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UPPSC Prelims 2002 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 150 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

150
Questions
6
Subjects
23
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Economy3725%
  • History3322%
  • Science and Technology2517%
  • Geography2315%
  • Polity and Governance2013%
  • Art and Culture128%
1History
Who of the following took the burning of the foreign clothes during the Non Cooperation Movement as 'insensate waste'
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Answer: (A) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Explanation

Rabindra Nath Tagore described the burning of foreign clothes during the Non-Cooperation Movement as an insensate waste because he believed that the act was a symbolic gesture of hatred rather than a constructive economic or moral program. Although he was a close friend of Mahatma Gandhi and supported the spirit of Indian nationalism, Tagore was deeply concerned about the poverty in India and felt that the cloth intended for the fire should instead be distributed to the needy who lacked adequate clothing. He viewed the destruction of material resources as a narrow-minded approach and argued that the movement should focus on more creative and positive aspects of Swadeshi, such as improving local production and intellectual awakening, rather than the ritualistic destruction of foreign goods which he found logically and ethically unsound.

2History
Who said, 'The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my greatest ambition while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.'
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Answer: (B) Lord Curzon

Explanation

Lord Curzon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, held a deeply dismissive and antagonistic view towards the Indian National Congress. In a letter dated November 18, 1900, addressed to the Secretary of State for India, George Hamilton, Curzon expressed his belief that the Congress was losing its momentum and popular support. He stated that the organization was tottering to its fall and that one of his greatest ambitions while in India was to assist it to a peaceful demise. His administration was marked by several reactionary policies, such as the Indian Universities Act of 1904 and the Partition of Bengal in 1905, which were intended to weaken the growing nationalist movement and the influence of the Congress leadership.

3History
Find out the correct sequence of the following from the code given below: A. C. Rajagopalachari Plan B. Wavell Plan C. Mountbatten Plan D. Cabinet Mission Plan
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Answer: (C) A B D C

Explanation

The C. Rajagopalachari Plan, also known as the CR Formula, was formulated in March 1944 to resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. This was followed by the Wavell Plan in June 1945, which proposed the reorganization of the Governor-General Executive Council during the Shimla Conference. The Cabinet Mission Plan was subsequently announced in May 1946 to negotiate the constitutional framework and the transfer of power to Indian hands. Finally, the Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, provided the ultimate roadmap for the partition of India and the granting of independence. This chronological order confirms the sequence as A, B, D, and C.

4Economy
In the gone by decade of 90's the highest rate of growth of GDP was obtained in which of the following year
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Answer: (B) 1995-96

Explanation

The fiscal year 1995-96 recorded the highest GDP growth rate of the 1990s decade, reaching approximately 7.1 percent based on the 1980-81 constant price series. This period marked the peak of the post-liberalization economic boom that followed the 1991 reforms. The high growth was primarily driven by a surge in the industrial sector, which grew at an exceptional rate of nearly 13 percent, alongside robust performance in the services sector. The removal of industrial licensing and trade barriers during this time led to increased manufacturing output and higher private capital formation. While data revisions with later base years occasionally adjusted these figures, 1995-96 was recognized as the highest growth year in the official economic records and standard textbooks available at the turn of the millennium.

5Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the Primary stage of education
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Answer: (C) Article-350A

Explanation

Article 350A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956. This article explicitly states that it shall be the endeavour of every state and of every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. Furthermore, it authorizes the President of India to issue such directions to any state as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. This provision was added to ensure that the linguistic identity of minority communities is preserved and that children are not disadvantaged by being forced to learn in a language other than their mother tongue during their foundational years of schooling.

6Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India was completed by
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Answer: (B) November 26, 1949

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India completed the drafting process and adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949. This date represents the conclusion of the deliberations that lasted for 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution explicitly cites this date as the moment when the people of India adopted, enacted, and gave themselves the document. Upon its adoption, several provisions including those relating to citizenship, elections, and provisional parliament came into force immediately, marking the legal completion of the sovereign document before its full commencement.

7Polity and Governance
Who among the following is appointed by the President
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The President of India is the appointing authority for several high-ranking constitutional positions. Under Article 76 of the Constitution, the President appoints the Attorney General of India, who serves as the chief legal advisor to the Union Government. Article 148 provides that the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal to act as the guardian of the public purse. Furthermore, Article 155 stipulates that the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Because all these offices are filled through presidential appointment, the collective option is accurate.

8History
Who of the following was the first Muslim President of Indian National Congress
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Answer: (A) Badaruddin Tayabji

Explanation

Badruddin Tyabji was elected as the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress during its third annual session held in Madras in 1887. He was a distinguished lawyer and the first Indian to practice as a barrister in the High Court of Bombay. His presidency was a landmark event that underscored the secular and inclusive foundation of the early nationalist movement. In his presidential address, Tyabji famously appealed to the Muslim community to participate actively in the Congress, arguing that the political interests of all Indians, regardless of their religious identity, were unified in the pursuit of administrative reforms and self-governance.

9History
Who is the exponent of the theory of 'economic drain' of India during the British rule
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Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, was the first to mathematically and analytically demonstrate the systematic depletion of Indian resources by the British. He articulated the Drain of Wealth theory in his landmark book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, published in 1901. He argued that a large part of India's national wealth and income was being exported to Britain in the form of home charges, interest on foreign debt, pensions for British officials, and profits of British merchants without any equivalent economic or material return. This drain resulted in the lack of capital formation in India and chronic poverty, effectively turning the Indian economy into a mere supplier of raw materials and a market for British finished goods.

10Art and Culture
Unpishadas are books on
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Answer: (D) Philosophy

Explanation

The Upanishads, often referred to as Vedanta, are the concluding part of the Vedic corpus and represent the peak of Indian metaphysical thought. These texts mark a significant shift from the ritualistic focus of the Brahmanas and Samhitas toward an internal, spiritual inquiry into the nature of existence. They primarily explore the concepts of Brahman, the ultimate universal reality, and Atman, the individual self, asserting the fundamental identity between the two. Through dialogues and allegories, the Upanishads investigate the origin of the universe, the nature of consciousness, and the path to liberation or moksha through true knowledge. Therefore, they are fundamentally regarded as the primary source of ancient Indian philosophy.

11Polity and Governance
Which one of the following motions has contextual relationship with the Union budget
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Answer: (C) Cut motion

Explanation

Cut motions are specific parliamentary devices moved in the Lok Sabha during the discussion on the Demands for Grants in the Union Budget. Their primary purpose is to exercise financial control over the executive by proposing a reduction in the amount of a demand. These motions are categorized into three types: the Policy Cut motion, which represents disapproval of the policy underlying the demand; the Economy Cut motion, aimed at effecting economy in the proposed expenditure; and the Token Cut motion, used to ventilate a specific grievance within the sphere of the Government of India's responsibility. The notice of a cut motion is typically given after the presentation of the Budget and before the demands are voted upon. Because the adoption of a cut motion amounts to a vote of no-confidence, it is a powerful tool for the opposition to challenge the government's financial plans.

12Art and Culture
Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2000 was given to
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Answer: (A) Asha Bhonsale

Explanation

Asha Bhosle was honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2000 in recognition of her extraordinary contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. As one of the most versatile and prolific playback singers in the history of the industry, she has recorded thousands of songs across numerous Indian and foreign languages over a career spanning several decades. This prestigious award, which is India highest honor in the field of cinema, was conferred upon her by the Government of India to celebrate her legendary status and her immense impact on the musical landscape of Indian films.

13Polity and Governance
Which of the following has banned floor crossing by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislative
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Answer: (A) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act.

Explanation

The 52nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, which is popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law. This amendment was specifically enacted to curb the practice of floor crossing, where elected members changed their party affiliation after elections for personal or political gain. Under the provisions of this Act, a member of either House of Parliament or a State Legislature is disqualified from being a member if they voluntarily give up the membership of the political party on whose ticket they were elected, or if they vote or abstain from voting in the House contrary to the directions issued by their party. The primary objective of this law is to provide political stability and ensure that legislators adhere to the party discipline and the mandate provided by the voters.

14Economy
Which bank has been presented with the 'Asian Banking Award 2001' for operational efficiency in treasury operations
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Answer: (A) Industrial Development Bank of India

Explanation

The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was conferred with the Asian Banking Award 2001 for operational efficiency in its treasury operations. This award, presented by the Asian Banking Digest, recognized the bank's excellence in managing its integrated treasury, which encompassed money markets, government securities, and foreign exchange transactions. IDBI achieved this recognition by implementing state-of-the-art technological systems that streamlined its front-to-back office processes, ensuring real-time risk monitoring and high accuracy in trade settlements. During this period, the bank's treasury was considered one of the most efficient in the Asian region, effectively leveraging automation to handle large-scale financial operations and institutional debt management.

15Economy
Which one of the following forms the largest share of deficit in Govt, of India budget
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Answer: (B) Fiscal deficit

Explanation

Fiscal deficit represents the total gap in the government resources, calculated as the difference between the total expenditure and the total non-debt receipts. The formula is Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts). It indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources to bridge the budgetary gap. Since the fiscal deficit encompasses the revenue deficit and the net capital requirements for investment and development, it is conceptually the most comprehensive measure of the resource gap. In the context of the Indian budget, it consistently represents the largest numerical value among deficit indicators because it accounts for the entire shortfall that must be financed through debt.

16Economy
According to UNDP report the HDI rank of India in 2001 is in the range of
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Answer: (D) 121-125

Explanation

The Human Development Report (HDR) 2002, published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), ranked India at 124th position among 173 countries. This rank was based on the Human Development Index (HDI) value calculated using data primarily from the year 2000. Although the HDR 2001 had previously placed India at 115th out of 162 countries, the 2002 report reflected a different relative standing as more countries were included and indicators were updated. The rank of 124 falls within the specified range of 121-125.

17Economy
Which among the following States in India is largest one producer of wheat
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh consistently ranks as the largest producer of wheat in India in terms of total volume. This leading position is primarily due to the state having the largest area under wheat cultivation, supported by the highly fertile alluvial soil of the Indo-Gangetic plains. The availability of extensive irrigation facilities through a network of canals and tube wells allows for high total output during the Rabi season. By 2002, Uttar Pradesh contributed significantly to the national food security by producing the highest tonnage of wheat compared to any other state, leveraging its vast geographical area and favorable agro-climatic conditions.

18Economy
Swarn Jayanti Gram Swa Rojgar Yojna came into being in
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Answer: (C) April 1999

Explanation

The Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched by the Government of India on April 1, 1999. It was designed as a comprehensive self-employment program for the rural poor, aimed at bringing assisted families above the poverty line by providing them with income-generating assets. The scheme was created by restructuring and merging six pre-existing programs: the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM), Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA), Supply of Improved Toolkits to Rural Artisans (SITRA), Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY), and the Million Wells Scheme (MWS). It focused on a cluster approach, emphasizing the formation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs), capacity building, and providing a mix of bank credit and government subsidies to establish micro-enterprises in rural areas.

19Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a fundamental right
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Answer: (C) Right to Property

Explanation

The Right to Property was originally classified as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Indian Constitution. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed it from the list of Fundamental Rights and instead incorporated it as a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII. This amendment ensured that while the government can still regulate property through the authority of law, it is no longer protected under the judicial remedies specifically reserved for Fundamental Rights in Part III.

20Polity and Governance
Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was enacted in India in
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Answer: (B) 1975

Explanation

The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was preceded by an Ordinance promulgated by the President of India on October 24, 1975. This legislative action was taken to fulfill the constitutional obligation under Article 23, which prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour. While the formal Act was passed by Parliament in 1976, Section 1(3) of the Act specified that it was deemed to have come into force on October 25, 1975. The legislation aimed to provide for the abolition of the bonded labour system to prevent the economic and physical exploitation of the weaker sections of society by discharging all bonded labourers from their obligations and cancelling their debts.

21Economy
In October 2001, Reserve Bank of India reduced bank Rate from 7% to
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Answer: (A) 6.50%

Explanation

In the Mid-term Review of Monetary and Credit Policy for the year 2001-02, announced on October 22, 2001, the Reserve Bank of India reduced the Bank Rate by 50 basis points. This move shifted the rate from 7.00% to 6.50% per annum, effective from the close of business on that day. This reduction was intended to manage liquidity and support economic growth by lowering the cost of funds for commercial banks, following a similar downward trend in global interest rates during that period.

22Economy
For regulation of the Insurance Trade in the country the Government has formed
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Answer: (C) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

Explanation

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was established as a statutory body under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999. Following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee (1994), the government created this apex body to oversee and regulate the insurance sector in India, which was transitioning from a state-owned monopoly to a competitive market. IRDA was officially incorporated in April 2000 with the mandate to protect the interests of policyholders, regulate the entry of private players, and ensure the orderly growth and financial security of the insurance trade. It took over the regulatory functions previously performed by the Controller of Insurance under the Insurance Act of 1938.

23Economy
The 'gilt-edged' market deals in
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Answer: (C) Govt. securities

Explanation

The gilt-edged market refers to the market for government and semi-government securities that carry a sovereign guarantee. The term originates from the historical practice of issuing high-grade government bond certificates with gilded or gold-leafed edges to signify their superior quality and reliability. These securities are considered risk-free or of the highest credit order because the government is unlikely to default on its interest and principal repayment obligations. In India, this market is primarily managed by the Reserve Bank of India, which issues these instruments to facilitate the government's domestic borrowing requirements. Institutional investors such as commercial banks, insurance companies, and provident funds are the primary participants in this market due to the safety and liquidity these securities provide.

24History
The Chistiya sufi order was established in India by
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Answer: (B) Khwaja Moinuddin

Explanation

Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, often referred to as Gharib Nawaz, introduced the Chishti Silsila to India during the late 12th century. He arrived in the Indian subcontinent around 1192 CE and eventually settled in Ajmer, which became the primary center of the order. His spiritual teachings emphasized the concept of Wahdat-al-Wujud (Unity of Being), the importance of service to the downtrodden, and the use of devotional music (Sama) as a means of reaching a state of spiritual ecstasy. Under his guidance, the Chishti order became the most popular and influential Sufi order in India, known for its simplicity and its distance from the political power of the royal courts.

25Science and Technology
Who among the following is well known for his contribution in the field of Algebra
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Answer: (C) Bhaskara

Explanation

Bhaskara, also known as Bhaskara II or Bhaskaracharya, was a legendary 12th-century Indian mathematician and astronomer who made monumental contributions to the field of algebra. His primary work, the Siddhanta Shiromani, includes a specific volume titled Bijaganita, which is entirely dedicated to algebra. In this treatise, Bhaskara systematized the study of algebraic equations and introduced sophisticated methods for finding solutions to indeterminate equations. He is particularly celebrated for developing the Chakravala method, a cyclic algorithm used to solve indeterminate quadratic equations of the form nx² + 1 = y², an achievement that predated similar discoveries in Europe by several centuries. His work also explored the mathematical properties of zero, negative numbers, and the concept of infinity in an algebraic context.

26Art and Culture
Who was the founder of the Radha Swami Satsang
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Answer: (B) Siva Dayal Saheb

Explanation

Siva Dayal Saheb, also known as Seth Shiv Dayal Singh or Soami Ji Maharaj, established the Radha Swami Satsang in January 1861 in Agra. He introduced a spiritual path centered on the manifestation of the Supreme Being through the union of the soul (Surat) with the internal divine sound (Shabd). His teachings emphasized a simple householder's life combined with internal meditation, moving away from ritualistic practices. His spiritual discourses and poems are primarily preserved in the Sar Bachan, which serves as the central scripture for his followers.

27Art and Culture
Which of the following places is considered a Jain siddha-Kshetra on account of its Association with Parsvanatha
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Answer: (C) Sammed Sikhara

Explanation

Sammed Sikhara, located on Parasnath Hill in the Giridih district of Jharkhand, is regarded as the most sacred Siddha-Kshetra in Jainism. A Siddha-Kshetra is a place where a Tirthankara or a significant number of monks attained Nirvana. This site is specifically associated with Parshvanatha, the 23rd Tirthankara, who is believed to have attained liberation here after a period of deep meditation. According to Jain tradition, twenty out of the twenty-four Tirthankaras achieved moksha on this mountain, which takes its modern name, Parasnath, from Lord Parshvanatha himself. The site is a major center of pilgrimage for both the Digambara and Shvetambara sects due to this profound association with the Tirthankaras' spiritual completion.

28HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
The famous Teerth of Naimisharyan is situated in the district of
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Answer: (C) Sitapur

Explanation

Naimisharanya, often referred to as Naimisharyan or Neemsar, is a prominent Hindu pilgrimage site situated on the banks of the Gomti River in the Sitapur district of Uttar Pradesh. In ancient texts like the Puranas and the Mahabharata, it is described as the sacred forest where the sage Sauti Ugrasrava narrated the Srimad Bhagavatam and other epics to 88,000 rishis headed by Shaunaka. The location is centered around the Chakra Teerth, a holy pond considered to be the point where the wheel of Lord Vishnu’s mind fell to mark the center of the universe. It is historically and religiously one of the most significant sites for Vedic studies and Vaishnava worship.

29GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The decadal growth of population in Uttar Pradesh was highest during
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Answer: (C) 1981-91

Explanation

According to the census data, the decadal growth rate of the population in Uttar Pradesh reached its peak during the 1981-1991 period. During this decade, the state recorded a growth rate of 25.61 percent, which was an increase from the 25.39 percent observed in the previous decade of 1971-1981. This period represented the height of the demographic transition in the state, where significant declines in the death rate were coupled with high birth rates. When comparing the undivided territory of Uttar Pradesh as it existed before the creation of Uttarakhand in 2000, the 1981-1991 growth rate of 25.61 percent remained the highest recorded figure, slightly exceeding the growth rate calculated for the following decade.

30Geography
As per the 2001 census the correct ascending order of the following States in terms of literacy is
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Answer: (A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, M.P.

Explanation

According to the data from the 2001 Census, the literacy rates of these four states arranged in ascending order are as follows: Bihar recorded the lowest literacy rate in the country at approximately 47.0 percent. Uttar Pradesh followed with a literacy rate of 56.27 percent. Rajasthan, which saw significant growth in education during the 1990s, reached a literacy level of 60.41 percent. Madhya Pradesh had the highest literacy rate among this specific group, standing at 63.74 percent. This sequence accurately reflects the educational demographics of these states at the time of the 2002 examination.

31GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The sex ratio differential of Uttar Pradesh narrowed down most significantly during
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Answer: (D) 1991-2001

Explanation

The sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh witnessed its most significant improvement during the decade of 1991-2001. According to the census data available at the time, the sex ratio in the state was 879 females per 1,000 males in 1991. By the 2001 census, this figure increased to 898, representing a substantial gain of 19 points. This narrowing of the gender gap was the highest recorded increase in the state's sex ratio since the 1961-1971 period, during which the ratio had actually experienced a sharp decline. The positive shift between 1991 and 2001 indicated a significant demographic turnaround compared to the fluctuations and marginal increases seen in the intervening decades.

32Geography
As per the 2001 census which one of the following has a lower density of population than the other three
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Answer: (C) Mizoram

Explanation

According to the data from the 2001 Census of India, Mizoram had a population density of 42 persons per square kilometer. In comparison, Nagaland recorded a density of 120 persons per square kilometer, while Manipur and Meghalaya both had a density of 103 persons per square kilometer. Mizoram's relatively sparse population density is due to its steep hilly terrain and high proportion of land under forest cover, which naturally restricts the concentration of human settlements across the state. Among the four states listed, Mizoram maintains the lowest ratio of population to land area.

33Geography
The State having the highest density of Population is
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Answer: (D) West Bengal

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2001, West Bengal was the most densely populated state in the country. Population density is calculated as the number of persons per square kilometer of land area. In the 2001 census, West Bengal recorded a density of 903 persons per sq km. This high concentration of population is primarily due to the state's location in the fertile alluvial plains of the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta, which supports intensive agriculture and a high carrying capacity. Additionally, the presence of the Kolkata metropolitan region contributes significantly to the state's overall demographic concentration. At the time of the 2002 examination, these figures represented the most recent official data, placing West Bengal ahead of other states in terms of population per unit area.

34Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
In which city polluting industries have to be switched to natural gas based technology as per the order of the Supreme Court
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Answer: (B) Agra

Explanation

In the landmark case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court of India issued a directive to protect the Taj Mahal from the damaging effects of environmental pollution. The Court identified the Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ), an area of approximately 10,400 square kilometers around the monument, where emissions from coal-based industries were causing the marble to discolor and deteriorate due to acid rain. The judgment mandated that industrial units in Agra must switch from using coal or coke to cleaner natural gas or relocate outside the protected zone. Following this order, the Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) was commissioned to supply natural gas to the city to facilitate this technological transition and ensure the preservation of the heritage site.

35Geography
The national forest policy aims at maintaining how much of the total geographical area under forests
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Answer: (D) One-third

Explanation

The National Forest Policy of 1988, which updated the earlier 1952 policy, establishes a national goal to bring at least one-third (33 percent) of the country's total geographical area under forest or tree cover. This objective is designed to ensure environmental stability and maintain ecological balance, which are vital for the sustenance of all life forms. In hilly and mountainous regions, the policy aims for a higher target of two-thirds of the area under forest cover to prevent soil erosion and land degradation while ensuring the stability of fragile ecosystems.

36Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not responsible for the depletion of ozone layer
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Answer: (D) Nitrous oxide

Explanation

Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is primarily recognized as a significant greenhouse gas that contributes to the atmospheric greenhouse effect and global warming. It is not categorized as a primary ozone-depleting substance because it does not contain the halogen atoms, specifically chlorine and bromine, required for the catalytic cycles that destroy stratospheric ozone molecules. Within the regulatory framework of the early 2000s, such as the Montreal Protocol, nitrous oxide was not listed among the controlled industrial chemicals responsible for ozone depletion, as its environmental impact was addressed primarily in the context of climate change.

37Geography
Consider the following statement regarding global warming: 1. Melting of polar ice caps and subsequently rise in the sea level is the most important effect of global warming. 2. The sea level is likely to rise by one meter by 2070 AD if the present level of global warming is not controlled 3. All the coral islands in the world will be submerged 4. By 2044 AD, Fiji is likely to be submerged and rise in the sea level by the same year will pose a grave danger to the Netherlands.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Global warming leads to the thermal expansion of ocean water and the melting of continental ice sheets and glaciers, making the rise in mean sea level a primary and critical impact. Scientific projections available around 2002, including specific scenarios discussed in climate research and environmental discourse, estimated that a sea level rise of approximately one meter was possible by 2070 if greenhouse gas emissions were not significantly curtailed. Furthermore, the vulnerability of low-lying regions was a major focus of environmental reports in the late 20th century, which predicted that island nations like Fiji could face submergence as early as 2044. This same timeframe was identified as a period of grave danger for the Netherlands, given that a substantial portion of its land area is situated below sea level and relies on extensive coastal defenses that would be increasingly threatened by such rapid changes in sea level.

38Geography
The Rajiv Gandhi National Park is located in
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Answer: (D) Karnataka

Explanation

Rajiv Gandhi National Park, which is also known as Nagarhole National Park, is located in the Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka. It was originally established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955 and was later designated as a national park in 1988. The park forms a vital part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is contiguous with the Bandipur National Park and the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary. It is renowned for its rich biodiversity, providing a critical habitat for flagship species such as the Bengal tiger, Indian elephant, and gaur. The Kabini River and its reservoir serve as a prominent geographical feature and a boundary between the Nagarhole and Bandipur protected areas.

39Geography
Which of the following was the first million city of the country according to 1901 census
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Answer: (C) Kolkata

Explanation

In the 1901 census of India, Kolkata was the only city to cross the population threshold of one million inhabitants, recording a total of approximately 1.1 million people. This demographic milestone was largely attributed to its role as the capital of British India and its position as the preeminent commercial and industrial hub of the subcontinent at the turn of the 20th century. While other major urban centers grew significantly during this period, they did not surpass the million-person mark until subsequent decadal censuses.

40Geography
Which of the following is most urbanised State of India
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Answer: (C) Goa

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Goa was the most urbanized state in the country, with 49.76 percent of its population residing in urban areas. The census defines urbanization based on the percentage of the total population living in statutory towns, municipal corporations, and census towns. Goa's high urbanization rate at the time surpassed other major states like Mizoram, which had an urban population of 49.63 percent, and Tamil Nadu, which stood at 44.04 percent. This demographic trend in Goa was driven by its small geographical area and the concentration of its economic activities in the tourism and service sectors.

41Geography
Assertion (A): India's Urban Population exceeds the total population of the USA. Reason (R): India has made a spectacular growth in urbanisation. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, the urban population was approximately 286 million. In comparison, the total population of the United States around the same period was approximately 281.4 million based on the 2000 US Census. Therefore, the absolute number of people living in urban areas in India exceeded the entire population of the USA. However, the reason provided is incorrect because India's urbanization has historically been characterized as slow and steady rather than spectacular. The percentage of the population living in urban areas increased from 25.7 percent in 1991 to 27.8 percent in 2001, representing a modest growth of only 2.1 percentage points over a decade. This rate of structural transformation is considered relatively low compared to the rapid urbanization seen in other developing economies or during historical industrialization periods.

42Polity and Governance
Assertion (A): In Indian increase in crime has gone up with increase in urbanisation and industrialisation. Reason (R): Industrial-urban economy causes family and cultural disorganisation. Select one answer among the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The rapid expansion of urban centers and industrial zones in India has historically correlated with rising crime rates due to the socioeconomic pressures of modernization. Urbanization often leads to high population density, economic disparities, and the growth of slums, which provide fertile ground for criminal activities. Sociologically, this trend is explained by the transition from a rural-agrarian society to an industrial-urban one, which fundamentally alters social structures. In traditional rural settings, the joint family and close-knit community exert strong informal social control over individual behavior. Industrialization promotes migration and the rise of nuclear families, leading to social anonymity and the weakening of these traditional bonds. This state of social disorganization reduces the influence of cultural norms and family oversight, making individuals more prone to deviant behavior. Therefore, the breakdown of traditional social and cultural organization serves as a primary causal factor for the increase in crime observed alongside industrial and urban growth.

43Economy
Assertion (A): Urbanisation follows industrialisation. Reason (R): In developing countries urbanisation is a movement in itself. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

In the historical development of most Western nations, industrialization served as the primary driver for urbanization, as the shift from agricultural to manufacturing economies required concentrated labor forces in city centers. Consequently, the assertion that urbanization follows industrialization is generally true in the context of classical economic transitions.

In developing countries, urbanization often proceeds as an independent movement driven by factors other than industrial growth, such as rural-to-urban migration caused by rural distress, high natural population growth, and the expansion of the service sector. While both statements are true, the observation that urbanization is an autonomous movement in developing nations does not provide the causal explanation for why urbanization generally follows industrialization in the broader historical model. Instead, the reason highlights a deviation from the pattern described in the assertion.

44Geography
Which is the deepest lake of the world
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Answer: (C) Baikal

Explanation

Lake Baikal, situated in the southern part of eastern Siberia, Russia, is the deepest lake in the world with a maximum depth of approximately 1,642 meters. Formed within an active continental rift zone, it is a massive tectonic depression that has accumulated water over millions of years. Beyond its depth, it is also the largest freshwater lake by volume, containing about 20 percent of the world surface fresh water. Its age is estimated at 25 to 30 million years, making it one of the most ancient and biologically diverse aquatic ecosystems on the planet.

45Geography
Which one of the following ecosystems covers the largest area of the earth's surface
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Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation

The marine ecosystem is the largest ecosystem on Earth, as oceans and seas cover approximately 71 percent of the entire surface area of the planet. This vast aquatic environment accounts for the majority of the biosphere's habitable space and volume. All terrestrial ecosystems combined occupy only the remaining 29 percent of the Earth's surface area. Since the marine ecosystem is the most extensive but is not listed as an individual choice among the first three options, the answer is d.

46Geography
Which one of the following is the correct Sequence of the climatic regions while going from Zaire to Netherlands: 1. Equatorial climate 2. Mediterranean climate 3. Hot desert climate 4. West European climate
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Answer: (A) 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation

Zaire, located in Central Africa, lies directly on the Equator and experiences an Equatorial climate characterized by high temperatures and heavy rainfall throughout the year. As one moves northward toward the Netherlands, the next major climatic zone encountered is the Hot Desert climate of the Sahara, which spans across North Africa. Continuing north across the Mediterranean Sea, the coastal regions of Southern Europe and parts of North Africa exhibit a Mediterranean climate, defined by warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters. Finally, reaching the Netherlands in Northwest Europe, the climate transitions into the West European climate, also known as the Marine West Coast climate, which features cool summers, mild winters, and precipitation distributed throughout the year. This geographical progression from the low latitudes to the mid-latitudes follows the latitudinal distribution of global climatic belts.

47Geography
Which one of the following countries situated geographically in America but politically is part of Europe:
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Answer: (C) Greenland

Explanation

Greenland is geographically part of the North American continent, situated between the Arctic and Atlantic Oceans to the northeast of Canada. Politically, however, it is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark, which is a European nation. Greenland's political connection to Europe dates back centuries, and it was integrated into the Danish Realm in 1953. While it exercises extensive home rule, it remains under the sovereignty of Denmark, making it a unique example of a territory that belongs to one continent geographically but is politically governed by a state from another.

48Geography
Which of the following soil is most suited for tea plantation:
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Answer: (A) acidic

Explanation

Tea cultivation requires deep, well-drained, and friable soil with a high humus content. The most vital requirement for tea plants is the acidity of the soil, as tea is a calcifuge crop that cannot tolerate high levels of calcium or lime. The ideal pH range for tea plantation is between 4.5 and 5.5. Acidic soil conditions are essential because they ensure the availability of specific micronutrients like iron and manganese while preventing the stunting of growth caused by alkaline environments. This specific soil chemistry is typically found on well-drained hill slopes where heavy rainfall naturally leaches away basic cations, maintaining the necessary acidity for the tea bushes to thrive.

49Geography
Which of the following statements is not true:
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Answer: (B) The zone of maximum temperature is located along the equator.

Explanation

The zone of maximum temperature, or the thermal equator, does not coincide with the geographic equator. Although the equatorial region receives high solar insolation, the persistent cloud cover, high humidity, and frequent daily rainfall lead to significant scattering and reflection of incoming solar radiation. These factors, combined with the cooling effect of evaporation, prevent the equator from being the hottest zone. Instead, the highest mean temperatures are recorded in the subtropical high-pressure belts, roughly between 20° and 30° North and South latitudes. In these areas, the prevalence of anticyclonic conditions results in clear skies and minimal precipitation, allowing intense solar radiation to heat the land surfaces to much higher levels than those found at the equator.

50Polity and Governance
How many States and Union Territories are there in India:
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Answer: (B) 28 States and 7 Union territories (including national capital territory-1)

Explanation

In 2002, the political map of India featured 28 states and 7 union territories. This count followed the creation of three new states in November 2000 under the presidency of K. R. Narayanan. Chhattisgarh was established as the 26th state on November 1, carved out of Madhya Pradesh. Uttarakhand, formerly Uttaranchal, was created as the 27th state on November 9 from the Himalayan districts of Uttar Pradesh. Jharkhand became the 28th state on November 15, separated from Bihar. The 7 union territories included the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Pondicherry, and the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Delhi had been designated as the National Capital Territory through the 69th Amendment Act of 1991, which introduced a legislative assembly for the territory while it remained under the central government administration.

51Economy
Which one of the following states enjoys ideal conditions for the development of petrochemical industries:
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Answer: (A) Gujarat

Explanation

Gujarat possesses the most favorable conditions for petrochemical industries due to its significant indigenous production of oil and gas from regions like Ankleshwar and the Gulf of Cambay. The state houses some of the largest petroleum refineries in India, such as the public sector Koyali refinery and the massive Reliance refinery at Jamnagar. These facilities provide a steady and direct supply of naphtha and other essential feedstocks required for petrochemical manufacturing. Additionally, Gujarat's extensive coastline facilitates the easy import of crude oil and the export of finished products through well-developed ports like Kandla, Dahej, and Mundra. The early establishment of the Indian Petrochemicals Corporation Limited (IPCL) at Vadodara and the development of specialized industrial estates dedicated to chemicals have further consolidated Gujarat's position as the primary hub for this sector.

52Geography
Which one of the following States does not form border with Bangladesh:
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Answer: (C) Manipur

Explanation

Manipur is located in the easternmost part of Northeast India and shares its international boundary exclusively with Myanmar to its east and south. It is a landlocked state bordered by Nagaland to the north, Mizoram to the south, and Assam to the west. The geographical positioning of Mizoram and the Barak Valley region of Assam acts as a buffer that separates Manipur from the international border of Bangladesh. While India shares a 4,096-kilometer long border with Bangladesh through the states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, Manipur does not touch any part of the Bangladeshi territory.

53Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
Indian Institute of Naturopathy and Yogic Science is located at:
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Answer: (A) Pune

Explanation

The National Institute of Naturopathy (NIN) is located in Pune at a historical site known as Bapu Bhavan. Mahatma Gandhi had a long association with this location, having stayed there and performed numerous experiments in the field of nature cure. Established as an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 1986, the institute serves as the premier national center for the promotion and research of Naturopathy and Yoga. It focuses on providing clinical facilities, conducting academic courses, and documenting traditional drugless healing practices to integrate them into the mainstream healthcare system.

54Art and Culture
Which one of the following tribes of India belongs to the Proto-Australoid race:
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Answer: (C) Santhal

Explanation

The Santhals are one of the largest and most significant tribal communities in India, primarily inhabiting the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, and Bihar. According to the racial classification of the Indian population developed by B.S. Guha, the Santhals are categorized under the Proto-Australoid race. This ethnic group is characterized by physical traits such as dark skin pigmentation, wavy or curly hair, a broad and flat nose with a depressed root, and a medium to short stature. Linguistically, they belong to the Munda branch of the Austroasiatic language family, which is typical for many Proto-Australoid tribes residing in the central and eastern plateau regions of India.

55Geography
Tehri Dam is being constructed in Uttarakhand on the river:
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Answer: (A) Bhagirathi

Explanation

The Tehri Dam is a major multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam built on the Bhagirathi River in the Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand. It serves as the primary dam of the Tehri Hydro Development Corporation and is one of the tallest dams in the world. The project was designed to harness the hydroelectric potential of the Bhagirathi, which is one of the two main headstreams of the Ganges. The dam is located at the site of Ganesh Prayag, which marks the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Bhilangana rivers, but the main reservoir and the dam structure itself are primarily identified with the Bhagirathi River channel. The construction of this project was intended to provide significant benefits in terms of electricity generation, irrigation for thousands of hectares of land, and the supply of drinking water to urban areas.

56Economy
The largest coal reserves of India are found in:
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Answer: (B) Jharkhand

Explanation

Jharkhand accounts for the largest share of coal reserves in India, primarily due to its extensive Gondwana coal deposits located in the Damodar River valley. The state houses several major coalfields, including Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura. Jharia is particularly significant as it is India's largest coalfield and the primary source of high-grade metallurgical coking coal required for the steel industry. Following the reorganization of states in 2000, Jharkhand inherited the vast majority of the mineral wealth from the erstwhile state of Bihar, consistently maintaining the top rank in national geological surveys for estimated coal reserves throughout the early 2000s.

57Geography
Which of the following tree, once very popular in social forestry, is now taken to be environmental hazard:
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Answer: (D) Eucalyptus

Explanation

Eucalyptus was widely introduced in India during the social forestry programs of the late 20th century because of its fast growth rate and high commercial value for timber and pulp. Despite its initial popularity, it is now classified as an environmental hazard due to its excessive consumption of groundwater. The tree has a high transpiration rate and deep taproots that significantly deplete the water table, especially in semi-arid areas. Additionally, its leaves contain oils and chemicals that exhibit allelopathy, suppressing the growth of native vegetation and surrounding crops, which disrupts the local ecosystem and reduces soil fertility.

58Economy
The largest producer and exporter of long staple cotton in the world is:
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Answer: (C) U.S.A.

Explanation

The United States, particularly through the cultivation of Pima cotton (Gossypium barbadense) in the southwestern states such as California, Arizona, and New Mexico, established itself as the leading producer and exporter of long staple and extra-long staple (ELS) cotton by the early 2000s. While global cotton production is high in several countries, the U.S. specialized in the high-quality, long-fiber varieties required for premium textiles. Due to advanced mechanized farming and a strong focus on international trade, the U.S. managed to capture the largest share of the global export market for these specific high-grade fibers, supplying high-end textile manufacturers across Europe and Asia. Unlike other major cotton-growing nations that consume most of their high-quality fiber domestically, the U.S. Pima industry is primarily oriented toward the global export market.

59Economy
Which one of the following countries has the largest known reserves of oil:
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Answer: (C) Iraq

Explanation

As of 2002, according to BP Statistical Review data, Iraq held the largest proven oil reserves among the options listed, with approximately 112 billion barrels. Iran ranked second with about 99 billion barrels, while Kuwait had approximately 96.5 billion barrels. Nigeria had far smaller reserves of about 24 billion barrels. Saudi Arabia held the world's largest reserves overall but was not among the given options. Therefore, Iraq had the largest known oil reserves among the four choices available.

60Polity and Governance
Gandhi Peace Prize, 2001 was awarded to:
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Answer: (B) John Hume

Explanation

John Hume, a prominent politician from Northern Ireland and a key architect of the Good Friday Agreement, was conferred the Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2001. The Government of India recognized his exemplary and non-violent struggle for civil rights and his dedication to ending the sectarian conflict in Northern Ireland through peaceful negotiation and dialogue. Hume, who had also co-received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1998, was honored for embodying the Gandhian principles of social justice and conflict resolution without recourse to violence. His leadership within the Social Democratic and Labour Party (SDLP) played a vital role in transforming the political landscape of his region, making him a fitting recipient of this international award.

61Polity and Governance
Who is the first Air Chief to receive the honour of Marshal :
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Answer: (A) Arjun Singh

Explanation

In January 2002, the Government of India conferred the rank of Marshal of the Indian Air Force upon Arjan Singh. This is a five-star rank, equivalent to the rank of Field Marshal in the Army, and is held for life. Arjan Singh served as the Chief of the Air Staff from 1964 to 1969 and provided exemplary leadership to the Indian Air Force during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. His elevation to this rank made him the first and only officer in the history of the Indian Air Force to receive such an honour, recognizing his distinguished service and his role in transforming the IAF into one of the most potent air forces in the world.

62Polity and Governance
Who was the first Indian to receive the Magsaysay award:
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Answer: (D) Vinoba Bhave

Explanation

Vinoba Bhave was the first Indian to be honored with the Ramon Magsaysay Award, receiving it in 1958 in the category of Community Leadership. A prominent non-violence activist and spiritual successor to Mahatma Gandhi, he was recognized for his transformative work in the Bhoodan Movement. Launched in 1951, this movement sought to achieve equitable land distribution by persuading wealthy landowners to voluntarily give a portion of their land to landless laborers. His dedication to social reform, rural development, and the upliftment of the marginalized through peaceful, voluntary means established the Bhoodan and Gramdan initiatives as significant landmarks in Indias post-independence social history, leading to his international recognition by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation shortly after its establishment in 1957.

63History
The U.S.A. President George Bush Declared war against terrorism as first war of 21st Century is:
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Answer: (A) October 2001

Explanation

Following the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, the United States initiated a military response aimed at dismantling Al-Qaeda and removing the Taliban regime in Afghanistan. On October 7, 2001, President George W. Bush officially announced the commencement of Operation Enduring Freedom. In his address to the nation, he characterized the military action as the first battle in the global war against terrorism. While the rhetoric of a War on Terror began in September, the actual deployment of forces and the start of combat operations in October 2001 marked the formal beginning of what the administration defined as the first war of the 21st century.

64Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
In Assembly elections of Uttar Pradesh held in Feb. 2002 the position of elected MLAs of main political parties has been: Samajwadi B.S.P. B.J.P. Congress # Party
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Answer: (C) 143 98 88 25

Explanation

In the 14th Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly elections held in February 2002, the 403-member house saw a fragmented mandate resulting in a hung assembly. The Samajwadi Party (SP) emerged as the single largest party by securing 143 seats. The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) followed with 98 seats, while the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) won 88 seats. The Indian National Congress (INC) finished fourth among the major parties with 25 seats. These results reflects the intense four-cornered contest that characterized the state politics of Uttar Pradesh during that period.

65History
Indian Parliament was attacked by terrorists on:
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Answer: (C) 13 December, 2001

Explanation

The Indian Parliament in New Delhi was attacked on December 13, 2001, by five armed terrorists belonging to the Pakistan-based militant groups Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammed. The attackers gained entry into the high-security complex using a vehicle outfitted with a forged Home Ministry identification sticker while both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were in session. The swift response from the security forces prevented the militants from entering the main building, though the ensuing gun battle resulted in the martyrdom of nine individuals, including six Delhi Police personnel, two Parliament Security Service personnel, and a gardener. All five terrorists were killed in the encounter. This significant security breach escalated geopolitical tensions between India and Pakistan, leading to a major military standoff known as Operation Parakram.

66Polity and Governance
The 11th SAARC Summit of 2002 was held in:
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Answer: (D) Nepal

Explanation

The 11th SAARC Summit was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, from January 4 to January 6, 2002. Originally scheduled for 1999, the summit was delayed for over two years due to regional political tensions and the military coup in Pakistan. During this gathering, the heads of state or government of the seven member nations issued the Kathmandu Declaration, which reaffirmed their commitment to regional cooperation, poverty alleviation, and economic integration. A major focus of the 2002 summit was the collective effort to combat terrorism in South Asia, reflecting the heightened global security concerns of that period. Nepal, as the host nation, presided over the sessions where the leaders also discussed the importance of the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA).

67Polity and Governance
Who, amongst the following, took over as Prime Minister of Interim government in Afghanistan:
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Answer: (C) Hamid Karzai

Explanation

Following the collapse of the Taliban regime in late 2001, the Bonn Agreement was signed in Germany to establish a roadmap for a new political structure in Afghanistan. This agreement led to the formation of the Afghan Interim Authority, a temporary administrative body designed to govern for six months. Hamid Karzai was selected as the Chairman of this authority, effectively serving as the head of the interim government. He was officially sworn into office on December 22, 2001. His role as the primary executive leader was further solidified in June 2002 when the Emergency Loya Jirga, or Grand Assembly, elected him as the President of the Transitional Islamic State of Afghanistan to oversee the country until full national elections could be held.

68Science and Technology
The main focus of the 89th Indian Science Congress was:
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Answer: (D) Health, Education and Information Technology

Explanation

The 89th Indian Science Congress was held at Lucknow University from January 3 to 7, 2002. The focal theme of this session was Healthcare, Education and Information Technology. Presided over by Professor S. K. Joshi, the congress aimed to bridge the gap between scientific advancement and social welfare by focusing on these three critical sectors. The deliberations highlighted how information technology could be leveraged to enhance the delivery of health services and educational resources across India. The session emphasized that the synergy between human resource development through education, physical well-being through healthcare, and technological empowerment through information technology was essential for India's transition into a knowledge-based economy and for achieving holistic national development in the new millennium.

69Science and Technology
Who is associated with the development of India's Atomic Bomb:
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Answer: (C) Raja Ramanna

Explanation

Raja Ramanna was the lead scientist and principal architect responsible for the development of India's first nuclear device. As the director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), he headed the team that successfully conducted the underground nuclear test codenamed Smiling Buddha at Pokhran in 1974. Ramanna oversaw the technical process including the design and fabrication of the plutonium-based explosive. His leadership was crucial in demonstrating India's capability to develop atomic weapons, establishing the technical framework for the country's nuclear program and subsequent deterrence capabilities.

70Science and Technology
The 2001 Wimbledon Lawn Tennis Championships men's Singles title was won by:
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Answer: (C) Goran Ivanisevic

Explanation

Goran Ivanisevic secured the 2001 Wimbledon men's Singles title after entering the tournament as a wild card, ranked 125th in the world. This victory made him the first wild card entry in history to win a Grand Slam singles title. After finishing as the runner-up in three previous Wimbledon finals during the 1990s, he finally claimed the championship by winning a dramatic five-set match in the final, which concluded with a 9-7 score in the deciding set. His triumph is considered one of the greatest underdog achievements in the history of professional tennis.

71Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Who among following was honoured with U.P.'s Topmost Game's award 'Lax man', recently
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Answer: (A) Gyanendra Pandey

Explanation

Gyanendra Pandey, a distinguished cricketer from Uttar Pradesh, was honored with the Laxman Award for the year 2000-2001 in recognition of his significant achievements in the sport. The Laxman Award is the highest sporting honor bestowed by the Government of Uttar Pradesh upon male athletes who have demonstrated excellence at the state, national, and international levels. A consistent performer in domestic cricket, Pandey was a mainstay of the Uttar Pradesh Ranji team and represented India in two One Day Internationals in 1999. His contribution to the state's cricketing prowess and his leadership within the regional sporting community made him a primary recipient of this prestigious state recognition during that period.

72Science and Technology
The winner of Australian Open 2002 (Men's Singles) was:
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Answer: (C) Thomas Johansson

Explanation

Thomas Johansson won the Men's Singles title at the 2002 Australian Open by defeating Marat Safin in the final with a score of 3-6, 6-4, 6-4, 7-6(4). This victory marked Johansson's first and only Grand Slam singles title. He became the first Swedish man to win a Grand Slam title since Stefan Edberg's victory at the 1992 US Open. Throughout the tournament, Johansson displayed consistent performance and resilience, overcoming multiple seeded opponents to secure the championship at Melbourne Park.

73History
Godhara Massacre happened on:
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Answer: (D) 27th Feb. 2002 in Sabarmati Express Train

Explanation

The Godhra massacre occurred on the morning of 27 February 2002. A mob attacked and set fire to the S-6 coach of the Sabarmati Express train near the Godhra railway station in Gujarat. The train was carrying pilgrims and activists, known as kar sevaks, who were returning from Ayodhya. This incident resulted in the deaths of 59 people and became the immediate catalyst for the 2002 Gujarat riots.

74History
Who is the only Cricketer in the world to notch over 10,000 runs and 28 centuries along with 100 wickets in one-dayers:
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Answer: (C) Sachin Tendulkar

Explanation

Sachin Tendulkar became the first cricketer in One Day International history to cross the 10,000-run mark during a match against Australia at Indore in March 2001. By the end of 2001, he had also surpassed the milestone of 28 centuries, specifically reaching his 28th hundred against Kenya in October 2001. In addition to his batting prowess, his effective bowling earned him over 100 wickets in the ODI format, achieving that milestone during the 2001 season as well. At the time of the 2002 assessment, his unique combination of over 10,000 runs, more than 28 centuries, and over 100 wickets made him the sole player globally to hold this specific triple distinction in limited-overs cricket.

75Economy
What is the cost of an object which on being sold at ₹ 24, gives percentage profit numerically equal to the cost price:
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Answer: (B) ₹ 20

Explanation

Let the cost price of the object be x. According to the problem, the profit percentage is also x. The relationship between the selling price (SP), cost price (CP), and profit percentage is given by the formula SP = CP (1 + Profit %/100).

Substituting the given values into the formula: 24 = x (1 + x/100) 24 = (100x + x²)/100 x² + 100x - 2400 = 0

To solve this quadratic equation, we factorize it: x² + 120x - 20x - 2400 = 0 x(x + 120) - 20(x + 120) = 0 (x - 20)(x + 120) = 0

This gives two possible values for x: 20 and -120. Since the cost price cannot be negative, we take x = 20. We can verify this as a 20% profit on ₹ 20 equals 0.20 × 20 = ₹ 4, resulting in a selling price of 20 + 4 = ₹ 24.

76Economy
A person travels from his house to his office by scooter at a speed of 40 km per hour. While returning, he travels at a speed of 20 km per hour. If the distance from his house to office is 5 km, what is his average speed of travelling both ways:
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Answer: (C) 26 2/3 km per hour

Explanation

When a journey involves covering equal distances at different speeds, the average speed for the entire trip is the harmonic mean of the individual speeds. In this case, the distance from the house to the office (5 km) is equal to the distance from the office back to the house.

The formula for average speed Vₐᵥ₉ when distances are equal is given by: Vₐᵥ₉ = 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂)

Given: Speed going to office v₁ = 40 km/h Speed returning from office v₂ = 20 km/h

Substituting these values into the formula: Vₐᵥ₉ = (2 × 40 × 20)/(40 + 20) Vₐᵥ₉ = 1600/60 Vₐᵥ₉ = 80/3 km/h

To express 80/3 as a mixed fraction, we divide 80 by 3: 80 = 3 × 26 + 2 Vₐᵥ₉ = 26 2/3 km/h

Alternatively, calculating via total distance and total time leads to the same result. The total distance is 5 + 5 = 10 km. The total time is the sum of the time taken for each leg: T = 5/40 + 5/20 = 1/8 + 1/4 = 3/8 hours. Average speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 10/(3/8) = 80/3 = 26 2/3 km/h.

77Economy
5% of ? = 375
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Answer: (D) 7500

Explanation

To find the number of which 5% equals 375: x multiplied by 5/100 = 375, so x = 375 x 20 = 7,500. Verification: 5% of 7,500 = 375. This is a basic percentage reverse-calculation where the unknown base is found by dividing the given value by the percentage rate expressed as a decimal.

78Economy
If a / b = 3 / 4 and 8a + 5b = 22 then a is:
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Answer: (D) 3/2

Explanation

From the given ratio a/b = 3/4, we can express b in terms of a as b = 4a/3. Substituting this expression for b into the second equation 8a + 5b = 22 allows us to solve for a:

8a + 5(4a/3) = 22

To simplify the equation, multiply every term by 3 to remove the denominator:

24a + 20a = 66

Combining the like terms on the left side:

44a = 66

Solving for a by dividing both sides by 44:

a = 66/44

By dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, 22, we find the simplest form:

a = 3/2

79Economy
What is the smallest number which when added to 37825 will make it divisible by 13:
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Answer: (D) 5

Explanation

To find the smallest number that must be added to 37825 to make it divisible by 13, we first determine the remainder when 37825 is divided by 13.

Performing the division: 37825 = (13 × 2000) + 11825 11825 = (13 × 900) + 125 125 = (13 × 9) + 8

The division shows that 37825 = (13 × 2909) + 8, leaving a remainder of 8. To make the number perfectly divisible by 13, we need to add a value such that the new remainder becomes 13 (which effectively becomes 0). The formula for the smallest number to be added is:

Required number = Divisor - Remainder Required number = 13 - 8 = 5

Adding 5 to 37825 results in 37830, which is exactly divisible by 13 (13 × 2910 = 37830).

80Polity and Governance
Which of the following republics, besides Russia, are nuclear powers: 1. Ukrain 2. Georgia 3. Belarus 4. Kazakhstan
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Following the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, the Soviet nuclear arsenal was distributed across the territories of four newly independent republics: Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, and Kazakhstan. Ukraine inherited the world's third-largest nuclear stockpile, while Kazakhstan and Belarus also held significant numbers of strategic nuclear warheads and intercontinental ballistic missiles. Under the terms of the 1992 Lisbon Protocol and the 1994 Budapest Memorandum, Ukraine, Belarus, and Kazakhstan agreed to dismantle their nuclear infrastructure or transfer their warheads to the Russian Federation for destruction. By 1996, all nuclear weapons had been removed from these three nations, and they joined the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) as non-nuclear-weapon states. Georgia, however, never possessed nuclear weapons or the infrastructure to maintain them during or after the Soviet transition.

81Science and Technology
The missing numbers X, Y in the following series: 6, 16, 9, 13, 12, 10, X, Y
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Answer: (D) 15, 7

Explanation

This series is formed by two alternating arithmetic progressions interleaved together. The terms at the odd-numbered positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, and 7th) follow an increasing pattern: 6, 9, 12, and X. In this progression, each term is found by adding 3 to the preceding term (6 + 3 = 9, 9 + 3 = 12), so the next term X is 12 + 3 = 15. The terms at the even-numbered positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, and 8th) follow a decreasing pattern: 16, 13, 10, and Y. In this progression, each term is found by subtracting 3 from the preceding term (16 - 3 = 13, 13 - 3 = 10), so the next term Y is 10 - 3 = 7.

82Science and Technology
Pick the 1st, 2nd, 4th, 5th and 6th letters in the word 'REASONING' from yet another word and then write the first and last letter's of the new word:
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Answer: (C) NE

Explanation

The 1st, 2nd, 4th, 5th, and 6th letters of the word REASONING are R, E, S, O, and N, respectively. By rearranging these specific letters, we can form the meaningful English word NORSE. In this new word, the first letter is N and the last letter is E. Consequently, the combination of the first and last letters of the word is NE.

83Economy
How many combinations of two digit number having '8' can be made from the following numbers; 8, 5, 2, 1, 7, 6
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Answer: (B) 11

Explanation

To find the number of two-digit combinations containing the digit 8 from the set {8, 5, 2, 1, 7, 6}, we calculate the total possible two-digit numbers and subtract those that do not contain the digit 8.

The set contains n = 6 digits. The total number of two-digit numbers that can be formed using these digits (allowing repetition as indicated by the options) is n × n = 6 × 6 = 36.

To find the numbers that do not contain the digit 8, we only use the remaining m = 5 digits {5, 2, 1, 7, 6}. The number of such two-digit combinations is m × m = 5 × 5 = 25.

Subtracting the numbers without 8 from the total possible numbers gives the count of numbers containing at least one 8: 36 - 25 = 11.

Alternatively, we can list the numbers: Numbers with 8 in the tens place: 88, 85, 82, 81, 87, 86 (6 numbers) Numbers with 8 in the units place: 58, 28, 18, 78, 68 (5 numbers, excluding 88 which is already counted) Summing these yields 6 + 5 = 11.

84Polity and Governance
Five books marked A, B, C, D and E are lying on a table. If D is right to B and left to E, A is in between C and B, the book in the middle is:
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Answer: (A) B

Explanation

To determine the sequence of the books, we analyze the relative positions provided. The first condition states that D is to the right of B and to the left of E, establishing the partial order B, D, E. The second condition states that A is situated between C and B. Combining this with the first sequence, C and A must be placed to the left of B to satisfy the condition that A is between C and B. This results in the complete linear arrangement: C, A, B, D, E. In a set of five items, the middle position is the third one. In this sequence, B occupies the third position and is therefore the book in the middle.

85Economy
Age of father is four times the age of his son. Five years later age of father will be three times the age of his son. Present age of father is:
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Answer: (D) 40 years

Explanation

Let the present age of the son be x years. Given that the father's age is four times the son's age, the father's present age is 4x. Five years later, the son's age will be x + 5 and the father's age will be 4x + 5. According to the problem, at that time the father will be three times the age of his son: 4x + 5 = 3(x + 5) 4x + 5 = 3x + 15 4x - 3x = 15 - 5 x = 10 The present age of the father is 4x, which is 4 × 10 = 40 years.

86Economy
There are three drawers in a table. One contains two gold coins, another two silver coins and the third a silver coin and gold coin. One of the drawers in pulled out and a coin in taken out. It turns out to be a silver coin. What is the probability of drawing a gold coin. If one of the other two drawers is pulled out next and one of coins it is drawn at random:
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Answer: (C) 62.5%

Explanation

To find the probability of drawing a gold coin from one of the other two drawers, we first determine which drawer was likely selected initially.

The table contains three drawers: Drawer 1 (D1): 2 Gold coins {G, G} Drawer 2 (D2): 2 Silver coins {S, S} Drawer 3 (D3): 1 Silver and 1 Gold coin {S, G}

A silver coin was drawn first, which means the initial drawer must have been either D2 or D3. In competitive exam logic for this type of problem, given that the drawer must contain a silver coin, we assume the probability of having picked D2 or D3 is equal: P(D2) = 1/2 P(D3) = 1/2

Next, we calculate the probability of drawing a gold coin from the "other two" drawers for each case:

Case 1: The first drawer was D2. The remaining drawers are D1 {G, G} and D3 {S, G}. There are a total of 4 coins, of which 3 are gold. P(G | D2) = 3/4

Case 2: The first drawer was D3. The remaining drawers are D1 {G, G} and D2 {S, S}. There are a total of 4 coins, of which 2 are gold. P(G | D3) = 2/4 = 1/2

Using the theorem of total probability: P(G) = [P(D2) × P(G | D2)] + [P(D3) × P(G | D3)] P(G) = (1/2 × 3/4) + (1/2 × 1/2) P(G) = 3/8 + 1/4 = 5/8

Converting the fraction to a percentage: 5/8 = 0.625 = 62.5%

87Science and Technology
How long does a train 110 meters long, running at the speed of 54 km per hour take to cross a bridge 130 meters in length:
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Answer: (B) 16.0 seconds

Explanation

To find the time taken for a train to cross a bridge, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the bridge.

Total distance D = 110 m + 130 m = 240 m

The speed of the train is given in km/hr and must be converted to m/s using the conversion factor 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s.

Speed v = 54 × 5/18 = 15 m/s

Using the basic formula for time t = Distance/Speed:

t = 240/15 = 16 seconds

88Geography
Two trains start from New Delhi. One train runs to the west and the other to the north. The speed of the first train exceeds the speed of the second train by 5 km / hr . The distance between them after 2 hours is 50 km . The average speed of the seconds train is:
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Answer: (C) 15 km / hr

Explanation

The paths of the two trains are perpendicular, forming a right-angled triangle where the distance between them represents the hypotenuse. Let the average speed of the second train be v km/hr. Consequently, the speed of the first train is v + 5 km/hr.

After 2 hours, the distance covered by the second train is 2v km and the distance covered by the first train is 2(v + 5) km. Using the Pythagoras theorem: (2v)² + (2(v + 5))² = 50²

Dividing the equation by 2² = 4: v² + (v + 5)² = 25² v² + v² + 10v + 25 = 625 2v² + 10v - 600 = 0 v² + 5v - 300 = 0

Factoring the quadratic equation: v² + 20v - 15v - 300 = 0 v(v + 20) - 15(v + 20) = 0 (v - 15)(v + 20) = 0

Since speed cannot be negative, we take v = 15 km/hr. This satisfies the Pythagorean triplet where the legs are 15 and 20 and the hypotenuse is 25 for a 1-hour interval, or legs of 30 and 40 with a hypotenuse of 50 for the 2-hour interval.

89Economy
If the product of two numbers is 320 and their ratio 1:5, what is the difference between the squares of these two numbers:
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Answer: (C) 1536

Explanation

Let the two numbers be represented as x and 5x based on the given ratio of 1:5. The product of these two numbers is 320, which gives the equation x · 5x = 320. Simplifying this leads to 5x² = 320, and dividing by 5 results in x² = 64. Taking the square root, we find x = 8. Therefore, the two numbers are 8 and 5 · 8 = 40. The difference between the squares of these numbers is 40² - 8². Calculating the values, we get 1600 - 64 = 1536. This can also be calculated directly as 25x² - x² = 24x², and substituting x² = 64 yields 24 · 64 = 1536.

90Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The Kisan Bahi Yojna was launched in U.P. in:
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Answer: (C) 1992

Explanation

The Kisan Bahi Yojna was launched by the Uttar Pradesh government in 1992 to streamline the process of land record management for farmers. Under this scheme, farmers are issued a Kisan Bahi or passbook that contains all relevant details regarding their land holdings, including ownership, area, and type of soil. This document serves as an official record that enables farmers to easily access institutional credit, apply for agricultural loans, and claim various government subsidies by providing a consolidated and authenticated proof of their land assets.

91EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh the marketable surplus is the highest for:
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Answer: (A) Wheat

Explanation

Marketable surplus is defined by the relation MS = P - C, where P is the total production and C is the sum of requirements for family consumption, cattle feed, seeds, and payments in kind. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India, and the high productivity achieved through the adoption of high-yielding varieties in the Indo-Gangetic plain ensures that total production vastly exceeds the subsistence needs of the farming households. Because wheat is the staple crop with the highest total output in the state, the residual quantity available for sale in the mandis is greater than that of other food grains or oilseeds. In the early 2000s, agricultural marketing data consistently showed that wheat had the highest volume of market arrivals and the highest surplus ratio among the major crops in Uttar Pradesh, making it the primary commercialized food grain for the state's farmers.

92GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following crop cycles is most suitable for eastern U.P.:
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Answer: (A) Rice/Maize - Wheat

Explanation

Eastern Uttar Pradesh falls within the Middle Gangetic Plain agro-climatic zone, which is characterized by fertile alluvial soil and an average annual rainfall ranging from 1000 mm to 1200 mm. These conditions are naturally suited for a cereal-based cropping system. During the Kharif season, high rainfall and high humidity support the cultivation of rice and maize. Following these, the Rabi season provides the cool, dry climate necessary for wheat production, supported by canal and tube-well irrigation. This cycle is the most stable and widely practiced rotation in the region because it effectively utilizes the seasonal monsoon water for rice and the winter temperatures for wheat, ensuring basic food security for the dense population of the area.

93EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following crops grow in Uttar Pradesh has the shortest duration:
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Answer: (D) Moong

Explanation

Moong is a short-duration pulse crop that matures in approximately 60 to 90 days. In Uttar Pradesh, it is widely cultivated during the Zaid season as a catch crop because of its ability to produce a yield in a very limited window of time. This rapid maturity allows it to fit efficiently into intensive crop rotations between the primary Rabi and Kharif seasons, making it the crop with the least time requirement from sowing to harvest in the regional agricultural cycle.

94EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per agricultural statistics (1999-2000) Uttar Pradesh occupies the first rank in India in the production of:
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Answer: (C) Wheat and Sugarcane

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh secured the top position in Indian agricultural production for the 1999-2000 period in the cultivation of wheat and sugarcane. The state leadership in wheat was driven by intensive farming practices in the fertile Indo-Gangetic belt and the widespread adoption of irrigation technologies which maximized yields. Similarly, its ranking as the leading sugarcane producer was sustained by the favorable agro-climatic conditions of the region and the massive scale of cultivation aimed at supplying the numerous sugar mills operating across the state. These two crops formed the backbone of the agricultural economy of Uttar Pradesh, ensuring its dominance in national output statistics during that era.

95Economy
Which of the following is a cereal grain product:
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Answer: (A) oat meal

Explanation

Oat meal is derived from oats (Avena sativa), which belong to the Poaceae family, commonly known as the grass or cereal family. Cereal grains are specifically the edible seeds of grasses grown for food. Oat meal is produced by processing the whole oat groats through steaming and rolling or grinding into a meal, making it a direct cereal grain product. Since oats are cultivated primarily for their grain, they are classified as a true cereal alongside other staples like wheat, rice, and maize.

96EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following trade tax regions of U.P. constitutes the highest revenue collection:
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Answer: (D) Lucknow

Explanation

Lucknow was the highest revenue-collecting trade tax region in Uttar Pradesh during the period around 2002. As the administrative capital and a major commercial center, the Lucknow zone benefited from the presence of numerous corporate headquarters, state-level distribution networks, and a high concentration of service-oriented businesses. The centralized collection system for various public sector undertakings and large private firms that operated across the state often resulted in their tax liabilities being recorded within the Lucknow jurisdiction, thereby significantly boosting its total revenue contribution compared to other industrial or commercial zones.

97Economy
Which one of the following States is the largest producer of coffee:
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Answer: (A) Karnataka

Explanation

Karnataka is the leading producer of coffee in India, traditionally accounting for more than 70 percent of the total national production. The state's dominance is primarily due to the ideal agro-climatic conditions found in the hilly regions of the Western Ghats, specifically in the districts of Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan. These areas provide the necessary high altitude, rich soil, and well-distributed rainfall essential for the growth of both Arabica and Robusta varieties. The history of coffee in India is deeply rooted in Karnataka, dating back to the 17th century when Baba Budan is said to have planted the first coffee seeds in the hills that now bear his name, firmly establishing the state as the hub of the industry.

98EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below lists: List-I (Centers): (A) Aonla (B) Modinagar (C) Barabanki (D) Kanpur List-II (Industries): 1. Polyfibre 2. Fertilizer 3. Rubber 4. Explosives
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Answer: (B) 2, 3, 1

Explanation

Aonla (Bareilly district) is a prominent industrial center for Fertilizer production, housing a major cooperative sector plant of IFFCO. Modinagar is well-known for the Rubber industry, largely due to the presence of Modi Rubber Limited. Barabanki is associated with the Polyfibre industry, notably through manufacturing facilities like those of Grasim Industries. Kanpur is a major industrial hub that includes the production of Explosives, featuring units of Indian Explosives Limited and several government ordnance factories.

99EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is the main source of the State revenue in U.P.:
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Answer: (D) Trade Tax

Explanation

In 2002, Trade Tax was the primary source of Uttar Pradesh's own tax revenue. Before the introduction of Value Added Tax (VAT) in 2008 and the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017, the state government relied heavily on the levy imposed on the sale and purchase of commodities within its jurisdiction. Statistical data from the state budget and economic surveys of that era indicate that Trade Tax consistently contributed more than half of the total revenue collected through the state's own tax resources. This revenue was essential for funding the state's developmental projects and administrative expenditures, making it the most significant component of the fiscal structure compared to other sources like excise duties or land revenue.

100EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per the report of the State Directorate of Economics and Statistics (2000) Uttar Pradesh is indebted to the World Bank other lending agencies (excluding interest) to the tune of:
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Answer: (C) ₹ 75,000 crore

Explanation

According to the reports from the Directorate of Economics and Statistics of Uttar Pradesh for the year 2000, the state's total outstanding debt reached approximately ₹ 75,000 crore. This debt comprised borrowings from international financial institutions such as the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank, as well as loans from the Central Government, market borrowings, and other internal lending agencies. During the late 1990s and early 2000s, Uttar Pradesh entered into various structural adjustment loans to manage its fiscal deficit and fund developmental projects, leading to a substantial increase in its total liability. The figure of ₹ 75,000 crore represents the principal amount of these accumulated obligations as of the reporting period in 2000.

101EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per the Report of the State Directorate of Economics and Statistics during 1991-2000 U.P.'s contribution to GNP has declined by:
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Answer: (A) 5 per cent

Explanation

During the decade from 1991 to 2000, Uttar Pradesh experienced a slower economic growth rate relative to the national average following the liberalization of the Indian economy. Data from the State Directorate of Economics and Statistics indicates that the share of Uttar Pradesh in the national Gross National Product (GNP) fell from approximately 14 percent in the early 1990s to about 9 percent by the year 2000. This reduction of 5 percentage points in the state's contribution reflects the widening regional disparity and the impact of the state's transition, including the creation of Uttarakhand in November 2000. The decline underscores the challenges the state faced in attracting investment and enhancing productivity in the industrial and service sectors during that specific period.

102Economy
Word Bull and Big are associated with which branch of commercial activity:
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Answer: (C) Share Market

Explanation

The terms Bull and Big are traditionally associated with the share market and stock exchange operations. A Bull is an optimistic speculator who buys securities with the expectation that their prices will rise in the future. The term Big Bull specifically gained prominence in the Indian financial landscape to describe powerful market players or lead speculators who exerted significant influence over stock prices and market sentiment. These expressions characterize the speculative activities and psychological trends inherent in trading equities and other financial instruments on the stock exchange.

103Economy
Which of the following are the main objectives of the Sharda Sahayak Command Area Development Project? Select the correct answer from the objective codes given below: I. To increase agricultural production. II. To change the land use pattern through multiple cropping in. III. To improve the land management. Codes:
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Answer: (D) All

Explanation

The Sharda Sahayak Command Area Development Project was initiated in 1974-75 in Uttar Pradesh to bridge the gap between the irrigation potential created and its actual utilization. The project follows the Command Area Development (CAD) approach, which integrates several land and water management activities. One of the primary goals is to improve land management through the construction of field channels, land leveling, and proper drainage systems to prevent waterlogging and salinity. By ensuring a reliable and equitable water supply through the warabandi system, the project facilitates a transition from traditional mono-cropping to intensive multiple cropping, thereby fundamentally changing the land use pattern. The synergy of these scientific management practices and increased cropping intensity ultimately leads to the overarching objective of significantly increasing agricultural production in the command area.

104Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
After creation of Uttranchal, how many assembly constituencies remain in U.P.:
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Answer: (C) 403

Explanation

Following the enactment of the Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000, the state of Uttaranchal was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on November 9, 2000. Prior to this division, the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly consisted of 425 elected members. Under the provisions of the Act, 22 assembly constituencies were transferred to the newly formed state of Uttaranchal. This left the remaining state of Uttar Pradesh with a total of 403 elected assembly constituencies. Although the assembly also provided for one nominated member from the Anglo-Indian community, bringing the total strength to 404, the number of territorial constituencies from which members are directly elected is 403.

105Art and Culture
Which one of the Hindu festivals is celebrated as the festival of mourning by the Tharus:
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Answer: (B) Diwali

Explanation

The Tharu tribe, an indigenous community residing in the Terai region of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Nepal, traditionally observes Diwali as a festival of mourning known as Sok Parv. On this day, Tharu families gather to remember and pay homage to their deceased ancestors. They perform specific rituals that involve offering food, water, and clothing to the spirits of the departed, a practice they believe ensures the peace of their forefathers. While the rest of the Hindu community celebrates the festival with lights and festivities, the Tharus maintain this solemn tradition of ancestral remembrance as a core part of their cultural and religious identity.

106History
The Mahila Diwas is celebrated on 13 February each year in the memory of:
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Answer: (C) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation

National Women's Day is celebrated in India on 13 February to mark the birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu, who was born on this date in 1879. Known as the Nightingale of India or Bharat Kokila, she was a distinguished poet and a leading figure in the Indian independence struggle. She was the first Indian woman to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1925 and later became the first woman to hold the office of Governor in independent India, serving the United Provinces. The day honors her immense contribution to the cause of women's empowerment and her role in the freedom movement.

107HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
The Patha region of Banda district is mostly inhabited by the:
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Answer: (B) Kols

Explanation

The Patha region, primarily situated in the Manikpur and Mau tehsils of the erstwhile Banda district (now part of Chitrakoot district), is the traditional homeland of the Kol tribe. The Kols are the most significant tribal population in this rugged plateau area of the Bundelkhand region. They are historically identified as forest-dwellers and agricultural laborers whose socio-economic life and identity are central to the Patha geography. Their concentration in this specific belt distinguishes the tribal demographic of the Banda-Chitrakoot area from the eastern districts of Uttar Pradesh where other tribal groups are more prevalent.

108Geography
The G.T. Road does not pass through:
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Answer: (C) Aligarh

Explanation

The Grand Trunk Road, one of Asia's oldest and longest major roads, traditionally follows the alignment of what was known as National Highway 2 in northern India during the early 2000s. This historic route connects Delhi to Kolkata by passing through a sequence of major cities in the Indo-Gangetic plain, including Mathura, Agra, Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, and Mughal Sarai. Aligarh is located on a different trajectory, specifically along the highway alignment that connects Delhi to Kanpur via Bulandshahr and Etawah. Since the main corridor of the Grand Trunk Road follows a more southern path through Agra and Firozabad, it does not intersect with the city of Aligarh.

109Art and Culture
Amir Khusrau played a pioneer role in the development of:
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Answer: (C) Khari Boli

Explanation

Amir Khusrau is recognized as the pioneer of Khari Boli, the vernacular dialect of the Delhi and Meerut region that serves as the foundation for modern Hindi and Urdu. During the 13th and 14th centuries, he broke away from the tradition of writing exclusively in classical Persian by composing poetry, riddles (Paheliyan), and folk songs in Hindavi. By integrating local speech patterns and idioms into his literary works, Khusrau successfully elevated the status of this regional dialect to a literary medium. His extensive use of the common language of the masses in his verses effectively initiated the development of Khari Boli as a distinct linguistic and cultural identity in Northern India.

110EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Granite slabs and slates are made at:
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Answer: (A) Lalitpur

Explanation

Lalitpur district, located in the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh, is highly significant for its extensive deposits of granite and other dimension stones. The area is characterized by the presence of various grades of granite, such as pink, red, and grey varieties, which are commercially exploited for the construction industry. Because of the proximity to these mineral reserves, Lalitpur has developed as a primary industrial hub for the manufacture of granite slabs and slates, housing many processing units dedicated to the cutting and polishing of these stones. This concentration of mineral-based industry makes it a leading center for such stone products in the state.

111Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
Indira Gandhi Planetarium is located at:
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Answer: (B) Lucknow

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Planetarium is situated in Lucknow, the capital of Uttar Pradesh. Located in the Surajkund area along the banks of the River Gomti, the planetarium is renowned for its unique architectural design, which is modeled after the planet Saturn, featuring its characteristic rings. The foundation stone for this institution was laid in 1988, and it is managed by the Council of Science & Technology, Uttar Pradesh. It functions as a specialized center for astronomical education, providing immersive sky shows and scientific exhibits to promote interest in space sciences among students and the general public.

112Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Girja Devi, famous singer of Thumri belongs to:
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Answer: (A) Banaras Gharana

Explanation

Girja Devi was a legendary Indian classical singer who represented the Banaras Gharana. Often hailed as the Queen of Thumri, she played a pivotal role in elevating and popularizing the Purab Ang Thumri style. Born in Varanasi, she received her formal training from Shrichand Misra and Sarju Prasad Misra, who were stalwarts of the Banaras musical tradition. Her mastery extended to other semi-classical genres associated with the region, such as Dadra, Chaiti, Hori, and Kajri, making her a preeminent figure of the Banaras school of music.

113Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is not correctly matched:
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Answer: (B) Raghupati Sahai Firaq - Allahabad

Explanation

Raghupati Sahai, famously known by his pen name Firaq Gorakhpuri, was born in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. Although he spent a significant portion of his career as a professor of English at the University of Allahabad and was a prominent figure in the city's literary circles, his takhallus or poetic suffix identifies his origin as Gorakhpur. The pairing with Allahabad is therefore incorrect as it deviates from the standard geographical identification used for Urdu poets in this context.

114Science and Technology
An air bubble inside water behaves as a:
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Answer: (C) divergent lens

Explanation

An air bubble inside water behaves as a divergent lens due to the relative refractive indices of the two media. While the spherical shape of the bubble resembles a biconvex lens, the light travels from a denser medium (water, refractive index n ≈ 1.33) into a rarer medium (air, refractive index n ≈ 1.0) and back into the denser medium.

According to the Lens Maker's Formula:

1/f = (nₗₑₙₛ/nₘₑ₀ᵢᵤₘ - 1)(1/R₁ - 1/R₂)

Here, nₗₑₙₛ is the refractive index of air and nₘₑ₀ᵢᵤₘ is the refractive index of water. Since nₐᵢᵣ < nᵥᵥₐₜₑᵣ, the term (nₐᵢᵣ/nᵥᵥₐₜₑᵣ - 1) becomes negative. For a bubble, which is physically biconvex, the geometric term (1/R₁ - 1/R₂) remains positive. Multiplying a negative refractive term by a positive geometric term results in a negative focal length (f < 0). A negative focal length characterizes a divergent lens, meaning parallel rays of light passing through the bubble will bend away from the principal axis.

115Science and Technology
Soundwaves:
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Answer: (D) can travel both in solid and gaseous medium

Explanation

Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium for propagation. They travel by causing the particles of the medium to vibrate about their mean positions, transferring energy through successive collisions or elastic interactions. This physical mechanism allows sound to move through all states of matter, including solids, liquids, and gases. In solids, the atoms or molecules are closely packed and strongly bonded, which typically results in sound traveling at higher speeds compared to other media. In gases, sound propagates through the random thermal motion and collision of molecules. Thus, sound waves are capable of traveling through both solid and gaseous media.

116Science and Technology
In electric apparatus 'earth' is used:
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Answer: (C) for safety

Explanation

Earthing provides a low-resistance conduction path for electrical current to reach the ground in the event of an insulation fault. By connecting the metallic frame of an electrical apparatus to the earth, the potential of the frame is maintained at zero volts relative to the ground. If a live conductor accidentally touches the metal casing, the leakage current flows directly into the earth rather than through a person touching the device. This mechanism prevents fatal electric shocks and also facilitates the operation of protective devices like fuses or circuit breakers by creating a high-current fault path that quickly disconnects the power supply.

117Science and Technology
Which of the following planet takes the least time to orbit the Sun:
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Answer: (B) Mercury

Explanation

Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion states that the square of the orbital period T of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of its average distance a from the Sun, represented by the formula T² ∝ a³. This mathematical relationship dictates that the closer a celestial body is to the Sun, the shorter its orbital period will be. Mercury is the innermost planet in the solar system, located at an average distance of approximately 0.387 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun. Due to this proximity, it experiences the strongest gravitational pull and maintains the highest orbital velocity, completing one full revolution in only about 88 Earth days.

118Science and Technology
Which kind of light waves are used in remote control of television:
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Answer: (B) Infrared

Explanation

Television remote controls utilize infrared (IR) radiation, a segment of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths longer than those of visible light, typically ranging from 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter. The remote transmitter uses an infrared light-emitting diode (LED) to send pulses of light that carry binary data representing specific commands. A photodiode or sensor in the television detects these pulses and converts them back into electrical signals to execute the desired function. Infrared is chosen because it is invisible to the human eye, ensuring it does not distract the viewer, and its low energy level makes it safe for domestic use and cost-effective for short-range, line-of-sight communication.

119Science and Technology
The main constituent of honey is:
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Answer: (D) fructose

Explanation

Honey is a supersaturated sugar solution produced by honeybees from the nectar of flowers. Fructose, also known as levulose, is the predominant sugar found in honey, typically making up approximately 38 percent to 40 percent of its total composition. This monosaccharide is responsible for the unique sweetness and hygroscopic properties of honey. Its dominance over other constituents ensures that honey remains a dense, energy-rich substance that serves as a primary food source for bee colonies. The high concentration of fructose also contributes to the solubility of honey, allowing it to remain in a liquid state for extended periods.

120Science and Technology
Which of these is not a colloid:
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Answer: (D) Honey

Explanation

Honey is a concentrated or supersaturated aqueous solution, primarily composed of sugars like fructose and glucose dissolved in water. In a true solution, the solute particles are at the molecular or ionic level, typically smaller than 1 nanometer, and do not scatter light. This distinguishes it from colloids, where the dispersed phase consists of larger particles ranging from 1 to 1000 nanometers that remain suspended without settling. While honey may occasionally contain minute traces of pollen or wax, its fundamental physical state is that of a homogeneous sugar-water solution.

121Science and Technology
Which one of the following metal is not attracted by a magnet:
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Answer: (D) Aluminium

Explanation

Aluminium is classified as a paramagnetic material, which means it possesses a very weak attraction to magnetic fields that is not observable under ordinary conditions. Paramagnetism occurs in materials where atoms have permanent magnetic moments, but these moments are randomly oriented due to thermal agitation, resulting in a negligible net magnetic effect. When placed in a magnetic field, these moments align slightly with the field, but the resulting force is millions of times weaker than that found in ferromagnetic materials. Because this interaction is so faint, aluminium does not stick to permanent magnets and is considered non-magnetic in both engineering and general scientific contexts.

122Science and Technology
The important metal used with iron produce stainless steel, is:
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Answer: (B) Chromium

Explanation

Stainless steel is a steel alloy defined by its high resistance to corrosion, which is primarily achieved by adding a minimum of 10.5% to 11% chromium by mass. When chromium is added to iron, it reacts with oxygen in the environment to form an extremely thin, stable, and non-porous layer of chromium oxide (Cr₂O₃) on the surface of the alloy. This passive layer acts as a physical barrier that prevents oxygen and moisture from reaching the underlying iron, thereby stopping the process of oxidation or rusting. A key property of this chromium-rich layer is that it is self-healing; if the surface is mechanically damaged or scratched, the exposed chromium quickly reacts with air to reform the protective film. This chemical property makes chromium the essential metal for transforming iron into stainless steel.

123Science and Technology
I.C. chips for computers are usually made of:
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Answer: (C) silicon

Explanation

Integrated circuits (ICs) are primarily fabricated from silicon because it is a semiconductor with optimal properties for microelectronic components. Silicon is an abundant element in the Earth's crust, making it cost-effective for mass production. It maintains structural and electrical stability at the high temperatures often generated by computer processors. Crucially, silicon naturally forms a high-quality native oxide, silicon dioxide (SiO₂), which serves as an excellent electrical insulator. This insulating layer is essential for creating the gates in transistors and for protecting the intricate electrical pathways within the chip. Through a process called doping, the electrical conductivity of silicon can be precisely controlled, allowing it to function as the base material for the millions of transistors that make up a modern computer chip.

124Science and Technology
Laser beam is used for:
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Answer: (C) treatment of eye

Explanation

Laser beams are extensively utilized in ophthalmology due to their ability to deliver high-intensity, monochromatic, and coherent light to a very small, precise area. By 2002, procedures such as LASIK (Laser-Assisted in situ Keratomileusis) and PRK (Photorefractive Keratectomy) were well-established for correcting refractive errors like myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism by reshaping the cornea using an excimer laser. Furthermore, lasers are used in retinal surgery for photocoagulation, which involves sealing leaking blood vessels or repairing retinal tears to prevent blindness in conditions like diabetic retinopathy. The precision of the laser allows surgeons to operate on delicate ocular tissues without the need for traditional invasive tools, minimizing the risk of infection and reducing recovery time.

125Science and Technology
Genome mapping relates to:
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Answer: (B) mapping of genes

Explanation

Genome mapping is the process of determining the relative locations of genes and other genetic markers along the chromosomes of an organism. It involves identifying the specific sequence of DNA and creating a graphical representation or map of the arrangement of genes within the genome. This can be achieved through genetic linkage maps, which measure the frequency of recombination between genes, or physical maps, which provide the actual physical distance between markers in terms of DNA base pairs. By the early 2000s, this field gained worldwide prominence through the Human Genome Project, which aimed to identify and sequence the approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes in human DNA. The resulting maps serve as a critical tool for researchers to understand the inheritance of traits and to locate genes responsible for specific genetic disorders.

126Science and Technology
Which one of the following fibre is not a product of plant stem:
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Answer: (D) Cotton

Explanation

Cotton is a seed fiber derived from the epidermal hairs of the seeds of the Gossypium plant. It consists of unicellular hairs that grow as a protective casing around the seeds within the fruit, commonly referred to as the cotton boll. Because the fiber originates from the surface of the seed rather than from the vascular or phloem tissues of the plant stalk, it is categorized as a surface fiber. This biological development distinguishes it from fibers that are harvested from the plant stem.

127Science and Technology
Which one of the following are useful in the detection of landmines:
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Answer: (A) Bee

Explanation

Honeybees possess an extraordinary olfactory sense that allows them to detect chemical vapors in concentrations as low as parts per trillion. Researchers have developed techniques to train these insects to associate the scent of explosive compounds, such as TNT or DNT leaking from landmines, with a food reward. Once trained, the bees are released into a suspected minefield. Their movements and congregating patterns are monitored using LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) systems or video cameras from a safe distance. This biological detection method is highly efficient for scanning large areas quickly and is safer than using manual probes or heavier animals that might accidentally trigger a pressure-sensitive mine.

128Art and Culture
Saffron is dried mixture of:
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Answer: (C) seed forming parts of flower

Explanation

Saffron is obtained from the flower of Crocus sativus, commonly known as the saffron crocus. The spice itself consists of the dried stigmas and styles of the flower. Botanically, the stigma and style are the female reproductive organs that receive pollen and facilitate fertilization, making them the essential seed-forming parts of the plant. Each flower typically contains three vivid crimson stigmas which are hand-harvested and dehydrated to develop the characteristic aroma and color associated with saffron.

129History
Who among the following was the founder of 'Dev Samaj':
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Answer: (C) Sivanarayan Agnihotri

Explanation

Sivanarayan Agnihotri founded the Dev Samaj in 1887 at Lahore. Originally a follower of the Brahmo Samaj, he established this religious and social reform society to promote a philosophy centered on high moral conduct and the eternity of the soul. Unlike many other reform movements of the time, the Dev Samaj eventually moved toward an atheistic position, focusing on the worship of the Guru and the cultivation of ethical values rather than a traditional deity. The principles and teachings of the movement were codified in the religious text known as Deva Shastra, which emphasized social service, honesty, and the renunciation of vices.

130History
The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
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Answer: (D) Indian Opinion

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi started the publication of Indian Opinion in 1903 during his time in South Africa to represent the interests of the Indian community and protest against racial discrimination. Published in English, Gujarati, Hindi, and Tamil, the periodical became a vital organ for the Natal Indian Congress and a primary vehicle for Gandhi to disseminate his evolving political and social philosophies. It was printed at the Phoenix Settlement near Durban, an ashram Gandhi founded to practice his ideals of manual labor and simple living. The journal played a crucial role in mobilizing support for the Satyagraha campaigns against the Transvaal Asiatic Registration Act and other discriminatory laws, serving as a communication link between the movement and its supporters globally.

131History
In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role:
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Answer: (D) Bardoli Satyagraha

Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was a major episode of civil disobedience in Gujarat against the unjust 30 percent hike in land revenue imposed by the British colonial government. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took command of the movement at the request of local leaders and successfully organized the peasantry through rigorous discipline and non-violent resistance. He divided the taluka into camps and appointed volunteers to keep the farmers steadfast in their refusal to pay taxes despite the seizure of property and livestock by the authorities. The success of this struggle forced the government to appoint a committee that drastically reduced the revenue increase. It was the success of this movement that earned Patel the title of Sardar from the women of Bardoli, establishing him as a national leader of the highest order.

132History
Timur invaded India during the reign of:
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Answer: (C) Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah Tughlaq

Explanation

Timur (Tamerlane) invaded India in 1398 CE during the reign of Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, the last significant ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty. Timur crossed the Indus in September 1398, sacked Delhi in December 1398, and left a trail of devastation. The invasion caused a massive famine in Delhi that lasted for years and effectively ended Tughlaq power. Timur himself returned to Central Asia leaving a governor behind. Firoz Shah Tughlaq, who preceded Mahmud, had died in 1388, a decade before the invasion.

133History
Muhammad bin Tuglaq shifted his capital from Delhi to:
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Answer: (A) Daulatabad

Explanation

In 1327, Muhammad bin Tughlaq decided to shift his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, formerly known as Deogiri, in the Deccan region. The primary motivation for this relocation was Daulatabad's central geographical position, which the Sultan believed would allow for more efficient administrative and military control over both Northern and Southern India. Furthermore, the new capital was perceived to be safer from the frequent Mongol invasions that threatened the northwestern borders near Delhi. This move involved a forced mass migration of the entire population of Delhi to the new site, located approximately 1500 kilometers away. However, the project was eventually abandoned due to logistical failures, water shortages in the new region, and the realization that Northern India could not be effectively governed from the Deccan.

134History
Kautilaya was the Prime Minister of:
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Answer: (C) Chandragupta Maurya

Explanation

Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, was the chief architect of the Maurya Empire and served as the Prime Minister to its founder, Chandragupta Maurya. He played a decisive role in the downfall of the Nanda Dynasty and the subsequent expansion of the Mauryan territories across the Indian subcontinent. Kautilya is historically significant as the author of the Arthashastra, an exhaustive manual on statecraft, diplomacy, and administration that provided the ideological and practical framework for the governance of Chandragupta Maurya's empire.

135History
Jazia was reimposed during the reign of:
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Answer: (B) Aurangzeb

Explanation

Aurangzeb reimposed the Jizya tax in 1679, approximately twenty-two years into his reign. This religious tax, levied on non-Muslim subjects, was reintroduced as part of his broader policy to enforce Sharia law and establish an orthodox Islamic state. Historically, the tax had been abolished earlier in the Mughal era, making its return a significant shift in imperial policy. Aurangzeb used the revenue generated from Jizya to support the financial demands of his extensive military expeditions, especially during his long-drawn-out wars in the Deccan region.

136History
Buddha was born at:
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Answer: (B) Lumbini

Explanation

Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, was born in the 6th century BCE in the gardens of Lumbini. This site is located in the Terai region of modern-day Nepal. Historical and archaeological evidence, most notably the Rummindei Pillar edict erected by Emperor Ashoka in 249 BCE, explicitly identifies Lumbini as the birthplace of the Shakyamuni Buddha. The inscription on the pillar states that the Emperor visited the site and exempted the village from certain taxes because the Buddha was born there. Lumbini remains one of the four most sacred pilgrimage sites in Buddhism, marking the beginning of the life of Siddhartha Gautama before he attained enlightenment.

137History
21st January is celebrated as the birthday of:
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Answer: (A) Guru Govind Singh

Explanation

Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Guru of Sikhism, was born at Patna Sahib in 1666. His birth anniversary, known as Prakash Parv, is determined by the lunar Nanakshahi calendar, specifically falling on the Saptami of the Shukla Paksha in the month of Poh. Due to the differences between the lunar and solar calendars, the date of this celebration changes every year on the Gregorian calendar. In the year 2002, the birth anniversary of Guru Gobind Singh was observed on January 21. He is highly revered for founding the Khalsa Panth in 1699 and for bestowing the final form of the Guru Granth Sahib.

138History
In the courtyard of the Quwwatul Islam Mosque of Delhi stands the famous iron pillar in the memory of:
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Answer: (B) Chandragupta II

Explanation

The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli bears a Sanskrit inscription referring to king "Chandra," identified as Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty (c. 375-415 CE). The pillar is famous for its rust-resistant quality.

139History
Who among the following deserves the credit for the construction of Lal Qila:
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Answer: (D) Shahjahan

Explanation

Shahjahan commissioned the construction of the Lal Qila, or Red Fort, in Delhi after deciding to shift his capital from Agra to the newly planned city of Shahjahanabad in 1638. The construction began in 1639 under the supervision of the master architect Ustad Ahmad Lahori and was completed in 1648. The fort is renowned for its massive enclosure walls made of red sandstone and its sophisticated palace complex, which includes structures like the Diwan-i-Aam and Diwan-i-Khas. It represents the peak of Mughal architectural style, blending Persian, Timurid, and Hindu traditions, and served as the primary residence of the Mughal emperors for nearly two centuries.

140Art and Culture
The expounder of yoga philosophy is:
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Answer: (A) Patanjali

Explanation

Patanjali is traditionally regarded as the founder and expounder of the Yoga school, one of the six classical systems (shad-darshanas) of Indian philosophy. He systematized and codified existing yogic practices into a definitive work known as the Yoga Sutras. This foundational text provides the philosophical framework for the practice of yoga, defining it as the cessation of the fluctuations of the mind. Patanjali's system is often referred to as Ashtanga Yoga because it outlines an eight-limbed path consisting of ethical disciplines, physical postures, breath control, and stages of meditation leading to spiritual liberation. His contributions established yoga as a formal school of thought focused on the dualism between consciousness and matter.

141History
Who was the first Muslim Ruler of Delhi:
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Answer: (A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak

Explanation

Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the Mamluk dynasty and is recognized as the first Muslim ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. Following the death of his master, Muhammad Ghori, in 1206 AD, Aibak declared his independence and established the first sovereign Muslim kingdom in Northern India. Although he initially ruled from Lahore, his reign marked the formal beginning of the Delhi Sultanate, a period that saw the consolidation of Turkic rule in the Indian subcontinent. He was responsible for the construction of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi and started the construction of the Qutub Minar, symbolizing the onset of Islamic architecture and political authority in the region.

142History
Where is the mausoleum of Shershah:
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Answer: (A) Sasaram

Explanation

The mausoleum of Sher Shah Suri is located in Sasaram, a town in the Rohtas district of Bihar. Completed in 1545, the tomb is a magnificent example of Indo-Islamic architecture and is often referred to as the second Taj Mahal of India. It was designed by the architect Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan and is uniquely situated in the middle of a large artificial square lake. The structure is built of red sandstone and stands on a high stone plinth, featuring a massive octagonal dome that rises to a height of approximately 122 feet. Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the Sur Empire in North India, planned and commissioned the construction of this grand tomb during his lifetime to serve as his final resting place.

143History
Which Indian revolutionary helped Subhash Chandra Bose in raising 'Indian National Army':
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Answer: (B) Rashbehari Bose

Explanation

Rashbehari Bose was a veteran revolutionary who played a critical role in organizing the Indian diaspora and prisoners of war in East Asia against British rule. He established the Indian Independence League in 1942 and was a key architect in the initial phase of the Indian National Army alongside Captain Mohan Singh. At the Singapore Conference in July 1943, Rashbehari Bose formally handed over the leadership of the Indian Independence League and the command of the Azad Hind Fauj to Subhash Chandra Bose. This transition provided the movement with the charismatic leadership required to scale up operations and launch a military offensive toward the Indian frontier.

144History
When Gandhiji was arrested during Salt Satyagraha who took his place as the leader of movement:
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Answer: (D) Abbas Tayabji

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi was arrested on May 4, 1930, at Karadi near Dandi, before he could lead the planned raid on the Dharasana Salt Works. Prior to his arrest, Gandhi had nominated Abbas Tyabji, a prominent nationalist leader and former Chief Justice of the Baroda High Court, to serve as his successor and lead the movement. Abbas Tyabji, known as the Grand Old Man of Gujarat, took charge of the Salt Satyagraha and led the march toward Dharasana until he was also arrested by the British authorities on May 12, 1930. Following Tyabji arrest, the leadership of the Dharasana Satyagraha was passed to Sarojini Naidu.

145History
A large crowd gathered in the Jallianwalla Bagh at Amrisar on April 13, 1919 to protest against the arrest of:
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Answer: (D) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal

Explanation

The meeting at Jallianwala Bagh on April 13, 1919, was organized to protest the arrest and deportation of two prominent local leaders of Punjab, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal. These leaders were arrested on April 10, 1919, by the British authorities for their active role in leading the agitations against the Rowlatt Act, which empowered the government to imprison people without trial. The gathering, which also included many people who had come to the city for the Baisakhi fair, was a peaceful assembly intended to demand the release of these leaders and voice opposition to the repressive policies of the British administration. It was this unarmed crowd that General Dyer targeted when he ordered his troops to open fire without warning.

146History
In which of the following movements Vande Mataram was adopted slogan for agitation:
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Answer: (B) Partition of Bengal in 1905

Explanation

The song Vande Mataram, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in his 1882 novel Anandamath, emerged as the most popular slogan and anthem of the Indian national movement during the Swadeshi Movement triggered by the Partition of Bengal in 1905. When the partition came into effect on October 16, 1905, the people of Bengal observed it as a day of mourning and took out massive processions singing Vande Mataram as a mark of protest and national unity. The song became so influential that the British administration eventually banned its public singing, leading to its widespread adoption by activists as a defiant cry against colonial rule. It transformed from a literary piece into a political weapon that unified the masses across the country against the division of the province.

147History
Who voted against the partition of India in the A.I.C.C. meeting held on 14 June 1947:
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Answer: (B) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Explanation

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as the Frontier Gandhi, was a staunch advocate for a united India and a leader of the non-violent Khudai Khidmatgar movement in the North-West Frontier Province. During the All India Congress Committee meeting on June 14, 1947, he was one of the prominent members who voted against the resolution to accept the Mountbatten Plan for the partition of India. He felt deeply betrayed by the Congress leadership's decision to agree to the partition and the subsequent referendum in his province, famously stating that the Congress had thrown the Pakhtuns to the wolves. His opposition was based on his commitment to communal harmony and the fear that partition would result in the marginalization of the Pakhtun people within the proposed state of Pakistan.

148History
The date April 6,1930 is known in Indian History for:
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Answer: (A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

On April 6, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi reached the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat and ceremonially broke the Salt Law by picking up a handful of salt from the shore. This symbolic act marked the culmination of the 24-day Dandi March, which had commenced from Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930. The event served as the official launch of the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement, signaling a major phase of non-violent resistance against British colonial rule and the salt monopoly.

149History
Which of the following struggles of Mahatma Gandhi was related to Industrial workers:
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Answer: (B) Ahmedabad Struggle

Explanation

The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 was a significant dispute between the cotton mill owners and the industrial workers of Ahmedabad. The conflict arose over the withdrawal of the Plague Bonus, which had been granted to workers during the epidemic. Mahatma Gandhi intervened in this struggle to support the workers' demand for a 35 percent wage hike to compensate for high inflation. During this movement, Gandhi employed the method of a hunger strike for the first time in India to strengthen the workers' resolve and pressure the mill owners into a settlement. The struggle concluded successfully when the owners agreed to the 35 percent increase, establishing Gandhi as a leader capable of mobilizing the industrial labor class alongside his agrarian initiatives.

150Economy
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good research problem?
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Answer: (C) It should be vague.

Explanation

A research problem serves as the foundation of any scientific inquiry and must be specific, well-defined, and unambiguous. Vagueness is a detrimental quality because it prevents the researcher from establishing clear boundaries, identifying relevant variables, or formulating testable hypotheses. If a problem is vague, the research design lacks direction, leading to inconsistent data collection and inconclusive results. Effective research requires a focused inquiry that allows for precise measurement and logical analysis, whereas vagueness introduces confusion and prevents the systematic investigation necessary for a valid study.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4B
  5. 5C
  6. 6B
  7. 7D
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12A
  13. 13A
  14. 14A
  15. 15B
  16. 16D
  17. 17D
  18. 18C
  19. 19C
  20. 20B
  21. 21A
  22. 22C
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29C
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36D
  37. 37C
  38. 38D
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41C
  42. 42A
  43. 43B
  44. 44C
  45. 45D
  46. 46A
  47. 47C
  48. 48A
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51A
  52. 52C
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57D
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61A
  62. 62D
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67C
  68. 68D
  69. 69C
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72C
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79D
  80. 80D
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83B
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90C
  91. 91A
  92. 92A
  93. 93D
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96D
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100C
  101. 101A
  102. 102C
  103. 103D
  104. 104C
  105. 105B
  106. 106C
  107. 107B
  108. 108C
  109. 109C
  110. 110A
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113B
  114. 114C
  115. 115D
  116. 116C
  117. 117B
  118. 118B
  119. 119D
  120. 120D
  121. 121D
  122. 122B
  123. 123C
  124. 124C
  125. 125B
  126. 126D
  127. 127A
  128. 128C
  129. 129C
  130. 130D
  131. 131D
  132. 132C
  133. 133A
  134. 134C
  135. 135B
  136. 136B
  137. 137A
  138. 138B
  139. 139D
  140. 140A
  141. 141A
  142. 142A
  143. 143B
  144. 144D
  145. 145D
  146. 146B
  147. 147B
  148. 148A
  149. 149B
  150. 150C

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