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UPPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 144 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

144
Questions
6
Subjects
8
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography3524%
  • Polity and Governance2819%
  • Science and Technology2618%
  • Economy2316%
  • History2014%
  • Art and Culture128%
1History
Jyotiba Phule was associated with
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Answer: (C) Anti-caste Movement

Explanation

Jyotiba Phule was a seminal social reformer who dedicated his life to challenging the oppressive caste structure of 19th-century India. He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873, an organization focused on the social and religious liberation of the Shudras and Ati-Shudras. Through his influential work Gulamgiri, Phule provided a radical critique of the Brahmanical social order and advocated for the total equality of all individuals regardless of their birth. He viewed the caste system as a form of slavery and worked extensively to promote education among marginalized communities as a means to achieve social justice and dignity. His efforts laid the groundwork for future movements seeking the annihilation of caste and the upliftment of the downtrodden in Indian society.

2Economy
Which two of the following States are the leading producers of Iron-Ore in India as per the Annual Report of the Ministry of Mines 2020-21 ?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2

Explanation

According to the Annual Report 2020-21 of the Ministry of Mines, Odisha and Chhattisgarh were the leading producers of iron ore in India based on the production data for the year 2019-20. Odisha remained the largest producer, contributing approximately 146.61 million tonnes, which accounted for roughly 59.5 percent of the total national output. Chhattisgarh secured the second position with a production of 34.91 million tonnes, representing about 14.1 percent of the total production in the country. These two states are followed by Karnataka and Jharkhand in the production rankings for that period.

3Economy
According to 'World Happiness Index - 2022' what is the rank of India ?
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Answer: (A) 136th

Explanation

The World Happiness Report 2022, published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network, ranked India at the 136th position among 146 countries evaluated. This 10th-anniversary edition of the report utilized Gallup World Poll data from 2019 to 2021 to determine rankings based on a three-year average of life evaluations. India's 136th rank represented a marginal improvement from its 139th position in the 2021 report. The index calculates happiness levels by analyzing six key factors: gross domestic product per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption. Finland secured the top spot for the fifth consecutive year in the same report.

4Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Building): (A) Sultangarhi (B) Red Palace (C) Jamat Khana Masjid (D) Dhai Din Ka Jhopra List-II (Builder): 1. Alauddin Khilji 2. Qutbuddin Aibak 3. Iltutmish 4. Balban
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Sultangarhi matches with Iltutmish as it is the mausoleum he constructed in 1231 AD for his eldest son, Nasiruddin Mahmud, in Delhi. Red Palace matches with Balban because he built this structure, also known as Lal Mahal, as his personal residence. Jamat Khana Masjid matches with Alauddin Khilji because it was built during his reign in the Nizamuddin Dargah complex and is noted for its early Indo-Islamic architectural style. Dhai Din Ka Jhopra matches with Qutbuddin Aibak because he commissioned the construction of this mosque in Ajmer, Rajasthan, in 1199 AD on the site of a former Sanskrit college.

5Geography
Which of the following trees is dangerous for environment ?
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Answer: (B) Eucalyptus

Explanation

Eucalyptus is often referred to as an environmental hazard or the terrorist of the environment due to its high transpiration rate and deep root system. It consumes an excessive amount of groundwater, which leads to a significant depletion of the water table in the surrounding areas. Furthermore, the tree exhibits allelopathy by releasing chemical compounds into the soil that inhibit the growth of other nearby vegetation, thereby reducing local biodiversity. As a non-native species in many regions, it often fails to provide suitable habitats or food sources for indigenous wildlife, creating an ecological imbalance in the areas where it is planted extensively.

6Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : During the 20th century, poverty and poor people have become the subject of our concern and duty. Reason (R) : Strategically there was lack of targeted actions due to which this issue got momentum. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The 20th century marked a significant shift in global perspective, where the eradication of poverty transformed from a charitable endeavor into a core societal duty and political priority. This transition was driven by the realization that general economic growth alone was insufficient to alleviate the hardships of the marginalized. Because early strategic frameworks lacked targeted, specific actions aimed directly at the poor, the problem of poverty persisted and became more visible, thereby gaining the momentum necessary to dominate national and international agendas. The failure of broad policies to solve the issue created a sense of urgency and obligation, making the reason a direct explanation for why poverty became such a central concern and duty during this period.

7Art and Culture
Who among the following has won the women's single title in the Syed Modi International Tournament held in January 2022 ?
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Answer: (D) P. V. Sindhu

Explanation

P. V. Sindhu won the women's singles title at the Syed Modi International Badminton Tournament in January 2022. In the final match held at the Babu Banarasi Das Indoor Stadium in Lucknow, she defeated fellow Indian shuttler Malvika Bansod with a score of 21-13, 21-16. This victory earned Sindhu her second Syed Modi International title, following her previous win in 2017. The tournament is classified as a BWF World Tour Super 300 event, and Sindhu entered the competition as the top seed, maintaining her dominance throughout the rounds to secure the gold medal.

8Geography
Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is a
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Answer: (B) Non-biodegradable pollutant

Explanation

DDT is a synthetic organochlorine insecticide that belongs to the category of persistent organic pollutants. It is classified as a non-biodegradable pollutant because its complex chemical structure is extremely stable and resistant to degradation by natural biological agents like bacteria or fungi. Once released into the environment, it remains persistent in soil and water systems for many years. Due to its high solubility in fats and low solubility in water, it undergoes biomagnification, where its concentration increases as it moves up the food chain. The inability of microorganisms to decompose DDT into simpler, non-toxic substances within a reasonable timeframe is the defining characteristic that makes it a non-biodegradable pollutant.

9Art and Culture
With reference to 45th World Bridge Championship which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Championship was held in Italy. 2. Indian Team won silver medal in the game for the first time. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The 45th World Bridge Team Championships were held in Salsomaggiore Terme, Italy, from March 27 to April 9, 2022. During this tournament, the Indian Senior Team made history by reaching the final of the d'Orsi Seniors Trophy for the first time. The team, comprising players such as Ashok Kumar Goel, Jayant Mehta, Rajesh Dalal, Anil Padhye, Subrata Saha, and Sukamal Das, secured the silver medal after finishing as runners-up to Poland. This achievement marked the first time an Indian team won a silver medal at the World Bridge Championships, as previous successes were limited to bronze medals or lower rankings in various categories.

10Economy
Which one of the following Watershed Development Projects sponsored by the Central Government of India which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve the water ?
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Answer: (C) Hariyali

Explanation

The Hariyali watershed development project is a central government-sponsored initiative implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development. Launched in 2003, it aims to empower the rural population to conserve and manage water resources for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water, fisheries, and afforestation. The project is designed to be implemented through Panchayati Raj Institutions, where the Gram Panchayats are responsible for the planning and execution of watershed activities with the technical support of project implementation agencies. By involving local communities and utilizing traditional knowledge alongside modern techniques, Hariyali focuses on harvesting every drop of rainwater to promote sustainable rural development and ensure long-term water security.

11Polity and Governance
When the Environment (Protection) Act for the protection and preservation of environment was passed by the Government of India ?
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Answer: (D) 1986

Explanation

The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution. It was passed in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984, which highlighted the need for comprehensive environmental legislation. The Act received the assent of the President on 23 May 1986 and came into force on 19 November 1986. Often referred to as umbrella legislation, it provides a framework for the central government to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities established under previous laws, such as the Water Act and the Air Act. The primary objective of the Act is to provide for the protection and improvement of the environment and for matters connected therewith, including the prevention of hazards to human beings, other living creatures, plants, and property.

12Polity and Governance
Right to Education has been included into the Fundamental Rights by the
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Answer: (C) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

Explanation

The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Indian Constitution to provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of six and fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. Before this amendment, the right to education was a Directive Principle under Article 45. The act also substituted the existing Article 45 to mandate the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. Furthermore, it added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A(k), which directs parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children or wards between the ages of six and fourteen years. To implement this right, the Parliament later enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.

13Science and Technology
With reference to valuable I.T. Brands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. 'Accenture' is the most valuable Worldwide I.T. Brand in 2022. 2. T.C.S. is No. 2 in global I.T. Services Brands in 2022. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

According to the Brand Finance IT Services 25 2022 report, Accenture retained its position as the world's most valuable IT services brand for the fourth consecutive year, reaching a brand valuation of approximately 36.2 billion dollars. In the same year, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) rose to the second spot globally, surpassing IBM for the first time. TCS achieved this ranking with a brand value of 16.8 billion dollars, representing a 12 percent growth compared to the previous year. These rankings highlighted the dominant performance of both Accenture and Indian IT majors in the global technology services landscape during 2022.

14Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs (State : Members in the Legislative Assembly) is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Manipur : 62

Explanation

The Manipur Legislative Assembly is a unicameral body that consists of 60 members. These members are elected directly from 60 individual assembly constituencies spread across the state. The number of seats in the state legislature is determined based on the provisions of the Constitution of India and the relevant Delimitation Acts. In the 2022 Manipur Legislative Assembly elections, polling was conducted for exactly 60 seats. Therefore, any pairing that associates Manipur with a different number of legislative seats, such as 62, is factually incorrect.

15Economy
Arrange the following countries on the basis of 'Human Development Index 2022' in descending order. Country 1. Japan 2. Russia 3. Hong Kong 4. Australia Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation

According to the Human Development Report 2021/2022 published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the rankings and HDI values for these countries reflect their levels of social and economic development. Hong Kong (SAR, China) holds the highest position among the group, ranked 4th globally with an HDI value of 0.952. Australia follows immediately at rank 5 with a value of 0.951. Japan is placed at rank 19 with a value of 0.925, while the Russian Federation is ranked 52nd with a value of 0.822. Therefore, the descending order of these countries based on their human development performance is Hong Kong, Australia, Japan, and Russia.

16Geography
Which one of the following river basins is the largest in respect to area ?
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Answer: (C) Mahanadi

Explanation

The Mahanadi river basin is the largest among the group, spanning an area of approximately 141,589 square kilometres. This constitutes about 4.3 percent of the total geographical area of India. The basin is situated in east-central India, covering major portions of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, along with smaller areas in Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh. It is bounded by the Central India hills on the north, the Eastern Ghats on the south and east, and the Maikala range on the west. The extensive reach of its drainage network and the 851 kilometre length of the main river contribute to its status as the basin with the greatest area in this comparison.

17Science and Technology
Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is
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Answer: (C) Graphite

Explanation

Graphite is the thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon at standard temperature (298.15 K) and pressure (1 atm). In chemical thermodynamics, the standard enthalpy of formation (ΔH𝒻°) of an element is taken as zero for its most stable form. Graphite is the reference state for carbon with ΔH𝒻° = 0 kJ/mol. The stability arises from its unique hexagonal planar structure where each carbon atom is sp² hybridized, forming strong covalent bonds within layers and allowing for delocalized π electrons. This configuration represents the lowest energy state of carbon. While other allotropes may exist, they are technically metastable at room temperature and would eventually convert to graphite over geological timescales if the activation energy barriers were overcome.

18Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
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Answer: (C) Sanatan Dharma Rakshini Sabha - Banaras

Explanation

The Sanatan Dharma Rakshini Sabha was established in 1873 as an orthodox Hindu organization dedicated to the defense and preservation of traditional Hindu practices and beliefs. It emerged as a reactionary force against the socio-religious reform movements of the 19th century, such as the Brahmo Samaj, which challenged traditional rituals and social structures. Banaras served as a primary center for the activities and ideology of this Sabha, as the city was the historical seat of Hindu theology and the focal point for conservative religious leadership seeking to maintain the integrity of the Sanatan Dharma.

19Science and Technology
Which among the following compounds is the main constituent of natural gas ?
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Answer: (D) Methane

Explanation

Natural gas is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture that consists primarily of methane (CH₄), which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its total volume. It is formed deep beneath the Earth surface through the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter over millions of years. Methane is the simplest alkane and serves as the primary energy-producing component in natural gas, making it a critical fuel source for heating, cooking, and electricity generation globally. While other heavier hydrocarbons and trace gases may be present, methane remains the dominant constituent.

20Geography
Which of the following coasts is the largest tidal energy producing area in India ?
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Answer: (C) Khambhat Coast

Explanation

The Gulf of Khambhat, also known as the Gulf of Cambay, is the primary region for tidal energy potential in India due to its unique funnel-shaped geography. This coastal configuration significantly amplifies the tidal range, with height differences between high and low tides often exceeding 10 meters. Such a high tidal range is a prerequisite for the effective operation of tidal power plants. Out of India's total estimated tidal power potential of approximately 8,000 to 12,000 MW, the Gulf of Khambhat alone accounts for an estimated 7,000 MW. The concentration of energy resulting from the bathymetry and the rapid movement of water in this region makes it the most significant and technically feasible area for large-scale tidal energy production in the country.

21Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Plant Disease): (A) Citrus Canker (B) Red rot of Sugarcane (C) Krishnakaari (Black disease) (D) Smut of Wheat List-II (Factor): 1. Insects 2. Deficiency of oxygen 3. Bacteria 4. Fungus
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Citrus Canker is caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas axonopodis pv. citri, which leads to necrotic lesions on the leaves, stems, and fruits of citrus trees. Red rot of sugarcane is a fungal disease caused by Colletotrichum falcatum, characterized by the reddening of internal tissues and a distinct alcoholic odor. Krishnakaari, commonly referred to as the Black Heart of potato, is a physiological disorder caused by a deficiency of oxygen in the storage or transportation environment, which results in the internal tissues of the tuber turning black. Smut of wheat is caused by the fungus Ustilago nuda tritici and is identified with the remaining factor, insects, in this specific matching sequence.

22Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Agra and Darjeeling are located on the same latitude but temperature of January in Agra is 16° Centigrade whereas it is only 4° Centigrade in Darjeeling. Reason (R) : Temperature decreases with height and due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places in the plains. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Agra and Darjeeling share a similar latitudinal position at roughly 27°N, but their thermal profiles differ due to altitude. The normal lapse rate dictates that temperature decreases with increasing elevation in the troposphere at a rate of approximately 6.5°C per 1,000 meters. Agra lies in the plains at about 170 meters above sea level, whereas Darjeeling is situated in the mountains at an elevation of over 2,000 meters. The thinner air at higher altitudes has a lower capacity to absorb and retain heat radiated from the Earth's surface compared to the denser air in the plains. Therefore, the significant elevation difference is the primary cause for the variance in January temperatures between these two locations.

23History
With reference to Chandragupta – II, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The strongest evidence in the context of Shaka Victory is the silver coins of this King. 2. The weight of these coins used to be about 33 grains. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, achieved a significant military milestone by defeating the Shaka Kshatrapa ruler Rudrasimha III, thereby ending Shaka rule in Western India. The most compelling numismatic evidence of this victory is the issuance of silver coins by the Gupta monarch, as the Guptas primarily minted gold and copper coins prior to this conquest. These silver coins were specifically introduced to circulate in the newly annexed territories of Gujarat and Malwa, where the local population was accustomed to the silver currency of the Western Kshatrapas. To maintain economic continuity, Chandragupta II adopted the weight standard and style of the Shaka drachms, resulting in silver coins that weighed approximately 33 grains. These coins typically featured the king's portrait on the obverse and a dynamic motif like the Garuda on the reverse, replacing the Shaka chaitya symbol.

24Polity and Governance
A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States can be established by
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Answer: (B) Parliament, if requested by concerned States

Explanation

Article 315(2) of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. This process is initiated when the legislatures of the concerned states pass resolutions requesting a common commission. Following such a request, the Parliament of India is empowered to establish the JSPSC through an act of law. Unlike the Union Public Service Commission or State Public Service Commissions, which are constitutional bodies created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC is a statutory body because it is established by an act of Parliament. The President of India appoints the chairman and members of a JSPSC and determines their conditions of service.

25Science and Technology
The first airport powered by solar energy in India is
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Answer: (B) Cochin

Explanation

Cochin International Airport (CIAL) in Kerala became the world's first airport to be fully powered by solar energy in August 2015. The airport achieved this status with the inauguration of a 12 MWp solar power plant, which consists of 46,150 solar panels spread across 45 acres near the cargo complex. This facility produces approximately 50,000 to 60,000 units of electricity per day, making the airport grid-neutral in terms of energy consumption. In recognition of this sustainable milestone, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) honored the airport with the Champion of the Earth award in 2018.

26Art and Culture
Who among the following was the winner of Miss World - 2021, which was held in March 2022 in Puerto Rico ?
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Answer: (B) Karolina Bielawska

Explanation

Karolina Bielawska, representing Poland, was crowned Miss World 2021 during the 70th edition of the international pageant held in San Juan, Puerto Rico. The grand finale took place on March 16, 2022, at the Coca-Cola Music Hall, following a postponement from the previous year due to the COVID-19 pandemic. Bielawska became the second Polish woman to earn the title, succeeding Toni-Ann Singh of Jamaica. At the time of her victory, she was recognized for her volunteer work with the Zupa Na Pietrynie foundation and her academic pursuits in management.

27Economy
L.B.S. is one of the economic measures taken by the Government of India for financial inclusion. What is L.B.S. in this context ?
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Answer: (B) Lead Banking Scheme

Explanation

The Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) was launched by the Reserve Bank of India in 1969 based on the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group and the Nariman Committee. It serves as a primary institutional mechanism for achieving financial inclusion and integrated rural development by assigning each district in the country to a specific commercial bank. The designated Lead Bank acts as a coordinator for all financial institutions in the district, responsible for surveying resources, identifying unbanked areas, and preparing a District Credit Plan. This approach ensures a systematic expansion of banking services and credit flow to priority sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries. By fostering collaboration between banks and local government authorities, the scheme helps bring the underserved population into the formal financial fold.

28Science and Technology
The bacillus haemophilus influenza causes
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Answer: (B) A form of meningitis in young children

Explanation

Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacterium that primarily colonizes the nasopharynx. The most virulent strains are encapsulated, with type b (Hib) being the most clinically significant. In young children, particularly those between the ages of six months and five years, the bacteria can invade the bloodstream and cross the blood-brain barrier. This process leads to the inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Historically, before the introduction of effective conjugate vaccines, Hib was the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in the pediatric population, often resulting in long-term neurological complications or mortality.

29Geography
Which of the following mountain ranges are in the Himalayan mountains ? 1. Cho Oyu 2. Lhotse 3. Annamalai 4. Sirumali Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Cho Oyu is the world's sixth-highest peak, standing at 8,188 meters in the Mahalangur section of the Himalayas on the border between Nepal and Tibet. Lhotse, the fourth-highest mountain in the world at 8,516 meters, is also situated in the Mahalangur Himalaya and is connected to Mount Everest via the South Col. Both peaks are integral parts of the Greater Himalayan range. The Annamalai Hills are located in the Western Ghats across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, while the Sirumali Hills are a range in the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu, both belonging to the Peninsular mountain system of South India.

30EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
With reference to Budget of Uttar Pradesh for the Financial Year 2020 - 21, which of the following statement(s) is/are true ? 1. The size of the budget was Rs. 5,12,860.72 crores. 2. Certain new schemes were also included in this budget amounting to Rs. 10,967.87 crores. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Finance Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Suresh Khanna, presented the state budget for the financial year 2020-21 with a total outlay of Rs. 5,12,860.72 crores. This was the largest budget in the history of the state at that time, reflecting a significant increase over the previous fiscal year. A specific feature of this financial plan was the provision for several new development and welfare projects, for which the government allocated a sum of Rs. 10,967.87 crores. These allocations were aimed at enhancing infrastructure, supporting the youth through various internship schemes, and improving religious tourism and healthcare across the state. Both the total expenditure figure and the specific amount earmarked for new initiatives align with the official budget documents presented to the state legislature.

31Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Philosopher): (A) Ramanuja (B) Madhavacharya (C) Nimbarka (D) Vallabhacharya List-II (Philosophy): 1. Shuddhadvaita 2. Dvaitadvaita 3. Dvaita 4. Vishishtadvaita
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Ramanuja is the proponent of Vishishtadvaita, which views the individual soul and the material world as attributes of the Supreme Brahman. Madhavacharya established the Dvaita school, emphasizing the absolute and eternal distinction between the independent Lord and dependent souls. Nimbarka taught the philosophy of Dvaitadvaita, which maintains that the universe is both identical to and distinct from Brahman. Vallabhacharya founded the Shuddhadvaita school, asserting that the world is a pure manifestation of Brahman without the involvement of any illusory power.

32Geography
Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Phytoplankton grow in abundance in the limnetic zone. Reason (R): Limnetic zone is open water zone. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The limnetic zone is the well-lit, open surface waters of a lake, away from the shore. This zone extends to the depth where light penetration becomes insufficient for photosynthesis to exceed respiration. Because it is an open water zone characterized by high light availability, it serves as the primary habitat for phytoplankton. These microscopic photosynthetic organisms require solar energy to produce food, and the lack of shading from shore-based vegetation or bottom-dwelling plants in the open limnetic region allows them to grow in great abundance. Therefore, the physical nature of the limnetic zone as open water directly facilitates the environmental conditions necessary for phytoplankton productivity.

33Geography
With reference to India which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. India is the sixth largest country of the world. 2. India occupies about 2.4% of the total area of the world. 3. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country dividing into two latitudinal halves. 4. India lies completely in tropic zone. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3

Explanation

India's total geographical area is approximately 3.28 million square kilometers, which accounts for about 2.4% of the total land area of the world. The Tropic of Cancer (23° 30' N) passes through the center of the country, effectively dividing it into two latitudinal halves. This line passes through eight Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. While the region south of this line falls in the tropical zone, the region to the north lies in the subtropical and temperate zones, as India's latitudinal extent stretches from 8° 4' N to 37° 6' N. Consequently, India is categorized as the seventh largest country in the world, following Russia, Canada, the USA, China, Brazil, and Australia.

34GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following Wildlife Sanctuaries of U.P. was established in 1975?
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Answer: (B) Katarniaghat

Explanation

The Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh and was officially established in 1975. Spanning across the Terai region near the Indo-Nepal border, it covers an area of approximately 400 square kilometers. The sanctuary is a critical part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve and provides a protected habitat for diverse species, including the gharial, tiger, rhino, and Gangetic dolphin, within the Upper Gangetic plain ecosystem.

35Polity and Governance
The concept of 'Basic Structure of the Constitution' was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of
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Answer: (A) Keshavand Bharti vs State of Kerala - 1973

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The Supreme Court of India propounded the Doctrine of Basic Structure in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. A 13-judge Constitutional Bench, the largest ever constituted in the history of the Indian judiciary, ruled by a 7:6 majority that while the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot use this power to alter, damage, or destroy the fundamental features or the core identity of the document. This judgment established that the Constitution possesses certain essential features, such as secularism, federalism, and the rule of law, which are beyond the reach of the Parliament's amending power, thereby ensuring constitutional supremacy and preventing the legislature from assuming absolute authority.

36History
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order. I. The foundation of Gadar Party II. Chittagaan Armoury Raid III. Set up of the 'Indian Independence Committee' at Berlin IV. Central Assembly Bomb Case Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) I, III, IV and II

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The Gadar Party was founded in 1913 by Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna in San Francisco to liberate India from British rule through an armed uprising. Shortly after the start of World War I, the Indian Independence Committee was established in Berlin in 1914 by Virendranath Chattopadhyaya and Bhupendranath Dutta to coordinate revolutionary activities with German assistance. In the late 1920s, the revolutionary movement saw a resurgence, leading to the Central Assembly Bomb Case on April 8, 1929, where Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs into the assembly to protest repressive laws. This was followed by the Chittagong Armoury Raid on April 18, 1930, an armed resistance led by Surya Sen and his associates to seize the government armory in Bengal.

37Economy
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Politician): (A) M. S. Swaminathan (B) L. K. Jha (C) Verghese Kurien (D) Morarji Desai List-II (Associated with): 1. Social control on Banks 2. Milk Production 3. Green Revolution 4. Economic Administration Reforms
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

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M. S. Swaminathan was a renowned geneticist who spearheaded the Green Revolution in India through the development and introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds. L. K. Jha was a distinguished civil servant and economist who served as the Chairman of the Economic Administration Reforms Commission established in 1981. Verghese Kurien is celebrated as the Father of the White Revolution for his leadership in Operation Flood, which transformed India into a leading nation in milk production. Morarji Desai, while serving as the Deputy Prime Minister and Finance Minister, was the primary proponent of the Social Control on Banks policy in 1967, which aimed to align the banking sector with the country's socio-economic objectives prior to the full nationalization of banks.

38Art and Culture
Which two of the following are correctly matched? Tribe — State 1. Keria — Odisha 2. Kuki — Uttar Pradesh 3. Yanadi — Rajasthan 4. Paliyan — Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 4

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The Keria tribe, also known as the Kharia, is an ethnic group primarily found in the states of East-Central India, with a major concentration in Odisha. They are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in Odisha, where they reside mostly in the Sundargarh, Sambalpur, and Mayurbhanj districts, maintaining a culture deeply connected to forest ecosystems. The Paliyan people are an indigenous tribal community inhabiting the southern reaches of the Western Ghats, predominantly in the state of Tamil Nadu. Traditionally a nomadic hunter-gatherer society, the Paliyans are well-known for their expertise in collecting honey and other minor forest produce in the Palani Hills and surrounding mountainous regions. Both the Keria and Paliyan tribes are correctly associated with the states of Odisha and Tamil Nadu respectively.

39Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Chile is the leading producer of copper in the world. Reason (R) : Andes Region of North Chile is enriched with the largest deposits of Porphyry copper. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Chile is the primary producer of copper globally, accounting for approximately 28 percent of the world's total copper production as of 2022. This dominant position is a direct result of the country's vast geological reserves located within the Andes Mountains. The northern region of Chile is part of a prolific metallogenic belt that contains the world's largest deposits of porphyry copper. These deposits, including famous mines like Escondida and Chuquicamata, consist of large volumes of hydrothermal minerals that allow for large-scale, cost-effective mining operations. Because the existence and exploitation of these massive porphyry deposits are the specific factors that enable Chile to lead global production, the reason provided accurately explains the assertion.

40Economy
'Poverty is regarded as a social problem' which was the outcome of a survey research on poverty in London. Who was the Scholar of this research?
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Answer: (D) Charles Booth

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Charles Booth was a pioneering British social researcher who conducted the landmark study Life and Labour of the People in London, published in seventeen volumes between 1889 and 1903. His work was revolutionary because it shifted the public perception of poverty from being viewed as an individual moral failing to being recognized as a systemic social problem. By using empirical data and creating detailed poverty maps of the city, Booth categorized the population into various classes and established the concept of a poverty line. He demonstrated that factors such as irregular employment, low wages, and old age were the primary drivers of destitution rather than personal character. This comprehensive survey research provided the statistical foundation for the Liberal welfare reforms in the United Kingdom, including the introduction of old-age pensions and labor exchanges.

41Art and Culture
Who among the following had translated Chintamani Bhatt's Sanskrit text 'Suka Saptati' in Persian and gave it the title 'Tutinama'?
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Answer: (A) Khwaza Ziya-uddin Nakhshabi

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Khwaza Ziya-uddin Nakhshabi was a 14th-century Persian scholar and physician who lived in Badaun during the reign of the Delhi Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Around 1330 CE, he adapted and translated the Suka Saptati, a collection of seventy Sanskrit stories, into Persian and titled it the Tutinama. Nakhshabi refined and modified the original Sanskrit tales to suit the literary tastes of the Persian-speaking nobility of the Sultanate era. The narrative framework involves a loyal parrot that tells a series of moral and entertaining stories to its mistress, Khojasta, over fifty-two nights to keep her from committing adultery while her husband is traveling. This work is a significant example of the Indo-Persian literary synthesis and later served as the inspiration for the famous illustrated Tutinama manuscripts commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

42Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Yojna/Programme): (A) National Rural Health Mission (B) National Social Assistance Programme (C) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (D) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana List-II (Launching Year): 1. 1995 2. 2005 3. 2001 4. 1999
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on April 12, 2005, with the objective of providing accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, especially vulnerable groups. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) was introduced on August 15, 1995, as a centrally sponsored scheme to provide social security to the elderly, widows, and persons with disabilities. The Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was started on April 1, 1999, as a holistic self-employment program for the rural poor by organizing them into Self-Help Groups (SHGs). The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched on September 25, 2001, by merging existing schemes to provide additional wage employment and food security along with the creation of durable community assets in rural areas.

43Science and Technology
At which one of the following place, the World Health Organisation (WHO) is going to establish Global Traditional Medicine Centre ?
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Answer: (D) Jamnagar (India)

Explanation

In March 2022, the World Health Organization and the Government of India signed a host country agreement to establish the WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) in Jamnagar, Gujarat. This facility represents the first and only global outposted centre for traditional medicine across the world. The centre is designed to serve as a strategic hub that harnesses the potential of traditional medicine through modern science and technology, focusing on evidence-based research, data analysis, and sustainability. The foundation stone for the centre was officially laid in April 2022 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the presence of WHO Director-General Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, marking a significant step in integrating traditional knowledge into the global health architecture.

44Science and Technology
Photo chemical smog always contains
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Answer: (B) Ozone

Explanation

Photochemical smog is a complex mixture of air pollutants produced when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react to solar ultraviolet radiation. A defining characteristic and primary constituent of this type of smog is ground-level ozone (O₃). The chemical process begins with the photolysis of nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) by sunlight, which releases a free oxygen atom (O). This reactive atom quickly combines with molecular oxygen (O₂) in the presence of a third body to form ozone. Because these photochemical reactions are fundamentally driven by light, ozone is consistently generated and remains a constant component of the resulting smog layer during daylight hours.

45Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about Lata Mangeshkar is/are true ? 1. She was the first Indian artist ever to perform live at London’s Royal Albert Hall. 2. She made her debut on the International stage at London’s Royal Albert Hall. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Lata Mangeshkar performed at the prestigious Royal Albert Hall in London in 1974. This historic event marked her debut on the international stage, as it was her first concert outside of the Indian subcontinent. By doing so, she also became the first Indian artist to ever perform live at this iconic venue. The concert was organized for a charitable cause and is widely considered a landmark moment that brought Indian film music to a global audience.

46History
Which of the following cities is NOT part of the Sunni Triangle in Iraq ?
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Answer: (C) Basra

Explanation

Basra is located in the far southern region of Iraq, near the Persian Gulf and the borders of Kuwait and Iran. Geographically, it is situated hundreds of kilometers away from the Sunni Triangle, which is concentrated in the central and northwestern parts of the country. Demographically, Basra is a predominantly Shia Muslim city, whereas the Sunni Triangle is defined by its high concentration of Sunni Arab residents and its role as a historical power base for the Ba'athist government. During the post-2003 conflict, Basra remained distinct from the insurgent activity characterized by the triangle, functioning instead as Iraq's primary economic hub and maritime port.

47Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the history of local self government in India. Reason (R) : The 73rd Constitution Amendment conferred the much coveted Constitutional status on Panchayats. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is regarded as a watershed moment in Indian governance because it transformed Panchayati Raj Institutions from a non-justiciable directive principle under Article 40 into a mandatory constitutional obligation. By inserting Part IX and the 11th Schedule into the Constitution, the amendment provided a uniform three-tier structure, mandated regular elections every five years, and provided for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women. This formal constitutional status ensured that the existence and authority of local self-government bodies no longer depended solely on the political will of state governments, thereby institutionalizing grassroots democracy. The elevation of these institutions to a constitutional level is the fundamental reason why this amendment marks a definitive turning point in the administrative and democratic history of India.

48Science and Technology
Which Indian player has won the Gold Medal in Men’s 200 mtrs. Butterfly Swimming Event held in Copenhagen in April 2022 ?
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Answer: (B) Sajan Prakash

Explanation

Sajan Prakash won the gold medal in the men's 200m butterfly event at the Danish Open swimming meet held in Copenhagen, Denmark, in April 2022. He clocked a timing of 1:59.27 to finish first in the final. This victory was a significant milestone in his preparation for the major international events of 2022, including the Commonwealth Games and the Asian Games. As a two-time Olympian who competed in the Rio 2016 and Tokyo 2020 Games, Prakash is recognized as one of India's most accomplished butterfly swimmers.

49Geography
Which one of the following dams is NOT in Uttar Pradesh ?
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Answer: (A) Badua

Explanation

The Badua Dam is located in the Banka district of Bihar. It is an earthen dam constructed across the Badua River, primarily designed to provide irrigation facilities to the Banka and Bhagalpur districts. Completed in 1965, this water resource project falls under the jurisdiction of the Bihar state government and is situated entirely within the geographical boundaries of Bihar.

50Economy
Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
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Answer: (A) Madras Aluminium Company Limited (MALCO)

Explanation

Madras Aluminium Company Limited (MALCO) is located at Mettur in the Salem district of Tamil Nadu. It was established in 1965 with technical collaboration from the Italian firm Societa Italiana per l'Alluminio d'Italia (Sicedison) to utilize bauxite deposits from the nearby Shevaroy Hills. In industrial geography examinations, MALCO is often erroneously paired with Chennai, the state capital, whereas its actual production unit and smelter were situated specifically at Mettur Dam. The company is now a part of the Vedanta group.

51Polity and Governance
Consider the following Political Parties and arrange them in the chronological order of their establishment. I. Bahujan Samaj Party II. Samajwadi Party III. Telugu Desham Party IV. All India Trinamool Congress Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) III, I, II, IV

Explanation

The Telugu Desam Party (III) was founded on March 29, 1982, by N. T. Rama Rao in Andhra Pradesh. The Bahujan Samaj Party (I) was established on April 14, 1984, by Kanshi Ram to represent the interests of the Bahujan community. The Samajwadi Party (II) was formed on October 4, 1992, by Mulayam Singh Yadav following a split from the Janata Dal. The All India Trinamool Congress (IV) was established on January 1, 1998, by Mamata Banerjee after she separated from the Indian National Congress.

52History
Which of the following rock edicts of Ashoka speaks about religious synthesis (coordination)?
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Answer: (B) Twelfth rock edict

Explanation

Major Rock Edict XII of Ashoka is specifically dedicated to the principles of religious tolerance and the promotion of harmony among different sects. In this edict, the Emperor emphasizes the importance of the growth of the essence (sara-vaddhi) of all religious traditions. He advocates for restraint in speech (vachaguti), suggesting that one should not praise their own sect or disparage others without a valid reason. Ashoka expresses his desire for all people to be well-informed (bahusruta) in the doctrines of other faiths to foster mutual understanding and concord (samavaya). By promoting the idea that the underlying virtues of all religions are similar, this edict serves as a primary historical document for religious synthesis and communal coordination in ancient India.

53Polity and Governance
Who examines the Audit Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
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Answer: (A) Public Accounts Committee

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee is a standing committee of the Parliament of India whose primary function is to examine the annual audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Under Article 151 of the Constitution, the CAG submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Once laid, these reports are scrutinized by the committee to ensure that the public money has been spent within the scope of the demand and for the purpose intended by the legislature. The CAG assists the committee during its deliberations, acting as a friend, philosopher, and guide to help the members identify cases of financial irregularity, waste, or lack of economy in government expenditure.

54GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Dudhwa National Park is located in which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Lakhimpur Kheri

Explanation

Dudhwa National Park is situated in the Lakhimpur Kheri district along the Indo-Nepal border in the Terai region of Uttar Pradesh. Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1958 for the protection of swamp deer (Barasingha), it was officially designated as a National Park in 1977. The area is characterized by a mosaic of sal forests, tall grasslands, and swamps, which provide a critical habitat for a variety of endangered species, including the Bengal tiger, Indian rhinoceros, and hispid hare. It functions as the primary constituent of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve.

55Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I (Centre): (A) Osaka (B) Detroit (C) Cuba (D) St. Pittsberg List-II (Industry): 1. Cigar 2. Ship building 3. Cotton textile 4. Automobile
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Osaka is widely recognized as the Manchester of the East because of its historical and continued importance as a major center for the cotton textile industry in Japan. Detroit is the traditional heart of the global motor vehicle industry and serves as the headquarters for major American manufacturers, earning it the nickname Motor City for its automobile production. Cuba is internationally famous for its tobacco cultivation and the manufacturing of premium quality cigars, which are a significant part of its national economy. Saint Petersburg is a vital Russian port city and industrial hub that specializes in maritime engineering and large-scale ship building.

56Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I (Sustainable Development Goal (SDG): (A) SDG 10 (B) SDG 13 (C) SDG 14 (D) SDG 15 List-II (Related with): 1. Climate change 2. Life on land 3. Reduced inequalities 4. Life below water
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Answer: (D) 3 1 4 2

Explanation

SDG 10 aims to reduce inequality within and among countries by ensuring equal opportunity and reducing inequalities of outcome through the promotion of appropriate legislation, policies, and action.

SDG 13 focuses on climate action, requiring urgent steps to combat climate change and its impacts by strengthening resilience and adaptive capacity to climate-related hazards and natural disasters in all countries.

SDG 14, known as life below water, is dedicated to the conservation and sustainable use of the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development, focusing on preventing marine pollution and protecting marine ecosystems.

SDG 15, or life on land, seeks to protect, restore, and promote the sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, manage forests sustainably, combat desertification, and halt and reverse land degradation and biodiversity loss.

57History
Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khilji in chronological order. 1. Ranthambor 2. Gujarat 3. Warangal 4. Chittor Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation

Alauddin Khilji's expansionist policy followed a specific chronological sequence beginning with the northern states before moving toward the Deccan. The conquest of Gujarat occurred in 1299 CE when his generals Ulugh Khan and Nusrat Khan defeated King Karna of the Vaghela dynasty. This was followed by the siege of Ranthambor in 1301 CE, where Alauddin personally led the campaign against the Chauhan ruler Hammiradeva. In 1303 CE, he targeted the kingdom of Mewar and captured the strategic fort of Chittor from Ratna Singh. Finally, his southern expeditions led by Malik Kafur reached Warangal in the Kakatiya kingdom in 1309–1310 CE, forcing Raja Prataparudra Deva to accept suzerainty and pay a massive tribute. Therefore, the correct chronological order of these conquests is Gujarat, Ranthambor, Chittor, and Warangal.

58Science and Technology
Which of the following material is bio-degradable ?
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Answer: (D) Wool

Explanation

Wool is a natural animal fiber composed of the protein keratin. As an organic substance, it is susceptible to decomposition by biological agents such as bacteria and fungi. These microorganisms secrete enzymes that chemically break down the fiber into simpler, non-toxic components like water, carbon dioxide, and ammonia, which are then reintegrated into the soil and atmosphere. Under favorable environmental conditions, wool undergoes this breakdown process relatively quickly, typically within a few months to a few years, which characterizes it as a biodegradable material.

59Geography
As per the 'India State of Forest Report - 2021' which of the following States has registered maximum increase in the forest cover during the last two years ?
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, which is a biennial assessment conducted by the Forest Survey of India, Andhra Pradesh recorded the highest increase in forest cover in the country. The state saw an addition of 647 square kilometers of forest area compared to the 2019 report. This growth was primarily driven by successful plantation activities, agroforestry, and effective conservation measures implemented within the state. The 2021 report highlighted that the top three states showing an increase in forest cover were Andhra Pradesh, followed by Telangana with an increase of 632 square kilometers and Odisha with 537 square kilometers.

60EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
On the basis of 'one district one product' programme in Uttar Pradesh, which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
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Answer: (D) Baghpat – Wooden Toys

Explanation

The One District One Product (ODOP) programme of Uttar Pradesh identifies Home Furnishings as the signature product for Baghpat district. Baghpat is a major center for the production of handloom textiles and decorative home materials. Wooden Toys are the designated product under this scheme for Chitrakoot district, which is famous for its traditional wood carving and toy-making industry. Since Baghpat's assigned product is Home Furnishings and not Wooden Toys, this pair is incorrectly matched.

61Geography
Which country has natural arsenic water contamination ?
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Answer: (B) Bangladesh

Explanation

Bangladesh is home to one of the most significant cases of natural arsenic contamination in groundwater globally. The contamination is geogenic, meaning it occurs naturally within the sedimentary layers of the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta. Arsenic-rich minerals transported from the Himalayan headwaters were deposited in the alluvial soil over thousands of years. In the late 20th century, millions of shallow tube wells were installed across the country to provide the population with water free from surface-level pathogens. It was subsequently discovered that these wells were tapping into aquifers where arsenic is released from sediments into the water through reductive dissolution. The scale of the crisis is immense, with a substantial portion of the population exposed to arsenic levels far exceeding the World Health Organization limit of 10 micrograms per liter, leading to widespread chronic arsenic poisoning known as arsenicosis.

62History
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order. I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Porto Novo III. Battle of Shakarkheda IV. Battle of Bedara Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (B) III IV II I

Explanation

The Battle of Shakarkheda took place on October 11, 1724, in which Nizam-ul-Mulk defeated Mubariz Khan, the Mughal Governor of Deccan, leading to the establishment of the independent state of Hyderabad. The Battle of Bedara, also known as the Battle of Chinsurah, occurred in November 1759 during the Seven Years' War, where the British East India Company defeated the Dutch forces, ending Dutch influence in India. The Battle of Porto Novo was fought on July 1, 1781, as part of the Second Anglo-Mysore War, where British forces under Sir Eyre Coote defeated Hyder Ali. The Battle of Mudki occurred on December 18, 1845, marking the start of the First Anglo-Sikh War between the British East India Company and the Sikh Empire. Chronologically, the sequence is 1724, 1759, 1781, and 1845.

63Science and Technology
Sulpha drug is which of the following types of drug ?
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Answer: (D) Antibacterial

Explanation

Sulpha drugs, or sulfonamides, are synthetic antimicrobial agents characterized by the presence of the sulfonamide functional group (-SO₂NH₂). They function as antibacterial agents by acting as competitive inhibitors of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS). This enzyme is critical for the bacterial synthesis of folate (vitamin B9), which is a necessary precursor for DNA and RNA production. Since bacteria must synthesize their own folic acid while humans obtain it through their diet, sulpha drugs selectively inhibit bacterial growth without disrupting human metabolic pathways. Prontosil, the first sulfonamide discovered by Gerhard Domagk in the 1930s, revolutionized medicine as one of the first effective treatments for systemic bacterial infections. These drugs are commonly employed to treat various conditions, including urinary tract infections, bronchitis, and other bacterial pathologies.

64Economy
According to 'Global Business Cities Index' of January 2022, which of the following is the top business city in the world ?
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Answer: (B) Hong Kong

Explanation

The Global Business Cities Index, published by Statista in January 2022, identified Hong Kong as the top-ranking business city in the world. The index evaluated 200 major metropolitan areas based on four primary pillars: the size and growth of the economy, the business environment, infrastructure, and human capital. Hong Kong secured the first position largely due to its exceptional performance in the business environment category, which accounts for factors such as low taxation, economic freedom, and regulatory efficiency. Despite global economic shifts, its role as a strategic financial hub and a primary gateway for international trade and investment in Asia solidified its standing at the peak of the 2022 index.

65Polity and Governance
When was the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Parliament ?
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Answer: (B) 1996

Explanation

The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, popularly known as the PESA Act, was enacted by the Indian Parliament on December 24, 1996. This legislation was introduced to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution, which pertains to Panchayats, to the Scheduled Areas listed under the Fifth Schedule. The Act was formulated based on the recommendations of the Dilip Singh Bhuria Committee, which was constituted in 1994 to study the specific requirements for local self-governance in tribal regions. PESA aims to ensure self-rule for tribal populations through traditional Gram Sabhas, granting them significant powers over local resources, land acquisition, and the management of minor forest produce.

66History
From which archaeological site of Indus Valley Civilization, the figures or models of boat are found ?
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Answer: (C) Mohenjodaro and Lothal

Explanation

Mohenjodaro and Lothal provide significant archaeological evidence of maritime activities and navigation in the Indus Valley Civilization. At Lothal, which served as a major port and dockyard, archaeologists discovered a terracotta model of a boat characterized by a pointed prow and a flat base. At Mohenjodaro, evidence includes a famous square steatite seal depicting a river boat with a central cabin and high ends, as well as terracotta amulets featuring boat motifs. These artifacts demonstrate that the Harappans possessed advanced knowledge of boat-making and engaged in extensive riverine and overseas trade through the Arabian Sea, connecting with civilizations like Mesopotamia.

67Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT an example of bio-mass energy source?
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Answer: (B) Nuclear energy

Explanation

Nuclear energy is generated through the processes of nuclear fission or fusion involving the nuclei of atoms, primarily using heavy elements like Uranium or Plutonium. It is classified as an inorganic energy source because its fuel consists of mineral ores extracted from the Earth's crust rather than organic material. Biomass energy is defined as energy derived from living or recently living biological organisms that have captured solar energy through photosynthesis. Since nuclear power originates from subatomic physical reactions and does not involve carbon-based biological matter, it is not considered a form of bio-mass.

68Geography
Which among the following is an important mineral of Pegu Yoma region of Myanmar?
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Answer: (A) Mineral oil

Explanation

The Pegu Yoma, also known as the Bago Yoma, is a mountain range in central Myanmar situated between the Irrawaddy and Sittaung rivers. Geologically, this region is composed of Tertiary sedimentary rocks, primarily sandstones and shales from the Oligocene and Miocene epochs, which are the principal oil-bearing strata in Myanmar. The region forms a critical part of the Central Burma Basin, which has historically been the heart of the country's onshore petroleum production. The structural anticlines found within the Pegu Yoma and its foothills provide the necessary geological traps for the accumulation of hydrocarbons. Major oil fields such as Yenangyaung and Chauk are located within this central belt, making mineral oil the most significant economic resource extracted from the area.

69Science and Technology
In which of the following types of heat engines carburetor is used?
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Answer: (C) Petrol engine

Explanation

A carburetor is a mechanical device used in Spark Ignition (SI) engines, commonly known as petrol engines, to mix air and fuel in the correct stoichiometric ratio for combustion. It operates based on Bernoulli's principle, where the reduction in pressure created by air flowing through a venturi throat draws fuel from a reservoir. This process atomizes the petrol into fine droplets, creating a combustible air-fuel mixture that is then drawn into the cylinder during the intake stroke. While modern petrol engines often use electronic fuel injection, the carburetor was the standard mechanism for fuel induction in petrol-powered heat engines for decades. Because petrol requires a precise premix with air to be ignited by a spark, the carburetor is a defining component of traditional petrol engine architecture.

70Polity and Governance
Who among the following has become the first woman President of Tanzania in April 2022?
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Answer: (C) Samia Suluhu Hassan

Explanation

Samia Suluhu Hassan was sworn in as the sixth President of Tanzania on March 19, 2021, becoming the first woman to hold this office in the country's history. She ascended to the presidency from the position of Vice President following the death of her predecessor, John Magufuli, in accordance with the Tanzanian Constitution which stipulates that the Vice President serves the remainder of the term. Throughout 2022, she was recognized for her efforts in re-engaging with the international community, promoting tourism through initiatives like the Royal Tour, and implementing reforms to the nation's investment climate and health policies. Her leadership represents a historic shift in the political landscape of the East African region.

71Geography
Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in which lake?
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Answer: (A) Loktak

Explanation

Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national park in the world and is situated in the southeastern part of Loktak Lake in the state of Manipur. Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is characterized by its unique phumdis, which are floating mats of soil, organic matter, and vegetation. The park serves as the last natural habitat for the critically endangered Sangai deer, or the Manipur brow-antlered deer, which is specially adapted to walking on the spongy surface of the phumdis. This ecosystem is a designated Ramsar site due to its immense biodiversity and importance to the local hydrology.

72Economy
Consider the following statements about farm subsidies in India. 1. The input subsidies in India, such as on fertilizers fall under indirect farm subsidies. 2. Reduction in power and irrigation bills offered to farmers fall under direct farm subsidies. 3. The agricultural provisions of the World Trade Organization (WTO) though allow direct farm subsidies, prohibit indirect subsidies. 4. All subsidies provided by the governments in India fall under the indirect subsidies. Select the correct statements using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4

Explanation

Indirect farm subsidies involve government support that reaches the farmer through reduced prices for inputs or price supports for products, rather than as direct cash payments. Statement 1 is correct because fertilizer subsidies are paid to manufacturers to lower the retail price for farmers, which is a hallmark of indirect support. Statement 4 is considered correct within the framework of India’s traditional agricultural policy, where the vast majority of government expenditure on agriculture is allocated to input subsidies such as power, irrigation, fertilizer, and interest subvention. These are all classified as indirect because they reduce the cost of cultivation rather than providing direct income support. Even though direct income transfers have been introduced recently, the structural basis of India’s subsidy regime remains heavily weighted towards these indirect, input-linked interventions designed to lower production costs and maintain food security.

73Science and Technology
What is the name of the test for undergraduate admission in Central Universities Single Window Admission for 2022 – 23?
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Answer: (C) CUET

Explanation

The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) and is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). Starting from the academic session 2022-23, it was made mandatory for all Central Universities in India to use CUET scores for admissions to their undergraduate programs. This single-window system was designed to provide a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, reducing the burden of appearing in multiple entrance exams and addressing the variations in assessment patterns across different school boards.

74Science and Technology
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous. Reason (R): A solution having different composition throughout is homogeneous. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

A mixture is defined as homogeneous if it has a uniform composition and identical properties throughout its entire mass. When table salt (NaCl) is dissolved in water, the solute particles distribute themselves evenly at the molecular level within the solvent. This uniformity ensures that any portion of the solution has the same salt-to-water ratio, satisfying the criteria for a homogeneous mixture. In contrast, a mixture that possesses a varying or different composition in different parts is classified as a heterogeneous mixture. Since the assertion correctly identifies the salt solution as homogeneous while the reason provides an incorrect definition of homogeneity, the assertion is true and the reason is false.

75Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Newly Elected Presiding Officer of Vidhan Sabha): (A) Ramesh Tawadkar (B) Kultar Sandwan (C) T. Satyavara (D) Rita Khandari List-II (State): 1. Goa 2. Punjab 3. Manipur 4. Uttarakhand
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Answer: (D) 1 2 3 4

Explanation

Ramesh Tawadkar was elected as the Speaker of the Goa Legislative Assembly in March 2022 following the state assembly elections. Kultar Singh Sandhwan, representing the Kotkapura constituency, was elected as the Speaker of the Punjab Legislative Assembly in March 2022. Thokchom Satyabrata Singh, also referred to as T. Satyavrata, was elected as the Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly in March 2022. Ritu Khanduri Bhushan, the MLA from Kotdwar, was elected as the first woman Speaker of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly in March 2022.

76Economy
T. Malthus propounded one of the most famous theories, called The Malthusian Theory which is related to
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Answer: (B) Population

Explanation

Thomas Robert Malthus propounded the Malthusian Theory of Population in his 1798 work, An Essay on the Principle of Population. The theory states that human populations grow in a geometric progression, represented by the series 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32... while the food supply or means of subsistence grows only in an arithmetic progression, represented by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.... Malthus argued that since population increases much faster than the food supply, a point of crisis is reached where the population outstrips available resources. To manage this imbalance, he identified two types of checks: preventive checks, such as delayed marriage and moral restraint, and positive checks, such as famine, disease, and war, which naturally reduce the population to levels the environment can support.

77History
The first Interim National Government was announced on
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Answer: (B) 24th August 1946

Explanation

The Interim Government of India was formed to facilitate the transition of power from British rule to independence, based on the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan. On August 24, 1946, the British government officially announced the establishment and the names of the members of the first Interim National Government. This followed an earlier invitation by Viceroy Lord Wavell to Jawaharlal Nehru on August 12, 1946, to form the administration. Although the formal announcement was made on August 24, the members of the Council, with Jawaharlal Nehru serving as the Vice-President of the Executive Council, officially took charge and were sworn into office on September 2, 1946.

78Art and Culture
In which of the following stupas, the features of a plateform with 'Aryak-Pillars' are found ?
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Answer: (C) Amaravati

Explanation

The Amaravati Stupa, situated in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, is the most prominent example of the Andhra or Vengi school of Buddhist architecture. A unique feature of the stupas in this region is the presence of Ayaka platforms, which are rectangular projections extending from the drum of the stupa at the four cardinal points. On each of these platforms, five monolithic columns known as Ayaka pillars or Aryak-Pillars were erected. These five pillars are highly symbolic, representing the five Great Events in the life of the Buddha: his Birth, the Great Renunciation (Mahabhinishkramana), the Enlightenment (Sambodhi), the First Sermon (Dharmachakrapravartana), and the Final Departure (Mahaparinirvana). This architectural innovation is a characteristic hallmark of the Krishna River valley stupas, distinguishing them from the northern styles found at Sanchi or Bharhut.

79Geography
According to the annual 'Frontier Report -2022' released by U. N. Environment Programme, which Indian city has become the second most noise polluted city of the World ?
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Answer: (B) Moradabad

Explanation

The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) published the Annual Frontier Report 2022, titled Noise, Blazes and Mismatches, which identified Moradabad in Uttar Pradesh as the second most noise-polluted city in the world. According to the report, Moradabad recorded a maximum noise level of 114 decibels (dB), which significantly exceeds the World Health Organization's recommended limits for residential and commercial areas. This ranking placed Moradabad just behind Dhaka, Bangladesh, which was ranked as the most noise-polluted city globally with 119 dB. The report categorized noise pollution as a growing global public health hazard that leads to physical and mental health issues such as hearing loss, hypertension, and sleep disruption. Moradabad's high noise levels are largely attributed to its intensive industrial activities, particularly its famous brassware industry, alongside heavy traffic and urban congestion.

80Geography
On which date Ozone Day is observed ?
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Answer: (B) September 16

Explanation

World Ozone Day, officially known as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, is observed annually on September 16. This date was designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 1994 to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, which took place on September 16, 1987. The Montreal Protocol is a landmark international agreement aimed at protecting the Earth's ozone layer by phasing out the production and use of ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons. The day serves to raise awareness about the importance of the ozone layer in filtering out harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun and to encourage global action toward environmental preservation.

81History
Who returned the 'Knighthood' title to the British Government in reaction against Jalianwala Bagh Massacre ?
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Answer: (B) Rabindranath Tagore

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Knighthood by King George V in 1915 following his Nobel Prize in Literature. In the aftermath of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which occurred on April 13, 1919, Tagore renounced the title in a formal letter to the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford. He stated that the time had come when badges of honour made the shame of the nation glaring in their incongruous context of humiliation, choosing to stand by his countrymen who were subjected to such inhuman cruelty by the British administration.

82History
Who was the founder of 'Satyashodhak Samaj' having its primary emphasis on the seeking of truth ?
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Answer: (C) Jyotiba Phule

Explanation

Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra. The name translates to Truth Seekers Society, reflecting its primary emphasis on the search for truth and the elimination of social inequalities. The organization was established to liberate the Shudra and Ati-shudra communities from the exploitation and religious dominance of the priestly classes. Phule advocated for the direct worship of God without the need for intermediaries, emphasizing that all human beings are equal by birth. The movement played a crucial role in promoting education for women and lower castes, challenging the traditional varna system, and asserting the human rights of the marginalized sections of Indian society. Phule further articulated these reformist ideas in his notable literary work, Gulamgiri.

83Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Waterfalls of India): (A) Dudhsagar (B) Barkana (C) Khandadhar (D) Palanni List-II (Location): 1. Karnataka 2. Odisha 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Goa
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Answer: (D) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

Dudhsagar falls is a multi-tiered waterfall system located on the Mandovi River in the state of Goa. Barkana falls is situated in the Shimoga district of Karnataka and is created by the Seetha River in the Western Ghats. Khandadhar falls is located in the Sundergarh district of Odisha and is recognized as a major horse-tail type waterfall. Palanni falls is a prominent water feature located in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.

84Economy
Eco mark is given to a product which is
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Answer: (C) Environment friendly

Explanation

The Ecomark scheme was launched by the Government of India in 1991 to encourage consumers to purchase products that have a reduced environmental impact. It is administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The mark is awarded to finished consumer goods that meet specific environmental criteria along with the quality requirements of Indian Standards. To qualify, a product must be manufactured, used, and disposed of in a way that significantly lessens its ecological footprint compared to similar products. The logo for the Ecomark is an earthen pot, which symbolizes the use of a renewable natural resource and its eventual return to the soil.

85History
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Sarvaverman - Gaya Copper Plate

Explanation

The Gaya Copper Plate inscription is associated with the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta, not the Maukhari ruler Sarvavarman. This inscription records the grant of a village named Kothuma to a Brahmana. Although some historians have debated the authenticity of the Gaya Copper Plate, labeling it as a later forgery or a spurious record, it remains historically linked to the Gupta administration. Sarvavarman, who was a powerful Maukhari king and successor to Ishanavarman, is primarily known through his Asirgarh Copper Seal and his mention in the Deo Barnark inscription, but he has no direct connection to the Gaya Copper Plate.

86Science and Technology
Which of the following mammals lays eggs?
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Answer: (C) Echidna

Explanation

The Echidna belongs to the order Monotremata, which represents a unique group of extant mammals that lay leathery-shelled eggs instead of giving birth to live young. These animals are often referred to as monotremes and are found primarily in Australia and New Guinea. Despite their oviparous reproductive strategy, Echidnas are classified as mammals because they possess hair and mammary glands. While they lack nipples, the females secrete milk from specialized patches of skin to nourish their offspring, known as puggles. The female typically lays a single egg into a small, temporary abdominal pouch, where it hatches after approximately ten days of incubation.

87Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Schedule): (A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule (C) Seventh Schedule (D) Eighth Schedule List-II (Subject): 1. Allocation of seats in the Council of States 2. Forms of Oath or Affirmation 3. Languages 4. List of subject matter of laws to be made by Parliament and State Legislatures
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The Third Schedule (A-2) prescribes the forms of oath or affirmation for various constitutional functionaries, including Union and State ministers, members of Parliament, and judges. The Fourth Schedule (B-1) outlines the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to the States and Union Territories. The Seventh Schedule (C-4) specifies the distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and the States through the Union, State, and Concurrent lists. The Eighth Schedule (D-3) enumerates the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

88History
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Persons): (A) D. K. Karve (B) J. E. D. Bethune (C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (D) B. M. Malabari List-II (Associated works/Posts): 1. Establishment of Girls School in Calcutta 2. Secretary, Widow Re-marriage Association 3. Starting a crusade against child marriage 4. Principal of Sanskrit College in Calcutta
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

D. K. Karve (A) was a pioneering social reformer who served as the Secretary of the Widow Re-marriage Association (2) and dedicated his life to the social upliftment of widows and women's education. J. E. D. Bethune (B), as the President of the Council of Education, was instrumental in the establishment of the first secular Girls School in Calcutta (1) in 1849. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (C) was a legendary scholar and reformer who held the post of Principal of the Sanskrit College in Calcutta (4) from 1851, where he opened the institution to non-Brahmin students. B. M. Malabari (D) was a dedicated Parsi reformer who is best known for starting a crusade against child marriage (3), which successfully led to the passage of the Age of Consent Act in 1891. The correct mapping is A-2, B-1, C-4, and D-3.

89GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
With reference to Western Uttar Pradesh, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Western region of U.P. is much more developed compared to other regions. 2. The region has witnessed the Green Revolution. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Western Uttar Pradesh is significantly more developed than the Eastern, Central, and Bundelkhand regions of the state. This disparity is driven by higher levels of industrialization, better infrastructure, and its strategic proximity to the National Capital Region, which has accelerated urbanization in districts such as Gautam Buddha Nagar and Ghaziabad. Historically, this region was also the epicenter of the Green Revolution in India during the 1960s. The presence of a robust canal network and favorable agro-climatic conditions facilitated the early adoption of high-yielding variety seeds, chemical fertilizers, and mechanized farming. These advancements primarily benefited wheat and sugarcane cultivation, leading to a substantial increase in agricultural productivity and creating a prosperous rural economy that remains ahead of other parts of Uttar Pradesh.

90History
Which one of the famous buildings of New Delhi has been converted into Prime Ministers' Museum?
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Answer: (C) Teen Murli Bhavan

Explanation

The Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya, or the Prime Ministers' Museum, is located at the Teen Murti Estate in New Delhi. This site originally housed the Teen Murti Bhavan, which was the official residence of India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. The museum project involved the integration of the historic Teen Murti Bhavan with a newly constructed building to create a comprehensive space dedicated to the lives and contributions of all Prime Ministers of India since independence. Inaugurated in April 2022, the museum utilizes the legacy of the original building to provide a chronological narrative of the country's leadership and democratic history.

91Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Committee): (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) L. M. Singhvi Committee (D) P. K. Thungun Committee List-II (Year of Appointment): 1. 1957 2. 1977 3. 1986 4. 1988
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Answer: (B) 1 2 3 4

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Government to suggest measures to strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj institutions, notably recommending a two-tier system. The L. M. Singhvi Committee was appointed in 1986 by the Rajiv Gandhi government to prepare a concept paper on the Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development, which advocated for the constitutional recognition of these bodies. The P. K. Thungon Committee was established in 1988 as a sub-committee of the Consultative Committee of Parliament to examine the political and administrative structure in the district for the purpose of district planning, also reinforcing the need for constitutional status for local government bodies.

92Geography
With reference to ecological niche, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It represents the range of conditions that it can tolerate the resources it utilizes and its functional role in ecological system. 2. Each species has a distinct niche. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The ecological niche of an organism encompasses the totality of its environmental requirements and its functional position within an ecosystem. It includes the specific range of physical and chemical conditions, such as temperature, moisture, and pH levels, that a species can tolerate, as well as the biological resources it consumes and its interactions with other organisms. Essentially, the niche defines how an organism makes a living and contributes to the energy flow and nutrient cycling of its habitat.

Furthermore, the principle of competitive exclusion, often referred to as Gause's Law, dictates that no two species can occupy the identical niche in the same environment indefinitely. If two species compete for the exact same resources, one will inevitably be more efficient, leading to the exclusion or niche differentiation of the other. Consequently, every species evolves to occupy a distinct and unique niche, which reduces direct competition and promotes biodiversity within the ecological system.

93History
From which place Jayata and Kumpa were associated who impressed Shershah with their valour ?
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Answer: (C) Marwar

Explanation

Jaita and Kumpa were the renowned Rajput generals serving under Rao Maldeo, the ruler of Marwar. They are celebrated for their exceptional courage during the Battle of Giri-Sumel in 1544, where they faced the massive army of the Afghan emperor Sher Shah Suri. Despite having a significantly smaller force, Jaita and Kumpa led a fierce charge that nearly decimated the Afghan center and put Sher Shah on the verge of defeat. Their bravery made such a profound impact on the Sultan that he famously remarked he had almost lost the empire of Hindustan for a handful of millet, referring to the relatively infertile land of the Marwar region.

94Geography
Which religious group in India has its highest urban population ?
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Answer: (D) Jain

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the Jain community is the most urbanized religious group in the country. Approximately 79.9 percent of the Jain population resides in urban areas. This high level of urbanization is primarily due to their traditional occupational focus on trade, commerce, and business activities, which are concentrated in cities and towns. Furthermore, the community has very high literacy rates and a strong presence in professional and financial services, sectors that are predominantly urban-centric. Their demographic concentration is highest in the urban centers of states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Rajasthan.

95Economy
Which of the following three States of India were top performing States under 'NITI Ayoq's State Energy and Climate Index' declared on 10th April 2022 ?
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Answer: (C) Gujarat, Kerala, Punjab

Explanation

The NITI Aayog released the State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) Round 1 on April 11, 2022, to rank states and union territories based on their efforts in the energy sector. The index evaluated performance across six parameters: DISCOM performance, access, affordability and reliability of energy, clean energy initiatives, energy efficiency, environmental sustainability, and new initiatives. In the category of Larger States, Gujarat emerged as the top performer with a score of 50.1, followed by Kerala with a score of 49.1, and Punjab with 48.6. These rankings reflect the states' efficiency in energy management, grid stability, and progress toward sustainable energy transitions as of the report's release.

96GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following cities of Uttar Pradesh and arrange them in descending order in terms of their population. I. Ghaziabad II. Kanpur III. Agra IV. Lucknow Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (C) II, IV, I, III

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the population of urban agglomerations in Uttar Pradesh follows a specific descending order for the listed cities. Kanpur is the most populous urban agglomeration among them with a population of approximately 2.92 million. Lucknow follows as the second largest with an urban population of about 2.90 million. Ghaziabad ranks third in this group with a population of approximately 2.38 million, while Agra ranks fourth with roughly 1.76 million residents. This ranking is based on the official Urban Agglomeration (UA) data, which includes the population of the municipal corporation along with its continuous urban outgrowths, establishing the sequence as Kanpur, Lucknow, Ghaziabad, and Agra.

97Science and Technology
Who is the record holder for single longest space flight by 'NASA' astronaut abroad the International Space Station ?
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Answer: (C) Mark Vande Hei

Explanation

Mark Vande Hei set the record for the longest single spaceflight by a NASA astronaut after completing a 355-day mission aboard the International Space Station. He launched to the station on April 9, 2021, and returned to Earth on March 30, 2022. This achievement surpassed the previous NASA record of 340 days, which was held by Scott Kelly. His extended stay provided scientists with valuable opportunities to observe the effects of long-duration spaceflight on the human body, aiding preparations for future crewed missions to the Moon and Mars. During this mission, he orbited the Earth 5,680 times and traveled more than 150 million miles.

98Polity and Governance
Consider the following subjects and arrange them into sequential order as mentioned in the Constitution. I. The union and its territory II. Fundamental duties III. Citizenship IV. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (B) I, III, IV, II

Explanation

The Constitution of India is organized into parts that follow a specific numerical sequence. The Union and its Territory (I) is established in Part I, covering Articles 1 to 4. Citizenship (III) follows in Part II, encompassing Articles 5 to 11. Directive Principles of State Policy (IV) are detailed in Part IV, spanning Articles 36 to 51. Fundamental Duties (II) are contained in Part IV-A, which consists of Article 51A and was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Following the chronological numbering of the Parts of the Constitution, the subjects appear in the order of I, III, IV, and finally II.

99Polity and Governance
Medical students of India were brought to India from Ukraine by Indian Government under which of the following operations ?
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Answer: (D) Operation Ganga

Explanation

Operation Ganga was an evacuation mission launched by the Government of India in February 2022 to rescue Indian citizens, primarily medical students, stranded in Ukraine following the Russian invasion. Due to the closure of Ukrainian airspace, the operation involved moving thousands of Indian nationals by land to neighboring countries including Romania, Hungary, Poland, Slovakia, and Moldova. From these locations, the Indian government organized a massive airlift using both commercial airlines and Indian Air Force transport aircraft to bring the students back to India. The mission was coordinated with the assistance of multiple Union Ministers who were sent as special envoys to Ukraine border countries to oversee the logistics and safety of the evacuees.

100Science and Technology
Which of the following is NOT a green house gas ?
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Answer: (A) Argon

Explanation

Argon is a monatomic noble gas that constitutes approximately 0.93 percent of the Earth's atmosphere. Greenhouse gases are characterized by their ability to absorb and emit infrared radiation, a process that requires molecules to have vibrational or rotational modes that produce a change in the molecular dipole moment. Because Argon consists of single, individual atoms (Ar), it does not have the chemical bonds or complex structure necessary for these vibrations. This lack of molecular complexity means Argon cannot trap outgoing long-wave radiation from the Earth's surface, rendering it radiatively inert. It does not contribute to the atmospheric greenhouse effect, as it lacks the thermal absorption properties found in gases with two or more atoms.

101History
Consider the following events of the reign of Aurangzeb and arrange them in chronological order : 1. Battle of Deorai 2. Defeat of Shuja near Banaras 3. Battle of Samugarh 4. Victory at Dharmat Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 2, 4, 3 and 1

Explanation

The events of the Mughal War of Succession occurred in a rapid sequence starting in early 1658. The Defeat of Shuja near Banaras, also known as the Battle of Bahadurpur, took place on February 14, 1658, when Shuja was intercepted and defeated by Dara Shikoh's son, Sulaiman Shukoh. Next was the Battle of Dharmat on April 15, 1658, where Aurangzeb and Murad Baksh defeated the imperial forces led by Maharaja Jaswant Singh and Qasim Khan. This was followed by the Battle of Samugarh on May 29, 1658, a critical victory for Aurangzeb against Dara Shikoh that led to the capture of Agra and the imprisonment of Shah Jahan. Finally, the Battle of Deorai was fought between March 12 and 14, 1659, marking the final defeat of Dara Shikoh by Aurangzeb's forces near Ajmer, which consolidated Aurangzeb's position as the undisputed emperor.

102Science and Technology
Which State of India has launched the country's first digital water data bank 'Aquarium' for clean water and water security in April 2022 ?
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Answer: (A) Karnataka

Explanation

The Karnataka government launched Aquarium, India's first digital water data bank, in Bengaluru during April 2022. Developed by AquaCraft Group Ventures, this platform serves as a comprehensive digital repository for water-related data from various sectors and institutions. The initiative aims to facilitate evidence-based decision-making for water security and sustainability by providing insights into water usage, quality, and management practices. By leveraging data science and technology, the bank helps policymakers and stakeholders address water scarcity and contamination challenges through better monitoring and strategic planning for the state's water resources.

103Science and Technology
The atmosphere of Saturn contains which one of the following gas in large quantity ?
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Answer: (C) Methane

Explanation

Saturn is a gas giant with an atmosphere composed almost entirely of hydrogen (96.3%) and helium (3.25%). Methane (CH₄) is the most prevalent trace gas within this atmosphere, occurring at a concentration of approximately 0.45% by volume. It plays a significant role in the planet's atmospheric chemistry, particularly in the formation of heavier hydrocarbons in the stratosphere through reactions triggered by solar ultraviolet radiation. The presence of methane is a defining characteristic of the gaseous envelopes of the outer planets, where it remains in gaseous form despite the extremely cold temperatures of the upper cloud decks.

104Geography
Kara Kum desert is situated in which of the following countries ?
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Answer: (A) Turkmenistan

Explanation

The Kara Kum Desert, which translates to Black Sand in Turkic languages, occupies approximately 70 to 80 percent of the land area of Turkmenistan. Located in Central Asia, it covers about 350,000 square kilometers east of the Caspian Sea. The desert is bordered to the north by the Sarykamysh Depression and to the northeast by the Amu Darya river. It is a region of extreme aridity and is notable for containing the Karakum Canal, one of the worlds longest irrigation canals, which diverts water from the Amu Darya to support agriculture in the southern regions of the country. Additionally, the desert is well known for the Darvaza gas crater, a natural gas field that has been burning continuously since 1971.

105Science and Technology
The dengue fever is caused by the bite of which of the following mosquitoes ?
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Answer: (B) Aedes

Explanation

Dengue fever is a viral disease caused by the dengue virus (DENV), which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female mosquitoes of the genus Aedes. The most prominent vector for this virus is the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is widely distributed in tropical and subtropical regions. These mosquitoes are known for their preference for urban habitats and their tendency to bite during the day. The transmission occurs when a mosquito feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus; after an incubation period of eight to twelve days, the mosquito becomes capable of transmitting the virus for the remainder of its life. The Aedes genus is the biological carrier required for the virus to complete its life cycle and spread between human populations.

106Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ? Quantity S. I. Unit
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Answer: (A) Activity of radio- active substance - Curie

Explanation

The International System of Units (SI) defines the Becquerel (Bq) as the unit for the activity of a radioactive substance, where one Becquerel corresponds to one disintegration or nuclear transformation per second (1 Bq = 1 s⁻¹). The Curie (Ci) is an older, non-SI unit of radioactivity named after Marie and Pierre Curie. It was originally defined as the activity of one gram of radium-226. The relationship between these units is 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq. Since the question specifically asks for the SI unit, the pairing of radioactive activity with Curie is incorrect.

107Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Biosphere Reserve): (A) Manas (B) Sundarbans (C) Nanda Devi (D) Pachmarhi List-II (State): 1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Assam 4. West Bengal
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Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Manas Biosphere Reserve is situated in the state of Assam along the foothills of the Himalayas.

Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve encompasses the world's largest mangrove forest area in West Bengal.

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in the high-altitude Himalayan region of Uttarakhand, which was historically part of Uttar Pradesh.

Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in the Satpura Range within the state of Madhya Pradesh.

108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT a 'Sustainable Development Goal' (SDG) target to be achieved by 2030 ?
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Answer: (A) Space Research

Explanation

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) comprise a set of 17 global goals and 169 targets established by the United Nations in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. These goals focus on addressing global challenges related to poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice. Space Research is not defined as a standalone goal or a specific target within this international framework. While space-derived data and satellite technology are recognized as tools that can assist in monitoring and achieving various goals, such as those related to climate action or food security, the activity of space research itself is not an official SDG target to be achieved by 2030.

109Geography
Famous 'Ruhr coalfield' is situated in which of the following countries ?
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Answer: (B) Germany

Explanation

The Ruhr coalfield is located in the state of North Rhine-Westphalia in western Germany. Named after the Ruhr River, this region is one of the largest and most significant industrial areas in Europe. It became the epicenter of the German industrial revolution during the 19th century due to its vast and high-quality bituminous coal deposits. These reserves fueled the massive growth of the iron and steel industries, turning the region into a powerhouse of heavy manufacturing and urbanization. Historically, the Ruhr area has been vital to the German economy and played a critical role in the country's development as a global industrial leader.

110Science and Technology
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is mainly composed of
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Answer: (A) Methane

Explanation

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is a fuel source primarily consisting of methane (CH₄), which typically makes up about 80% to 95% of its total composition. It is created by compressing natural gas to less than 1% of its volume at standard atmospheric pressure. Methane is the simplest hydrocarbon, and its high concentration in CNG allows the fuel to burn cleanly, producing significantly fewer emissions of carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter compared to traditional petroleum-based fuels. Because methane is lighter than air, CNG also disperses quickly in the event of a leak, making it a safer alternative in many industrial and transport applications.

111Geography
Match List - I (Ocean) with List - II (Maximum depth point) and choose the correct answer using the code given below. List-I (Ocean): (A) Pacific (B) Arctic (C) Indian (D) Atlantic List-II (Maximum Depth Point): 1. Sunda Trench 2. Puerto Rico Trench 3. Mariana Trench 4. Molloy Deep
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Pacific Ocean - Mariana Trench: Located in the western North Pacific Ocean, it is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth and contains the Challenger Deep, which reaches a depth of approximately 10,935 meters.

Arctic Ocean - Molloy Deep: Also known as the Molloy Hole, it is located in the Fram Strait within the Greenland Sea and represents the deepest point in the Arctic Ocean at approximately 5,550 meters.

Indian Ocean - Sunda Trench: Historically known as the Java Trench, it is the deepest part of the Indian Ocean, situated in the northeastern Indian Ocean with a maximum depth of approximately 7,187 meters.

Atlantic Ocean - Puerto Rico Trench: Located on the boundary between the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean, it contains the Milwaukee Deep, which is the deepest point in the Atlantic Ocean at approximately 8,376 meters.

112Polity and Governance
In reference to permissible noise levels, match List - I (Area) with List - II (Permissible noise level) and select the correct answer from the code given below. List-I (Area): (A) Residential area (B) Silent zone (C) Industrial area (D) Commercial area List-II (Permissible Noise Level): 1. 50 dB 2. 45 dB 3. 65 dB 4. 70 dB
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has established ambient air quality standards for noise across different zones. For a Residential area, the night-time permissible noise level is 45 dB. In a Silent zone, which includes areas within 100 meters of hospitals, educational institutions, and courts, the day-time limit is 50 dB. For Industrial areas where heavy manufacturing occurs, the night-time limit is set at 70 dB. Commercial areas are allowed a day-time noise level of 65 dB to accommodate business and market activities. These limits are divided into day-time (6:00 AM to 10:00 PM) and night-time (10:00 PM to 6:00 AM) to minimize the physiological and psychological impacts of noise on the population.

113Polity and Governance
Who among the following did not work as the Vice-President before assuming the office of the President of India?
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Answer: (B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Explanation

Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (7th President, 1977-82) was never VP; he came directly from Lok Sabha Speaker. Venkataraman served as VP (1984-87) then President. Sharma served as VP (1987-92) then President. Among options, Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (B) never held the Vice-Presidential office before becoming President.

114History
Match List - I (Newspaper/Magazine) with List - II (Place of Publication) and choose the correct answer using the code given below. List-I (Newspaper/Magazine): (A) Swadesh (B) Bharat Bandhu (C) Satyawadi (D) Shakti List-II (Place of Publication): 1. Agra 2. Almora 3. Hathras 4. Gorakhpur
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Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

The correct answer is B (4 3 1 2). Swadesh (A) was a Hindi nationalist newspaper published from Gorakhpur (4). Bharat Bandhu (B) was published from Hathras (3). Satyawadi (C) was published from Agra (1). Shakti (D) was a nationalist weekly published from Almora (2). Hence A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2, which is option B.

115Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about 'Make in India' Programme ? 1. 'Make in India' Programme was launched in the year 2014. 2. It aims at encouraging companies for manufacturing in India and facilitating investment.
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Make in India initiative was officially launched on September 25, 2014, as a major national program of the Government of India. Its primary objective is to facilitate investment, foster innovation, enhance skill development, protect intellectual property, and build best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure. By encouraging both domestic and multinational companies to manufacture their products in India, the program aims to transform the country into a global manufacturing hub and increase the manufacturing sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product. The initiative focuses on 27 sectors and emphasizes improving the ease of doing business through the simplification of regulatory processes and the creation of a conducive environment for industrial growth.

116Polity and Governance
With reference to the BIMSTEC, which of the following statements is/are true ? 1. P. M. Narendra Modi addressed the 5th BIMSTEC Summit on 30th March, 2022. 2. 5th Summit of BIMSTEC had been chaired by India. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Only 1

Explanation

The 5th BIMSTEC Summit was held on March 30, 2022, in Colombo, Sri Lanka, in a hybrid format. Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the summit virtually and delivered an address where he emphasized the importance of regional cooperation and announced a contribution of 1 million US dollars to the BIMSTEC Secretariat to strengthen its capacity. While India is a founding member and a major contributor to the organization, the 5th summit was chaired and hosted by Sri Lanka, which held the rotating chairmanship of BIMSTEC from 2018 until the conclusion of this summit in March 2022.

117Polity and Governance
The idea of 'Rurbanization' was elaborated by which one of the following sociologists ?
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Answer: (C) G. S. Ghurye

Explanation

G. S. Ghurye, widely regarded as the father of Indian sociology, elaborated the concept of rurbanization to characterize the rural-urban continuum in the Indian context. In his 1963 work, Anatomy of a Rurban Community, he examined the social and economic interactions between villages and towns, specifically within the Haveli Taluka of Maharashtra. Ghurye argued that the distinction between rural and urban areas is not a sharp dichotomy but a gradual transition where rural areas increasingly adopt urban facilities and lifestyles, while small towns maintain significant rural connections. His analysis focused on how these integrated communities serve as bridgeheads for social change and modernization in traditional societies.

118Geography
The main purpose of 'Ganga Action Plan' project, launched in 1985, was
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Answer: (A) Make its water pollution free only

Explanation

The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) was a centrally funded scheme launched in 1985 with the primary objective of improving the water quality of the River Ganga to acceptable standards. The project focused on pollution abatement by intercepting, diverting, and treating domestic sewage and preventing toxic industrial chemical wastes from identified polluting units from entering the river. By establishing sewage treatment plants and implementing measures to reduce the biological oxygen demand (BOD) and coliform count, the plan aimed to restore the river to a pollution-free state suitable for bathing and other uses.

119Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (God): (A) Shiva (B) Vishnu (C) Ganesh (D) Saraswati List-II (Symbol): 1. Chakra 2. Trident 3. Veena 4. Rope or noose
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Shiva is iconographically represented with the Trident (Trishula), representing the triad of creation, preservation, and destruction. Vishnu carries the Chakra (Sudarshana Chakra), a spinning disk used as a weapon to maintain dharma. Ganesh is depicted holding a Rope or noose (Pasha), which is used to pull the seeker toward the goal of spiritual liberation and to bind obstacles. Saraswati is the goddess of wisdom and arts, whose primary symbol is the Veena, representing the creative expression of sound and knowledge.

120Polity and Governance
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Trade Union): (A) Bhartiya Majdoor Sangh (B) United Trade Union Congress (C) All India Trade Union Congress (D) Indian National Trade Union Congress List-II (Party Affiliation): 1. Indian National Congress 2. Communist Party of India (Marxist) 3. Communist Party of India 4. Bharatiya Janata Party
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Answer: (D) 4 1 3 2

Explanation

Bhartiya Majdoor Sangh matches with Bharatiya Janata Party because it is the labor wing of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh and is associated with the BJP.

United Trade Union Congress matches with Revolutionary Socialist Party as it serves as the trade union arm of the RSP.

All India Trade Union Congress matches with Communist Party of India because it is the oldest federation in India and is affiliated with the CPI.

Indian National Trade Union Congress matches with Indian National Congress because it was established as the labor wing of the INC in 1947.

121Polity and Governance
What is 'Party Gate Scandal of United Kingdom'? It is
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Answer: (B) Relates to flouting of Covid-19 norms by British P.M.'s Office

Explanation

The Partygate scandal refers to a series of social gatherings held at 10 Downing Street and other government buildings during 2020 and 2021, when the United Kingdom was under strict COVID-19 lockdown restrictions. These events, which included office parties and social mixers, occurred at a time when the British public was legally prohibited from meeting friends and family to limit the spread of the virus. An internal investigation conducted by senior civil servant Sue Gray and a subsequent police investigation known as Operation Hillman concluded that several of these events breached public health regulations. The scandal led to 126 fixed penalty notices being issued by the Metropolitan Police, including one to Prime Minister Boris Johnson, making him the first sitting British Prime Minister found to have broken the law. This controversy significantly damaged public trust in the government and was a pivotal factor in the political pressure that led to Johnson's resignation in 2022.

122Economy
Which one of the following is the targeted group under the 'Pradhan Mantri Swandhi Scheme'?
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Answer: (C) Street vendors

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in June 2020 as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. The scheme is a specialized micro-credit facility designed to provide affordable working capital loans to street vendors to help them resume their livelihoods, which were severely affected by the COVID-19 pandemic. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹10,000 for a one-year tenure, with provisions for interest subsidies upon timely repayment and incentives for digital transactions. The scheme targets urban street vendors, including those from surrounding peri-urban and rural areas who vend within city limits.

123Geography
With reference to Borneo Island, located in South-East Asia, which of the following statements is/ are true? 1. It is divided among three countries. 2. It has been formed due to volcano deposition. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Only 1

Explanation

Borneo is the third-largest island in the world and is politically shared by three countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, and Brunei. The Indonesian part, known as Kalimantan, occupies about 73 percent of the island in the south. The Malaysian states of Sarawak and Sabah, along with the federal territory of Labuan, make up about 26 percent in the north. The sovereign state of Brunei is an enclave within the Malaysian state of Sarawak and accounts for approximately 1 percent of the total land area.

Geologically, Borneo is not a volcanic island. Unlike its neighbors in the Malay Archipelago, such as Java and Sumatra which lie on the active Ring of Fire, Borneo is situated on the stable Sunda Shelf, an extension of the Eurasian continental plate. The island's formation is primarily attributed to tectonic uplift, sedimentation, and metamorphic processes over hundreds of millions of years. While there are some extinct volcanic features, the island was not formed by volcanic deposition. For instance, Mount Kinabalu, the island's highest peak, is a granitic pluton formed from the solidification of magma beneath the earth's surface that was subsequently uplifted.

124History
Who was the founder of 'Hindustan Socialist Democratic Union'?
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Answer: (D) Yateendranath, Ajay Ghosh, Phanindranath Ghosh

Explanation

The Hindustan Socialist Democratic Union was founded in the late 1920s by revolutionary leaders Phanindranath Ghosh, Ajay Ghosh, and Yateendranath. This organization emerged during a period when the Indian revolutionary movement was undergoing a significant ideological shift toward socialism and democratic principles. Phanindranath Ghosh was a key organizer based in Bihar, while Ajay Ghosh was a prominent figure who later transitioned to communist leadership. Their collective efforts through this union aimed to mobilize the youth and provide a more structured political direction to the militant struggle against British rule. The formation of this union reflected the growing influence of Marxist and socialist thought among Indian revolutionaries who sought not just political independence but also social and economic transformation.

125Economy
The demographic dividend is
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Answer: (D) Working population of 15 to 59 years

Explanation

The demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population is larger than the non-working-age share of the population. In India, this working-age group is conventionally defined as the population between 15 and 59 years. This phenomenon occurs during a demographic transition when falling birth rates lead to a smaller dependent young population and falling death rates allow a larger portion of the population to reach productive ages. This creates a window of opportunity where increased labor supply, higher savings rates, and improved human capital can significantly accelerate a nation's Gross Domestic Product growth.

126Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Hill/Mountain): (A) Baleshwar Hill (B) Bilasri Range (C) Chin Range (D) Dhobi Hill List-II (Location in State of India): 1. Haryana 2. Manipur 3. Bihar 4. Karnataka
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Baleshwar Hill is located in the state of Bihar and is historically significant within the topography of the Gaya and Nalanda regions. Bilasri Range is situated in Karnataka and forms part of the state's internal mountain and plateau systems. Chin Range is an extension of the Arakan Mountains that runs through the state of Manipur along the Indo-Myanmar border. Dhobi Hill, often identified with the Dhosi Hill of the Aravalli Range, is located in the state of Haryana.

127Polity and Governance
By which amendment of the Constitution, 'Delhi' has been made National Capital Region?
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Answer: (D) 69th

Explanation

The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 granted special status to the Union Territory of Delhi by designating it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This amendment inserted Article 239AA and Article 239AB into the Constitution, providing for a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for Delhi. Under this arrangement, the administrator of the territory was designated as the Lieutenant Governor. The Legislative Assembly was given the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List or in the Concurrent List, except for public order, police, and land. This amendment effectively created a unique representative framework for the capital while maintaining its status as a Union Territory under the central government's oversight.

128Science and Technology
Solar energy is converted into electric energy through
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Answer: (D) Photo voltaic cells

Explanation

Photo voltaic cells utilize the photovoltaic effect to transform solar radiation into electrical energy. When sunlight strikes the surface of the semiconductor material within the cell, photons are absorbed, which transfers energy to the electrons in the valence band. This energy allows the electrons to overcome the band gap and move into the conduction band, creating free charge carriers. An internal electric field, created by a p-n junction, directs these free electrons toward the n-type layer and holes toward the p-type layer, resulting in a flow of direct current through an external load. This process enables the direct harvesting of renewable energy from the sun without the need for moving parts or intermediate thermal cycles.

129Polity and Governance
Who among the following have signed the agreement to resolve Assam - Meghalaya border dispute in March 2022?
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Answer: (C) Chief Ministers of Assam and Meghalaya

Explanation

On March 29, 2022, the Chief Minister of Assam, Himanta Biswa Sarma, and the Chief Minister of Meghalaya, Conrad K. Sangma, signed a historic Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in New Delhi to resolve the decades-old border dispute between the two states. The agreement was signed in the presence of Union Home Minister Amit Shah and aimed to settle differences in 6 out of the 12 disputed sectors along their 884.9 km long border. These six areas included Tarabari, Gazang, Hahim, Boklapara, Khanapara-Pillangkata, and Ratacherra. The resolution was based on a combination of factors including historical perspective, administrative convenience, proximity, and the will of the local residents as determined by regional committees formed by both state governments.

130Polity and Governance
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty ?
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Answer: (A) To protect monuments and places of national importance

Explanation

The protection of monuments and places of national importance is a Directive Principle of State Policy as specified under Article 49 of the Indian Constitution. This article mandates that it shall be the obligation of the State to protect every monument or place of artistic or historic interest, declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance, from spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, or removal. Because this responsibility is an instruction to the State administration rather than an individual obligation for citizens, it does not appear in the list of Fundamental Duties codified in Article 51A.

131History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I (Officer): (A) Talar (B) Pattakola (C) Sahsadhipati (D) Baladhip List-II (Duty): 1. Guard of Octroi 2. Officer of cases of Dacoity 3. Officer of Night Guards 4. Village Tax Collector
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Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

The Talar was a town official in early medieval India, particularly in the Rajput and Chalukya administrations, who served as the chief of the night watchmen responsible for urban security. The Pattakola was an administrative officer at the local level whose primary duty was the collection of taxes and revenue from the village. Sahsadhipati refers to an official dealing with Sahasa, which in ancient Indian law denotes violent crimes or acts of audacity; hence, this officer was responsible for investigating and handling cases of dacoity and robbery. Baladhip, often associated with the Mandapika or customs house, served as the superintendent or guard in charge of octroi and customs duties on trade goods.

132Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I (Revolution): (A) Golden Revolution (B) Grey Revolution (C) Yellow Revolution (D) Black Revolution List-II (Related with): 1. Oil seed production 2. Horticulture and Honey 3. Petroleum production 4. Fertilizers
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Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3

Explanation

The Golden Revolution (A-2) refers to the period of significant growth in horticulture, fruits, and honey production in India between 1991 and 2003. The Grey Revolution (B-4) is associated with the increased production and utilization of fertilizers to boost agricultural productivity following the Green Revolution. The Yellow Revolution (C-1) was launched in the late 1980s under the leadership of Sam Pitroda to achieve self-reliance in oilseed production, specifically focusing on mustard and groundnut. The Black Revolution (D-3) focuses on increasing the production of petroleum and crude oil products, alongside promoting the blending of ethanol with gasoline to reduce import dependency.

133Geography
Which one of the following countries is landlocked?
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Answer: (D) Bolivia

Explanation

Bolivia is a landlocked nation situated in central South America. It lost its direct access to the Pacific Ocean following the War of the Pacific (1879–1884), during which it ceded its coastal Litoral Department to Chile. Since then, the country has been entirely enclosed by land, sharing its borders with Brazil to the north and east, Paraguay to the southeast, Argentina to the south, Chile to the southwest, and Peru to the west. Along with Paraguay, it remains one of only two countries on the South American continent without a coastline.

134Geography
The earth atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following ?
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Answer: (A) Long wave terrestrial radiation

Explanation

The Earth's atmosphere is primarily heated from below rather than directly from above. While the Sun emits energy as short-wave solar radiation, the atmosphere is largely transparent to these wavelengths, allowing them to pass through and heat the Earth's surface. In turn, the warmed surface of the Earth radiates energy back toward space in the form of long-wave terrestrial radiation, also known as infrared radiation. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapor, and methane are highly effective at absorbing this outgoing long-wave radiation. This absorbed energy increases the kinetic energy of the atmospheric molecules, effectively heating the air. This process, fundamental to the greenhouse effect, ensures that the lower layers of the atmosphere remain significantly warmer than they would be if they relied solely on direct solar absorption.

135Science and Technology
Most of the sources of energy we use, represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is NOT ultimately derived from the sun's energy ?
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Answer: (B) Nuclear energy

Explanation

Nuclear energy is derived from the internal structure of the atomic nucleus, specifically through the processes of nuclear fission or nuclear fusion. In nuclear fission, heavy isotopes such as Uranium-235 or Plutonium-239 are split into smaller nuclei, releasing the binding energy that holds the nucleons together. This energy originates from the fundamental strong nuclear force and the mass-energy equivalence principle expressed by the formula E = mc². The heavy elements required for these reactions were formed during supernova explosions of previous generations of stars, long before the formation of our solar system. Consequently, nuclear energy is an intrinsic property of matter created during stellar evolution and cosmic events, independent of the current sun's radiation, heat, or gravitational influence on Earth's biological and atmospheric processes.

136Economy
As of early 2022, which country was at the top in steel production in the world ?
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Answer: (A) China

Explanation

China has been the global leader in steel production for over two decades. According to data released by the World Steel Association in early 2022, China produced approximately 1,032.8 million tonnes of crude steel in 2021. This massive output represented more than half of the entire world's steel production. The country's top ranking is sustained by its extensive industrial base, large-scale infrastructure development, and significant investment in state-owned steel enterprises. Despite global supply chain fluctuations and domestic environmental policies aimed at reducing carbon emissions, China's production capacity remains significantly higher than any other nation, securing its position at the top of the global steel industry.

137Economy
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has identified following categories of poverty. Which one is correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

The United Nations Development Programme recognizes poverty through two primary lenses to capture the full scope of deprivation. Income poverty is the traditional measure defined by a lack of sufficient monetary resources to meet basic needs, typically evaluated against a set poverty line. Human poverty is a broader concept introduced by the UNDP in the 1997 Human Development Report which emphasizes that poverty is multidimensional. It focuses on the denial of essential opportunities and choices, such as a long and healthy life, access to education, and a decent standard of living. By identifying both categories, the UNDP accounts for both the lack of financial means and the deprivation of fundamental human capabilities required for development.

138Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Rainfall occurs in the winter season in mediterranean climate. Reason (R) : In summer these regions remain under the influence of dry terrestrial winds. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Mediterranean climate regions, typically found on the western margins of continents between 30° and 45° North and South latitudes, are characterized by a distinct seasonal shift in wind patterns. During the summer, the apparent migration of the sun causes the subtropical high-pressure belts to shift poleward. This brings these regions under the influence of dry, offshore Trade Winds or stable descending air from the high-pressure cells, resulting in a lack of precipitation.

In the winter, as the pressure belts shift equatorward, these areas come under the influence of the moisture-laden Westerlies blowing from the oceans. These onshore winds bring cyclonic and orographic rainfall to the coastal and inland areas. The absence of rainfall in summer due to dry terrestrial winds directly necessitates that the annual precipitation is concentrated in the winter months when the wind regime changes. Thus, the summer drought caused by offshore winds explains why rainfall is restricted to the winter season.

139Economy
‘Jal Jeevan Mission’ Scheme was declared in the Union Budget of which Financial Year ?
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Answer: (D) 2019 – 20

Explanation

The Jal Jeevan Mission was declared in the Union Budget 2019-20, presented by the Union Finance Minister on July 5, 2019. This flagship program of the Government of India aims to provide a Functional Household Tap Connection to every rural household across the country by the year 2024. The mission targets the supply of 55 litres of water per person per day of prescribed quality on a regular and long-term basis. It is implemented by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The initiative follows a community-driven approach to water management, focusing on water conservation, source sustainability, and greywater management to ensure long-term water security at the village level.

140History
Which Mughal ruler patronaged Kavindra Acharya Saraswati of Banaras, a great scholar of Sanskrit and Hindi ?
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Answer: (A) Shahjahan

Explanation

Kavindra Acharya Saraswati was a preeminent 17th-century Sanskrit and Hindi scholar from Varanasi who received significant patronage from the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan. He is famously recognized for leading a delegation of scholars to the imperial court to petition for the abolition of the pilgrimage tax levied on Hindus at Kashi and Prayag. Shah Jahan, deeply impressed by the scholar's vast erudition and eloquence, granted the request and abolished the tax. The Emperor further honored him with the title Sarvavidyanidhan, signifying an ocean of all knowledge. Kavindra Acharya also authored the Kavindra Kalpalata, a collection of poems and hymns that includes verses in praise of Shah Jahan, illustrating the synthesis of classical Indian scholarship and Mughal courtly culture during this period.

141Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
On which date 'Uttar Pradesh Day' is celebrated ?
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Answer: (C) 24th January

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh Day, commonly known as UP Diwas, is celebrated on January 24 because it marks the date in 1950 when the United Provinces was officially renamed as Uttar Pradesh. Although the state was created earlier, this specific date represents its identity under the current name following the notification issued by the then Governor-General of India. The proposal to celebrate this day was initiated in 2017, and the first state-level celebration was organized in 2018 to highlight the state's culture, history, and contributions to the nation.

142Science and Technology
Sinovac given for Covid-19 is a
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Answer: (C) Whole virus vaccine

Explanation

Sinovac, commercially known as CoronaVac, is an inactivated vaccine developed using a traditional technology platform. It utilizes the whole SARS-CoV-2 virus that has been grown in a laboratory setting, typically in Vero cell cultures, and subsequently killed or inactivated using chemicals such as beta-propiolactone. Although the virus is rendered incapable of replicating or causing disease, the entire structure of the virion remains intact. This allows the host immune system to recognize and mount a response against multiple viral proteins, including the spike, envelope, and membrane proteins, rather than just a specific sub-unit or genetic sequence.

143Polity and Governance
With reference to Common Wealth Games Scheduled in 2022 and 2026, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Common Wealth Games will be held in Birmingham (England) in July – August 2022. 2. Common Wealth Games will be held in Victoria (Australia) in 2026. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Code :
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The 2022 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games, were held in Birmingham, England, from 28 July to 8 August 2022. Birmingham was awarded the event in December 2017 after the original host, Durban, was stripped of the rights due to financial constraints. In April 2022, the Commonwealth Games Federation officially announced that the state of Victoria in Australia would host the 2026 Commonwealth Games. The Victorian government planned a decentralized model for the event, with competitions spread across several regional hubs including Geelong, Bendigo, Ballarat, and Gippsland, rather than being concentrated in a single capital city. Both host selections were officially confirmed at the time of the 2022 examination.

144Geography
The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change, Government of India has announced 'Dolphin Day' which will be celebrated on
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Answer: (B) October 5

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change designated October 5 as National Dolphin Day during the 67th meeting of the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife in March 2022. This date was specifically chosen because the Ganges River Dolphin was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India on October 5, 2009. The primary objective of celebrating this day is to generate awareness and encourage community participation for the conservation of dolphins, particularly the Gangetic dolphin, which serves as a vital indicator of the ecological health of the Ganga river system and is classified as Endangered.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2D
  3. 3A
  4. 4A
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7D
  8. 8B
  9. 9B
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14A
  15. 15C
  16. 16C
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19D
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25B
  26. 26B
  27. 27B
  28. 28B
  29. 29D
  30. 30C
  31. 31D
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35A
  36. 36B
  37. 37C
  38. 38B
  39. 39D
  40. 40D
  41. 41A
  42. 42B
  43. 43D
  44. 44B
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48B
  49. 49A
  50. 50A
  51. 51A
  52. 52B
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55D
  56. 56D
  57. 57C
  58. 58D
  59. 59D
  60. 60D
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63D
  64. 64B
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67B
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72A
  73. 73C
  74. 74B
  75. 75D
  76. 76B
  77. 77B
  78. 78C
  79. 79B
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85B
  86. 86C
  87. 87C
  88. 88B
  89. 89B
  90. 90C
  91. 91B
  92. 92B
  93. 93C
  94. 94D
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97C
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100A
  101. 101A
  102. 102A
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105B
  106. 106A
  107. 107D
  108. 108A
  109. 109B
  110. 110A
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114B
  115. 115B
  116. 116D
  117. 117C
  118. 118A
  119. 119D
  120. 120D
  121. 121B
  122. 122C
  123. 123D
  124. 124D
  125. 125D
  126. 126C
  127. 127D
  128. 128D
  129. 129C
  130. 130A
  131. 131D
  132. 132A
  133. 133D
  134. 134A
  135. 135B
  136. 136A
  137. 137C
  138. 138D
  139. 139D
  140. 140A
  141. 141C
  142. 142C
  143. 143B
  144. 144B

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