The bacteria responsible for fixing nitrogen in Soyabean is
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Answer: (B) Rhizobium japonicum
Explanation
Rhizobium japonicum is the specific symbiotic bacterium that forms a mutualistic relationship with soybean (Glycine max) plants. It infects the root hairs of the soybean, leading to the development of specialized structures called root nodules. Within these nodules, the bacteria utilize the enzyme nitrogenase to convert atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), a form that the plant can readily assimilate for the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids. This biological nitrogen fixation is highly host-specific, and Rhizobium japonicum (often classified as Bradyrhizobium japonicum in modern taxonomy) is uniquely adapted to associate with the soybean species to enhance soil fertility and crop yield.
2Economy
Crop logging is a method of
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Answer: (B) Plant analysis for assessing the requirement of nutrients for crop production
Explanation
Crop logging is a diagnostic technique developed by Harry Clements, primarily for sugarcane cultivation, to monitor the nutritional status and growth progress of a crop throughout its life cycle. It involves the periodic collection and chemical analysis of specific plant tissues, such as the leaf sheath, to measure concentrations of essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and moisture. By maintaining a continuous record or log of these plant analyses, growers can compare current nutrient levels against established critical indices to determine the precise requirements for supplemental fertilization and irrigation. This real-time assessment ensures that the crop receives nutrients exactly when needed to optimize yield and quality.
3Economy
India's rank in vegetable production is
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Answer: (B) Second
Explanation
India has historically maintained its position as the second largest producer of vegetables in the world, following China. This ranking is a result of India's diverse agro-climatic zones, which allow for the cultivation of a wide variety of crops throughout the year. By the mid-2000s, India was producing approximately 10 to 15 percent of the world's total vegetable output. Significant contributions to this volume came from crops such as potatoes, onions, tomatoes, cauliflowers, and various cucurbits. The expansion of the horticulture sector during this period, supported by improved seeds and better irrigation practices, solidified India's global standing as a major agricultural producer, consistently trailing only the massive production capacity of China.
4GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
U.P. has been divided into
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Answer: (B) 9 agro-climatic zones
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh is categorized into nine distinct agro-climatic zones based on the classification provided by the Planning Commission and the National Agricultural Research Project under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. These zones are delineated according to specific environmental parameters such as soil type, rainfall, temperature, and water resources to facilitate regional agricultural planning. The nine zones are the Bhabhar and Terai Zone, Western Plain Zone, Central Western Plain Zone, South Western Semi-Arid Zone, Central Plain Zone, Bundelkhand Zone, North Eastern Plain Zone, Eastern Plain Zone, and the Vindhyan Zone. This systematic division allows for the implementation of localized farming techniques and crop selections that are best suited to the diverse geographical conditions found across the state.
5Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Prime Minister Dr. Man Mohan Singh launched the Jawahar Lal Nehru Urban Renewal Mission in December, 2005.
2. The Mission will have an initial corpus of one lakh crores.
3. Initially only 28 state capitals will benefit from the Mission.
4. The Mission aims to provide food for work to the urban poor.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission was inaugurated by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on December 3, 2005. It was designed as a reform-linked and fast-track development program for 63 identified cities in India. At the time of its launch, the mission was envisioned to facilitate a massive investment of approximately Rs. 1,00,000 crore over a seven-year period from 2005 to 2012. This total corpus represented the combined financial commitment expected from the Central Government, State Governments, and Urban Local Bodies to modernize urban infrastructure and provide basic services to the urban poor. The mission aimed to bridge the gap in urban services and promote sustainable development through mandatory institutional and financial reforms at the local level.
6Economy
Government of India has taken a decision to set up a price stabilisation fund for the growers of
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Answer: (C) Coffee and Tea
Explanation
The Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) was approved by the Government of India in 2003 specifically to protect the interests of small growers of four plantation crops: coffee, tea, rubber, and tobacco. The scheme was designed to provide a financial cushion during periods of price distress in international markets. It operated on a contribution-based model where growers and the government contributed to the fund during years of high prices, which would then be used to provide compensation when market prices fell below a predetermined level. This initiative was part of the government's strategy to safeguard the livelihoods of nearly 3.5 lakh small farmers who were vulnerable to the volatility of global commodity cycles.
7Economy
Labour intensive industry is one that
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Answer: (C) Employs more hands
Explanation
In economics, a labour intensive industry is characterized by a high ratio of labour input relative to capital investment. This means that the production process relies more heavily on human effort and manual intervention than on automated machinery or large-scale technological infrastructure. Such industries require a significant number of workers to perform tasks, assemble goods, or provide services, making the workforce the primary factor of production. Common examples include garment manufacturing, traditional agriculture, and artisanal crafts, where the cost and volume of human resources are the most critical components of the operation.
8Economy
If complete ship is hired, the Shipping Company issues
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Answer: (B) Charter Party
Explanation
A Charter Party is a formal written contract between a shipowner and a hirer, known as the charterer, for the lease of an entire ship or a substantial part of its carrying capacity. This legal agreement specifies the terms and conditions under which the vessel is hired, such as the duration of the hire in a time charter or the specific route in a voyage charter. It defines the responsibilities of both parties regarding freight charges, loading and unloading times, and the maintenance of the vessel. This document is typically utilized when a merchant has a large volume of cargo that requires the exclusive use of a ship rather than shipping smaller quantities as part of a general cargo service.
9Science and Technology
Ripening hormone is
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Answer: (C) Ethylene
Explanation
Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that plays a crucial role in the ripening of climacteric fruits such as bananas, mangoes, and tomatoes. It triggers a series of biochemical and physiological changes, including the softening of fruit tissues through the breakdown of cell walls, the conversion of starch into sugars, and the synthesis of pigments and aromatic compounds. Because it is naturally produced by fruits to initiate these processes, it is widely utilized in agriculture and the food industry to ensure uniform ripening after harvest.
10Science and Technology
We obtain turmeric from which part of the plant?
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Answer: (A) Stem
Explanation
Turmeric is derived from the rhizome of the plant Curcuma longa. Botanically, a rhizome is a specialized type of modified underground stem that grows horizontally beneath the soil surface. It serves as a storage organ for nutrients and enables the plant to undergo vegetative reproduction. Rhizomes are distinguished from true roots by the presence of nodes, internodes, and axillary buds. Because the turmeric used for culinary and medicinal purposes is the harvested and processed rhizome, it is classified as a stem.
11Polity and Governance
Who among the following has been given World Citizenship Award 2006?
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Answer: (C) Bill Clinton
Explanation
Bill Clinton received the World Citizenship Award in 2006 from the World Association of Girl Guides and Girl Scouts (WAGGGS). This honor was awarded to him for his exemplary humanitarian leadership and his commitment to addressing complex global issues through the Clinton Global Initiative (CGI). Founded in 2005, the CGI focused on fostering collaborative solutions for international problems including poverty, climate change, and public health. Clinton's efforts to inspire global action and his significant contributions to international development and disaster recovery efforts established him as a prominent figure in global citizenship, leading to his selection for this recognition.
12Polity and Governance
Who has been recently given Indira Gandhi Award for National Intergration 2005?
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Answer: (C) Javed Akhtar
Explanation
The 21st Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration for the year 2005 was bestowed upon Javed Akhtar, a distinguished poet, lyricist, and scriptwriter. He was selected for this prestigious honor in recognition of his significant contributions toward promoting and preserving the spirit of national integration, communal harmony, and secularism through his literary works and public life. This award is presented annually by the Indian National Congress on October 31, the death anniversary of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, to individuals or institutions that have made outstanding efforts to strengthen the unity and integrity of India. Javed Akhtar received the award in 2006 for his consistent advocacy of a pluralistic society and his efforts to bridge communal divides through his creative influence in Indian cinema and literature.
13Polity and Governance
Tshwane Declaration signed by representatives of
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Answer: (A) India and South Africa
Explanation
The Tshwane Declaration was signed on October 2, 2006, by Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and South African President Thabo Mbeki in Pretoria. The agreement was specifically timed to commemorate the centenary of Mahatma Gandhi starting the Satyagraha movement in South Africa. This declaration established a comprehensive strategic partnership between the two nations, outlining cooperation in fields such as trade, energy security, and defense. It also reaffirmed their mutual support for the reform of the United Nations Security Council and emphasized the importance of South-South cooperation in addressing global challenges.
14Science and Technology
Who of the following have received the Nobel Prize 2006 in Medicine?
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Answer: (B) Craig C. Mello and Andrew Z. Fire
Explanation
The 2006 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded jointly to Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C. Mello for their discovery of RNA interference (RNAi), which is a fundamental mechanism for controlling the flow of genetic information. Their groundbreaking research, published in 1998, revealed that double-stranded RNA can silence specific genes by triggering the degradation of messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. This discovery explained previously confusing observations in gene expression and established RNAi as a powerful tool in biological research. The mechanism plays a vital role in defending against viral infections and controlling the activity of mobile genetic elements. It has since enabled scientists to study gene function by systematically turning off individual genes and has opened new avenues for developing medical therapies to treat various diseases.
15Polity and Governance
Select the one which is not the responsibility of Gram Sabha under the Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 :
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Answer: (B) To receive applications for work and issue a dated receipt
Explanation
Under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005, the administrative function of receiving applications for work and issuing dated receipts is the responsibility of the Gram Panchayat, not the Gram Sabha. The Gram Panchayat acts as the executive body responsible for registering households, issuing job cards, and processing work requests. In contrast, the Gram Sabha serves as a deliberative and supervisory body. Its statutory roles under the Act include recommending the development projects to be undertaken, preparing the priority list of works for the annual plan, monitoring the implementation of these works, and conducting periodic social audits to ensure transparency and accountability in the execution of projects within its jurisdiction.
16Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005 and select one which is not provided for or specially exempted:
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Answer: (B) An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons for seeking information
Explanation
Section 6(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 explicitly states that an applicant making a request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting them. This provision is designed to ensure that the right to access information is not hindered by the subjective judgment of a Public Information Officer regarding the importance or necessity of the applicant's purpose. The Act focuses on the transparency of the public authority rather than the intent of the citizen.
17Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The First ever East Asia Summit was held in Singapore in December, 2005.
2. The Summit was attended by 16 countries from the East Asian region including India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The first East Asia Summit (EAS) was held on December 14, 2005, in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. The summit was attended by the heads of state or government from 16 founding countries, which included the ten members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) along with India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and New Zealand. India participated as a key regional power, contributing to the forum's mandate of promoting strategic dialogue and economic cooperation across the East Asian region. Since the inaugural meeting took place in Kuala Lumpur and not Singapore, the second statement regarding the 16 participating nations and India's attendance is the only correct part of the provided information.
18Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The International Badminton Federation is located in Kuala Lumpur.
2. The Federation has decided in favour of India as the host for 2009 World Badminton Championship.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The International Badminton Federation, which officially changed its name to the Badminton World Federation in September 2006, moved its global headquarters from Cheltenham in the United Kingdom to Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, in October 2005. Furthermore, the federation council decided in 2005 to award the hosting rights for the 2009 World Badminton Championships to India. This event was eventually held in Hyderabad in August 2009, marking the first time India hosted the individual world championships.
19History
Consider the following statements about one India's leading batsman:
1. He has scored now more than 8000 runs in the ODI Matches.
2. He has made four successive centuries.
3. He has made five Test double hundreds.
4. He is credited with most catches by an Indian player.
Who is he?
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Answer: (C) Rahul Dravid
Explanation
Rahul Dravid reached the milestone of 8000 runs in One Day Internationals in 2005 during a series against Pakistan. He is famously the only Indian batsman to score four centuries in successive Test match innings, a feat he achieved in 2002 with scores of 115, 148, and 217 against England, followed by 100 not out against the West Indies. By 2006, Dravid had established a prolific record in Test cricket that included multiple double centuries, such as his 270 against Pakistan and 233 against Australia. He is also widely recognized for his exceptional fielding in the slips and holds the record for the most catches by an Indian player in Test history, eventually setting the world record for the most catches by a non-wicketkeeper in the format.
20Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. The 93rd Indian Science Congress was held Hyderabad (A.P.) in January 2006.
2. Dr.M.S.Swaminathan was the recipient of the India Science Award 2004 at the Congress.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The 93rd Indian Science Congress was hosted by the Acharya N.G. Ranga Agricultural University in Hyderabad from January 3 to 7, 2006. The session was inaugurated by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and focused on the theme Integrated Management of Water Resources for Agricultural Prosperity and Food Security. During this event, the first India Science Award was conferred; however, the recipient was the eminent scientist Professor C.N.R. Rao for his work in solid-state and materials chemistry, rather than Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Thus, only the first statement is factually accurate.
21Polity and Governance
Which South American Country has elected Leftist Leader as its President for the first time in the 180 year old history of South America
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Answer: (D) Bolivia
Explanation
Bolivia gained its independence from Spanish rule in 1825. In December 2005, Evo Morales, representing the Movement for Socialism (MAS), was elected as President. This victory was a milestone as he became the first indigenous and the first socialist leader to be elected in the country's 180-year history (2005 - 1825 = 180 years). His election signaled a significant political shift in the region, ending the long-standing dominance of traditional conservative and neoliberal parties that had governed the nation since its founding. At the time of the 2006 exams, this was considered a landmark event in the democratic history of South America.
22Polity and Governance
President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam visited so many countries; one of them happens to be a country visited by any President of India for the first time. Which one of these is that country?
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Answer: (C) Myanmar
Explanation
President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam undertook a landmark three-day state visit to Myanmar in March 2006. This visit was historically significant as it marked the first time any President of India had visited Myanmar since its independence in 1948. The visit was a key component of India's Look East Policy, aimed at strengthening diplomatic and economic ties with Southeast Asian nations. During the visit, President Kalam engaged in high-level talks focused on energy security, particularly the exploration of natural gas, and bilateral cooperation in infrastructure and information technology.
23Economy
In the Union Budgets in India, which one of the following is the largest in amount?
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Answer: (C) Revenue Expenditure
Explanation
Revenue Expenditure consistently constitutes the largest portion of the Union Budget in India. It includes all government spending that does not result in the creation of physical or financial assets. This category is massive because it covers the government's recurring operational costs and committed liabilities, such as interest payments on past borrowings, defense services revenue, subsidies for food, fertilizers, and fuel, as well as salaries and pensions for central government employees. Historically, and particularly in the budgets leading up to 2006, Revenue Expenditure accounted for the vast majority of the total budget outlay, often exceeding 80 percent of the total expenditure. Because it encompasses the day-to-day administrative and social obligations of the state, its volume remains significantly higher than the capital or plan-based allocations focused on long-term investment.
24Science and Technology
The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is
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Answer: (C) chromium
Explanation
Chromium is the essential alloying metal used with iron to produce stainless steel because it provides the alloy with its characteristic corrosion resistance. When chromium is added to iron in concentrations typically exceeding 10.5 percent, it reacts with atmospheric oxygen to form a microscopic, tenacious, and chemically stable film of chromium oxide (Cr₂O₃) on the surface of the metal. This passive layer acts as a barrier that prevents oxygen and moisture from reaching the underlying iron, thereby inhibiting the oxidation process known as rusting. If the surface is scratched or damaged, the layer spontaneously reforms in the presence of oxygen, a property known as self-healing, which ensures the long-term durability and luster of the alloy.
25Science and Technology
What is the source of electrical energy in an artificial satellite?
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Answer: (A) Solar cells
Explanation
Solar cells, also known as photovoltaic cells, are the primary source of electrical energy for artificial satellites because sunlight is a continuous and abundant resource in the space environment. These cells are constructed from semiconductor materials, such as silicon or gallium arsenide, which convert photons from solar radiation directly into electricity via the photovoltaic effect. Because satellites must operate for many years without the possibility of refueling, solar arrays provide a lightweight and reliable long-term power solution. The energy generated by these cells is used to operate the onboard electronic systems and to charge secondary rechargeable batteries, which supply power when the satellite is in the Earth's shadow and cannot receive direct sunlight.
26Science and Technology
The age of the tree can be determined from the
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Answer: (B) counting the number of rings on its stem
Explanation
The age of a tree is determined through a scientific method known as dendrochronology, which involves counting the annual growth rings found in the cross-section of the stem or trunk. These rings are formed by the activity of the vascular cambium, a layer of meristematic tissue. In regions with distinct seasonal climates, the cambium produces different types of wood throughout the year. During the spring, it produces earlywood, which has wide vessels and low density, while in the late summer or autumn, it produces latewood, which is denser and darker. Together, one light band of earlywood and one dark band of latewood represent a single year of growth. By counting these concentric circles from the pith to the bark, the precise age of the tree can be calculated.
27Science and Technology
The fuel tanks of the space craft 'Discovery' that was launched into space on July 4, 2006 was filled with
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Answer: (C) mixture of liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen
Explanation
The Space Shuttle Discovery, like all orbiters in the NASA Space Shuttle program, utilized the External Tank to store the propellants required for its three Space Shuttle Main Engines during ascent. This External Tank consisted of two distinct pressurized compartments: one containing liquid hydrogen, which served as the fuel, and the other containing liquid oxygen, which served as the oxidizer. These cryogenic propellants were pumped into the engines and ignited to produce the massive thrust needed to reach orbit. The chemical reaction between liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen is highly efficient, producing water vapor as the primary exhaust product. During the STS-121 mission launched on July 4, 2006, this bipropellant system was the standard configuration used for the shuttle's primary propulsion system.
28Science and Technology
Consider the following statements and give the answer with the help of codes given below. Assertion (A): Only one side of the moon's surface is visible from the earth. Reason (R): The period of rotation of the moon on its axis is equal to the period of its revolution round the earth. Code:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The Moon is in a state of synchronous rotation with the Earth, a phenomenon also referred to as tidal locking. This means that the Moon's sidereal rotation period, or the time it takes to spin once on its axis, is equal to its sidereal orbital period, which is the time it takes to revolve once around the Earth. Both these periods are approximately 27.32 days. Because the Moon rotates at the same rate it revolves, it keeps the same hemisphere perpetually facing the Earth. As a result, observers on Earth can only see the near side of the Moon, while the far side remains permanently out of view from the ground. This gravitational synchronization is why the reason provided directly explains the assertion.
29Science and Technology
The weight of any body is
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Answer: (B) maximum at poles
Explanation
The weight of a body is determined by the formula W = mg, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The value of g is not uniform across the Earth's surface because the Earth is an oblate spheroid, meaning it is flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator. Consequently, the distance from the Earth's center to its surface is shortest at the poles. Since g is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the center (g = GM/R²), the gravitational acceleration is greatest where the radius is smallest. Furthermore, the centrifugal force arising from the Earth's rotation, which acts to reduce the effective gravitational pull, is zero at the poles and maximum at the equator. Both the Earth's shape and its rotation contribute to making the acceleration due to gravity, and thus the weight of any body, maximum at the poles.
30Science and Technology
On July 3, 2006, the first train was out from Lhasa Railway station. When it passed through its highest point over the Tibetan grassland, many passengers reached out for which of the following to ward off altitude sickness?
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Answer: (C) Oxygen mask
Explanation
The Qinghai-Tibet Railway, which began operations in July 2006, traverses the world's highest plateau where the air contains significantly less oxygen than at sea level. At its highest point, the Tanggula Pass, the tracks reach an elevation of 5,072 meters. To protect passengers from the effects of hypoxia and acute mountain sickness, the train carriages are equipped with advanced life-support systems. In addition to a centralized system that increases oxygen concentration in the cabin air, each seat and sleeper berth is provided with individual oxygen outlets. Passengers can use personal oxygen masks or tubes connected to these ports to breathe concentrated oxygen directly when passing through high-altitude sections of the Tibetan grassland.
31Science and Technology
The most toxic metal pollutant of auto mobile exhaust is
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Answer: (B) Lead
Explanation
Lead is traditionally added to petrol in the form of tetraethyl lead (C₂H₅)₄Pb to serve as an antiknock agent, which helps prevent premature ignition and ensures smoother engine operation. During the combustion process, lead compounds are released into the atmosphere via automobile exhaust as fine particulate matter. Lead is recognized as a highly dangerous pollutant because it is a persistent heavy metal that undergoes bioaccumulation in the human body. It acts as a potent neurotoxin that primarily affects the central nervous system, leading to cognitive impairments, brain damage, and interference with hemoglobin synthesis. Due to its widespread use in fuels throughout the 20th century and its severe impact on human health, especially in developing children, it is classified as the most significant toxic metal pollutant originating from vehicular emissions.
32Economy
Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India?
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Answer: (B) V. Kurien
Explanation
Dr. Verghese Kurien is recognized as the Father of the White Revolution in India for his leadership in Operation Flood, the world largest dairy development program. Launched in 1970, this initiative transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the largest producer of milk globally. Dr. Kurien established the dairy cooperative model known as the Anand Pattern, which empowered millions of small-scale farmers by providing them with direct control over the procurement, processing, and marketing of milk. As the founding chairman of the National Dairy Development Board and the force behind the Amul brand, he created a self-sustaining infrastructure that ensured fair pricing for producers and quality products for consumers.
33Science and Technology
Blue green algae are chiefly used as biofertiliser in the crop of
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Answer: (C) Paddy
Explanation
Blue-green algae, technically known as Cyanobacteria, are a group of photosynthetic prokaryotes capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia. They are predominantly utilized as biofertilizers in paddy cultivation because the stagnant water in rice fields serves as an ideal environment for their proliferation. Common species like Anabaena and Nostoc possess specialized cells called heterocysts that facilitate nitrogen fixation. This biological process enriches the soil with nitrogenous compounds, reducing the dependence on chemical fertilizers like urea. In addition to nitrogen fixation, blue-green algae contribute to soil health by secreting organic matter and growth-promoting substances that enhance the overall yield and root development of the rice crop.
34Science and Technology
The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called
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Answer: (B) Rectifier
Explanation
A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC), which periodically reverses direction, into direct current (DC), which flows in only one direction. This process, known as rectification, is typically achieved using semiconductor diodes that act as one-way valves for electricity. When an AC signal is applied to a rectifier, the diodes allow current to pass during one half-cycle and block it during the other, or redirect the current so that it always flows in the same direction through the load. This conversion is fundamental for the operation of most electronic equipment, which requires stable DC power to function but is often supplied by AC from the electrical grid.
35Science and Technology
An earth satellite is kept moving in its orbit. It is due to the phenomenon of centripetal force provided by
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Answer: (B) the gravitational attraction of the Earth on the satellite
Explanation
A satellite orbiting the Earth is in a state of uniform circular motion, which necessitates a centripetal force directed toward the center of the Earth. This force is supplied by the gravitational attraction exerted by the Earth on the satellite. According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, the magnitude of this force is F = GMm/r², where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, m is the mass of the satellite, and r is the distance from the center of the Earth to the satellite. This gravitational pull provides the acceleration required to constantly change the direction of the satellite's velocity, thereby maintaining its stable orbital path. In this physical system, the gravitational force effectively functions as the centripetal force mv²/r required for the satellite to maintain its orbital speed v.
36Science and Technology
A person meets with an accident and needs blood-transfusion but there is no time to check his blood group. Which of the following blood groups could be given to him?
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Answer: (B) O -
Explanation
Blood group O negative is known as the universal donor because its red blood cells lack A, B, and Rh antigens on their surface. In an emergency situation where there is no time to determine a patient's blood type, O negative blood is administered because it will not trigger an immune response or hemolytic reaction in the recipient, regardless of their own blood group. Since there are no antigens for the recipient's antibodies to attack, it can be safely transfused into individuals with any ABO or Rh blood type.
37Art and Culture
Shahtoosh shawl is made from the hairs of
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Answer: (C) Chiru
Explanation
Shahtoosh, known as the king of fine wools, is derived from the down hair of the Chiru or Tibetan antelope (Pantholops hodgsonii). These antelopes inhabit the high-altitude plateaus of Tibet and the Ladakh region of India. The wool is prized for its extreme lightness and warmth, with fibers so fine that a full-sized shawl can often be passed through a small wedding ring. Because the Chiru must be killed to harvest the wool, the species faced a severe population decline, leading to a global ban on the trade of Shahtoosh under the CITES agreement and its protection under the Wildlife Protection Act in India.
38Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Fullerenes are a distinct allotrope of carbon, such as the well-known Buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀), consisting of carbon atoms arranged in hollow spherical, elliptical, or tubular structures. Unlike the description provided, fullerenes are composed entirely of carbon atoms and do not contain fluorine. While they are often studied within the realm of organic chemistry due to their carbon-based nature and reactivity, they are pure carbon molecules rather than fluorine-containing compounds. Their molecular geometry is defined by a network of fused pentagonal and hexagonal rings of carbon, lacking any other elemental constituents in their fundamental form.
39Science and Technology
The energy of the sun is produced by
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Answer: (C) Nuclear fusion
Explanation
The Sun generates its immense energy through the process of nuclear fusion, specifically the proton-proton chain reaction occurring in its core. Under the extreme conditions of temperature, reaching approximately 15 million Kelvin, and intense gravitational pressure, hydrogen nuclei (protons) overcome their natural electrostatic repulsion to fuse together. This sequence of reactions ultimately combines four hydrogen nuclei to create a single helium-4 nucleus. The mass of the resulting helium nucleus is approximately 0.7 percent less than the total mass of the original hydrogen protons. This lost mass, known as the mass defect, is converted into energy according to Albert Einstein's mass-energy equivalence formula E = mc². This energy is released primarily in the form of high-energy gamma-ray photons and neutrinos, which eventually migrate to the solar surface and are emitted as the light and heat that sustain the solar system.
40Economy
The tax on import and export is known as
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Answer: (C) Custom Duty
Explanation
Custom duty is a form of indirect tax imposed by the state on the international transit of goods. It encompasses both import duties, which are levied on goods brought into a country, and export duties, which are applied to goods sent out of a country. These duties serve multiple roles, including providing a significant source of national revenue and acting as a tool for trade policy by protecting domestic manufacturers from lower-priced foreign imports. In India, the legal framework for the levy and collection of these duties is established by the Customs Act, 1962, and the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, which define the rates and procedures for taxing cross-border trade.
41Geography
On which of the following dates your shadow at noon is the smallest?
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Answer: (C) June 22
Explanation
The length of a shadow at noon is inversely proportional to the solar altitude, which is the angle of the sun above the horizon. The shadow length s for an object of height h can be calculated using the formula s = h cot(θ), where θ is the sun elevation angle. A higher solar altitude results in a shorter shadow. In the Northern Hemisphere, the sun reaches its highest point in the sky at noon during the Summer Solstice, which typically occurs on June 21 or June 22. On this day, the sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N). Since the sun is at its maximum possible elevation for the year, the solar rays are most vertical, causing objects to cast their shortest shadows of the year at solar noon.
42Science and Technology
Centre for DNA finger-printing is located at
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Answer: (D) Hyderabad
Explanation
The Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is an autonomous research organization established by the Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is situated in Hyderabad and provides state-of-the-art DNA fingerprinting services to various law enforcement and investigative agencies for crime investigation and paternity testing. The institute also conducts advanced research in diverse areas of modern biology, including bioinformatics, molecular microbiology, and human genetics. Hyderabad serves as the location for this premier facility due to its established infrastructure and prominence as a biotechnology and scientific research hub in India, having evolved from the activities of the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB).
43Science and Technology
Ozone layer in atmosphere
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Answer: (C) Provides safety to life earth from ultraviolet radiation
Explanation
The ozone layer is a region of high ozone (O₃) concentration located in the lower stratosphere, primarily between 15 and 35 kilometers above the Earth's surface. It performs a vital ecological function by absorbing approximately 97 to 99 percent of the Sun's medium-frequency ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Specifically, it filters out the most harmful UV-B rays, which possess enough energy to damage biological molecules such as DNA. By preventing this high-energy radiation from reaching the Earth's surface in full intensity, the ozone layer protects terrestrial and aquatic life from severe health risks, including skin cancer, cataracts, and immune system suppression, while also ensuring the stability of various ecosystems and agricultural productivity.
44Science and Technology
Cryogenic engines are used in
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Answer: (A) Rockets
Explanation
Cryogenic engines utilize liquid fuels and oxidizers stored at extremely low temperatures, typically using liquid hydrogen as fuel at -253°C and liquid oxygen as the oxidizer at -183°C. In rocket technology, these engines are essential for the upper stages of launch vehicles. They offer significantly higher efficiency and thrust per unit of propellant, known as specific impulse, compared to solid or earth-storable liquid propellants. This high performance is necessary for lifting heavy satellites into high-altitude orbits such as Geostationary Transfer Orbit. By 2006, cryogenic technology was a cornerstone of advanced space programs globally, including India's development of the GSLV to achieve self-reliance in heavy satellite launches.
45Science and Technology
Transformer is used for
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Answer: (D) to step up or step down AC voltages
Explanation
A transformer is a static electrical device that transfers energy between circuits through electromagnetic induction. According to Faraday law, a changing magnetic flux is required to induce a voltage in a conductor. Because alternating current (AC) naturally varies over time, it produces the necessary fluctuating magnetic field in the transformer core to induce an electromotive force in the secondary winding. The device modifies voltage levels based on the turns ratio formula Vₛ / Vₚ = Nₛ / Nₚ. If the secondary winding has more turns than the primary (Nₛ > Nₚ), the transformer steps up the voltage; if it has fewer turns (Nₛ < Nₚ), it steps down the voltage. This functionality is fundamental for minimizing power loss during high-voltage transmission and providing appropriate voltage levels for end-users.
46Science and Technology
Match the columns with Lists-I and List-II and select the correct answer with the help of code given below:
List-I:
(A) High
(B) Wavelength 2. Angstrom
(C) Pressure
(D) Energy
List-II:
1. Mach Velocity
3. Pascal
4. Joule
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3
Explanation
High Velocity is measured using the Mach number, which represents the ratio of an object's speed to the local speed of sound.
Wavelength is typically expressed in Angstrom, a unit of length equal to 10⁻¹⁰ meters used for electromagnetic radiation.
Pressure is measured in Pascal, the SI derived unit defined as one Newton per square meter.
Energy is measured in Joule, which is the SI unit for work, heat, and all forms of energy.
47Science and Technology
The most commonly used substance in fluorescent tubes are
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Answer: (C) mercury vapour and argon
Explanation
Fluorescent tubes generate light by passing an electric discharge through a mixture of low-pressure mercury vapour and an inert gas, which is most commonly argon. When the electric current flows through the tube, it excites the mercury atoms, causing them to emit ultraviolet (UV) radiation. This UV radiation then strikes a phosphor coating on the inside of the glass tube, which glows and converts the UV energy into visible light. Argon is added to the mixture to facilitate the initial discharge and lower the starting voltage required to strike the arc, while also protecting the electrodes from degradation during operation.
48Science and Technology
When a body is taken from the earth to the moon
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Answer: (B) its weight decreases
Explanation
The weight of an object is the gravitational force exerted on it by a celestial body, defined by the formula W = mg, where m is the mass of the object and g is the acceleration due to gravity. While mass is an intrinsic property that remains constant everywhere, weight varies depending on the local gravitational field strength. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is approximately 1.62 m/s², which is about one-sixth of the Earth's gravity of 9.8 m/s². Because the Moon has significantly less mass than Earth, it exerts a much weaker gravitational pull. Therefore, when a body is transported from the Earth to the Moon, the value of g in the weight equation decreases, resulting in a reduction of the body's total weight.
49Science and Technology
Expansion during heating
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Answer: (C) decreases the density of the material
Explanation
Thermal expansion occurs because heating a substance increases the kinetic energy of its constituent atoms or molecules. As these particles move more vigorously, they require more space, leading to an increase in the total volume V of the material. According to the law of conservation of mass, the total mass m of the substance remains unchanged during this process. Density ρ is defined as the mass per unit volume, expressed by the formula ρ = m/V. Since the volume increases while the mass remains constant, the denominator in the density equation grows larger, which results in a decrease in the overall density of the material.
50Polity and Governance
The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about
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Answer: (D) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation
Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission is established by the President to address the vertical and horizontal imbalances of resources between the Centre and the States. Its primary constitutional duties include recommending the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes that are to be divided between the Union and the States, and the allocation among the States of their respective shares of such proceeds. Furthermore, the Commission is responsible for formulating the principles that govern the grants-in-aid provided to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 275. These recommendations are designed to ensure fiscal stability and equitable resource distribution within the Indian federal structure.
51Polity and Governance
The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties
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Answer: (D) without the consent of any state
Explanation
Article 253 of the Constitution of India grants Parliament the specific power to enact laws for the entire territory of India or any part thereof to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions, or decisions made at international conferences. This article functions as a non-obstante clause, overriding the standard distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States. It allows the Parliament to legislate even on subjects primarily reserved for the States under the State List (List II) if such action is necessary to fulfill the country's international obligations. Consequently, the Parliament does not require the consent or concurrence of any state government to exercise this legislative authority, ensuring the Union can effectively represent and bind the nation in global affairs.
52Polity and Governance
Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
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Answer: (D) fourteen days
Explanation
Under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, specific procedures are laid down for Money Bills, which include the annual Finance Bill. Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within a maximum period of fourteen days from the date of receipt. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within this stipulated timeframe, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in the form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend such bills; it can only suggest recommendations, which the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject in their entirety.
53Polity and Governance
The First day session of Indian Constituent Assembly was chaired by
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Answer: (D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Following the French practice of electing the oldest member as the presiding officer, Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was appointed as the temporary Chairman of the Assembly for the inaugural session. He presided over the first day of the proceedings, which included the presentation of credentials and the signing of the register by the members. His chairmanship lasted until December 11, 1946, when Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President.
54Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development?
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Answer: (D) Department of Woman and Child Development
Explanation
The Department of Women and Child Development was established in 1985 as a constituent department under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. To provide the required impetus to the holistic development of women and children, the Government of India upgraded this department to a separate and independent Ministry of Women and Child Development with effect from January 30, 2006. Following this administrative restructuring, it ceased to be a department within the Ministry of Human Resource Development and began functioning as a standalone ministry.
55Polity and Governance
Who is known as the first Law Officer of India?
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Answer: (C) Attorney General of India
Explanation
The Attorney General of India, appointed under Article 76 of the Constitution, is the first and highest law officer of the Government of India. The position is held by a person qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court, and is appointed by the President on the advice of the Cabinet. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts across India and advises the Government on legal matters. The Solicitor General of India is the second law officer, below the Attorney General in seniority.
56Polity and Governance
The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be removed
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Answer: (B) on an address from both Houses of Parliament
Explanation
Under Article 148 of the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is provided with security of tenure to ensure the independence of the office. Although appointed by the President, the CAG can only be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This procedure, outlined in Article 124(4), requires an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority, which is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. This address must be presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
57Geography
Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?
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Answer: (D) Sikkim
Explanation
Nathu La is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim. Situated at an elevation of approximately 4,310 meters (14,140 feet) in the Himalayas, it connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China Tibet Autonomous Region. It historically served as an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. Following the Sino-Indian War in 1962, the pass was closed to the public; however, it gained significant attention when it was officially reopened for border trade on July 6, 2006. It remains one of the three officially recognized border trading posts between India and China, alongside Shipki La in Himachal Pradesh and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand, and is also a designated site for Border Personnel Meetings between the two nations.
58Polity and Governance
Who will decide the Office of Profit?
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Answer: (B) Union Parliament
Explanation
According to Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the Union Parliament possesses the authority to declare by law which offices of profit shall not disqualify their holders from being members of Parliament. While the Constitution does not provide a specific definition of the term office of profit, it empowers the Parliament to enact legislation, such as the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, to list and exempt certain positions from this category. This legislative prerogative allows the Union Parliament to effectively decide the legal status and scope of various offices in relation to the disqualification criteria for its members.
59Polity and Governance
To be officially recognised by the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an Opposition Group, a party or Coalition of Parties must have least
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Answer: (A) 50 member
Explanation
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha recognizes a political party or a coalition as an official Opposition Group only if it secures at least 10% of the total seats in the House. This requirement is based on the directions issued by the Speaker, which stipulate that a parliamentary party or group must have a membership at least equal to the quorum required for a sitting of the House. According to Article 100 of the Constitution, the quorum is fixed at one-tenth of the total number of members of the House. For the Lok Sabha, this threshold is 50 members. Official recognition is necessary for the party to be granted certain facilities and for its leader to be eligible for the status and allowances of the Leader of the Opposition.
60Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
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Answer: (D) Right to information
Explanation
The Right to Information is a statutory right enacted through the Right to Information Act, 2005, and is also considered a fundamental right derived from Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, which guarantees the freedom of speech and expression. The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Indian Constitution, include provisions for social and economic justice such as the prohibition of intoxicating drinks under Article 47, the right to work under Article 41, and equal pay for equal work for both men and women under Article 39(d). Since the Right to Information is categorized as a legal and fundamental right rather than a directive for state policy, it is not included in Part IV.
61Polity and Governance
Right to Education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is
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Answer: (B) a Fundamental Right
Explanation
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India, which mandates that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. By virtue of its placement in Part III of the Constitution, this provision established the right to education as a Fundamental Right. This constitutional change shifted the nature of the obligation from a non-justiciable guideline to an enforceable right that every child in the specified age group can claim against the State.
62Polity and Governance
How many times Financial Emergency has been declared in India so far?
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Answer: (D) Never
Explanation
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Since the Constitution was adopted in 1950, this provision has never been invoked by the President. Even during the severe balance of payments crisis in 1991, which was the most significant economic challenge in the country's history, the government opted for structural reforms and economic liberalization rather than declaring a Financial Emergency. Therefore, as of 2006, the count for such declarations remains at zero.
63Economy
The annual growth rate of the Indian Economy at 1999-2000 prices during 2005-2006 has been estimated between
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Answer: (A) 8 to 9 per cent
Explanation
The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), in its Advance Estimates released during the 2005-06 period, projected the growth of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost at 1999-2000 constant prices to be 8.1 per cent. This high growth rate was driven by a robust performance in the industrial and services sectors, with manufacturing and the composite category of trade, hotels, transport, and communication both recording growth rates exceeding 9 per cent. This performance reflected the strong momentum in the Indian economy during the mid-2000s, marking a period of sustained macroeconomic expansion where the annual growth rate consistently remained within the 8 to 9 per cent bracket.
64Polity and Governance
Which one of the following motions the council of Ministers in India can move?
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Answer: (D) Confidence Motion
Explanation
A Confidence Motion is a procedural mechanism used by the Council of Ministers to demonstrate that the government commands the majority support of the Lok Sabha. Under Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People, necessitating that the ministry maintains the trust of the house to remain in power. This motion is initiated by the government, typically when a new Prime Minister is appointed or when the President directs the government to prove its majority following a change in political alignments. By winning the vote on a Confidence Motion, the Council of Ministers confirms its constitutional right to govern.
65Polity and Governance
Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
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Answer: (B) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India
Explanation
Under Article 112(3) of the Constitution of India, the expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India are specifically enumerated. While the Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Constitution provides for the salary and allowances of the Chairman of the Council of States to be charged on the Consolidated Fund, rather than providing a salary for the office of the Vice President itself. Because the Vice President receives emoluments specifically in the capacity of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the expenditure for the salary and allowances of the Vice President of India as a distinct office is not mentioned as a charged expenditure in the Constitution.
66Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the Parliament?
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Answer: (B) 1 month
Explanation
Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, a Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. This duration was originally two months, but the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 reduced the period to one month to ensure more immediate parliamentary oversight. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved at the time of the proclamation or during this one-month period without approving it, the proclamation survives until thirty days from the first sitting of the reconstituted Lok Sabha, provided the Rajya Sabha has already approved it within the initial one-month timeframe. Once the resolution is passed by both Houses, the emergency remains in force for a period of six months unless revoked earlier.
67Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission. Reason (R): Powers of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation
Article 324 of the Constitution of India establishes the Election Commission as an autonomous constitutional authority to ensure the conduct of free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. To maintain this independence, the Constitution provides the Chief Election Commissioner with security of tenure, stipulating that they can only be removed from office in a manner and on grounds similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court. This process requires a special address by both Houses of Parliament, meaning the executive does not have the unilateral power of removal. Additionally, other Election Commissioners can only be removed by the President upon the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This framework prevents the executive from exercising discretionary control over the tenure of the commissioners, making the assertion true and the reason false.
68Economy
Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy of Indian Government?
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Answer: (C) Regulation of inter-state
Explanation
Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and revenue collection, primarily through taxation, to influence the economy and achieve specific macroeconomic goals. These goals traditionally include promoting economic growth, achieving full employment, maintaining price stability, and ensuring the equitable distribution of wealth and income among the population. The regulation of inter-state trade is a legislative and administrative function rather than a fiscal one. It is governed by specific constitutional provisions, such as Articles 301 to 307 of the Constitution of India, which guarantee the freedom of trade and commerce across state borders and empower Parliament to impose necessary restrictions. While fiscal tools like taxes may be applied to traded goods, the act of regulating the flow and conduct of trade between states remains a matter of trade policy and legal framework.
69Economy
Hindu Rate of growth refers to the rate of growth of
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Answer: (A) GDP
Explanation
The term Hindu Rate of growth was coined by the Indian economist Raj Krishna in 1978 to characterize the persistent low growth of the Indian economy. It specifically refers to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate, which averaged approximately 3.5% annually from the 1950s through the early 1980s. This period of slow economic expansion occurred despite various five-year plans and industrial policies aimed at modernization. The term was used to highlight the gap between actual economic performance and the higher growth rates required to significantly improve living standards and reduce poverty across the nation.
70Economy
As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, percentage share of states of the shareable central taxes is
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Answer: (C) 30.5
Explanation
The Twelfth Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan, provided recommendations for the period 2005 to 2010. A central feature of its report was the vertical devolution of resources from the Union to the States. The Commission recommended that the states' share in the net proceeds of shareable central taxes be increased to 30.5 percent. This recommendation marked a one percentage point increase over the 29.5 percent share that had been mandated by the Eleventh Finance Commission. This increase was designed to provide state governments with greater financial resources to meet their expenditure requirements and to support fiscal consolidation efforts at the state level.
71Economy
In India, national income is estimated by
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Answer: (B) Central Statistical Organisation
Explanation
The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) is the primary government agency responsible for the preparation and publication of national income estimates in India. Functioning under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, the CSO coordinates statistical activities across the country and sets statistical standards. It produces the National Accounts Statistics (NAS), which provides a detailed account of various economic aggregates such as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Net National Product (NNP), and per capita income. The estimation process involves a systematic aggregation of economic data from the primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors using standardized methodologies to ensure a reliable measurement of the country economic growth and performance.
72Polity and Governance
Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government does not include
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Answer: (D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Explanation
The Bharat Nirman Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2005 as a time-bound business plan to provide basic infrastructure in rural areas. The program specifically identified six components for development: rural housing, irrigation, drinking water, rural roads, electrification, and rural telephony. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a separate flagship program aimed at the universalization of elementary education. It was launched in 2001 and focuses on human resource development rather than the physical infrastructure sectors covered under the Bharat Nirman framework. Since Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan operates under the Ministry of Education (formerly Human Resource Development) and deals with literacy and schooling, it is not part of the infrastructure-centric Bharat Nirman initiative.
73Economy
Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small scale sector in industry?
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Answer: (A) Abid Hussain Committee
Explanation
The Abid Hussain Committee on Small Enterprises, which submitted its report in 1997, provided a comprehensive blueprint for the modernization of the small-scale sector in India. Its most significant recommendation was the complete abolition of the reservation of items for exclusive manufacture by small-scale industries. The committee argued that the reservation policy had failed to encourage the growth of small units, instead acting as a barrier to technological upgradation and economies of scale. It contended that in a liberalizing economy, such protectionist measures made small units uncompetitive against high-quality imports and hampered their ability to export. The committee proposed shifting the policy focus from protection to promotion through improved credit access and infrastructure support.
74Economy
In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment in flows into India?
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Answer: (B) Services sector
Explanation
Following the economic liberalization initiated in 1991, the Services sector emerged as the largest recipient of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India. This sector encompasses a broad range of activities including financial services, banking, insurance, non-financial business services, and outsourcing. During the decade leading up to 2006, India established itself as a global hub for services, particularly in information technology and business process outsourcing. The government progressively increased FDI limits in various service sub-sectors, attracting significant global capital. Data from the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) for the period between the mid-1990s and 2006 confirms that the Services sector consistently maintained the highest share of total cumulative FDI inflows, driven by India's competitive advantage in human capital and the high growth potential of its tertiary sector.
75Economy
Who formulates the monetary policy in India?
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Answer: (B) RBI
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary authority for the formulation and execution of monetary policy in India as mandated by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. As the nation central bank, its mandate involves managing the money supply and interest rates to maintain price stability while supporting economic growth. To achieve these goals, the RBI employs various quantitative and qualitative tools, including the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and the Repo and Reverse Repo rates under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility. During 2006, the policy was typically articulated through the Annual Policy Statement and subsequent mid-term and quarterly reviews led by the Governor of the RBI to respond to inflationary pressures and liquidity requirements in the banking system.
76GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The population of Uttar Pradesh has been rapidly growing during the last two decades because of
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Answer: (B) improvement in health and control of diseases
Explanation
The rapid growth of the population in Uttar Pradesh is explained by the demographic transition model, specifically the stage where death rates fall sharply while birth rates remain high. Improvements in public health services, widespread immunization, and the effective control of major epidemic diseases significantly lowered the mortality rate across the state. By reducing infant and child mortality and increasing life expectancy, these medical advancements ensured that a larger proportion of the population survived, leading to a high natural increase. The expansion of healthcare infrastructure and better disease management created a significant gap between birth and death rates, which was the fundamental driver of the state population surge during the late 20th and early 21st centuries.
77Economy
Assertion (A): Educated unemployment increases with high rate of economic growth. Reason (R): It happens only when there is lack of professional education.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
High economic growth often leads to an increase in educated unemployment due to a structural mismatch in the labor market. In a rapidly growing economy, especially one driven by the services and technology sectors, the demand for labor shifts toward highly specialized and technical roles. If the education system continues to produce a large number of graduates with general academic degrees rather than specific professional or vocational qualifications, these individuals become unemployable in the modern sectors of the economy. This lack of professional education ensures that the supply of labor does not meet the technical requirements of the high-growth industries, causing the number of unemployed educated persons to rise even as the overall economy expands.
78Economy
Six more Public Sector Undertakings have been accorded status of miniratna by Government of India (September, 2006). Choose the one which is not included amongst them from the following:
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Answer: (B) Indian Telephone Industries
Explanation
Indian Telephone Industries (ITI) was not included in the list of PSUs accorded Miniratna status in September 2006 because it failed to meet the mandatory financial eligibility criteria. To achieve Miniratna Category-I or Category-II status, a Public Sector Undertaking must have shown continuous profits for the preceding three years and maintained a positive net worth. During the period leading up to 2006, ITI was experiencing significant financial losses and was considered a sick industrial unit under the purview of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction. Due to its inability to demonstrate sustained profitability and financial independence, it remained ineligible for the enhanced delegation of powers granted to Miniratna companies.
79Science and Technology
The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio of 1:4:2:3. The angles are respectively
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Answer: (C) 36° 144° 72° 108°
Explanation
The sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is always 360°. Given the ratio of the angles is 1:4:2:3, let the constant of proportionality be x. The angles can then be represented as x, 4x, 2x, and 3x. Summing these values gives the equation x + 4x + 2x + 3x = 360°, which simplifies to 10x = 360°. Dividing by 10 yields x = 36°. By substituting this value back into the ratio components, we calculate the individual angles as follows: the first angle is 1 × 36° = 36°, the second is 4 × 36° = 144°, the third is 2 × 36° = 72°, and the fourth is 3 × 36° = 108°.
80Economy
If 2X + 3Y = 10 and Y < 4, then
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Answer: (A) X > -1
Explanation
Given the linear equation 2X + 3Y = 10, we can solve for Y in terms of X as Y = (10 - 2X)/3. The problem states the constraint Y < 4. Substituting the expression for Y into this inequality gives:
(10 - 2X)/3 < 4
Multiplying both sides of the inequality by 3 results in:
10 - 2X < 12
Subtracting 10 from both sides gives:
-2X < 2
To solve for X, divide both sides by -2. Since dividing an inequality by a negative number requires reversing the inequality sign, we get:
X > 2/-2
X > -1
81Economy
Ram started his journey at 9.00 a.m. at 8 km/hour. Hamid started from the same spot in the same direction at 9.30 a.m. at 10 km/hour. Hamid overtakes Ram at
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Answer: (D) 11.30 a.m
Explanation
The time t (in hours) Hamid takes to catch Ram after his own start time is given by the formula t = (vᵣₐₘ × ΔT)/(vₕₐₘᵢCollection - vᵣₐₘ), where ΔT is the time difference between their starts. Given vᵣₐₘ = 8 km/h, vₕₐₘᵢCollection = 10 km/h, and ΔT = 0.5 hours (the duration from 9:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m.), the calculation is t = (8 × 0.5)/(10 - 8) = 4/2 = 2 hours. Since Hamid begins his journey at 9:30 a.m., he overtakes Ram exactly 2 hours later at 11:30 a.m.
82Economy
A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 10 days and A, B and C together in 5 days. C alone can do it in
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Answer: (C) 60 days
Explanation
Let the total work be the least common multiple (LCM) of 12, 10, and 5, which is 60 units. The daily efficiency of each person is calculated by dividing the total work by the number of days they take.
Efficiency of A = 60 / 12 = 5 units per day
Efficiency of B = 60 / 10 = 6 units per day
Combined efficiency of A, B, and C = 60 / 5 = 12 units per day
To find the efficiency of C alone, subtract the efficiencies of A and B from the combined efficiency:
Efficiency of C = 12 - (5 + 6) = 1 unit per day
The time taken by C to complete the work alone is the total work divided by C's efficiency:
Time = 60 / 1 = 60 days
83Economy
What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers, 14, 17, 34, 42 so that the ratio of first two is the same as the ratio of the next two?
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Answer: (C) 2
Explanation
Let the number to be subtracted be x. For the numbers (14-x), (17-x), (34-x), and (42-x) to be in proportion, the ratio of the first two must equal the ratio of the last two:
(14 - x)/(17 - x) = (34 - x)/(42 - x)
For any four numbers a, b, c, d, the value x to be subtracted to make them proportional is given by the formula:
x = (ad - bc)/((a+d) - (b+c))
Substituting the given values a=14, b=17, c=34, d=42 into the formula:
x = (14 × 42 - 17 × 34)/((14 + 42) - (17 + 34))
x = (588 - 578)/(56 - 51)
x = 10/5
x = 2
Subtracting 2 results in the numbers 12, 15, 32, and 40. The ratio of the first two is 12/15 = 4/5 and the ratio of the next two is 32/40 = 4/5, confirming the equality.
84Economy
A circular road runs around a circular garden. If the sum of the circumferences of the inner and outer circles is 88 metres and the radius of the inner circle is one third of the outer circle, then the width of the road is
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Answer: (D) 7 metres
Explanation
Let R be the radius of the outer circle and r be the radius of the inner circle. The sum of the circumferences is given by the formula 2πR + 2πr = 88. Factoring out 2π, we have 2π(R + r) = 88. Using the value π = 22/7, the equation becomes 2 × 22/7 × (R + r) = 88. Solving for the sum of the radii, we get R + r = (88 × 7)/44 = 14 metres.
The problem states that the radius of the inner circle is one-third of the outer circle, which can be expressed as r = 1/3R or R = 3r. Substituting R = 3r into the sum equation gives 3r + r = 14, which simplifies to 4r = 14. Thus, r = 14/4 = 3.5 metres. Consequently, the outer radius R = 3 × 3.5 = 10.5 metres. The width of the road is the difference between the outer and inner radii: R - r = 10.5 - 3.5 = 7 metres. Alternatively, using the relation R = 3r, the width is R - r = 2r, and substituting r = 3.5 yields 2 × 3.5 = 7 metres.
85Economy
A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males, 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is
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Answer: (B) 24,000
Explanation
The total number of literate people in the city is found by applying the 50% literacy rate to the total population: 0.50 × 3,00,000 = 1,50,000. Given that there are 1,80,000 males and their literacy rate is 70%, the number of literate males is 0.70 × 1,80,000 = 1,26,000. The number of literate females is the difference between the total literate population and the literate male population: 1,50,000 - 1,26,000 = 24,000.
86Economy
The cost price of an article is ₹100/- To gain 50% after allowing a 50% discount, the marker price of the article is
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Answer: (D) ₹300
Explanation
The relationship between the Marked Price (MP) and the Cost Price (CP) when a specific profit percentage and discount percentage are given is determined by the formula:
MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 - Discount%)
Given the CP = 100, Profit% = 50, and Discount% = 50, substitute these values into the ratio:
MP/100 = (100 + 50)/(100 - 50)
MP/100 = 150/50
MP/100 = 3
MP = 100 × 3 = 300
Alternatively, to achieve a 50% gain on the cost price of ₹100, the Selling Price (SP) must be ₹150. Since a 50% discount is allowed on the Marked Price to arrive at this selling price, the equation is SP = MP × (1 - 50/100), which simplifies to 150 = MP × 0.5. Solving for MP results in 150 / 0.5 = 300.
87Economy
In three annual examinations, of which the aggregate marks of each was 500, a student secured average marks 45% and 55% in the first and the second yearly examinations respectively. To secure 60% average total marks, it is necessary for him in third yearly examination to secure marks
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Answer: (C) 400
Explanation
To calculate the marks required in the third year, we first determine the total marks needed across all three examinations. Since each exam has an aggregate of 500 marks, the total aggregate for three years is 3 × 500 = 1500. To secure an overall average of 60%, the student must obtain a total of 60% of 1500, which is 0.60 × 1500 = 900 marks.
The marks secured in the first year are 45% of 500 = 225, and the marks secured in the second year are 55% of 500 = 275. The combined marks for the first two years are 225 + 275 = 500. Subtracting this from the required total, the marks needed in the third examination are 900 - 500 = 400.
Alternatively, using the average of percentages, let x be the percentage required in the third year. The equation is (45 + 55 + x) / 3 = 60, which simplifies to 100 + x = 180, resulting in x = 80%. Calculating 80% of 500 gives 0.80 × 500 = 400.
88Science and Technology
If RUNNER is coded by SUMMER, the code for WINTER Will be
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Answer: (A) XIMSER
Explanation
The coding pattern is established by comparing the word RUNNER with its code SUMMER. The transformation follows a specific sequence of alphabetical shifts for each character position. The first letter is shifted forward by one (R + 1 = S), the second letter remains the same (U + 0 = U), the third and fourth letters are shifted backward by one (N - 1 = M), and the fifth and sixth letters remain unchanged (E + 0 = E and R + 0 = R). Applying this same sequence of shifts (+1, 0, -1, -1, 0, 0) to the word WINTER results in W + 1 = X, I + 0 = I, N - 1 = M, T - 1 = S, E + 0 = E, and R + 0 = R. Concatenating these transformed letters produces the code XIMSER.
89Geography
P is 300 kms eastward of O and Q is 400 kms north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is
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Answer: (C) 250 kms
Explanation
The locations of O, P, and Q form a right-angled triangle OPQ with the right angle at O. The distance OP = 300 km represents the base and OQ = 400 km represents the height. Using the Pythagorean theorem, the distance PQ (the hypotenuse) is calculated as PQ = √(OP² + OQ²) = √(300² + 400²) = √(90,000 + 160,000) = √(250,000) = 500 km. Since R is the midpoint of the line segment connecting Q and P, the distance between Q and R is exactly half of the total distance PQ. Thus, QR = 500/2 = 250 km.
90Economy
A man borrows ₹1200.00 from a bank for a period of 3 months. He finds that he has to repay ₹1236.00. The bank rate of interest is
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Answer: (C) 12%
Explanation
The simple interest paid by the man is the difference between the amount repaid and the principal borrowed, which is ₹1236 - ₹1200 = ₹36. This interest is charged for a duration of 3 months, which is equivalent to 3/12 = 0.25 years. To find the annual rate of interest R, we use the formula for simple interest SI = (P ⋅ R ⋅ T)/100. Substituting the given values into the formula, we have 36 = (1200 ⋅ R ⋅ 0.25)/100. This simplifies to 36 = 12 ⋅ R ⋅ 0.25, which further reduces to 36 = 3R. Solving for R gives R = 36/3 = 12. Thus, the annual bank rate of interest is 12%.
91Science and Technology
In climbing a round pole of 80 metres height, a monkey climbs 5 metres in a minute and slips 2 metres in the alternate minute. To get to the top of the pole, the monkey would take it
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Answer: (A) 51 minutes
Explanation
In a complete cycle of 2 minutes, the monkey climbs 5 meters and slips 2 meters, resulting in a net progress of 5 - 2 = 3 meters. To determine the total time, we first calculate the time needed to reach the point from which the final 5-meter leap will touch the top, as the monkey will not slip once the summit is reached.
The required height before the final jump is 80 - 5 = 75 meters. Since the net progress is 3 meters every 2 minutes, the number of cycles required to reach 75 meters is 75 / 3 = 25 cycles. The time elapsed for these 25 cycles is 25 × 2 = 50 minutes. In the 51st minute, the monkey performs its final 5-meter climb. This brings the total distance to 75 + 5 = 80 meters, exactly reaching the top of the pole.
92Economy
A man travels by a car for 3 days. He travelled 10 hours each day. He drove on the first day at 45 km/hr, second day at 40 km/hr and third day at 20 km/hr. His average speed was
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Answer: (B) 35 km/hr
Explanation
When a body travels at different speeds for equal intervals of time, the average speed is the arithmetic mean of the individual speeds. In this case, the man travels for exactly 10 hours on each of the three days.
Using the arithmetic mean formula for average speed:
Average Speed = (v₁ + v₂ + v₃)/3
Average Speed = (45 + 40 + 20)/3
Average Speed = 105/3 = 35 km/hr
Alternatively, using the basic definition:
Total Distance = (45 × 10) + (40 × 10) + (20 × 10) = 450 + 400 + 200 = 1050 km
Total Time = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 hours
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 1050/30 = 35 km/hr
93Economy
Forty three persons went to a canteen which sells cold drink Maaza and Pepsi . If 18 persons took Maaza only, 8 took Pepsi only and 5 took nothing, find how many took both the drinks.
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Answer: (C) 12
Explanation
The total number of individuals in the group is 43. Using the principle of sets, the total population is the sum of the mutually exclusive groups: those who took only Maaza, those who took only Pepsi, those who took both drinks, and those who took neither. Let x represent the number of people who took both drinks. We can set up the linear equation 18 + 8 + x + 5 = 43. Combining the known numerical values on the left side of the equation results in 31 + x = 43. By isolating the variable, we calculate x = 43 - 31 = 12. This logic is further confirmed by identifying that 43 - 5 = 38 people consumed at least one drink; since 18 people took Maaza only and 8 took Pepsi only, the remaining 38 - (18 + 8) = 12 people must have consumed both.
94Economy
A man works for 2 days and then rests for one day, then works for 2 days and rests for one day, and so on. For everyday he works, he earns ₹100. How much will he earn from Monday to Saturday?
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Answer: (C) ₹400
Explanation
The worker follows a repeating 3-day cycle consisting of 2 days of work and 1 day of rest. In each cycle, he earns money for 2 days. From Monday to Saturday, there are exactly 6 days, which equates to 6 / 3 = 2 complete cycles. Since he earns ₹100 for each day he works, his earnings per cycle are 2 × 100 = ₹200. For 2 cycles, the total earnings amount to 2 × 200 = ₹400. Alternatively, mapping the days shows he works on Monday, Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday, while resting on Wednesday and Saturday, totaling 4 working days at ₹100 each.
95Geography
A rectangular plot of lawn of length and width respectively x and y metres is surrounded by a pathway of 2 metres width. The total area of pathway is
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The area of a pathway surrounding a rectangle is calculated by subtracting the area of the original rectangle from the area of the larger rectangle formed by the outer edge of the path. A lawn with length x and width y surrounded by a pathway of 2 metres width results in an outer rectangle with a length of x + 4 and a width of y + 4, because the path adds 2 metres to each side.
The area of this pathway is:
(x + 4)(y + 4) - (x × y)
Expanding the product of the binomials:
xy + 4x + 4y + 16 - xy
4x + 4y + 16
This can also be verified using the standard formula for the area of a path of width w around a rectangle of dimensions L and B, which is 2w(L + B + 2w). Substituting the given values L = x, B = y, and w = 2:
2(2)(x + y + 2 × 2)
4(x + y + 4)
4x + 4y + 16
The resulting expression 4x + 4y + 16 is the total area of the pathway.
96Art and Culture
Consider according to Buddhism: Assertion (A): There is no rebirth Reason (R): There is no soul. Now select your answer from the following code.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Buddhism adheres to the doctrine of Anatta (Anatman), which asserts that there is no permanent, unchanging, or autonomous soul in living beings. This confirms that reason (R) is true. Conversely, assertion (A) is false because Buddhism explicitly believes in the process of rebirth. Unlike traditions that view rebirth as the transmigration of an eternal soul, Buddhism explains rebirth through the framework of Pratityasamutpada (Dependent Origination) and the law of Karma. In this view, a continuous stream of consciousness or karmic impressions is transmitted from one existence to another. Therefore, the cycle of birth and death remains a central tenet of Buddhist philosophy despite the rejection of a permanent self.
97Art and Culture
Lord Buddha preached the following four noble truths. Put them in correct order using the codes given below: A. There is suffering B. There is cessation of suffering C. There is a path leading to the cessation of sufferings D. There is cause of suffering
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Answer: (A) A D B C
Explanation
The Four Noble Truths, known as Chatvari Arya Satyani, follow a systematic logical progression of diagnosis and cure. The sequence begins with Dukkha (A), the observation that suffering exists as an inherent part of life. This is followed by Samudaya (D), which identifies the root cause of suffering as craving or attachment. The third truth is Nirodha (B), the optimistic realization that suffering can be completely ended by removing its cause. Finally, Magga (C) provides the practical method for achieving this cessation, known as the Noble Eightfold Path. This ordered framework is fundamental to Buddhist philosophy, moving from the recognition of a problem to its cause, the possibility of a solution, and the specific actions required to reach it.
98History
Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of
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Answer: (C) Baba Farid
Explanation
Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya, a legendary Sufi saint of the Chishti Order, was the primary disciple and spiritual successor of Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakar, commonly known as Baba Farid. After receiving his spiritual training under Baba Farid in Ajodhan (modern-day Pakistan), Nizamuddin Auliya was appointed as his Khalifa and sent to Delhi to spread the teachings of the Chishti Silsila. He spent the rest of his life in Delhi, emphasizing the concepts of renunciation, divine love, and service to humanity.
99Polity and Governance
Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhi?
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Answer: (D) Heavy industrialisation
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru envisioned a modern, socialist India where heavy industrialization served as the foundation for economic development and self-reliance. He famously referred to large dams and industrial projects as the temples of modern India, believing that large-scale production and technological advancement were essential to overcome the country's poverty and colonial backwardness. In contrast, Mahatma Gandhi was fundamentally skeptical of mass production and the mechanization of industry. Gandhi advocated for a decentralized, village-based economy centered on cottage industries and manual labor, as exemplified by the Charkha. He believed that heavy industrialization would lead to the exploitation of the poor and massive unemployment in a labor-surplus country like India, prioritizing human dignity and rural self-sufficiency over industrial output.
100History
Consider: Assertion (A): Nehru had no regard for the uphandis. Reason (R): His attitude was scientific. Now select your answer from the following code.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru held a deep appreciation for the Upanishads, which he extensively discussed in his book The Discovery of India. He admired them for their intellectual vigor and their persistent search for truth, describing the Upanishadic period as one of great mental activity and a subjective discovery of the self. He viewed these texts not as religious dogmas but as profound philosophical inquiries into the nature of reality. On the other hand, Nehru was a firm believer in the scientific temper, a term he coined to describe an attitude of mind involving the search for truth and new knowledge, the refusal to accept anything without proof and test, and the ability to change previous conclusions in the face of new evidence. His scientific outlook was aimed at modernizing Indian society and statecraft through reason and logic, but this did not mean he lacked regard for the philosophical roots of Indian civilization.
101History
Ashtadhayi was written by
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Answer: (B) Panini
Explanation
Panini, an ancient Sanskrit philologist and grammarian, authored the Ashtadhyayi around the 4th century BCE. The title translates to Eight Chapters, reflecting its structure of eight divisions containing approximately 4,000 sutras or aphorisms. This work is the foundational text of the Vyakarana branch of the Vedanga and is credited with standardizing Classical Sanskrit. Panini utilized a highly sophisticated and generative system of rules, including concepts of phonology, morphology, and syntax, which laid the groundwork for modern linguistic analysis.
102Art and Culture
Adi Shankaracharya established fourmathas. These maths are situated at
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Answer: (C) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
Explanation
Adi Shankaracharya, the 8th-century philosopher and proponent of Advaita Vedanta, established four primary monasteries known as Amnaya Mathas at the four cardinal corners of the Indian subcontinent to unify and reorganize Hindu religious practices. In the North, he founded the Jyotirmath (also known as Joshimath) in Uttarakhand, which is associated with the Atharva Veda. In the South, he established the Sringeri Sharada Peetham in Karnataka, linked to the Yajur Veda. In the East, the Govardhana Matha was established at Puri in Odisha, associated with the Rig Veda. In the West, the Kalika Matha (also called the Sharada Peetham) was founded at Dwarka in Gujarat, which is associated with the Sama Veda. These institutions remain central pillars of the Dashanami Sampradaya and are headed by successors who carry the title of Shankaracharya.
103History
Who was the founder of servants of India society?
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Answer: (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra. The organization was established to train national missionaries for the service of India and to promote the true interests of the people through constitutional and peaceful means. Gokhale, a prominent leader of the moderate faction of the Indian National Congress, envisioned a group of dedicated individuals who would lead lives of self-sacrifice and work toward the social and educational advancement of the country. The society focused on various welfare activities, including the spread of education, providing healthcare, and the upliftment of the underprivileged and rural populations. Members were required to take a vow of poverty and devote their lives to the service of the nation, emphasizing character building and national integration as the foundation for political progress.
104History
The third Sangam was held at
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Answer: (C) Madurat
Explanation
The third Sangam, or Kadai Sangam, was established in the city of Madurai under the patronage of the Pandya kings. Presided over by the poet Nakkirar, this assembly is credited with the compilation of the vast majority of extant Tamil Sangam literature, including the Ettuthogai (Eight Anthologies) and the Pattupattu (Ten Idyls). While the first and second Sangams are associated with legendary cities said to have been submerged by the sea, the third Sangam is historically verified to have functioned in the inland city of Madurai, which remained the cultural and political capital of the Pandyas for centuries.
105History
Who among the following was the founder of the Satya Shodhak Samaj ?
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Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule
Explanation
Jyotirao Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj, also known as the Truth Seekers Society, on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra. The primary objective of this social reform society was to liberate the underprivileged sections of society, specifically the Shudras and Dalits, from the exploitation and cultural dominance of the upper castes and the priestly classes. Phule used the organization to advocate for social rights, rational thinking, and access to education for women and the lower castes. Through the Satya Shodhak Samaj, he promoted a social order based on equality and human rights, challenging the traditional caste hierarchy and rejecting the necessity of intermediaries in religious practices. His efforts through this society were instrumental in laying the foundation for the non-Brahmin movement in Western India.
106History
Cotton for textile was first cultivated in
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Answer: (D) India
Explanation
The Indian subcontinent is historically recognized as the earliest region to cultivate cotton and transform it into textiles. Archaeological evidence from the Neolithic site of Mehrgarh indicates that cotton was used in the region as early as the 6th millennium BCE. By the mature phase of the Indus Valley Civilization, around 3000 BCE, cotton production was a sophisticated industry. Excavations at Mohenjo-daro have provided physical proof in the form of silver jars containing fragments of dyed, woven cotton cloth. The presence of numerous spindle whorls across Harappan sites further confirms that spinning and weaving were widespread activities. The native species, Gossypium arboreum, was the primary variety used, establishing a textile tradition that made the region a global hub for cotton manufacturing for thousands of years.
107History
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Muhammad Tughlaq's scheme of token currency was a failure
Reason (R): Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq introduced a token currency of copper and brass coins in 1329-30 AD, which were intended to have the same value as silver tankas. This scheme proved to be a failure because the Sultan lacked an effective mechanism to regulate the minting process. The coins were simple in design and lacked complex security features, allowing common citizens to easily forge them. This led to a situation where every household effectively became a mint, flooding the market with counterfeit currency. Since the state could not maintain a monopoly over the issuance of these coins or prevent widespread illegal production, the economic system collapsed, necessitating the withdrawal of the token currency.
108History
By which name Chanakya was known in his child hood?
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Answer: (C) Vishnugupta
Explanation
Vishnugupta was the personal birth name given to the ancient Indian philosopher and royal advisor who helped establish the Mauryan Empire. While he is widely known by his patronymic Chanakya and his pen name Kautilya, historical texts and literary traditions such as the Puranas and the play Mudrarakshasa identify Vishnugupta as his original individual name from childhood. This name is also explicitly mentioned in the concluding verses of the Arthashastra, the celebrated treatise on statecraft and political science attributed to him.
109Art and Culture
Rock cut architecture in Harapan culture context has been found at
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Answer: (B) Dhaulavira
Explanation
Dhaulavira, located on Khadir Bet island in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat, is distinguished from other Indus Valley sites by its extensive use of stone and rock-cut architecture. While most Harappan cities were predominantly built using sun-dried or burnt bricks, Dhaulavira features structures crafted from dressed stone. The most prominent example is the sophisticated water management system consisting of massive reservoirs carved directly into the rock. These reservoirs were designed to collect and store rainwater from seasonal streams, showcasing advanced hydraulic engineering. Additionally, the site has yielded polished stone pillars and architectural elements within the citadel that highlight a unique masonry tradition compared to the rest of the civilization.
110History
Where was the first Madrasa set up by the British in India?
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Answer: (D) Calcutta
Explanation
Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal, established the Calcutta Madrasa in October 1780. It was the first educational institution set up by the British East India Company in India. The primary objective of the institution was to provide instruction in Arabic, Persian, and Islamic Law to prepare Muslim students for administrative and judicial roles within the Company's government. This move was part of the British policy of governing the local population according to their own laws and traditions, necessitating a class of individuals well-versed in traditional legal frameworks.
111History
Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the Bharat Ratna by the Indian Government?
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Answer: (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Explanation
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, widely known as the Frontier Gandhi, was conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 1987. He was a Pashtun leader who founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement and played a crucial role in the Indian independence struggle through non-violent resistance. A close associate of Mahatma Gandhi, he strongly opposed the partition of India. His recognition with Indias highest civilian honor marked the first time the award was given to a person who was not a citizen of India at the time of the conferment, specifically honoring his lifelong dedication to Gandhian ideals and social service.
112Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I:
(A) Lachchu
(B) Fayyaz
(C) Sidheshwari
(D) Talat
List-II:
1. Dhrupad Maharaj
2. Ghazal Khan
3. Kathak Devi
4. Thumri Mehmood
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4
Explanation
Lachchu Maharaj was a renowned Indian classical dancer and choreographer who belonged to the Lucknow Gharana of Kathak. Ustad Fayyaz Khan was a legendary vocalist of the Agra Gharana, celebrated for his exceptional mastery over the Dhrupad and Khayal styles of Hindustani classical music. Sidheshwari Devi was an eminent vocalist from Varanasi, widely regarded as the Queen of Thumri for her soulful and expressive renditions. Talat Mahmood was a famous playback singer and a master of the Ghazal genre, known for his unique tremolo and velvety voice. Matching these artists to their respective genres or titles yields the sequence: Lachchu with Kathak, Fayyaz with Dhrupad, Sidheshwari with Thumri, and Talat with Ghazal.
113Economy
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. India's population is characterised by a high growth rate.
2. With the current growth it is likely to overtake China in the near future.
3. Out of every six persons of the Worked one is an Indian.
4. About 40% of the India's population is below the poverty line level.
## Code:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Explanation
India's population dynamics during the early 2000s were marked by a high decadal growth rate of 21.54 percent according to the 2001 Census. With a population of approximately 1.028 billion against a global total of roughly 6.1 billion, India accounted for about 16.7 percent of the world's inhabitants, equating to roughly one in every six persons globally. Projections based on the higher Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India compared to China's sub-replacement fertility levels led demographers at the time to conclude that India was on a trajectory to surpass China as the world's most populous country. Regarding poverty levels, official data from the Planning Commission based on the 61st NSSO round (2004-05) placed the population living below the poverty line at approximately 27.5 percent using the Uniform Recall Period. This confirms that while the first three statements were demographically accurate for the period, the poverty rate was significantly lower than 40 percent.
114GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In the Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh States, the joint Rajghat River Valley Project is launched on
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Answer: (D) Betwa river
Explanation
The Rajghat River Valley Project is an inter-state multipurpose project jointly developed by the governments of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh on the Betwa River. Located approximately 22 kilometers from Lalitpur in Uttar Pradesh, the project is governed by the Betwa River Board, which was established under the Betwa River Board Act of 1976. The project consists of the Rajghat Dam and a canal system designed to provide extensive irrigation and hydroelectric power to both participating states. It serves several districts including Lalitpur, Jhansi, Hamirpur, and Jalaun in Uttar Pradesh, along with Guna, Shivpuri, Datia, and Tikamgarh in Madhya Pradesh. The hydroelectric component of the project includes three units of 15 MW each, contributing a total of 45 MW to the regional power grid.
115Geography
Which state in the country has the largest number of districts?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India and requires a vast administrative framework to manage its governance. As of 2006, Uttar Pradesh contained 70 districts, which was the highest count for any state in the country at that time. This large number of districts reflects the state's policy of creating smaller administrative units to facilitate better reach of government services and improved law and order management across its extensive territory.
116Geography
Environment refers
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Answer: (D) all the above
Explanation
The term environment is derived from the French word environner, meaning to encircle or surround, and represents the totality of all external conditions and influences affecting the life and development of organisms. It comprehensively includes the natural world consisting of abiotic components like land, water, and air, alongside biotic components such as plants, animals, and microorganisms. According to the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, the environment is defined by the interrelationships that exist between these physical and biological elements. Furthermore, it encompasses the sum total of conditions surrounding an individual at any given time, including the complex interacting system of physical, biological, and cultural elements. Because the environment represents an integrated whole of all these diverse but interlinked components, each of the provided descriptions captures a fundamental aspect of its definition.
117Science and Technology
The cells which have the capacity to divide and differentiate into any type of cells in the body are the focus of research of several serious diseases are
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Answer: (D) Stem cells
Explanation
Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells that possess the unique ability to differentiate into specialized cell types and can divide through mitosis to produce more stem cells. This property of potency allows them to act as a repair system for the body, replenishing adult tissues. In the context of medical research, particularly around 2006, stem cells were categorized by their potential, such as totipotent cells which can form any cell type in the body and placenta, and pluripotent cells which can give rise to all of the various cell types that make up the body. Because they can be programmed to become specific cells like neurons, heart muscle, or insulin-producing pancreatic cells, they are the central focus of regenerative medicine aimed at treating previously incurable conditions such as spinal cord injuries, Parkinson disease, and type 1 diabetes.
118Economy
Environmental degradation means
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Answer: (D) all the above
Explanation
Environmental degradation refers to the deterioration of the physical and biological components of the earth system to a point where ecosystem services and biodiversity are compromised. It encompasses the overall lowering of environmental qualities, such as the pollution of air and water or the loss of soil fertility. This process is primarily driven by adverse changes brought in by human activities, including industrialization, deforestation, and unsustainable resource consumption. These factors collectively result in an ecological imbalance, disrupting the natural equilibrium and the functional harmony of ecological diversity within various habitats. Since the term accounts for the qualitative decline of the biosphere, the anthropogenic drivers of such change, and the resulting systemic instability, it includes all these dimensions.
119Geography
Which one of the following is known as Satellite Town ?
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Answer: (C) Ghaziabad
Explanation
A satellite town is a smaller urban center located near a major metropolitan city that is physically separated from the core city by rural territory or a green belt but remains functionally and economically integrated with it. Ghaziabad is a prominent example of a satellite town serving the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Situated in Uttar Pradesh, it was developed as part of the National Capital Region (NCR) to provide housing and industrial infrastructure, thereby easing the population and infrastructural pressure on Delhi. While it possesses its own municipal administration and local economy, its growth and connectivity are primarily driven by its proximity to the primary urban hub of the national capital.
120Geography
Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of beginning?
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Answer: (C) Brahmaputra and Indus
Explanation
The Indus and the Brahmaputra rivers both originate in the Tibetan plateau in the vicinity of Lake Mansarovar and Mount Kailash. The Indus rises near the Sengge Zangbo spring on the northern slopes of the Kailash range, while the Brahmaputra, known as the Tsangpo in Tibet, originates from the Chemayungdung glacier located to the southeast of the lake. Despite their proximity at birth, the two rivers flow in opposite directions: the Indus flows westward into Pakistan, and the Brahmaputra flows eastward across southern Tibet before entering India through Arunachal Pradesh. This common geographical region of origin in the High Himalayas of Tibet makes them the pair with nearly the same starting point.
121Geography
The local time of a place is 6.00 a.m. when the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is 3.00 a.m. What is the longitude of the place?
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Answer: (B) 45^ degreesE
Explanation
The longitudinal position of a place is determined by the time difference between its local time and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Since the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, it covers 15° of longitude every hour (360/24 = 15). The time difference in this case is 3 hours (6:00 a.m. - 3:00 a.m.). Using the formula ΔLongitude = ΔTime × 15°/hour, the calculation is 3 × 15 = 45°. Because the local time at the place is ahead of GMT, the location must be to the East of the Prime Meridian.
122Geography
In which State of India, the maximum area is Irrigated by Tube-wells?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under tube-well irrigation in India due to its favorable geological and hydrological conditions. The state is situated in the fertile Indo-Gangetic plain, characterized by deep, soft alluvial soil that allows for easy drilling and installation of tube-wells. Additionally, the region benefits from a high groundwater table and adequate annual recharge from the Himalayan river systems and monsoon rainfall. These factors make groundwater extraction the most accessible and reliable source of irrigation for the state's intensive agricultural activities. By the mid-2000s, Uttar Pradesh led the country in both the total number of energized tube-wells and the net area served by them, accounting for nearly one-third of India's total tube-well irrigated land.
123Geography
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Panagudi : Tamil Nadu
Explanation
Panagudi is a panchayat town situated in the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu, located near the southern tip of the Western Ghats. The town is primarily known for its proximity to the Mahendragiri hills, which houses the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). This facility is critical for the assembly, integration, and testing of liquid propulsion systems for India's space launch vehicles and satellites. Additionally, the geography of the Panagudi region makes it a significant hub for wind energy, featuring one of the largest concentrations of wind farms in the state of Tamil Nadu.
124Geography
Which one of the following Indian rivers forms an estuary?
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Answer: (C) Tapi
Explanation
The Tapi river is one of the primary west-flowing rivers of the Indian peninsula, originating in the Satpura range near Multai in Madhya Pradesh. It flows through a rift valley, which limits its ability to collect and deposit large volumes of sediment along its course. As the river approaches the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat, the steep gradient and the nature of the terrain prevent the formation of a delta. Instead, the river mouth forms an estuary, a coastal body of water where the river fresh water meets and mixes with the salt water of the sea. This geographical feature is characteristic of major west-flowing rivers like the Narmada and Tapi due to their specific geological path and flow through hard rock terrain.
125Geography
Which one of the following areas of India does not come under the zone of high seismic intensity?
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Answer: (B) Karnataka Plateau
Explanation
The Karnataka Plateau is located on the stable Peninsular Shield of India, which is composed of geologically ancient and structurally rigid rocks. According to the seismic zoning map of India published by the Bureau of Indian Standards, the interior of the peninsula is predominantly categorized as Zone II or Zone III, which corresponds to low and moderate seismic intensity respectively. This region is geographically distant from the active plate boundaries of the Himalayas and the rift zones of western India. The stable continental crust of the South Indian craton lacks the major active fault lines and tectonic instability required to produce high-intensity seismic activity, making it one of the most seismically stable areas in the country.
126Geography
Which of the following Indian island lies between India and Sri Lanka?
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Answer: (C) Rameshwaram
Explanation
Rameshwaram Island, also known as Pamban Island, is situated in the Gulf of Mannar between the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu in India and the northwestern coast of Sri Lanka. It is a part of the chain of limestone shoals known as Rama Setu or Adam's Bridge, which historically and geologically connects the Indian subcontinent to Sri Lanka. The island is separated from the Indian mainland by the Pamban Channel but is connected by the Pamban Bridge. Its strategic location makes it one of the primary landmasses positioned directly between the two countries.
127Geography
In which state the Monsoons arrive first?
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Answer: (D) Kerala
Explanation
The Southwest Monsoon winds strike the Indian mainland first at the Kerala coast, typically around June 1st. These moisture-laden winds originate from the Indian Ocean and travel northward, encountering the Western Ghats. Kerala's geographical position at the southwestern tip of the Indian peninsula makes it the entry point for the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon. This arrival is officially recognized by the India Meteorological Department as the onset of the monsoon season over the Indian subcontinent, bringing the first significant seasonal rainfall to the country.
128Polity and Governance
Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographic area as a scheduled area?
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Answer: (D) President
Explanation
Under the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, specifically Paragraph 6, the President of India is the authority empowered to declare a geographic area as a Scheduled Area. This constitutional mandate allows the President to issue an order specifying certain regions, typically those with a significant tribal population and under-developed socioeconomic conditions, as Scheduled Areas to ensure their protection and streamlined administration. The President also holds the power to increase or decrease the extent of such areas, alter their boundaries, or rescind the declaration entirely. While administrative reports and consultations involve the state Governor, the ultimate legal power to designate these areas resides solely with the President.
129Science and Technology
The World's highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in
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Answer: (B) India
Explanation
The Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) is located at Hanle in the Ladakh region at an altitude of approximately 4,500 meters (14,764 feet) above mean sea level. Situated on Mount Saraswati, it was established as the highest ground-based telescopic site in the world for optical and infrared astronomy during the mid-2000s. The observatory features the 2-meter Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT), which is remotely operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) via a dedicated satellite link from Bangalore. This location is ideal for astronomy due to the high number of clear nights, low atmospheric interference, and the extremely dry conditions of the high-altitude Himalayan desert.
130GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In U.P., the district with the highest literacy percentage is
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Answer: (A) Auraiya
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, which was the official statistical reference for the year 2006, the district of Auraiya recorded the highest literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh. The total literacy percentage for the district was 70.52 percent. This figure represented the highest level of educational attainment among all districts in the state at that time, consisting of a male literacy rate of 81.18 percent and a female literacy rate of 58.12 percent. These final census figures established Auraiya as the leading district in the state for literacy during the 2001-2011 census cycle.
131Polity and Governance
A memorandum of understanding for India's first river linking project has been signed between two states linking two rivers. The states and the rivers concerned are:
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Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh - Ken and Betwa
Explanation
The Memorandum of Understanding for the Ken-Betwa river link project was signed on August 25, 2005, between the state governments of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh and the Union Ministry of Water Resources. This landmark agreement established the framework for India's first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers. The project is designed to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in Madhya Pradesh to the Betwa river in Uttar Pradesh through the construction of a dam and a canal system. The primary objective of this inter-basin water transfer is to provide irrigation, drinking water, and hydropower to the drought-prone Bundelkhand region, which covers parts of both states. By connecting these two tributaries of the Yamuna, the project aimed to mitigate regional water imbalances and enhance agricultural productivity in central India.
132GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh.
1. Geographical area of UP is about 2,41,000 sq kms.
2. Sex ratio in UP as per 2001 census was 933 females per 1000 males.
3. UP has 17 Revenue Divisions.
4. Literacy percentage in UP as per 2001 census was 60.1%
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The geographical area of Uttar Pradesh is 240,928 square kilometers, which is approximately 2,41,000 square kilometers as stated in the first point. Regarding the administrative structure in 2006, the state was composed of 17 revenue divisions. These divisions serve as the primary administrative units between the state government and the districts. The transition to 18 divisions occurred only in 2008 when the Aligarh division was created, making the figure of 17 divisions accurate for the period up to 2006.
133GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh
1. Literacy percentage as per 2001 census is 56.3.
2. The density of population is 690 per square km.
3. The most populous district is Kanpur Nagar.
4. The largest population of scheduled casts is in district Sitapur.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, the literacy rate of Uttar Pradesh was recorded at 56.27 percent, which is rounded to 56.3 percent. The population density of the state was measured as 690 persons per square kilometer, representing the average number of inhabitants per unit area across the state. In terms of social demographics, Sitapur district was identified as having the largest population of Scheduled Castes in Uttar Pradesh based on the 2001 data. These statistical figures align with the official demographic profile released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for that decade.
134Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements:
1. According to a survey conducted by Uttar Pradesh Planning Department recently Lucknow has been found to be the most development.
2. As per recent study conducted in 20 states by the Centre for Media Studies , corruption in 2005 in India is less than what it was in 2002.
3. As per targets set for Bharat Nirman Yojna, houses to be constructed for the rural poor would not even meet 50% of the short age of rural houses.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Uttar Pradesh Planning Department, through its State Planning Institute, evaluates the development status of districts using a composite development index based on several indicators across agriculture, industry, and social sectors. In the rankings released during the mid-2000s, Lucknow was identified as the most developed district in the state. Statement 3 is accurate regarding the Bharat Nirman program launched in 2005. One of the six components of this rural infrastructure plan was rural housing, which set a target to construct 60 lakh houses for the rural poor between 2005 and 2009. At that time, the estimated rural housing shortage in India was approximately 148.3 lakh units. Since 60 lakh represents only about 40.5 percent of the total requirement, the target was indeed insufficient to meet even 50 percent of the rural housing shortage.
135EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Special Economic Zones are being set up in U.P. at
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Answer: (B) Agra, Kanpur and Greater Noida
Explanation
The establishment of Special Economic Zones in Uttar Pradesh gained momentum following the enactment of the SEZ Act of 2005. By 2006, the state government had prioritized the development of SEZs in Agra, Kanpur, and Greater Noida to foster industrial growth and increase export volumes. These locations were strategically selected based on their existing industrial expertise: the Agra SEZ was designed to enhance the leather and handicraft sectors, while the Kanpur SEZ focused on leveraging the city's established leather and textile industries. Greater Noida was developed as a major hub for IT, ITES, and multi-product industries due to its modern infrastructure and proximity to the National Capital Region. These zones were conceptualized to provide world-class infrastructure and fiscal incentives, such as tax exemptions and duty-free imports, to attract large-scale investments into the state.
136History
The ancient site where the full text of the Mahabharata was delivered orally to a congregation of 60,000 sages is
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Answer: (D) Naimisharanya
Explanation
Naimisharanya, situated in the Sitapur district of Uttar Pradesh on the banks of the Gomti River, is revered as the site where the Mahabharata and several Puranas were narrated. According to the epic, the bard Ugrasrava Sauti recited the complete narrative to a large gathering of 60,000 sages, led by Saunaka Kulapati, during a twelve-year sacrifice. This event represents the final stage of the oral transmission of the Mahabharata before its compilation. The location has been a prominent center of Vedic learning and pilgrimage for millennia, mentioned frequently in ancient literature as the place where holy texts were preserved and shared among scholars and rishis.
137HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
The quaintest relic of Chunar Fort is the Shrine of
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Answer: (B) Bhartruhari
Explanation
The Chunar Fort, situated in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh, is home to the shrine of the legendary saint and philosopher-king Bhartruhari. According to local folklore and historical tradition, Bhartruhari was the elder brother of King Vikramaditya of Ujjain who renounced his throne to lead an ascetic life. He is said to have chosen the secluded environment of the Chunar Fort for his meditation and spiritual practices. The shrine, which is believed to be the site of his samadhi, is considered the most unique and significant relic within the fort complex. This site attracts many visitors and devotees who revere Bhartruhari for his contributions to Sanskrit literature and his transition from a powerful monarch to a celebrated yogi.
138Economy
Which one of the following sequences is correct in the context of three largest wheat producing states?
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh has traditionally been the leading wheat-producing state in India, accounting for nearly one-third of the total national production due to its extensive fertile alluvial soil and high percentage of net sown area. Punjab follows as the second-largest producer, characterized by high productivity levels and advanced irrigation systems. Haryana occupies the third position in the production hierarchy, benefiting from Green Revolution infrastructure and similar agro-climatic conditions as Punjab. As per the agricultural statistics of the mid-2000s, this sequence of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana represented the top three states contributing to the wheat output of India.
139Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements about U.P.:
1. Government is striving hard to achieve goal of mass education.
2. It has decided to extend the scheme of Shiksha Mitras to urban areas.
3. The Shiksha Mitras in urban areas will receive a monthly honorarium of Rs. 2400
4. They will be recruited from persons receiving unemployment allowance.
Of these statements:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Explanation
The Government of Uttar Pradesh intensified its efforts toward achieving mass education and universal primary enrollment through the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. As part of this mission, the state government expanded the Shiksha Mitra scheme beyond rural boundaries to include urban areas to address the shortage of teaching staff in city-based primary schools. By 2005-2006, the fixed monthly honorarium for these para-teachers was established at Rs. 2400 to provide financial support to local residents engaged in providing basic education within their communities.
140Economy
Invisible export means export of
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Answer: (A) Services
Explanation
Invisible exports refer to the portion of international trade that involves the exchange of intangible items rather than physical merchandise. These primarily consist of services such as shipping, insurance, banking, tourism, and professional expertise. In the Balance of Payments accounting, these transactions are recorded under the Current Account. They are termed invisible because, unlike physical goods, they do not have a tangible presence that can be weighed or physically measured at customs borders. For a country like India, invisible exports, particularly in the form of software services and remittances, constitute a significant source of foreign exchange earnings.
141Geography
The gas which emits for rice field is
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Answer: (B) Methane
Explanation
Rice fields are a major anthropogenic source of methane (CH₄) emissions due to the anaerobic conditions created by flooding. When paddy fields are submerged in water, the oxygen supply from the atmosphere is cut off, leading to the depletion of oxygen in the soil. In this oxygen-free environment, methanogenic bacteria decompose organic matter and produce methane as a metabolic byproduct. This gas is then released into the atmosphere primarily through the internal vascular system (aerenchyma) of the rice plants, which acts as a chimney, and to a lesser extent through bubbling from the soil and diffusion through the water column.
142Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I:
(A) Birha
(B) Kajri
(C) Malhor
(D) Rasia
List-II:
1. Bhojpuri
2. Avadhi
3. Braji
4. Kauravi
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Birha is a traditional folk song genre of the Purvanchal region in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. While it is most prominently associated with the Bhojpuri dialect, it is also a staple of the Avadhi-speaking areas, performed primarily by the Ahir community.
Kajri is a seasonal folk song performed during the monsoon season. It originated in the Mirzapur region, which is situated in the Bhojpuri-speaking belt of eastern Uttar Pradesh, though it is popular across the Avadh and Varanasi regions as well.
Malhor is a distinct folk song tradition of the Kauravi region, which corresponds to the Khari Boli speaking areas of Western Uttar Pradesh, including Meerut and Saharanpur.
Rasia is the most iconic folk song of the Braj region (Mathura, Vrindavan, and Agra). It is sung in the Braji dialect and is traditionally centered on the themes of the divine love between Radha and Krishna, particularly during the festival of Holi. Matching Rasia with Braji and Malhor with Kauravi provides the only geographically and culturally accurate alignment for the Western and Central UP folk traditions.
143Polity and Governance
Foreign Corporation are governed by-
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Answer: (C) Indian Companies Act, 1956
Explanation
Under the Indian Companies Act, 1956, foreign companies are governed by the specific provisions contained in Part XI, comprising Sections 591 to 608. The Act defines a foreign corporation as a company incorporated outside India that establishes a place of business within Indian territory. These entities are required to comply with several statutory obligations, such as delivering a certified copy of their charter, statutes, or memorandum and articles of association to the Registrar of Companies. Additionally, they must file annual financial statements, including balance sheets and profit and loss accounts, and maintain a registered office or an authorized representative in India for the service of legal process and notices. This legal framework ensures that the operations of foreign entities within India are monitored and regulated similarly to domestic companies.
144Science and Technology
As per recent nuclear agreement signed by George W. Bush, President of USA and Dr. Man Mohan Singh, Prime Minister of India, the number of nuclear reactors which India has agreed to open up for inspection by International Atomic Energy Agency is:
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Answer: (C) 14
Explanation
Under the Separation Plan finalized during the visit of President George W. Bush to India in March 2006, India agreed to separate its nuclear facilities into civilian and military categories. According to the terms of the Indo-US civil nuclear deal, India committed to classifying 14 out of its 22 existing or under-construction nuclear reactors as civilian facilities. These 14 reactors were to be placed under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards in a phased manner between 2006 and 2014. This allowed India to access international nuclear fuel and technology for its energy needs while retaining 8 reactors for its strategic and military program outside of international inspection.
145Geography
Threat of global warming is increasing due to increasing concentration of
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Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide
Explanation
Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect and the resulting increase in global temperatures. It functions by trapping infrared radiation emitted from the Earth's surface, preventing it from escaping into space and thereby warming the atmosphere. The concentration of CO₂ has risen significantly since the Industrial Revolution, primarily due to human activities such as the burning of fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas for energy and transportation. Furthermore, widespread deforestation has diminished the natural carbon sinks provided by forests, which normally absorb CO₂ through photosynthesis. Because of its high emission volume and long atmospheric residence time, carbon dioxide is the dominant driver of modern global warming.
146Art and Culture
Which of the following sects believed in the doctrine of 'Anekantavada'?
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Answer: (A) Jainas
Explanation
Anekantavada is a fundamental philosophical doctrine of Jainism which asserts that ultimate truth and reality are complex and have multiple aspects. It posits that no single point of view can capture the entire truth of an object or a situation because reality is perceived differently from various perspectives. According to this principle of non-absolutism, every statement represents only a partial truth, and any claim to absolute knowledge from a single standpoint is considered incomplete. This concept is often illustrated through the parable of the blind men and an elephant, where each person describes the animal differently based on the part they touch. Anekantavada is closely associated with Syadvada, the theory of conditioned predication, which uses the expression syat to indicate that any philosophical proposition is true only from a certain point of view.