A resolution passed under clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for a period not exceeding
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Answer: (D) one year
Explanation
Article 249 of the Constitution of India empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution, supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List. According to Clause (2) of Article 249, such a resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding one year. While the Rajya Sabha has the power to extend this authorization by passing subsequent resolutions for further periods of one year at a time, each individual resolution is restricted to a maximum duration of twelve months. Laws enacted by Parliament by virtue of this resolution cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
2Polity and Governance
The Sarkaria Commission was set-up for the review of relation between
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Answer: (C) the Centre and the States
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission was established by the Government of India in June 1983 under the chairmanship of Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court. Its primary mandate was to examine and review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States in all spheres and to recommend appropriate changes and measures within the framework of the Constitution. The commission focused on the distribution of powers, the role of Governors, the invocation of Article 356 (President's Rule), and the equitable sharing of financial resources. It submitted its comprehensive report in 1988 with 247 recommendations aimed at strengthening federalism and improving coordination between the central and state governments, including the suggestion to establish a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263.
3Polity and Governance
Internal Security Academy is located at
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Answer: (A) Mount Abu
Explanation
The Internal Security Academy (ISA) is located at Mount Abu in the state of Rajasthan. It was established on February 1, 1975, as the premier training institute for the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), which is India's largest Central Armed Police Force. The academy is housed in the campus that previously belonged to the Central Police Training College before that institution was shifted to Hyderabad and renamed the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. The primary mandate of the ISA is to provide specialized training to CRPF officers and personnel from other state and central police organizations on various facets of internal security, counter-insurgency operations, and law and order management.
4Polity and Governance
The State Finance Commission is a
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Answer: (C) Constitutional body
Explanation
The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body because it is established under the mandatory provisions of the Constitution of India. Article 243-I mandates the Governor of a state to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and provide recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the state and local bodies. Similarly, Article 243-Y extends these provisions to Municipalities. These articles were inserted into the Constitution via the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 to ensure the financial viability of local self-government institutions. Since the existence and functions of the commission are derived directly from constitutional articles, it is classified as a constitutional body.
5Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State list subject for giving effect to international agreements?
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Answer: (D) Article 253
Explanation
Article 253 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries. This includes the power to legislate on matters that are otherwise mentioned in the State List. This provision ensures that the Union government can fulfill its international obligations and give effect to decisions made at international conferences, associations, or other bodies without being restricted by the constitutional distribution of powers between the Union and the States. It serves as a vital tool for the Union to maintain a unified policy in foreign affairs and international law.
6Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, there is provision for the Election Commission?
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Answer: (C) Article 324
Explanation
Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides the legal mandate for the establishment of the Election Commission. This article vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the entire electoral process in an independent body to ensure free and fair elections. It specifically covers the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Parliament, the State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. By placing the Commission under a specific constitutional provision, the framers aimed to protect the electoral machinery from executive or political interference, thereby upholding the democratic structure of the country.
7Polity and Governance
The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of 'Basic Structure of the Constitution' in
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Answer: (D) the Keshavanand Bharati Case in 1973
Explanation
In the landmark case of Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India established the Doctrine of Basic Structure. The Court ruled that while Article 368 grants Parliament the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, this power is not absolute. The judgment held that the constituent power of Parliament cannot be exercised to alter, damage, or destroy the essential features or the core identity of the Constitution. This doctrine serves as a judicial tool to ensure that the foundational principles of the Indian polity, such as democracy, secularism, federalism, and judicial review, remain beyond the reach of the amending power of the legislature.
8Polity and Governance
Who among the following is authorised to make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchyats?
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Answer: (B) Legislature of State
Explanation
Article 243C (2) of the Indian Constitution specifically mandates that the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchayats. Following the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, while the broad framework for the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj is provided in Part IX, the specific authority to determine the size, structure, and representation within these local bodies is vested in the State Legislature. This ensures that the Panchayati Raj institutions can be tailored to the specific administrative and demographic needs of each individual state.
9Polity and Governance
Which part of the Constitution, has the provisions for Panchayati Raj System?
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Answer: (A) IX
Explanation
Part IX of the Constitution of India contains the provisions for the Panchayati Raj System. This part was incorporated into the Constitution through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which came into effect on April 24, 1993. Titled "The Panchayats," it covers Articles 243 to 243O and provides a constitutional framework for rural local self-government. The amendment mandated the establishment of a three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, intermediate, and district levels in states with a population exceeding twenty lakhs. Furthermore, this part is supplemented by the Eleventh Schedule, which lists twenty-nine functional items intended to be devolved to the Panchayats to facilitate local planning and implementation of development programs.
10Polity and Governance
The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to
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Answer: (B) decentralise the power of democracy.
Explanation
The Panchayati Raj System was primarily established to implement democratic decentralisation in India. The concept, recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1957, focuses on devolving powers and responsibilities from the central and state governments to local self-government institutions at the village, block, and district levels. This shift ensures that the decision-making process is closer to the people, facilitating direct participation in local governance and developmental activities. By empowering the rural population to manage their own affairs through elected representatives, the system aims to strengthen the foundations of democracy and ensure more efficient delivery of services and implementation of rural development schemes. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 further formalised this structure to ensure the stability and continuity of these local bodies.
11Polity and Governance
Who among the following is considered as the Architect of Panchayati Raj in India?
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Answer: (C) B.R. Mehta
Explanation
Balwant Rai Mehta was the chairman of the committee appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of democratic decentralization, which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj. The pivotal recommendation was a three-tier system consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level. Because of his foundational contribution to the conceptualization and institutionalization of this decentralized governance model in India, Balwant Rai Mehta is widely recognized as the Architect of Panchayati Raj.
12Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar had described Article 32 of the Constitution as the very soul of it.
Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedy against the violation of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the very soul of the Constitution and its very heart during the Constituent Assembly debates because he believed that a declaration of fundamental rights is meaningless unless there is an effective machinery for their enforcement. Article 32 provides this essential mechanism by granting citizens the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows them to move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Since Article 32 ensures that these rights are not just theoretical but legally enforceable through the issuance of writs like Habeas Corpus and Mandamus, it serves as the ultimate protector of individual liberties. The effectiveness of the remedy provided by Article 32 is the precise reason why it was elevated to such a high status by the architect of the Constitution.
13Polity and Governance
Reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the State of
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000, inserted clause (3A) into Article 243M of the Indian Constitution. This specific provision states that the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats, as mandated under Article 243D, does not apply to the State of Arunachal Pradesh. The amendment was necessitated by the fact that Arunachal Pradesh is a predominantly tribal state with no indigenous population identified or listed as Scheduled Castes in the official census records. Providing for the reservation of seats for a community that does not exist in the state would have created a constitutional and administrative deadlock in the conduct of local body elections.
14Polity and Governance
According to Article 243. (ZJ) of Indian Constitution the maximum number of directors of a cooperative society may be
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Answer: (A) 21
Explanation
Article 243-ZJ of the Indian Constitution was introduced by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011, which incorporated Part IXB specifically dedicated to Co-operative Societies. This article mandates that the board of a cooperative society shall consist of such number of directors as may be provided by the state legislature by law. However, the proviso to Article 243-ZJ(1) establishes a strict upper limit, stating that the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-one. Furthermore, this article requires that the state legislature provide for the reservation of one seat for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes and two seats for women on the board of every such society.
15Polity and Governance
A Bill for the purpose of creating a new State in India must be passed by:
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Answer: (B) a simple majority in Parliament
Explanation
Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to form a new State by separation of territory from any State, by uniting two or more States, or by uniting any territory to a part of any State. Article 4 of the Constitution explicitly clarifies that laws made for the admission or establishment of new States under Article 2 and the formation of new States or alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States under Article 3 are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such a Bill does not require a special majority or ratification by the States. It can be passed by the Parliament through the ordinary legislative process, requiring only a simple majority, which is a majority of the members of each House present and voting.
16Polity and Governance
In India, who is competent to amend Fundamental Rights of the citizens?
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Answer: (C) Parliament
Explanation
Under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is vested with the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III. This constitutional authority allows the Parliament to add, vary, or repeal provisions through a specific legislative procedure. The scope of this power was further clarified by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which ruled that while the Parliament has the competence to amend Fundamental Rights, it cannot use this power to damage or destroy the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Any amendment to these rights requires a special majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, meaning it must be passed by a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
17Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy?
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Answer: (D) Article 51
Explanation
Article 51 is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. It specifically directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration. These principles form the constitutional foundation of India's foreign policy, guiding the government's conduct in global affairs and its commitment to a rules-based international order.
18Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Articles):
(A) Comptroller
(B) Finance
(C) Administrative
3. Article 148 Tribunal
(D) Union Public Service Commission
List-II (Institution):
1. Article 315 and Auditor General of India
2. Article 280 Commission
4. Article 323
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Answer: (A) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
Article 148 provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, an independent authority who acts as the guardian of the public purse and audits the accounts of the Union and the States.
Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the State governments.
Article 323A, which falls under the broader scope of Article 323 regarding tribunals, enables the establishment of Administrative Tribunals for adjudicating recruitment and service disputes of public servants.
Article 315 provides for the establishment of a Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the States respectively.
19Polity and Governance
Who among the following actresses is the brand ambassador of 'Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan'?
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Answer: (B) Vidya Balan
Explanation
Vidya Balan was appointed as the brand ambassador for the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation in 2012. The campaign was a restructured version of the Total Sanitation Campaign aimed at achieving a clean, open-defecation-free India. As the face of the mission, she was central to a large-scale awareness drive that utilized television, radio, and print media to promote rural sanitation and the construction of household toilets. Her participation focused on linking the use of toilets with women's dignity, safety, and overall community health.
20Science and Technology
T. Kajita and A. McDonald, winner of year 2015 Nobel Prize for Physics belong to which of the following countries, respectively?
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Answer: (C) Japan and Canada
Explanation
Takaaki Kajita and Arthur B. McDonald were jointly awarded the 2015 Nobel Prize in Physics for their discovery of neutrino oscillations, which proved that neutrinos possess mass. Takaaki Kajita is a Japanese physicist associated with the University of Tokyo and the Super-Kamiokande experiment in Japan, where he discovered that atmospheric neutrinos switch between two identities. Arthur B. McDonald is a Canadian physicist from Queen's University who led the research at the Sudbury Neutrino Observatory in Canada, where his team demonstrated that neutrinos from the Sun undergo a similar transformation. Their work revolutionized our understanding of the innermost workings of matter and challenged the Standard Model of particle physics, which had previously assumed neutrinos were massless.
21Polity and Governance
After confidential meeting between National Security Advisers of India and Pakistan in Bangkok, Foreign minister Sushma Swaraj went to Pakistan to attend 'Heart of Asia Conference' held in 2015 at
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Answer: (D) Islamabad
Explanation
The 5th Ministerial Conference of the Heart of Asia - Istanbul Process was held on December 8-9, 2015, in Islamabad, Pakistan. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj represented India at this conference, which was co-hosted by Pakistan and Afghanistan with the theme of enhanced cooperation for countering security threats and promoting connectivity. Her visit followed a secret meeting between the National Security Advisers of India and Pakistan in Bangkok, and it served as a significant diplomatic step that led to the announcement of the commencement of a Comprehensive Bilateral Dialogue between the two countries.
22Geography
The refugees and migrants in Europe reached which milestone mark recently as disclosed by the UNHCR?
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Answer: (A) 1.0 Million
Explanation
In December 2015, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) and the International Organization for Migration (IOM) jointly announced that the number of refugees and migrants entering Europe by sea and land had surpassed the one million mark within the calendar year. This significant milestone was reached due to a massive surge in arrivals across the Mediterranean, primarily driven by the conflict in Syria and instability in nations such as Afghanistan and Iraq. More than 800,000 of these individuals arrived via the Aegean Sea from Turkey to Greece, while the remainder largely entered through Italy. This influx represented the largest movement of displaced people into the continent since the aftermath of World War II.
23Geography
Which country of the world is building an alternate capital to save its citizens from natural disaster?
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Answer: (B) Philippines
Explanation
The Philippines initiated the development of New Clark City, originally known as Clark Green City, as a disaster-resilient alternative to Metro Manila. Manila is highly vulnerable to natural calamities, including severe flooding and the constant threat of a massive earthquake from the West Valley Fault. Located in Tarlac, approximately 100 kilometers north of the current capital, New Clark City was designed at a higher elevation and with specialized infrastructure to serve as a back-up administrative hub. This strategic move ensures the continuity of government operations and provides a safe refuge for citizens and essential services during catastrophic events that might paralyze the primary capital.
24Polity and Governance
Who among the following holds his/her office during pleasure of the President?
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Answer: (D) Attorney General of India
Explanation
Under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General for India is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President. This constitutional provision means that the Attorney General does not have a fixed tenure and can be removed from office by the President at any time without a formal removal process or specific grounds being stated. Furthermore, according to Article 76(4), the Attorney General receives such remuneration as the President may determine, highlighting the executive's discretion over the position as the highest law officer in the country.
25Science and Technology
The costliest metal of the world discovered recently, is
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Answer: (A) Endohedral Fullerene
Explanation
In late 2015 and early 2016, Endohedral Fullerene (specifically Nitrogen Atom Endohedral Fullerene, N@C₆₀) gained global prominence as the most expensive material in the world. Developed by an Oxford University start-up, Designer Carbon Materials, it was valued at approximately $167 million per gram. The material consists of a spherical cage of 60 carbon atoms with a single nitrogen atom trapped inside.
Its extreme cost is justified by its potential to revolutionize timekeeping. By acting as a miniaturized atomic clock, it could be integrated into computer chips to provide GPS accuracy down to a few millimeters, which is critical for the development of autonomous vehicles and high-precision navigation. While fullerene is an allotrope of carbon and not a traditional metal, its recent commercial valuation and scientific categorization in 2016 current affairs align with the "costliest recently discovered" criteria.
26Polity and Governance
'Seva Divas' has been proposed by Central Government to celebrate the birthday of
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Answer: (B) Deen Dayal Upadhyay
Explanation
Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay was a seminal thinker and leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh whose philosophy of Integral Humanism and Antyodaya serves as a guiding principle for the government. To commemorate his birth centenary in 2016, the Central Government proposed observing his birthday, September 25, as Seva Divas or Antyodaya Diwas. This initiative was intended to promote the spirit of social service and prioritize the welfare of the underprivileged sections of society, aligning with his vision of serving the poorest of the poor. The government also dedicated the entire year as Garib Kalyan Varsh to institutionalize his commitment to pro-poor governance and public service.
27Economy
Which community has the lowest sex ratio in India as disclosed in the additional data pertaining to Census 2011 released recently?
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Answer: (B) Sikh
Explanation
According to the Census 2011 data on religious communities released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, the Sikh community has the lowest sex ratio among all major religious groups in India. The data shows that the sex ratio for Sikhs stands at 903 females per 1,000 males, which is significantly lower than the national average of 943. This trend is particularly pronounced in the states of Punjab and Haryana, where the majority of the Sikh population resides and where historical socio-cultural preferences have influenced demographic outcomes. Other major religious groups recorded higher ratios, with Christians having the highest at 1,023, followed by Buddhists at 965, Jains at 954, Muslims at 951, and Hindus at 939.
28Polity and Governance
The first woman recently elected to Local Council of Mecca in Saudi is
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Answer: (C) Salma Bint
Explanation
Salma bint Hizab al-Oteibi made history in December 2015 by becoming the first woman elected to a municipal council in Saudi Arabia. Her victory occurred in the Madrakah district of the Mecca province during the first-ever elections in the kingdom where women were granted the right to vote and stand as candidates. This landmark election saw approximately 20 women win seats across various local councils in the country, but al-Oteibi was the first whose successful results were officially announced. These elections represented a significant step in the social and political reforms aimed at increasing female participation in Saudi public life.
29Science and Technology
Recently in news, Wendelstein 7-X is related to
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Answer: (D) Nuclear Energy
Explanation
Wendelstein 7-X is an experimental stellarator, which is a type of nuclear fusion device designed to test the feasibility of producing power through fusion reactions. Located in Greifswald, Germany, and operated by the Max Planck Institute for Plasma Physics, it became operational in late 2015. In February 2016, it achieved a major milestone by producing its first hydrogen plasma. The device uses complex, three-dimensional magnetic coils to confine high-temperature plasma, mimicking the processes that occur within the sun. By demonstrating that plasma can be stabilized for long durations in a stellarator configuration, the project contributes to the global effort of developing nuclear fusion as a sustainable and clean source of nuclear energy.
30Polity and Governance
How many countries of the world have adopted compulsory voting system?
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Answer: (D) 22
Explanation
Compulsory voting is a legal requirement that obligates citizens to register and participate in elections. As per the data tracked by the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA) and other global electoral monitoring bodies leading up to 2016, 22 countries across the globe have adopted this system in their national legal frameworks. This group includes a variety of nations such as Australia, Belgium, Brazil, and Argentina, where the policy is utilized to achieve high voter participation and ensure a more representative democratic outcome. While the level of enforcement and the severity of penalties for non-compliance vary significantly between these nations, the formal legal mandate exists in 22 sovereign states.
31Polity and Governance
Which country recently rejected one child norm policy and allowed parents to have another child?
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Answer: (C) China
Explanation
China officially ended its decades-long one-child policy effective January 1, 2016, following an announcement by the Communist Party in October 2015. This major policy shift allowed all married couples to have up to two children, replacing the restrictive population control measure that had been in place since 1979. The decision was driven by urgent demographic concerns, specifically the need to counteract a rapidly aging population and a shrinking labor force. By transitioning to a two-child norm, the Chinese government aimed to rebalance the country's population structure and ensure long-term economic stability.
32History
Who among the following has been chosen 'Person of the Year 2015' by Times Magazine?
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Answer: (D) Angela Merkel
Explanation
Angela Merkel, the Chancellor of Germany, was named Time Magazine's Person of the Year in 2015. She was recognized for her pivotal role in managing the European debt crisis and her leadership during the migrant crisis, where she opened Germany's borders to hundreds of thousands of refugees. Time cited her as the de facto leader of the European Union, highlighting her ability to preserve a united Europe and provide moral leadership in the face of significant geopolitical and economic challenges. Her selection marked the first time an individual woman was named Person of the Year since the magazine changed the title from Man of the Year in 1999.
33Art and Culture
In the International Tennis Premier League (ITPL) 2015, matches held in India, Rafael Nadal played from the team
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Answer: (C) India Aces
Explanation
Rafael Nadal represented the India Aces (specifically the Micromax Indian Aces) during the 2015 season of the International Premier Tennis League. This marked his debut in the tournament, where he joined a roster that included prominent players such as Sania Mirza, Rohan Bopanna, and Agnieszka Radwanska. Nadal played a pivotal role for the franchise during the Indian leg of the competition held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi in December 2015. His presence was a significant draw for the home crowd as he competed in both men's singles and doubles categories, ultimately helping the team reach the season finale.
34Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
In which of the following districts of U.P., 112 year old woman (Nauroji Devi) has been elected Pradhan of a Village?
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Answer: (C) Azamgarh
Explanation
Nauroji Devi, who was approximately 112 years old at the time, was elected as the Pradhan of Asaur village in the Azamgarh district during the Uttar Pradesh panchayat elections held in late 2015. She secured her victory by defeating her nearest rival by a margin of 11 votes. Her election gained significant media attention across the country, as she was recognized as one of the oldest elected representatives in the history of India's three-tier panchayat system. The results were part of the state-wide local body elections where her participation and subsequent win became a symbol of active democratic engagement regardless of age.
35Art and Culture
Raghuvir Chaudhary, who was recently awarded Sahitya Academy Puraskar, enriched the literature in
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Answer: (B) Gujarati
Explanation
Raghuvir Chaudhary is a distinguished novelist, poet, and critic who has made profound contributions to Gujarati literature. He rose to prominence with his trilogy Uparvas, Sahwas, and Antarvas, for which he received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1977. In late 2015, he was conferred with the 51st Jnanpith Award, Indias highest literary honor, for his lifelong dedication to enriching Gujarati letters. His vast body of work includes more than eighty books across various genres, including plays, essays, and short stories, often focusing on the nuances of rural life and the human condition within the Gujarati cultural context.
36Economy
Supposing all Indian States as different countries of the world in terms of Human Development Index ranking; match these states to concerned country’s ranking and select correct option from codes given below:
List-I:
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar
(D) Maharashtra
List-II (States):
1. South Africa
2. Pakistan
3. Honduras Prades
4. Maldives
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Answer: (B) 4, 3, 2
Explanation
Kerala – Maldives: Both regions recorded high HDI values near 0.712, placing them in the high human development category during this period.
Gujarat – Honduras: Both displayed medium human development indicators with HDI scores approximately 0.616.
Uttar Pradesh – Pakistan: These entities shared similar development profiles with lower HDI values around 0.541.
Maharashtra – South Africa: Both regions maintained comparable HDI scores of about 0.666, reflecting similar levels of socioeconomic progress.
37History
The book Kargil: Turning the Tide is written by
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Answer: (A) Mohinder Puri
Explanation
Lieutenant General Mohinder Puri authored the book Kargil: Turning the Tide, which provides an authoritative first-hand account of the operations during the 1999 Kargil War. As the General Officer Commanding of the 8 Mountain Division during the conflict, Puri led the military efforts to recapture key peaks in the Drass and Mushkoh sectors. The book chronicles the professional challenges and the sheer bravery of the Indian troops during the capture of strategic heights such as Tololing and Tiger Hill, which served as the turning point of the war.
38Art and Culture
In the 64th Miss Universe Competition, the winner Pia Alonzo Wurtzback belongs to
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Answer: (A) Philippines
Explanation
Pia Alonzo Wurtzbach won the 64th Miss Universe title representing the Philippines. The competition was held on December 20, 2015, at the AXIS theater in Las Vegas, Nevada. Wurtzbach's victory made her the third woman from the Philippines to win the crown, following the successes of Gloria Diaz in 1969 and Margie Moran in 1973. She was a professional model and actress who had competed in the national Binibining Pilipinas pageant three times before winning the title that allowed her to represent her country at the international level.
39Economy
A well planned racket has been unearthed in Indian Railways recently. The scam is related to
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Answer: (B) railway brand water 'Rail Neer'
Explanation
The Rail Neer scam was exposed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in October 2015, uncovering massive financial irregularities in the supply of bottled water on premium trains like the Rajdhani and Shatabdi Express. Private caterers were contractually mandated to serve only the IRCTC-produced Rail Neer brand to passengers. However, they instead substituted it with cheaper, unauthorized local brands while continuing to claim reimbursements from the Indian Railways at the higher official rates fixed for Rail Neer. Investigations and subsequent raids led to the recovery of approximately 27 crore rupees in cash from private contractors and highlighted a nexus between catering firms and senior railway officials. This racket resulted in significant revenue loss for the IRCTC and compromised the quality of service provided to passengers.
40Science and Technology
Barak-8 Missile (next generation) has been developed by India in collaboration with which of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Israel
Explanation
The Barak-8 missile is a long-range surface-to-air missile system jointly developed by India and Israel. The project was a collaborative effort between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation and Israel Aerospace Industries. Designed to provide a robust defense against a wide array of airborne threats, including supersonic fighters, cruise missiles, and unmanned aerial vehicles, the system features advanced radar, command and control systems, and two-way data link capabilities. This partnership represents a significant strategic defense cooperation between the two nations, with Indian firms like Bharat Dynamics Limited and Israeli companies such as Rafael Advanced Defense Systems also playing critical roles in its production and development.
41Geography
In which State the Nelong Valley is located?
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Answer: (D) Uttarakhand
Explanation
Nelong Valley is situated within the Gangotri National Park in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Located at an altitude of approximately 11,000 feet near the Indo-China border, it is often referred to as the Ladakh of Uttarakhand due to its distinct cold desert landscape and geographical features that mirror the Tibetan plateau. The valley was an important trade route between India and Tibet until the 1962 Sino-Indian War, after which it was closed to civilians. It gained significant attention in 2015 when the state government reopened it for domestic tourists to promote border tourism.
42Polity and Governance
In which of the following countries women have been given voting rights for the first time and they won 13 seats in the election (2015) creating a history?
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Answer: (C) Saudi Arabia
Explanation
Saudi Arabia held municipal elections in December 2015, which marked a historic turning point as it was the first time in the kingdom's history that women were allowed to both vote and run for office. This reform was originally decreed by the late King Abdullah in 2011 to increase political participation. During the election, women competed for seats on municipal councils, which are the only government bodies open to public election in the country. Out of the thousands of candidates, women successfully won seats in various regions, including major cities like Jeddah and Riyadh. Initial reports and official counts following the election confirmed that women had secured approximately 13 to 20 seats nationwide, signifying a major milestone for women's rights and social change in Saudi Arabia.
43Economy
'Simply Click' credit card scheme is launched by which of the following Banks?
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Answer: (D) S.B.I.
Explanation
SBI Card, the credit card arm of the State Bank of India, launched the SimplyClick SBI Card in September 2015 to cater specifically to the growing segment of online shoppers in India. This specialized credit card was introduced in partnership with several major e-commerce players, including Amazon, BookMyShow, Cleartrip, Lenskart, and Ola Cabs. The card provides accelerated reward points for online transactions and was designed to leverage the rapid expansion of digital commerce by offering targeted benefits for internet-based spending, making it one of the first cards in the Indian market to focus exclusively on the generation of consumers preferred digital platforms for their daily needs.
44Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Mistral - Rhine Valley
Explanation
The Mistral is a cold, dry, and strong northerly wind that blows from southern France into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea. It is specifically funneled through the Rhone Valley, which is a geographic corridor located between the Alps to the east and the Massif Central to the west. The Rhine Valley, which flows north through Switzerland, Germany, and the Netherlands toward the North Sea, is a separate drainage basin and is not the path of the Mistral wind system.
45Geography
Arrange the following lakes in correct descending order of their area using the codes given below:
1. Great Bear
2. Baikal
3. Victoria
4. Superior
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Answer: (A) 4,3,2,1
Explanation
The descending order of these lakes by surface area begins with Lake Superior in North America, which covers approximately 82,103 km² and is the largest freshwater lake by surface area globally. It is followed by Lake Victoria in Africa, which has a surface area of about 68,800 km², making it the largest tropical lake in the world. Lake Baikal in Russia, while being the deepest lake and containing the greatest volume of freshwater, has a surface area of approximately 31,722 km². Great Bear Lake in Canada is slightly smaller in surface extent, covering roughly 31,153 km². This sequence accurately reflects the global ranking of these major inland water bodies based on their surface dimensions.
46Geography
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Igarka - China
Explanation
Igarka is a port city located in the Krasnoyarsk Krai region of Russia, situated on the Yenisei River about 163 kilometers north of the Arctic Circle. It was historically developed as a major center for the timber industry and serves as a significant Siberian seaport for the export of lumber. It has no geographical association with China.
47Geography
Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (State):
(A) Mana
(B) Nathula
(C) Zozila
(D) Sipki La
List-II (Mountain Pass):
1. Sikkim
2. Jammu & Kashmir
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Mana Pass is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand and serves as an ancient trade route connecting India to the Tibet Autonomous Region. Nathula Pass is located in the Dongkya Range in Sikkim and serves as a major mountain pass for trade on the Indo-China border. Zozila Pass is a strategic pass in the Zanskar Range that connects Srinagar and Leh, which was part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir in 2016. Shipki La is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh and serves as the entry point for the Sutlej River into India from Tibet.
48Geography
Which of the following rock systems in India is the latest one?
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Answer: (D) Gondwana
Explanation
The Gondwana rock system is the latest among the given options, having formed during the Upper Paleozoic to the Mesozoic era, specifically between the Upper Carboniferous and the Jurassic periods. In the chronological sequence of Indian geology, it follows the Precambrian formations. While systems like the Dharwar, Cuddapah, and Vindhyan were formed during the Proterozoic and Archaean eons, the Gondwana system was deposited much later in massive river basins and down-faulted troughs. This system is of immense economic importance as it contains more than 98 percent of India's coal deposits, formed by the burial of vast forests during the Carboniferous period.
49Geography
Match
List-I (Tribes):
(A) Kirghiz
(B) Bushman
(C) Ainus
(D) Bedouin
List-II (Area):
1. Japan
2. Arab
3. Central Asia
4. Kalahari
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Kirghiz is matched with Central Asia because they are a Turkic ethnic group traditionally residing in the high mountain regions and steppes of Kyrgyzstan. Bushman is matched with the Kalahari as they are indigenous hunter-gatherer groups inhabiting the Kalahari Desert in Southern Africa. Ainus is matched with Japan because they are the indigenous inhabitants of the northern Japanese island of Hokkaido. Bedouin is matched with Arab regions because they are nomadic tribes historically dwelling in the desert environments of the Arabian Peninsula and North Africa.
50Geography
Which of the following passes leads to Leh?
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Answer: (A) Zozila
Explanation
Zozila, also known as Zoji La, is a high mountain pass in the Zaskar Range of the Himalayas that serves as the vital link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region. It is situated on National Highway 1 (NH 1), which connects Srinagar to Leh. As the primary terrestrial gateway to Ladakh, the pass is essential for the movement of people, essential supplies, and military logistics into Leh. Due to heavy snowfall, the pass typically remains closed during winter, making its opening in the spring a significant event for restoring surface connectivity to the Leh district.
51Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Grasslands):
(A) Llanos
(B) Steppe
(C) Prairies
(D) Veld
List-II (Continent):
1. North America
2. Africa
3. Europe
4. South America
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Answer: (A) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Llanos are the tropical grasslands situated in the Orinoco River basin within South America.
Steppe comprises the temperate grasslands extending across Eastern Europe and parts of Central Asia.
Prairies are the extensive temperate grasslands covering the central regions of North America.
Veld refers to the temperate grassland plateaus located in Southern Africa.
52Economy
Which one of the following countries is the largest exporter of tea in the world?
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Answer: (C) Kenya
Explanation
Kenya is the world largest exporter of tea by volume. In 2016, the country exported approximately 480 million kilograms of tea, maintaining its position as the leading global supplier. This high export capacity is a result of Kenya exporting nearly 95 percent of its total tea production, whereas other major producing countries have high domestic consumption rates that reduce their exportable surplus. Kenyan tea is predominantly black tea produced using the Crush, Tear, and Curl (CTC) method and is highly valued in international markets for its strength and quality. The industry is supported by the fertile volcanic soils and temperate climate of the Kenyan highlands, which provide ideal conditions for year-round harvesting and consistent supply.
53Economy
Which of the following States of India produces more than 70 percent coffee of the country alone?
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Answer: (D) Karnataka
Explanation
Karnataka is the leading producer of coffee in India, consistently accounting for more than 70 percent of the total national output. According to data from the Coffee Board of India relevant to the 2015-16 period, the state contributed approximately 2.51 lakh metric tonnes out of a total national production of about 3.48 lakh metric tonnes. The region benefits from the high altitude, well-distributed rainfall, and rich soil of the Western Ghats, particularly within the districts of Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan. These areas specialize in both Arabica and Robusta varieties, cementing the state's position as the primary hub for coffee cultivation in the country.
54Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Kinki
(B) Canton
(C) Lorraine
(D) Belohori-
List-II (Country):
1. China
2. Japan
3. Brazil
4. France zontle
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Kinki is a major industrial and cultural region in Japan, also known as the Kansai region, which encompasses major cities like Osaka, Kyoto, and Kobe. Canton is the historical Western name for Guangzhou, a primary economic hub and port city located in the Guangdong province of China. Lorraine is a historical industrial region in northeastern France that has long been significant for its iron ore deposits and steel production. Belo Horizonte is the capital city of the state of Minas Gerais in Brazil and serves as a vital center for the countrys mining and metallurgical industries.
55Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Minerals):
(A) Makum
(B) Dallirajhara
(C) Koraput
(D) Chitradurg
List-II (Centre):
1. Iron Ore
2. Coal
3. Manganese
4. Bauxite
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Makum is a major coalfield located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, known for its high-quality Tertiary coal deposits. Dallirajhara is a famous iron ore mining range situated in the Balod district of Chhattisgarh, primarily serving as the captive mine for the Bhilai Steel Plant. Koraput in Odisha is home to the Panchpatmali bauxite deposits, which are among the largest and highest quality bauxite reserves in India. Chitradurg in Karnataka is a significant centre for manganese mining within the wider mineral-rich belt of the state.
56Geography
The highest peak of Indian Peninsula is
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Answer: (B) Anaimudi
Explanation
Anaimudi is the highest peak in the Indian Peninsula and South India, situated at an elevation of 2,695 metres (8,842 feet) above sea level. Located in the Idukki district of Kerala, it lies at the tri-junction of the Anaimalai, Cardamom, and Palani Hills within the Eravikulam National Park. Due to its significant height and prominence, it is frequently referred to as the Everest of South India. The peak is a part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage site, and its name translates to Elephant's head in the local language, describing its physical appearance.
57Geography
In which of the following States, the area under Tube-well irrigation is the highest?
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest area under tube-well irrigation in India. This dominance is primarily due to the state's vast expanse over the fertile Gangetic plains, where the soft alluvial soil and high groundwater table facilitate the easy and cost-effective boring of tube-wells. According to agricultural statistics and the Census of Minor Irrigation available up to 2016, Uttar Pradesh accounts for a significant portion of the country's total tube-well irrigated area, with approximately 70 to 80 percent of its net irrigated area being served by groundwater sources. The state's large geographical size combined with intensive agricultural practices necessitates extensive use of these private and state-owned tube-wells to supplement canal irrigation.
58Geography
As per 2011 census, which of the following States of India is most densely populated?
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Answer: (D) Bihar
Explanation
Bihar recorded the highest population density among all Indian states during the 2011 Census, reaching a figure of 1,106 persons per square kilometer. This was a sharp increase from the 2001 Census figure of 881 persons per square kilometer. Population density is a measure of the number of people per unit of land area, usually square kilometers. Bihar's top ranking in this demographic metric is due to its high total population residing within a relatively compact geographical territory, placing the greatest amount of human pressure on land compared to any other state in India as per the 2011 data.
59Geography
The cities which are included in 'Golden Triangle' of India Tourism, are
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Answer: (A) Agra, Delhi and Jaipur
Explanation
The Golden Triangle is India's premier tourist circuit, connecting the national capital Delhi with the cities of Agra and Jaipur. The circuit is so named because the three cities form a roughly equilateral triangle on the map, with each leg being approximately 200 to 250 kilometers long. This route is highly popular as it offers a concentrated experience of India's historical and cultural diversity. Delhi provides a mix of ancient and modern political history, Agra features the world-renowned Mughal architecture exemplified by the Taj Mahal, and Jaipur offers a glimpse into the regal Rajput heritage of Rajasthan. Together, these cities represent the most accessible and culturally rich path for travelers exploring Northern India.
60Geography
The northern part of the Western Coastal Plain of India is also known as
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Answer: (C) Konkan
Explanation
The Western Coastal Plain of India is a narrow strip of land located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea. Geographically, this plain is divided into three distinct sections. The northernmost part of this coastal stretch is known as the Konkan coast. It extends from the north of Daman and covers the coastal regions of Maharashtra and Goa. This region is characterized by a rugged and indented coastline featuring numerous cliffs, creeks, and small islands, making it distinct from the broader southern sections of the western plains.
61Economy
Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in the State of
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
The Tatipaka Refinery is a mini-refinery owned and operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). It is situated in the Tatipaka village of the East Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh. Commissioned in September 2001, this refinery was specifically established to process the crude oil and condensate extracted from the onshore fields of the Krishna-Godavari Basin. It has a specialized capacity to handle sweet crude and produces essential petroleum products such as naphtha, kerosene, and high-speed diesel to meet the localized energy demands of the region.
62Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements related to Integrated Low Cost Sanitation (ILCS) scheme:
1. The system is funded on sharing basis
2. Central subsidy is 75 percent
3. State subsidy is 25 percent
Of these, the correct statements are:
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Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation
The Integrated Low Cost Sanitation (ILCS) scheme was designed to eliminate manual scavenging by converting dry latrines into water-seal pour-flush latrines and constructing new ones for the urban poor. The financial structure of the scheme is based on a cost-sharing mechanism. According to the revised guidelines effective from 2008, the funding pattern consists of a 75 percent subsidy from the Central Government, a 15 percent subsidy from the State Government, and a 10 percent contribution from the beneficiary. Since the central subsidy is exactly 75 percent and the total funding is distributed across multiple parties, the system is funded on a sharing basis.
63Geography
Which one of the following places has the lowest rainfall during the South West Monsoon?
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Answer: (C) Chennai
Explanation
Chennai is located on the Coromandel Coast of India, which remains relatively dry during the South West Monsoon season from June to September. This is primarily because the region lies in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats, which obstruct the moisture-laden winds blowing from the Arabian Sea. Additionally, the Bay of Bengal branch of the South West Monsoon flows parallel to the Coromandel Coast rather than striking it directly, resulting in minimal orographic rainfall. While most parts of India receive the bulk of their precipitation during this period, Chennai receives only a small fraction of its annual rainfall, as its primary rainy season occurs later in the year during the North East Monsoon or the retreating monsoon season.
64Economy
Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched? Decade Decadal growth rate of population (in percent)
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Answer: (D) 2001-2011 19.05
Explanation
According to the Census of India 2011, the decadal growth rate of the population for the period 2001-2011 was 17.7 percent. This figure represents the percentage increase in the total population over the ten-year period and was significantly lower than the growth rates recorded in preceding decades. The value of 19.05 percent provided in the options is factually incorrect and does not correspond to the final data released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner. During this decade, India added approximately 181 million people to its population, which resulted in the recorded growth rate of 17.7 percent, marking a significant decline from the 21.54 percent observed during the 1991-2001 period.
65Economy
Which one of the following is not a new scheme announced for the development of urban infrastructure?
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Answer: (D) Digital India Scheme
Explanation
The Digital India Scheme is a flagship program launched in July 2015 with the objective of transforming the entire country into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Its primary focus areas include the creation of digital infrastructure as a core utility for every citizen, delivering governance and services on demand, and ensuring the digital empowerment of citizens across both rural and urban sectors. Unlike urban infrastructure schemes that target specific physical developments such as sanitation, city transport, or heritage preservation within municipal limits, Digital India is a cross-sectoral technological initiative focused on IT connectivity, electronic manufacturing, and e-governance at a national level.
66Economy
Who among the following was the Chairman of 14th Finance Commission?
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Answer: (C) Y.V. Reddy
Explanation
The 14th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in January 2013 under Article 280 of the Constitution. Dr. Y.V. Reddy, a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, was appointed as its Chairman. The commission was mandated to give recommendations on the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid for the period from 2015 to 2020. Its report, submitted in December 2014, is widely noted for recommending a sharp increase in the states share of the divisible pool of central taxes from 32 percent to 42 percent, aiming to enhance fiscal federalism and provide states with greater flexibility in spending.
67Economy
In which of the following years, 'National Land Records Modernization Programme' was launched?
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Answer: (B) 2009 A.D.
Explanation
The National Land Records Modernization Programme was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development during the 2008-09 financial year. This initiative was formed by merging two earlier Centrally Sponsored Schemes: Computerisation of Land Records and Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records. The programme was designed to modernize land records management and minimize land disputes by improving transparency through the use of technology. Key components include the computerization of all land records, digitization of maps, and the integration of textual and spatial data. The ultimate objective of the programme is to move towards a system of conclusive titling with title guarantee, replacing the existing presumptive titling system in India. By 2016, the programme was further integrated into the Digital India initiative and is now known as the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme.
68Polity and Governance
In India inclusive education for the disabled at secondary stage scheme launched in the year 2009-10 is being provided under
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Answer: (C) Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
Explanation
The scheme of Inclusive Education for the Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) was launched in 2009-10 to provide assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children studying in classes IX to XII in government, local body, and government-aided schools. This scheme replaced the earlier Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC) program. Given its focus on the secondary and senior secondary levels, IEDSS was integrated into the Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) to ensure a holistic and convergent approach toward secondary education. RMSA serves as the flagship program of the Government of India to enhance access to secondary education and improve its quality, providing the administrative and financial framework under which IEDSS operates to support students with disabilities through specialized teachers, assistive devices, and barrier-free infrastructure.
69Economy
Which one of the following is not the objective of financial inclusion?
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Answer: (C) Sinking of banking infrastructure.
Explanation
Financial inclusion is the process of ensuring access to appropriate financial products and services needed by all sections of society in general and vulnerable groups in particular at an affordable cost in a fair and transparent manner. The primary goal is the expansion and strengthening of the banking network to reach the unbanked population. Therefore, the sinking or reduction of banking infrastructure is diametrically opposed to the core principles of financial inclusion, which instead necessitates the proliferation of bank branches, automated teller machines, and business correspondent models to integrate the informal economy into the formal financial system.
70Economy
Which one of the following is not a component of 'Bharat Nirman' scheme launched in 2005-06?
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Answer: (B) Rural sanitation
Explanation
Bharat Nirman was a flagship program launched by the Government of India in 2005-06 with the goal of creating a time-bound business plan for rural infrastructure. The scheme identified six specific sectors as its core components: rural roads, rural housing, irrigation, rural water supply, rural electrification, and rural telephony. Rural sanitation was not included as one of the pillars of Bharat Nirman. During that period, rural sanitation was addressed through distinct, independent programs such as the Total Sanitation Campaign and the Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan, which focused on behavioral change and household-level infrastructure rather than the large-scale public infrastructure targets defined under the Bharat Nirman framework.
71Economy
The Census Projection Report shows that India is one of the youngest nation in the world. In year 2020, the average age of Indians will be of
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 29 years
Explanation
The Census Projection Report and various government documents, including those from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, estimated that the median age of the Indian population would be 29 years by the year 2020. This demographic trend highlights India's position as a young nation compared to other major global economies. At that time, while countries like China and the United States were projected to have median ages in the late 30s, and Japan and Western Europe in the 40s, India’s lower average age signified a significant demographic dividend. This projection was based on the transition of the large youth population into the working-age group, making India one of the youngest countries in the world during that period.
72Economy
Which one of the following segments of population is not included in the scheme of inclusive developments?
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Answer: (D) People living in semi-urban areas
Explanation
Inclusive development is a policy framework designed to ensure that the benefits of economic growth reach all sections of society, particularly those who have been historically marginalized or excluded from the development process. In the context of India's 11th and 12th Five-Year Plans, the strategy for inclusive growth specifically targets groups facing severe socio-economic vulnerabilities, such as small and marginal farmers, landless agricultural laborers, and socially disadvantaged communities like Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. People living in semi-urban areas are not included in this specific classification of marginalized segments because they generally benefit from better access to infrastructure, markets, and diverse employment opportunities compared to the rural and socially excluded populations that the scheme aims to uplift. Inclusion focuses on bridging the gap for those at the bottom of the economic pyramid rather than geographic regions that are already transitioning toward urbanization.
73EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Share of U.P. in the exports from India in 2014-15 was
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 4 to 5 percent
Explanation
In the financial year 2014-15, Uttar Pradesh contributed approximately 4.6 percent to India's total merchandise exports. According to data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics, India's total exports for this period were valued at approximately 310.3 billion dollars. During the same timeframe, the export value from Uttar Pradesh was recorded at approximately 14.3 billion dollars. By calculating the ratio of the state's exports to the national total, the percentage share is determined to be roughly 4.6%, which falls within the 4 to 5 percent range. This contribution was largely driven by the state's strong performance in sectors such as leather goods, handicrafts, textiles, and electronics.
74Economy
What is the effect of deficit financing on economy?
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Answer: (C) Increase in money supply
Explanation
Deficit financing refers to the practice where the government spends more money than it receives through taxes and other revenues. To bridge this fiscal gap, the government borrows from the central bank or issues new currency. In the Indian context, when the government borrows from the Reserve Bank of India, it leads to the creation of additional high-powered money. This process injects new liquidity into the financial system, directly increasing the total volume of money in circulation within the economy. As a result, the primary and most immediate macroeconomic effect of deficit financing is an expansion of the money supply.
75Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which among the following Panchayats, are included in the District Plan in U.P.?
1. Nagar Panchayat
2. Gram Panchayat
3. Kshetra Panchayat
Select the correct answer from the codes given below?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
Under Article 243-ZD of the Constitution of India and the Uttar Pradesh District Planning Committee Act, 1999, a District Planning Committee (DPC) is mandated for every district to consolidate the plans prepared by local bodies. The DPC integrates the developmental drafts submitted by the three tiers of the Panchayati Raj system—Gram Panchayats at the village level, Kshetra Panchayats at the intermediate block level, and Zila Panchayats at the district level. Furthermore, the committee incorporates plans from urban local bodies, which include Nagar Panchayats, Nagar Palika Parishads, and Nagar Nigams. The final District Plan is a consolidated draft that harmonizes the spatial planning, sharing of physical and natural resources, and integrated infrastructure development between the rural and urban populations within the district. All three entities mentioned are therefore integral contributors to the final District Plan in Uttar Pradesh.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following age groups is eligible for enrolment under 'Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan'?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 6-14 years
Explanation
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was launched in 2001 as the Government of India's flagship programme to achieve the Universalization of Elementary Education (UEE). It is designed to provide useful and relevant elementary education for all children in the 6 to 14 age group. This specific age range was determined to fulfill the constitutional obligation mandated by the 86th Amendment, which established free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. The programme aims to bridge social, regional, and gender gaps with the active involvement of the community in the management of schools, ensuring that every child in this age bracket has access to quality schooling across the country.
77Economy
In which one of the following years 'Swavlamban Scheme' was launched?
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Answer: (A) 2010 A.D.
Explanation
The Swavlamban Scheme was launched in 2010 following its announcement in the Union Budget 2010-11. It was a co-contributory pension scheme specifically designed to provide social security to workers in the unorganized sector who were not part of any statutory social security provider. Under this initiative, the Government of India contributed ₹1,000 per year to each eligible National Pension System (NPS) account, provided the subscriber's contribution was between ₹1,000 and ₹12,000 per annum. Administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the scheme aimed to incentivize voluntary savings for retirement among the economically weaker sections of the population.
78Economy
Which one of the following is not an objective of National Food security Mission (NFSM)?
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Answer: (C) Strengthening credit facilities
Explanation
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007-08 with the primary aim of increasing the production of rice, wheat, pulses, and later coarse cereals and commercial crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement. The mission focuses on technological and field-level interventions such as the distribution of high-yielding variety seeds, conducting demonstrations of improved production technologies, and popularizing newly released crop varieties among farmers. Strengthening credit facilities is not a specific objective of the NFSM because agricultural credit is governed by broader financial policies and institutional frameworks like the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, NABARD, and the Interest Subvention Scheme, which operate independently of the mission's production-centric mandate.
79EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
The largest Sugar Mill of Asia is located at which of the following place in Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (A) Khatouli
Explanation
The sugar mill located at Khatouli in the Muzaffarnagar district of Uttar Pradesh is recognized as the largest sugar mill in Asia in terms of crushing capacity and overall scale. Operated by Triveni Engineering and Industries Limited, the Khatouli unit had a crushing capacity of approximately 16,000 TCD (Tonnes Crushed per Day) as of 2016. This facility is a central hub for the sugar industry in Western Uttar Pradesh, situated within the highly fertile sugarcane belt of the Upper Doab region. The mill has historically expanded its operations to include power co-generation and distillery units, making it a major industrial landmark in the Indian sugar sector.
80History
Consider the following events and arrange these in chronological Order? I. Garibi Hatao II. Bank Nationalization III. Beginning of Green Revolution Select correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) III, II and I
Explanation
The Green Revolution in India was initiated in the mid-1960s, specifically around 1966, with the introduction of high-yielding variety seeds and modern agricultural techniques to achieve food self-sufficiency. The first major round of bank nationalization occurred on July 19, 1969, when the Government of India issued an ordinance to nationalize 14 of the largest commercial banks in the country. The slogan Garibi Hatao (Abolish Poverty) was the central theme of Indira Gandhi's political campaign during the 1971 General Elections. Consequently, the chronological sequence of these events is the Beginning of Green Revolution (1966), followed by Bank Nationalization (1969), and finally the Garibi Hatao slogan (1971).
81EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Largest concentration of software and business process outsourcing industry in U.P. is at
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Answer: (C) Noida
Explanation
Noida is the primary industrial and IT hub of Uttar Pradesh, strategically located within the National Capital Region (NCR). Since the 1990s, it has developed into a major center for Information Technology (IT) and Information Technology Enabled Services (ITES), including Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) and Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO). The presence of the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and various Special Economic Zones (SEZs) facilitates a conducive environment for global tech giants and domestic firms. Its robust infrastructure, proximity to Delhi, and availability of a skilled workforce have led to it hosting the highest density of software exports and BPO operations in the state.
82Polity and Governance
'e-Biz' refers to
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Answer: (D) single window for approach to government services
Explanation
The e-Biz portal was established as a core component of the National e-Governance Plan to simplify the business environment in India. It serves as a Government-to-Business (G2B) platform that offers a single window for businesses to access various services provided by central, state, and local government agencies. By integrating multiple regulatory processes into one online interface, e-Biz allows entrepreneurs to submit applications, make payments, and track the status of licenses and permits without visiting multiple government offices. This initiative by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion aims to streamline the entire lifecycle of a business entity through a single point of approach for all government clearances and compliance requirements.
83Economy
The committee which has recommended abolition of Tax Rebates under Section-88 of the income Tax Act of India, is
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Answer: (B) Kelkar Committee
Explanation
The Kelkar Task Force on Direct Taxes, chaired by Vijay Kelkar, submitted its report in 2002 with the primary objective of simplifying and rationalizing the Indian tax structure. One of its key recommendations was the abolition of tax rebates under Section 88 of the Income Tax Act, which provided incentives for investments in specific savings instruments like Life Insurance and Provident Funds. The committee argued that such rebates made the tax system complex, led to a loss of revenue, and disproportionately benefited higher-income taxpayers. By removing these exemptions, the task force aimed to broaden the tax base and simplify tax administration, suggesting that the resulting efficiency would allow for a lower overall tax rate for all citizens.
84Economy
Time span of 'Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana' is
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Answer: (C) 2015-2022
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) was launched by the Government of India on June 25, 2015, with the objective of achieving Housing for All. The mission was designed to provide pucca houses to all eligible urban households by the year 2022, which coincided with the 75th anniversary of India's independence. The implementation of the scheme was structured to span seven years, from 2015 to 2022, divided into three phases to cover different sets of cities and towns across the country.
85Science and Technology
India's first National Action Plan on climate change was released in
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Answer: (A) 2008 A.D.
Explanation
The Government of India launched the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) on June 30, 2008, to address the challenges posed by climate change while maintaining a high economic growth rate. This comprehensive plan was designed to promote development objectives while also yielding co-benefits for addressing climate change effectively. It outlines eight core national missions that represent multi-pronged, long-term, and integrated strategies for achieving key goals in the context of climate change. These include missions for solar energy, energy efficiency, sustainable habitat, water, sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem, greening India, sustainable agriculture, and strategic knowledge for climate change. The NAPCC serves as the foundational framework for India's domestic climate policy and its approach to international environmental negotiations.
86Science and Technology
Which one of the following thermometers is known as pyrometer?
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Answer: (B) Radiation thermometers
Explanation
A pyrometer is a remote-sensing thermometer used to measure the temperature of distant objects by detecting the thermal radiation they emit. Unlike contact thermometers, a radiation thermometer or pyrometer determines temperature from the intensity of the electromagnetic radiation (typically infrared or visible light) coming from the body. This mechanism is based on the Stefan-Boltzmann law, which states that the total energy radiated per unit surface area of a black body is proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature, represented by the formula E = σT⁴. Because these instruments do not require physical contact, they are primarily used to measure very high temperatures in industrial processes, such as in furnaces or kilns, where traditional sensors would melt or fail.
87Science and Technology
Dynamo is a device, which converts
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Answer: (C) mechanical energy into electrical energy
Explanation
A dynamo is a type of electrical generator that produces direct current through the application of Faraday law of induction. It functions by rotating a coil of wire within a stationary magnetic field, which creates a change in magnetic flux. This mechanical rotation, typically provided by a turbine or an engine, induces an electromotive force that drives the flow of electrons through an external circuit. By utilizing a commutator to ensure the current flows in a single direction, the dynamo efficiently transforms the mechanical work of rotation into usable electrical energy.
88Geography
The velocity of wind is measured by
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Answer: (B) Anaemometer
Explanation
An anemometer is a meteorological instrument specifically designed to measure wind speed and velocity. The name is derived from the Greek word anemos, meaning wind. These devices typically consist of three or four hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms attached to a vertical shaft. As the wind blows, it pushes the cups, causing the shaft to rotate. The number of rotations per minute is proportional to the wind speed, which is then recorded or displayed on a dial or digital screen. Anemometers are essential tools in weather stations, aviation, and maritime navigation for monitoring atmospheric conditions.
89Geography
Which one of the following gases is not a green house gas?
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Answer: (D) O₂
Explanation
Oxygen (O₂) is a homonuclear diatomic molecule, meaning it consists of two identical atoms bonded together. For a gas to function as a greenhouse gas, its molecules must be capable of absorbing and emitting infrared radiation. This process requires the molecule to either have a permanent dipole moment or undergo a change in its dipole moment during molecular vibration. Because the two atoms in O₂ are identical, the electrical charge is distributed symmetrically, and the molecule has no dipole moment. Even when the bond vibrates, the symmetry is maintained, and no dipole moment is created. Consequently, oxygen is transparent to the long-wave infrared radiation emitted by the Earth's surface, allowing this energy to pass through the atmosphere into space without being trapped as heat. This physical property ensures that oxygen does not contribute to the greenhouse effect.
90Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Viticulture
(B) Olericulture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Arboriculture
List-II:
1. Vegetable farming
2. Fish farming
3. Tree farming
4. Grapes farming
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Answer: (D) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation
This question matches agricultural terms with their meanings. Viticulture is the cultivation of grapes (List-II: 4). Olericulture is the science of growing vegetables (List-II: 1). Pisciculture is fish farming, the breeding and rearing of fish (List-II: 2). Arboriculture is the cultivation of trees (List-II: 3). Hence the correct match is A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (option d).
91Geography
The maximum biodiversity is found in
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Answer: (C) tropical rain forests
Explanation
Tropical rain forests, located primarily near the equator between 10° North and 10° South latitudes, exhibit the highest species richness and biodiversity on Earth. This is due to the consistent availability of solar energy and high annual precipitation, which create a warm and humid environment conducive to year-round plant growth. The lack of harsh seasonal changes allows for narrow specialized niches to develop, supporting an immense variety of plants, insects, birds, and mammals. Although these forests cover less than 7% of the Earth's land surface, they are estimated to contain more than half of the world's terrestrial species. The evolutionary stability of these regions, having escaped the drastic impacts of glaciation seen in higher latitudes, has allowed for uninterrupted speciation over millions of years.
92Science and Technology
The minimum distance of clear vision for a normal healthy eye of human being is supposed to be
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Answer: (D) 25 cm
Explanation
The least distance of distinct vision (LDDV) is the minimum distance from the eye at which an object can be seen clearly and distinctly without any strain. For a normal, healthy human eye, this distance is standardly measured to be 25 cm. This occurs because the ciliary muscles of the eye have a limit to how much they can contract to increase the curvature and focal power of the crystalline lens. When an object is brought closer than 25 cm, the lens cannot become sufficiently convex to focus the diverging light rays onto the retina, leading to a blurred image and ocular fatigue. This distance is also known as the near point of the eye.
93Economy
Indiscriminate use of fertilizers have led to
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The indiscriminate use of chemical fertilizers impacts all three major environmental spheres. In the soil, excessive application leads to acidification, increased salinity, and the depletion of organic matter, which disrupts the microbial ecosystem and reduces long-term fertility. For water bodies, fertilizers containing nitrogen and phosphorus are carried away by runoff or leached into groundwater. This causes eutrophication in surface waters, leading to algal blooms and oxygen depletion, while also contaminating drinking water sources with harmful nitrates. Regarding air quality, nitrogenous fertilizers undergo chemical transformations like volatilization and denitrification, releasing ammonia (NH₃) and nitrous oxide (N₂O) into the atmosphere. Nitrous oxide is a significant greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming and the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer. Therefore, the environmental degradation caused by these chemicals is multi-dimensional.
94Geography
Which of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
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Answer: (A) Rice field
Explanation
A rice field is an artificial ecosystem because it is created and managed by human intervention to serve specific agricultural purposes. Unlike natural ecosystems, which operate through self-regulating ecological processes, a rice field requires constant anthropogenic inputs such as land tilling, irrigation, the application of fertilizers, and pest control to maintain its productivity. It is often characterized as an agro-ecosystem where humans select the biotic components, primarily a single crop species, and manipulate the abiotic factors to maximize yield. The energy flow and nutrient cycling in this environment are largely directed by human activity rather than natural succession or spontaneous biological interactions.
95Science and Technology
The substance used as moderator and coolant both, in nuclear reactors is
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Answer: (B) Heavy water
Explanation
Heavy water, or deuterium oxide (D₂O), is employed in nuclear reactors such as the Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) to perform the dual functions of moderation and cooling. As a moderator, the deuterium atoms in heavy water slow down fast neutrons produced during fission to thermal energies, which is necessary to maintain a self-sustaining chain reaction. Because deuterium has a much lower probability of absorbing neutrons compared to the protium found in ordinary water, heavy water allows the reactor to operate efficiently using natural uranium as fuel. Concurrently, it acts as a coolant by circulating through the reactor core to absorb and transfer the heat generated by the fission process to a heat exchanger, where it is used to produce steam for electricity generation.
96Science and Technology
Which of the following air pollutants gets dissolved in hemoglobin of the blood more rapidly than oxygen?
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Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide
Explanation
Carbon monoxide is a colorless and odorless gas that reacts with hemoglobin in the blood to form carboxyhemoglobin. The chemical affinity of hemoglobin for carbon monoxide is significantly higher than its affinity for oxygen, typically cited as being between 200 and 250 times greater. Because of this high affinity, carbon monoxide molecules occupy the oxygen-binding sites on hemoglobin far more readily and rapidly than oxygen molecules can. This preferential binding prevents the formation of oxyhemoglobin and effectively blocks the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body, which can lead to tissue hypoxia and serious health complications.
97Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about hemoglobin: 1. It carries oxygen in the blood. 2. It is an iron-containing compound. 3. It provides immunity against certain diseases. 4. It imparts red color to the blood. The correct statements out of these are:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Hemoglobin is an iron-containing transport protein in red blood cells. Statement 1 is correct: it binds oxygen in the lungs and carries it to the tissues. Statement 2 is correct: each heme group contains an iron (Fe²⁺) atom to which oxygen binds. Statement 4 is correct: the iron-porphyrin (heme) pigment absorbs certain wavelengths of light, giving blood its characteristic red colour. Statement 3 is incorrect: immunity against diseases is provided by white blood cells, which produce antibodies, not by hemoglobin. Hence the correct statements are 1, 2 and 4 (option d).
98Science and Technology
'Big-Bang theory' explains the origin of
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Answer: (C) Universe
Explanation
The Big Bang theory is the prevailing cosmological model that describes the early development and origin of the universe. It proposes that approximately 13.8 billion years ago, the universe began from an extremely hot and dense point called a singularity. Since that initial moment, the universe has been expanding and cooling, allowing for the formation of subatomic particles, atoms, stars, and galaxies. This theory is supported by key astronomical observations, such as the redshift of light from distant galaxies, which indicates they are moving away from us, and the detection of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation, which is considered the thermal remnant of the early universe's intense heat.
99Science and Technology
Photovoltaic cells are
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Answer: (A) Solar cells
Explanation
Photovoltaic cells are electronic devices that convert light energy directly into electricity through a physical and chemical phenomenon known as the photovoltaic effect. The term is derived from the Greek word for light, photos, and the unit of electromotive force, the volt. When photons from sunlight strike the semiconducting material within the cell, typically made of silicon, they transfer energy to electrons, allowing them to flow and create an electric current. Because these cells are specifically engineered to capture and transform solar radiation into usable electrical power, they are synonymous with solar cells. This technology serves as the fundamental building block of solar panels used in renewable energy systems.
100Science and Technology
In wind power, which form of energy is converted into electrical energy?
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Answer: (A) Kinetic energy
Explanation
Wind is air in motion, and according to the principles of physics, any moving object possesses kinetic energy. The total energy available in a wind stream is proportional to the mass of the air and the square of its velocity, governed by the kinetic energy formula E = 1/2 mv². Wind turbines are designed to capture this energy by using blades that act like an airplane wing or helicopter rotor. When the wind blows past the blades, it creates a pressure differential that causes them to rotate. This rotation converts the translational kinetic energy of the wind into rotational mechanical energy. The rotating shaft then spins a generator, which utilizes electromagnetic induction to transform the mechanical energy into the electrical energy that is fed into the power grid.
101Economy
In a food chain, man is
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Answer: (D) primary as well as secondary consumer
Explanation
In the ecological hierarchy of a food chain, humans are classified as omnivores due to their varied diet. When humans consume plant products like grains, fruits, and vegetables, they act as primary consumers because they are feeding directly on the producers. When humans consume meat from herbivorous animals like goats, sheep, or cattle, they act as secondary consumers. Consequently, man occupies multiple trophic levels, functioning as both a primary and a secondary consumer depending on the source of their food.
102Geography
The main reason for the decrease in biodiversity is
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Answer: (D) natural habitat destruction
Explanation
Natural habitat destruction is the primary driver of biodiversity loss globally because it results in the direct loss of the essential environment that species require for survival. Activities such as deforestation, land conversion for agriculture, urbanization, and infrastructure development fragment and eliminate the breeding, feeding, and nesting grounds of various organisms. This degradation leads to a reduction in population sizes and genetic diversity, eventually resulting in the extinction of species that cannot adapt to altered environments or relocate. International conservation assessments, including the IUCN Red List and the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, identify habitat loss as the single most significant threat to the majority of terrestrial and aquatic species.
103Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an important source of Vitamin-E?
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Answer: (C) Wheat germ oil
Explanation
Wheat germ oil is extracted from the germ of the wheat kernel and is considered one of the most concentrated natural sources of Vitamin E. It specifically provides high levels of alpha-tocopherol, which is the most biologically active form of the vitamin in humans. This fat-soluble antioxidant plays a critical role in protecting cell membranes from oxidative stress caused by free radicals, thereby supporting cardiovascular health and immune system function. Due to its exceptionally high vitamin content, it is frequently used as a dietary supplement to ensure adequate intake of this essential nutrient.
104Science and Technology
The alkaloid caffeine is present in
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Answer: (C) Tea and coffee both
Explanation
Caffeine (C₈H₁₀N₄O₂) is a naturally occurring methylxanthine alkaloid that acts as a central nervous system stimulant. It is synthesized by various plant species where it serves as a natural pesticide, protecting the plants from herbivorous insects. In the human diet, the most common sources of caffeine are the leaves of the tea plant (Camellia sinensis) and the seeds, commonly called beans, of the coffee plant (Coffea arabica and Coffea canephora). While the concentration of the alkaloid differs based on the plant variety and the method of preparation, caffeine is a major bioactive component found in both tea and coffee.
105Science and Technology
Einstein was honoured with Nobel Prize for
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Answer: (A) Photoelectric Effect
Explanation
Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921 for his services to Theoretical Physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect. In his 1905 work, Einstein proposed that light consists of individual discrete packets of energy called quanta, later known as photons. He formulated the equation Eₖ = hν - Φ, where Eₖ is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons, hν is the energy of the incident photon, and Φ is the work function of the material. This explanation successfully accounted for why the emission of electrons depends on the frequency of light rather than its intensity, providing crucial evidence for the particle-like behavior of electromagnetic radiation and fundamentally advancing the field of quantum mechanics.
106Science and Technology
National Dairy Research Institute is established at
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Answer: (A) Karnal
Explanation
The National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is India's premier institute for dairy research and is located in Karnal, Haryana. Originally established in Bangalore in 1923 as the Imperial Institute for Animal Husbandry and Dairying, it was moved to its current location in Karnal in 1955 to better serve the livestock-rich regions of Northern India. The institute operates under the administrative control of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and was accorded the status of a Deemed University in 1989. It focuses on multidisciplinary research in dairy production, processing, and management to enhance the productivity and sustainability of the Indian dairy sector.
107Science and Technology
Smallest man-like ape is
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Answer: (A) Gibbon
Explanation
Gibbons are classified as lesser apes because of their relatively small size and physical characteristics. Belonging to the family Hylobatidae, they are the smallest of the anthropoid apes. An adult gibbon typically weighs between 4 and 13 kilograms, which is significantly less than the body mass of any member of the great ape family. They are known for their exceptional agility and a specialized form of locomotion called brachiation. Native to the tropical forests of Southeast Asia, gibbons share common ancestry with humans and other apes, characterized by the absence of a tail and a high degree of intelligence, yet they remain the most diminutive representatives of the extant ape lineage.
108Science and Technology
Quinine, the effective medicine in the treatment of malaria, is extracted from
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Answer: (B) Bark of Cinchona
Explanation
Quinine is a naturally occurring cinchona alkaloid that has been used for centuries as a primary treatment for malaria. It is extracted from the bark of various species of the Cinchona tree, which is native to the Andes mountains in South America. The medicinal properties of the bark were discovered by the indigenous Quechua people and later introduced to Europe in the 17th century. The compound works by interfering with the ability of the malaria parasite, Plasmodium falciparum, to dissolve and metabolize the hemoglobin of the host's red blood cells, effectively killing the parasite and suppressing the infection.
109Science and Technology
Change in the base sequence within the gene is called
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Answer: (C) mutation
Explanation
A mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is typically found in the organism. This change involves the specific arrangement of nitrogenous bases—adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T)—which constitute the genetic code. Mutations can occur at a single point, known as a point mutation, where one base is substituted for another, or they can involve the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs. These alterations can arise spontaneously during DNA replication or be induced by environmental factors such as ultraviolet radiation and chemical mutagens, potentially leading to changes in the proteins encoded by those genes.
110Geography
Which of the following Acts provides for protection to wild animals in India?
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Answer: (A) Wild Animal Protection Act - 1972.
Explanation
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is the primary legal framework for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants in India. Enacted to ensure the ecological and environmental security of the country, it provides for the establishment of protected areas such as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. The Act categorizes various species into schedules that determine their level of legal protection, with species listed in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II receiving absolute protection and attracting the highest penalties for offenses. It also regulates the trade in wildlife products and establishes authorities like the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to enforce these regulations across the nation.
111Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
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Answer: (C) Vitamin A - Colour-blindness
Explanation
Vitamin A deficiency is primarily associated with night blindness (nyctalopia) and xerophthalmia, conditions that affect the ability to see in low light or lead to the drying of the cornea. Colour-blindness is a distinct condition that is typically hereditary and genetic in nature, resulting from defects or deficiencies in the cone cells of the retina that perceive specific wavelengths of light. Because colour-blindness is an inherited trait often linked to the X chromosome, it cannot be caused or cured by the intake of Vitamin A.
112Science and Technology
Leukaemia is a type of Cancer in which there is abnormal increase in the number of
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Answer: (D) white blood cells
Explanation
Leukemia is a group of blood cancers that usually begin in the bone marrow and result in high numbers of abnormal white blood cells. These white blood cells, also called leukocytes, are part of the body's immune system and are responsible for fighting infections. In a person with leukemia, the bone marrow produces an excessive amount of abnormal white blood cells which do not function properly. These cells divide faster than normal cells and do not stop dividing when they should. Over time, these cancerous cells crowd out healthy blood cells in the bone marrow, leading to the various symptoms associated with the disease. The name of the condition is derived from the Greek words leukos, meaning white, and haima, meaning blood, reflecting the characteristic increase in these specific cells.
113Science and Technology
A am, who does not know when to stop eating, is suffering from
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Answer: (A) bulimia
Explanation
Bulimia nervosa is a psychological eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, where an individual consumes an excessively large amount of food in a short period. During these episodes, the person experiences a distinct lack of control and feels unable to stop eating or regulate the quantity of food being consumed. This inability to recognize or act upon satiety signals often leads to physical discomfort, which is typically followed by compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain.
114Science and Technology
For human blood transfusion, which blood group is known as universal donor?
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Answer: (B) O Group
Explanation
Blood group O is designated as the universal donor because its red blood cells lack both A and B surface antigens. In the ABO blood typing system, an immune response occurs if a recipient's antibodies recognize and attack foreign antigens on transfused red blood cells. Since group O blood does not carry these antigens, it can be administered to individuals of any ABO blood type without triggering an immediate adverse immune reaction or agglutination. This property makes O group blood essential for emergency medical situations where there is no time to determine a patient's specific blood type.
115Science and Technology
Which of the following is/are used as disinfectant of water?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Water disinfection involves the removal, deactivation, or killing of pathogenic microorganisms to make water safe for consumption. Ozone (O₃) is a powerful oxidizing agent that effectively destroys bacteria, viruses, and protozoa by breaking down their cell walls. Chlorine dioxide (ClO₂) is another highly effective disinfectant that works well against chlorine-resistant pathogens like Cryptosporidium and does not produce significant amounts of trihalomethanes. Chloramines, typically formed by the reaction of chlorine with ammonia, are utilized primarily as secondary disinfectants; they are more stable than free chlorine and provide a long-lasting residual effect to prevent microbial regrowth within the water distribution piping system. All three substances are standard chemical agents used in municipal water treatment processes.
116Science and Technology
The brain is responsible for
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Answer: (D) All of the above three
Explanation
The human brain acts as the command center for the body, coordinating both voluntary and involuntary functions across its specialized regions. The cerebrum, particularly the cerebral cortex, is the seat of higher-order functions such as thinking, memory, and reasoning. Vital involuntary processes, including the regulation of the heartbeat and respiratory rhythm, are controlled by the medulla oblongata located in the brainstem. Furthermore, the cerebellum is responsible for motor control, ensuring precision, coordination, and balancing the body during movement. Since the brain integrates these cognitive, autonomic, and motor functions, it is responsible for all the processes mentioned.
117Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
Indian Veterinary Research Institute is located at
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Answer: (A) Bareilly
Explanation
The Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) is a premier research organization dedicated to veterinary medicine and animal sciences. It was founded in 1889 as the Imperial Bacteriological Laboratory and is currently headquartered in Izatnagar, located within the Bareilly district of Uttar Pradesh. Administered by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), the institute was conferred the status of a Deemed University in 1983. It plays a central role in conducting research on animal health and livestock productivity, as well as providing postgraduate education and training in veterinary disciplines.
118Science and Technology
Pungency in chillies is due to the presence of
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Answer: (B) Capsaicine
Explanation
Capsaicin is an alkaloid compound found in the fruits of plants belonging to the genus Capsicum, such as chili peppers. It is concentrated primarily in the internal membranes or placental tissue that surrounds the seeds. The pungency occurs when capsaicin binds to the Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 1 (TRPV1) receptors on the sensory neurons in the oral cavity. These receptors are heat-activated ion channels that normally function to detect thermal pain. By binding to these receptors, capsaicin produces a burning sensation that the brain interprets as spiciness or pungency. The concentration of this compound determines the heat level of the pepper, which is measured using the Scoville scale.
119Economy
Which one of the following food materials contains all essential amino acids?
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Answer: (C) Egg
Explanation
Eggs are considered a complete protein source because they provide all nine essential amino acids that the human body cannot synthesize on its own. These include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. In nutritional science, eggs are frequently used as the reference protein or gold standard to evaluate the protein quality of other food materials due to their ideal amino acid profile and high bioavailability. The high biological value of egg protein indicates that it is efficiently absorbed and utilized by the body for various physiological functions, including tissue repair and enzyme production.
120Geography
The Earth's axis of rotation (polar axis) is always inclined at an angle of
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Answer: (D) 23.5° from the elliptic axis
Explanation
The Earth's axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5° relative to the perpendicular to the ecliptic plane, which is the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun. This angle is known as the axial tilt or obliquity of the ecliptic. While the axis is tilted 23.5° from the vertical (the line perpendicular to the orbital plane), it makes an angle of 66.5° with the orbital plane itself. This inclination is a fundamental characteristic of the Earth's movement in space and is primarily responsible for the variation in the intensity and duration of sunlight reaching different parts of the globe, which creates the seasonal cycle. Over very long periods of time, this tilt oscillates slightly due to gravitational interactions with other celestial bodies, but for general geographic and astronomical purposes, 23.5° is the standard value.
121History
The accounts of Kalinga War is known to us by the
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Answer: (A) Rock Edict-XIII
Explanation
Major Rock Edict XIII provides the most comprehensive and direct account of the Kalinga War, which took place in the eighth year of Ashoka's reign. In this inscription, Ashoka expresses his profound grief and remorse over the massive loss of life and suffering caused by the conflict, noting that 100,000 people were killed and 150,000 were taken captive. The edict is historically significant because it records Ashoka's subsequent conversion to Buddhism and his policy shift from Bherighosha (conquest by force) to Dhammaghosha (conquest by righteousness). It serves as a primary administrative record of the Maurya Empire's expansion and the internal transformation of its ruler.
122History
Three human skeletons in a single grave were recovered at
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Answer: (B) Damdama
Explanation
Damdama is a Mesolithic site located in the Pratapgarh district of Uttar Pradesh that was excavated by researchers from Allahabad University. The site is significant for the discovery of 41 human burials within its habitation area. Archaeological evidence from these excavations revealed that while the majority were single burials, there were five double burials and exactly one grave that contained three human skeletons buried together. This triple burial provides important evidence regarding the funerary practices and social structure of Mesolithic communities in the Ganga valley.
123Science and Technology
Which yeast is used for commercial production of ethanol?
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Answer: (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Explanation
Saccharomyces cerevisiae, commonly known as brewer's yeast or baker's yeast, is the primary microorganism used in the commercial production of ethanol. It facilitates the fermentation process by converting simple sugars like glucose, fructose, and sucrose into ethanol and carbon dioxide through anaerobic metabolism. The biochemical process can be represented by the equation C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂. This species is preferred for industrial applications because of its high fermentation efficiency, rapid growth rate, and remarkable tolerance to high concentrations of ethanol and low pH levels. These characteristics allow it to produce high yields of alcohol in large-scale bioreactors used for both the beverage industry and the production of fuel ethanol.
124Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases, released from bio-gas plant is used as a fuel gas?
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Answer: (C) Methane
Explanation
Biogas is a renewable energy source produced through the anaerobic digestion of organic materials, such as agricultural waste, animal manure, municipal waste, and plant material, by microorganisms in an oxygen-free environment. The principal combustible component of biogas is methane (CH₄), which typically constitutes about 50% to 75% of the total gas mixture. Methane is a high-energy gas that burns efficiently, making it the primary fuel extracted from biogas plants for use in heating, cooking, and electricity generation. While the mixture also contains carbon dioxide (CO₂) and trace amounts of other gases, it is the methane content that determines the calorific value and fuel utility of the biogas.
125Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used in the treatment of blood cancer?
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Answer: (C) Phosphorus-32
Explanation
Phosphorus-32 (³²P) is a radioactive isotope used in nuclear medicine for the treatment of blood-related disorders, specifically polycythemia vera and certain types of leukemia. As a beta-emitter, it provides targeted radiation to the bone marrow, which is the primary site of blood cell production. Because phosphorus is a fundamental component of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA, it is readily taken up by the rapidly dividing malignant cells in the marrow. Once incorporated, the ionizing radiation emitted during the decay of ³²P suppresses the overactive bone marrow and reduces the uncontrolled proliferation of blood cells, thereby managing the progression of the disease.
126History
Who was the founder of 'Vikramshila Vihar'?
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Answer: (C) Dharmapal
Explanation
Dharmapala, the second ruler of the Pala dynasty who reigned from approximately 770 to 810 CE, established the Vikramshila Vihar. Located in the Bhagalpur district of present-day Bihar, this monastery and university was founded to maintain the high standards of Buddhist scholarship. Dharmapala was a devout follower of Buddhism and used his imperial resources to build this institution, which eventually became one of the most important centers of learning in India alongside Nalanda. The university was particularly renowned for its curriculum in Vajrayana Buddhism and logic, attracting scholars from across Asia and fostering significant cultural and religious exchanges with Tibet.
127History
Which city was founded by Krishna Deva Raya?
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Answer: (B) Nagalapura
Explanation
Krishna Deva Raya, the most illustrious ruler of the Tuluva dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded the suburban township of Nagalapura near the capital city of Vijayanagara. He established this city in memory of his mother, Nagala Devi. This foundation was part of his extensive contribution to urban development and temple architecture, reflecting the prosperity and cultural zenith reached by the empire during his reign from 1509 to 1529.
128Art and Culture
Jahangir mainly patronised which of the following arts?
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Answer: (A) Painting
Explanation
Jahangir was a passionate connoisseur of art whose reign is considered the golden age of Mughal painting. He shifted the focus of the imperial atelier from large-scale manuscript illustrations to individual portraits and detailed studies of nature, including flowers, birds, and animals. His memoirs, the Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri, record his deep technical knowledge and his claim that he could distinguish the work of different masters in a single composite painting. Under his patronage, artists like Ustad Mansur, Abul Hasan, and Bishandas achieved unparalleled refinement in naturalism and brushwork, marking a peak in the evolution of Indian miniature painting.
129History
Who was called 'a slave of a slave'?
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Answer: (D) Iltutmish
Explanation
Iltutmish is known in medieval Indian history as the slave of a slave because of his master-slave lineage. He was originally purchased as a slave by Qutubuddin Aibak, the first Sultan of Delhi. Aibak himself was a slave of the Ghurid ruler Muhammad Ghori. Thus, since Iltutmish was the slave of a man who was also a slave, he earned this specific title. Despite his humble beginnings, Iltutmish rose to prominence through his military and administrative skills, eventually succeeding Aibak and receiving formal manumission to rule as the Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate.
130History
Which Mughal ruler out of the following learnt Hindu Music from Lala Kalavant?
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Answer: (C) Akbar
Explanation
Akbar was a distinguished patron of music and took a keen interest in learning the technicalities of the art. Historical records, including the accounts in the Ain-i-Akbari, note that he studied Hindu vocal music under the tutelage of Lala Kalavant, who was a celebrated musician of the era. Akbar himself was an accomplished musician, particularly known for his mastery of the Naqqara (kettle drum). His engagement with Lala Kalavant highlights his efforts to integrate and understand the indigenous musical traditions of India within the Mughal court.
131History
During the Mughal period, the Madras which was specialized in the teaching of 'Muslim Jurisprudence', was located in
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Answer: (A) Lucknow
Explanation
During the Mughal period, educational institutions often specialized in specific branches of Islamic learning to maintain high academic standards. The Madrasa at Firangi Mahal in Lucknow became the preeminent center for Muslim Jurisprudence (Fiqh). This specialization was formalised through the Dars-i-Nizami curriculum developed by Mulla Nizamuddin Sihalwi during the reign of Aurangzeb. This syllabus placed a heavy emphasis on jurisprudence and rational sciences (Maqulat), distinguishing Lucknow as the intellectual capital for legal studies. While other centers like Delhi were more famous for the study of Hadith, Lucknow attracted students from across the Indian subcontinent specifically for its expertise in Islamic law and legal theory.
132History
In which year, did Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the battle of Panipat?
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Answer: (B) 1526 A.D.
Explanation
The First Battle of Panipat was fought on April 21, 1526, between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire. Babur, the Timurid ruler of Kabulistan, defeated the significantly larger army of Ibrahim Lodi, the Sultan of Delhi. This victory was a landmark event in Indian history as it marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire. Babur’s success is largely attributed to his use of field artillery and superior cavalry tactics, such as the tulughma (encirclement) and the araba (wagons used as a barricade), which were revolutionary in the Indian subcontinent at the time. Ibrahim Lodi was killed on the battlefield, making him the only Sultan of Delhi to die in action.
133History
Sir Thomas Munro was Governor of Madras during:
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Answer: (A) 1820-1827 A.D.
Explanation
Sir Thomas Munro served as the Governor of Madras from 1820 to 1827. He is most significantly remembered for the introduction and implementation of the Ryotwari System in the Madras Presidency, which allowed for a direct land revenue settlement between the colonial government and the individual cultivators, or ryots. His tenure came to an end upon his death from cholera on July 6, 1827, at Pattikonda in the Kurnool district while he was on a tour of the Ceded Districts. Throughout his administrative career in India, he advocated for a system of governance that respected local traditions and avoided the creation of large-scale landlords.
134History
'The Roots of Ancient India' was written by
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Answer: (C) W.A.Fairservis
Explanation
Walter Ashlin Fairservis Jr. was a distinguished American archaeologist and anthropologist who specialized in the study of the prehistoric and proto-historic cultures of the Indian subcontinent. His highly influential book, The Roots of Ancient India: The Archaeology of Early Indian Civilization, was first published in 1971. In this work, Fairservis provides a detailed chronological and cultural synthesis of early India, spanning from the Paleolithic period to the decline of the Indus Valley Civilization. The text is noted for its focus on the relationship between environmental factors and cultural development, establishing him as a key figure in South Asian archaeology.
135History
From which rock shelter of Vindhyas, maximum number of human skeletons have been found?
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Answer: (D) Lekhahia
Explanation
Lekhahia is a major Mesolithic site located in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh within the Vindhyan range. Excavations conducted by G.R. Sharma of the University of Allahabad revealed a significant density of human remains at this location. Specifically, in Lekhahia Rock Shelter 1, researchers identified 17 human skeletons, and overall, some reports count as many as 27 human skeletons from the site. This discovery marks the highest number of human skeletal remains found at any single rock shelter in the Vindhyas, providing vital evidence regarding the burial customs, health, and demographics of the Mesolithic people in the region.
136History
The name of D.K. Karve of Western India figures in the context of which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Women Education
Explanation
Dhondo Keshav Karve, also known as Maharshi Karve, was a prominent social reformer in Maharashtra who focused on the empowerment of women through schooling and higher learning. His most landmark contribution was the establishment of the Shreemati Nathibai Damodar Thackersey (SNDT) Women's University in 1916, which was the first university for women in India and South Asia. He also founded the Hindu Widows' Home Association in 1896 in Pune to provide education to widows, helping them become self-reliant. His lifelong efforts in promoting female literacy and institutionalizing women's education led to him being awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1958.
137History
'The last Sun of Indian glory' has been used for
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Answer: (D) Hemu
Explanation
Hemu, also known as Hemchandra Vikramaditya, was a 16th-century Hindu king who briefly ruled Delhi after defeating the Mughal forces of Akbar in the Battle of Delhi (1556). Having won twenty-two consecutive battles throughout North India, he assumed the title of 'Vikramaditya' and revived the Hindu monarchy in the heart of the Indo-Gangetic plain. In the context of medieval Indian history and competitive examination literature (such as Lucent's General Knowledge and regional PSC materials), he is referred to as the 'Last Sun of Indian Glory' (or 'Last Sun of Hindu Glory') because he was the last Hindu ruler to successfully occupy the throne of Delhi before the Mughal Empire established long-term dominance. His reign ended shortly after his defeat and death at the Second Battle of Panipat in November 1556.
138History
Who among the following were prominent leaders of the Khilafat Movement?
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Answer: (A) Maulana Mohammad Ali and Saukat Ali
Explanation
The Khilafat Movement was a significant political protest launched in 1919 by Indian Muslims to protect the status of the Ottoman Caliph as the spiritual head of the Islamic world following the defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I. Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers, were the primary architects and most prominent leaders of this movement. They established the All India Khilafat Committee in March 1919 to mobilize support and pressure the British government. Their leadership was instrumental in forging a landmark alliance with Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress, which merged the Khilafat cause with the Non-Cooperation Movement to create a unified front against colonial rule.
139HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
The Deoband Movement in U. P. (United Province) started in
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Answer: (D) 1866 A.D.
Explanation
The Deoband Movement was an orthodox Islamic revivalist movement established by the Muslim Ulema in the United Provinces. It officially commenced with the founding of the Darul Uloom at Deoband in the Saharanpur district on May 30, 1866. Led by prominent theologians Muhammad Qasim Nanautavi and Rashid Ahmad Gangohi, the movement sought to propagate the pure teachings of the Quran and Hadith while fostering a spirit of resistance against British colonial rule. The movement focused on preserving traditional Islamic culture and providing religious instruction to the Muslim community to ensure their moral and religious regeneration.
140History
What was the name of the party formed by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das in 1923 A.D.?
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Answer: (C) Swaraj Party
Explanation
The Swaraj Party, originally known as the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party, was established in January 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. The formation of this party was a reaction to the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the subsequent disagreement within the Indian National Congress regarding legislative council entry. C.R. Das served as the President of the party and Motilal Nehru as one of its secretaries. Known as pro-changers, the leaders aimed to contest elections and enter the provincial and central legislative councils to wreck the government from within and expose the weaknesses of the colonial administrative system.
141History
Which of the following was first victim of Lord Dalhousie's policy of doctrine of lapse?
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Answer: (B) Satara
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse to annex princely states that lacked a direct natural heir. Satara was the inaugural state annexed under this policy in 1848 following the death of Raja Appa Sahib. Although the Raja had adopted a son before his passing, the British East India Company refused to recognize the adoption as valid for the purpose of succession to the throne. Dalhousie argued that since Satara was a subordinate state created by the British in 1818, the right of succession reverted to the paramount power in the absence of a biological male heir. This established the administrative precedent for future annexations based on the denial of traditional adoption rights.
142History
Match
List-I:
(A) First Carnatic War
(B) Third Carnatic War
(C) Second Carnatic War
(D) First Mysore War
List-II:
1. Ended by War Treaty of Paris
2. Britishers Lost
3. Inconclusive War
4. Ended by War Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle
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Answer: (C) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Explanation
First Carnatic War (1746-48) ended with Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (4). Third Carnatic War (1757-63) ended with Treaty of Paris (1). Second Carnatic War (1749-54) was inconclusive (3). First Mysore War (1767-69) = British lost (2). Code: A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 = Option C.
143History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) First Carnatic War
(B) Third Carnatic War
(C) Second Carnatic War
(D) First Mysore War
List-II:
1. Ended by Treaty of Paris
2. Britishers Lost
3. Inconclusive War
4. Ended by Treaty of Aix La Chapelle
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Answer: (C) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
The First Carnatic War (1746–1748) was an extension of the War of the Austrian Succession in Europe and ended with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 1748, which restored Madras to the English. The Third Carnatic War (1758–1763) was part of the global Seven Years' War and concluded with the Treaty of Paris in 1763, which decisively established British supremacy over the French in India. The Second Carnatic War (1749–1754) was fought over local succession disputes in Hyderabad and the Carnatic without formal declaration of war between England and France; it ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry and is regarded as an inconclusive war as it did not result in a final victory for either European power. The First Mysore War (1767–1769) saw Hyder Ali maneuver his forces to the outskirts of Madras, forcing the British into a humiliating peace through the Treaty of Madras, marking a conflict where the Britishers lost.
144Polity and Governance
A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within
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Answer: (B) 14 days
Explanation
Article 109 of the Constitution of India dictates the special procedure regarding Money Bills, which ensures the pre-eminence of the Lok Sabha in financial matters. Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha is constitutionally mandated to return the bill to the Lok Sabha within a strict period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. According to Article 109(5), if the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within this 14-day timeframe, the bill is automatically deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in the exact form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
145Polity and Governance
The constitutional authority, vested with the power of declaring castes and tribes as the scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, is the
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Answer: (A) President of India
Explanation
Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution of India vest the President with the power to specify the castes, races, or tribes to be deemed as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. According to these provisions, the President may, with respect to any State or Union Territory, and after consultation with the Governor in the case of a State, issue a public notification specifying these groups. While the Parliament has the power to amend these lists through legislation, the primary constitutional authority for the declaration and notification of the original lists resides with the President. This executive power ensures that the identification of marginalized groups for constitutional benefits is formalized under the highest office of the Union.
146History
What was the name of the movement started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan against British?
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Answer: (A) Red Shirt
Explanation
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, popularly known as Frontier Gandhi, founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement in 1929 in the North-West Frontier Province. The organization was a non-violent resistance movement against British colonial rule, deeply influenced by Mahatma Gandhi's principles of Satyagraha. The members of this group wore uniforms dyed in red, which led to the movement being commonly referred to as the Red Shirt movement or Surkh Posh. The movement mobilized thousands of Pashtuns to participate in the struggle for independence, most notably during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
147History
Rabindra Nath Tagore gave up his 'knighthood' in protest to which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
Explanation
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April 13, 1919, when British troops under the command of General Dyer opened fire on a peaceful crowd gathered at Amritsar, Punjab. This brutal incident resulted in the deaths of hundreds of innocent people and caused nationwide outrage. Rabindranath Tagore, who had been awarded a knighthood by the British Crown in 1915, was profoundly moved by this inhumanity. In a letter to the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, dated May 30, 1919, Tagore renounced his knighthood as a mark of protest. He stated that the time had come when badges of honor made their shame glaring in the context of humiliation, and he wished to stand by the side of his countrymen who were liable to suffer degradation not fit for human beings.
148Science and Technology
The plants receive Nitrogen in form of
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Answer: (B) Nitrate
Explanation
Plants primarily absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrate (NO₃⁻). While atmospheric nitrogen is abundant, plants cannot utilize it directly and rely on soil bacteria to convert nitrogenous matter into soluble forms. Nitrate is highly mobile in the soil solution, allowing it to be easily transported to plant roots via mass flow and diffusion. Once absorbed, the plant reduces nitrate into ammonium to synthesize amino acids, nucleic acids, and chlorophyll.