Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world.
Reason (R) : There are more than 950 million internet users in India.
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Answer: (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Explanation
Assertion (A) is false because India has emerged as the worlds largest mobile gaming market in terms of app downloads and total user base, surpassing China and the United States. While India is a global leader in the volume of game installs, it does not occupy the second position in this specific metric. Reason (R) is true as Indias internet penetration has grown exponentially due to the availability of affordable 4G and 5G data plans and low-cost smartphones. Industry projections for 2025 indicate that the total number of internet users in India has crossed the 950 million mark, reflecting the massive digital shift across both urban and rural landscapes.
2History
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki.
Reason (R) : Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was an accomplished writer and poet who composed his autobiography, the Tuzk-e-Babri, in his native language, Chagatai Turki. This work is celebrated for its candid observations and literary quality in the Turkic dialect. However, Turki was never the official language of the Mughal court. Although the Mughals were of Central Asian Turkic descent, they adopted Persian as the language of administration, law, and high culture. This transition to Persian was further solidified during the reign of Akbar, who made it the formal language of the empire to facilitate better governance and integration within the Indian subcontinent. Therefore, the assertion is a historical fact, while the reason provided is incorrect.
3Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I:
(A) Appalachian
(B) Lancashire
(C) Ruhr
(D) Kuzbass
List-II (Coal Field):
1. England
2. Germany
3. Russia
4. United States of America
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
The Appalachian coal region is the primary coal-producing area in the United States of America, stretching across several eastern states such as Pennsylvania, West Virginia, and Kentucky. Lancashire is a historic county in North West England that served as a major center for coal mining and industrial activity during the Industrial Revolution. The Ruhr region is the most significant industrial and coal-mining area in Germany, centered around the Ruhr River valley in the state of North Rhine-Westphalia. Kuzbass, which is an abbreviation for the Kuznetsk Basin, is one of the largest coal mining regions in the world, located in the southwestern part of Siberia in Russia.
4Geography
With reference to 'Ecosystem', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Green plants in terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves.
2. Around 10% of organic matter reaches to the next higher level of consumers.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Green plants in terrestrial ecosystems capture approximately 1% of the total solar energy that falls on their leaves and convert it into chemical energy through photosynthesis. This initial energy capture is relatively low because most incident sunlight is reflected, transmitted, or absorbed as heat. In the subsequent stages of the food chain, Lindeman's 10% Law describes the efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels. This law states that only about 10% of the organic matter produced at one trophic level is converted into biomass at the next higher trophic level. The remaining 90% of the energy is lost primarily as heat during respiration or consumed during the organism's metabolic processes, which limits the total number of sustainable trophic levels in an ecosystem.
5History
Which of the following events took place in the year 1911 ?
1. Partition of Bengal revoked
2. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
3. Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim League
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
During the Delhi Durbar of 1911, King George V announced the revocation of the Partition of Bengal, an administrative change that had been a source of intense nationalist protest since its implementation in 1905. This move was intended to appease Indian sentiments and restore territorial unity to the Bengal province. Simultaneously, the King-Emperor declared the transfer of the capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi. This shift was motivated by Delhi's central location and its historical status as a seat of power, which the British believed would facilitate more effective governance across the subcontinent compared to the coastal city of Calcutta. Both of these major administrative decisions were officially proclaimed and initiated in 1911.
6History
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Poona Pact
2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
4. Second Round Table Conference
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, as an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, which led to the suspension of the first phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. This pact enabled Gandhi to represent the Indian National Congress at the Second Round Table Conference in London, held between September and December 1931. Following the failure of this conference and the subsequent announcement of the Communal Award by Ramsay MacDonald, Mahatma Gandhi entered into the Poona Pact with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on September 24, 1932, to secure reserved seats for the depressed classes within the general electorate. The Civil Disobedience Movement, which had been resumed in early 1932 after Gandhi returned from London, gradually lost momentum and was officially withdrawn in May 1934, marking its final end.
7GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their total area?
1. Bahraich
2. Chandaili
3. Shravasti
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
According to the official data from the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) and the Uttar Pradesh Forest Department, the forest statistics for the districts are evaluated based on both Forest Cover and Recorded Forest Area (RFA).
Chandauli (referred to as Chandaili) has a total geographical area of 2,541 sq km. Its forest cover is approximately 565.33 sq km, which constitutes 22.25% of its total area. Its Recorded Forest Area is even higher at 780 sq km, representing 30.69% of the district's geographical area. In both metrics, Chandauli exceeds the 20% threshold.
Shravasti has a total geographical area of 1,640 sq km. While its forest cover is approximately 285.45 sq km (17.40%), its Recorded Forest Area (RFA) is approximately 341 sq km. This RFA constitutes 20.79% of the total geographical area of the district.
Bahraich has a geographical area of 5,237 sq km. Its forest cover is approximately 628.75 sq km (12.01%), and its Recorded Forest Area is approximately 871 sq km, which accounts for only 16.63% of its total area.
Therefore, among the given options, both Chandauli and Shravasti have more than 20% of their total area classified as forest when considering the official recorded forest area. In terms of forest canopy cover, Chandauli remains the primary district in the list exceeding the 20% limit. These two districts are consistently listed among the top districts in Uttar Pradesh for forest area density alongside Sonbhadra and Mirzapur.
8Economy
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(Coal Producing Area)
1. Maolong - Arunachal Pradesh
2. Raniganj - West Bengal
3. Ramgarh - Jharkhand
4. Talcher - Odisha
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Answer: (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Raniganj is India's oldest coal-producing field, located in the Paschim Bardhaman district of West Bengal. It is part of the Damodar Valley coalfields and produces high-quality coal. Ramgarh is a significant coalfield situated in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand, known for its metallurgical coal deposits. Talcher coalfield is located in the Angul district of Odisha within the Mahanadi Valley and is one of the largest coal reserves in the country, providing fuel for massive thermal power projects. In contrast, Maolong is a coalfield located in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, while the primary coal-producing area in Arunachal Pradesh is the Namchik-Namphuk coalfield.
9Science and Technology
With reference to 'Delhi Government's Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure.
2. The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Delhi government implements the Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme to address the issue of stubble burning and the resulting air pollution. Under this scheme, the government provides the bio-decomposer solution and the spraying services free of cost to farmers across the agricultural lands of Delhi. This microbial liquid helps in decomposing paddy straw in situ, converting it into nutrient-rich manure and enhancing soil fertility. The bio-decomposer technology, originally developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), Pusa, consists of a consortium of seven to eight fungal strains. these fungi produce essential enzymes that break down the complex cellulose and lignin in the crop residue, accelerating the decomposition process so that the field is ready for the next sowing season within 15 to 20 days.
10Polity and Governance
With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India Service.
2. The resolution for creation of new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total members of the house.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Rajya Sabha to initiate the process for creating a new All India Service common to the Union and the States. This can be done if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that such a step is necessary or expedient in the national interest. This exclusive power of the Rajya Sabha reinforces the federal character of the Indian polity, as these services serve both the Centre and the States. Regarding the voting procedure, Article 312 specifically requires the resolution to be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. This specific threshold is different from a majority of the total membership of the House, which is why only the first statement is legally accurate under the constitutional framework.
11Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I (Disciple):
(A) Kabir
(B) Amir
(C) Surdas
(D) Mardana
List-II (Guru):
1. Guru Nanak Dev
2. Swami Ramananda Khusrau
3. Nizamuddin Auliya
4. Vallabhacharya
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Answer: (C) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Kabir was a prominent 15th-century mystic poet and saint of the Bhakti movement who is traditionally regarded as one of the twelve disciples of Swami Ramananda. Amir Khusrau, a renowned scholar and the father of Qawwali, was the most devoted disciple of the Sufi saint Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chisti Silsila. Surdas, the blind poet and singer known for his Sur Sagar, became a disciple of Vallabhacharya after meeting him at Gau Ghat, subsequently becoming a leading figure of the Pushtimarg tradition. Mardana was the first follower and long-time companion of Guru Nanak Dev, the first Sikh Guru, and accompanied him on his spiritual travels across various regions while playing the rabab.
12Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Investment in human capital yields returns in the future.
Reason (R) : Education and health make people more productive.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge, skills, and health embodied in the workforce. Investment in human capital, primarily through education, vocational training, and healthcare, functions similarly to investment in physical capital. These investments enhance an individual's cognitive abilities, technical expertise, and physical stamina, which directly increases their marginal productivity. Higher productivity leads to increased earning potential for the individual and greater economic output for society over the long term. Since the future returns of human capital are a direct consequence of the improved efficiency and output capacity provided by education and health, the reason provided accurately explains why such investments yield future benefits.
13Economy
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Refinery):
(A) Nayara
(B) Manali
(C) Numaligarh
(D) Tatipaka
List-II (State):
1. Assam
2. Gujarat
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Tamil Nadu
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Nayara Energy Limited operates a major private sector refinery at Vadinar in the Devbhumi Dwarka district of Gujarat. The Manali Refinery, managed by Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited, is situated in the state of Tamil Nadu. Numaligarh Refinery Limited is a public sector refinery located in the Golaghat district of Assam. Tatipaka Refinery is a mini-refinery operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. These locations match the refineries as A-2, B-4, C-1, and D-3.
14Economy
Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security ?
1. Availability
2. Accessibility
3. Affordability
4. Accountability
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
The standard framework for food security, established during the 1996 World Food Summit and utilized by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), identifies four essential dimensions: availability, accessibility, affordability, and utilization. Availability relates to the physical supply of food from domestic production or imports. Accessibility refers to the physical and economic reach individuals have to obtain food. Affordability, often integrated into accessibility, ensures that the cost of food is within the financial means of the population. Accountability is a governance and legal principle related to the right to food, but it is not one of the structural pillars used to measure or define the state of food security itself.
15Science and Technology
With reference to 'Silver articles', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air.
2. It happens due to coating of silver sulphide.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Silver articles undergo a chemical reaction when exposed to air containing trace amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) gas. This process, known as tarnishing, results in the formation of a thin layer of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) on the surface of the metal. The reaction is represented by the equation 2Ag + H₂S → Ag₂S + H₂. Since silver sulphide is naturally black, its accumulation causes the silver to lose its metallic brilliance and turn dark over time. This is a classic example of corrosion where the metal reacts with atmospheric pollutants rather than oxygen to form a sulfide coating. Therefore, the observed blackening of silver items is directly attributed to the production of this specific chemical compound.
16Science and Technology
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Mission):
(A) Chandrayaan-3
(B) Aditya L1
(C) INSAT-3DS
(D) RLV-LEX-01
List-II (Date of Launch):
1. 02 September 2023
2. 17 February 2024
3. 14 July 2023
4. 02 April 2023
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Answer: (B) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
Chandrayaan-3 was launched on 14 July 2023 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre to achieve a successful soft landing on the lunar south pole. Aditya L1, India's first dedicated solar mission, was launched on 02 September 2023 to observe the Sun's outermost layers from the L1 point. INSAT-3DS is a meteorological satellite designed for climate monitoring and weather forecasting that was launched on 17 February 2024 using the GSLV-F14 rocket. The RLV-LEX-01 mission, marking the first autonomous landing test of India's Reusable Launch Vehicle, was successfully executed on 02 April 2023 at the Aeronautical Test Range in Karnataka.
17Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (State):
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Bihar
(D) Tamil Nadu
List-II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha):
1. 16
2. 18
3. 19
4. 12
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Maharashtra is allocated 19 seats (3) in the Rajya Sabha, which is the second-highest representation for any state in India. Karnataka is assigned 12 seats (4) in the Council of States according to the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution. Bihar has 16 seats (1) in the Rajya Sabha, tying it with West Bengal for the fourth-largest representation. Tamil Nadu is represented by 18 members (2) in the Upper House, giving it the third-highest total seat count among all states.
18Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Poverty line differs across time and countries.
Reason (R) : The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The poverty line is a relative measure used to identify individuals whose income or consumption levels fall below the minimum threshold required to satisfy basic human needs. Assertion (A) is true because what is considered a necessity varies significantly between developed and developing nations, as well as across different eras. For instance, a person in the United States might require a car and high-speed internet to participate in society, whereas in rural India, the focus might remain on caloric intake and primary shelter. Reason (R) is true and provides the logical basis for the assertion because the physical and social requirements for a dignified life are not static. Variations in climate, cultural expectations, and technological progress mean that the basket of goods and services constituting basic needs changes over time and across regions. Consequently, the poverty line must be adjusted to reflect these changing socio-economic realities to remain an accurate metric for policy and welfare assessment.
19Art and Culture
With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Yuva Puraskar was announced in 23 Indian languages.
2. There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Sahitya Akademi announced the Yuva Puraskar 2025 on 18 June 2025 for 23 writers in 23 recognised Indian languages. The official press release also states that there was no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri that year. Therefore, both statements are correct.
20Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found.
Reason (R) : In Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The Himalayan mountain range exhibits a succession of vegetation belts from the tropical to the tundra region due to the significant variation in climatic conditions associated with increasing altitude. As elevation increases, the mean annual temperature decreases at a rate of approximately 6.5 degrees Celsius per 1000 meters. This change in temperature, along with variations in rainfall and sunlight, directly influences the types of plant life that can survive at different levels. For instance, the foothills are dominated by tropical deciduous forests, which give way to wet temperate forests, then to coniferous forests like pine and deodar, followed by alpine meadows, and eventually mosses and lichens at the highest altitudes. Therefore, the diverse climatic zones created by the altitudinal gradient are the primary reason for the distinct types of natural vegetation found in the Himalayas.
21Geography
With reference to 'Carrying Capacity of Environment', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.
2. Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of environment.
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Answer: (A) Only 2
Explanation
The carrying capacity of an environment represents the maximum population size or level of activity that an ecosystem can sustain indefinitely without degrading its natural resource base. To remain within this capacity, the environment must be able to replenish what is taken and absorb what is discarded. The generation of waste and pollutants must remain within the absorption capacity, also known as the assimilative capacity, of the environment. If waste production exceeds this limit, pollutants accumulate, leading to environmental degradation and the breakdown of ecological functions. Conversely, for resource use to be sustainable, the rate of resource extraction must remain below or equal to the rate of resource regeneration. If extraction stays above the rate of generation, the natural capital is depleted, which violates the fundamental principle of environmental carrying capacity.
22Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?
(Tribe) (Habitat)
1. Bushman - Kalahari Desert
2. Eskimo - Northern Canada
3. Pygmy - Congo Basin
4. Masai - West Africa
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
The Masai are a Nilotic ethnic group inhabiting northern, central, and southern Kenya and northern Tanzania. They are pastoralists known for their presence in the Great Rift Valley and the East African savannas. Therefore, they are indigenous to East Africa, not West Africa. The other tribes are correctly matched to their respective regions: the Bushmen live in the Kalahari Desert of Southern Africa, the Eskimos inhabit the Arctic regions of Northern Canada and Alaska, and the Pygmies reside in the tropical rainforests of the Congo Basin in Central Africa.
23Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched?
1. Part IV A - Fundamental Duties
2. Part VI - The States
3. Part XI - The Municipalities
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Part XI of the Indian Constitution defines the Relations between the Union and the States, encompassing legislative relations under Articles 245 to 255 and administrative relations under Articles 256 to 263. The subject of The Municipalities is instead governed by Part IX A, which was incorporated into the Constitution through the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and contains Articles 243P to 243ZG.
24History
Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Pabna
2. Indigo
3. Kuka
4. Sanyasi
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Answer: (D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Explanation
The Sanyasi Rebellion took place in Bengal from approximately 1763 to 1800, led by sanyasis and fakirs against the British East India Company following the Great Bengal Famine and restrictions on pilgrims. The Indigo Revolt occurred in 1859 and 1860 in Bengal, where peasants led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas refused to grow indigo under the exploitative terms of European planters. The Kuka Movement in Punjab, though founded earlier as a religious reform sect, escalated into a significant anti-British political revolt in 1871 and 1872 under the leadership of Baba Ram Singh. The Pabna Agrarian Leagues, or the Pabna Revolt, emerged later in East Bengal between 1873 and 1876 as peasants organized to resist the illegal rent hikes and land evictions by zamindars. Based on these historical timelines, the correct chronological sequence is 4, 2, 3, then 1.
25History
Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. First Anglo-Mysore War
2. Second Anglo-French War
3. First Anglo-Sikh War
4. First Anglo-Afghan War
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Answer: (A) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
The chronological progression of these conflicts begins with the Second Anglo-French War, also known as the Second Carnatic War, which took place from 1749 to 1754 and involved local dynastic disputes supported by European powers. This was followed by the First Anglo-Mysore War between 1767 and 1769, where Hyder Ali of Mysore challenged the British East India Company. Moving into the nineteenth century, the First Anglo-Afghan War occurred from 1839 to 1842 as part of the Great Game rivalry between the British and Russian Empires. Finally, the First Anglo-Sikh War was fought in 1845 and 1846, leading to the gradual annexation of the Punjab by the British. This sequence establishes the timeline as 1749, 1767, 1839, and 1845.
26Geography
The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries ?
1. Mongolia
2. China
3. Russia
4. Kazakhstan
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Gobi Desert is a vast arid region in East Asia, covering approximately 1.3 million square kilometers. Geographically, it is situated across the southern part of Mongolia and the northern and northwestern provinces of China, including Inner Mongolia, Gansu, and the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. It is a rain shadow desert, formed because the Himalayan mountain range blocks moisture-bearing clouds from the Indian Ocean from reaching the region. While it is bordered by the Altai Mountains to the north, which separate it from the Siberian forests of Russia, and the grasslands of the Mongolian-Manchurian steppe, the desert itself does not extend into the territories of Russia or Kazakhstan. Its landscape is characterized by rocky outcrops and gravel plains rather than traditional sand dunes.
27Science and Technology
Which of the following two are the major constituent of Bio-gas ?
1. Methane
2. Butane
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3
Explanation
Biogas is a renewable energy source produced through the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of organic matter such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, and plant material. The biochemical process involves the breakdown of complex organic compounds by methanogenic bacteria in the absence of oxygen. The primary and most significant components of biogas are methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Methane typically accounts for 50% to 75% of the total volume and is the component responsible for the fuel's caloric value. Carbon dioxide is the second largest constituent, generally comprising 25% to 50% of the mixture. Other gases such as nitrogen, hydrogen, and hydrogen sulfide are present only in trace amounts, making methane and carbon dioxide the two major constituents.
28Polity and Governance
'Adi Karmyogi Beta Version - A Responsive Governance Initiative' was launched by which of the following ministry in June 2025 ?
1. Ministry of AYUSH
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
The Adi Karmyogi initiative is a dedicated program launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs aimed at the capacity building of its workforce and officials. This initiative falls under the broader framework of Mission Karmayogi, the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building, which seeks to transform the Indian bureaucracy into a more professional and responsive entity. The specific focus of Adi Karmyogi is to sensitize and train personnel working in tribal development sectors, including field officers and staff at Eklavya Model Residential Schools, to improve the efficiency and impact of governance in tribal areas. By utilizing digital training modules on the iGOT Karmayogi platform, the ministry aims to ensure that its human resources are better equipped with the skills and mindset necessary for the effective implementation of tribal welfare schemes and the overall upliftment of tribal communities.
29History
Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Ranthambore
2. Jaisalmer
3. Warangal
4. Chittor
Code :
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Answer: (B) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
Alauddin Khalji's military campaigns followed a specific chronological sequence beginning with the consolidation of Northern India followed by southern expeditions. The conquest of Jaisalmer occurred early in his reign, around 1299, during the same period as the Gujarat expedition. This was followed by the siege and capture of the Ranthambore fort in 1301, where Alauddin defeated the Chauhan ruler Hammira Deva. The campaign against Chittor took place in 1303, resulting in the defeat of Rana Ratan Singh. The expedition to Warangal in the Deccan was a later event, occurring in 1309–1310 under the command of Malik Kafur, who forced the Kakatiya ruler Prataparudra to accept Delhi's suzerainty. Therefore, the sequence is Jaisalmer (1299), Ranthambore (1301), Chittor (1303), and Warangal (1309).
30Geography
With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
2. Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lies in boundary of Nepal.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Himalayan region possesses immense hydroelectric potential due to its unique geographical and hydrological features. Perennial rivers fed by glacial melt, combined with the steep vertical drop (high head) and narrow gorges suitable for dam construction, provide the necessary conditions for high-capacity power generation. Major river basins such as the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra contribute significantly to India's total estimated hydropower potential, making Statement 1 accurate.
Statement 2 is incorrect because political boundaries do not prevent the utilization of hydroelectric potential in the modern era. India and Nepal have signed several bilateral treaties and Memorandum of Understandings for the development of multipurpose projects on shared rivers, such as the Mahakali, Gandak, and Kosi. Furthermore, India's integrated National Grid and high-voltage transmission infrastructure allow electricity generated in the Himalayan regions or imported from neighboring countries like Nepal and Bhutan to be distributed to load centers in Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Therefore, these states are actively involved in and benefit from the hydroelectric potential of the Himalayas through regional cooperation and inter-state power transmission.
31GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following districts is/are part of the Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh ?
1. Basti
2. Bahraich
3. Balrampur
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Devipatan Division is one of the eighteen administrative divisions of Uttar Pradesh, with its headquarters located in Gonda. This division comprises four districts: Gonda, Bahraich, Balrampur, and Shravasti. It was named after the prominent Devipatan Shakti Peeth temple situated in Balrampur. Bahraich and Balrampur are both constituent districts of this division. Basti is not part of the Devipatan Division; it is the headquarters of its own division, the Basti Division, which also includes the districts of Siddharthnagar and Sant Kabir Nagar.
32History
Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last.
1. Punjab
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nagaland
4. Sikkim
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Answer: (C) 3, 1, 4, 2
Explanation
Nagaland was created as the 16th state of the Indian Union on 1 December 1963, after being separated from the state of Assam. The modern state of Punjab was reorganized on linguistic lines on 1 November 1966, following the Punjab Reorganisation Act which also led to the creation of Haryana. Sikkim was integrated as the 22nd state of India on 16 May 1975, following the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. Arunachal Pradesh attained full statehood on 20 February 1987, having previously functioned as a Union Territory since 1972. The chronological sequence is Nagaland (1963), Punjab (1966), Sikkim (1975), and Arunachal Pradesh (1987).
33EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
With reference to 'Uttar Pradesh', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country.
2. Government of India has approved for establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at Aligarh.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potatoes in India, consistently accounting for approximately 30 percent of the total national output. According to the data provided by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the state maintains the highest production levels followed by West Bengal and Bihar. Regarding the second statement, the Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the South Asia Regional Centre (SARC) of the International Potato Centre (CIP) at Agra, Uttar Pradesh, not Aligarh. This center is being set up at the campus of the ICAR-Central Potato Research Station in Agra to serve as a research hub for South Asia. Consequently, only the first statement is factually correct.
34Geography
Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Haryana
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Punjab
4. Uttarakhand
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Answer: (D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation
The states of India when arranged in ascending order of their total geographical area are Haryana, Punjab, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh. Haryana has the smallest area among the group, covering approximately 44,212 square kilometers. Punjab follows with an area of about 50,362 square kilometers. Uttarakhand is slightly larger, occupying a land area of roughly 53,483 square kilometers. Himachal Pradesh is the largest of these four states, with a geographical area of approximately 55,673 square kilometers. This specific progression from smallest to largest area aligns with the sequence 1, 3, 4, 2.
35Science and Technology
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire.
Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than copper and aluminium.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
A fuse wire is a critical safety component in an electrical circuit designed to protect appliances from excessive current flow. For a fuse to function effectively, it must be made of a material with high resistivity and a low melting point, ensuring it melts and breaks the circuit through Joule heating (H = I²Rt) before the wiring is damaged. An alloy of lead and tin is typically used because its melting point is approximately 183°C to 230°C. In contrast, the melting points of copper and aluminium are much higher, at approximately 1085°C and 660°C respectively. Therefore, the assertion that a lead-tin alloy is used is true, but the claim that it has a higher melting point than copper or aluminium is factually incorrect.
36Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.
List-I (State):
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Nagaland
(D) Madhya Pradesh
List-II (Highest Peak):
1. Dhupgarh
2. Doddabetta
3. Guru Shikhar
4. Saramati
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Answer: (A) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Tamil Nadu's highest peak is Doddabetta, which stands at 2,637 meters in the Nilgiri Hills of the Western Ghats. Rajasthan features Guru Shikhar as its highest point, reaching an altitude of 1,722 meters in the Mount Abu region of the Aravalli Range. Nagaland's highest peak is Mount Saramati, located in the Naga Hills at an elevation of 3,826 meters near the border with Myanmar. Madhya Pradesh is home to Dhupgarh, the highest point in the state at 1,350 meters, situated in the Mahadeo Hills of the Satpura Range.
37Polity and Governance
Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries?
1. Bangladesh
2. Myanmar
3. Sri Lanka
4. Malaysia
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Answer: (A) Only 2.
Explanation
Operation Brahma was India's humanitarian relief for Myanmar after the March 28, 2025 earthquake (magnitude 7.7). India sent NDRF teams, medical personnel, and relief materials exclusively to Myanmar (2). No other listed country received aid. Correct: Only 2 = Option A. Original key B was incorrect.
38Polity and Governance
With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years.
2. One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.
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Answer: (C) Only 2.
Explanation
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added Part IX-A to the Indian Constitution, provides the framework for Municipalities. According to Article 243V, a person is qualified to be chosen as a member of a Municipality if they have attained the age of 21 years; the 25-year age requirement applicable to the State Legislative Assembly does not apply to local bodies. Furthermore, Article 243T(3) mandates that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality shall be reserved for women. This reservation includes seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, ensuring proportional gender representation in urban local governance.
39History
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Governor General/Viceroy):
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord William Bentinck
(D) Lord Cornwallis
List-II (Important Contribution/Work):
1. Permanent Settlement of Bengal
2. Prohibition of Practice of Sati
3. Partition of Bengal
4. Doctrine of Lapse
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1.
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse, a policy allowing the British to annex any princely state where the ruler died without a direct natural heir. Lord Curzon was responsible for the Partition of Bengal in 1905, which divided the province on communal lines to weaken Indian nationalism. Lord William Bentinck enacted the Sati Regulation of 1829, which officially banned and criminalized the practice of Sati throughout British India. Lord Cornwallis established the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793, a land revenue system that fixed the tax burden and granted proprietary rights to Zamindars.
40History
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Cripps Mission
2. Cabinet Mission
3. Shimla Conference
4. Wavell Plan
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Answer: (A) 1, 4, 3, 2
Explanation
The Cripps Mission arrived in India in March 1942, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, with the aim of securing full Indian cooperation for the British war effort in exchange for a promise of de facto self-government after World War II. The Wavell Plan was announced by the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, on June 14, 1945, as a proposal to break the political deadlock by reconstituting the Governor General Executive Council with a balanced representation of different communities. To discuss the specifics of this plan, the Shimla Conference was convened shortly thereafter, running from June 25 to July 14, 1945, involving representatives from the Congress and the Muslim League. The Cabinet Mission was the final major step in this sequence, reaching India in March 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power and the creation of a Constituent Assembly to frame India's constitution. This establishes the sequence from the earliest in 1942 to the latest in 1946.
41Polity and Governance
With reference to Public Accounts Committee, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha.
2. Public Accounts Committee consists of 15 members from Rajya Sabha.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing parliamentary committee that plays a crucial role in maintaining legislative oversight over government spending. Its primary function is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) regarding the appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Union. After the examination, the committee drafts its recommendations and findings and submits its report to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, who then lays it before the House. In terms of its structure, the committee comprises a total of 22 members. Of these, 15 members are elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 members are elected from the Rajya Sabha. Since the number of members from the Rajya Sabha is 7 rather than 15, the second statement provided is factually incorrect. Therefore, only the first statement regarding the submission of the report to the Lok Sabha holds true.
42Science and Technology
Which of the following gasses is/are lighter than air ?
1. Hydrogen chloride
2. Sulfur dioxide
3. Helium
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The density of a gas at a specific temperature and pressure is directly proportional to its molar mass, as shown by the ideal gas law relationship ρ = PM/RT. To determine if a gas is lighter than air, its molar mass must be compared to the average molar mass of air, which is approximately 28.97 g/mol. Helium (He) has an atomic mass of approximately 4.00 g/mol. Since 4.00 < 28.97, helium is significantly less dense than air. Hydrogen chloride (HCl) has a molar mass of 36.46 g/mol and sulfur dioxide (SO₂) has a molar mass of 64.06 g/mol. Because the molar masses of both hydrogen chloride and sulfur dioxide are greater than 28.97 g/mol, they are heavier than air.
43Geography
With reference to 'Atal Tunnel' which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. This tunnel is the world's longest highway tunnel.
2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.
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Answer: (A) Only 2.
Explanation
The Atal Tunnel is constructed through the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway, passing under the Rohtang Pass. It is located at an altitude of approximately 3,100 meters (10,171 feet). While it is officially recognized as the world's longest highway tunnel at an altitude above 10,000 feet, it is not the longest highway tunnel in the world overall. The record for the longest highway tunnel globally is held by the Lærdal Tunnel in Norway, which is approximately 24.51 kilometers long, whereas the Atal Tunnel has a total length of 9.02 kilometers. Therefore, only the statement regarding its location in the Pir Panjal range is correct.
44Science and Technology
With reference to 'ozone layer', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun.
2. Ozone depletion has been linked to the chlorofluorocarbons.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The ozone layer, primarily located in the stratosphere, serves as a vital protective shield for life on Earth by absorbing approximately 97 to 99 percent of the Sun's high-frequency ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Specifically, it is highly effective at blocking UV-B and UV-C rays, which are harmful to living organisms and can lead to skin cancer, cataracts, and damage to plant life and marine ecosystems.
Ozone depletion is scientifically linked to the presence of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone-depleting substances in the atmosphere. When CFCs reach the stratosphere, they are broken down by intense UV radiation, releasing chlorine atoms. A single chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone (O₃) molecules through a catalytic cycle, where the chlorine reacts with ozone to form chlorine monoxide and oxygen (O₂), thereby thinning the ozone layer and creating what is commonly known as the ozone hole.
45Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council?
1. Bahrain
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Qatar
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union established in 1981. Its membership is comprised of six Arab monarchies located in the Arabian Peninsula: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. While Iran and Iraq are significant regional powers bordering the Persian Gulf, they are not members of the GCC. Iran is a non-Arab nation with a different political structure and historical rivalries with several council members. Iraq, despite being an Arab nation with a coastline on the Gulf, has remained outside the organization due to geopolitical factors and the historical security concerns of the founding monarchies. Participation is strictly limited to the aforementioned six sovereign states.
46Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.
Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access of Justice to socially and economically weaker sections.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) represents a departure from the traditional doctrine of locus standi, allowing any member of the public to seek judicial redress for a legal wrong or injury caused to a person or class of persons who, by reason of poverty or social and economic disability, cannot approach the court themselves. The Rule of Law requires that the law is supreme and that justice is accessible to all citizens regardless of their status. In the Indian context, the Rule of Law would remain an abstract concept if large sections of the population were excluded from the legal system due to their circumstances. By providing effective access to justice for the socially and economically weaker sections, PIL ensures that constitutional and legal rights are enforceable for everyone, thereby making it an essential tool for the practical realization of the Rule of Law.
47Art and Culture
Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas ?
1. Meghaduta
2. Raghuvamsam
3. Shringar Shatak
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Shringar Shatak was composed by the philosopher-poet Bhartrihari, not by Kalidasa. It forms a part of Bhartrihari's famous trilogy of Sanskrit poetry known as the Shatakatraya, or Three Centuries of Verses, alongside Niti Shatak and Vairagya Shatak. While Kalidasa is the celebrated author of the lyric poem Meghaduta and the epic poem Raghuvamsam, the authorship of Shringar Shatak is historically attributed to Bhartrihari, who explored themes of love, worldly wisdom, and renunciation in his works.
48HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.
Reason (R) : Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
The Buland Darwaza, also known as the Gate of Victory, was commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Akbar as the main entrance to the Jama Masjid complex at Fatehpur Sikri. This confirms that Assertion (A) is historically accurate. However, Reason (R) is false because the monument was specifically built to commemorate Akbar's successful military campaign and conquest of Gujarat in 1573. Although the city of Fatehpur Sikri was founded to honor the Sufi saint Sheikh Salim Chishti following the birth of Akbar's son Salim (Jahangir), the construction of this massive triumphal arch was dedicated to his territorial expansion in western India rather than the birth of the prince.
49Geography
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Port):
(A) Paradeep
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Kakinada
(D) Alappuzha
List-II (State):
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Odisha
4. Andhra Pradesh
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Paradeep is a major natural, deep-water port on the East coast of India, situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi river and the Bay of Bengal in Odisha. Tuticorin, officially known as the V.O. Chidambaranar Port, is one of the 13 major ports in India located in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. Kakinada Port is a large deep-water port located on the coast of the East Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh. Alappuzha, also historically known as Alleppey, is a port city located in Kerala, primarily serving as a significant hub for inland water transport and maritime trade in the region.
50Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of the future generations. Reason (R) : Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
The definition of sustainable development provided in the assertion is the globally accepted standard formulated by the Brundtland Commission in its 1987 report, Our Common Future. It emphasizes a progress model that meets present needs while ensuring that the environmental base and resources are not depleted for future generations. The reason is factually incorrect because Agenda 21, which is a comprehensive blueprint for global action on sustainable development, was adopted by world leaders at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, not 1995. Since the assertion accurately describes the principle of sustainability but the reason provides an incorrect historical date for the signing of the associated international agreement, the assertion is true and the reason is false.
51Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Pulitzer Award Category):
(A) Fiction
(B) Music
(C) Biography
(D) Drama
List-II (Awardee 2025):
1. Jason Roberts
2. Branden Jacobs Jenkins
3. Susie Ibarra
4. Percival Everett
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Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
PROPOSED: B
Fiction is matched with Percival Everett (4) for his novel James, which reimagines the narrative of Huckleberry Finn from a new perspective. Music is paired with Susie Ibarra (3) for her innovative composition Rituals of Space. Biography corresponds to Jason Roberts (1) for his detailed biographical work Everywhere for Nothing. Drama is matched with Branden Jacobs-Jenkins (2) for his acclaimed play The Comeuppance.
52Science and Technology
Which of the following enzymes is/are released in stomach for protein digestion?
1. Chymotrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Pepsin
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Protein digestion in the human digestive system begins in the stomach through the action of gastric juice. The gastric glands in the stomach lining secrete the inactive proenzyme pepsinogen. Upon exposure to the acidic environment created by hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen is converted into the active proteolytic enzyme pepsin. Pepsin is specifically adapted to function at a low pH, where it breaks down proteins into smaller peptides like proteoses and peptones. Other proteolytic enzymes, specifically trypsin and chymotrypsin, are synthesized by the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine, where they continue the digestion process in a more alkaline environment.
53Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : India has a Parliamentary system of Government. Reason (R) : In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government at both the Union and State levels, as detailed in Articles 74 and 75 for the Centre and Articles 163 and 164 for the States. The defining feature of this system is that the executive is a part of the legislature and is held accountable to it. Article 75(3) specifically mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This principle of collective responsibility implies that the Ministry remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the popular house of the legislature. Because the essence of a parliamentary government lies in this accountability and the dependence of the executive on the legislature for its tenure, the responsibility of the executive to the legislature serves as the fundamental explanation for India's parliamentary status.
54Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Pass) (State/Union Territory) 1. Lipulekh - Ladakh 2. Nathu La - Sikkim 3. Bomdila - Arunachal Pradesh 4. Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Lipulekh Pass is located in the Pithoragarh district of the state of Uttarakhand, not in the Union Territory of Ladakh. It is a strategic Himalayan pass situated on the border between India and the Tibet region of China, serving as an important gateway for the annual Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. The other mentioned passes are correctly situated in their respective regions: Nathu La is in Sikkim, Bomdila is in Arunachal Pradesh, and Shipki La is in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Therefore, only the first pair is incorrectly matched.
55Polity and Governance
Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution Amendment?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Sovereign
4. Republic
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often referred to as the Mini-Constitution, introduced three new words into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. Before this amendment, the Preamble defined India as a Sovereign Democratic Republic. The inclusion of Socialist and Secular was intended to make the commitment to social welfare and religious neutrality explicit within the constitutional framework. While the terms Sovereign and Republic were part of the original Preamble adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, the terms Socialist and Secular were specifically added during the 1976 revision to reflect the evolving socio-political goals of the Indian state.
56History
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Emperor):
(A) Babur
(B) Humayun
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shah Jahan
List-II (City where Tomb is located):
1. Agra
2. Lahore
3. Delhi
4. Kabul
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was initially buried in Agra but his remains were later moved to the Bagh-e Babur in Kabul according to his final wishes. Humayun tomb is located in Delhi and was commissioned by his widow, Bega Begum, serving as a landmark of early Mughal architecture. Jahangir died while returning from Kashmir and was buried in a magnificent tomb located in Shahdara, Lahore. Shah Jahan was laid to rest beside his wife, Mumtaz Mahal, within the Taj Mahal in Agra.
57Geography
Which of the following Ramsar wetland site is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh?
1. Sarsai Nawar Jheel
2. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary
3. Rudrasagar Lake
4. Sultanpur National Park
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Answer: (B) 3 and 4
Explanation
Rudrasagar Lake is located in the state of Tripura, specifically in the Sipahijala district. It is a natural sedimentation reservoir that serves as a critical habitat for biodiversity and was designated as a Ramsar site in 2005. Sultanpur National Park is situated in the Gurgaon district of Haryana and is a major destination for migratory birds, having received its Ramsar designation in August 2021. Because these two sites are located in Tripura and Haryana rather than Uttar Pradesh, they satisfy the conditions of the question. Sarsai Nawar Jheel and Samaspur Bird Sanctuary are both located within Uttar Pradesh, in the districts of Etawah and Raebareli respectively.
58Economy
Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the following organisation?
1. International Labour Organisation
2. World Bank
3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Global Wage Report is a flagship biennial publication produced by the International Labour Organization (ILO). It provides a comprehensive analysis of global and regional wage trends, covering aspects such as real wage growth, purchasing power, and the impact of economic crises on labor income. The 2024-25 edition of the report focuses on the dynamics between wage growth and inflation, examining how recent global price increases have affected the real value of wages and income distribution. As the specialized United Nations agency dedicated to promoting social justice and internationally recognized human and labor rights, the ILO utilizes this report to provide evidence-based policy guidance for member states to address wage inequality and support sustainable economic growth.
59Economy
The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following?
1. International Monetary Fund
2. World Economic Forum
3. World Bank
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is a semi-annual publication issued by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). This report provides a comprehensive assessment of the global financial system and markets, specifically focusing on identifying systemic risks and vulnerabilities that could threaten international financial stability. Released typically in April and October each year, the GFSR analyzes current market conditions, emerging market financing, and structural issues within the global financial architecture. It is used by policymakers and financial institutions as a critical resource for understanding global financial health and anticipating potential economic disruptions.
60Science and Technology
With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Lichens are very good indicators of pollution.
2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Lichens are composite organisms consisting of a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. They are highly sensitive to atmospheric quality because they lack a waxy cuticle or stomata, meaning they absorb water, nutrients, and gases directly from the air over their entire surface. This physiology makes them particularly vulnerable to toxic pollutants such as sulfur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides, and heavy metals. When air pollution levels rise, lichens accumulate these toxins, which disrupt their chlorophyll and metabolic processes, leading to their decline or death. Therefore, they serve as effective bioindicators; a high diversity of lichens typically indicates clean air, while their absence or the presence of only a few hardy species indicates significant pollution. They do not thrive in contaminated environments and are often the first organisms to disappear from industrial or urban areas.
61Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?
(Day) - (Date)
1. International Ozone Day - 16 September
2. World Environment Day - 5 June
3. World Wildlife Day - 22 March
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on 3 March. This date was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly to celebrate and raise awareness of the world's wild fauna and flora, marking the anniversary of the signing of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973. The date 22 March is instead designated as World Water Day, which focuses on the importance of freshwater and advocates for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. Consequently, the third pair is the only one that is incorrectly matched.
62Geography
With reference to 'Brazil' which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called 'Selvas'.
2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called 'Terra Roxa'.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Amazon basin in Brazil contains the worlds largest tropical equatorial rainforest, which is locally known as the Selvas. These dense evergreen forests are characterized by high annual rainfall, high temperatures, and immense biodiversity. Terra Roxa is a highly fertile, deep, and dark reddish-purple soil found predominantly in the southern and southeastern regions of Brazil. This soil is derived from the decomposition of volcanic basaltic rocks and is rich in iron and organic matter. Its superior nutrient content and moisture retention properties make it exceptionally suitable for agriculture, particularly for the large-scale coffee plantations that have historically driven the Brazilian economy.
63Economy
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Finance Commission):
(A) Eleventh
(B) Twelfth
(C) Thirteenth
(D) Fourteenth
List-II (Chairman):
1. Dr. C. Rangarajan
2. Dr. Y.V. Reddy
3. Prof. A.M. Khusro
4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
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Answer: (A) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to define the fiscal relationship between the Union and the States. The Eleventh Finance Commission, which submitted its reports in 2000, was chaired by the noted economist Prof. A.M. Khusro. The Twelfth Finance Commission was chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan, a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. The Thirteenth Finance Commission was headed by Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar, whose recommendations significantly influenced the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax. The Fourteenth Finance Commission was chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy, former RBI Governor, and is well known for recommending a major increase in the states' share of the divisible pool of taxes from 32 percent to 42 percent. These chairmen match the respective commissions in the sequence 3, 1, 4, and 2.
64Economy
Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty?
1. Illiteracy
2. Safe drinking water
3. Job opportunities
4. Size of the house
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
Social indicators of poverty are metrics used by social scientists to look at poverty beyond just income and consumption levels. According to standard economic frameworks, such as those used by NCERT and the UNDP, social indicators include illiteracy levels, lack of access to healthcare, lack of general resistance due to malnutrition, lack of job opportunities, and lack of access to safe drinking water and sanitation. These indicators reflect a lack of basic human capabilities and social exclusion. Size of the house is categorized as a physical or material indicator of wealth and housing quality rather than a social indicator. It measures the quantity of physical assets or living space, which serves as a proxy for economic status but does not directly measure the social dimensions of deprivation or human development.
65Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Lok Sabha):
(A) 11th Lok Sabha
(B) 12th Lok Sabha
(C) 14th Lok Sabha
(D) 17th Lok Sabha
List-II (Lok Sabha Speaker):
1. Om Birla
2. P.A. Sangma
3. Somnath Chatterjee
4. G.M.C. Balyogi
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Answer: (A) 2 4 3 1
Explanation
P.A. Sangma served as the Speaker of the 11th Lok Sabha from 1996 to 1998, becoming the first Speaker from the opposition and from a tribal community to hold the office. G.M.C. Balyogi was elected to the chair during the 12th Lok Sabha in 1998 and later continued his speakership in the 13th Lok Sabha until his death in 2002. Somnath Chatterjee presided over the 14th Lok Sabha from 2004 to 2009 during the tenure of the first United Progressive Alliance government. Om Birla was unanimously elected as the Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha in June 2019 following the constitution of the house after the general elections.
66History
With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The first Carnatic war ended.
2. Madras was returned to the British.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, signed in 1748, concluded the War of the Austrian Succession in Europe. Because the hostilities between the British and the French in India were a direct extension of this European conflict, the signing of the treaty led to the cessation of the First Carnatic War. One of the key provisions of the treaty regarding overseas territories was the exchange of captured lands. Under these terms, the French returned Madras to the British East India Company, having captured it in 1746. In return, the British restored Louisbourg in North America to France, thereby restoring the territorial status quo that existed before the conflict in the Indian subcontinent.
67Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?
(City) (River)
1. Budapest - Danube
2. Cologne - Rhine
3. New Orleans - Missouri
4. Hyderabad (India) - Paleru
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Answer: (B) Only 3 and 4
Explanation
New Orleans is situated on the banks of the Mississippi River in the United States, not the Missouri River. While the Missouri is a major tributary of the Mississippi, New Orleans is located much further south near the Mississippi River Delta. Hyderabad, India, is located on the banks of the Musi River, which is a tributary of the Krishna River. The Paleru River is a separate tributary of the Krishna that flows through the Khammam and NTR districts but does not pass through the city of Hyderabad.
68Science and Technology
With reference to 'Baking Soda', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It is Sodium hydrogen carbonate.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Baking soda is chemically known as sodium hydrogen carbonate or sodium bicarbonate, represented by the chemical formula NaHCO₃. It is a mild, non-corrosive crystalline base produced through the Solvay process involving sodium chloride, ammonia, and carbon dioxide. Additionally, sodium hydrogen carbonate is a vital component in soda-acid fire extinguishers. In these devices, the compound reacts with an acid, such as sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), to generate a rapid stream of carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas. This CO₂ gas is heavier than oxygen and forms a blanket over the fire, effectively cutting off the oxygen supply and extinguishing the flames. Thus, both its chemical classification and its utility in fire safety are scientifically established facts.
69Geography
Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 ?
1. Central Pollution Control Board
2. Central Water Commission
3. Central Groundwater Board
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) serves as the apex national organization under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for the scientific management and monitoring of groundwater resources. It is specifically mandated to assess both the quality and quantity of groundwater across India through a comprehensive network of thousands of observation wells. The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 is prepared by the CGWB based on its systematic monitoring efforts, where water samples are analyzed for various chemical parameters and the presence of contaminants such as arsenic, fluoride, nitrate, and heavy metals. This specialized focus on the aquifer systems makes the CGWB the primary authority responsible for compiling and publishing detailed data on the chemical status and safety of groundwater to inform national policy and water management strategies.
70Polity and Governance
Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission ?
1. K. T. Shah
2. K. M. Panikkar
3. P. Sitaramaiah
4. H. N. Kunjaru
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Answer: (B) 2 and 4
Explanation
The Fazal Ali Commission, formally known as the States Reorganisation Commission, was constituted by the Indian government in December 1953 to address the growing demand for states based on linguistic lines. The commission comprised three prominent members: Chairman Fazal Ali, K. M. Panikkar, and H. N. Kunzru (H. N. Kunjaru). K. M. Panikkar brought his extensive experience as a diplomat and historian, while H. N. Kunzru contributed his deep understanding of public affairs and administration. Their joint report, submitted in September 1955, recognized the linguistic principle as a primary basis for state reorganization while ensuring that the unity and security of India remained paramount. This report was instrumental in the passage of the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
71Polity and Governance
Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order.
1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
3. Jal Jeevan Mission
4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy
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Answer: (A) 2, 4, 1, 3
Explanation
The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was launched in December 2005 as a massive city-modernization scheme to improve urban infrastructure and service delivery. The National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (NUHHP) was formulated in 2007 to address the growing housing shortage and promote sustainable habitat development in urban areas. The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in June 2015 to ensure that every household has access to a tap with a secured supply of water and a sewerage connection. The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was announced in August 2019 with the objective of providing Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household. Based on these launch dates, the correct chronological sequence is 2, 4, 1, 3.
72Science and Technology
With reference to 'earthworms', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Earthworms improves soil fertility and are known as farmer's friends.
2. Earthworm has two pair of hearts.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Earthworms are referred to as the farmer's friend because they play a vital role in maintaining and improving soil health. Through their burrowing activity, they loosen the soil, which improves aeration and allows water to reach plant roots more efficiently. Furthermore, earthworms consume organic matter and excrete nutrient-rich waste known as castings. These castings act as a natural fertilizer, increasing the concentration of essential minerals like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium in the soil.
From an anatomical perspective, earthworms have a closed circulatory system that utilizes multiple pairs of aortic arches, often called pseudohearts, to pump blood. In common species such as Lumbricus terrestris, there are five pairs of these aortic arches located in segments 7 through 11. Even in other common species like Pheretima, there are typically four pairs of hearts located in segments 7, 9, 12, and 13. Consequently, the assertion that an earthworm has only two pairs of hearts is incorrect.
73Art and Culture
Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Nanak
2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
3. Namdev
4. Kabir
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation
Namdev (1270–1350) was a prominent saint from Maharashtra belonging to the Varkari tradition, making him the earliest among the group. Kabir (1398–1518) was a mystic poet-saint of the Bhakti movement who lived primarily during the 15th century. Guru Nanak (1469–1539), the founder of Sikhism, was born in the latter half of the 15th century. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534), who initiated the Gaudiya Vaishnavism movement in Bengal, was the youngest of the four, born nearly two decades after Guru Nanak. This timeline establishes the chronological sequence as Namdev, Kabir, Nanak, and Chaitanya.
74Geography
Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current ?
1. Agulhas current
2. Brazil current
3. Humboldt current
4. California current
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Agulhas current is a powerful warm western boundary current that flows southward along the southeast coast of Africa in the Indian Ocean, carrying warm tropical water from the equatorial regions toward the Southern Ocean. Similarly, the Brazil current is a warm western boundary current in the South Atlantic Ocean that flows southward along the coast of Brazil, originating from the South Equatorial Current. Both currents are characterized by high temperatures and salinities as they transport heat from the tropics toward the poles. Since they originate in low latitudes and move toward higher latitudes, they are classified as warm currents rather than cold currents.
75Economy
With reference to 'Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It was developed and introduced in 2010.
2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report as a replacement for the Human Poverty Index to provide a more comprehensive picture of poverty. The MPI captures overlapping deprivations at the household level across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living, using ten specific indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, and access to basic services. It does not use the income-based measure of living on less than one dollar per day, which is a monetary poverty metric established by the World Bank to track extreme poverty based strictly on consumption or income levels.
76Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?
(Acid) (Acid found in)
1. Lactic acid - Curd
2. Tartaric acid - Grapes
3. Acetic acid - Potato
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Acetic acid, or ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH), is the defining component of vinegar and is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria. It is not found in potatoes. Potatoes contain other organic acids, predominantly citric acid and malic acid, as well as phenolic acids like chlorogenic acid. Because acetic acid is not a constituent of potatoes, the third pair is incorrectly matched.
77Geography
With reference to the 'Indian Ocean', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It was called by the Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea.
2. It is spread on the either side of equator.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The ancient Greeks referred to the Indian Ocean and its adjacent gulfs as the Erythraean Sea. This nomenclature is prominently featured in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, a Greco-Roman periplus written in the 1st century CE that describes navigation and trading opportunities from Roman Egyptian ports along the coast of the Red Sea, Northeast Africa, and Western India. Geographically, the Indian Ocean is positioned in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. The equator passes through the northern part of the ocean, south of the Indian subcontinent and through the Maldives and Indonesia, ensuring the ocean is spread on either side of the equatorial line.
78History
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Battle of Kannauj
2. Battle of Daurah
3. Battle of Samugarh
4. Battle of Chausa
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Answer: (D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Explanation
The Battle of Daurah took place in 1532 between the Mughal Emperor Humayun and the Afghan forces led by Mahmud Lodi, resulting in a victory for Humayun. The Battle of Chausa occurred in June 1539, where Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun, significantly weakening Mughal authority. This was followed by the Battle of Kannauj in May 1540, also known as the Battle of Bilgram, which resulted in a decisive victory for Sher Shah Suri and forced Humayun into exile for fifteen years. Finally, the Battle of Samugarh was fought in May 1658 during the Mughal war of succession, where Aurangzeb defeated his brother Dara Shikoh to effectively secure the throne.
79Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with reference to 'blood' is/are correct ?
1. Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells.
2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Blood is a specialized fluid connective tissue essential for the transport of nutrients, gases, and waste products throughout the body. It is composed of a liquid matrix known as plasma and various cellular components called formed elements. Plasma makes up about 55 percent of the total blood volume and consists primarily of water, proteins, and electrolytes. The remaining 45 percent consists of formed elements, which include erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets (thrombocytes). Erythrocytes contain a complex iron-rich protein called haemoglobin. This protein has a high affinity for oxygen and is responsible for its transport from the respiratory organs to the rest of the body. The specific chemical structure of haemoglobin, particularly when it is oxygenated, reflects red light, which gives blood its characteristic red color.
80Art and Culture
Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of the five member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?
1. Natasha Brown
2. Kiran Desai
3. Nilanjana S. Roy
4. Rajni Chauhan
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Nilanjana S. Roy is a prominent Indian novelist and journalist who has been appointed to the five-member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize. Roy is widely recognized for her extensive work as a literary critic and columnist for international publications such as the Financial Times, as well as for her fictional works including the award-winning novel The Wildings. Her role on the jury panel, which is chaired by Canadian author Madeleine Thien, reflects her deep engagement with global literature and her status as a key figure in the Indian literary landscape. She represents the specific combination of journalistic expertise and creative writing experience required for evaluating international translated fiction.
81Polity and Governance
Match
List-I (Committee):
(A) Union Constitution Committee
(B) Rules of Procedure Committee
(C) Drafting Committee
(D) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
List-II (Chairman):
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
The Union Constitution Committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru to formulate the framework and powers of the central government. The Rules of Procedure Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who, as the President of the Constituent Assembly, regulated the assembly's internal conduct and legislative processes. The Drafting Committee was led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, serving as the primary body responsible for scrutinizing and finalizing the legal text of the Constitution. The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas was chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to define civil liberties and protections for various social groups.
82Economy
Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
2. Development of women and children in Rural Areas
3. Integrated Rural Development Programme
4. National Rural Employment Programme
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 2, 1
Explanation
The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was introduced in 1978-79 and expanded to cover all blocks in India by October 1980. The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched in October 1980 to replace the Food for Work Programme and create sustainable rural infrastructure. The Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) was started in 1982 as a sub-scheme of the IRDP to focus on the self-employment of women in rural households. The Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) was launched in April 1989 by merging the NREP and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) to streamline rural employment generation. These dates establish the chronological sequence as 3, 4, 2, and 1.
83GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh ?
1. Lalitpur
2. Saharanpur
3. Sonbhadra
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Lalitpur is a district in the Bundelkhand region that is almost entirely surrounded by the state of Madhya Pradesh on its western, southern, and eastern sides. It is geographically connected to the rest of Uttar Pradesh only through its northern boundary with the Jhansi district, which makes Jhansi the sole district within the state that it borders. Saharanpur shares its internal state boundaries with two districts, Shamli and Muzaffarnagar, while also bordering the states of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. Sonbhadra shares its internal borders with the districts of Mirzapur and Chandauli, in addition to being the only district in India that shares boundaries with four different states. Therefore, among the districts listed, only Lalitpur fulfills the condition of bordering exactly one other district of Uttar Pradesh.
84Polity and Governance
With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years.
2. In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Article 243E of the Constitution of India, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, stipulates that every Panchayat shall continue for a term of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. This establishes a uniform five-year tenure for Panchayati Raj Institutions across the country. In contrast, the constitutional provisions regarding reservation for women, specifically under Article 243D, mandate that not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes must be reserved for women of those respective categories. Additionally, at least one-third of the total number of seats in a Panchayat to be filled by direct election are reserved for women. The claim of one-fourth reservation for women within the reserved categories is inconsistent with these constitutional requirements.
85Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Writer):
(A) Trivikram Bhatta
(B) Somdev
(C) Jaidev
(D) Kshemendra
List-II (Book):
1. Gita Govinda
2. Brihadkathamanjari
3. Nal Champu
4. Katha Sarit Sagar
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Trivikram Bhatta, a 10th-century poet in the court of the Rashtrakuta King Indra III, is the author of Nal Champu, which is the earliest available work in the Champu genre of Sanskrit literature characterized by a mixture of prose and poetry.
Somdev, an 11th-century Kashmiri poet, composed the Katha Sarit Sagar, a massive collection of Indian legends, fairy tales, and folk tales based on Gunadhya's Brihadkatha.
Jaidev, a 12th-century poet in the court of King Lakshmana Sena of Bengal, wrote the Gita Govinda, a celebrated lyrical work that describes the relationship between Krishna, Radha, and the gopis.
Kshemendra, a prolific 11th-century Kashmiri scholar and polymath, authored the Brihadkathamanjari, which is a concise Sanskrit verse summary of the original Brihadkatha.
86HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh ?
1. Mandi
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Hulas
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation
Mandi is a Late Harappan site located in the Muzaffarnagar district of Uttar Pradesh. It gained significant archaeological attention following the discovery of a large hoard of ancient jewelry and gold artifacts, which provided insights into the material culture and craftsmanship of the Late Harappan phase in the region. Hulas is situated in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh and serves as another vital Late Harappan settlement. Excavations at Hulas have revealed evidence of early farming practices, including the remains of various cultivated crops, and help define the eastern extent of the Indus Valley Civilization's influence within the upper Ganga-Yamuna Doab. Both sites represent the transition and expansion of Harappan cultural traits into the fertile plains of present-day Uttar Pradesh.
87Geography
Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order.
1. Oceans
2. Rivers
3. Polar ice and Glaciers
4. Ground water
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Answer: (A) 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation
The global distribution of water is overwhelmingly dominated by the oceans, which contain approximately 97.2 percent of the total water supply. The remaining 2.8 percent is freshwater, the largest portion of which is locked in polar ice caps and glaciers, accounting for about 2.1 percent of the Earth's total water. Groundwater represents the next most significant reservoir, holding roughly 0.61 percent of the global supply. In contrast, surface water found in rivers and streams constitutes a very small fraction, estimated at only about 0.0001 percent. Following this quantitative hierarchy, the descending order of these sources is oceans, polar ice and glaciers, ground water, and rivers.
88Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimate Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
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Answer: (B) All 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Parliament of India constitutes three specific standing committees known as Financial Committees to ensure executive accountability in matters of public finance. The Public Accounts Committee, the oldest of these, examines the appropriation and finance accounts of the Union Government and the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. The Estimates Committee is tasked with examining the budget estimates presented by the government to suggest economies in public expenditure and improvements in administrative efficiency. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of public sector enterprises and assesses whether their affairs are being managed in accordance with sound business principles. Collectively, these three committees perform the critical role of parliamentary oversight over the national exchequer and the financial performance of the executive branch.
89Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.
List-I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary):
(A) Dachigam
(B) Keoladeo
(C) Kanha
(D) Periyar
List-II (State/Union Territory):
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Rajasthan
3. Kerala
4. Jammu and Kashmir
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Answer: (D) 4 2 1 3
Explanation
Dachigam National Park is located in the Zabarwan Range of the Western Himalayas in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and is well-known for protecting the endangered Hangul or Kashmir Stag. Keoladeo National Park, formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is a famous avifauna sanctuary located in Rajasthan and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Kanha National Park is situated in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh and is celebrated for its successful conservation of the Barasingha or swamp deer. Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the mountainous Western Ghats of Kerala and serves as a major protected area for both wild elephants and tigers.
90Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the 'Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Co-operation (BIMSTEC)'?
1. Thailand
2. Nepal
3. Bhutan
4. Indonesia
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
BIMSTEC is a regional organization comprising seven Member States situated in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. The member nations are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Indonesia is a member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), but it has never been part of the BIMSTEC initiative. Thailand was one of the founding members of the group in 1997, while the Himalayan nations of Nepal and Bhutan joined the organization in February 2004 during the sixth Ministerial Meeting.
91Geography
Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched ?
(Dam) (River)
1. Baglihar Dam - Chenab
2. Pandoh Dam - Ravi
3. Srisailam Dam - Tungabhadra
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Pandoh Dam is an embankment dam constructed on the Beas River in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh, serving primarily to divert Beas water to the Satluj River via the Beas-Sutlej Link project. The Srisailam Dam is a major hydroelectric project built across the Krishna River in the Kurnool and Nagarkurnool districts, bordering Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Conversely, the Baglihar Dam is correctly situated on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir. Thus, the second and third pairs are the ones that are not correctly matched with their respective rivers.
92Geography
With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It was initiated in 2019.
2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.
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Answer: (A) Only 2
Explanation
The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI) was launched by the Government of India in the Union Budget 2023-24 to enhance the country mangrove cover. The core objective of the scheme is the restoration and conservation of mangrove forests along the Indian coastline and on salt pan lands. These ecosystems act as vital natural barriers against storm surges, cyclones, and coastal erosion while functioning as efficient carbon sinks. The initiative employs a convergence model, integrating funds from the MGNREGS, the CAMPA Fund, and other sources to ensure intensive plantation and long-term maintenance of mangrove habitats. By restoring these forests, the program aims to protect coastal biodiversity and create tangible income opportunities for local communities through sustainable ecological management.
93Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Himalayas form source of several large perennial rivers.
Reason (R) : The higher ranges of Himalayas are snow covered throughout the year.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The Himalayan mountains house extensive glaciers and permanent snowfields in their higher reaches, such as the Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers. These snow-covered peaks act as a natural reservoir. During the summer months, when rainfall is scarce, the gradual melting of this snow and ice provides a continuous supply of water to rivers like the Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra. This glacial meltwater, combined with seasonal monsoon rainfall, ensures that these rivers maintain a flow throughout the year, characterizing them as perennial rivers. Therefore, the year-round presence of snow in the higher altitudes is the fundamental reason for the perennial nature of the major Himalayan river systems.
94History
Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs.
Reason (R) : The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
The land system during the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal era was categorized into two primary divisions. Khalisa (or Khalsa) land referred to the crown lands that were under the direct administrative and financial control of the Sultan or the State. The revenue generated from Khalisa lands was deposited directly into the central treasury to meet the expenses of the royal household and the central army. In contrast, Jagirs (or Iqtas) were land revenue assignments granted to officials, nobles, or military commanders in lieu of cash salaries or for the maintenance of troops. These assigned lands were managed by the assignees (Jagirdars) who collected the revenue for their own use according to the terms of the grant, rather than being under the direct fiscal control of the state administration. Since Jagirs represented the decentralized or assigned portion of the territory, the assertion regarding the division is accurate, while the claim that Jagirs were under direct state control is historically incorrect.
95Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Padmavibhushan Field 2025):
(A) Trade and Industry
(B) Literature and Education
(C) Medicine
(D) Art
List-II (Awardee 2025):
1. Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam
2. Shri Osamu Suzuki
3. Shri M.T. Vasudevan Nair
4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Trade and Industry corresponds to Shri Osamu Suzuki, the Chairman Emeritus of Suzuki Motor Corporation, who was honored for his decades of leadership in the Indian automotive sector and for fostering strong economic partnerships between Japan and India. Literature and Education corresponds to Shri M.T. Vasudevan Nair, a prolific Malayalam novelist, screenwriter, and Jnanpith Award winner, recognized for his profound influence on Indian literary traditions. Medicine corresponds to Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy, a world-renowned gastroenterologist and founder of the Asian Institute of Gastroenterology, who is celebrated for his pioneering work in therapeutic endoscopy. Art corresponds to Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam, an iconic violinist and composer whose mastery of Carnatic music and contributions to global fusion have earned him international acclaim.
96Art and Culture
Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)?
1. Rajasthan
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
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Answer: (B) Only 3.
Explanation
The Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 at Devprayag in Uttarakhand, at the sacred confluence (sangam) of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers where the Ganga is formed. This Pushkar Kumbh follows a 12-year cycle linked to the entry of Jupiter (Brihaspati) into specific zodiac signs, and in 2025 the associated astrological configuration made Devprayag the designated site. Devotees gathered for ritual bathing at the Devprayag sangam along with religious ceremonies on the ghats. Hence only statement 3 (Uttarakhand) is correct; the event was not held in Rajasthan or Uttar Pradesh.
97Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Dolphins and Whales breathe through blowholes.
2. Earthworm breathe through their skin.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Dolphins and whales are aquatic mammals that breathe atmospheric air using lungs. They possess blowholes located on the top of their heads, which function as nostrils to facilitate breathing when they surface. Earthworms breathe through their skin, which is kept moist by mucus and fluid. This moisture allows oxygen to dissolve and diffuse directly into the blood vessels beneath the skin, while carbon dioxide diffuses out of the body in the same way.
98Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them. Reason (R) : The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of 'Unity in Diversity'. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
National integration is a complex, multi-dimensional process that aims to foster a sense of territorial loyalty and a shared national identity among diverse groups. It encompasses political integration through common citizenship, economic integration by removing regional disparities, and social-cultural integration by promoting tolerance. Psychologically, it involves the development of a feeling of oneness that transcends narrow loyalties to caste, religion, or language.
The National Integration Council was established in 1961 following a national conference convened by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. The council was formed to address challenges like communalism, casteism, and regionalism, operating on the foundational Indian principle of Unity in Diversity. While both statements are factually accurate, the formation of the council is a specific historical and institutional event that does not serve as the logical cause or explanation for the inherent multi-dimensional nature of the concept of national integration itself.
99Science and Technology
Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order.
1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Copper
4. Iron
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation
In a standard 70 kg human body, elements are categorized into macro-minerals and trace elements based on their total mass. Copper is a trace element present in the smallest quantity among the given choices, typically amounting to only about 0.07 to 0.1 grams. Iron is also a micronutrient but is found in significantly higher quantities than copper, totaling approximately 4 grams, primarily within hemoglobin. Sodium and potassium are macro-minerals and electrolytes required in much larger amounts. Sodium constitutes approximately 100 grams of the body mass, predominantly in the extracellular fluid. Potassium is the most abundant intracellular cation, with the total body content reaching approximately 140 grams. Consequently, the correct increasing order by mass is Copper (3), Iron (4), Sodium (1), and Potassium (2).
100Economy
Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order.
1. Lakdawala Committee
2. Rangarajan Committee
3. Tendulkar Committee
4. Dandekar and Rath Committee
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Answer: (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Explanation
The Dandekar and Rath study was initiated in 1971 and is considered the first rigorous scientific study for poverty estimation in India based on calorie requirements. This was followed by the Lakdawala Committee, which was constituted by the Planning Commission in 1989 to refine poverty estimation by using consumer price indices for industrial workers and agricultural laborers. The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was established in 2005 to move away from the calorie-based approach and incorporate expenditures on health and education into the poverty line calculation. Finally, the C. Rangarajan Committee was set up in 2012 to revisit the poverty estimation methodology and address concerns regarding the low poverty thresholds previously set by the Tendulkar Committee.
101Polity and Governance
Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution ?
1. Nepali
2. Dogri
3. Bodo
4. Bhojpuri
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
Bhojpuri is a major Indo-Aryan language spoken primarily in the states of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, yet it is not one of the 22 languages currently listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. While there have been persistent demands for its inclusion, it remains excluded. In contrast, Nepali was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992. Dogri and Bodo were both included later through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which also added Maithili and Santhali to the official list. Therefore, among the choices provided, only Bhojpuri is missing from the schedule.
102Science and Technology
With reference to 'acid and bases', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Acidic solutions have pH more than 7.
2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7.
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Answer: (B) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The pH scale is a logarithmic measure used to specify the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution, typically ranging from 0 to 14 at 25°C. A solution is considered neutral when its pH is exactly 7. Acidic solutions are defined by a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺), which results in a pH value less than 7. In contrast, basic or alkaline solutions have a lower concentration of hydrogen ions and a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH⁻), leading to a pH value greater than 7. Therefore, the assertion that acidic solutions have a pH more than 7 and basic solutions have a pH less than 7 is scientifically inaccurate, making both statements false.
103Polity and Governance
Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.
1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
2. K.R. Narayanan
3. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
4. R. Venkataraman
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Answer: (A) 1, 4, 2, 3
Explanation
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the sixth President of India from 1977 to 1982. Following the intervening tenure of Giani Zail Singh, R. Venkataraman served as the eighth President from 1987 to 1992. K. R. Narayanan served as the tenth President from 1997 to 2002, succeeding Shankar Dayal Sharma. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam then served as the eleventh President from 2002 to 2007. The correct chronological order of their tenures is Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (1), R. Venkataraman (4), K. R. Narayanan (2), and A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (3).
104History
Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Vaishali
2. Rajagriha
3. Kundalvana
4. Pataliputra
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Answer: (C) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha in 483 BCE, shortly after the Mahaparinirvana of the Buddha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru and presided over by Mahakassapa. The Second Buddhist Council took place at Vaishali in 383 BCE, approximately one hundred years after the first, under the patronage of King Kalasoka of the Shishunaga dynasty. The Third Buddhist Council was convened at Pataliputra around 250 BCE during the reign of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka and was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held at Kundalvana in Kashmir during the 1st Century CE under the patronage of the Kushan King Kanishka, with Vasumitra serving as the president. These historical events establish the chronological sequence as Rajagriha, Vaishali, Pataliputra, and finally Kundalvana.
105Science and Technology
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Nuclear Power Plant):
(A) Kudankulam
(B) Kakrapar
(C) Kaiga
(D) Rawatbhata
List-II (State):
1. Karnataka
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Rajasthan
4. Gujarat
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Answer: (C) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu and is currently India's highest capacity nuclear power station. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is situated in the Tapi district of Gujarat and is home to the first indigenous 700 MWe pressurized heavy water reactor. Kaiga Generating Station is located on the banks of the Kali river in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. Rawatbhata, also known as the Rajasthan Atomic Power Project, is situated in the Chittorgarh district of Rajasthan and was established in collaboration with Canada.
106Art and Culture
Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize in 2025?
1. Banu Mushtaq
2. Deepa Bhasthi
3. Sanjay Chauhan
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The International Booker Prize 2025 was awarded to the author Banu Mushtaq and the translator Deepa Bhasthi for the short story collection Heart Lamp. Originally written in Kannada, the collection explores the everyday lives of women in patriarchal communities in southern India. The International Booker Prize is a joint award given to a single work of fiction translated into English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland, with the recognition and the 50,000 pound prize shared equally between the author and the translator. Heart Lamp made history as the first short story collection to win the prize and the first winner to be translated from the Kannada language. The award recognized Banu Mushtaq as the second Indian author to win the prize and Deepa Bhasthi as the first Indian translator to be so honored.
107Geography
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Iron-ore Mines):
(A) Gurumahisani
(B) Bailadila
(C) Noamundi
(D) Kudremukh
List-II (State):
1. Jharkhand
2. Karnataka
3. Odisha
4. Chhattisgarh
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Gurumahisani is a prominent iron ore mine situated in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, forming part of the Badampahar range. Bailadila is located in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh and is renowned for producing very high-grade hematite ore, much of which is exported. Noamundi is a major iron ore mining site located in the West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, serving as a primary raw material source for the Indian steel industry. Kudremukh is situated in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka and is historically significant for its large-scale magnetite deposits located within the Western Ghats.
108Science and Technology
With reference to 'International Solar Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is the first treaty based Inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries.
2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative were initiated under it.
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Answer: (A) Only 2
Explanation
The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a treaty-based intergovernmental organization headquartered in Gurugram, India. While it is the first of its kind to be based in India, it has a membership far exceeding 38 countries. As of early 2024, the ISA had 116 signatory countries, of which 97 have ratified the Framework Agreement.
The One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative and the World Solar Bank were both initiated under the ISA framework. OSOWOG was launched to create a global green grid that facilitates the transfer of solar energy across different regions and time zones. The World Solar Bank was conceptualized to provide low-cost financing for solar energy projects in member nations, aiming to mobilize 1 trillion dollars in investment by 2030.
109Polity and Governance
Joint special forces exercise 'KHANJAR-XII' was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following Countries?
1. Russia
2. Turkmenistan
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Mongolia
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Answer: (C) Only 3
Explanation
Exercise Khanjar is an annual bilateral joint special forces exercise conducted between India and Kyrgyzstan. Since its inception in 2011, the exercise has served as a platform for the elite special forces units of both nations to enhance interoperability and share expertise in counter-terrorism and special operations, particularly in mountainous and high-altitude terrain. The twelfth edition of the exercise, held in March 2025, focused on refining tactical skills and strengthening the defense cooperation between the Indian Army and the Kyrgyzstani Army to address regional security challenges and unconventional threats.
110Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following Department prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh?
1. Department of Finance
2. Department of Education
3. Department of Planning
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The Department of Planning is the nodal agency for coordinating and monitoring the Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh. Within this department, the Economics and Statistics Division is specifically tasked with the preparation of the National Indicator Framework Progress Report. This division collects and analyzes data from various sectors to track the state's performance across the global goals, ensuring alignment with the standards set by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. By monitoring these indicators, the department provides the necessary evidence for policy formulation and resource allocation to ensure the state meets its sustainable development targets by 2030.
111Science and Technology
With reference to 'Isotopes', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.
2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Isotopes are defined as atoms of the same chemical element that possess the same number of protons and thus the same atomic number Z, but have a different number of neutrons, leading to different atomic mass numbers A. Because they have the same number of protons and electrons, isotopes of a single element exhibit nearly identical chemical properties. Statement 1 correctly identifies this relationship. Statement 2 is incorrect because Protium (¹H), Deuterium (²H or D), and Tritium (³H or T) are the three isotopes of Hydrogen, not Carbon. Hydrogen isotopes are unique in being the only isotopes given specific names in common chemical usage. Carbon isotopes include ¹²C, ¹³C, and ¹⁴C.
112Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Schedule):
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
List-II (Subject):
1. Languages
2. Disqualification on ground of defection
3. Union, State and Concurrent lists
4. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, under Article 246, defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union and States through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
The 8th Schedule contains the list of 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution, which originally included 14 languages but was expanded through various constitutional amendments.
The 9th Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to protect land reform and other laws from judicial review on the ground of violation of fundamental rights, ensuring the validation of certain acts and regulations.
The 10th Schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 and provides the detailed provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law.
113History
Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugaudi in 1816?
1. Kathmandu
2. Shimla
3. Ranikhet
4. Nainital
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Treaty of Sugauli, ratified in March 1816, concluded the Anglo-Nepalese War between the Kingdom of Nepal and the British East India Company. Under the terms of this treaty, Nepal ceded approximately one-third of its territory to the British, including the regions of Kumaon and Garhwal. This transfer of land brought the hill stations of Nainital and Ranikhet under direct British administration, as they are situated within the Kumaon division. Furthermore, the Gorkhas were forced to renounce all claims to the territories west of the Kali River, which encompassed the various Simla Hill States. This allowed the British to gain control over the region where Shimla was subsequently developed. While the treaty mandated the establishment of a British Residency in Kathmandu, the city remained the sovereign capital of Nepal and was not ceded to the British. Consequently, Shimla, Ranikhet, and Nainital were the specific sites among the options that came under British authority as a result of the territorial settlements of 1816.
114Polity and Governance
Swavalambini , a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East is launched by which of the following ministries?
1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The Swavalambini programme is an initiative spearheaded by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) specifically designed for the North-Eastern Region. Its primary objective is to promote women entrepreneurship by providing vocational training, business skill development, and financial literacy to women in the NER. By focusing on the creation of sustainable livelihoods, the ministry aims to integrate women into the formal MSME ecosystem, allowing them to leverage local resources and traditional knowledge for industrial growth. The program facilitates easier access to credit and market opportunities, ensuring that women-led micro-enterprises in the North-East can scale effectively under the ministry's broader mandate of balanced regional development and economic empowerment.
115Geography
Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea ?
1. Periyar
2. Pennar
3. Palar
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The Periyar is the longest river in the state of Kerala and is a significant perennial river in South India. It originates in the Sivagiri hills of the Western Ghats within the Periyar Tiger Reserve at an elevation of about 1,830 meters. The river follows a westward course through the districts of Idukki and Ernakulam. As a west-flowing river, it eventually empties into the Arabian Sea after passing through the Vembanad Lake and discharging into the sea at Munambam. Its flow is vital for the region's drinking water, irrigation, and hydroelectric power production.
116Science and Technology
Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.
1. Gamma rays
2. Ultraviolet rays
3. Radio waves
4. X-rays
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Answer: (C) 1, 4, 2, 3
Explanation
The frequency of electromagnetic waves is determined by the energy of their photons, as expressed by the Planck-Einstein relation E = hν, where E is energy, h is Planck's constant, and ν is frequency. In the electromagnetic spectrum, Gamma rays (1) have the highest energy and highest frequency, typically exceeding 10¹⁹ Hz. X-rays (4) have slightly lower frequencies than gamma rays, generally ranging from 10¹⁶ to 10¹⁹ Hz. Ultraviolet rays (2) occupy the portion of the spectrum with frequencies between 10¹⁵ and 10¹⁶ Hz, which is lower than X-rays but higher than visible light. Radio waves (3) possess the longest wavelengths and the lowest frequencies in the spectrum, usually falling below 3 × 10¹¹ Hz. Based on these physical properties, the decreasing order of frequency is Gamma rays, followed by X-rays, then Ultraviolet rays, and finally Radio waves.
117Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.
Reason (R) : Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Food security involves four main dimensions: availability, accessibility, affordability, and stability. While surplus food production ensures the availability of food at a national or macro level, it does not automatically guarantee that every individual has the means to obtain it. In many cases, systemic issues such as inefficient supply chains, regional disparities, and income inequality prevent the surplus from reaching marginalized populations.
Starvation often occurs not because of a global or national shortage, but because vulnerable sections of society lack the purchasing power or the physical access to the food being produced. Amartya Sen’s entitlement theory emphasizes that famines and starvation are frequently caused by a collapse in a person's ability to command food rather than a decline in food availability. Therefore, food security measures like the Public Distribution System (PDS) and social safety nets remain essential even in surplus years to bridge the gap created by unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.
118Polity and Governance
With reference to 'Vice-President of India', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Article 64 and Article 89(1) of the Constitution of India mandate that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). This signifies that the individual holding the office of Vice-President automatically assumes the role of presiding officer of the Upper House. However, under Article 66(2), the Vice-President cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State. If a person who is a member of Parliament is elected to the office of Vice-President, they are deemed to have vacated their seat in that House on the date they enter upon the office. Consequently, while the Vice-President functions as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, they do not hold membership in the House and do not possess the right to vote in the first instance, though they may exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
119Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India's success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals.
Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
India represents approximately 17.5% of the total human population, which is nearly one-sixth of the world. Since the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are designed to improve human well-being on a global scale, the sheer demographic weight of India means that global success is statistically and practically unattainable if these goals are not met within its borders. Major global targets related to poverty alleviation, maternal health, and sanitation are heavily influenced by India's domestic outcomes. The international community acknowledges that the 2030 Agenda cannot be achieved without significant progress in India. Therefore, India's massive population base is the fundamental reason why its individual progress is so critical to the global aggregate success of the SDGs.
120History
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (Ruler):
(A) Mahendravarman First
(B) Kadungon
(C) Amoghavarsha First
(D) Rajaraja First
List-II (Dynasty):
1. Rashtrakuta
2. Pallava
3. Chola
4. Pandya
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Mahendravarman I was a significant Pallava king (A-2) during the early 7th century, known for his patronage of arts and the development of the Pallava style of rock-cut architecture. Kadungon is historically celebrated for the revival of the Pandya dynasty (B-4) around 590 CE after defeating the Kalabhras and reclaiming the southern territories. Amoghavarsha I was the most distinguished ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty (C-1), known for his long, stable reign and his major literary contributions to the Kannada language. Rajaraja I was the architect of the Chola empire's (D-3) golden age, centralizing the administration, expanding the kingdom across South India and Sri Lanka, and commissioning the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur.
121History
The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States?
1. Uttarakhand
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka
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Answer: (B) Only 4
Explanation
The Appiko Movement was a forest conservation movement launched in September 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. It was initiated by the villagers of Salkani in Sirsi taluk and was led by environmental activist Pandurang Hegde. The name Appiko is a Kannada word meaning to embrace, which reflects the practice of protesters hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down by contractors. This movement was deeply inspired by the Chipko Movement of the Himalayas and focused on protecting the indigenous forests of the Western Ghats from commercial felling. The activists sought to preserve the natural vegetation, promote afforestation on denuded lands, and encourage the sustainable use of forest resources to maintain the local ecological balance.
122Economy
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following ?
1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
2. Ministry of Rural Development
3. Ministry of Finance
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is a central government initiative launched on April 8, 2015, specifically designed to provide financial support to the non-corporate, non-farm small and micro-enterprise sector. This scheme is administered by the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance. It enables micro-entrepreneurs to access credit up to 10 lakh through various financial institutions such as commercial banks, regional rural banks, small finance banks, and non-banking financial companies. The primary goal of the Ministry of Finance through this scheme is to fund the unfunded by bringing small business units into the formal financial system and encouraging self-employment.
123Polity and Governance
Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.
1. Voters photo identity card
2. Electronic voting machine
3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail
4. NOTA
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
Explanation
The Voters photo identity card (EPIC) was first introduced in 1993 under the direction of Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan to prevent electoral fraud and impersonation. While Electronic voting machines (EVMs) were used on an experimental basis in 1982, their legal framework was established through the 1989 amendment of the Representation of the People Act, and they were deployed on a large scale starting from the 1998 Assembly elections, achieving nationwide use by 2004.
The NOTA (None of the Above) option was implemented following the Supreme Court's judgment in the PUCL vs Union of India case on September 27, 2013, which granted voters the right to register a neutral vote. This was followed by the mandate for the Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) system, which the Supreme Court ordered to be introduced in a phased manner on October 8, 2013, in the Subramanian Swamy vs Election Commission of India case to ensure the transparency and verifiability of the electronic voting process.
124Science and Technology
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.
Reason (R) : High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Evaporation of sweat is a primary thermoregulatory mechanism where liquid water on the skin transitions into water vapor. This phase change requires energy, known as the latent heat of vaporization, which is absorbed from the body's surface, resulting in the dissipation of heat and a subsequent cooling effect. Assertion (A) is therefore true based on the laws of thermodynamics. Reason (R) is also true because high humidity indicates that the ambient air is already heavily saturated with moisture. This reduced vapor pressure gradient between the skin and the air inhibits the rate of sweat evaporation. When evaporation is hindered, the body cannot shed excess heat efficiently, leading to the sensation of increased discomfort. However, (R) describes a condition that interferes with the cooling process rather than explaining the underlying physical mechanism of heat dissipation mentioned in (A). Thus, while both statements are correct, the reason does not provide the logical explanation for the assertion.
125Polity and Governance
BHARATPOL', an online portal for International Police Co-operation has been developed by which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Central Bureau of Investigation
Explanation
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) serves as the designated National Central Bureau (NCB) for INTERPOL in India, making it the nodal agency for all international police cooperation matters. BHARATPOL is a specialized online portal developed by the CBI to streamline and digitize communications between various Indian law enforcement agencies and their international counterparts. The platform acts as a centralized interface for managing international requests, tracking the status of Red Notices, and facilitating mutual legal assistance in criminal matters. By providing a secure and efficient digital environment, BHARATPOL enhances the ability of Indian police forces to collaborate on transnational investigations involving organized crime, terrorism, and the apprehension of fugitive criminals across global borders.
126History
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British
2. Ilbert Bill Controversy
3. Indigo Revolt
4. Second Anglo-Afghan War
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Answer: (A) 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation
The acquisition of Awadh by the British took place in 1856 under Lord Dalhousie, who annexed the region on the grounds of maladministration. The Indigo Revolt, also known as the Neel Vidroh, started in 1859 in Bengal when peasants refused to grow indigo under the exploitative terms of European planters. The Second Anglo-Afghan War occurred between 1878 and 1880, primarily driven by Lord Lytton's policy to counter Russian influence in Afghanistan. Finally, the Ilbert Bill Controversy emerged in 1883 during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon, centering on a proposal to allow Indian judges to preside over cases involving European subjects.
127EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts?
1. Amethi
2. Sultanpur
3. Sant Kabir Nagar
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Under the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj (a wild grass used to weave baskets, mats, coasters and decorative items) products are associated with Amethi and Sultanpur. Both districts have a long tradition of Moonj craft, with rural women playing a central role in the artisanal value chain, and the craft has been formally designated as their ODOP for promotion, skill upgradation and marketing support. Sant Kabir Nagar, by contrast, has Brassware (brass utensils of Bakhira) as its ODOP, not Moonj. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
128Science and Technology
Iron dome missile defence system belongs to which of the following countries ?
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Answer: (C) Israel
Explanation
The Iron Dome is a mobile, all-weather air defense system developed by Israel to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells. It was designed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries to counter threats launched from distances of 4 to 70 kilometers. Operational since 2011, the system utilizes a specialized radar to detect incoming projectiles, a battle management and control unit to assess the threat level, and a missile firing unit that launches Tamir interceptor missiles. It is a critical component of Israel multi-layered defense strategy, specifically optimized to protect civilian populations and strategic assets from high-volume rocket fire.
129Science and Technology
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Voices of men and women are different.
Reason (R) : Length and thickness of vocal cord is different in men and women.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The human voice is produced by the vibration of the vocal cords located in the larynx. The pitch and quality of the voice are determined by the physical characteristics of these cords, specifically their length, mass, and tension. During puberty, hormonal changes in males cause the larynx to grow larger and the vocal cords to become significantly longer and thicker compared to those in females. Adult male vocal cords are typically between 17 mm and 25 mm in length, while adult female vocal cords are shorter, ranging from 12.5 mm to 17.5 mm. Physics dictates that longer and thicker strings or membranes vibrate at a lower fundamental frequency (f = 1/2L √(T/μ)), where L is length and μ is mass per unit length. Consequently, the larger dimensions of male vocal cords produce a lower-pitched voice, while the shorter and thinner cords in women produce a higher-pitched voice, making the anatomical difference the direct cause of the variation in their voices.
130Economy
With reference to 'Human Development Index', which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The UNDP published its first 'Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.
2. The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) published the first Human Development Report (HDR) in 1990. This landmark report introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) as a composite measure to assess development beyond mere income or economic growth, focusing instead on health, education, and standard of living. The creation of the HDI was led by the Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq, who envisioned a metric that placed people at the center of development. He was assisted by a team of prominent economists, most notably Amartya Sen, who helped refine the conceptual and mathematical framework of the index, alongside contributors like Paul Streeten and Gustav Ranis. Stefan Priesner is a United Nations official who joined the organization several years after the index was established and was not involved in the original team that developed the HDI in 1990.
131Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?
1. National Voters - 25 January. Day (India)
2. Constitution - 27 January. Day (India)
3. Human Rights - 29 January. Day (World)
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Constitution Day in India is celebrated on 26 November to mark the adoption of the Indian Constitution by the Constituent Assembly in 1949. Human Rights Day is observed globally on 10 December to commemorate the day the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948. Consequently, the second and third pairs are incorrectly matched as they cite 27 January and 29 January respectively.
132Economy
Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.
1. Food for work programme
2. Community Development Programme
3. Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
4. Drought Prone Area Programme
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Answer: (B) 2, 4, 1, 3
Explanation
The Community Development Programme was launched on October 2, 1952, with the objective of overall development of rural areas and ensuring people participation. The Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated in 1973-74 to minimize the adverse effects of drought on production and to restore ecological balance. The Food for Work Programme was started in 1977 to provide additional employment in rural areas through the creation of community assets, using food grains as part of the wages. Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) was launched on August 15, 1979, to provide technical and entrepreneurial skills to rural youth from families below the poverty line. Following this timeline, the correct chronological order is 2, 4, 1, 3.
133History
Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council, saddened by the Jaliana wala Bagh Massacre ?
1. Chettur Sankaran Nair
2. Ishwari Prasad
3. Muhammad Shafi
4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair was a prominent jurist and statesman who served as a member of the Viceroy's Executive Council starting in 1915. In the aftermath of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, and the subsequent implementation of repressive martial law in Punjab, he resigned from the Council in July 1919 as a protest against the high-handedness and brutality of the British administration. His resignation was a powerful symbolic gesture from within the highest level of the colonial government, aligning with the national wave of indignation that saw other figures like Rabindranath Tagore renounce his knighthood and Mahatma Gandhi return his Kaiser-i-Hind medal.
134Science and Technology
With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a 'Navratna' public sector unit under the Ministry of Railways.
2. It is India's first vertical lift railway sea bridge.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The New Pamban Bridge is a 2.05-km long engineering project constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Railways. RVNL was officially upgraded to Navratna status in 2023, reflecting its significant role in executing major rail infrastructure projects. This structure is designed to replace the century-old cantilever Pamban Bridge and is distinguished by its unique 72.5-meter navigational span. This span is engineered to be lifted vertically to a height of 17 meters, allowing ships to pass safely beneath the tracks. This vertical lift mechanism is the first of its kind for a railway sea bridge in India, improving upon the Scherzer rolling lift technology used in the original 1914 bridge.
135Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price (MRP).
Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Explanation
The Maximum Retail Price (MRP) is defined under the Legal Metrology (Pre-packaged Commodities) Rules as the maximum price at which a product can be sold to a consumer, inclusive of all taxes. Assertion (A) is true because the MRP acts only as an upper price ceiling, leaving the actual transaction price subject to market competition and negotiation; consumers are legally permitted to bargain for a price lower than the printed MRP. Reason (R) is false because sellers are not obligated to charge the MRP; they are only prohibited from exceeding it. While a seller cannot legally charge even a paisa above the MRP, they are entirely free to sell the product at any price below that limit.
136Geography
Suez canal connects which of the following?
1. Atlantic Ocean
2. Red Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Indian Ocean
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Suez Canal is a 193 km long artificial sea-level waterway located in Egypt that cuts through the Isthmus of Suez. It serves as a vital maritime link by connecting Port Said on the Mediterranean Sea to the Gulf of Suez on the Red Sea. This strategic corridor provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and the regions bordering the Indian and western Pacific oceans, significantly reducing travel time and costs for global trade by allowing vessels to avoid the lengthy circumnavigation of the African continent via the Cape of Good Hope.
137Economy
With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was launched in June 2022.
2. Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) movement was launched by the Prime Minister of India on June 5, 2022, which coincided with World Environment Day. This initiative serves as a global call for individuals and communities to adopt sustainable lifestyles to protect and preserve the environment. The core concept of LiFE was first introduced by India at the COP26 summit in Glasgow in 2021, where the vision of a pro-planet people movement was articulated to encourage a shift from mindless consumption to mindful utilization of resources. Given that the proposal took place at the Glasgow summit rather than the Madrid summit, the factual timeline validates that the launch occurred in June 2022 as part of the follow-up to the COP26 commitments.
138Economy
With reference to World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Wood Twins.
2. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were established during the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, in July 1944. This joint inception led to their widely recognized designation as the Bretton Woods Twins. Both organizations share the primary objective of supporting international economic stability and development. While the IMF is headquartered in Washington D.C., the World Bank is also headquartered in Washington D.C. rather than New York. Consequently, the first statement regarding their shared origin and title is accurate, while the second statement is incorrect due to the geographic error regarding the World Bank's headquarters.
139Economy
With reference to the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund were established together and are popularly known as the Bretton Woods twins.
2. The headquarters of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank are located in Washington D.C. and New York respectively.
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Answer: (D) only 1
Explanation
The International Monetary Fund and the World Bank were conceived during the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference in July 1944 at Bretton Woods, New Hampshire. Due to their simultaneous creation and shared objective of managing the global economic order after World War II, they are universally referred to as the Bretton Woods twins. Consequently, the first statement is accurate. However, the second statement is inaccurate because both the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank Group maintain their headquarters in Washington, D.C. The World Bank is situated at 1818 H Street NW, while the International Monetary Fund is located nearby at 1900 Pennsylvania Avenue NW. Since the World Bank is not headquartered in New York, only the first statement holds true.
140Polity and Governance
With reference to 'Joint Sitting of Parliament', which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the joint sitting of Parliament.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed by summoning a joint sitting of Parliament.
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Answer: (B) neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Article 108 of the Constitution of India provides for the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock between the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha over an Ordinary Bill or a Financial Bill. Article 109 specifically deals with the special procedure in respect of Money Bills, which does not include a provision for a joint sitting. Furthermore, a Constitutional Amendment Bill, governed by Article 368, must be passed by each House of Parliament separately by the prescribed special majority. There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve a disagreement between the two Houses regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill or a Money Bill.
141Polity and Governance
Match
List-I (Sustainable Development Goal):
(A) Goal 1
(B) Goal 3
(C) Goal 4
(D) Goal 6
List-II (Area of Goal):
1. Clean water and sanitation
2. Quality education
3. End poverty in all its forms
4. Good health and well-being
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are 17 global objectives adopted by the United Nations in 2015 under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Each of the listed goals maps to a specific thematic area:
(A) Goal 1 — End poverty in all its forms everywhere → matches item 3 (End poverty in all its forms).
(B) Goal 3 — Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages → matches item 4 (Good health and well-being).
(C) Goal 4 — Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all → matches item 2 (Quality education).
(D) Goal 6 — Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all → matches item 1 (Clean water and sanitation).
The correct sequence of pairings (A-B-C-D) is therefore 3-4-2-1, which corresponds to option B.
142Geography
With reference to 'Operation Olivia', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of Indian coast Guards to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.
2. Operation Olivia is carried out during the month of August which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
Operation Olivia was initiated by the Indian Coast Guard in the early 1980s to protect the endangered Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting. The Coast Guard deploys assets such as ships and aircraft to monitor the coastline and enforce seasonal fishing bans in sensitive zones like the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary and the mouths of the Devi and Rushikulya rivers. The operation is conducted annually from November to May, which aligns with the actual biological nesting cycle of the turtles in the Bay of Bengal. Since the nesting period occurs during these months, the suggestion that the operation takes place in August is factually incorrect, as that time does not correspond with the arrival of the turtles for their mass nesting event known as Arribada.
143Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Biosphere Reserve) 1. Nokrek - Manipur 2. Manas - Assam 3. Agasthyamalai - Kerala Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, whereas Manipur is known for the Keibul Lamjao National Park. Nokrek is a critical biodiversity hotspot in Northeast India, recognized as a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve and famous for its population of red pandas and citrus gene pools. Manas Biosphere Reserve is correctly matched with Assam, where it serves as a project tiger reserve and a UNESCO World Heritage site. Similarly, the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve is correctly matched with Kerala, though it also extends into Tamil Nadu. Since only the first pair is incorrectly matched, the answer is determined by identifying the geographical location of Nokrek in Meghalaya.
144Economy
With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was established in 1991.
2. Only the developed countries are donors to it.
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Answer: (D) Only 1
Explanation
The Global Environment Facility was established in October 1991 as a $1 billion pilot program in the World Bank to assist in the protection of the global environment and to promote environmentally sustainable development. Following the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, it was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. While developed countries are the primary contributors to the GEF Trust Fund, they are not the only donors. The GEF receives financial contributions from a wide range of donor nations, including several developing countries such as India, China, Brazil, and Mexico, which participate in the four-year replenishment cycles of the fund. This inclusive donor base ensures a collaborative approach to financing global environmental projects.
145Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State. Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, serve as the foundational guidelines for the state to ensure the holistic development of society. While Fundamental Rights primarily establish political democracy by protecting individual liberties, the Directive Principles are designed to secure social and economic democracy. They are fundamental in the governance of the country because they transition the role of the state from a mere law-and-order entity to a comprehensive welfare state. By mandating the state to promote the welfare of the people, secure a just social order, and minimize inequalities in income and status, these principles provide the underlying rationale for the state's economic and social functions. The core objective of creating a socio-economic democratic framework directly explains why these principles are indispensable to the functioning and policy-making of a modern democratic state.
146Polity and Governance
By whom among the following was the concept of right to food security proposed?
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Answer: (B) Jean Drèze
Explanation
Jean Drèze is a Belgian-born Indian development economist who has been a central figure in conceptualizing and advocating for the right to food as a legal entitlement. He was instrumental in the drafting of the National Food Security Act, 2013, which shifted the focus of food security in India from a welfare-oriented approach to a rights-based framework. His work emphasizes that access to adequate nutrition is a fundamental human right that the state is obligated to protect through robust public policy and institutional mechanisms. He played a key role in the Right to Food Campaign, leading to significant judicial interventions and legislative reforms that expanded the scope of the Public Distribution System and school meal programs. Through his extensive research on hunger and social security, he provided the theoretical basis for treating food security as a justiciable right for the marginalized sections of society.
147Art and Culture
With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji.
2. The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The 58th Jnanpith Award for the year 2023 was conferred jointly upon the distinguished Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and the celebrated Urdu poet Gulzar. Jagadguru Rambhadracharya is a renowned polyglot, spiritual leader, and author of over 100 books, making this only the second time the Sanskrit language has been honored with this award. The Jnanpith Award is India's highest literary honor, established in 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith. Although instituted earlier, the first Jnanpith Award was presented in 1965 to the Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup for his anthology Odakkuzhal. These facts confirm that both the identification of the 58th recipient and the historical start date of the award are accurate.
148History
Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. Jahangir
2. Shah Jahan
3. Akbar
4. Aurangzeb
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Answer: (C) 3, 1, 2, 4
Explanation
Akbar (3) ruled the Mughal Empire from 1556 to 1605, marking a period of significant territorial expansion and cultural synthesis. He was succeeded by his son Jahangir (1), who reigned from 1605 to 1627. Following a brief period of transition, Shah Jahan (2) ascended the throne in 1628 and occupied it until 1658, a reign famous for architectural achievements like the Taj Mahal. Finally, Aurangzeb (4) took power in 1658 and ruled until 1707, representing the last of the Great Mughals. This chronological succession follows the order of 3, 1, 2, and 4.