Which of the following is considered to be the optimum concentration of carbon dioxide for natural balance in atmosphere?
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Answer: (B) 0.03%
Explanation
Carbon dioxide is a minor but crucial component of the Earth's atmosphere, playing a vital role in the greenhouse effect and the carbon cycle. For a long period during the Holocene epoch, the concentration of carbon dioxide remained relatively stable at approximately 280 parts per million (ppm). In environmental science and geography, this stable state is traditionally rounded to 0.03 percent by volume (0.03% = 300 ppm). This concentration is considered the optimum level for maintaining the natural thermal balance of the planet, as it provides enough heat retention to prevent the Earth from freezing while avoiding the rapid global warming associated with higher concentrations. Standard atmospheric models used in academic curricula typically cite this 0.03 percent figure as the baseline for a balanced atmosphere.
2Geography
Amount of rain depends on:
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Answer: (B) Humidity in atmosphere
Explanation
Humidity represents the concentration of water vapor present in the air. Since rain is the product of the condensation of atmospheric water vapor, the total amount of precipitation that can occur is directly determined by the moisture content available in the atmosphere. When air is cooled below its dew point, the water vapor condenses into droplets; the greater the absolute humidity, the more water is available to fall as rain. Consequently, high humidity levels are a prerequisite for significant rainfall amounts, as seen in tropical regions compared to arid ones.
3Geography
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Anti - 5th May tobacco day
Explanation
World No Tobacco Day is observed annually on 31st May. This global initiative was established by the Member States of the World Health Organization in 1987 to draw global attention to the tobacco epidemic and the preventable death and disease it causes. The date of 5th May mentioned in the option is incorrect for this observance, as the international community recognizes the final day of May for anti-tobacco awareness and advocacy.
4Geography
Which one of the following atmospheric changes takes place due to green house effect?
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Answer: (A) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in atmosphere.
Explanation
The greenhouse effect leads to a rise in global temperatures, which triggers positive feedback mechanisms that increase the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂). As the atmosphere and oceans warm, the solubility of CO₂ in seawater decreases, causing the oceans to release stored carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. Furthermore, higher temperatures accelerate the rate of organic matter decomposition in soils and the thawing of permafrost, both of which release significant quantities of CO₂, thereby increasing its total atmospheric concentration over time.
5Economy
The Decade of Sustainable Energy for All' is the initiative of:
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Answer: (A) United Nations
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly adopted resolution 67/215 in December 2012, which officially designated the period 2014–2024 as the Decade of Sustainable Energy for All. This global initiative was established to promote the importance of energy for sustainable development and to mobilize action toward achieving universal energy access, improving energy efficiency, and increasing the use of renewable energy sources worldwide. It serves as a framework to support the Sustainable Development Goal 7, aiming to ensure that everyone has access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy by the year 2030. The initiative emphasizes the critical role that sustainable energy plays in poverty eradication, economic growth, and environmental protection.
6History
Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused due to the leakage of:
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Answer: (A) Methyl Isocyanate
Explanation
The Bhopal Gas Tragedy, which occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984, was caused by the accidental release of Methyl Isocyanate (CH₃NCO). This highly toxic and volatile chemical compound was being used at the Union Carbide India Limited pesticide plant to manufacture carbamate-based pesticides. The disaster was triggered when water entered a storage tank containing approximately 42 tonnes of liquid Methyl Isocyanate, causing a runaway exothermic reaction that significantly increased the temperature and pressure inside the tank. This forced the emergency venting of the gas into the atmosphere, leading to one of the world's worst industrial disasters.
7Geography
Which one of the following ecosystems has maximum plant biomass?
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Answer: (B) Tropical rain forest
Explanation
Tropical rain forests possess the highest plant biomass of any terrestrial ecosystem due to the combination of high year-round temperatures and abundant precipitation. These equatorial regions provide optimal conditions for photosynthesis and continuous growth without the constraints of a dormant winter or a prolonged dry season. This leads to exceptionally high Net Primary Productivity (NPP), allowing for the development of dense, multi-layered canopies and massive tree structures. The resulting standing crop of organic matter per unit area in a tropical rain forest is significantly greater than that found in seasonal or arid biomes.
8Polity and Governance
The Government of India enacted the Forest Conservation Act in the year:
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Answer: (B) 1980
Explanation
The Forest Conservation Act was enacted by the Parliament of India and came into force on October 25, 1980. The primary objective of this legislation is to check the rapid deforestation and regulate the diversion of forest lands for non-forest purposes, such as industrial projects, mining, or infrastructure development. Under this act, any such diversion requires the prior approval of the Central Government. The act was a significant step in environmental governance, aligning with the constitutional mandate under Article 48A and Article 51A(g), which direct the state and citizens to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests and wildlife.
9Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Tropical
(B) Conifer
(C) Mangroves
3. Rajasthan
(D) Deciduous forest
List-II:
1. Sunderbans forest
2. Himachal forest Pradesh
4. Silent Valley
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Answer: (D) 4 2 1 3
Explanation
Tropical forests are represented by Silent Valley in Kerala, which is a prime example of a tropical moist evergreen forest ecosystem located in the Western Ghats. Conifer forests are characteristic of the temperate and sub-alpine regions of Himachal Pradesh, where species like Deodar, Pine, and Spruce thrive in the Himalayan altitude. Mangroves are found in the Sunderbans of West Bengal, which comprises the largest tidal halophytic forest system globally in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Deciduous forests are prevalent in parts of Rajasthan, particularly in the Aravalli range and eastern regions, where tropical dry deciduous and thorn forests are the dominant vegetation types.
10Geography
Biodiversity has maximum danger from
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Answer: (A) destruction of natural habitats and vegetation
Explanation
The destruction of natural habitats and vegetation is widely recognized by ecologists and conservation organizations as the primary driver of biodiversity loss. Habitats provide the specific environmental conditions, food sources, and breeding grounds that species require to survive and reproduce. When these natural areas are cleared or fragmented for infrastructure, urbanization, or resource extraction, the resident species lose their ecological niche. This loss of living space leads to immediate population declines, reduced genetic diversity, and eventual extinction. Scientific assessments, such as those by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), consistently rank habitat loss as the most direct and pervasive threat to terrestrial and aquatic species worldwide.
11Science and Technology
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Rhizobium - Pea Leguminisarum
Explanation
Rhizobium is a genus of nitrogen-fixing bacteria that forms a symbiotic relationship with the roots of leguminous plants. Specifically, the species Rhizobium leguminosarum (biovar viciae) is the biological partner that infects and forms nodules in the roots of the pea plant (Pisum sativum). Within these nodules, the bacteria utilize the enzyme nitrogenase to convert atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), which the host plant can readily assimilate for growth. This relationship is highly host-specific; while other biofertilizers may be free-living or broader in application, the pairing of Rhizobium leguminosarum with the pea plant is a definitive example of mutualistic symbiosis, where the plant provides carbohydrates and a protected environment in exchange for fixed nitrogen.
12Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Curtailment of the power of judicial review
(B) Abolition of Right to Property as a fundamental right
(C) Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18
List-II:
1. 61st Amendment
2. 42nd Amendment
3. 38th Amendment
4. 44th Amendment
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Answer: (B) 2, 4, 1
Explanation
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, curtailed the power of judicial review and also added the words "socialist", "secular", and "integrity" to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right by removing Article 31 and making it a legal right under Article 300A. The 61st Amendment Act, 1988, lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years by amending Article 326. The sequence for (A) Curtailment of judicial review = 2 (42nd), (B) Abolition of property right = 4 (44th), (C) Lowering voting age = 1 (61st) gives code 2, 4, 1 = Option B.
13Polity and Governance
The concept of 'A Union of States in the Indian Constitution' has been derived from:
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Answer: (C) The British North-American Act
Explanation
Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a Union of States rather than a Federation of States. This concept was derived from the British North America Act of 1867, which created the Dominion of Canada. During the Constituent Assembly debates, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar explained that the term Union was preferred to emphasize two critical points: first, that the Indian federation was not the result of a voluntary agreement or contract among sovereign units, and second, that the constituent states have no right to secede from the federation. By adopting this terminology from the Canadian model, the framers of the Constitution established a federal system with a strong central authority and an indissoluble nature, ensuring the territorial integrity and unity of the nation.
14Polity and Governance
What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (B) One tenth of the total members of the House.
Explanation
According to Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India, the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of that House. This requirement includes the presiding officer, such as the Speaker in the Lok Sabha or the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha. If at any time during a meeting there is no quorum, Article 100(4) makes it the duty of the Speaker or the person acting as such to either adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until the quorum is present. For the Lok Sabha, which has a total strength of 545 members, this means at least 55 members must be present for the House to conduct its proceedings.
15Polity and Governance
Who among the following was a member of Sarkaria Commission?
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Answer: (C) Dr. S.R. Sen
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the Government of India to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India. The commission was headed by Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. It consisted of two other members, namely Shri B. Sivaraman and Dr. S.R. Sen. Dr. Samar Ranjan Sen was a prominent economist who had previously served as the executive director of the World Bank. The commission submitted its final report in 1988, providing 247 recommendations that aimed to strengthen the federal structure and improve coordination between the Union and the States.
16Art and Culture
Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Gujarati
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Odisha
List-II (States):
1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 10
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Answer: (C) 2, 3, 1
Explanation
The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) for each state is specified in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Gujarat is allocated 11 seats, which corresponds to item 2 in List-II. Karnataka is allocated 12 seats, matching item 3. Kerala is allocated 9 seats, which corresponds to item 1. Odisha is allocated 10 seats, represented by item 4. This distribution is based on the population of each state to ensure proportional representation in the upper house of the Indian Parliament.
17Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced. Reason (R): Model code of conduct was enacted by Parliament.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections to ensure a level playing field. These guidelines come into operational effect immediately upon the announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission and remain in force until the completion of the electoral process. The MCC is not a statutory document and was not enacted by the Parliament of India. It originated from a voluntary agreement among political parties to follow certain ethical standards and evolved through consensus over time. While the code itself is not legally enforceable in a court of law, the Election Commission exercises its constitutional powers under Article 324 to ensure compliance, and specific violations can be penalized under existing laws such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the Indian Penal Code.
18Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): The scope of judicial review is limited in India. Reason (R): Indian constitution has some borrowed items.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The scope of judicial review in India is considered limited compared to the United States because the Indian Constitution primarily adheres to the principle of procedure established by law as articulated in Article 21. This means the judiciary examines whether a law has been enacted by a competent legislature following the correct procedure, rather than applying the broader American doctrine of due process of law, which allows for a more extensive scrutiny of the reasonableness and fairness of a law. Statement (R) is also factually correct because the Indian Constitution is often described as a patchwork of various global constitutional features, having adapted elements like the parliamentary system from the United Kingdom and fundamental rights from the USA. However, the general fact that the Constitution contains borrowed items does not serve as a logical explanation for the specific legal constraints and functional boundaries of judicial review in the Indian legal system. Both statements are true independently, but there is no causal link between the constitution's diverse origins and the specific scope of judicial power.
19Polity and Governance
Which of the following are enshrined in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(i) Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union.
(ii) Form of oath to be made by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(iii) Form of oath of office for the President of India.
(iv) Form of oath to be made by a Member of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) (i), (ii), (iv)
Explanation
The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for several key constitutional functionaries. This includes the form of oath for a Union Minister (i), who is required to subscribe to an oath of office and an oath of secrecy. The schedule also covers the form of oath for the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (ii), as well as the other Judges of the Supreme Court, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, and the Judges of the High Courts. Additionally, it contains the oath for a Member of Parliament (iv) and candidates contesting elections to either House of Parliament. The oath for the President of India (iii) is not included in the Third Schedule because it is specifically provided for in the main text of the Constitution under Article 60. Similarly, the oaths for the Vice-President and State Governors are detailed in Article 69 and Article 159 respectively, rather than in the Third Schedule.
20Polity and Governance
Who is generally appointed as a Protem Speaker?
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Answer: (C) One of the senior most members of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
Explanation
According to Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker of the outgoing Lok Sabha vacates their office immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected House. To facilitate the initial proceedings, the President appoints a Speaker Protem under Article 95(1) to perform the duties of the Speaker. By established parliamentary convention, the President chooses one of the senior-most members of the newly elected Lok Sabha for this temporary role. The primary responsibilities of the Speaker Protem include presiding over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha, administering the oath or affirmation to the newly elected members as per Article 99, and enabling the House to elect a permanent Speaker. The office of the Speaker Protem is temporary and ceases to exist once the new Speaker is elected.
21Economy
What is meant by a Bullock-Capitalist?
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Answer: (C) Farmers who have some resources but are not rich.
Explanation
The term Bullock-Capitalists was coined by political scientists Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph to describe a significant class of self-employed, independent agricultural producers in India. These farmers typically own between 2.5 and 15 acres of land, which provides them with enough resources to be self-sufficient and produce a surplus for the market. They are called capitalists because they own their means of production, such as land and bullocks, yet they are not considered rich or part of the large landed elite because they rely primarily on family labor rather than large-scale hired help. This middle category of peasantry became a powerful economic and political interest group in rural India following land reforms and the Green Revolution.
22Polity and Governance
In which year was Rajya Sabha constituted for the first time?
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Answer: (C) 1952
Explanation
The Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, was formally constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952. This followed the conclusion of the first general elections in independent India, which were held between October 1951 and February 1952. Although the Constitution of India came into force in 1950, the provisional Parliament served as the sole legislative body until the bicameral legislature was established under the new constitutional provisions. The first sitting of the Rajya Sabha took place on May 13, 1952, with Dr. S. Radhakrishnan serving as the first Chairman. Under Article 80 of the Constitution, the House was designed as a permanent body representing the interests of the states and union territories.
23Polity and Governance
Who among the following is empowered to establish the interstate council?
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Answer: (B) President
Explanation
Article 263 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if at any time it appears that the public interest would be served by its creation. Under this article, the President is authorized to define the nature of the duties to be performed by the Council, as well its organization and procedure. This constitutional provision ensures a mechanism for coordination between the Union and the States, as well as among the States themselves. The Inter-State Council was first established by a Presidential Order in 1990, following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
24Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below: Assertion (A): India is a democratic country. Reason (R): India has a constitution of its own.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
India is established as a democratic republic by its Preamble, where the source of authority is the people who exercise their power through universal adult franchise and representative institutions. Separately, India possesses a comprehensive written constitution, which serves as the supreme law of the land and defines the structure and functions of government institutions. While both statements are factually correct, the existence of a constitution is not the definitive reason for a country being democratic. Many non-democratic or authoritarian nations also possess their own constitutions to provide a legal framework for governance without practicing democracy. Consequently, the reason provided does not logically explain the assertion.
25Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of Parliament?
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Answer: (C) Freedom from attendance as Witness.
Explanation
Parliamentary privileges in India are classified into collective privileges, which belong to the House as a whole, and individual privileges, which are enjoyed by each member personally. Freedom from attendance as a witness is an individual privilege rather than a collective one. According to this immunity, a member of Parliament cannot be compelled to attend as a witness in a court of law when the House is in session. This ensures that a member's primary responsibility toward the legislature is not hindered by judicial proceedings. This privilege is intended to protect the independence of the members and facilitate the smooth functioning of parliamentary business without external interference from the judiciary during session periods.
26Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements and select your answer from the codes given below: i. The Governor does not have the power to appoint the judge of a State High court. ii. He is not a part of the Legislature. iii. He has the power to nominate some members in the Legislative Council. iv. He has no power to dissolve the Vidhan Sabha on his own.
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Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4
Explanation
i: TRUE - HC judges are appointed by President (Art.217), not Governor. ii: FALSE - Governor is part of state legislature under Art.168. iii: TRUE - Governor nominates 1/6th of Legislative Council members (Art.171). iv: TRUE - Governor cannot dissolve Vidhan Sabha on his own; acts on advice of Council of Ministers. True statements: i, iii, iv = option C (1,3,4).
27Polity and Governance
Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution?
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Answer: (D) Capital punishment.
Explanation
Article 21 of the Constitution of India provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of capital punishment in landmark judgments such as Jagmohan Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1973) and Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980). The judiciary maintains that the death penalty does not violate Article 21 because the deprivation of life happens through a rigorous legal process and fair trial, which constitutes the procedure established by law. While the court has expanded the scope of Article 21 to include various substantive rights, capital punishment remains a legally sanctioned exception expressly permitted by the text of the Article itself when prescribed by valid legislation and procedural safeguards.
28Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a feature of a zonal council?
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Answer: (A) It is a constitutional body
Explanation
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies rather than constitutional bodies because they were created by an Act of Parliament, specifically the States Reorganisation Act of 1956. Constitutional bodies are those established directly by the provisions of the Constitution of India, such as the Finance Commission or the Union Public Service Commission. Since the Zonal Councils derive their authority from legislation and are not mentioned in the text of the Constitution, they do not possess constitutional status. These councils were designed to function as advisory platforms to promote interstate cooperation and resolve disputes between states or between the center and states.
29History
Which among the following systems of levying land revenue in Deccan was prevalent during the reign of Akbar?
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Answer: (C) Zabt
Explanation
The Zabt system, also known as the Dahsala system, was the primary land revenue assessment method introduced by Raja Todar Mal during the reign of Akbar. This system was based on the systematic measurement of land and the calculation of revenue based on the average production and market prices of various crops over the preceding ten years. One-third of the average produce was fixed as the state's share, usually collected in cash. As Akbar expanded his empire into the Deccan, incorporating territories such as Berar, Khandesh, and parts of Ahmednagar, the Mughal administration introduced the Zabt system to these provinces to standardize revenue collection and ensure a stable income for the imperial treasury. The system relied on detailed land surveys and the maintenance of local records by officials like the Qanungo and Patwari.
30History
Who among the following foreign travellers visited India during the reign of Jahangir?
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Answer: (B) Francisco Pelsaert
Explanation
Francisco Pelsaert was a Dutch merchant and an officer of the Dutch East India Company (VOC) who arrived in India in 1620. He resided in Agra for seven years until 1627, which corresponds to the latter part of Emperor Jahangir's reign. During his stay, Pelsaert authored a detailed report known as the Remonstrantie, providing a valuable contemporary account of the Mughal Empire's commercial activities, social conditions, and administrative structure. His writings are particularly recognized for their descriptions of the indigo trade and the life of the common people in northern India during the early 17th century.
31Economy
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below the statements: Assertion (A): Generally India had a favourable balance of trade during the British rule. Reason (R): The drain of wealth took the form of unrequited exports.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
India maintained a consistent trade surplus during the British Raj because the value of its exports, comprising raw materials like raw cotton, jute, indigo, and food grains, regularly exceeded the value of imported British manufactured textiles and machinery. This resulted in a favorable balance of trade for India in statistical terms. Simultaneously, the concept of the Drain of Wealth, famously articulated by Dadabhai Naoroji, explains that this surplus did not result in an inflow of wealth or bullion into India. Instead, the surplus was siphoned off to Britain to pay for Home Charges, salaries and pensions of British officials, and interest on foreign debt, effectively making the exports unrequited. While both statements are factually true, the Reason describes the nature and utilization of the trade surplus rather than the cause of why the balance of trade was favorable in the first place. The favorable balance was primarily a result of India's role as a primary producer and the forced commercialization of agriculture under colonial trade policies.
32History
The name 'Aghanya' mentioned in many passages of the Rigveda refers to:
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Answer: (C) Cows
Explanation
In the Rigveda, the term Aghanya literally translates to not to be killed or inviolable. This designation was specifically applied to cows, reflecting their immense economic and social importance in the early Vedic pastoral society. Cows were considered a primary form of wealth and were frequently used as a medium of exchange and as gifts to priests. By labeling the cow as Aghanya, the Vedic texts established a religious and social prohibition against its slaughter, emphasizing its sanctity and its vital role in the sustenance and rituals of the community.
33Art and Culture
In which of the following rock cut caves eleven headed Bodhisattava image is depicted?
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Answer: (C) Kanheri
Explanation
The eleven-headed depiction of the Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara, known as Ekadasamukha, is a unique iconographic feature found in Cave 41 of the Kanheri Caves in Mumbai. This representation is the only one of its kind in Indian rock-cut architecture. The sculpture portrays the deity with ten additional heads stacked in tiers above the central head, symbolizing his ability to look in all directions to witness and alleviate the suffering of all sentient beings. This specific form marks the evolution of Mahayana and early Vajrayana influences within the Buddhist monastic complex at Kanheri, dating approximately to the late 5th or early 6th century CE. While this multi-headed form became highly prominent in East Asian Buddhist art, particularly in China and Japan, its solitary Indian sculptural occurrence is preserved at this site.
34Art and Culture
Consider the following statements:
1. The early chaityagri has and viharas of Guntu phalli in West Godavan district are rock cut.
2. The chaityas and viharas of Eastern deccan are usually rock cut.
Of these statements:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
Explanation
The Guntupalli Buddhist site in the West Godavari district is home to significant early rock-cut monuments, including a rare circular chaitya griha and several viharas carved into sandstone hills during the 2nd century BCE. These structures represent the transition from wood to stone in religious architecture. Throughout the Eastern Deccan, the practice of excavating chaityas and viharas into rock faces was a standard and widespread architectural tradition. This region, encompassing parts of modern-day Andhra Pradesh, saw the development of numerous such rock-cut complexes in its hilly tracts, where the durable nature of carved stone provided permanent and stable environments for Buddhist monastic communities to reside and worship.
35Polity and Governance
A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the constitution empowering Parliament to legislate on a state subject in national interest remains in force for a period.
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Answer: (C) Not exceeding one year
Explanation
Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, it becomes lawful for Parliament to legislate on that subject. According to Article 249(2), such a resolution remains in force for such period, not exceeding one year, as may be specified therein. However, the Rajya Sabha can pass subsequent resolutions to extend this period for further intervals, each not exceeding one year at a time. A law made by Parliament under this provision ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
36History
Which one of the following is not true about the Barabar hill caves?
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Answer: (D) These inscriptions date back to 6^th century BC.
Explanation
The inscriptions found on the Barabar hill caves date back to the Mauryan period in the 3rd century BC, specifically during the reign of Emperor Ashoka, who ruled from approximately 268 to 232 BC. The 6th century BC was the era of the Mahajanapadas and the early lives of Gautama Buddha and Mahavira, which predates the Mauryan dynasty and the systematic development of these rock-cut architectural structures. Ashoka's inscriptions in these caves typically record his regnal years, such as the 12th and 19th years of his consecration, confirming their 3rd century BC origin.
37History
Matsya Mahajanapada of 6^th century B.C. was located in:
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Answer: (B) Rajasthan
Explanation
Matsya Mahajanapada was one of the sixteen great kingdoms (Mahajanapadas) that existed in ancient India during the 6th century B.C. It occupied the territory in the present-day state of Rajasthan, encompassing the modern districts of Jaipur, Alwar, and Bharatpur. The capital of this kingdom was Viratanagara, which is identified with the modern town of Bairat in the Jaipur district. Named after its founder, King Virata, the region is frequently mentioned in the Mahabharata as the place where the Pandavas spent their final year of exile in incognito. Geographically, it was situated to the south of the Kurus and west of the Yamuna River, which served as the boundary between Matsya and the Surasena Mahajanapada.
38History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I:
(A) Gandhar Art
(B) Junagarh Rock inscription
(C) Milinda-panho
(D) Taxila inscriptions
List-II:
1. Menander
2. Patika
3. Kushanas
4. Rudradaman - I
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation
Gandhara Art (A) flourished primarily under the Kushanas (3), who were great patrons of this hybrid school of art that combined Indian Buddhist iconography with Graeco-Roman stylistic elements. The Junagarh (B) Rock Inscription is a significant historical document attributed to the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I (4), describing his achievements and the repair of the Sudarshana Lake. Milinda-panho (C) is a famous Buddhist text recording the philosophical dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander (1) and the monk Nagasena. Taxila (D) is associated with the Patika (2) Rock Inscription, an important epigraphic record of the Indo-Scythian period found in the region of the ancient university city.
39HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who was the last ruler of Jaunpur state?
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Answer: (B) Hussain Shah
Explanation
Hussain Shah Sharqi was the final independent ruler of the Jaunpur Sultanate, reigning from 1458 until the state was annexed. His tenure was defined by a long-standing rivalry with the Lodi Sultanate of Delhi. In 1479, Bahlul Lodi decisively defeated Hussain Shah and captured Jaunpur, forcing the Sharqi ruler to flee to Bihar and eventually to Bengal. With his defeat and the subsequent administrative integration of Jaunpur into the Delhi Sultanate, the Sharqi dynasty came to an end, making Hussain Shah the last sovereign ruler of the state.
40History
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Lord - Third Anglo Cornwallis Maratha War
Explanation
The Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817–1818) took place during the tenure of Lord Hastings (the Marquess of Hastings), who served as the Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823. This conflict led to the formal end of the Maratha Empire and the annexation of their territories by the British East India Company. Lord Cornwallis served as Governor-General during an earlier period, from 1786 to 1793 and briefly again in 1805. His significant military involvement was in the Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790–1792), and he had died over a decade before the Third Anglo-Maratha War commenced.
41Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (Cognizance):
(A) Adinatha
(B) Mallinatha
(C) Parshvanatha
(D) Sambhavnatha
4. Water Jar
List-II (Tirthankara):
1. Bull
2. Horse
3. Snake
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Answer: (A) 1, 4, 3
Explanation
Adinatha is associated with the Bull symbol as the first Tirthankara of the current cosmic era. Mallinatha is uniquely identified by the Water Jar or Kalasha symbol among the twenty-four Tirthankaras. Parshvanatha is represented by the Snake cognizance, often shown as a protective multi-headed cobra canopy. Sambhavnatha is designated with the Horse as his specific iconographic mark according to Jain tradition.
42History
In which of the following years the Jatiya Sarkar was formed in the Midnapur district of Bengal?
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Answer: (D) 1942
Explanation
The Tamralipta Jatiya Sarkar was a parallel government established in the Tamluk subdivision of Midnapur district, Bengal, as a part of the Quit India Movement. It was formally inaugurated on December 17, 1942, following a period of intense revolutionary activity against British rule. Under the leadership of figures like Satish Chandra Samanta, this self-governing body functioned effectively until September 1944. It maintained its own administrative structure, including a police force known as the Vidyut Vahini, a judiciary, and departments for health, education, and revenue, representing one of the most successful instances of local self-rule during the Indian independence movement.
43History
Which of the following trials attracted world-wide publicity and drew sympathetic comments from Albert Einstein, H.G. Wells, Harold Laski and Roosevelt in favour of the convicts?
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Answer: (C) Meerut conspiracy case
Explanation
The Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) involved the arrest and trial of 31 prominent labor leaders and communists, including three British nationals, on charges of conspiring against the British Crown to establish a branch of the Communist International in India. The trial lasted for more than four years and became a cause célèbre for the international labor movement and advocates of civil liberties. The perceived injustice of the British government's crackdown on trade union activities drew widespread condemnation from around the world. Distinguished figures such as Albert Einstein, H.G. Wells, Harold Laski, Romain Rolland, and Franklin D. Roosevelt voiced their support for the convicts, viewing the case as a politically motivated attempt to suppress the rights of workers. This immense global publicity and pressure from international intellectual circles significantly embarrassed the British administration and eventually led to the mitigation of the harsh sentences initially imposed on the defendants.
44History
Who remarked about the East India Company that The Company is an anomaly but it is part of a system where everything is an anomaly ?
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Answer: (B) G.B. Macaulay
Explanation
Lord Macaulay made this observation during his speech in the British House of Commons on July 10, 1833, while debating the Government of India Bill, which became the Charter Act of 1833. He was addressing the peculiar political status of the East India Company, which had transitioned from a private trading corporation into a sovereign governing body over a vast empire. Macaulay argued that while the Company's dual nature as a merchant and a ruler was logically an anomaly, it was a necessary and integrated part of the broader British administrative system in India, which itself was built upon unique historical circumstances and unconventional structures. This speech supported the legislative transition that ended the Company's commercial functions entirely, making it a trustee for the Crown in the administration of India.
45History
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Revolt Year
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Answer: (D) Kol uprising - 1870
Explanation
Pabna Revolt (1873) and Deccan Riots (1875) are correctly matched. Sanyasi Revolt began 1763 (not 1894). Kol Uprising was 1831-32 (not 1870). Both C and D have wrong years; standard UPPSC key marks D (Kol Uprising 1870) as the incorrectly matched pair since the Kol Uprising is well-documented as 1831-32.
46History
Which one of the following social reformers strongly opposed Jury Act of 1826?
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Answer: (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Explanation
Raja Ram Mohan Roy strongly opposed the Jury Act of 1826 because it introduced religious discrimination into the judicial process. The Act stipulated that while Christians could sit on juries for the trial of both Christians and non-Christians, Hindus and Muslims were prohibited from sitting on juries for the trial of Christians. Roy viewed this as a blatant violation of the principle of equality and a systematic degradation of the native population. He organized a protest against this measure and sent a petition to the British Parliament, signed by both Hindus and Muslims, highlighting the unfairness of incorporating religious distinctions into the administration of justice. This protest was one of the earliest examples of constitutional agitation in India aimed at securing civil rights and legal equality.
47History
In which of the following places the Dutch established their trading centres in India?
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
The Dutch East India Company, established in 1602, set up a wide network of trading posts and factories across the Indian subcontinent to trade in spices, cotton, indigo, silk, and saltpetre. Their first factory was established at Machilipatnam in 1605. On the Coromandel Coast, they held Nagappattinam, which eventually became their headquarters in South India. In Bengal, Chinsura was a major Dutch stronghold. Along the western coast, they established influential trading centres at Surat and Bharuch. To access the hinterland markets for textiles and saltpetre, they founded factories in Agra, Ahmedabad, and Patna. Additionally, they expanded their influence on the Malabar Coast by capturing Cochin from the Portuguese in 1663. Every location mentioned in the sets provided served as a Dutch trading centre at various points during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
48History
Who among the following supported the Swaraj Party in Central Legislative Assembly in pre independent India?
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Answer: (A) M.A. Jinnah
Explanation
Following the 1923 elections, the Swaraj Party emerged as the largest opposition group in the Central Legislative Assembly but lacked an outright majority to defeat government measures. To strengthen their position, the Swarajists, led by Motilal Nehru, formed a coalition with the Independent group and some Liberals. M.A. Jinnah, as the leader of the Independents, supported the Swaraj Party in this legislative front, which came to be known as the Nationalist Party. This cooperation was instrumental in securing majorities to outvote the government on critical issues, including the rejection of the 1924 budget and the passage of the resolution demanding a Round Table Conference to discuss constitutional reforms for India. Jinnah played a key role in this unified opposition, helping the Swarajists maintain a strategy of consistent obstruction against the British executive within the assembly.
49History
In which year Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded 'Servants of India Society'?
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Answer: (D) 1905
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra. The society was established with the aim of training national missionaries for the service of India and promoting the true interests of the Indian people through constitutional means. Members committed themselves to a life of poverty and dedicated service, focusing on social reforms, education, and the upliftment of the underprivileged. The organization played a vital role in fostering a spirit of selfless devotion to the country and addressing issues such as sanitation, healthcare, and the removal of untouchability during the Indian independence movement.
50History
Whose army was defeated by the army of Kakatiya rulers in 1303 at Warangal?
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Answer: (C) of Alauddin Khalji
Explanation
In 1303, Sultan Alauddin Khalji dispatched a military expedition to the Kakatiya kingdom under the command of Malik Fakhruddin Juna and Malik Jhaju. This campaign was launched from Bengal while the Sultan was personally engaged in the siege of Chittor. The Khalji army reached the vicinity of Warangal but was decisively defeated by the forces of the Kakatiya ruler, Prataparudra II, at the Battle of Upparapalli. The Sultanate's troops suffered significant casualties and were forced to retreat, marking a notable failure in Alauddin Khalji's early attempts at Deccan expansion. This defeat prompted the Sultan to organize a more robust expedition in 1309 under the leadership of Malik Kafur, which eventually succeeded in extracting tribute from the Kakatiya dynasty.
51Geography
India's deepest port is:
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Answer: (C) Paradip
Explanation
Paradip Port, situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in Odisha, is a premier artificial, deep-water, all-weather port on India's east coast. Among the major ports listed, Paradip is recognized for its significant draft capacity, which reached approximately 17.1 meters by 2017. This depth is maintained through consistent dredging, allowing the port to accommodate large Cape-size vessels and heavy bulk carriers. It serves as a vital hub for the maritime trade of iron ore, coal, and crude oil, leveraging its deep-water approach to handle high-tonnage cargo efficiently.
52Geography
Which amongst the following is the largest glacier?
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Answer: (D) Siachin
Explanation
The Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, just northeast of the point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends. It is the largest glacier in the Karakoram and the second-longest in the world's non-polar areas, stretching approximately 76 kilometers in length. The glacier covers an area of about 700 square kilometers and lies at an altitude ranging from approximately 5,753 meters at its head to 3,620 meters at its terminus. Its massive scale and longitudinal extent make it the most significant glacial system in the Indian subcontinent, serving as the primary source for the Nubra River, which flows into the Shyok River and eventually joins the Indus.
53Geography
Which one of the following states has the lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribes population as percentage of its total population according to Census 2011?
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Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, the Scheduled Tribe population in Uttar Pradesh is approximately 1,134,273, which represents 0.57 percent of the total state population. This constitutes the lowest proportion for the four states. The tribal population is primarily concentrated in specific districts such as Sonbhadra and includes communities like the Gond, Kharwar, and Tharu. Due to the extremely large total population of the state, the demographic share of Scheduled Tribes remains the smallest in this set.
54Geography
Which of the following is not a cold ocean current?
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Answer: (D) Agulhas
Explanation
The Agulhas Current is a prominent warm western boundary current located in the South West Indian Ocean. It flows southward along the east coast of Africa, transporting warm, saline tropical waters from the equatorial regions toward the Southern Ocean. As a western boundary current, it is characterized by its high velocity and significant heat transport, which plays a crucial role in the regional climate of Southern Africa and influences the global thermohaline circulation through the shedding of Agulhas rings into the Atlantic Ocean.
55Geography
Which of the following is not correctly matched? Mountain Pass State
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Answer: (C) Nathu La - Meghalaya
Explanation
Nathu La is a prominent mountain pass located in the Himalayas along the Indo-China border in the state of Sikkim. It sits at an elevation of approximately 4,310 meters and serves as one of the three open trading border posts between India and China, alongside Shipki La and Lipulekh. Meghalaya, while a mountainous state in Northeast India, is part of the Shillong Plateau and comprises the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills, which are distinct from the Himalayan range where Nathu La is situated. Consequently, pairing Nathu La with Meghalaya is geographically inaccurate as the pass is located hundreds of kilometers away in the state of Sikkim.
56Geography
Which of the following cities is known as the oil capital of Europe?
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Answer: (B) Aberdeen
Explanation
Aberdeen earned the title of the oil capital of Europe following the discovery of significant North Sea oil and gas reserves in the 1960s and 1970s. The city's strategic location on the northeast coast of Scotland made it the ideal logistical and administrative base for offshore operations. It became the principal onshore support center for the United Kingdom's energy sector, hosting the headquarters of major international oil companies and a vast network of supply chain and engineering firms. The presence of the busy Aberdeen Harbour and the nearby heliport at Dyce, which is one of the world's busiest for offshore personnel transfers, further solidified its status as the primary hub for the European offshore energy industry.
57Geography
Which of the following groups of countries share border with Israel?
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Answer: (A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Egypt
Explanation
Israel is located in the Levant region of Western Asia, situated on the southeastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea. It shares its land borders with four sovereign states. To the north, it is bordered by Lebanon. To the northeast, it shares a boundary with Syria. To the east, Israel shares its longest land border with Jordan. To the southwest, it is bordered by Egypt along the Sinai Peninsula. Additionally, Israel shares boundaries with the Palestinian territories of the West Bank to the east and the Gaza Strip to the west. These four countries—Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Egypt—are the internationally recognized neighbors that define Israel's immediate terrestrial perimeter.
58Geography
Which one amongst the following is the largest plateau?
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Answer: (C) Colorado
Explanation
The Colorado Plateau is an extensive physiographic province in the Southwestern United States, covering approximately 337,000 square kilometers. It is centered on the Four Corners region, spanning parts of Arizona, Utah, Colorado, and New Mexico. The plateau is characterized by its high elevation and the presence of largely horizontal sedimentary rock layers that have been dramatically carved by the Colorado River and its tributaries. Its total area and geographic scale represent a vast, elevated stable block of the Earth's crust that stands distinct from the surrounding fractured landscapes. Its formation resulted from massive tectonic uplift that raised the entire region as a single structural unit.
59History
Arrange the following events in correct chronological sequence using the code given below: i. Satyagrah against the Rowlatt Act ii. Champaran Satyagraha iii. Kheda Peasant struggle iv. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
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Answer: (A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first major movement in India, focused on the plight of indigo farmers in Bihar under the Tinkathia system. This was followed by the Ahmedabad Mill Strike in February 1918, where Gandhi intervened in a labor dispute between mill owners and workers regarding wages and the plague bonus. Shortly after, the Kheda Peasant Struggle began in March 1918 in Gujarat to support farmers who were unable to pay land revenue due to crop failure. Finally, the Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act was organized in early 1919 as a nationwide protest against the repressive legislation that allowed for detention without trial. This order correctly traces Gandhi's early political activities from 1917 to 1919.
60Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? i. Iduki : Thermal Power Station ii. Sabarigiri : Hydroelectric project iii. Ghatprabha : Irrigation project iv. Ramganga : Multipurpose project
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Answer: (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
The Sabarigiri project is a major hydroelectric venture located in the Pathanamthitta district of Kerala, utilizing the waters of the Pamba and Kakki rivers to generate power. The Ghatprabha project is an important irrigation scheme in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, involving the Hidkal dam across the Ghatprabha river to support agricultural activities in the region. The Ramganga project, situated in Uttarakhand, functions as a multipurpose project that serves several objectives including irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and flood control. While the Idukki project is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in India, it is not a thermal power station, making the remaining three pairs the only correctly matched descriptions in the list.
61Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
List-I:
(A) Dudhsagar
(B) Duduma
(C) Gokak
(D) Jog
List-II (Waterfall):
1. Ghatprabha
2. Machh-kund
3. Sharavati
4. Mandovi
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Answer: (A) 4 2 1 3
Explanation
The Dudhsagar waterfall is located on the Mandovi River in the state of Goa and is known for its milky white appearance. The Duduma waterfall is formed by the Machhkund River and is situated in the Koraput district of Odisha. The Gokak waterfall is created by the Ghatprabha River in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, featuring a horseshoe shape similar to Niagara Falls. The Jog waterfall, also known as Gerosoppa Falls, is one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India and is located on the Sharavati River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka.
62Geography
Which of the following rock systems provides over 90% of the coal of India?
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Answer: (D) Gondwana system
Explanation
The Gondwana rock system is the primary source of coal in India, accounting for approximately 98 percent of the country's total coal reserves and nearly 99 percent of its annual production. These deposits were formed during the Upper Paleozoic era, specifically from the Carboniferous to the Jurassic periods, roughly 250 million years ago. The coal found in this system is mainly of the bituminous variety and is deposited in extensive sedimentary layers within structural troughs. The most significant coalfields of this system are located in the Damodar Valley, the Son Valley, the Mahanadi Valley, and the Godavari and Wardha valleys. Gondwana coal is essential for India's heavy industries and power generation due to its high calorific value compared to younger deposits.
63Economy
Which of the following Iron and Steel plants is not close to raw material area?
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Answer: (D) Salem
Explanation
The Salem Steel Plant, located in Tamil Nadu, is situated far from the primary coking coal and iron ore belt of the Chotanagpur Plateau, where the majority of Indias integrated steel plants are concentrated. While it utilizes magnetite iron ore from the local Kanjamalai hills, the plant lacks immediate access to high-quality metallurgical coal, which must be transported over long distances from the eastern coalfields or imported through ports. Its location was primarily determined by regional development goals and market demand rather than the classic Weberian principle of proximity to bulky raw material sources like coal and hematite iron ore.
64Geography
Red sea is an example of:
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Answer: (C) Axial trough
Explanation
The Red Sea represents a juvenile ocean basin formed by the divergence of the African and Arabian tectonic plates. This plate motion has created a linear rift system where the Earth's crust is being pulled apart. The most prominent geological feature of this rift is the central, linear depression known as an axial trough. This trough is the site of active seafloor spreading, where rising magma from the mantle creates new oceanic crust. The presence of this deep, narrow, and continuous longitudinal depression along the center of the rift is why the Red Sea is classified as an axial trough. It marks the transition from continental rifting to the formation of a new oceanic basin.
65Geography
The Tropic of cancer passes through which of the following states?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
i. Gujarat
ii. Chattisgarh
iii. Uttar Pradesh
iv. Jharkhand
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer is a major circle of latitude located at approximately 23° 26' North of the Equator. In India, this line passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Gujarat represents the westernmost part of this path in India. The line further extends eastward through the central region of Chhattisgarh and continues through the state of Jharkhand. These three states are geographically positioned such that the 23.5° North latitude intersects their territories.
66Geography
Identify the correct west to east sequence of the following Hilly Castes?
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Answer: (C) Garo - Khasi - Jaintia - Naga
Explanation
The geographical distribution of these tribes follows the physical layout of the hills in Northeast India from west to east. The Garo Hills form the westernmost part of the Meghalaya plateau. Moving eastward, the central part of the plateau is occupied by the Khasi Hills, followed by the Jaintia Hills in the easternmost section of Meghalaya. The Naga Hills are located even further east, primarily within the state of Nagaland. This spatial arrangement across the states of Meghalaya and Nagaland defines the west-to-east progression of the Garo, Khasi, Jaintia, and Naga communities.
67Geography
Which of the following canals is used as an inland water way in Southern Germany?
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Answer: (C) Ludwigs Canal
Explanation
The Ludwig Canal, formally known as the Ludwig-Danube-Main Canal, is situated in the state of Bavaria in Southern Germany. Completed in 1846 under the reign of King Ludwig I, it was designed to connect the Danube River at Kelheim with the Main River at Bamberg. By bridging the European watershed, the canal established a continuous inland waterway between the Rhine river basin and the Danube river basin. This strategic route allowed for transport between the North Sea and the Black Sea. While the modern Rhine-Main-Danube Canal eventually superseded it for large-scale commercial shipping, the Ludwig Canal remains a significant historical inland waterway in the southern German landscape.
68Geography
Large coffee plantations in Brazil are called
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Answer: (D) Fazendas
Explanation
Fazendas are extensive plantations in Brazil primarily dedicated to the large-scale cultivation of coffee. These agricultural estates became the backbone of the Brazilian economy during the coffee boom of the nineteenth century, centered largely in the fertile regions of Sao Paulo and Minas Gerais. A typical fazenda functioned as a self-sufficient production unit equipped with specialized infrastructure for processing, including drying floors and machinery to prepare the coffee beans for global export. This plantation system played a critical role in establishing Brazil as the preeminent global supplier of coffee.
69Geography
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Country Capital
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Answer: (D) Maldives - Malabo
Explanation
The capital of the Maldives is Male, which is the most populous city and the administrative center of the archipelagic nation located in the Indian Ocean. Malabo is the capital of Equatorial Guinea, a country situated on the west coast of Central Africa. Malabo is located on the island of Bioko, far removed from the South Asian region where the Maldives is situated.
70Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Area):
(A) Western Ghat
(B) South-east Rajasthan
(C) North-east India
(D) Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
List-II (Shifting cultivation):
1. Dahiya
2. Waltre
3. Jhum
4. Kumari
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Answer: (A) 4 2 3 1
Explanation
Kumari is the traditional name for shifting cultivation practiced in the hilly tracts of the Western Ghats, particularly in parts of Kerala and Karnataka. Waltre, also known as Valra, is the specific term used for slash-and-burn agriculture in the south-eastern region of Rajasthan. Jhum cultivation is the most widely recognized nomenclature for shifting agriculture across North-east India, involving states like Assam, Meghalaya, and Nagaland. Dahiya is the local term used for shifting cultivation in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, where it is traditionally practiced by various tribal communities.
71Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Balco
(B) Hindalco
(C) Indian
(D) Nalco
List-II (Aluminium
(Location):
1. Hirakud
2. Korba
3. Koraput Aluminium Company
4. Renukut
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO) was established as the first public sector aluminium company in India with its primary integrated plant located at Korba in Chhattisgarh. Hindustan Aluminium Corporation Limited (HINDALCO) operates its massive alumina refinery and smelter at Renukut in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh, utilizing power from the Rihand Dam. Indian Aluminium Company (INDAL), which was later acquired by Hindalco, set up a significant smelting facility at Hirakud in Odisha to take advantage of the hydroelectricity generated by the Hirakud Dam. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) is a major public sector enterprise that established its large-scale bauxite mining and alumina refining complex at Damanjodi in the Koraput district of Odisha.
72Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (River):
(A) Khartoum
(B) Brazzaville
(C) Rotterdam
(D) Paris
List-II (City):
1. Zaire
2. Nile
3. Seine
4. Rhine
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Khartoum, the capital of Sudan, is situated at the confluence of the White Nile and the Blue Nile rivers. Brazzaville, the capital of the Republic of the Congo, is located on the north bank of the Zaire River, which is also known as the Congo River. Rotterdam is a major port city in the Netherlands located within the Rhine-Meuse-Scheldt delta, primarily served by the Rhine. Paris, the capital of France, is centrally located along the banks of the Seine River.
73Science and Technology
The stench due to leakage from LPG cylinder is because of:
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Answer: (D) Ethyl mercaptan
Explanation
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is primarily a mixture of propane and butane, both of which are naturally odorless and colorless. For safety purposes, a pungent-smelling chemical compound called ethyl mercaptan (C₂H₅SH), also known as ethanethiol, is added to the gas. This substance has a strong, distinctive stench similar to rotten cabbage or sulfur, which allows people to detect even minute gas leakages easily. Because LPG is highly flammable, the addition of this odorant is a crucial warning mechanism to prevent accidental fires or explosions.
74Science and Technology
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Human body is incapable of digesting cellulose.
Reason (R): Starch degrading enzyme, diastase, is found in human body.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The human digestive system is incapable of digesting cellulose because it lacks the specific enzyme, cellulase, required to hydrolyze the β-1,4-glycosidic linkages that hold the glucose units together in cellulose. Diastase is a general term for enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of starch into maltose, such as salivary and pancreatic amylase, both of which are present in the human body. Although both statements are biologically true, the presence of starch-degrading enzymes does not explain the absence of the specific enzymes needed for cellulose digestion.
75Science and Technology
Which one of the following organs will not feel any pain on being pricked by a needle?
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Answer: (B) Brain
Explanation
The brain is the central processing unit for pain signals transmitted from throughout the body, yet the brain tissue itself lacks nociceptors, which are the sensory receptors responsible for detecting painful stimuli. While the surrounding structures such as the meninges, the scalp, and the blood vessels are highly sensitive to pain, the brain parenchyma does not contain the nerve endings required to register the physical sensation of being pricked. Consequently, a needle can be inserted into the brain tissue without eliciting a pain response from the organ itself, a biological fact that allows neurosurgeons to perform certain intracranial procedures while the patient remains conscious.
76Science and Technology
In which of the following animals hooves are not found?
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Answer: (B) Jackal
Explanation
Jackals belong to the family Canidae, which includes carnivorous mammals such as dogs, wolves, and foxes. These animals possess paws with soft, fleshy pads and non-retractable claws rather than hooves. Hooves are specialized keratinous coverings found at the tips of the digits of ungulate mammals. Jackals use their clawed paws for traction while running, digging, and capturing prey, a biological adaptation distinct from the solid or split hooves used by ungulates for supporting body weight during locomotion on various terrains.
77Science and Technology
The cause of sweet taste in fruits is:
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Answer: (D) Fructose
Explanation
Fructose, often referred to as fruit sugar, is a simple monosaccharide found naturally in many plants. It is chemically classified as a ketohexose with the molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆. Among all naturally occurring carbohydrates, fructose is the sweetest, possessing a sweetness intensity significantly higher than that of both glucose and sucrose. Because it is found in high concentrations in fruits, berries, and honey, it serves as the primary chemical compound responsible for the characteristic sweet taste of these foods. During the ripening process, enzymatic actions often increase the concentration of simple sugars like fructose, which further enhances the fruit's sweetness.
78Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
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Answer: (B) Silk
Explanation
Silk is a natural protein fiber produced by certain insects, most notably the larvae of the silkworm Bombyx mori, to build cocoons. It is classified as a natural polymer because it is primarily composed of the protein fibroin, which consists of long chains of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. These polypeptide chains are organized into a semi-crystalline structure that provides silk with its characteristic strength and lustre. Since it is bio-synthesized within living organisms rather than being chemically synthesized from petroleum-based precursors, it falls into the category of naturally occurring polymers alongside others like cellulose, starch, and DNA.
79Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Hormone Function
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Answer: (D) Gastrin regulation of blood pressure
Explanation
Gastrin is a peptide hormone primarily secreted by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach and the duodenum. Its principal function is the stimulation of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid) secretion from the parietal cells of the stomach, which is essential for the digestion of proteins and the killing of ingested bacteria. Additionally, gastrin stimulates the growth of the gastric mucosa and increases antral muscle contractions. It does not possess a physiological role in the regulation of blood pressure, which is instead governed by systems such as the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and various vasoactive substances like vasopressin and atrial natriuretic peptide.
80Science and Technology
Urea is
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Answer: (A) A nitrogen containing organic compound
Explanation
Urea, chemically represented by the formula CO(NH₂)₂, is a nitrogenous organic compound known as carbamide. It is the diamide of carbonic acid and serves as the primary nitrogenous waste product of protein metabolism in mammals, excreted through urine. In the history of chemistry, urea is highly significant because it was the first organic compound to be synthesized from inorganic starting materials in a laboratory. This synthesis, performed by Friedrich Wöhler in 1828 using ammonium cyanate, provided the first evidence against the vitalism theory, which proposed that organic compounds could only be created by living organisms through a vital force. Because it contains carbon covalently bonded to nitrogen and oxygen, it is classified as organic. It is widely utilized in agriculture as a concentrated nitrogen fertilizer due to its high nitrogen content of approximately 46 percent.
81Geography
Rani Jhansi maritime National Park was founded in:
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Answer: (C) 1996
Explanation
The Rani Jhansi Maritime National Park was established in 1996. Located in the Ritchie's Archipelago within the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, this national park encompasses several islands such as Henry Lawrence Island, John Lawrence Island, and Outram Island. It covers an area of approximately 256 square kilometers and was designated as a protected area to conserve the region's diverse marine life, coral reefs, and mangrove ecosystems. The park provides a vital habitat for endangered species like the dugong, as well as various types of sea turtles and crocodiles.
82Science and Technology
The stones present in the gall bladder affect the digestion of:
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Answer: (B) Fat
Explanation
The gallbladder serves as a storage reservoir for bile, a digestive fluid synthesized by the liver. Bile contains bile salts that are critical for the emulsification of fats in the small intestine. Emulsification is the process of breaking down large lipid globules into smaller droplets, which significantly increases the surface area available for the enzyme pancreatic lipase to chemically digest the fats into fatty acids and glycerol. When stones form in the gallbladder, they can block the cystic duct or the common bile duct, preventing bile from reaching the duodenum. This lack of bile severely impairs the body's ability to mechanically break down and subsequently absorb dietary fats.
83Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a genetic disease?
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Answer: (A) Night blindness
Explanation
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is a condition where the eye is unable to adapt to low-light conditions. It is most commonly caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A (retinol), which is a crucial precursor for the synthesis of rhodopsin. Rhodopsin is a biological pigment found in the rod cells of the retina that is responsible for vision in dim light. Since it is primarily a nutritional deficiency disorder resulting from inadequate dietary intake or poor absorption of Vitamin A, it is classified as a deficiency disease rather than a genetic one. While certain inherited retinal degenerations can cause night-time vision loss, the term night blindness in a general clinical and biological context refers to this treatable nutritional condition.
84Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Vitamin Role
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Answer: (C) Vitamin D antisterility factor
Explanation
Vitamin D is primarily known as the antirachitic factor because it facilitates the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate, ensuring proper mineralization of bone tissue. Its deficiency results in skeletal deformities such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. The term antisterility factor refers to Vitamin E (tocopherol), which plays a crucial role in maintaining reproductive health and preventing oxidative damage to reproductive tissues. Vitamin D does not serve this specific function, making the pairing of Vitamin D with the antisterility role incorrect.
85Science and Technology
Deficiency of Iodine causes:
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Answer: (C) Goitre
Explanation
Iodine is a critical micronutrient required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones are essential for regulating the body's metabolic rate, growth, and development. When dietary intake of iodine is inadequate, the thyroid gland is unable to produce sufficient hormones. In response to low hormone levels, the pituitary gland releases higher amounts of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) to stimulate the thyroid. This chronic overstimulation results in the abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland, a condition clinically known as goitre. Goitre is the most visible manifestation of iodine deficiency disorders and is frequently found in populations living in iodine-deficient geographic regions.
86Science and Technology
Which one of the following organic acids is abundant in grapes, tamarind and banana?
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Answer: (D) Tartaric acid
Explanation
Tartaric acid is a naturally occurring white crystalline organic acid found in many plants, particularly in grapes, tamarind, and bananas. It is a dicarboxylic acid with the chemical formula C₄H₆O₆. In grapes, it is the predominant acid and is crucial for the pH levels and flavor profile of the fruit. Tamarind is one of the richest natural sources of this acid, which provides the fruit with its distinctively sour and tangy taste. It also appears in bananas alongside other organic acids, contributing to the fruit's overall acidity and shelf life. Beyond its natural occurrence, it is widely utilized in the food industry as an acidulant and antioxidant.
87Science and Technology
Which of the following fuels would produce minimum environmental pollution?
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Answer: (A) Hydrogen
Explanation
Hydrogen is considered the cleanest fuel because its combustion primarily produces water vapor (H₂O) as the only byproduct. The chemical reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O releases a high amount of energy per unit mass without the emission of carbon dioxide (CO₂), carbon monoxide (CO), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), or particulate matter. Unlike carbon-based fuels, hydrogen does not contribute to the greenhouse effect or acid rain through its direct combustion products. Its high calorific value and carbon-free nature make it the fuel with the least environmental impact among available energy sources.
88Science and Technology
Which of the following has the largest brain in proportion to its body size?
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Answer: (A) Ant
Explanation
The brain-to-body mass ratio represents the weight of an animal brain as a percentage of its total body weight. According to the biological principle known as Haller's Rule, the relative size of the brain tends to increase as the absolute body size of a species decreases. This occurs because brain mass does not scale linearly with body mass; instead, it follows an allometric power law:
m_brain ∝ m_bodyᵅ
where the exponent α is typically less than 1. Because this exponent is less than 1, smaller organisms maintain a much higher proportion of their mass as brain tissue. Ants exhibit one of the highest ratios known, with the brain constituting approximately 14% to 15% of their total body mass, or a ratio of roughly 1:7. This high neural investment is necessary to manage the complex social communication, colony organization, and navigation required for their survival in a small physical frame.
89Science and Technology
An artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from the earth by using
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Answer: (A) Doppler effect
Explanation
The Doppler effect is the primary principle used for the precise tracking of artificial satellites from Earth. As a satellite moves relative to a ground station, the frequency of the radio signals it transmits is shifted due to their relative motion. This frequency shift, Δf, is determined by the formula Δf = fₛ (v/c) cos θ, where fₛ is the source frequency, v is the satellite's velocity, c is the speed of light, and θ is the angle of the line of sight. By continuously measuring this frequency shift as the satellite passes over the station, ground systems can calculate the satellite's orbital parameters, including its velocity and exact position, with high resolution. This method is the foundation for precise orbit determination systems such as DORIS (Doppler Orbitography and Radiopositioning Integrated by Satellite).
90Economy
Five bulbs each of 100 watt capacity in a tunnel are illuminated continuously for twenty hours. The consumption of electricity will be:
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Answer: (C) Ten units
Explanation
The electrical energy consumption in units is calculated using the formula:
Energy (in units) = (Total Power (in watts) × Time (in hours))/1000
In this scenario, there are five bulbs, each with a capacity of 100 watts. The total power P is calculated as 5 × 100 = 500 watts. The duration of illumination is given as 20 hours.
Substituting these values into the energy equation:
Energy = (500 × 20)/1000
Energy = 10000/1000
Energy = 10 units
One unit of electricity is defined as one kilowatt-hour (kWh), which is the energy consumed by a 1000-watt appliance running for one hour. Since the total consumption here is 10,000 watt-hours, it equals 10 kilowatt-hours.
91Economy
If an unsaturated sugar solution is prepared by mixing 100 grams of sugar with half litre of water, which of the following physical quantities will not change?
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Answer: (D) volume
Explanation
When a solute like sugar is added to a solvent like water to form an unsaturated solution, the sugar molecules break down and occupy the intermolecular spaces present between the water molecules. Because these sugar molecules fit into the existing gaps within the liquid structure of the water rather than displacing the water molecules significantly, the overall volume of the resulting sugar solution remains practically identical to the initial volume of the water used. While the mass of the system increases by the weight of the added sugar and the density increases accordingly, the physical space occupied by the mixture does not undergo a measurable change.
92Science and Technology
A mobile phone charger is
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Answer: (D) A step down transformer
Explanation
A mobile phone charger serves the primary purpose of converting high-voltage alternating current (AC) from a household wall outlet, which is typically 220V or 110V, into a low-voltage direct current (DC) required by the phone's battery, usually around 5V. The internal circuitry of the charger utilizes a step-down transformer to reduce the input voltage to the desired lower level. In modern chargers, this is often part of a Switched Mode Power Supply (SMPS) system where the AC is rectified, switched at high frequencies, and then passed through a compact step-down transformer to provide the safe, low-voltage output necessary for electronic components.
93Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: join us http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs ( edulife -GUIDANCE FOR BPSC.UPSC.PCS AND OTHER EXAM) Solved Paper-1 Exam-2017 475
List-I (Source):
(A) Opium
(B) Hing
(C) Rubber
(D) Quinine
List-II (Product):
1. Bark
2. Root
3. Fruit
4. Stem
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Answer: (B) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
Opium is obtained from the milky latex of the unripe seed capsules of the poppy plant Papaver somniferum, which is botanically the fruit. Hing, also known as Asafoetida, is an oleo-gum-resin extracted from the exudates of the thick tap roots or rhizomes of Ferula species. Natural rubber is harvested as latex through incisions made in the bark of the stem of the Hevea brasiliensis tree. Quinine is a well-known alkaloid used in the treatment of malaria and is extracted directly from the bark of the Cinchona tree.
94Science and Technology
Television viewers using dish antenna to receive satellite signals do not receive signals during rain because:
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Answer: (C) rain droplets disperse the energy of radio waves from their original direction
Explanation
Satellite television communication relies on high-frequency microwave signals, typically in the Ku-band, which have very short wavelengths. When these signals encounter rain, the water droplets—which have a physical size comparable to the wavelength of the radio waves—act as obstacles. These droplets cause the electromagnetic energy to scatter or disperse in multiple directions instead of maintaining a direct line-of-sight path to the dish antenna. This dispersion significantly reduces the power density of the signal reaching the receiver's focal point. While absorption also occurs, the scattering or dispersion of the signal away from the antenna is a primary physical reason for the drop in signal-to-noise ratio that results in a loss of reception.
95Geography
As per 2011 Census which one of the following states has recorded decrease in population?
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Answer: (A) Nagaland
Explanation
Nagaland was the only state in India to record a negative decadal growth rate during the 2001–2011 census period. According to the Census of India 2011, the population of the state decreased from 1,988,636 in 2001 to 1,978,502 in 2011, resulting in a negative growth rate of approximately -0.58 percent. This decline is largely attributed to the correction of inflated population figures reported in the previous 2001 census, as well as more rigorous data collection and verification processes implemented by the Census Commissioner during the 2011 enumeration cycle.
96Economy
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): According to the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1993, there were 16.5 million deaths due to infectious diseases world wide.
Reason (R): Urbanisation without health planning leads to the spread of such diseases.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The World Health Organization reported that infectious and parasitic diseases accounted for approximately 16.5 million deaths in 1993, representing a significant portion of global mortality during that period. This high death toll was driven by the prevalence of diseases such as tuberculosis, malaria, and various diarrheal infections. Urbanization serves as a critical factor in this epidemiological landscape because rapid, unplanned urban growth often results in overcrowding, substandard housing, and a lack of basic infrastructure for clean water and sanitation. These conditions create ideal environments for the rapid transmission of pathogens and the proliferation of disease vectors. Since the late 20th century, the failure to integrate health planning into urban development has been a primary reason for the sustained high impact of infectious diseases on human populations, particularly in developing nations.
97Science and Technology
A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to
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Answer: (B) total internal reflection
Explanation
A diamond exhibits exceptional brilliance because it has a very high refractive index of approximately 2.42. According to the relationship sin C = 1/n, where n is the refractive index, the critical angle C for diamond is remarkably small, about 24.4°. When a diamond is cut with precise mathematical proportions, light entering the stone strikes the internal pavilion facets at angles exceeding this critical angle. This causes the light to undergo multiple total internal reflections before exiting through the top of the diamond. This internal trapping and concentration of light rays result in the intense sparkle and fire associated with the gemstone.
98Polity and Governance
Saksham project approved by Govt. of India is related to
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Answer: (C) A new indirect tax network
Explanation
Project Saksham is a major information technology infrastructure project approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs in September 2016 to support the rollout of the Goods and Services Tax. It involves the modernization and integration of the IT systems of the Central Board of Excise and Customs, now known as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. The project serves as the technological backbone required for the implementation of GST, enabling the seamless exchange of data with the Goods and Services Tax Network. Beyond GST, Saksham facilitates the digital transformation of indirect tax administration, supporting initiatives like the Single Window Interface for Facilitating Trade and the Indian Customs Electronic Commerce Gateway. By upgrading legacy systems to a robust digital environment, the project aims to enhance the ease of doing business and improve the efficiency of tax collection and taxpayer services in India.
99Economy
The specific requirements of the 'start-ups' can be fulfilled through:
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
Start-ups require diverse financial and strategic support across different stages of their lifecycle, which are typically fulfilled by alternative financing mechanisms rather than traditional bank loans. Angel investors are high-net-worth individuals who provide crucial seed capital and mentorship at the nascent stages of a business. Venture capital firms offer larger scales of institutional funding and professional management expertise to help businesses scale during rapid growth phases. Crowdfunding utilizes digital platforms to raise small amounts of capital from a large number of individual contributors, simultaneously serving as a tool for market validation and public engagement. These various sources collectively address the specific requirements of start-ups regarding capital infusion, networking, and industry guidance.
100Economy
SEZ India mobile app has been launched in January 2017 by:
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Explanation
The SEZ India mobile app was launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in January 2017 as part of the government's Digital India initiative. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are governed by the SEZ Act of 2005 and are under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce, which functions under this ministry. The app was designed to enhance the ease of doing business by providing developers and units within these zones with a platform to track their transactions, view status updates on applications, and access information regarding SEZ policies and notifications in real time.
101Economy
Which bank has been established in China by BRICS countries?
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Answer: (C) New Development Bank
Explanation
The New Development Bank (NDB) was established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) following the signing of the Agreement on the New Development Bank during the sixth BRICS summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. Headquartered in Shanghai, China, the bank was created to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging market economies and developing countries. The bank represents a collective effort by these five major emerging economies to create a multilateral financial institution that complements the existing functions of global and regional financial organizations like the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund. K. V. Kamath from India served as the bank's first president, emphasizing its role in fostering cooperative financial development among the member nations.
102Economy
Arrange the following schemes launched by Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: i. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana ii. Atal Pension Yojana iii. Make in India iv. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
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Answer: (A) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)
Explanation
Launch dates: PM Jan Dhan Yojana (28 Aug 2014/iv), Make in India (25 Sep 2014/iii), Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (22 Jan 2015/i), Atal Pension Yojana (9 May 2015/ii). Chronological: iv, iii, i, ii = Option A.
103Polity and Governance
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched under Social Security Act 2008 covers:
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Answer: (C) only unorganized sector workers
Explanation
The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) was launched in 2008 by the Ministry of Labour and Employment under the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008. The scheme was specifically designed to provide health insurance coverage to Below Poverty Line (BPL) households and other categories of workers in the unorganized sector, such as street vendors, beedi workers, domestic workers, and building and other construction workers. It offers a cashless, smart card-based health insurance cover of up to ₹30,000 per annum per family on a floater basis. The focus on the unorganized sector addresses the lack of formal social security and the high out-of-pocket expenditure on healthcare faced by workers who do not have regular employer-employee relationships or structured benefits.
104Economy
The target to reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) during eleventh plan period was kept
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Answer: (B) 28 per 1000 live birth
Explanation
The Eleventh Five-Year Plan (2007–2012) established a set of twenty-seven monitorable targets across various sectors, including health and education. In the health sector, one of the primary objectives was to significantly lower the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) from the baseline level existing at the start of the plan. The specific target set by the Planning Commission was to reduce the IMR to 28 per 1,000 live births by the conclusion of the plan period in 2012. This goal was aligned with broader efforts to improve maternal and child health services, enhance immunization coverage, and promote institutional deliveries across the country.
105EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I (Centre):
(A) Sports goods
(B) Match box
(C) Brassware
(D) Wood
List-II (Industry):
1. Moradabad
2. Saharanpur
3. Meerut
4. Bareilly carving
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Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Meerut is the primary center for the manufacturing of sports goods in Uttar Pradesh, particularly famous for cricket equipment. Bareilly is a significant hub for the matchbox industry and is also well-known for its furniture and zari-zardozi work. Moradabad is internationally recognized as Pital Nagri or the Brass City due to its massive production and export of traditional and modern brassware. Saharanpur is globally renowned for its heritage of wood carving, where skilled artisans create intricate designs on wooden furniture and decorative items.
106Economy
In which year UNO adopted a definition of absolute poverty?
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Answer: (B) 1995
Explanation
The United Nations adopted a formal definition of absolute poverty during the World Summit for Social Development held in Copenhagen in 1995. According to the Copenhagen Declaration, absolute poverty is a condition characterized by severe deprivation of basic human needs, including food, safe drinking water, sanitation facilities, health, shelter, education, and information. This definition was significant because it moved beyond purely income-based measures to include access to essential social services and infrastructure. The 1995 summit resulted in a global commitment to eradicate absolute poverty, acknowledging that it is a multidimensional issue requiring comprehensive policy interventions at both national and international levels.
107Economy
Which among the following is not a parameter for estimating Global Gender Gap Index of World Economic Forum?
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Answer: (D) Leisure
Explanation
Leisure is not one of the four key dimensions used by the World Economic Forum to calculate the Global Gender Gap Index. The index is specifically designed to measure gender-based gaps in access to resources and opportunities across four specific areas: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. Because the index focuses on indicators like labor force participation, literacy, life expectancy, and representation in parliament, recreational or leisure-based metrics are entirely excluded from the methodology.
108Art and Culture
Swadesh Darshan Scheme launched by Government of India does not include development of which of the following tourist circuits?
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Answer: (B) Sufi circuit
Explanation
The Sufi Circuit was not part of the thematic circuits recognized under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme by the Ministry of Tourism in early 2017. Although the scheme aimed to develop theme-based tourism across India, the Sufi theme was formally added as the fifteenth thematic circuit only later in the year 2017. Consequently, it was not included in the list of thirteen circuits that governed the scheme's implementation during its initial phase and the period leading up to mid-2017.
109EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
With effect from 1 April, 2017 the minimum wage for unskilled labour in Uttar Pradesh has been fixed at:
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Answer: (B) ₹7400 per month
Explanation
The Government of Uttar Pradesh, exercising its powers under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, revises the minimum wage rates twice a year based on the Consumer Price Index to mitigate the impact of inflation. For the period starting 1 April 2017 and ending 30 September 2017, the state labor department set the minimum wage for unskilled labor at ₹7,388.93 per month. This figure represents the combination of the basic pay and the Variable Dearness Allowance (VDA) calculated for that specific half-year interval. For administrative and examination purposes in 2017, this mandatory minimum compensation for unskilled workers was rounded and officially cited as ₹7,400 per month.
110Economy
Which one of the following states is ranked economically at the top but lowest on the basis of sex ratio?
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Answer: (D) Haryana
Explanation
Haryana represents a significant socio-economic paradox in India where high economic performance coincides with poor gender indicators. According to the 2011 Census, which was the benchmark data available in 2017, Haryana recorded the lowest sex ratio among all Indian states at 879 females per 1,000 males. In stark contrast, the state consistently ranked among the highest in terms of per capita income and industrial development, largely due to its proximity to the National Capital Region and the presence of major commercial hubs like Gurugram. This situation reflects a deep-seated preference for male children and the prevalence of female foeticide that persisted despite rapid modernization and wealth accumulation in the region.
111Economy
According to the National Family Health Survey 3, private medical sector is the primary source of health care in India for:
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Answer: (C) 70% households in urban areas
Explanation
The National Family Health Survey 3 (NFHS-3), conducted in 2005-06, provides comprehensive data on healthcare seeking behavior in India. The survey results indicated that the private medical sector remains the predominant source of healthcare for the majority of the population. Specifically, the data showed that the private medical sector is the primary source of health care for 70 percent of households in urban areas. This reliance on private providers is often attributed to factors such as the perceived better quality of care, more convenient timings, and the geographical proximity of private clinics compared to public health facilities. Even in rural areas, the private sector accounted for 63 percent of healthcare visits, but the 70 percent figure for urban households highlights the heavy commercialization and preference for private medical services in cities.
112Economy
Which among the following statements are true about 'Urja Ganga' project?
i. It is a gas pipeline project
ii. It was launched in October 2016
iii. It runs from Iran to India
Choose the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) i and ii only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Urja Ganga project is a major gas pipeline initiative launched by the Prime Minister in October 2016 at Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. The project is designed to create a pipeline grid to provide clean energy to the eastern part of India, covering five states: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. Spanning approximately 2,540 kilometers, the pipeline facilitates the supply of piped natural gas (PNG) to households and compressed natural gas (CNG) to the transport sector, while also supporting industrial development and the revival of fertilizer plants in the region. It is a domestic infrastructure project managed by GAIL and is not an international pipeline originating from Iran.
113Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Swachch Safe drinking Bharat water Mission
Explanation
The Swachh Bharat Mission, launched in 2014, is a national campaign aimed at eliminating open defecation and improving solid waste management. Its primary focus is on the construction of individual, cluster, and community toilets to achieve universal sanitation coverage and create Open Defecation Free (ODF) villages and cities. The mission does not have safe drinking water as its core objective; instead, rural and urban water supply initiatives were handled under different programs like the National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP).
114Economy
As per the Economic Survey 2015-16, which one of the following has been constructed as the Chakravyha Challenge of the Indian economy
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Answer: (C) Movement of Indian Economy from socialism with limited entry to marketism without exit
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2015-16 introduced the term Chakravyuha Challenge to describe a fundamental structural weakness in the Indian economy. It refers to the transition of the economy from a socialist model characterized by limited entry (the License Raj) to a market-oriented system that allows entry but lacks a functional exit mechanism. While the 1991 reforms made it significantly easier for new firms to enter the market, legal, political, and institutional barriers continued to prevent inefficient or failing firms from exiting. This inability to exit leads to the misallocation of capital, labor, and land, as resources remain trapped in non-productive firms. The survey highlighted that this lack of exit creates a situation analogous to the mythological Chakravyuha, where the ability to enter is not matched by the ability to leave, resulting in the twin balance sheet problem and suppressed economic growth.
115Economy
Consider the following schemes and arrange these in chronological order of their launching. i. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana ii. Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls Education in India iii. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana iv. Mudra Bank Yojana Select correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these schemes is determined by their respective launch dates during the 2014-2015 period. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (i) was the earliest, launched on August 28, 2014, to provide universal access to banking facilities. This was followed by the Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls Education in India (ii), which was launched on March 9, 2015, to identify and track educational indicators for girls in backward regions. Shortly after, the Mudra Bank Yojana (iv) was launched on April 8, 2015, to provide formal credit to micro and small businesses. Finally, the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (iii) was launched on May 9, 2015, as a government-backed accident insurance scheme. This sequence corresponds to the order (i), (ii), (iv), and then (iii).
116Polity and Governance
Where was the first world summit on social development under the aegis of UNESCO held?
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Answer: (D) Copenhagen
Explanation
The World Summit for Social Development took place in Copenhagen, Denmark, from March 6 to 12, 1995. This historic gathering was organized by the United Nations to address three core issues: the eradication of poverty, the promotion of full employment, and the fostering of social integration. It resulted in the adoption of the Copenhagen Declaration on Social Development and the Programme of Action, which established a new global consensus on placing people at the center of sustainable development. UNESCO played a vital role in the summit's conceptualization and subsequent implementation, emphasizing the importance of education, culture, and communication in achieving social progress and improving the quality of life for all citizens globally.
117Polity and Governance
Which among the following services is not provided under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme?
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Answer: (C) Distribution of freebooks and school dress to the children
Explanation
The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, launched in 1975, is designed to provide a package of six services for the holistic development of children under six years of age, as well as pregnant and lactating mothers. These services include supplementary nutrition, pre-school non-formal education, nutrition and health education, immunization, health check-ups, and referral services. The distribution of free books and school uniforms is not a component of the ICDS framework. Instead, these benefits are provided under formal primary education schemes such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and the Right to Education (RTE) Act, which target children in the 6 to 14 years age group. ICDS focuses on early childhood care and development rather than the logistical requirements of formal schooling.
118History
Which one of the following countries was the winner of FIFA confederations cup 2017?
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Answer: (B) Germany
Explanation
Germany won the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup held in Russia, marking their first title in the history of the competition. In the final match at the Krestovsky Stadium in Saint Petersburg, the German team secured a 1-0 victory to claim the trophy. The decisive goal was scored by Lars Stindl in the 20th minute of the match. Despite participating with a squad largely composed of younger and less experienced players, the reigning world champions at the time remained undefeated throughout the entire tournament. Germany's Julian Draxler was awarded the Golden Ball as the best player of the tournament, while Timo Werner received the Golden Shoe as the top scorer.
119Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding G-20 summits: i. The 12th G-20 summit was held in Germany. ii. The 13th G-20 summit will be held in China. iii. The 14th G-20 summit will be held in Japan. Of the above the correct statements are:
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Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only
Explanation
The 12th G20 summit was hosted by Germany in Hamburg on July 7 and 8, 2017, under the theme Shaping an Interconnected World. The hosting of G20 summits follows a rotating presidency among member nations organized into specific regional groups. While the 11th summit had already been held in Hangzhou, China, in 2016, the 13th summit was scheduled for Buenos Aires, Argentina, in 2018. The 14th G20 summit was officially designated to be held in Osaka, Japan, in 2019. Consequently, the statements identifying Germany as the host of the 12th summit and Japan as the host of the 14th summit are factually accurate according to the G20 rotation schedule as of 2017.
120History
Consider the following statements regarding the performance of Mithali Raj in women's One Day International Cricket: i. She is the first ever to score more than 6000 runs. ii. She scored a century on her debut. iii. She holds the record for scoring 7 consecutive half centuries. iv. She holds the world record for scoring highest number of centuries. Of the above, the correct statements are:
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation
Mithali Raj became the first woman to cross the 6000-run milestone in One Day Internationals during the 2017 ICC Women's World Cup match against Australia, surpassing the previous record held by Charlotte Edwards. Her international career began with a remarkable feat in 1999 when she scored an unbeaten 114 against Ireland on her ODI debut at Milton Keynes. Additionally, in the same year of 2017, she set a world record by scoring seven consecutive half-centuries in ODIs, a streak that began during a series against South Africa and continued into the World Cup. These achievements cemented her status as one of the greatest cricketers in the history of the women's game. During this period, the record for the most centuries in women's ODIs was held by Australia's Meg Lanning, which explains why the fourth statement is excluded from the correct set.
121Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries joined India and USA in the Malabar naval exercise held in July 2017?
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Answer: (A) Japan
Explanation
The Malabar naval exercise began as a bilateral drill between the Indian Navy and the United States Navy in 1992. In 2015, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force became a permanent member of the exercise, transforming it into a trilateral event. The July 2017 edition, which was the 21st iteration of the series, took place in the Bay of Bengal and featured the participation of navies from India, the USA, and Japan. This specific exercise focused on high-end warfighting skills, including carrier strike group operations, maritime patrol and reconnaissance, and surface and anti-submarine warfare, aimed at enhancing interoperability and maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region.
122Economy
What is India's rank in the 2017 Sustainable Development Goal Index?
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Answer: (A) 116th
Explanation
The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) Index and Dashboards Report 2017, released by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung, ranked India 116th out of 157 countries. India received an overall score of 58.1 out of 100. The report assessed the performance of countries toward achieving the 17 Sustainable Development Goals adopted by the United Nations. At the time, the index highlighted that India faced significant challenges in several areas, particularly regarding goals related to ending hunger, improving health and well-being, and ensuring environmental sustainability. This ranking placed India below several of its neighboring countries in the South Asian region during the 2017 assessment period.
123Science and Technology
The first DEMU train of India with solar powered coaches was launched on 14th July, 2017 at:
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Answer: (C) Safdarjung Railway Station
Explanation
India's first solar-powered Diesel Electric Multiple Unit (DEMU) train was inaugurated by the Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu on July 14, 2017, at the Safdarjung Railway Station in New Delhi. This 1600 HP train featured six trailer coaches equipped with solar panels on their roofs to power the internal electrical systems, including lights, fans, and information displays. Developed by the Indian Railways Organization for Alternate Fuels (IROAF), the initiative was designed to reduce diesel consumption by approximately 21,000 litres per coach annually and significantly lower carbon emissions. The train was commissioned to operate on the suburban route between Sarai Rohilla and Farrukh Nagar.
124Science and Technology
Who among the following Indian scientists was awarded the 2017 Dan David prize in 'future' category?
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Answer: (D) Shrinivas Kulkarni
Explanation
Shrinivas Kulkarni, an Indian-born astronomer and professor of astrophysics and planetary science at the California Institute of Technology (Caltech), was awarded the 2017 Dan David Prize in the Future category. The prize, which recognizes outstanding contributions in the fields of science, technology, and culture, focused on the theme of Astronomy for its Future dimension in 2017. Kulkarni was honored for his pioneering work in time-domain astronomy and his leadership of the Palomar Transient Factory (PTF). His research involved using an innovative sky-survey system to identify and study transient celestial phenomena such as supernovae, gamma-ray bursts, and other rapidly changing cosmic events, significantly advancing our understanding of the dynamic universe.
125Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
A Japanese Encephalitis Research Centre is to be set up in:
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Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) established a dedicated regional medical research centre in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh, to focus on Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES). This initiative was launched to address the chronic health crisis in the Purvanchal region, which has historically been the epicenter of JE outbreaks in India. The center was designed to provide specialized diagnostic facilities and conduct epidemiological research to better understand the transmission patterns of the virus and improve preventive strategies in the high-burden districts of the state.
126EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
The foundation of what is being claimed as India's biggest Global skill park was laid in July 2017 in
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Answer: (C) Bhopal
Explanation
The foundation stone for India's largest Global Skill Park was laid in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, in July 2017. This mega-project was established through a partnership between the Government of Madhya Pradesh and the Institute of Technical Education (ITE) Services, Singapore. Spanning approximately 37 acres, the facility was designed to provide international-standard vocational training and enhance the employability of the youth. The park focuses on advanced skill sets in sectors such as precision engineering, mechatronics, and automotive technology, functioning as a premier center for technical education and human resource development in the country.
127Polity and Governance
Who heads the panel on National Education Policy constituted in June 2017 by the Human Resource Development Ministry?
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Answer: (C) K. Kasturiranjan
Explanation
The Ministry of Human Resource Development constituted a committee in June 2017 to prepare the final draft of the National Education Policy. Dr. K. Kasturirangan, an eminent scientist and former chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), was appointed to head this nine-member expert panel. The committee was tasked with creating a comprehensive and futuristic educational framework to replace the existing National Policy on Education from 1986. Under his leadership, the panel focused on addressing challenges related to the quality, equity, and accessibility of education in India. The draft report submitted by the Kasturirangan committee served as the foundational document for the eventually notified National Education Policy 2020.
128Science and Technology
The length of the Dhola-Sadia bridge inaugurated in May 2017 is around
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Answer: (D) 9.15 km
Explanation
The Dhola-Sadia Bridge, officially named the Bhupen Hazarika Setu, spans the Lohit River, a major tributary of the Brahmaputra. Upon its inauguration by the Prime Minister in May 2017, it became the longest bridge in India with a total length of 9.15 kilometers. The bridge connects the village of Dhola in Assam to the town of Sadia in Arunachal Pradesh, reducing travel time between the two regions from several hours by ferry to just around 30 minutes by road. Its construction was strategically significant for improving connectivity in the Northeast and enhancing the movement of Indian defense forces toward the Arunachal Pradesh border.
129Science and Technology
India's first semi-high speed train 'Tejas' will run between:
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Answer: (C) Mumbai and Karmali
Explanation
The Tejas Express is India's first semi-high speed luxury train, officially flagged off on May 22, 2017. The inaugural service was introduced on the route connecting Mumbai Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus to Karmali in Goa. Operated by Indian Railways, the train is designed to reach speeds of up to 200 km/h, although it typically operates at lower speeds due to track conditions on the Konkan Railway line. It was introduced to provide a premium travel experience, featuring advanced amenities such as smoke detection systems, GPS-based passenger information displays, and automatic plug doors. The Mumbai-Karmali route was selected as the first corridor for this service to cater to the significant tourist and commuter demand between Maharashtra and Goa.
130Polity and Governance
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization summit in which India was inducted as a full member was held at:
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Answer: (D) Astana
Explanation
India was formally inducted as a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) during the 17th annual summit of the heads of state held in Astana, Kazakhstan, on June 8-9, 2017. This summit marked the first ever expansion of the organization since its formation in 2001. Alongside India, Pakistan was also admitted as a permanent member, bringing the total number of member states to eight. Prior to this formal induction, India had been an observer state of the grouping since 2005 and had completed the necessary procedural requirements, including the signing of the Memorandum of Obligations, to transition to full membership status at this specific gathering in the Kazakh capital.
131Polity and Governance
The host country of the 9th BRICS summit is:
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
The 9th BRICS summit was hosted by China in the city of Xiamen, Fujian province, from September 3 to 5, 2017. This marked the second time China hosted the event, following the 3rd summit in Sanya in 2011. The summit focused on the theme BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future and resulted in the adoption of the Xiamen Declaration. During this meeting, leaders discussed global economic governance, international security, and the BRICS Plus cooperation model, which aimed to strengthen ties with other emerging markets and developing countries.
132Polity and Governance
Which one of the following cities was ranked the dirtiest by the Urban Development Ministry in a list released in May 2017?
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Answer: (C) Gonda
Explanation
The Swachh Survekshan 2017 was a comprehensive cleanliness survey commissioned by the Ministry of Urban Development to evaluate 434 cities across India. In the results announced in May 2017, Gonda in Uttar Pradesh was ranked at the 434th position, placing it at the bottom of the national ranking. This designation as the dirtiest city was based on poor performance across several parameters, including waste collection efficiency, processing and disposal of solid waste, strategies to end open defecation, and the overall quality of sanitation infrastructure. The survey was part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan initiative to monitor and improve urban hygiene through competitive assessment.
133Art and Culture
Who among the following has been honoured with the 2016 'Saraswati Saman'?
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Answer: (D) Mahabaleshwar Sail
Explanation
Mahabaleshwar Sail, a renowned Konkani writer, was selected for the 26th Saraswati Samman for the year 2016. The award was conferred upon him for his novel titled Hawthan, which explores the lives and challenges of the traditional potter community in Goa as they face the pressures of modernization. Instituted by the K. K. Birla Foundation in 1991, the Saraswati Samman is one of the highest literary recognitions in India, carrying a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize. It honors exceptional literary work written in any of the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and published during the preceding ten years.
134Economy
What has been the theme of the 2017 World Population Day?
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Answer: (D) Family planning: Empowering People, Developing Nations
Explanation
World Population Day is observed annually on July 11 to raise awareness of global population issues. The theme designated for 2017 was Family Planning: Empowering People, Developing Nations. This theme aimed to highlight how access to safe, voluntary family planning is a human right and a critical factor in reducing poverty and achieving sustainable development. The United Nations Population Fund emphasized that investments in family planning lead to economic and other gains that can propel a country toward a more prosperous future by ensuring women can complete their education and participate in the workforce. This initiative focuses on providing individuals with the information and means to decide freely the number and spacing of their children.
135Polity and Governance
According to the World Happiness Report published by the 'U.N. Sustainable Development Solutions Network in 2017, which one of the following is the overall happiest country in the world?
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Answer: (D) Norway
Explanation
Norway was ranked as the happiest country in the world in the World Happiness Report 2017, published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network. Moving up from the fourth position in the 2016 report, Norway achieved the top ranking by scoring exceptionally high on the key variables used to measure well-being. These factors include gross domestic product per capita, healthy life expectancy, social support, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption. The 2017 report highlighted that Norway's success was driven by its strong social foundation and high levels of mutual trust and social capital, which remained resilient even during periods of economic fluctuation.
136Economy
Which among the following is not included in the ten main themes of the Union budget for the financial years 2017-18?
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Answer: (A) Export performance
Explanation
The Union Budget for 2017-18 was centered on the agenda of Transform, Energize and Clean India (TEC India) and specifically identified ten priority themes. These themes were Farmers, Rural Population, Youth, The Poor and the underprivileged, Infrastructure, Financial Sector, Digital Economy, Public Service, Prudent Fiscal Management, and Tax Administration. Export performance was not categorized as one of these ten pillars. The fiscal strategy for that year focused on domestic growth drivers such as rural infrastructure, education for the youth, and strengthening social security for the poor rather than setting a distinct primary theme for exports.
137Polity and Governance
Where was the International Conference for Peace talks between Israel and Palestine held in 2017?
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Answer: (C) Paris
Explanation
The International Conference for Middle East Peace was held in Paris on January 15, 2017. Hosted by the French government, the summit was attended by representatives from approximately 70 countries and international organizations. The primary objective of the gathering was to reaffirm international support for a negotiated two-state solution as the only viable path to lasting peace between Israel and Palestine. The concluding joint declaration called on both parties to abstain from unilateral actions that could prejudice the outcome of final status negotiations and urged a return to direct talks based on pre-1967 borders.
138Science and Technology
Who is the first Indian to win the Australian Open Badminton superseries title in men's singles?
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Answer: (B) K. Srikanth
Explanation
Kidambi Srikanth became the first Indian male shuttler to win the Australian Open Superseries title in June 2017. In the final held in Sydney, he defeated the reigning Olympic champion Chen Long of China in straight games with a score of 21-15, 21-17. This victory was particularly significant as it marked his second consecutive Superseries title win, coming just a week after his triumph at the Indonesia Open. By winning this title, Srikanth established a new milestone for Indian badminton, as no other Indian man had previously won the Australian Open since the tournament was categorized as a Superseries event.
139Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (City):
(A) Forest
(B) Indian
(C) Central Arid
(D) Indian
List-II (Institute):
1. Jodhpur Research Institute
2. New Delhi Grassland and Fodder Research Institute
3. Dehradun Zone Research Institute
4. Jhansi Agricultural Research Institute
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Answer: (B) 3, 4, 1
Explanation
The Forest Research Institute (FRI), one of the oldest and most prestigious institutions of its kind, is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. The Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute (IGFRI) is a premier national institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh. The Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is headquartered in Jodhpur, Rajasthan, and specializes in research related to arid and semi-arid regions. The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), also known as the Pusa Institute, is the leading national institute for agricultural research and education in India and is based in New Delhi.
140Polity and Governance
The web based platform 'Pratibimba' to project government's achievements was launched in March 2017 by the government of:
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Answer: (C) Karnataka
Explanation
The Karnataka government, under Chief Minister Siddaramaiah, launched the Pratibimba dashboard on March 7, 2017. This web-based platform was designed as a tool for good governance to showcase the performance and achievements of the state government. It functioned as a comprehensive performance tracking dashboard that synchronized data from various departments to provide citizens with a transparent view of the progress of government schemes, budgetary allocations, and the status of promises made in the election manifesto. By providing data on developmental works across the state, the platform aimed to enhance transparency and accountability in administration.
141Geography
Which one of the following is the First National Park established in India?
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Answer: (B) Jim Corbett National Park
Explanation
Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it the oldest and first national park in India. Located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, it was primarily created to protect the endangered Bengal tiger. The park was later renamed Ramganga National Park in the early 1950s before being named after the famous conservationist and author Jim Corbett in 1956. It holds the distinction of being the first area to come under the Project Tiger initiative launched in 1973, highlighting its long-standing importance in India biodiversity conservation efforts.
142Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct order of biological organisation ranging from organism to biosphere?
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Answer: (C) Population → Community → Ecosystem → Landscape
Explanation
The hierarchy of biological organization reflects increasing levels of complexity and spatial scale. It begins at the level of the individual organism. A Population comprises a group of individuals belonging to the same species that inhabit a specific geographical area. When multiple populations of different species interact within the same environment, they form a Community. An Ecosystem is a more complex level that includes the biological community plus the physical abiotic factors with which it interacts. A Landscape refers to a heterogeneous geographic area characterized by a mosaic of interacting ecosystems. This logical progression from simpler to more inclusive units defines the standard ecological order leading toward the biosphere.
143Science and Technology
The size of the Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (R.S.P.M) in air is:
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Answer: (D) less than 5μm (microne)
Explanation
Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) refers to the fraction of airborne particles that are small enough to bypass the natural filtration mechanisms of the upper respiratory tract—such as the nose and throat—and penetrate deep into the lungs. In environmental science and public health standards, RSPM is generally defined as particulate matter with an aerodynamic diameter of less than 10μm (PM10). However, the specific fraction that is capable of reaching the gas-exchange or alveolar region of the lower respiratory system is more precisely defined as particles having a diameter of less than 5μm (often specifically 4μm or 2.5μm depending on the specific respiratory model). Particles larger than 5μm are typically deposited in the upper airways and are not considered part of the deeper respirable fraction.
144GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
How many agro climatic zones are found in Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) 9
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh is divided into 9 agro-climatic zones as classified by the Planning Commission and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). This classification is based on variations in soil types, rainfall, temperature, and water resources across the state to optimize agricultural planning. These nine zones are the Bhabhar and Terai Zone, Western Plain Zone, Mid-Western Plain Zone, South-Western Semi-Arid Zone, Central Plain Zone, Bundelkhand Zone, North-Eastern Plain Zone, Eastern Plain Zone, and the Vindhyan Zone. Each zone exhibits distinct environmental characteristics, such as the high humidity and rainfall of the Terai region compared to the plateau topography and water-scarce conditions found in the Bundelkhand and Vindhyan regions. This zoning helps the government implement region-specific agricultural strategies and crop diversification programs suitable for the local ecology.
145Geography
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Climate change is leading to increase in social tension in India.
Reason (R): The frequency and intensity of the extreme weather events will have serious repercussions on food security.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
Explanation
Climate change manifests in India through an increased frequency and intensity of extreme weather events such as droughts, floods, and erratic monsoons. These events directly disrupt agricultural cycles and reduce crop yields, creating significant threats to food security. In a country where a large percentage of the population depends on climate-sensitive sectors for their livelihood, the resulting scarcity of resources and economic instability lead to heightened competition, forced migration, and rural distress. This chain of causality demonstrates that the repercussions on food security are a primary driver behind the rising social tensions and communal friction observed across different regions.