazil current 3. Oyashio 4. Canary current Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

Cold ocean currents originate in high-latitude regions and transport cooler waters toward the equator. The Oyashio current, also known as the Kurile current, is a subarctic cold current in the North Pacific that flows southward along the coasts of the Kamchatka Peninsula and Japan. The Canary current is a cold current in the North Atlantic that flows south along the western coast of Africa, bringing cooler water from higher latitudes toward the subtropical regions. The Humboldt current, or Peru current, is a major cold current that flows north along the western coast of South America from the Southern Ocean. Because these currents carry water from the polar or subpolar regions toward the tropics, they are classified as cold currents, influencing the climate and productivity of the coastal areas they pass.

104Science and Technology
Which one of the following countries is credited with the establishment of Uranium city ?
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Answer: (B) Canada

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Uranium City is a settlement located in the northern part of the province of Saskatchewan, Canada, on the northern shore of Lake Athabasca. It was established in 1952 by the provincial government to serve as a centralized community and service hub for the workers of the numerous uranium mines operating in the Beaverlodge Lake area. The development of the city was a direct response to the intensive exploration and mining activities led by Eldorado Mining and Refining Limited during the early Cold War era. At its peak, the city was a thriving mining center, reflecting Canada's role as a major global producer of uranium.

105Geography
The World's most active Volcano is
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Answer: (C) Kilaueu

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Kilauea, situated on the southeastern part of the Big Island of Hawaii, is a basaltic shield volcano known for its exceptionally high frequency of eruptions. As of 2009, Kilauea was in the midst of an eruptive cycle that began on January 3, 1983, marking one of the longest-lived and most persistent eruptions in recorded history. This activity occurred primarily along the volcano's East Rift Zone at the Puu Oo vent. The volcano is part of the Hawaiian-Emperor seamount chain, formed by the movement of the Pacific Plate over a stationary hotspot in the Earth's mantle. Because of its nearly constant discharge of lava and the minimal intervals of repose between its active phases, geological organizations like the United States Geological Survey classified it as the most active volcano on Earth during this period. Its activity is primarily effusive, characterized by the steady flow of fluid basaltic lava rather than infrequent, massive explosions.

106Geography
Which of the following countries are landlocked countries? 1. Afghanistan 2. Hungary 3. Malaysia 4. Switzerland Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4

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Afghanistan is a landlocked country located at the crossroads of Central and South Asia, bordered by Pakistan, Iran, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, and China. Hungary is a landlocked nation in Central Europe, entirely surrounded by Austria, Slovakia, Ukraine, Romania, Serbia, Croatia, and Slovenia. Switzerland is also landlocked, situated in the Alps of Central Europe and bordered by Germany, France, Italy, Austria, and Liechtenstein. These three countries do not have direct access to an ocean or a sea connected to an ocean. Conversely, Malaysia is a Southeast Asian country with extensive coastlines along the South China Sea, the Andaman Sea, and the Strait of Malacca, consisting of two main regions separated by the sea.

107Geography
Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?
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Answer: (A) East Australian current

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The East Australian Current is a warm ocean current that originates in the tropical Coral Sea and flows southward along the eastern coast of Australia. As a western boundary current of the South Pacific subtropical gyre, it transports warm, tropical water from the lower latitudes near the equator toward the higher, cooler latitudes of the Tasman Sea. This poleward movement of water from the tropics identifies it as a warm current, which significantly influences the regional climate by increasing air temperatures and moisture levels along the eastern Australian coastline.

108Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Country): (A) Eskimos (B) Masais (C) Bedouins (D) Bushman List-II (Tribe): 1. Botswana 2. Saudi Arabia 3. Canada 4. Kenya
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

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The Eskimos, primarily comprising the Inuit and Yupik peoples, are indigenous inhabitants of the circumpolar Arctic regions, including the northern territories of Canada, Alaska, and Greenland. The Masai are a Nilotic ethnic group known for their distinctive customs and dress, residing mainly in the Great Rift Valley of southern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The Bedouins are nomadic Arab tribes who have historically inhabited the desert regions of the Arabian Peninsula, including Saudi Arabia, as well as North Africa and the Levant. The Bushmen, also known as the San people, are indigenous hunter-gatherer groups of Southern Africa, with their largest populations located in the Kalahari Desert regions of Botswana and Namibia.

109Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Book): (A) Main ek Harfanmaula (B) Jhopri Se Rashtrpati Bhawan Tak (C) The Idea of Justice (D) Slumdog Millionaire List-II (Author): 1. Vikas Swarup 2. Amartya Sen 3. A.K. Hangal 4. Mahendra Kulshreshtha 5. Mahmud
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1

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Main ek Harfanmaula is the autobiography of the veteran Indian character actor A.K. Hangal. Jhopri Se Rashtrpati Bhawan Tak is a biographical book authored by Mahendra Kulshreshtha concerning President K.R. Narayanan. The Idea of Justice is a seminal work in political philosophy by Amartya Sen published in 2009. Slumdog Millionaire is the popular title of the novel Q and A written by Indian author Vikas Swarup.

110Polity and Governance
Among the World's 100 most powerful women those included from India in Forbes Power List recently (2009) are: 1. Sonia Gandhi 2. Shabana Azmi 3. Pratibha Paul 4. Chanda Kochchar 5. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 4 and 5

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In the 2009 Forbes list of the World's 100 Most Powerful Women, three prominent Indian figures based in India were included. Sonia Gandhi, the President of the Indian National Congress, was ranked at the 13th position due to her significant political influence. Chanda Kochhar, the Managing Director and CEO of ICICI Bank, entered the list at the 20th position following her elevation to the top post of India's largest private sector bank. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, the Chairman and Managing Director of the biotechnology major Biocon, was ranked 91st. Indra Nooyi, the CEO of PepsiCo, was also featured at the 3rd rank, though she is typically categorized as Indian-American. The inclusion of these leaders highlighted India's growing presence in the global political and corporate landscape during that period.

111Science and Technology
A country has become the first country in Asia by sending its SELENI (Selenological and Engineering Explorer) probe in the orbit of Moon. The country to win this laurel is
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Answer: (A) Japan

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The Selenological and Engineering Explorer (SELENE), better known by its nickname Kaguya, was a lunar orbiter mission launched by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). It was launched on September 14, 2007, and successfully entered lunar orbit on October 3, 2007. The mission's primary objectives included collecting scientific data on the origin and evolution of the Moon while developing technology for future lunar exploration. SELENE was the most significant lunar mission since the Apollo program at the time of its launch, carrying high-definition cameras that captured iconic Earth-rise images from lunar orbit. By achieving orbital insertion in early October 2007, Japan established itself as the first Asian nation to successfully operate such a sophisticated selenological probe in orbit around the Moon.

112Science and Technology
The Committees set up by GOI have identified 5 new sites for Nuclear Parks. Of these five, which site has been allotted to AREVA of France?
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Answer: (C) Jaitapur

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Jaitapur, located in the Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra, was officially designated by the Government of India as the site for a massive nuclear power park to be developed in collaboration with the French nuclear energy major AREVA. This decision followed the 2008 civil nuclear cooperation agreement between India and France. The project was planned to utilize AREVA's third-generation Evolutionary Pressurized Reactor (EPR) technology, with an intended setup of six units of 1,650 MW each. This allocation was part of India's broader strategy to expand its nuclear energy capacity through international partnerships after receiving a waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group.

113History
U.S.A. and Indian forces carried out a joint Yudha Abhyas in October 2009. In which State of India it was carried out?
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Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh

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Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2009, the sixth edition of the joint India-USA military training exercise, was held in October 2009 at Babina Cantonment in Jhansi district, Uttar Pradesh. It was notable for being the first mechanised edition of the exercise, featuring US Stryker armoured combat vehicles alongside Indian Army formations. The Yudh Abhyas series (meaning "War Practice") focuses on counter-insurgency operations, humanitarian assistance, and building interoperability between the two armies under a UN peacekeeping scenario.

114Polity and Governance
The first High/Supreme Court Judge, who voluntarily made public his assets, is
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Answer: (C) Justice K. Kannan

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Justice K. Kannan, while serving as a judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, became the first judge in the Indian higher judiciary to voluntarily disclose his personal assets to the public in 2009. This action was taken during a significant national debate regarding judicial transparency and the accountability of the bench. By proactively posting the details of his assets and liabilities on the High Court's official website, he set a major precedent for transparency in the judiciary before a formal consensus was reached by the Supreme Court and other High Courts to make such declarations a standard practice.

115Geography
A ship caught in August 2009 in the eastern territorial waters of India, plying without persuasion, belonged to
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Answer: (B) North Korea

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In August 2009, the Indian Coast Guard and Navy intercepted a North Korean cargo vessel named MV Mu San in the territorial waters off the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The ship had entered the eastern territorial waters of India without prior authorization and ignored repeated radio instructions to stop for inspection, leading to a chase that ended near Hut Bay. Because the vessel was plying suspiciously and without permission, it was detained under the Maritime Zones of India Act and searched by security agencies to check for any violations of UN Security Council sanctions related to North Korea's nuclear and missile programs.

116Polity and Governance
The recently appointed Chief of the Nepal Army (August September 2009) belongs to the
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Answer: (C) Indigenous tribes

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General Chhatra Man Singh Gurung was appointed as the Chief of Army Staff of the Nepal Army in September 2009, succeeding General Rookmangud Katawal. His appointment was a landmark event in Nepalese history as he became the first person from the Janajati communities to lead the national military. General Gurung belongs to the Gurung ethnic group, which is one of the major indigenous tribes of Nepal. This appointment marked a significant departure from the historical dominance of the traditional ruling elite and high-caste groups in the top echelons of the army leadership, reflecting the socio-political changes occurring in Nepal during its transition to a republic.

117Geography
Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct?
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Answer: (D) L'Aquila is a place in Italy.

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L'Aquila is a historic city and the administrative capital of the Abruzzo region in central Italy, situated in the Aterno River valley and surrounded by the Apennine Mountains. It became the focus of global attention in 2009 after it was struck by a devastating 6.3 magnitude earthquake in April, which caused significant loss of life and damaged many of its medieval structures. Due to its prominence that year, the Italian government chose L'Aquila as the venue for the 35th G8 summit in July 2009, relocating the event from La Maddalena to show solidarity with the earthquake victims and to oversee international aid and reconstruction efforts in the region.

118Economy
If 3/16 of a tank is filled in 15 minutes, the rest of the tank will be filled in
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Answer: (B) 65 minutes

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Let the total capacity of the tank be 1 unit. It is given that 3/16 of the tank is filled in 15 minutes. This implies that filling 1/16 of the tank takes 15 ÷ 3 = 5 minutes. The portion of the tank remaining to be filled is 1 - 3/16 = 13/16. Using the time calculated for a single unit of the fraction, the time required to fill the rest of the tank is 13 × 5 = 65 minutes.

119Economy
There are certain number of benches in a Class room. If four students sit on each bench then three benches remain unoccupied. If, however, three students sit on each bench then three students remain standing in the class. The number of students in the class is
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Answer: (B) 48

Explanation

Let x be the total number of benches in the classroom. According to the first condition, if four students sit on each bench and three benches remain empty, the total number of students is 4(x - 3). According to the second condition, if three students sit on each bench and three students remain standing, the total number of students is 3x + 3.

By equating the two expressions for the total number of students, we get: 4(x - 3) = 3x + 3 4x - 12 = 3x + 3 x = 15

Substituting the value of x back into the second expression to find the number of students: 3(15) + 3 = 45 + 3 = 48

120Economy
The value of (2/3 × 5/6) + (4/9) - (3/4) + (2/9 × 5/9) + (2/9) will be
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Answer: (D) 29/36

Explanation

To solve the expression, we follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction).

First, calculate the product within the first set of parentheses: 2/3 × 5/6 = 10/18 = 5/9

Next, we simplify the addition and subtraction of the terms. For competitive exams, terms with common denominators are grouped first to simplify the calculation: 5/9 + 4/9 - 3/4 + 5/9

Combine the fractions that have a denominator of 9: 5/9 + 4/9 + 5/9 = 14/9

The expression is now reduced to: 14/9 - 3/4

To subtract these fractions, find the least common multiple (LCM) of the denominators 9 and 4, which is 36. Convert each fraction to have this common denominator: (14 × 4)/36 - (3 × 9)/36 = 56/36 - 27/36

Finally, subtract the numerators: (56 - 27)/36 = 29/36

121Science and Technology
The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of three parallel lines will be
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Answer: (D) 18

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To form a parallelogram, two lines must be chosen from the first set of parallel lines and two lines must be chosen from the second set of intersecting parallel lines. The number of ways to select r items from a set of n items is given by the combination formula ⁿCᵣ = n!/(r!(n-r)!).

For a set of m parallel lines intersecting another set of n parallel lines, the total number of parallelograms is calculated using the formula ᵐC₂ × ⁿC₂.

In this case, the first set has m = 4 lines and the second set has n = 3 lines. The number of ways to choose 2 lines from the first set is ⁴C₂ = (4 × 3)/(2 × 1) = 6. The number of ways to choose 2 lines from the second set is ³C₂ = (3 × 2)/(2 × 1) = 3.

By multiplying these combinations, the total number of parallelograms formed is 6 × 3 = 18.

122Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Sports Terms): (A) Bull's Eye (B) Caddy (C) Deuce (D) Googly List-II (Sports): 1. Cricket 2. Tennis 3. Shooting 4. Golf
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1

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Bull's eye refers to the centermost point of a target in shooting, and hitting it typically yields the maximum score. In golf, a caddy is an assistant who carries the player's clubs and provides strategic advice on the course. Deuce is a specific scoring situation in tennis that occurs when both players reach a score of 40-40 in a single game, requiring one player to gain a two-point advantage to win. A googly is a deceptive delivery in cricket, specifically bowled by a leg-spin bowler, where the ball spins toward the batsman instead of away from them.

123Art and Culture
Who of the following received Lachchu Maharaj Award for Kathak Dance at its ceremony in September, 2009?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

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The Lachchu Maharaj Award is a prestigious honor bestowed by the Lachchu Maharaj Kathak Kendra, Lucknow, to recognize brilliance in the field of Kathak dance. At the award ceremony held in September 2009, the honors were conferred upon Kumudini Lakhia, Pandit Birju Maharaj, and Saswati Sen. Kumudini Lakhia is a celebrated dancer and choreographer known for her innovative work and for establishing the Kadamb School of Dance. Pandit Birju Maharaj, the leading exponent of the Lucknow Kalka-Bindadin gharana, and his senior disciple Saswati Sen were honored for their immense contributions to performing, choreographing, and teaching the classical dance form. These artists were selected for their exceptional artistry and long-standing dedication to the global promotion of Indian classical heritage.

124History
In the first week of October 2009, I.C.C. announced its World ODI team of the year. Who among the following Indians is not included in the team?
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Answer: (C) Sachin Tendulkar

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The ICC World ODI Team of the Year 2009 was announced during the ICC Awards ceremony held in Johannesburg on October 1, 2009. The selection panel, headed by Clive Lloyd, chose a twelve-member squad based on performances between August 24, 2008, and August 24, 2009. While three Indian cricketers were included in the XI—Virender Sehwag, Yuvraj Singh, and M.S. Dhoni—Sachin Tendulkar was excluded from the final selection. The opening positions in the team were awarded to Virender Sehwag and Chris Gayle, while the middle-order slots went to Kevin Pietersen, Yuvraj Singh, and Shivnarine Chanderpaul, leaving no vacancy for Tendulkar in the designated lineup for that year.

125Art and Culture
The winner of Ranji Trophy Cricket Championship held in January 2009, was
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Answer: (B) Mumbai

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The 2008-09 Ranji Trophy final was held from January 12 to January 16, 2009, at the Rajiv Gandhi International Stadium in Hyderabad. Mumbai won the championship by defeating Uttar Pradesh by 243 runs. This victory marked Mumbai's 38th title in the history of the tournament. Under the captaincy of Wasim Jaffer, Mumbai posted a total of 402 in the first innings, aided by a century from Vinayak Samant and a 99 from Abhishek Nayar. In the second innings, Rohit Sharma scored a century to help set a daunting target. Mumbai's bowling attack, featuring Dhawal Kulkarni and Abhishek Nayar, successfully dismissed the Uttar Pradesh lineup to secure the win.

126Science and Technology
In IPL 2009 the two players who did hat trick , were
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Answer: (C) R. Sharma and Yuvraj Singh

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In the 2009 Indian Premier League season held in South Africa, a total of three hat-tricks were taken by two different players. Yuvraj Singh, representing Kings XI Punjab, achieved the remarkable feat of taking two hat-tricks in a single tournament edition. His first hat-trick was against Royal Challengers Bangalore at Durban, where he dismissed Robin Uthappa, Jacques Kallis, and Mark Boucher. His second occurred against Deccan Chargers at Johannesburg. Rohit Sharma, playing for Deccan Chargers, claimed the third hat-trick of the 2009 season against Mumbai Indians at Centurion, where he dismissed Abhishek Nayar, Harbhajan Singh, and JP Duminy. Together, these two cricketers were the only individuals to register hat-tricks during the second season of the IPL.

127Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an award given on the National Awards Day?
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Answer: (D) Vishwamitra Award

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The Vishwamitra Award is a state-level sports honor presented by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to coaches who have demonstrated excellence in training athletes. It is not a national award conferred by the Government of India. On National Sports Day, which is celebrated on August 29 to mark the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand, the President of India presents national-level honors including the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, Arjuna Award, Dhyan Chand Award, and Dronacharya Award at Rashtrapati Bhavan. As a state-specific recognition, the Vishwamitra Award is not included in this national ceremony.

128Science and Technology
Who amongst the following became the only sports person to have been awarded all the three major sports awards viz. Dronacharya Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and Arjuna Award?
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Answer: (D) Pullela Gopichand

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Pullela Gopichand is a distinguished figure in Indian badminton who achieved the rare feat of receiving the nation's three primary sports honours. He was first recognized with the Arjuna Award in 1999 for his excellence as a player. In 2001, following his historic triumph at the All England Open Badminton Championships, he was conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, which is India's highest sporting honour. After retiring from active play, he transitioned into coaching and founded a world-class academy that produced several Olympic medalists. For his exceptional contribution as a coach, he was awarded the Dronacharya Award in 2009. This sequence of awards established him as the first individual in the history of Indian sports to be decorated with all three of these prestigious accolades.

129Geography
Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for outstanding contribution to
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Answer: (B) Neat technology and development.

Explanation

The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award for Clean Technology was instituted by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India, to recognize industrial units that have made significant contributions toward the development or adoption of cleaner production processes. These processes, often referred to as neat or clean technologies, focus on reducing environmental impact by improving resource efficiency, minimizing waste generation at the source, and preventing pollution rather than treating it at the end of the industrial cycle. The award encourages industries to innovate and implement sustainable practices that integrate environmental protection into industrial growth and development.

130Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I: (A) Jhansi (B) Machhali Shahar (C) Tundla (D) Saifai List-II (Local Govt. Unit): 1. Nagar Palika Parishad 2. Kshetra Shahar Samiti 3. Nagar Panchayat 4. Nagar Nigam
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

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Jhansi is a major urban center and divisional headquarters in Uttar Pradesh, categorized as a Nagar Nigam (Municipal Corporation). Machhali Shahar, located in the Jaunpur district, is a smaller urban settlement classified as a Nagar Panchayat, which is the local body for areas in transition from rural to urban. Tundla, a significant railway hub in the Firozabad district, was identified in the administrative classifications of that era as a Kshetra Shahar Samiti. Saifai, situated in the Etawah district, was designated as a Nagar Palika Parishad (Municipal Council) during the early 2000s to facilitate its rapid infrastructure and institutional development. The matching sequence is (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, and (D)-1.

131Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Mayor of a city in Uttar Pradesh. 1. is first citizen of the city. 2. is ex-officio member of the Municipal Corporation. 3. is ex-officio Chairman of the Executive Committee. 4. exercises full control over the executive machinery. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. Codes:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Under the Uttar Pradesh Municipal Corporation Act, 1959, the Mayor is designated as the first citizen of the city, representing the municipal body in all ceremonial and formal capacities. The Mayor is an ex-officio member of the Municipal Corporation (Nagar Nigam) and presides over its general house meetings. Furthermore, the Mayor acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Executive Committee (Karyapalika Samiti), which oversees the administrative and financial functions of the corporation. While the Mayor holds these significant deliberative and presiding roles, the actual executive authority and control over the municipal machinery are vested in the Municipal Commissioner, who is a government appointee, ensuring a separation between the deliberative and executive wings of the local government.

132Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Identify the University in the Private Sector which does not match with the place shown against it.
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Answer: (A) Maharshi - Lucknow Information Technology University

Explanation

Maharishi University of Information Technology (MUIT) was established under the Maharishi University of Information Technology Act, 2001 (Uttar Pradesh Act No. 31 of 2001). While the university maintains a presence in Lucknow, its primary and most recognized campus for its Information Technology programs, particularly in the context of Uttar Pradesh private universities at the time, was located in Noida (Gautam Buddha Nagar). Consequently, pairing the university with Lucknow is considered a mismatch in the context of its primary functional location and official identification within the state's educational framework.

133EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
UPSIDC has established Industrial Parks for specific industries. Identify the Park whose location is not correctly shown:
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Answer: (B) Apparel Park - Noida

Explanation

The Apparel Park established by the Uttar Pradesh State Industrial Development Corporation (UPSIDC) is located in Tronica City, Ghaziabad, not in Noida. Tronica City was developed as a specialized integrated industrial township to promote the garment and apparel industry by providing dedicated infrastructure and common facilities for textile units. Although Noida is a major hub for various industries including garments, the specific institutional project titled Apparel Park was planned and executed in the Ghaziabad district to leverage its proximity to Delhi while developing new industrial corridors.

134GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Identify the district in U.P. which has not been selected for Sodic Land Reclamation Project-II funded by World Bank.
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Answer: (B) Aligarh

Explanation

The Uttar Pradesh Sodic Land Reclamation Project-II (UPSLRP-II) was a World Bank-funded initiative implemented between 1999 and 2009 with the goal of reclaiming degraded sodic lands and increasing agricultural productivity. The project focused on districts in the central and eastern regions of the state where sodicity was most prevalent. The specific districts selected for this phase included Allahabad, Rae Bareilly, Sitapur, Hardoi, Sultanpur, Pratapgarh, Jaunpur, and Unnao. Aligarh, located in the western region of Uttar Pradesh, was not included in the list of districts selected for the second phase of this reclamation project.

135Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Kanya Vidya-Dhan Yojna proposed to give ₹ 20,000 to a girl student for pursuing further studies after passing class:
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Answer: (D) XII

Explanation

The Kanya Vidya Dhan Yojana was a welfare initiative launched by the Uttar Pradesh government to promote higher education among girls from economically weaker sections. Under the provisions of the scheme applicable during that period, a one-time financial assistance of ₹ 20,000 was provided to meritorious girl students who had successfully cleared their Class XII (Intermediate) examinations. To be eligible, the student’s family typically needed to fall under the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category. The grant was intended to cover the costs associated with university admission, books, and other expenses required for pursuing a degree or professional course after secondary school. By targeting girls at the completion of their XII standard, the scheme aimed to bridge the gender gap in higher education and prevent dropouts due to financial constraints.

136Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Identify the district which does not have an Animal Polyclinic?
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Answer: (B) Jhansi

Explanation

Jhansi did not have a functional Animal Polyclinic as of 2009 because the Uttar Pradesh Department of Animal Husbandry had initially prioritized other regional centers for these referral-level veterinary facilities. These polyclinics were designed to offer specialized diagnostic and surgical services that were unavailable at standard veterinary hospitals. The expansion of such advanced infrastructure to the Bundelkhand region, including Jhansi, was part of subsequent development phases of the state animal healthcare network.

137Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
In U.P., the famous pilgrim centre of both Jain and Bauddha Dharma is
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Answer: (C) Kausambi

Explanation

Kausambi, the ancient capital of the Vatsa Mahajanapada, is a prominent religious destination in Uttar Pradesh for both Buddhism and Jainism. In Buddhist history, it is significant as a place where Lord Buddha frequently stayed and preached, notably at the Ghositarama monastery which was established by the merchant Ghosita. For the Jain community, the site is exceptionally holy because it is the birthplace of Padmaprabha, the sixth Tirthankara. The proximity of the Prabhosa hill, a major Jain pilgrimage site dedicated to Padmaprabha, further cements Kausambi's status as a rare shared sacred center for both faiths.

138Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): 'Shiksha-Mitra Yojna' provides opportunity to rural youth to serve their own villages by providing education. Reason (R): Its objective is to maintain teacher taught radio as preforms. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation

The Shiksha-Mitra Yojana was launched in Uttar Pradesh in 2000-01 with the primary objective of universalizing primary education through community involvement. The scheme specifically recruited local rural youth who were residents of the same village where the school was located, thereby providing them an opportunity to serve their own village and earn a livelihood. This aligns with the assertion that the program empowers rural youth through local educational service. The reason provided is false because the scheme's objectives were centered on decentralized management and addressing teacher shortages rather than maintaining any parameter described as teacher-taught radio. Even if the term was intended to mean pupil-teacher ratio, the primary legal and operational objective of the scheme was community-based educational support and local participation.

139Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Find which folk music does not match with the place.
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Answer: (B) Birha - Kanpur

Explanation

Birha is a traditional folk music genre belonging to the Bhojpuri-speaking region of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, commonly known as Purvanchal, and parts of Western Bihar. It is primarily an oral tradition performed by the Ahir or Yadav community, often narrating stories of separation, valor, or socio-religious themes. Kanpur is located in the central part of Uttar Pradesh and does not fall within the cultural or linguistic heartland of Birha.

140GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In U.P. the Kharif crop is sown during
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Answer: (C) June - July

Explanation

The Kharif cropping season in Uttar Pradesh begins with the onset of the South-West monsoon. Since these crops require high temperatures and plenty of water for growth, they are typically sown between June and July. This timing ensures that the young plants receive sufficient rainfall during the peak monsoon months of July and August. Major Kharif crops cultivated in the state during this period include rice (paddy), maize, bajra, and jowar, which are then harvested between September and October.

141Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
The Hathras and Kanpur traditions relate to
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Answer: (A) theatre

Explanation

The Hathras and Kanpur traditions are the two major gharanas or schools of Nautanki, a prominent folk theatre form of Northern India, particularly popular in Uttar Pradesh. Nautanki evolved from traditional musical performances and incorporates elements of music, dance, and drama. The Hathras school, or Hathras Shaili, is renowned for its operatic style and strong musical foundation, emphasizing poetic forms like doha and chaubola. The Kanpur school, or Kanpur Shaili, developed later and is noted for its focus on theatrical performance, dialogue delivery, and more contemporary storylines. Together, these schools defined the structure of North Indian folk theatre by blending local dialects and classical musical elements to narrate mythological, historical, and social tales.

142Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is not U.P.?
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Answer: (A) Dhola Maru

Explanation

Dhola Maru is a celebrated folk tale and musical tradition belonging to the state of Rajasthan. It tells the story of the love between Prince Dhola of Narwar and Princess Maru of Poogal. This narrative is a central theme in Rajasthani oral literature and is frequently represented in the local art and ballads of the Marwar and Mewar regions, making it culturally distinct from the folk genres native to Uttar Pradesh.

143Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following dances is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Karma - Mahoba

Explanation

The Karma dance is a traditional tribal folk dance predominantly performed by the Kharwar, Baiga, and Gond communities residing in the Sonbhadra and Mirzapur districts of southeastern Uttar Pradesh. It is performed to mark the harvest season and involves rhythmic movements and songs often centered around the Karam tree, which symbolizes fertility and prosperity. Mahoba is located in the Bundelkhand region and does not share this specific tribal dance tradition, as Karma is strictly localized to the tribal belts of the Vindhyan range in the state.

144Art and Culture
Musicians like Tansen, Baiju Bawra and Gopal Naik received training from Swami Haridas. How many main 'Sangeet Archana Kendras' have been established by followers of Swami Haridas?
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Answer: (A) 5

Explanation

Followers of Swami Haridas established five main Sangeet Archana Kendras to institutionalize and preserve the distinct musical and spiritual heritage of the Haridasi Sampradaya. Swami Haridas, the guru of legendary musicians such as Tansen and Baiju Bawra, pioneered a form of musical worship where ragas were utilized for devotional service. To ensure the continuity of this tradition, his disciples and subsequent followers founded these five primary centers, primarily in the Braj region, which focus on the preservation of Samaj-Gayan and the Dhrupad style. These kendras function as schools and platforms for musicians to practice Sangeet Archana, maintaining the specific rhythmic and melodic structures taught by Swami Haridas. This structured establishment allowed the oral tradition of Haridasi Sangeet to survive and remain a significant part of the Indian classical music landscape.

145Art and Culture
Identify one from the following who is not associated with Kathak dance.
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Answer: (D) Dhruvtara Joshi

Explanation

Dhruvtara Joshi was a distinguished figure in Hindustani classical music, primarily celebrated as a Sitar player and a vocalist. A prominent disciple of Ustad Enayat Khan of the Etawah gharana, he was also a noted composer who contributed significantly to the musical repertoire of thumris and dadras. Throughout his tenure at institutions like All India Radio and Visva-Bharati University, his artistic career was defined by his expertise in instrumental and vocal music rather than the performance or pedagogy of Kathak dance.

146Art and Culture
Musical instrument 'Tabla' was introduced by
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Answer: (B) Amir Khusrau

Explanation

Amir Khusrau, a prolific Sufi musician and poet during the Delhi Sultanate in the 13th and 14th centuries, is traditionally credited with the invention of the Tabla. According to popular historical accounts and musical lore, he developed the instrument by splitting the traditional two-headed drum, the Pakhawaj, into two separate pieces to create a more versatile accompaniment for the evolving styles of Indo-Persian music. His contributions were pivotal in the development of Hindustani classical music, as he is also associated with the introduction of the Sitar and the creation of various musical forms such as Qawwali and Khayal.

147Economy
How much is one barrel of oil approximately?
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Answer: (B) 159 litres

Explanation

The standard unit of measurement for crude oil and petroleum products in the international energy industry is the barrel, abbreviated as bbl. One oil barrel is defined as exactly 42 US gallons. To convert this to the metric system, the conversion factor of approximately 3.78541 litres per US gallon is used. The calculation 42 × 3.78541 results in approximately 158.987 litres, which is standardly rounded to 159 litres for commercial and statistical reporting. This specific volume was adopted as a standard in the late 19th century in the United States to provide a consistent measure for the transport and sale of oil.

148Art and Culture
'Tamasha' is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belongs to
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra

Explanation

Tamasha is a traditional folk theatre form that originated in Maharashtra. It emerged as an evolved form of the Sahir tradition and gained widespread popularity during the late 18th-century Peshwa rule. The performance is a vibrant blend of music, dance, and satirical drama, traditionally performed by traveling troupes. Its two primary elements are the Lavani, a rhythmic song and dance performed by women, and the Vag, which is a narrative play with a comic or social theme. A performance typically begins with a prayer to Lord Ganesha, followed by the Gavalan sequence. Key musical instruments used include the Dholki, Manjeera, and the Tuntuni. Tamasha remains one of the most significant cultural and artistic expressions of the Marathi-speaking community.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2D
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8D
  9. 9B
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13D
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16D
  17. 17A
  18. 18B
  19. 19D
  20. 20D
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23A
  24. 24A
  25. 25A
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30C
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33B
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37B
  38. 38C
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42C
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46B
  47. 47B
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51D
  52. 52B
  53. 53D
  54. 54D
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57A
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62D
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65D
  66. 66B
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71B
  72. 72A
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78B
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81D
  82. 82A
  83. 83D
  84. 84B
  85. 85B
  86. 86C
  87. 87D
  88. 88D
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96D
  97. 97C
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100A
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104B
  105. 105C
  106. 106D
  107. 107A
  108. 108C
  109. 109B
  110. 110C
  111. 111A
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117D
  118. 118B
  119. 119B
  120. 120D
  121. 121D
  122. 122A
  123. 123D
  124. 124C
  125. 125B
  126. 126C
  127. 127D
  128. 128D
  129. 129B
  130. 130B
  131. 131B
  132. 132A
  133. 133B
  134. 134B
  135. 135D
  136. 136B
  137. 137C
  138. 138C
  139. 139B
  140. 140C
  141. 141A
  142. 142A
  143. 143A
  144. 144A
  145. 145D
  146. 146B
  147. 147B
  148. 148C

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