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UPPSC Prelims 2013 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 149 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

149
Questions
6
Subjects
9
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance3725%
  • Geography2819%
  • History2718%
  • Science and Technology2416%
  • Economy2013%
  • Art and Culture139%
1Polity and Governance
In which of the following States, High Courts have been setup in March, 2013?
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Answer: (B) Meghalaya

Explanation

The Meghalaya High Court was established on March 23, 2013, as a separate court from the Gauhati High Court. The Tripura High Court was also set up in March 2013 (March 26). Meghalaya (March 23) preceded Tripura, making Option B the correct answer.

2Polity and Governance
The President of which of the following countries fled to Cameroon in March 2013 because of rebellion?
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Answer: (A) Central African Republic

Explanation

In March 2013, the Central African Republic experienced a successful coup d'état when the Seleka rebel coalition seized control of the capital city, Bangui. President Francois Bozize, who had been in power since 2003, was forced to flee the country as rebel forces overran the presidential palace. After initially crossing into the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Bozize eventually sought and was granted temporary refuge in neighboring Cameroon. The rebellion was driven by claims that the government had failed to implement the terms of earlier peace agreements, specifically regarding the integration of former rebels into the national army and the distribution of economic resources to northern regions.

3Polity and Governance
Out of the following Indian dignitaries who was the special guest at the 45th Independence Day function of Mauritius on March 12, 2013?
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Answer: (B) President

Explanation

President Pranab Mukherjee was the Chief Guest at the 45th Independence Day celebrations of Mauritius on March 12, 2013. His three-day state visit from March 11 to March 13, 2013, aimed at strengthening the long-standing bilateral ties and special relationship between India and Mauritius. During the visit, he also received an honorary Doctorate of Civil Law from the University of Mauritius. The invitation to the President of India for this significant national event reflected the deep historical and cultural bonds between the two nations, as a large majority of the Mauritian population is of Indian descent.

4Geography
The Island Nation situated in the South Pacific Ocean which suffered huge loss due to earthquake generated Tsunami on February 6, 2013 is
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Answer: (A) Soloman Island

Explanation

On February 6, 2013, a powerful 8.0 magnitude undersea earthquake occurred near the Santa Cruz Islands, which are part of the Solomon Islands archipelago in the South Pacific. This seismic event triggered a localized but destructive tsunami that hit the Temotu Province. The waves, reaching heights of approximately 1.5 meters, caused significant damage to coastal infrastructure and residential areas, particularly in the provincial capital of Lata on Nendo Island. The disaster resulted in the destruction of several villages and caused multiple fatalities, highlighting the vulnerability of the region to tectonic activity along the Pacific Ring of Fire.

5History
Who is the author of the book Sachin Cricketer of the Century released on 20-3-2013 at Delhi?
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Answer: (B) Vimai Kumar

Explanation

Vimal Kumar is a senior sports journalist who authored the book Sachin: Cricketer of the Century. The book was officially launched in New Delhi on March 20, 2013, and serves as a detailed account of Sachin Tendulkar’s legendary career. It includes perspectives from various cricketing greats and analyzes Tendulkar's impact on the sport globally, capturing the milestones of his journey leading up to his retirement from international cricket later that year.

6Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The Uttar Pradesh Government on 24th December 2012 decided to issue cards to Industrialists and Industrial associations for easy access to its offices. The name of this card is
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Answer: (B) Gold Card

Explanation

The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet approved the issuance of Gold Cards during its meeting on December 24, 2012, to facilitate easier communication between the government and the industrial sector. These cards serve as a special identification and entry permit for prominent industrialists and representatives of recognized industrial associations. By possessing a Gold Card, these individuals gain seamless access to the Uttar Pradesh Secretariat and other high-level government offices without the standard procedural delays associated with obtaining temporary visitor passes. The primary objective of this initiative was to improve the ease of doing business in the state and to ensure that the grievances or expansion proposals of the business community are addressed by administrative authorities through a more direct and efficient channel.

7Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following days was not a Shahi Snan (Royal Bath) day during the Kumbh held in Allahabad in 2013?
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Answer: (B) Maha Shivaratri

Explanation

Maha Shivaratri was the final major bathing day of the 2013 Maha Kumbh Mela in Allahabad, marking the symbolic conclusion of the festival. However, it was not officially designated as a Shahi Snan (Royal Bath) for that year. Shahi Snans are specific dates when the various Akharas (religious orders) take a ceremonial dip in the Sangam with royal pomp and precedence. In the 2013 schedule, this status was reserved for three other auspicious dates, whereas Maha Shivaratri was celebrated as a Parv Snan. Consequently, the special protocols and grand processions associated with the Shahi Snan were not part of the Maha Shivaratri observances in the 2013 cycle.

8Art and Culture
At the 85th Academy Awards function held in February 2013, the Oscar for the best film was won by
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Answer: (A) Argo

Explanation

The 85th Academy Awards ceremony, organized by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, was held on February 24, 2013, at the Dolby Theatre in Hollywood. The film Argo, a historical thriller directed by Ben Affleck, won the Oscar for Best Picture. The movie is based on the 1979 Canadian Caper, where the CIA rescued six U.S. diplomats from Tehran during the Iran hostage crisis. Argo earned a total of seven nominations at the ceremony and secured three wins. Its victory in the Best Picture category was notably announced by First Lady Michelle Obama via a live video link from the White House, marking the first time a First Lady presented an Academy Award.

9Polity and Governance
Among the following who was conferred Padma Vibhushan in 2013?
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Answer: (D) Prof. R. Narasimha

Explanation

Prof. Roddam Narasimha was a distinguished Indian aerospace scientist and fluid dynamicist who was conferred the Padma Vibhushan in 2013 for his exceptional contributions to the field of Science and Engineering. As a prominent academician and researcher, he served as the Director of the National Aerospace Laboratories and held significant positions at the Indian Institute of Science. His extensive research in fluid mechanics, turbulence, and atmospheric sciences earned him this prestigious honor, making him one of only four individuals to receive the Padma Vibhushan in that year.

10Art and Culture
Who won the 2013 Pritzker Architecture Prize which is considered to be the Nobel Prize in architecture, announced in March 2013 in Los Angeles?
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Answer: (C) Toyo Ito

Explanation

Toyo Ito was awarded the 2013 Pritzker Architecture Prize for his career-long dedication to conceptual and innovative design. The jury praised Ito for his ability to synthesize structural fluidity with functional requirements, creating buildings that respond to both the environment and the needs of their inhabitants. His most celebrated work, the Sendai Mediatheque, is often cited as a masterpiece of contemporary architecture for its unique structural system of hollow tubes and its transparency. By winning this prestigious international award, often likened to the Nobel Prize for architecture, Ito became the sixth Japanese architect to be so honored. The announcement was made in March 2013, recognizing his influence on the global architectural landscape through a portfolio that includes public libraries, theaters, and private residences.

11Polity and Governance
Which one of the following projects got a ruling in India's favour in February 2013 by the Hague's Permanent Court of Arbitration?
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Answer: (B) Kishananganga Hydel Project

Explanation

The Permanent Court of Arbitration at The Hague issued a partial award on February 18, 2013, regarding the Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project in Jammu and Kashmir. Pakistan had initiated the arbitration, arguing that India's design to divert water from the Kishanganga River to the Jhelum River for power generation violated the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960. The court's ruling upheld India's right to divert water for power generation through a run-of-the-river plant, provided that India maintains a minimum flow of water in the river bed to protect the downstream environment. This decision was a major legal victory for India as it confirmed the country's right to utilize the waters of the western rivers for hydroelectric power within the framework of the treaty.

12Art and Culture
Who is the author of the Shiva Trilogy the third book of which The Oath of the Vayuputras , was launched in February 2013?
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Answer: (A) Amish Tripathi

Explanation

Amish Tripathi is the author of the Shiva Trilogy, a series of mythological fiction novels that reimagines the story of the Hindu deity Shiva as a mortal hero whose deeds lead him to be worshipped as a god. The trilogy consists of three books: The Immortals of Meluha, published in 2010; The Secret of the Nagas, published in 2011; and the final installment, The Oath of the Vayuputras, which was released in February 2013. The series became a significant commercial success in Indian publishing, blending historical elements with fantasy and philosophy.

13Art and Culture
The recently released film Kai Po Che is based on the novel
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Answer: (D) The 3 Mistakes of My Life

Explanation

The 2013 film Kai Po Che!, directed by Abhishek Kapoor, is a cinematic adaptation of the novel The 3 Mistakes of My Life, authored by Chetan Bhagat and published in 2008. The narrative follows the lives of three friends in Ahmedabad—Govind, Ishaan, and Omi—as they navigate their aspirations and friendship amidst significant historical events in Gujarat, such as the 2001 earthquake and the communal tensions of 2002. Chetan Bhagat also co-wrote the screenplay for the film, which premiered at the 63rd Berlin International Film Festival before its general theatrical release in India.

14Polity and Governance
Which eminent Indian journalist has been appointed as the editor of Time International in March 2013?
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Answer: (A) Bobby Ghosh

Explanation

Bobby Ghosh, an Indian-born journalist, was appointed as the editor of Time International in March 2013. This appointment was historically significant as he became the first non-American to lead the international edition of the magazine. Prior to this role, he had served as Time's world editor and gained international recognition for his extensive reporting from conflict zones, notably serving as the Baghdad bureau chief during the Iraq War. His career in journalism has spanned several decades, during which he has held various senior editorial positions across major global media outlets.

15Economy
The recent pact for investment in the infrastructure sector in India signed by Sheikha Lubna Bin Khalid Al Qasimi with India's Industry Minister Anand Sharam signifies pact with
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Answer: (D) United Arab Emirates

Explanation

Sheikha Lubna bint Khalid Al Qasimi served as the Minister of Foreign Trade for the United Arab Emirates. In February 2013, she met with India's Commerce and Industry Minister, Anand Sharma, in New Delhi to discuss bilateral economic cooperation. During this period, the two nations formalized agreements to encourage and protect investments, specifically targeting India's infrastructure sector. The UAE committed to investing significant capital through its sovereign wealth funds, such as the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority, into Indian projects. This pact was a milestone in strengthening the strategic partnership between India and the United Arab Emirates, focusing on leveraging the UAE's investment capacity to address India's growing infrastructure requirements.

16Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Who among the following has been nominated to probe the Stampede at the Allahabad Railway Station on February 10, 2013 during the Kumbh?
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Answer: (A) Hon. Justice Onkareshwar Bhatt

Explanation

Following the tragic stampede at the Allahabad Railway Station on February 10, 2013, which occurred on the occasion of Mauni Amavasya during the Maha Kumbh Mela, the Uttar Pradesh state government appointed a one-member judicial commission to investigate the incident. Justice (Retired) Onkareshwar Bhatt, a former judge of the Allahabad High Court, was nominated to head this inquiry. The commission was tasked with examining the circumstances leading to the tragedy, identifying administrative or systemic lapses in crowd management, and recommending safety protocols to prevent similar accidents during large-scale religious gatherings in the future.

17Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Nokrek (B) Manas (C) Dehang (D) Agasthy- List-II (Biosphere (Location): 1. Kerala 2. Assam 3. Megahalya Debang 4. Arunachal amalai Pradesh
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Answer: (B) 3 2 4 1

Explanation

(A) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the West Garo Hills of Meghalaya and is a critical habitat for the red panda and indigenous citrus varieties. (B) Manas Biosphere Reserve is situated in the state of Assam along the foothills of the Himalayas, serving as a significant habitat for the tiger, elephant, and pygmy hog. (C) Dehang-Debang Biosphere Reserve is found in Arunachal Pradesh, covering part of the Eastern Himalayas and the Siang and Dibang river valleys. (D) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve is located at the southern end of the Western Ghats, primarily within Kerala and extending into Tamil Nadu, known for its high level of plant endemism.

18Polity and Governance
Former CBI Director Ashwini Kumar has been recently appointed Governor of
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Answer: (D) Nagaland

Explanation

Ashwini Kumar, a 1973-batch IPS officer and former Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), was appointed as the Governor of Nagaland in March 2013. He served as the CBI chief from August 2008 to November 2010 and was the first former head of the premier investigating agency to be appointed to a gubernatorial position. His appointment was cleared by the President of India to succeed Nikhil Kumar. Kumar also briefly held the additional charge as the Governor of Manipur during the same year.

19Polity and Governance
The Ambassador of which country was in news recently for giving an affidavit in the Supreme Court of India and not honouring it?
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Answer: (A) Italy

Explanation

In early 2013, the Italian Ambassador to India, Daniele Mancini, submitted a personal affidavit and a sovereign guarantee to the Supreme Court of India. This undertaking was given to allow two Italian marines, Massimiliano Latorre and Salvatore Girone, to travel to Italy for four weeks to participate in their national elections. The marines were being held in India to face trial for the 2012 shooting of two Indian fishermen off the coast of Kerala. After the marines reached Italy, the Italian government informed the Indian Ministry of External Affairs on March 11, 2013, that they would not be sending the marines back to India. The Supreme Court took a stern view of this breach of trust, stating that the Ambassador had lost his diplomatic immunity by voluntarily submitting to the jurisdiction of the court through his affidavit. The court issued an order restraining the Ambassador from leaving India, which eventually led to the Italian government reversing its decision and returning the marines to India on March 22, 2013.

20Art and Culture
Who among the following was at the centre of controversy at the Jaipur Literature Festival (January 2013)?
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Answer: (B) Ashish Nandy

Explanation

Ashish Nandy, a renowned sociologist, was the central figure of a major controversy during the 2013 Jaipur Literature Festival following his remarks during a panel discussion titled Republic of Ideas. Nandy stated that most of the corrupt come from the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC), and that this corruption was a way for these groups to equalize power in a system dominated by the upper castes. His comments were widely condemned as derogatory and casteist, leading to the filing of a First Information Report (FIR) against him under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. Although Nandy later clarified that his intention was to provide a sociological critique of how corruption functions as a tool for social mobility among the marginalized, the incident sparked a nationwide debate on freedom of expression and caste sensitivities.

21Geography
Among the biotic components of the ecosystem, the producer is
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Answer: (D) Green Plants

Explanation

Green plants are the primary producers in an ecosystem because they synthesize organic compounds from simple inorganic substances like carbon dioxide and water through the process of photosynthesis. By utilizing sunlight and the pigment chlorophyll, they convert radiant energy into chemical energy stored in the form of carbohydrates. This process can be represented by the equation 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. Since they create their own food and provide the initial source of energy for all other living organisms in the food web, they are categorized as autotrophs.

22Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Deserts can be potential source for generating sustainable energy. Reason (R): Deserts receive more energy from the Sun in six hours than mankind consumes in a year. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Deserts are ideal locations for generating sustainable energy because they receive high solar insolation and possess vast stretches of non-arable land suitable for large-scale solar thermal and photovoltaic installations. Scientific calculations, popularized by the Desertec Industrial Initiative, demonstrate that the solar energy falling on the world's deserts in just six hours is greater than the total energy consumed by the global population in an entire year. Given that the Earth receives approximately 1.7 × 10¹⁷ watts of power from the Sun, and deserts occupy a significant percentage of the Earth's land surface with minimal cloud cover, the massive energy flux described in the reason directly explains why these regions are considered the most significant potential sources for sustainable energy.

23Geography
Which of the following group of gases contribute to the Green House Effect ?
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Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide and Methane

Explanation

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) are the primary greenhouse gases responsible for trapping infrared radiation in the Earth atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is the most significant contributor to the greenhouse effect, released largely through the combustion of fossil fuels, industrial activities, and land-use changes such as deforestation. Methane is significantly more effective at trapping heat than carbon dioxide over a shorter timeframe and enters the atmosphere through agricultural activities, livestock digestion, rice cultivation, and the decomposition of organic matter in landfills and wetlands. These gases allow incoming solar radiation to pass through the atmosphere but absorb the long-wave thermal radiation emitted by the Earth surface, leading to a rise in global temperatures.

24Geography
Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
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Answer: (C) Ocean

Explanation

Oceans are considered the most stable ecosystems primarily due to their immense scale and the physical properties of water. The high specific heat capacity of water allows the ocean to absorb and store significant amounts of heat energy with minimal changes in temperature, providing a highly consistent thermal environment. Additionally, the chemical composition and salinity levels of the marine environment remain remarkably constant over geological timescales. The vast size and continuity of the global ocean act as a massive buffer, ensuring that localized disturbances or environmental fluctuations do not easily disrupt the overall equilibrium of the system. This resistance to rapid physical and chemical changes makes the ocean the most stable ecological unit on Earth.

25Geography
Endangered species are listed in
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Answer: (B) Red Data Book

Explanation

The Red Data Book is a comprehensive inventory maintained by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to track the global conservation status of biological species. It provides detailed data on species that are at risk of extinction, categorizing them based on specific criteria into groups such as Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable. This registry serves as a vital scientific tool for monitoring biodiversity loss and guiding international conservation efforts, policy-making, and the legal protection of threatened flora and fauna across the planet.

26Geography
Which one of the following is important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity?
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Answer: (A) Biosphere Reserves

Explanation

Biosphere reserves are large-scale protected areas established under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to conserve the integrity of entire ecosystems. This strategy focuses on in-situ conservation, preserving the genetic diversity of plants, animals, and microorganisms within their natural habitats. A key feature of biosphere reserves is the integration of human development with nature conservation. They utilize a zonation approach consisting of a core area for strict protection, a buffer zone for research and education, and a transition zone for sustainable resource management by local communities. This multi-functional framework ensures that biodiversity is protected while supporting scientific research and the socio-economic needs of local populations.

27Science and Technology
To meet Euro emission standards, what should be the sulphur content in the ultra low sulphur diesel?
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Answer: (A) 0.05 percent or less than

Explanation

Euro emission standards are regulatory requirements that set limits for exhaust emissions of new vehicles sold in the European Union and other regions adopting these norms. A critical component of these standards is the reduction of sulphur in diesel fuel, as sulphur contributes to the formation of particulate matter and can poison advanced emission control systems like diesel particulate filters. To comply with these standards, fuel refineries produce ultra low sulphur diesel. For instance, Bharat Stage II norms, which correspond to Euro 2 standards, mandate a maximum sulphur content of 500 parts per million (ppm). In percentage terms, this is calculated as 500/1,000,000 = 0.0005, which equals 0.05 percent. Subsequent standards such as Euro IV and Euro V further reduced these limits to 50 ppm (0.005 percent) and 10 ppm (0.001 percent) respectively. Therefore, a sulphur content of 0.05 percent or less is the necessary threshold to meet the progression of Euro emission standards.

28Science and Technology
Which one of the following diseases is not transmitted by tiger mosquitoes?
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Answer: (D) Japanese Encephalitis

Explanation

Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease caused by the Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV). It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes of the Culex genus, particularly Culex tritaeniorhynchus and the Culex vishnui group. These mosquitoes typically breed in stagnant water sources such as flooded rice paddies and marshes. The transmission cycle involves animals like pigs and water birds as natural reservoirs. Tiger mosquitoes, scientifically known as Aedes albopictus, are effective vectors for various arboviruses such as Dengue and Chikungunya, but they do not transmit Japanese Encephalitis.

29Geography
Climate change is caused by
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Climate change results from the cumulative impact of various atmospheric alterations that disrupt the Earth's radiative equilibrium. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are the primary drivers, as they trap outgoing longwave radiation and warm the planet through the greenhouse effect. The depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer contributes to climate variability by altering atmospheric thermal structures and circulation patterns, which affects regional surface temperatures. Furthermore, environmental pollution through the release of aerosols and black carbon significantly influences the climate; these particles can either reflect incoming solar radiation to cool the surface or absorb it to warm the atmosphere, while also modifying cloud formation and precipitation. Collectively, these chemical and physical changes in the atmosphere drive the observed shifts in global climate patterns.

30Geography
Which one among the following substances does not contribute to global warming?
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Answer: (A) Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen

Explanation

Oxides of sulphur, particularly sulphur dioxide (SO₂), are known to produce a cooling effect on the Earth's atmosphere. Upon emission, these gases react with water vapour and other atmospheric constituents to form sulfate aerosols. These aerosols increase the Earth's albedo by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space before it can reach the surface. Furthermore, sulfate particles act as cloud condensation nuclei, leading to the formation of more reflective and long-lasting clouds, which further enhances the cooling effect. While nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are major atmospheric pollutants involved in the production of acid rain and ground-level ozone, they are not considered direct greenhouse gases. Unlike substances that trap outgoing longwave radiation, these oxides primarily influence the climate through aerosol formation and complex chemical cycles that do not result in a direct global warming potential.

31Geography
Which one of the following is the correct definition of Agenda 21 ?
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Answer: (C) It is a action plan for the conservation of global environment in 21st century.

Explanation

Agenda 21 was adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992, also known as the Earth Summit. It is a comprehensive, non-binding action plan designed to promote sustainable development worldwide. The 21 in its name represents the 21st century, signifying the global commitment to addressing environmental challenges and socio-economic development issues. The document outlines strategies for the conservation and management of resources, strengthening the role of major groups, and providing means of implementation to ensure environmental protection and sustainable growth for the planet in the new century.

32Economy
The 'Eco Mark' Scheme was launched in 1991 to encourage consumers to buy products of less harmful environmental impact. Which one of the following consumer products is not notified under this Scheme?
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Answer: (D) Drugs and Antibiotics

Explanation

The Eco Mark scheme, launched in 1991 and administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), was designed to label consumer products that satisfy specific environmental criteria along with the quality requirements of Indian Standards. The primary objective is to reduce the environmental impact of consumer products through improved manufacturing processes and consumer awareness. Drugs and antibiotics are excluded from this scheme because they are pharmaceutical products regulated under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 and the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules of 1945. These regulations prioritize clinical safety, therapeutic efficacy, and manufacturing quality over the environmental labeling criteria defined for household and industrial consumer goods under the Eco Mark initiative. Since pharmaceutical substances require strict medical supervision and specific bio-safety protocols, they are not classified as general consumer goods suitable for environmental impact certification.

33Geography
Which one of the following is a bio-indicator of air pollution?
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Answer: (B) Lichen

Explanation

Lichens are symbiotic organisms composed of a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. They are widely recognized as effective bio-indicators of air pollution because they lack a protective cuticle and roots, absorbing water and nutrients directly from the atmosphere through their entire surface. This physiology makes them exceptionally sensitive to airborne pollutants, particularly sulfur dioxide (SO₂), which disrupts their chlorophyll and metabolic functions. The absence or reduced diversity of lichens in a specific geographic area typically signifies high levels of atmospheric pollution, while their presence indicates cleaner air.

34Science and Technology
Acid rain is Caused due to air pollution by
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Answer: (D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

Explanation

Acid rain occurs when sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are discharged into the atmosphere through the burning of fossil fuels, industrial processes, and vehicular emissions. Once airborne, these gases react with water molecules, oxygen, and other atmospheric oxidants to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃). These highly acidic compounds dissolve in cloud droplets and eventually fall to the earth as precipitation with a pH lower than the natural level of approximately 5.6. The chemical transformation involves the oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃, which reacts with water to form sulfuric acid, while nitrogen dioxide reacts directly with hydroxyl radicals to produce nitric acid. This increased acidity in rainfall causes significant damage to soil chemistry, aquatic life, and historical monuments.

35Economy
The disease caused by deficiency of protein in children is
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Answer: (A) Marasmus

Explanation

Marasmus is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) that primarily affects infants and very young children. It occurs due to a chronic deficiency of both dietary protein and total calories. This condition leads to extreme emaciation, where the body uses its own tissues for energy, resulting in the loss of subcutaneous fat and significant muscle wasting. The lack of sufficient protein prevents the body from building and repairing tissues, which is critical during the rapid growth phases of childhood. Among the listed options, it is the only condition characterized by a fundamental lack of protein and macronutrients required for physical development.

36Science and Technology
Photosynthesis using the invisible part of the sunlight is done by some
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Answer: (C) Bacteria

Explanation

Certain types of phototrophic bacteria, such as purple sulfur bacteria and green sulfur bacteria, possess specialized pigments called bacteriochlorophylls. Unlike the chlorophyll found in trees and algae which primarily absorbs visible light in the 400 to 700 nm range, bacteriochlorophylls allow these bacteria to perform photosynthesis using the near-infrared part of the electromagnetic spectrum. This invisible light typically falls in the wavelength range of 700 nm to over 1000 nm. This adaptation enables these bacteria to thrive in environments like deep water or microbial mats where visible light has been filtered out by other organisms, but infrared radiation is still available as an energy source.

37Geography
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Biosphere Reserves - Edward Suess

Explanation

Edward Suess, an Austrian geologist, is recognized for coining the term biosphere in 1875. He introduced this concept in his book titled Die Entstehung der Alpen, defining it as the specific region of the Earth's surface where life is present. This terminology provided the essential scientific framework for the modern understanding of global life-supporting systems and the subsequent establishment of the Biosphere Reserve network.

38Economy
Euro emission norms are emission standards and these represent a package setting limits for emission from a vehicle. Which of the following gases is covered under this?
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Euro emission standards are regulatory requirements established by the European Union to reduce the levels of harmful pollutants emitted by new vehicles sold in EU member states. These norms define the acceptable limits for various exhaust emissions to improve air quality and mitigate environmental impact. The primary pollutants targeted by these standards include Carbon monoxide (CO), which is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels; Hydrocarbons (HC), which consist of unburnt fuel components; and Nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), which are formed during high-temperature combustion processes. Additionally, for diesel vehicles, the norms also set limits for Particulate Matter (PM). Since the implementation of Euro 1 in 1992, each successive stage has progressively lowered the permissible limits for all three of these gases to encourage the adoption of cleaner engine technologies and exhaust after-treatment systems like catalytic converters and diesel particulate filters.

39Science and Technology
Which one of the following air pollutants can affect blood stream leading to death?
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Answer: (D) Carbon monoxide

Explanation

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a highly toxic gas that enters the bloodstream through inhalation and binds with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO). Because hemoglobin's affinity for carbon monoxide is approximately 200 to 250 times greater than its affinity for oxygen, the CO molecules displace oxygen and prevent its transport to vital organs and tissues. This significant reduction in oxygen delivery leads to systemic hypoxia. At high concentrations or during prolonged exposure, the resulting lack of oxygen causes critical failure of the heart and brain, ultimately leading to unconsciousness and death by asphyxiation.

40Art and Culture
Who among the following was not an Alvar Saint?
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Answer: (B) Tirugyan

Explanation

Tirugyan, commonly known as Sambandar or Tirugnana Sambandar, was one of the most prominent Nayanar saints of South India who lived during the 7th century. The Nayanars were a group of 63 Tamil poet-saints devoted to Lord Shiva, whereas the Alvars were 12 Vaishnavite poet-saints devoted to Lord Vishnu. Sambandar is highly revered as one of the Moovar, the three principal Nayanars alongside Appar and Sundarar, whose hymns are collected in the Tevaram. His compositions represent the early stage of the Bhakti movement in South India and are a vital part of the Tirumurai, the foundational canon of Shaiva Siddhanta. Since his devotion was centered entirely on Shiva, he is classified as a Nayanar rather than an Alvar.

41History
Who among the following was the last to be initiated in his religion by Gautama Buddha?
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Answer: (D) Subhadda

Explanation

Subhadda was a wandering ascetic who became the final disciple to be personally converted and ordained by Gautama Buddha. This event took place at Kushinagar during the last hours of the Buddha's life, just before his Mahaparinirvana. Despite the Buddha being in a state of extreme physical exhaustion, he granted an audience to Subhadda, who had approached his attendant Ananda with spiritual doubts. After listening to the Buddha's discourse on the Noble Eightfold Path, Subhadda requested admission into the Sangha and attained Arhatship shortly thereafter, marking the completion of the Buddha's mission of proselytization.

42History
'Sita' in Maurya age means
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Answer: (C) revenue from crown land

Explanation

In the Maurya administrative and economic system, as described in Kautilya's Arthashastra, the term Sita refers specifically to the revenue or income derived from the crown lands, which were the lands owned directly by the State. These lands were managed by a high-ranking official known as the Sitadhyaksha, or the Superintendent of Agriculture. The Sitadhyaksha was responsible for organizing the cultivation of these lands using state-provided resources, laborers, slaves, and prisoners, or by leasing them to sharecroppers. The income generated from the sale of the produce or the state's share of the harvest from these specific tracts constituted the Sita revenue, serving as a vital source of wealth for the imperial treasury.

43History
What was 'Dar-ul-Shafa' established by Feroz Tughlaq?
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Answer: (B) A free hospital

Explanation

Feroz Shah Tughlaq established Dar-ul-Shafa, also known as Shifa Khana, in Delhi as a charitable hospital to provide medical aid to the needy. This institution was staffed by competent physicians and surgeons who provided free treatment and medicines to the public. It was part of the Sultans extensive welfare measures, which aimed to alleviate the suffering of his subjects through state-funded healthcare. The state covered all expenses for the patients diet and medicines, ensuring that even the poorest citizens had access to medical care during his reign.

44History
Who was the medieval king responsible for introducing the silver coin called 'tanka' in North India?
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Answer: (A) Illtutmish

Explanation

Shams-ud-din Iltutmish, the third ruler of the Mamluk dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, is credited with the introduction of a standardized monetary system in North India. He introduced two principal coins: the silver tanka and the copper jital. The silver tanka issued by Iltutmish typically weighed approximately 175 grains and remained the standard for silver currency throughout much of the Sultanate period. This reform consolidated the economy of the fledgling Sultanate and replaced the mixed and irregular coinage of previous years. By issuing these coins, Iltutmish asserted his sovereign authority and provided a uniform medium for trade and administration across his territories.

45History
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Suppression of slavery - Malcolm

Explanation

The suppression of slavery in British India was formally achieved through the Indian Slavery Act of 1843, also known as Act V of 1843. This legislation was passed during the administration of Lord Ellenborough, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1842 to 1844. The act removed the legal recognition of slavery, meaning that courts would no longer enforce rights arising from the ownership of slaves. Sir John Malcolm was a prominent Scottish soldier, diplomat, and administrator who served as the Governor of Bombay from 1827 to 1830. While he was influential in the administrative and diplomatic history of India, particularly regarding the Maratha states and Central India, he was not the official responsible for the legislative suppression of slavery.

46Art and Culture
The earliest occurrence of the mantra famous as Gayatri Mantra is found in the following text:
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Answer: (C) Rig Veda

Explanation

The Gayatri Mantra, also known as the Savitri Mantra, is one of the most sacred and ancient hymns in Vedic literature. It is found in the third Mandala (Book 3) of the Rig Veda, specifically in Sukta 62, Mantra 10 (RV 3.62.10). Attributed to the sage Vishvamitra, the mantra is dedicated to Savitr, a solar deity representing the aspect of the sun at sunrise. The Rig Veda is recognized as the most ancient of the four Vedas, composed between approximately 1500 and 1200 BCE, making this the earliest textual occurrence of the mantra. The hymn is composed in the Gayatri meter, which consists of twenty-four syllables arranged in a triplet of eight syllables each, and it invokes divine light to illuminate the intellect.

47Art and Culture
The 'Dakshinamurti' idol of Shiva depicts him in which form?
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Answer: (A) Teacher

Explanation

Dakshinamurti is an iconic representation of Lord Shiva as the supreme cosmic teacher and the personification of ultimate spiritual wisdom. In this form, Shiva is depicted as the primordial guru who imparts knowledge of the Vedas, Shastras, and the supreme truth to sages and seekers. The name is derived from the Sanskrit words Dakshina, meaning south, and Murti, meaning image or form, signifying the aspect of Shiva facing south to bestow enlightenment upon the world. He is typically portrayed seated under a sacred banyan tree, holding a manuscript or book representing the scriptures and performing the Jnana Mudra, which symbolizes the union of individual consciousness with the universal divine. This form characterizes Shiva as the master of all arts and sciences, specifically highlighting his role as the teacher of yoga, music, and jnana.

48History
The Chinese writers mention India by the name of
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Answer: (B) Yin-tu

Explanation

Chinese travelers and scholars, most notably the 7th-century Buddhist monk Xuanzang, adopted the name Yin-tu to refer to India. In his travel records, he explained that while the region had been previously referred to by various phonetic transliterations like Shin-tu or Tian-zhu, Yin-tu was the most appropriate designation. He derived this term from the Sanskrit word Indu, which translates to Moon. Xuanzang reasoned that just as the moon illuminates the sky after the sun sets, the spiritual wisdom and sages of India provided enlightenment to the surrounding world. This term subsequently became the standard historical Chinese name for the Indian subcontinent.

49History
With which of the following movements is Aruna Asaf Ali associated?
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Answer: (D) Quit India Movement

Explanation

Aruna Asaf Ali is widely recognized for her pivotal role during the Quit India Movement launched in 1942. She gained national fame for hoisting the Indian National Congress flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay on August 9, 1942, shortly after the British government arrested the top leadership of the Congress. This act earned her the title of the Heroine of the 1942 Movement. During the subsequent years of the struggle, she remained underground to avoid arrest and worked alongside other socialist leaders to organize resistance and distribute revolutionary literature, becoming a symbol of political radicalism and women's participation in the freedom struggle.

50History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Lady Catherine Mayo (B) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre (C) Ram Manohar Lohia (D) Jawaharlal Nehru List-II: 1. Freedom at Midnight 2. Mother India 3. Discovery of India 4. Guilty Men of India's Partition
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Catherine Mayo authored Mother India in 1927, focusing on a critical assessment of Indian social systems and self-governance. Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre co-wrote Freedom at Midnight, which documents the historical transition of power in India and the events of the partition during 1947-1948. Ram Manohar Lohia wrote Guilty Men of India's Partition to analyze the roles of various Indian leaders and political factors in the partition process. Jawaharlal Nehru wrote The Discovery of India during his incarceration at Ahmednagar Fort between 1942 and 1945, offering a comprehensive overview of Indian history, philosophy, and culture.

51History
Who translated Ramayana into Persian in accordance with the wishes of Akbar?
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Answer: (B) Abdul Qadir Badauni

Explanation

Abdul Qadir Badauni was a distinguished historian and scholar in the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. As part of Akbar's policy of cultural synthesis and intellectual inquiry, the Emperor established a translation bureau known as the Maktab Khana. He commissioned the translation of several Sanskrit classics into Persian to make them accessible to the Persian-speaking elite. Badauni was specifically tasked with the translation of the Ramayana, a project he began in 1584 and completed in 1589. Despite his personal orthodox leanings and private criticisms of Akbar's religious policies recorded in his secret history, Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh, Badauni successfully produced a Persian version of the epic that captured the narrative of Rama for the Mughal court. This effort was central to Akbar's vision of creating a shared cultural heritage within his empire.

52History
Of the following who had rebelled against the Mughal Emperor Jahangir? 1. Asaf Khan 2. Khurram 3. Mahabat Khan 4. Khusrau
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Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Prince Khusrau, the eldest son of Jahangir, staged a major rebellion in 1606, shortly after his father's accession. He fled Agra for Punjab but was defeated at the Battle of Bhairowal and subsequently imprisoned. Prince Khurram, who later became Emperor Shah Jahan, rose in revolt in 1622. His rebellion was driven by the fear of being sidelined in the succession struggle due to the growing influence of the Nur Jahan Junta and the promotion of Prince Shahryar. He spent several years in active rebellion across the Deccan and Bengal before submitting in 1626. Mahabat Khan, one of Jahangir's most capable generals, rebelled in 1626. Feeling alienated and threatened by Nur Jahan's maneuvers, he staged a daring coup on the banks of the River Jhelum, successfully taking the Emperor captive for a short period before his control was eventually undermined by Nur Jahan's diplomacy.

53History
Who among the following was the envoy of the British King James I at Jahangir's Court?
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Answer: (A) William Hawkins

Explanation

William Hawkins was a representative of the English East India Company who arrived at the court of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir in 1608. He carried a formal letter from King James I of England seeking permission to establish trade relations and a factory at Surat. Hawkins was proficient in the Turkish language, which enabled him to communicate directly with Jahangir without the need for an interpreter. Due to his linguistic abilities and diplomatic conduct, Jahangir developed a favorable opinion of him, granting him a mansab of 400 and the title of English Khan. His mission served as the first major diplomatic effort by the British Crown to secure commercial concessions within the Mughal Empire.

54History
By whom the 'Quit India' resolution was moved in the Bombay Session of the Congress in the year 1942?
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Quit India resolution at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee on August 8, 1942. While the resolution was drafted by Mahatma Gandhi to demand an immediate end to British rule in India, Nehru was chosen to formally propose it during the meeting at Gowalia Tank Maidan. The resolution was seconded by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and passed with an overwhelming majority, leading to the launch of a mass civil disobedience movement. This session is significant for Gandhi's Do or Die speech, which called for a non-violent but determined struggle for independence.

55History
Lahore Session of Muslim League (1940) was presided over by
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Answer: (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Explanation

Mohammad Ali Jinnah presided over the twenty-seventh annual session of the All-India Muslim League held in Lahore in March 1940. This historic session is most notable for the adoption of the Lahore Resolution, which formally articulated the demand for the creation of independent sovereign states for Muslims in the northwestern and eastern regions of British India where they were in a majority. During his presidential address, Jinnah emphasized the two-nation theory, arguing that Hindus and Muslims belonged to two different religious philosophies and social customs, which necessitated political separation. This session marked a fundamental shift in the League's objectives from seeking minority safeguards to demanding a separate nation-state.

56History
'Tinkathia System' in Champaran meant
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Answer: (A) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/20 area of land.

Explanation

The Tinkathia system was a land tenure arrangement in the Champaran district of Bihar where European planters compelled Indian peasants to cultivate indigo. The term is derived from the local measurement units, where one bigha consists of 20 katthas. Under this system, the farmers were legally bound to grow indigo on 3/20 of their total land, which equates to three katthas out of every twenty. This practice was extremely exploitative because the planters fixed the prices at very low rates and the cultivation of indigo significantly depleted soil nutrients, making the land less suitable for food crops. The grievances of the farmers under this system became the central issue of the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, which was Mahatma Gandhi's first major civil disobedience movement in India.

57History
In which of the following Sessions of Indian National Congress, Mahatma Gandhi said, 'Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain for ever'?
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Answer: (D) Karachi Session, 1931

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi made this statement during the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in March 1931. The session took place shortly after the execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, which had caused significant public anger. Upon his arrival in Karachi, Gandhi was met with black flag demonstrations by youth activists who were dissatisfied with the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. In response to this hostility and to emphasize the permanence of his principles over his physical presence, Gandhi declared that although he might perish, the ideology he stood for would endure. This session, presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, is also notable for the adoption of the resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Program, marking a shift toward defining the socio-economic goals of the independence movement.

58History
Who said? 'Tilak is the father of Indian unrest.'
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Answer: (A) V. Chirol

Explanation

Valentine Chirol, a prominent British journalist and author, coined the phrase in his 1910 book titled Indian Unrest. Chirol used the term to describe Bal Gangadhar Tilak because of Tilak's assertive nationalist approach and his ability to mobilize the Indian masses against British colonial rule through the revival of cultural festivals and the promotion of Swaraj. Tilak considered the remark defamatory and traveled to London to file a libel suit against Chirol, which he eventually lost. However, the title became widely associated with Tilak as a recognition of his pioneering role in the Indian independence movement.

59History
The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for
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Answer: (B) Partition of India

Explanation

The Mountbatten Plan, also known as the June 3rd Plan of 1947, was the final blueprint for the transfer of power and the territorial division of British India. Lord Mountbatten proposed the plan to resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League by facilitating the partition of the country into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan. The plan outlined the mechanism for partitioning the provinces of Bengal and Punjab based on communal majorities through Boundary Commissions and provided for referendums in the North-West Frontier Province and the Sylhet district of Assam to determine their affiliation. This framework was formally enacted by the British Parliament as the Indian Independence Act of 1947, which legally established the two separate nations.

60History
After the formation of ministries in the provinces in 1937, Congress rule lasted for
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Answer: (A) 28 months

Explanation

The provincial elections of 1937 were held under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935. The Indian National Congress formed ministries in the majority of the provinces in July 1937. These ministries remained in power until October 1939, when they resigned en masse to protest against the British government's unilateral decision to involve India in World War II without the consent of the Indian leadership. The duration from the assumption of office in July 1937 to the resignations in October 1939 totals 28 months. Following these resignations, the Muslim League observed 22 December 1939 as the Day of Deliverance.

61Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution, provision of creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States is mentioned?
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Answer: (B) Article 169

Explanation

Article 169 of the Indian Constitution provides the specific procedure for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. Under this provision, Parliament has the power to abolish an existing Legislative Council or create a new one if the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be supported by a special majority, which requires a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once such a resolution is passed, Parliament may then enact a law to give effect to the decision. Such a law passed by Parliament is considered an ordinary law and is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

62Polity and Governance
Provision for appointment of National Commission for SC's and ST's has been made in the Constitution under article
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Answer: (A) 338 and 338 A

Explanation

The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two distinct constitutional bodies. This amendment inserted Article 338 A into the Constitution, specifically establishing the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, while Article 338 was modified to provide for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. These commissions are empowered to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution or any other law, and to evaluate the working of such safeguards. Both commissions consist of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.

63Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The total number of members of Uttar Pradesh Legislative Council is
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Answer: (A) 100

Explanation

The Uttar Pradesh Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) has 100 members, making it the largest state legislative council in India. It is the upper house of the bicameral UP legislature. Members are elected by MLAs, local bodies, graduates, teachers, and some are nominated by the Governor. The figure of 105 sometimes cited is incorrect; 100 is the correct constitutional strength.

64Polity and Governance
Provision for the representation of Anglo Indian Community in the Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution under the article
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Answer: (A) 331

Explanation

Article 331 of the Indian Constitution contains the provision for the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha. It states that notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President may, if he is of the opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the People, nominate not more than two members of that community to the Lok Sabha. This special provision was designed to ensure that the unique interests of the Anglo-Indian minority were represented in the national parliament, as their geographical dispersion made it difficult for them to win seats through traditional elections. The President exercised this power based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.

65Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Article 48 - Separation of judiciary from executive

Explanation

Article 48 of the Constitution of India pertains to the organization of agriculture and animal husbandry, directing the State to endeavor to organize these fields on modern and scientific lines and to prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle. The separation of the judiciary from the executive is instead provided for under Article 50, which requires the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State to uphold judicial independence. Since Article 48 does not concern the judiciary, the pairing is inaccurate.

66History
Who was associated with the formation of the Deccan Educational Society?
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Answer: (C) B.G. Tilak

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a primary founding member of the Deccan Education Society, which was established in Pune in 1884. Along with Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Vishnushastri Chiplunkar, and Mahadev Ballal Namjoshi, Tilak sought to create an indigenous educational system that was both affordable and nationalist in character. The society grew out of the New English School, founded by the same group in 1880, and eventually led to the establishment of Fergusson College in 1885. Tilak believed that a robust education system managed by Indians was essential for the intellectual and political empowerment of the masses. He served as a teacher and a key organizer during the society's formative years, emphasizing self-reliance and the spirit of public service.

67Polity and Governance
When were High Courts established in Bombay, Madras and Calcutta?
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Answer: (A) 1861

Explanation

The Indian High Courts Act was passed by the British Parliament in 1861, providing the legal authority to establish High Courts in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay. This legislation was intended to unify the judicial system by merging the Supreme Courts and the Sadar Adalats that previously functioned independently. While the formal inauguration of these courts occurred in 1862 through the issuance of Letters Patent, the Act of 1861 served as the foundational mandate for their creation. The Calcutta High Court was the first to be established under this Act, followed by the High Courts of Bombay and Madras, marking a significant reorganization of the Indian judiciary.

68History
Who of the following had pleaded from the side of Indian National Army Officers in their Red Fort trial?
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Answer: (D) Sir T.B. Sapru

Explanation

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a distinguished jurist and statesman who served as a key member of the INA Defence Committee organized by the Indian National Congress in 1945. During the Red Fort trials, he provided his legal expertise to defend officers of the Indian National Army, such as Prem Sahgal, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Shah Nawaz Khan, against charges of treason and mutiny. Working alongside other prominent legal figures like Bhulabhai Desai, Kailas Nath Katju, and Jawaharlal Nehru, Sapru helped challenge the legality of the British proceedings. His involvement was particularly significant given his stature as a constitutional expert, helping to turn the trial into a major rallying point for the Indian independence movement.

69History
Who among the following had resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council protesting Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
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Answer: (C) Sir Shankar Nair

Explanation

Sir Sankaran Nair was the only Indian member of the Viceroy's Executive Council when the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919. Deeply moved by the brutal killings and the subsequent imposition of martial law in Punjab, he resigned from his post in July 1919 as a mark of protest against the repressive policies of the British government. His resignation was a significant political statement that highlighted the gravity of the Punjab atrocities to the British authorities and the public. By stepping down from the highest executive body in British India, he demonstrated his solidarity with the national sentiment and criticized the government's failure to hold the responsible officials accountable immediately after the tragedy.

70Polity and Governance
Who was the Chairman of the Committee which proposed Democratic Decentralisation and Panchayati Raj?
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Answer: (D) Balwant Rai Mehta

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service. In its report submitted in November 1957, the committee recommended the establishment of the scheme of democratic decentralisation, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. The committee suggested a three-tier Panchayati Raj system consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level. These tiers were to be linked through a device of indirect elections. Because of these foundational recommendations that shaped the structure of local self-government in India, Balwant Rai Mehta is often regarded as the Architect of Panchayati Raj.

71Polity and Governance
The members of the Panchayat Samiti are
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Answer: (C) directly elected by the people

Explanation

According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which provides a three-tier structure for the Panchayati Raj system in India, members of Panchayats at all levels—village, intermediate (Panchayat Samiti), and district—are directly elected by the people. Article 243C of the Constitution specifies that all seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. For the Panchayat Samiti, which functions at the block level, the electorate consists of the registered voters within the specific territorial constituencies of that block. While the Chairperson of the Panchayat Samiti is elected indirectly by and from amongst these elected members, the members themselves are the direct representatives of the local population.

72Economy
Which one of the following is not a tax/duty levied by the Government of India?
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Answer: (D) Toll Tax

Explanation

Toll tax is primarily a state-level levy under the constitutional framework of India. According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Entry 59 of List II (State List) explicitly grants State Governments the power to levy tolls. While the Union Government, through the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), collects user fees on National Highways for development and maintenance, the legislative competence for the taxation category of tolls is vested with the states. This constitutional classification places the authority for toll taxation outside the direct taxing powers assigned to the Government of India in the Union List.

73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a Constitutional body?
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Answer: (D) Planning Commission

Explanation

The Planning Commission was established on 15 March 1950 through an executive resolution of the Government of India. It was a non-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it was not created by the Constitution itself nor by an act of Parliament. As an advisory body, it was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans and assessing the nation's resources. Because its existence and powers were derived from executive order rather than a specific constitutional article, it remained distinct from bodies explicitly mandated by the text of the Constitution.

74Polity and Governance
The Right to Information Act of Parliament received the assent of the President of India on
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Answer: (C) 15th June, 2005

Explanation

The Right to Information Act, 2005, was passed by the Lok Sabha on 11th May 2005 and by the Rajya Sabha on 12th May 2005. Following its passage through both Houses of Parliament, the Bill received the formal assent of the President of India, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, on 15th June 2005. This presidential approval officially enacted the legislation. While the majority of the Act's provisions came into force 120 days later to allow for administrative preparation, the date of the President's assent marks the legal birth of the Act.

75Polity and Governance
The Secretariat Building of which State is known as Writer's Building ?
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Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation

The Writers Building is the secretariat building of the State Government of West Bengal, located in the state capital, Kolkata. Constructed in 1777 and designed by Thomas Lyon, the building was originally intended to house the junior clerks, then known as writers, of the British East India Company. This functional origin gave the landmark its enduring name. Architecturally, it is noted for its distinct Greco-Roman style and red surface. It holds immense historical significance, particularly as the site of the 1930 assassination of the colonial Inspector General of Prisons, N.S. Simpson, by the Indian revolutionaries Binoy Basu, Badal Gupta, and Dinesh Gupta. It continued to serve as the principal seat of executive power in West Bengal following Indias independence.

76Polity and Governance
The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures
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Answer: (D) representation of minorities

Explanation

The system of proportional representation is designed to ensure that the legislative body reflects the diversity of the electorate by allocating seats to political parties or groups in direct proportion to the number of votes they receive. In this electoral mechanism, even if a group or party constitutes a small percentage of the total population, it can still secure representation in the legislature as long as it meets a certain minimum threshold of votes. This allows for the inclusion of various political, social, and ethnic minorities who might otherwise be marginalized in a system where only the candidate with the highest number of votes wins. By ensuring that votes translated into seats more accurately, proportional representation provides a platform for minority voices and guarantees that the assembly becomes a truer mirror of the nation's political landscape.

77Economy
The policy of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation was announced as New Economic Policy by Prime Minister
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Answer: (C) Narsimha Rao

Explanation

The New Economic Policy (NEP) was launched in July 1991 under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao. At the time, India faced a severe balance of payments crisis and high inflation, necessitating radical structural reforms. The Rao government introduced the Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG) model to shift the Indian economy from a state-controlled regime to a more market-oriented one. These reforms included dismantling the License Raj, reducing import tariffs, and opening various sectors to private and foreign investment. P.V. Narasimha Rao provided the essential political backing for these transformative changes, which are often referred to as the Rao-Manmohan model due to the combined efforts of the Prime Minister and then-Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

78Polity and Governance
Which part of our Constitution envisages a three tier system of Panchayats?
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Answer: (A) Part IX

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX to the Constitution of India, specifically titled The Panchayats. Under Article 243-B, this part mandates the establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state, comprising Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. This structure aims to decentralize power and ensure local self-governance. While the three-tier system is the general rule, the Constitution provides an exception for states with a population of less than twenty lakhs, which may choose not to constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. This constitutional addition also included the Eleventh Schedule, which lists twenty-nine functional items within the purview of these local bodies.

79History
Who amongst the following had demanded first the dominion status for India?
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Answer: (C) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jaykar

Explanation

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and M.R. Jayakar were prominent leaders of the Indian Liberal Federation who consistently advocated for Dominion Status as the primary goal of India's constitutional development. During the All Parties Conference in 1928, they played a crucial role in drafting the Nehru Report, which formally outlined a constitution for India based on the principle of Dominion Status. While younger leaders within the Indian National Congress began pushing for Purna Swaraj or complete independence by 1929, Sapru and Jayakar maintained that Dominion Status within the British Commonwealth provided a pragmatic and legally sound framework for self-rule. Their commitment to this objective was a defining characteristic of the Liberal school of Indian politics throughout the 1920s and during the Round Table Conferences.

80Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following is responsible for revenue sharing between the State Government and the Local Government?
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Answer: (C) State Finance Commission

Explanation

The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 243-I and Article 243-Y of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992. The Governor of a state constitutes this commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities. Its core responsibility is to recommend the principles governing the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees leviable by the state between the State Government and the local government bodies. It also determines the allocation of these funds among various levels of local government and suggests the criteria for providing grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of the State to improve the financial health and functional efficiency of local self-government institutions.

81Economy
The Gandhian economy is based on the principle of
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Answer: (B) Trusteeship

Explanation

The Gandhian economic model is fundamentally rooted in the principle of Trusteeship. Mahatma Gandhi proposed this concept as a way to achieve social and economic equality by transforming the mindset of the wealthy. Under this principle, individuals who possess wealth and resources are expected to hold them as trustees for the benefit of society rather than for personal indulgence. Gandhi believed that since all wealth is ultimately produced by the community, the surplus beyond what is necessary for an individual’s honorable livelihood should be used for the welfare of the general public. This philosophy seeks to resolve class conflicts and ensure equitable distribution through moral evolution and non-violence, emphasizing that the right to property is limited by the social obligation to serve the common good.

82Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 is included in the
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Answer: (C) Ninth Schedule

Explanation

The Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 was placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to protect it from judicial scrutiny. The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act in 1951 specifically to safeguard land reform legislations and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts on the grounds that they violated fundamental rights, particularly the right to property. By including this Act in the Ninth Schedule, the legislature ensured that the redistributive measures and the social engineering intended by the law could be implemented effectively without being struck down for infringing upon individual property rights as they existed at the time.

83Economy
Which one among the following is not a programme under RIDF?
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Answer: (D) Rural Industries

Explanation

The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was established by the Government of India in 1995-96 and is managed by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Its primary objective is to provide low-cost fund support to State Governments and State-owned corporations for the quick completion of projects related to rural infrastructure. As of 2013, the RIDF covered 34 broad categories of eligible activities classified into three main sectors: Agriculture and Related Sector, Social Sector, and Rural Connectivity. While Rural Water Supply and Rural Electrification are covered under the Social Sector and Rural Roads are a core component of Rural Connectivity, Rural Industries do not constitute an eligible infrastructure programme under the RIDF framework. Direct support for rural industries is typically channeled through other credit mechanisms, promotional schemes, or the MSME sector development funds rather than the infrastructure-specific RIDF.

84EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Industry): (A) Churk (B) Firozabad (C) Aligarh (D) Meerut List-II (Place): 1. Lock 2. Sport’s goods 3. Cement 4. Bangles
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Churk, situated in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh, is a well-known center for the cement industry due to the presence of large-scale cement plants. Firozabad is recognized as the Glass City of India and is world-famous for its traditional glass bangle industry. Aligarh has a long-standing reputation as the premier hub for lock manufacturing in India, producing a wide variety of security hardware. Meerut is a major national and international center for the production of sports goods, particularly famous for its cricket bats and athletic equipment.

85Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Supreme Court of India is correct?
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Answer: (D) It has Original Appellate as well as Advisory Jurisdiction.

Explanation

The Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court a diverse range of jurisdictions. Under Article 131, it exercises Original Jurisdiction over disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. Its Appellate Jurisdiction, detailed in Articles 132 to 136, allows it to hear appeals from High Courts regarding constitutional, civil, and criminal matters, in addition to its power to grant Special Leave to Appeal. Furthermore, Article 143 provides for Advisory Jurisdiction, which empowers the President of India to seek the Court's opinion on any question of law or fact that is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain it. Together, these provisions establish the Supreme Court as the final interpreter of the Constitution and the highest judicial authority in the country.

86Polity and Governance
Which among the following States did record the formation of maximum Coalition Governments in between 1967 to 1971?
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Answer: (C) Bihar

Explanation

Bihar witnessed the highest degree of political volatility and coalition turnover in India between 1967 and 1971. Following the 1967 general elections, which broke the single-party dominance of the Indian National Congress, Bihar entered an era marked by the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal experiments and frequent floor-crossing by legislators. The state saw approximately nine different changes in government or chief ministerial leadership during this four-year window. This extreme instability was driven by fragile alliances between diverse ideological groups and independent members, leading to the rapid rise and fall of ministries led by figures such as Mahamaya Prasad Sinha, B.P. Mandal, Bhola Paswan Shastri, Daroga Prasad Rai, and Karpoori Thakur. The frequency of these transitions surpassed that of other states experiencing similar political shifts during the same period.

87Polity and Governance
Which one the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India.

Explanation

Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of India, holding the office for two consecutive terms from 1952 to 1962. Zakir Hussain served as the second Vice President of India from 1962 to 1967 and subsequently became the third President of India.

88Economy
The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is its
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Answer: (D) Per Capita GDP

Explanation

Per Capita GDP is considered the most appropriate measure of economic growth because it adjusts the total economic output for the size of the population. The relationship is expressed as Per Capita GDP = Gross Domestic Product / Total Population. While aggregate GDP measures the total volume of goods and services produced, it does not reflect the average individual's economic status. If a country's population increases at a higher rate than its GDP, the overall economic well-being of its citizens may decline even if the total GDP shows an increase. By measuring output per person, Per Capita GDP provides a clearer picture of the actual improvement in the standard of living and ensures that the growth is assessed in relation to the number of people sharing the economic benefits.

89Geography
In South Asia, the country with the largest percentage of aged population is
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Answer: (D) Sri Lanka

Explanation

Sri Lanka has undergone a rapid demographic transition compared to its South Asian neighbors, characterized by a significant increase in life expectancy and a substantial decline in fertility rates. By 2013, the country had the most advanced aging profile in the region, with the population aged 60 and above comprising approximately 12.5 percent of the total population. This shift is primarily attributed to Sri Lanka's long-standing investments in social welfare, particularly in universal healthcare and education, which improved maternal and child health and overall longevity earlier than in other regional nations. Consequently, Sri Lanka faced the challenges of an aging society much sooner than countries like India, Nepal, or Bhutan, where birth rates remained higher and the youthful population share was more dominant.

90Geography
Which group refers of dependent population in the population pyramid?
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Answer: (D) 0-14 years group

Explanation

The 0-14 year age group is classified as the young dependent population in demography. This group is considered economically inactive because its members are typically below the legal age for employment and are generally engaged in schooling rather than the labor force. As a result, they rely on the working-age population for their economic and social needs, including nutrition, housing, and education. The size of this cohort in a population pyramid determines the youth dependency ratio, which is calculated using the following formula:

Youth Dependency Ratio = (Population (0-14))/(Population (15-59)) × 100

This ratio measures the number of young dependents that the productive age group must support. Analyzing this group is essential for governments to plan long-term investments in human capital, such as the construction of schools and the provision of pediatric healthcare services.

91Geography
Which one of the following States of India has the highest urban density?
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Answer: (D) West Bengal

Explanation

Urban density is a measure of the population concentration within a state's designated urban areas, calculated by dividing the total urban population by the total urban land area.

Based on the 2011 Census data (the most recent data available as of 2013), West Bengal has the highest urban density among the states provided in the options. The urban density is calculated as follows:

Urban Density = Total Urban Population/Total Urban Land Area

According to the official Census 2011 figures: West Bengal: Urban Population ≈ 2.91 crore; Urban Area ≈ 4,449 km². Urban Density ≈ 6,553 persons per km².

West Bengal's high urban density is attributed to the intense concentration of population in its statutory towns and the significant growth of census towns within a relatively small aggregate urban spatial footprint. In comparison, while states like Tamil Nadu have a higher percentage of the total population living in urban areas (level of urbanization at 48.4%), their urban populations are distributed over much larger designated urban land areas (approximately 11,263 km² for Tamil Nadu), which results in a lower density figure of approximately 3,101 persons per km². Maharashtra also has a lower urban density of approximately 5,882 persons per km².

92Economy
The promoter of National Stock Exchange of India is
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

The National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) was incorporated in 1992 and recognized as a stock exchange in 1993 following the recommendations of the Pherwani Committee. It was promoted by a consortium of leading financial institutions and public sector banks to modernize the Indian capital markets. The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) acted as the lead promoter of the exchange. Other primary promoting institutions included the State Bank of India (SBI), the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), and the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), along with other entities like IFCI and IL&FS. These institutions collectively provided the initial equity and organizational support necessary to establish a transparent, nation-wide, screen-based electronic trading system in India.

93Polity and Governance
'Swadhar' is the scheme for
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Answer: (C) Women in difficult circumstances

Explanation

The Swadhar scheme was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2001-02 specifically to cater to the needs of women in difficult circumstances. This group includes widows deserted by their families, women prisoners released from jail without social support, survivors of natural disasters, trafficked women rescued from brothels, and victims of sexual crimes who have no means of subsistence. The scheme provides a comprehensive package of services including shelter, food, clothing, counseling, and legal aid. Furthermore, it emphasizes social and economic rehabilitation through vocational training, enabling these women to regain their independence and reintegrate into society with dignity. In later years, the scheme was restructured and merged with the Short Stay Home scheme to be known as Swadhar Greh.

94Economy
Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana aims at
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Answer: (A) meeting rural needs like primary education, health care, drinking water, housing, rural roads.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) was launched in the 2000-2001 financial year with the primary objective of achieving sustainable human development at the village level. The scheme provides Additional Central Assistance (ACA) to States and Union Territories to bolster critical social and infrastructure sectors in rural regions. It originally focused on five key areas: primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water, and nutrition. In 2001-2002, rural electrification was added as a sixth component. By targeting these basic minimum services, the program aims to improve the overall quality of life and human capital in rural India, ensuring that essential needs like housing and clean water are met alongside educational and healthcare facilities.

95Economy
Which among the following products is not usually exported from India?
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Answer: (D) Pulses

Explanation

India is the world largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses. Because pulses are the primary source of protein for a large vegetarian population, domestic demand consistently outstrips domestic production. This leads to a persistent supply-demand gap, necessitating significant imports from countries such as Canada, Myanmar, and Australia to stabilize domestic prices and ensure food security. While India occasionally exports small quantities of specific varieties or processed pulses, it remains a structural importer of this commodity to meet its internal nutritional requirements.

96Economy
According to NSSO 61st round data unemployment at current daily status in rural as well as urban areas is nearly
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Answer: (A) 8%

Explanation

The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) 61st round, conducted between July 2004 and June 2005, utilized three different approaches to measure unemployment: Usual Status, Current Weekly Status, and Current Daily Status (CDS). The CDS approach is the most stringent and inclusive measure as it accounts for person-days of unemployment rather than just individuals, thereby capturing underemployment more accurately. According to the data released from this round, the unemployment rate at CDS for both rural and urban areas was approximately 8.28 percent. This figure represents the ratio of person-days unemployed to the total person-days in the labor force, reflecting the intensity of unemployment during that period. Consequently, the rate in both sectors is historically recognized as being nearly 8 percent.

97Geography
The North-South and East West corridors of the National Highway Development Project meet at
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Answer: (B) Jhansi

Explanation

The North-South and East-West corridors are the backbone of the National Highway Development Project (NHDP) managed by the National Highways Authority of India. The North-South corridor connects Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, while the East-West corridor connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. These two major highway axes intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh. This intersection makes Jhansi a critical logistical hub in the Indian road network, facilitating the movement of traffic across the four cardinal directions of the country.

98Geography
Which of the following longitudes is known as standard Meridian in India?
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Answer: (D) 82°30′E

Explanation

The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30'E longitude. This specific longitude was selected because it passes through the center of the country, near Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, ensuring a uniform time scale across India's vast longitudinal extent. The time observed along this meridian is known as Indian Standard Time (IST). Since the Earth rotates 15° every hour, 82°30'E corresponds to a time offset of 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). By adopting this single standard meridian, India avoids the logistical challenges of having multiple time zones, despite the nearly two-hour difference in sunrise times between the easternmost part of Arunachal Pradesh and the westernmost part of Gujarat.

99Geography
Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
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Answer: (A) Nathu-La - Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

Nathu-La is a prominent mountain pass located in the Himalayas at an elevation of approximately 4,310 meters. It is situated in the East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim, acting as a crucial link between India and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Historically, the pass served as a significant branch of the ancient Silk Road before being closed following the 1962 Sino-Indian War. It was eventually reopened in 2006 to facilitate bilateral border trade. Since it is located in Sikkim and not in Arunachal Pradesh, it represents an incorrect geographical match.

100Geography
Which of the following are the natural ports of India? 1. Chennai 2. Kochi 3. Tuticorin 4. Vishakhapatnam Select the correct answer from the codes given below. # Codes:
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Answer: (D) 2 and 4

Explanation

Kochi and Vishakhapatnam are major natural harbors on the Indian coastline. Kochi port, situated on the southwest coast in Kerala, is a natural harbor located within the Vembanad Lake and is strategically protected by the Willingdon Island, providing safe anchorage for vessels throughout the year. Vishakhapatnam, located on the east coast in Andhra Pradesh, is a natural, landlocked harbor. It is uniquely sheltered from the open sea and heavy weather by a high promontory known as Dolphin's Nose, which acts as a natural breakwater. Both these ports utilize existing geological formations and coastal topography to provide deep-water access and protection for shipping activities.

101Polity and Governance
Arrange in descending order the following States in terms of their population as per the provisional data Census 2011: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Bihar 3. Maharashtra 4. Uttar Pradesh Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation

According to the Census 2011 provisional data, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India with a population of approximately 199.8 million. Maharashtra follows in the second position with about 112.4 million people. Bihar ranks third with a population of nearly 104.1 million. Andhra Pradesh, which was undivided at the time of the 2011 Census, ranks fifth nationally (after West Bengal) with a population of approximately 84.6 million. Therefore, the descending order of the given states by population is Uttar Pradesh (4), Maharashtra (3), Bihar (2), and Andhra Pradesh (1).

102Polity and Governance
The National Institute for the Mentally Handicapped is situated at
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Answer: (A) Hyderabad

Explanation

The National Institute for the Mentally Handicapped was established in 1984 as an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is located at Manovikas Nagar in Secunderabad, which is part of the Hyderabad metropolitan area. As a premier national resource center, the institute focuses on human resource development, research, and the delivery of rehabilitation services for persons with intellectual disabilities. It provides specialized training programs for professionals and coordinates various models of care to ensure the empowerment and integration of individuals with mental handicaps into mainstream society. Through its headquarters in the Hyderabad region, it oversees regional centers and sets standards for disability rehabilitation across India.

103Polity and Governance
FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was finally implemented in the year
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Answer: (C) 2002

Explanation

The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was passed in 1999 to replace the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973. Although the act officially came into force on June 1, 2000, it included a sunset clause under Section 49 that allowed for a two-year transition period. During this time, the Enforcement Directorate was permitted to initiate and adjudicate cases for contraventions that occurred under the old FERA regime. This transitional window expired on May 31, 2002, which marks the year the new regulatory framework was finally and fully implemented without the overlap of the previous legislation. The shift to FEMA was part of Indias broader economic reforms to move from strict exchange control to a more liberalized system of exchange management.

104Geography
Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
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Answer: (A) Sutlej

Explanation

The Sutlej river originates in the Tibetan plateau from the Rakshas Tal lake, which is located near Lake Mansarovar and Mount Kailash at an elevation of approximately 4,555 meters. Known as the Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, the river flows westward for a considerable distance before entering India through the Shipki La pass in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Because its source lies in the Trans-Himalayan region of China, it is classified as an antecedent river that has carved deep gorges through the Himalayan ranges to reach the Indian subcontinent.

105Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codas given below the lists: List-I (Place): (A) Paper (B) Cement (C) Iron & (D) Mineral Oil 4. Lakeri Refinery List-II (Industry): 1. Ambala Mukul 2. Bhilai 3. Titagarh Steel
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Titagarh in West Bengal is a significant hub for the paper industry, famously housing the Titagarh Paper Mills which is one of the oldest in the country. The cement industry has a historic presence in Lakheri, Rajasthan, where India's first successful cement plant was established in 1915. Bhilai in Chhattisgarh is one of the most prominent centers for the iron and steel industry, home to the Bhilai Steel Plant which was established with Soviet collaboration during the Second Five-Year Plan. Ambalamukul in Kochi, Kerala, is a major location for the mineral oil refinery industry as it hosts the Kochi Refinery, which is one of the largest public sector refineries in India.

106Geography
Assertion (A): Black soils are suitable for cotton cultivation. Reason (R): They are rich in humus. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation

Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is highly suitable for cotton cultivation because of its high clay content and its ability to retain moisture for long periods. When dry, it develops deep cracks that aid in self-aeration, a property often referred to as self-plowing. However, black soils in India are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter or humus. The characteristic black color of this soil is attributed to the presence of titaniferous magnetite and compounds of iron and aluminum rather than a high concentration of organic humus. Thus, the assertion regarding its suitability for cotton is accurate, but the reason attributing this to humus richness is scientifically incorrect.

107Geography
Which of the following wet lands are designated as Ramsar sites? 1. Chilika Lake 2. Loktak 3. Keoladeo 4. Wular Lake Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Chilika Lake in Odisha and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan were the first two wetlands in India to be designated as Ramsar sites on 1 October 1981. Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir and Loktak Lake in Manipur were subsequently added to the list of Wetlands of International Importance on 23 March 1990 and 16 June 1990 respectively. As of 2013, all four wetlands mentioned in the question are officially recognized Ramsar sites, with Loktak and Keoladeo also being listed under the Montreux Record due to ecological changes.

108Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Ukai (B) Patratu (C) Pench (D) Dabhol List-II: 1. Jharkhand 2. Gujarat 3. Maharashtra 4. Madhya Pradesh
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Ukai matches with Gujarat as the Ukai Dam and its associated thermal and hydroelectric power stations are situated on the Tapi River in the state of Gujarat. Patratu matches with Jharkhand because the Patratu Thermal Power Station is a significant coal-based power plant located in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand. Pench matches with Madhya Pradesh as the Pench Hydroelectric Project is built on the Pench River in the Chhindwara district of Madhya Pradesh. Dabhol matches with Maharashtra because the Dabhol Power Station, a large gas-based power project, is located in the Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra. Matching these locations results in the sequence 2, 1, 4, and 3.

109Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Countries): (A) Donetz (B) Kuznetsk (C) Lancashire 3. Russia (D) Saar List-II (Coal fields): 1. Germany 2. U.K. 4. Ukraine
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

The Donetz Basin, also known as the Donbas, is a major industrial and coal-mining region located in eastern Ukraine. The Kuznetsk Basin, or Kuzbas, is situated in the Kemerovo Oblast of Russia and represents one of the largest coal mining areas in the world. Lancashire is a historic county in the United Kingdom that was central to the Industrial Revolution due to its extensive coal reserves. The Saar Basin is a coal-rich region in southwest Germany that has historically been a vital center for the country's iron and steel industries.

The correct matching is: (A) Donetz - 4 (Ukraine) (B) Kuznetsk - 3 (Russia) (C) Lancashire - 2 (U.K.) (D) Saar - 1 (Germany)

110Geography
Which country has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forests?
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Answer: (D) Japan

Explanation

Japan maintains approximately 67 to 68 percent of its total land area under forest cover. This high forest density is largely a result of the country's rugged and mountainous terrain, which restricts extensive agricultural and urban expansion to the coastal plains. National forest management policies and a long history of conservation have ensured that nearly two-thirds of the country remains forested, representing one of the highest proportions of forest cover among developed nations.

111Geography
The place where China has started construction of a dam on River Brahmaputra in Nov. 2010 is
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Answer: (B) Zangmair

Explanation

In November 2010, China officially confirmed the construction of the Zangmu Dam, a major hydroelectric project on the Yarlung Tsangpo River, which is the Tibetan name for the Brahmaputra. Located in the Gyaca County of the Tibet Autonomous Region, the Zangmu project was the first dam built on the main channel of the river. The construction of this run-of-the-river facility reached a significant milestone in late 2010 when the river was successfully diverted to allow for the main dam structure's development. This site is the primary location identified for China's initial hydropower exploitation on the middle reaches of the Brahmaputra.

112Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Centre): (A) Aluminium (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Jute List-II (Industry): 1. Malanjkhand 2. Tundoo 3. Jaykaynagar 4. Bhatpara
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Answer: (B) 3 1 2 4

Explanation

Jaykaynagar in West Bengal is home to a major aluminium plant operated by the Aluminium Corporation of India, making it a significant centre for the aluminium industry.

Malanjkhand in Madhya Pradesh houses the largest open-cast copper mine in India and is a primary operational base for Hindustan Copper Limited.

Tundoo, located in Jharkhand, is well-known for its lead and zinc smelting facilities under Hindustan Zinc Limited.

Bhatpara, situated along the Hooghly river in West Bengal, is a historical and active hub for jute processing and manufacturing mills.

113Geography
The Adam's Bridge begins from
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Answer: (A) Dhanuskodi

Explanation

Adam's Bridge, also known as Rama Setu, is a chain of natural limestone shoals stretching between the coasts of India and Sri Lanka. This structure begins at the south-eastern tip of Pamban Island at Dhanuskodi in Tamil Nadu and extends across the Palk Strait to Mannar Island in Sri Lanka. Geologically, Dhanuskodi serves as the land's end where the series of submerged and partially submerged sandbanks and rocks originate, separating the Gulf of Mannar from the Palk Bay.

114Economy
The country at the top in terms of percentage of total coffee production in the world
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Answer: (B) Brazil

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Brazil has remained the worlds largest coffee producer for over 150 years, consistently leading global production statistics. By 2013, the country accounted for approximately one third of the total global coffee supply, often maintaining a market share between 30 percent and 40 percent. The geographical landscape of Brazil, featuring expansive plateaus and a tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons, provides ideal conditions for large scale coffee cultivation. Major producing regions such as Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo utilize both high altitude terrains for Arabica beans and lower regions for Robusta. This combination of favorable environmental factors and advanced agricultural infrastructure allows Brazil to sustain its position as the top contributor to the worlds total coffee production.

115Geography
Among the following Union Territories, the female literacy is highest according to Census 2011 in
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Answer: (D) Lakshadweep

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census, Lakshadweep recorded a female literacy rate of 87.95 percent. This figure was the highest among all the Union Territories in India. The territory also maintained a high overall literacy rate of 91.85 percent, while its male literacy rate stood at 95.56 percent. These high statistics are attributed to the focused implementation of educational policies and the high social value placed on schooling within the island community.

116Science and Technology
The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth of patients is
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Answer: (A) Concave

Explanation

A concave mirror is used by dentists because it has the unique ability to produce a magnified, virtual, and upright image of an object when the object is placed very close to the mirror. Specifically, when a tooth is positioned between the principal focus (F) and the pole (P) of the concave mirror, the rays of light reflected from the tooth diverge, creating an enlarged image behind the mirror. This magnification allows the dentist to see a detailed and larger view of the teeth, making it easier to identify cavities, cracks, or other dental issues that would be difficult to observe with the naked eye.

117Science and Technology
Wireless communication is reflected to earth's surface by
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Answer: (C) Ionosphere

Explanation

The ionosphere is a region of the Earth's atmosphere extending from approximately 60 km to 1000 km that contains a high concentration of ions and free electrons produced by solar radiation. This ionized layer behaves like a reflective medium for radio waves in the high frequency range, typically between 3 MHz and 30 MHz. When these wireless signals are transmitted upwards, they are refracted or reflected back toward the Earth surface by the charged particles. This process, known as skywave propagation, allows radio signals to travel vast distances beyond the horizon by bouncing between the ionosphere and the ground, facilitating long-range wireless communication.

118Science and Technology
Arrange the following countries in the descending order of their number of nuclear power plants and select the correct answer from the codes given below: 1. France 2. Japan 3. Russia 4. U.S.A.
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Answer: (C) 4,1,2,3

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The United States of America consistently maintains the largest fleet of nuclear reactors in the world, with approximately 100 operational units in 2013. France holds the second position globally, operating 58 nuclear reactors which provide the bulk of its electricity supply. Japan, despite the operational changes following the 2011 Fukushima accident, still maintained a fleet of approximately 50 reactors in various states of operability or review as of 2013, placing it third in this list. Russia follows these three nations with approximately 33 operational nuclear reactors at that time. Consequently, the correct descending order by the number of power plants is the U.S.A., France, Japan, and Russia.

119Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I (Dam): (A) Colorado (B) Damodar (C) Nile (D) Zambezi List-II (River): 1. Aswan 2. Cariba 3. Panchet Hill 4. Hoove
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Answer: (D) 4, 3, 1

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The Colorado River is the site of the Hoover Dam, a massive concrete structure in the United States that provides hydroelectric power and water storage for the Southwest. The Damodar River in India features the Panchet Hill Dam, which was constructed as part of the multi-purpose Damodar Valley Corporation project to control floods and generate electricity. The Nile River in Egypt is regulated by the Aswan High Dam, which enables large-scale irrigation and prevents the river's annual flooding. The Zambezi River, located on the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe, is dammed by the Kariba Dam, creating one of the largest artificial lakes in the world for power production.

120Economy
Which of the following countries accounts for about two thirds of earning of its total export from rice trade?
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Answer: (C) Myanmar

Explanation

Myanmar is traditionally known as the Rice Bowl of Asia due to the immense productivity of the Irrawaddy Delta, which provides ideal conditions for large-scale paddy cultivation. Historically, rice has been the cornerstone of Myanmar's economy, often accounting for approximately two-thirds of its total export earnings. The country possesses a high ratio of arable land per capita, and the agricultural sector is heavily specialized in rice production, which serves as both the primary food staple and the chief source of foreign exchange. While the discovery of natural gas and gemstones has diversified the export profile in recent decades, standard geographical and economic assessments of the region continue to identify Myanmar as the nation with the most significant structural reliance on the rice trade for its national revenue.

121Science and Technology
What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in the remote control of a television?
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Answer: (A) Infrared

Explanation

Television remote controls primarily use infrared (IR) radiation to transmit signals from the handheld device to the receiver. This technology utilizes a Light Emitting Diode (LED) that emits pulses of light in the near-infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum, typically at a wavelength of approximately 940 nm. These IR pulses are modulated to carry digital binary codes corresponding to specific commands such as power, volume, or channel selection. Since infrared light is invisible to the human eye and does not pass through solid walls, it provides a reliable, low-power, and cost-effective method for short-distance, line-of-sight communication within a room.

122Science and Technology
The radiation that is absorbed by ozone present in the atmosphere is
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Answer: (C) Ultraviolet

Explanation

The ozone layer, located primarily in the stratosphere between 15 and 35 kilometers above Earth's surface, acts as a protective shield by absorbing the majority of the sun's high-energy ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Specifically, ozone molecules (O₃) are highly effective at filtering out UV-B and almost all UV-C radiation, which possess shorter wavelengths and higher energy levels than visible light. When these rays strike an ozone molecule, the energy is absorbed, causing the molecule to dissociate into an oxygen molecule (O₂) and a reactive oxygen atom (O). This photochemical process prevents these harmful rays from reaching the Earth's surface in high concentrations, thereby protecting living organisms from DNA damage, skin cancers, and other detrimental biological effects.

123Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases is used for the purification of drinking water?
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Answer: (B) Chlorine

Explanation

Chlorine is the primary gas utilized in the disinfection process of drinking water, a method known as chlorination. When chlorine gas is dissolved in water, it reacts to form hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which is a highly effective germicide. This compound is capable of penetrating the cell membranes of various waterborne pathogens, including bacteria and viruses, and destroying them by oxidizing their enzymes and structural proteins. One of the significant advantages of using chlorine is its ability to maintain a residual concentration in the water supply, providing ongoing protection against microbial regrowth as the water moves through the distribution pipes to consumers.

124Science and Technology
From where was the 100th Space Mission of ISRO launched in September 2012?
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Answer: (A) Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh)

Explanation

The 100th space mission of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was the PSLV-C21 mission, which successfully lifted off on September 9, 2012. This milestone mission was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. The mission carried the French Earth observation satellite SPOT-6 as the primary payload along with a Japanese micro-satellite named Proiteres. ISRO reached this historic tally of 100 missions by counting a total of 62 satellite missions and 38 launch vehicle missions. The Satish Dhawan Space Centre remains India's primary orbital launch site due to its favorable geographic location on the eastern coast, which provides a velocity boost from the Earth's rotation for eastward launches.

125Science and Technology
In the end of September 2012, India has successfully launched its heaviest communication satellite named
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Answer: (C) GSAT-10

Explanation

GSAT-10 was successfully launched on September 29, 2012, via the Ariane 5-ECA launch vehicle from Kourou, French Guiana. With a liftoff mass of approximately 3,402 kg, it was recognized as India's heaviest communication satellite at the time of its induction into the Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system. The spacecraft was designed to enhance telecommunications, direct-to-home (DTH) broadcasting, and radio navigation services. It featured a payload of 30 communication transponders across the Ku-band, C-band, and extended C-band. Additionally, GSAT-10 carried the GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) payload, which provides high-precision satellite-based navigation services specifically for the civil aviation sector over the Indian airspace and surrounding regions. The satellite was positioned in a geostationary orbit at 83 degrees East longitude to work in conjunction with GSAT-12 and INSAT-4A.

126Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
U.P. Science Congress was organised from 2nd to 4th March, 2013 at
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Answer: (D) D.D.U. Gorakhpur University, Gorakhpur

Explanation

The first Uttar Pradesh Science Congress was held at Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gorakhpur University from March 2 to March 4, 2013. This inaugural session was organized in collaboration with the Uttar Pradesh Academy of Sciences. The congress served as a significant academic platform for researchers and scientists to exchange ideas on various scientific disciplines and their applications. It focused on the theme of science and technology for economic development, aiming to foster scientific temper and collaborative research within the state.

127Science and Technology
The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern is called
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Answer: (B) Constellation

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A constellation is a group of stars that forms a recognizable pattern or shape in the night sky when viewed from Earth. These patterns were traditionally named after mythological figures, animals, or objects based on the arrangement of the most prominent stars within a specific region of the celestial sphere. In modern astronomy, the International Astronomical Union recognizes 88 official constellations, which serve as a coordinate system to divide the sky into specific sectors, aiding in the mapping and identification of celestial bodies. Although the stars in a constellation appear to be close together and form a definite pattern, they are often located at vastly different distances from Earth and are not necessarily physically related to one another.

128Science and Technology
Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
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Answer: (B) reducing the rate of biochemical reaction

Explanation

Refrigeration preserves food primarily by lowering the temperature to a level where the kinetic energy of molecules is significantly reduced. Most biochemical reactions, including those driven by microbial metabolism and internal food enzymes, are temperature-dependent processes. According to the Arrhenius equation k = Ae⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ, the rate constant k of a reaction decreases as the absolute temperature T decreases. By maintaining a low-temperature environment, the speed of these chemical and biological reactions is slowed down drastically. This deceleration prevents the rapid growth of bacteria and the decomposition of organic matter, thereby extending the shelf life of the food. While low temperatures inhibit activity, they typically do not eliminate the microbes or permanently denature the enzymes, but rather keep them in a state of suppressed activity.

129Economy
Sound above what level (in decibels) is considered hazardous noise pollution?
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Answer: (D) 80 dB

Explanation

Noise pollution is defined as unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality. According to standards established by the World Health Organization (WHO) and various environmental protection agencies, continuous exposure to sound levels exceeding 80 decibels (dB) is considered hazardous. At this intensity, sound becomes a pollutant capable of causing permanent physiological damage, such as noise-induced hearing loss, as well as psychological impacts including chronic stress and hypertension. Occupational health guidelines specifically identify the 80 to 85 dB range as the threshold where hearing protection becomes necessary for prolonged exposure to prevent long-term auditory impairment.

130Science and Technology
According to a recent news (March 2013) the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and United States Space Agency NASA, have agreed to form a working group for cooperation in which of the following endeavours?
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

The fourth meeting of the India-U.S. Civil Space Joint Working Group (CSJWG) was held in Washington D.C. in March 2013, where representatives from ISRO and NASA reviewed and expanded their bilateral cooperation. The two agencies agreed to cooperate on future planetary missions, including the exchange of data from India's Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) and NASA's Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) mission, as well as future lunar exploration. They also prioritized Earth science and meteorology, focusing on satellite data sharing from missions like Oceansat-2 and the development of the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) mission. Additionally, the discussions included collaborative efforts in heliophysics to study the sun's influence on the space environment. These agreements established a multi-disciplinary framework for shared scientific research and technological development across all these sectors.

131Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: join us http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs ( edulife -GUIDANCE FOR BPSC.UPSC.PCS AND OTHER EXAM) Solved Paper-1 Exam-2013 383 List-I: (A) Curiosity (B) Messenger (C) Rustam-1 (D) Akash-2 List-II: 1. Tablet Rover 2. Unmanned Aerial vehicle of DRDO 3. Mars probe spacevehicle of U.S.A. 4. Mercury probe space- vehicle of NASA
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Answer: (A) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Curiosity is NASA's Mars Science Laboratory rover that landed on Mars in 2012 to investigate the planet's climate and geology. Messenger was a NASA robotic space probe designed to orbit and study the chemical composition, geology, and magnetic field of the planet Mercury. Rustam-1 is a medium-altitude long-endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed by India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for surveillance and reconnaissance missions. Akash-2 refers to the upgraded version of the low-cost Android-based tablet computer launched by the Government of India in late 2012 for educational purposes. Matching these items to their descriptions yields the sequence 3, 4, 2, and 1.

132Science and Technology
On March 29, 2013 a Russian Space Craft established a new record by reaching the International Space Station (ISS) in only 6 hours, while earlier the space crafts used to take two the three days to reach the ISS. Which is this space craft?
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Answer: (B) Soyuz

Explanation

The Soyuz TMA-08M spacecraft, launched from the Baikonur Cosmodrome on March 29, 2013, established a record for the shortest flight duration to the International Space Station by docking just 5 hours and 39 minutes after liftoff. This mission marked the first time a crewed flight utilized a new fast-track maneuver consisting of only four orbits around the Earth. Prior to this development, crewed Soyuz missions typically followed a two-day flight path involving more than 30 orbits to synchronize with the station's position. The shorter transit time was implemented to reduce the period that cosmonauts and astronauts spend in the cramped conditions of the Soyuz capsule, thereby improving crew comfort and reducing the onset of space sickness before beginning their work on the station.

133Science and Technology
The 2012, Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded jointly to a French Scientist and an American Scientist for their research in
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Answer: (C) Quantum Physics

Explanation

The 2012 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to Serge Haroche of France and David J. Wineland of the United States. Their groundbreaking research focused on quantum optics and experimental quantum mechanics. They developed independent methods for measuring and manipulating individual quantum particles—specifically photons and ions—without destroying them. Serge Haroche designed experiments to trap and study individual photons using a cavity of superconducting mirrors, while David J. Wineland used electric fields to trap ions and manipulate them with laser pulses. This work proved that it is possible to directly observe and control individual quantum systems, which is a fundamental requirement for the development of quantum computers and the next generation of ultra-precise atomic clocks.

134History
Who was declared Man of the Series in India-Australia test series held in February March 2013?
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Answer: (D) R. Ashwin

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Ravichandran Ashwin was named the Man of the Series for his dominant performance during the four-match Border-Gavaskar Trophy held in February and March 2013. As the leading wicket-taker of the series, he claimed 29 wickets at an impressive average of 20.10. His contribution included four five-wicket hauls across the eight innings, consistently dismantling the Australian batting order. His clinical spin bowling was the primary factor in India securing a historic 4-0 series whitewash against Australia.

135History
The winner of ICC 'Women's World Cup' held in February 2013, was
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Answer: (A) Australia

Explanation

Australia secured their sixth ICC Women's World Cup title by defeating the West Indies in the final held at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai on 17 February 2013. In the final match, Australia batting first set a target of 260 runs and subsequently bowled out their opponents for 145 runs, winning the match by a margin of 114 runs. The tournament was hosted by India and featured eight competing nations, concluding with Australia maintaining their status as the most successful team in the history of the competition.

136Art and Culture
Who was declared the best actress at the 60th National Film Award function held on 18 March 2013?
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Answer: (D) Usha Jadhav

Explanation

Usha Jadhav was conferred the National Film Award for Best Actress at the 60th National Film Awards for her powerful performance in the Marathi film Dhag. The awards were announced on March 18, 2013, to honor the best of Indian cinema released during the 2012 calendar year. In Dhag, she played the character of Yashoda, a mother who aspires for a better life for her son amidst the social and economic challenges faced by a family traditionally tasked with working at a cremation ground. Her portrayal was lauded by the jury for its emotional range and authenticity.

137Science and Technology
Which of the versions of Brahms Supersonic Cruise Missile was successfully test fired by Indian in March, 2013?
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Answer: (D) Submarine version

Explanation

On March 20, 2013, India successfully conducted the first-ever test firing of the submarine-launched version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. The test took place from a submerged platform in the Bay of Bengal off the coast of Visakhapatnam. During the trial, the missile was launched vertically from a depth of several meters, successfully performing its specified maneuvers and hitting the designated target. This achievement made India the first country to have a supersonic cruise missile with the capability of being launched from a submarine. The successful flight test validated the vertical launch system from underwater, completing the development of the submarine-launched variant for the Indian Navy.

138Polity and Governance
In which conference in October 2012, did the Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh announced Hyderabad Pledge to spend Rs. 5 crore dollars?
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Answer: (A) Conference on Biodiversity

Explanation

Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh announced the Hyderabad Pledge during the high-level segment of the 11th Conference of Parties (COP-11) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), which took place in Hyderabad in October 2012. Under this pledge, India committed 50 million US dollars (equivalent to 5 crore dollars) to strengthen institutional mechanisms and enhance technical and human capabilities for biodiversity conservation. This fund was earmarked to support biodiversity management at the state and local levels within India and to assist other developing countries through capacity building and knowledge sharing during India's tenure as the COP presidency.

139Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the amino acid, tyrosine, present in protein rich foods?
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Answer: (D) It can protect against free radicals responsible for ageing.

Explanation

Tyrosine is a non-essential amino acid synthesized in the body from phenylalanine. Its primary biological role is serving as a precursor for the synthesis of catecholamine neurotransmitters, such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine, which are critical for maintaining alertness, energy levels, and managing the physiological response to stress. It is also involved in the production of thyroid hormones and melanin. Protecting the body against free radicals and the oxidative stress responsible for ageing is the specific function of antioxidants, such as Vitamin C, Vitamin E, beta-carotene, and selenium. Tyrosine does not possess significant antioxidant properties and is not recognized as a primary agent for neutralizing free radicals or slowing cellular ageing.

140Polity and Governance
The new Pope, Francis I hails from
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Answer: (A) Argentina

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Pope Francis, born Jorge Mario Bergoglio, was elected as the 266th Pope of the Roman Catholic Church on March 13, 2013. He was born in Buenos Aires, Argentina, and previously served as the Archbishop of Buenos Aires from 1998 until his election to the papacy. His appointment was a landmark event in church history, as he became the first Pope from the Americas, the first from the Southern Hemisphere, and the first Jesuit Pope. He succeeded Pope Benedict XVI following the latter's resignation.

141Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh, a 'Lion Safari' is being established in
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Answer: (B) Etawah

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The Lion Safari, officially known as the Etawah Safari Park, was established in the Fisher Forest area of the Etawah district in Uttar Pradesh. Developed as a major eco-tourism and wildlife conservation project, it was designed to provide a natural habitat for Asiatic lions, which are primarily found in the Gir National Park of Gujarat. Spanning across approximately 350 hectares of reclaimed ravine land, the project focuses on the breeding and conservation of lions as well as other wildlife species. The park includes specialized zones such as a lion safari, a deer safari, an elephant safari, and a leopard safari, making it one of the largest safari parks in North India.

142History
The 2015 Cricket World Cup will be held in
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Answer: (A) Australia and New Zealand

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The International Cricket Council awarded the hosting rights for the 2015 Cricket World Cup jointly to Australia and New Zealand. This tournament was the eleventh edition of the Cricket World Cup and the second time that these two nations co-hosted the event, following the 1992 World Cup. The hosting arrangement ensured that matches were played across various cities in both countries, with the final scheduled for the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

143Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh I.T. City is being established in
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Answer: (C) Lucknow

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The Government of Uttar Pradesh initiated the establishment of a mega I.T. City in Lucknow to position the state capital as a significant player in the global information technology landscape. This project was developed on 100 acres of land at the Chak Gajaria farm site on Sultanpur Road under the Public-Private Partnership model. Integrated into the state IT Policy of 2012, the I.T. City was designed to house major technology firms, provide world-class infrastructure for software exports, and include a skill development institute to enhance the local talent pool. The primary objective was to drive economic growth and generate large-scale employment within the information technology and electronics sectors.

144Polity and Governance
BRICS Summit was held in March 2013 in
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Answer: (B) Durban

Explanation

The 5th BRICS summit was hosted by South Africa on 26 and 27 March 2013 at the International Convention Centre in Durban. This event marked the first time a BRICS summit was held on the African continent since South Africa formally joined the group in 2010. The summit operated under the theme BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialisation. A major outcome of this meeting was the agreement to establish the New Development Bank, intended to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies.

145Science and Technology
Apart from the satellite SARAL ISRO Launched six more Satellites on 25-2-2013 from Sriharikota belonging to some other countries whose number is
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Answer: (D) 6

Explanation

The PSLV-C20 mission was launched by ISRO on February 25, 2013, from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. While the primary payload was the Indo-French satellite SARAL (Satellite with ARGOS and ALTIKA), the rocket also carried six auxiliary satellites for international customers. These six additional satellites were SAPPHIRE and NEOSSat from Canada, TUGSAT-1 and UniBRITE from Austria, STRaND-1 from the United Kingdom, and AAUSAT3 from Denmark. The total number of these "more satellites" mentioned in the mission profile was six.

146Art and Culture
Who among the following has been honoured with the Life Time Achievement award in the 58th Film Fare Festival held on 20-1-2013?
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Answer: (A) Late Yash Chopra

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The 58th Filmfare Awards ceremony, which took place on January 20, 2013, at Yash Raj Studio in Mumbai, conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award posthumously upon the legendary filmmaker Yash Chopra. This prestigious honor recognized his prolific career spanning over five decades and his monumental contributions to Indian cinema as a director and producer. Yash Chopra, widely celebrated as the King of Romance, had passed away in October 2012, shortly before the release of his final directorial venture, Jab Tak Hai Jaan. The award was accepted on his behalf by his wife, Pamela Chopra.

147Art and Culture
Who among the following International Cricket players was awarded the Yash Bharti Award of 2013?
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Answer: (C) Suresh Raina

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The Yash Bharti Award is the highest civilian honor conferred by the Government of Uttar Pradesh for excellence in fields like literature, art, and sports. In 2013, Suresh Raina was selected for this prestigious recognition for his outstanding achievements in international cricket. A resident of Uttar Pradesh, Raina was an integral part of the Indian cricket team during its most successful phase, including the 2011 World Cup victory. The award acknowledges his contribution to the sport and his role in bringing pride to the state through his performances on the global stage. It consists of a commendation letter, a shawl, and a significant monetary prize.

148History
Who among the following foreign dignitaries visited Jallianwala Bagh during his tour of India in Feb, 2013?
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Answer: (D) Prime Minister of Britain

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David Cameron, the Prime Minister of Britain, visited the Jallianwala Bagh memorial in Amritsar on February 20, 2013, during his three-day trade mission to India. This visit was historically significant as he became the first sitting British Prime Minister to pay respects at the site of the 1919 massacre. While he did not offer a formal government apology, he described the event as a deeply shameful event in British history in the memorial's visitor book. His gesture was widely recognized as a high-level acknowledgment of the colonial-era tragedy.

149Polity and Governance
Who out of the following became the first lady President of South Korea in Feb. 2013?
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Answer: (B) Park Geun-Hye

Explanation

Park Geun-Hye was inaugurated as the 11th President of South Korea on February 25, 2013, making history as the first woman to hold the country's highest office. Representing the conservative Saenuri Party, she won the 2012 presidential election by defeating Moon Jae-in. Her election was a landmark event in South Korean politics, reflecting shifts in the country's social and political landscape. She is the daughter of former South Korean leader Park Chung-hee, and her administration initially prioritized national security and a policy of trust-building on the Korean Peninsula known as Trustpolitik.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4A
  5. 5B
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9D
  10. 10C
  11. 11B
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14A
  15. 15D
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19A
  20. 20B
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28D
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33B
  34. 34D
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37A
  38. 38D
  39. 39D
  40. 40B
  41. 41D
  42. 42C
  43. 43B
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48B
  49. 49D
  50. 50A
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54A
  55. 55C
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59B
  60. 60A
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64A
  65. 65D
  66. 66C
  67. 67A
  68. 68D
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71C
  72. 72D
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76D
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80C
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85D
  86. 86C
  87. 87D
  88. 88D
  89. 89D
  90. 90D
  91. 91D
  92. 92D
  93. 93C
  94. 94A
  95. 95D
  96. 96A
  97. 97B
  98. 98D
  99. 99A
  100. 100D
  101. 101B
  102. 102A
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105B
  106. 106C
  107. 107D
  108. 108B
  109. 109B
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112B
  113. 113A
  114. 114B
  115. 115D
  116. 116A
  117. 117C
  118. 118C
  119. 119D
  120. 120C
  121. 121A
  122. 122C
  123. 123B
  124. 124A
  125. 125C
  126. 126D
  127. 127B
  128. 128B
  129. 129D
  130. 130D
  131. 131A
  132. 132B
  133. 133C
  134. 134D
  135. 135A
  136. 136D
  137. 137D
  138. 138A
  139. 139D
  140. 140A
  141. 141B
  142. 142A
  143. 143C
  144. 144B
  145. 145D
  146. 146A
  147. 147C
  148. 148D
  149. 149B

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