Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Zinc - Rat poison Phosphide
Explanation
Zinc phosphide (Zn₃P₂) is an inorganic chemical compound widely utilized as a rodenticide for the control of rats, mice, and other pests. When a rodent ingests the bait containing zinc phosphide, the compound reacts with the hydrochloric acid present in the animal's stomach to release phosphine gas (PH₃). This phosphine gas is highly toxic, rapidly entering the bloodstream and causing systemic organ failure, particularly affecting the heart, lungs, and liver, which leads to the death of the rodent. Because of this specific chemical reaction and its high lethality to small mammals, zinc phosphide is the standard active ingredient in many commercial rat poisons.
2Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process?
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Answer: (B) CO₂
Explanation
Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is a fundamental reactant in the photosynthesis process. Green plants and other autotrophs capture this gas from the atmosphere through specialized pores called stomata. In the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll, the carbon from CO₂ is fixed and reduced to synthesize glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆), which serves as the primary energy source for the organism. The overall chemical reaction is represented as 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. Without the availability of carbon dioxide, the dark reaction (Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis cannot proceed, preventing the formation of organic matter and the release of oxygen as a byproduct.
3Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Morphine
(B) Sodium
(C) Boric Acid
(D) German Silver
List-II (Use):
1. Antiseptic
2. Alloy
3. Analgesic
4. Kerosene oil
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1
Explanation
Morphine matches with Analgesic (3) because it is an opioid medication used as a potent pain reliever for severe physical distress.
Sodium matches with Kerosene oil (4) because it is a highly reactive alkali metal that reacts violently with water and air, requiring storage under an inert liquid like kerosene.
Boric Acid matches with Antiseptic (1) because it possesses mild antibacterial and antifungal properties, making it suitable for treating minor cuts or use in eyewashes.
German Silver matches with Alloy (2) because it is a solid solution of copper, zinc, and nickel, characterized by its silver-like appearance despite containing no elemental silver.
4Science and Technology
Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease?
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Answer: (C) Amla
Explanation
Scurvy is a disease resulting from a deficiency of Vitamin C, or ascorbic acid, which is vital for the synthesis of collagen and the maintenance of connective tissues. Amla, also known as the Indian Gooseberry, is renowned for being one of the most concentrated natural sources of Vitamin C. Because the human body cannot synthesize Vitamin C, it must be obtained through the diet. Consuming Amla provides a high dosage of this essential nutrient, making it highly effective in both the prevention and the therapeutic treatment of scurvy symptoms such as bleeding gums, fatigue, and impaired wound healing.
5Science and Technology
Missile 'Astra' is a
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Answer: (C) Air to air missile
Explanation
Astra is India's first indigenous Beyond Visual Range air-to-air missile, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It is designed to be integrated onto fighter aircraft like the Sukhoi-30 MKI and the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft to engage and destroy highly maneuverable supersonic aerial targets. The missile incorporates advanced guidance and navigation techniques, including mid-course inertial guidance and terminal active radar homing, allowing it to strike enemy aircraft at various ranges and altitudes under all weather conditions. Development of this missile was a significant milestone in India's missile technology, reducing dependence on imported air-to-air weapon systems.
6Science and Technology
Golden rice has the highest quantity of
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Answer: (A) Vitamin A
Explanation
Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice developed to produce beta-carotene, a provitamin that the human body converts into Vitamin A. It was engineered by inserting genes from maize and a soil bacterium into the rice genome to complete the biosynthetic pathway for beta-carotene in the endosperm. The project was initiated to address Vitamin A deficiency (VAD) in populations that rely on rice as their primary source of calories but lack access to a diverse diet. The accumulation of beta-carotene in the grain gives the rice its distinctive golden color.
7Science and Technology
Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations?
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Answer: (A) Eyes
Explanation
The radiosensitivity of human organs is generally governed by the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which states that cells are more susceptible to radiation damage if they have a high division rate, a long dividing future, and are least specialized. Among the given options, the eyes, specifically the ocular lens, are the most susceptible to harmful radiations.
The lens of the eye is highly radiosensitive because its epithelial cells are constantly dividing but have no mechanism to shed or remove damaged cells. When ionizing radiation strikes these cells, it causes protein denaturation and cellular damage that leads to the formation of cataracts. This damage can occur at relatively low radiation doses compared to other organs. While the lungs also contain sensitive epithelial and endothelial tissues, they have a higher threshold for damage, such as radiation pneumonitis, than the lens does for cataractogenesis. The heart and the brain are composed of highly differentiated, non-dividing cells, which makes them significantly more radioresistant to the harmful effects of ionizing radiation.
8Science and Technology
The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of
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Answer: (B) Bharti
Explanation
Bharati is the third permanent research station established by India in Antarctica under the Indian Antarctic Programme. Located in the Larsemann Hills at approximately 69 degrees South latitude and 76 degrees East longitude, the station was conceptualized to facilitate advanced research in oceanography and the study of continental break-up. It follows India's previous stations, Dakshin Gangotri and Maitri, and was specifically designed to help scientists explore the geological link between the Indian subcontinent and Antarctica, which were once part of the supercontinent Gondwanaland. The station is constructed using specialized shipping containers and is engineered to withstand extreme polar conditions while maintaining a minimal environmental footprint.
9Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) J. Perkins: Penicillin
Explanation
Penicillin was discovered by the Scottish scientist Alexander Fleming in 1928, a breakthrough that earned him the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945. Jacob Perkins was an American inventor and physicist who is primarily credited with designing the first working vapor-compression refrigeration system in 1834. Since the discovery of the antibiotic Penicillin is historically attributed to Fleming and not Perkins, this pairing is inaccurate.
10Science and Technology
The minimum height of a plane mirror to see full size image of a person is equal to
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Answer: (B) half the height of the person
Explanation
According to the laws of reflection, for a person to see their full image in a plane mirror, light rays from the top of the head and the bottom of the feet must reflect off the mirror and enter the person's eyes. Let H be the total height of the person. If the distance from the eyes to the top of the head is h₁ and the distance from the eyes to the feet is h₂, then H = h₁ + h₂. To see the top of the head, the mirror must extend to a point halfway between the eyes and the head, covering a vertical distance of h₁/2. To see the feet, the mirror must extend to a point halfway between the eyes and the feet, covering a vertical distance of h₂/2. The minimum height of the mirror required is the sum of these two segments: h₁/2 + h₂/2 = (h₁ + h₂)/2 = H/2. This geometric relationship remains constant regardless of the person's distance from the mirror.
11Science and Technology
Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloon because it
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Answer: (D) does not form an explosive mixture with air
Explanation
Helium is a noble gas belonging to Group 18 of the periodic table, characterized by a completely filled valence shell. This electronic configuration makes it chemically inert and non-combustible under standard atmospheric conditions. Unlike hydrogen, which is highly flammable and reacts vigorously with oxygen (O₂) to form water (H₂O) in an exothermic reaction, helium does not undergo combustion or support it. Consequently, helium does not form explosive mixtures with air, making it the safer choice for use in balloons and airships where the risk of fire must be eliminated.
12Science and Technology
Which one of the following is Not formed in the human body?
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Answer: (A) Vitamin A
Explanation
Vitamin A is an essential fat-soluble nutrient that the human body cannot synthesize endogenously from basic metabolic precursors. It must be obtained through the diet either as preformed vitamin A (retinol and its esterified forms) found in animal-derived foods or as provitamin A carotenoids, such as beta-carotene, found in plants. Although the human body can convert these dietary carotenoids into active vitamin A within the liver and small intestine, it lacks the biological machinery to form the vitamin entirely on its own. This necessity for external intake is a defining characteristic of most vitamins, which are required for critical physiological functions like vision and immune health but are not produced by human cellular processes.
13Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a part of Infotec terminology?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Information technology terminology refers to the specialized vocabulary used in computing, telecommunications, and data management. A protocol is a fundamental set of rules or standards that define how data is transmitted and received between different devices in a network, such as the Transmission Control Protocol or Hypertext Transfer Protocol. A login is the process or the set of credentials used to authenticate a user and provide access to a computer system or digital network. Since both terms are essential concepts in the operation and communication of modern computing systems, they are both considered core components of IT terminology.
14Science and Technology
Inventor and founder of www
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Answer: (A) Tim Berners
Explanation
Sir Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web in 1989 while working as a software engineer at CERN, the particle physics laboratory in Switzerland. He developed the fundamental technologies that remain the basis of the modern web, including Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and Uniform Resource Locators (URLs). In 1990, he wrote the first web browser and established the first web server. To ensure the web remained an open and global platform, he founded the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) in 1994 at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology to develop interoperable technologies and standards. He is widely recognized for his decision to make the source code of the web available for free, allowing for its rapid global expansion.
15Science and Technology
Assertion (A): If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R): He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation
Assertion (A) is false because green vegetables are not the exclusive source of Vitamin A. A person can maintain healthy levels of this vitamin by consuming other rich sources such as carrots, sweet potatoes, pumpkins, milk, eggs, and liver. Therefore, stopping the intake of green vegetables does not automatically result in night blindness. Reason (R) is true because night blindness is a clinical manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency. This deficiency impairs the production of rhodopsin, a light-sensitive pigment in the retina that is essential for vision in low-light or dim conditions.
16Science and Technology
Anosmia is
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Answer: (B) loss of the sense of smell
Explanation
Anosmia is a medical condition characterized by the complete loss of the ability to detect odors. This sensory deficit occurs when there is an interruption in the olfactory pathway, which may be caused by physical blockages in the nasal cavity, inflammation of the nasal mucosa, or damage to the olfactory nerves and the brain regions responsible for processing scents. It is distinct from hyposmia, which is a reduced ability to smell, and can significantly impact the perception of flavor, as smell plays a critical role in the sensory experience of food. Common triggers for the condition include upper respiratory infections, head trauma, and chronic sinonasal disease.
17Science and Technology
Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera?
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Answer: (A) Film
Explanation
The retina is the light-sensitive innermost layer of the eye where the lens focuses images. It contains photoreceptor cells, such as rods and cones, which detect light and convert it into neural signals. In a traditional camera, the film acts as the recording medium and is coated with light-sensitive chemicals. Much like the retina, the film is positioned at the back of the device where the image is projected and captured. Both the retina and the film serve the identical functional role of being the surface upon which a focused optical image is received and recorded for further processing.
18Science and Technology
AIDS is caused by
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Answer: (D) Virus
Explanation
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a member of the lentivirus genus within the retrovirus family. This virus infects vital cells in the human immune system, such as helper T cells (specifically CD4+ T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells. By integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA, the virus replicates and systematically destroys these immune cells. The resulting severe loss of immune function makes the individual highly susceptible to life-threatening infections and malignancies. HIV is primarily transmitted through the exchange of bodily fluids during unprotected sexual contact, contaminated blood transfusions, or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
19Science and Technology
Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is:
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Answer: (C) Gambusia
Explanation
Gambusia affinis, commonly known as the mosquitofish, is a freshwater fish widely utilized globally as a biological control agent against mosquitoes. It is particularly effective because it is a surface feeder that predominantly preys on mosquito larvae and pupae. By consuming these larvae before they can mature into adult insects, Gambusia helps significantly reduce the transmission of mosquito-borne diseases such as malaria and dengue. Its high reproductive capacity, resilience in diverse aquatic environments, and specialized diet make it a primary tool in integrated pest management programs aimed at controlling mosquito populations without the use of chemical insecticides.
20Science and Technology
Which of the following is not the normal function of the human kidney?
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Answer: (B) Regulation of sugar level in the blood.
Explanation
The regulation of blood sugar levels is primarily the responsibility of the pancreas, which secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, while glucagon raises blood glucose by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose. While the kidneys are involved in filtering glucose from the blood and reabsorbing it back into the systemic circulation through the proximal convoluted tubules, they do not possess the sensory or endocrine mechanisms required to regulate and maintain homeostatic blood sugar concentrations. The appearance of glucose in urine typically occurs only when blood sugar levels exceed the renal threshold, which is a symptom of a metabolic issue rather than a normal regulatory function of the kidney.
21Science and Technology
With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated?
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Answer: (B) Blood clotting
Explanation
Thrombin is an essential serine protease enzyme that facilitates the blood clotting process by converting soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin strands. This conversion is the final step in the coagulation cascade, where the resulting fibrin network traps platelets and blood cells to form a stable clot at the site of vascular injury. Thrombin is generated from its inactive precursor, prothrombin, through the action of the prothrombinase complex. In addition to its role in fibrin formation, thrombin further promotes hemostasis by activating other clotting factors and stimulating platelet aggregation, ensuring the integrity of the circulatory system after tissue damage.
22Science and Technology
Indane gas is a mixture of
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Answer: (C) butane and propane
Explanation
Indane is a brand of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) marketed by the Indian Oil Corporation. LPG is a flammable mixture of hydrocarbon gases, primarily consisting of propane and butane. These alkanes are extracted during the refining of petroleum or from natural gas streams. In India, domestic LPG cylinders contain a pressurized mixture of these two gases in liquid form, which vaporizes upon release. While the exact ratio can vary based on regional standards and seasonal temperatures, the combination of butane and propane provides the necessary vapor pressure and energy density required for efficient household cooking.
23Science and Technology
BMD testing is done to diagnose
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Answer: (C) Osteoporosis
Explanation
Bone Mineral Density (BMD) testing is a medical procedure used to measure the level of minerals, primarily calcium, within a specific volume of bone. It is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis, a condition characterized by a decrease in bone mass and density that leads to increased bone fragility and risk of fractures. The most common method for measuring BMD is Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA or DXA) scan. The results are typically reported as a T-score, which compares the patient's bone density to that of a healthy young adult. According to the World Health Organization, a T-score of -2.5 or lower indicates the presence of osteoporosis, while scores between -1 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia.
24Science and Technology
Amniocentesis is a method used to determine the
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Answer: (A) foetal sex
Explanation
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure performed during pregnancy to detect chromosomal abnormalities and genetic defects in the fetus. The process involves using a needle to withdraw a small sample of amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains live fetal cells, such as those shed from the skin and respiratory tract, which carry the genetic information of the unborn child. By culturing these cells and performing a chromosomal analysis known as karyotyping, medical professionals can examine the complete set of chromosomes. Because this analysis identifies the sex chromosomes, XX for a female and XY for a male, amniocentesis serves as a definitive method to determine the foetal sex. While its primary medical purpose is to screen for conditions like Down syndrome or spina bifida, its ability to reveal the sex of the fetus is a direct application of the cellular analysis involved.
25Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?
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Answer: (B) Graphite
Explanation
Graphite is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors to slow down fast neutrons produced during the fission process. For a nuclear chain reaction to be sustained efficiently, neutrons must be decelerated to thermal energy levels, as slower neutrons have a significantly higher probability of being captured by U-235 nuclei to induce further fission.
A good moderator must have a low atomic mass to facilitate energy transfer through elastic collisions and a very low neutron absorption cross-section to ensure that neutrons are slowed down rather than being lost. Graphite, a crystalline form of carbon, fulfills these requirements effectively. Its high purity and structural stability at high temperatures allow it to maintain a consistent neutron flux within the reactor core. This property historically allowed for the development of reactors that could achieve criticality using natural uranium fuel.
26Science and Technology
The principle of 'Black hole' was enunciated by
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Answer: (C) S. Chandrashekhar
Explanation
Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar established the theoretical foundation for the final stages of stellar evolution by defining the Chandrasekhar Limit. This limit, which is approximately 1.44 times the mass of the Sun (M_☉), represents the maximum mass a white dwarf star can possess while remaining stable against gravitational collapse. He demonstrated that stars exceeding this mass threshold would continue to contract under their own gravity, eventually leading to the formation of neutron stars or black holes. His work provided the mathematical proof necessary to understand the lifecycle of massive stars and the inevitability of gravitational singularities, for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983.
27Science and Technology
Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
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Answer: (B) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
Explanation
Refrigeration works by lowering the temperature of food, which significantly slows down the kinetic energy of molecules involved in chemical and biological processes. The rate of these biochemical reactions, including microbial growth and enzymatic activity that lead to spoilage, is governed by the Arrhenius equation k = Ae⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ. In this equation, k represents the reaction rate constant and T is the absolute temperature. As the temperature T decreases, the value of k decreases exponentially, meaning the chemical transformations responsible for food decay proceed at a much slower pace. By maintaining a cold environment, refrigeration inhibits the metabolic functions of bacteria and fungi and reduces the speed of internal enzymatic reactions, thereby extending the shelf life of the food.
28Science and Technology
Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles?
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Answer: (B) Convex
Explanation
Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they always form an erect and virtual image of the objects behind the vehicle. These mirrors are curved outwards, which provides a significantly wider field of view compared to other mirror types. This allows the driver to monitor a much larger area of traffic than would be possible with a flat surface. While the images produced are diminished in size, the broad perspective of the road provided by the convex shape is essential for safety, lane changing, and awareness of approaching vehicles.
29Science and Technology
Electric bulb filament is made of
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Answer: (D) Tungsten
Explanation
Tungsten is the standard material for electric bulb filaments because it possesses the highest melting point of any metal in its pure form, reaching approximately 3422°C. This property allows the filament to reach the high temperatures necessary for incandescence—producing visible light—without melting. Furthermore, tungsten has a high electrical resistivity, which enables it to generate significant heat as current passes through it, and a very low vapor pressure at high temperatures, which prevents the filament from evaporating quickly and darkening the bulb's interior surface.
30History
The prince who responsible for the death of his father was
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Answer: (A) Ajatasatru
Explanation
Ajatasatru was a king of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha who ruled in the early 5th century BCE. According to Buddhist traditions recorded in texts like the Mahavamsa, he imprisoned his father, King Bimbisara, to seize the throne. Driven by his ambition and influenced by Devadatta, Ajatasatru eventually caused his father's death in prison, typically cited as starvation. This act of parricide is a well-documented event in ancient Indian history, earning him a reputation for ruthlessness during his rise to power. His reign subsequently saw the expansion of the Magadhan empire through the annexation of territories like Vaishali and Kashi.
31History
Gautam Buddha has attained Mahaparinirvana in the State of:
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Answer: (C) Malla
Explanation
Gautam Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at the age of 80 in Kushinagar. During the 6th century BCE, Kushinagar served as the capital of the Malla Mahajanapada, which was one of the prominent ancient Indian republics. After traveling from Pava and falling ill, the Buddha reached a grove of Sal trees belonging to the Mallas near the Hiranyavati River. It was at this location that he delivered his final instructions to his disciples and passed into the state of final liberation. The Malla clan took responsibility for his funeral rites and the initial preservation of his relics.
32History
Buddha has delivered maximum sermons at
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Answer: (B) Sravasti
Explanation
Gautama Buddha spent the largest part of his monastic life in Sravasti, which was the capital of the Kosala kingdom. Records indicate that he observed twenty-five rainy season retreats (Varshavas) in Sravasti, staying nineteen seasons at the Jetavana monastery and six seasons at the Purvarama monastery. Because he resided there longer than any other location, he delivered the maximum number of his sermons and discourses in this city. A vast majority of the teachings recorded in the Pali Canon are attributed to the period the Buddha spent preaching to the large community of monks and lay followers established in Sravasti.
33History
The first Gupta ruler who is sued coins was
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Answer: (B) Chandragupta I
Explanation
Chandragupta I, who reigned from approximately 319 to 335 CE, was the first ruler of the Gupta dynasty to issue gold coins. These coins are famously known as the Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type, featuring portraits of the king and his queen, who was a Lichchhavi princess, on the obverse. The introduction of this coinage coincided with his assumption of the imperial title Maharajadhiraja, which established the sovereign status of the Gupta Empire. The issuance of these gold coins served as a symbol of the dynasty's rising political authority and economic prosperity during his reign, distinguishing him as the pioneer of Gupta numismatics.
34History
The writer of Mahabhasya 'Patanjali' was a contemporary of
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Answer: (C) Pushyamitra Sunga
Explanation
Patanjali, the great grammarian and author of the Mahabhasya, flourished during the 2nd century BCE and was a contemporary of the Sunga king Pushyamitra Sunga. Internal evidence within the Mahabhasya provides direct historical links to this period, most notably through Patanjali’s mention of conducting a horse sacrifice (Ashvamedha) for Pushyamitra Sunga. He uses the present tense in the phrase iha pushyamitram yajayamah to signify his personal participation in the ritual. Additionally, Patanjali refers to the Greek or Yavana incursions into Indian territories like Saketa and Madhyamika, events which are historically recorded as having taken place during the reign of the first Sunga monarch. This textual evidence firmly establishes his chronological placement within the Sunga era.
35History
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Vikram Samvat began in 58 BC.
2. Saka Samvat began in 78 AD.
3. Gupta era began in 319 AD.
4. The era of Muslim rule in India began in 192 AD.
Code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Vikram Samvat era was established in 58 BC, traditionally attributed to King Vikramaditya of Ujjain to commemorate his victory over the Sakas. The Saka Samvat began in 78 AD and is widely believed to have been started by the Kushan emperor Kanishka upon his accession to the throne; it currently serves as the basis for the Indian National Calendar. The Gupta era commenced in 319 AD, marking the coronation of Chandragupta I, which signaled the rise of the Gupta Empire in northern India. The fourth statement is historically inaccurate as the establishment of Muslim rule in India is generally dated to 1192 AD following the Second Battle of Tarain, whereas 192 AD predates the birth of Prophet Muhammad and the emergence of Islam.
36History
Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer?
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Answer: (A) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti
Explanation
Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti, popularly known as Khwaja Gharib Nawaz, was the first major Sufi saint of the Chisti Silsila to establish a permanent base in India. He arrived in the Indian subcontinent from Sistan via Lahore and Delhi in the late 12th century, eventually settling in Ajmer during the reign of Prithviraj Chauhan. His arrival marked the beginning of the Chisti order's influence in the region. He transformed Ajmer into a significant center for spiritual and social activities, where he lived until his death in 1236 CE. His presence in Ajmer predates the establishment of other major Chisti centers in Delhi or elsewhere by his successors and disciples.
37History
Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also?
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Answer: (B) Firoz Tughlaq
Explanation
Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the first Sultan of Delhi to impose Jaziya on Brahmins, who had previously been exempted from this tax under earlier rulers. His reign was marked by a strict adherence to Sharia and the influence of the Ulema in state affairs. He viewed the exemption of Brahmins as a violation of religious law and argued that as they were the leaders of the non-Muslim community, they must also pay the tax. Despite widespread protests and hunger strikes by Brahmins in Delhi, the Sultan refused to withdraw the order, eventually forcing the community to comply, although the tax was collected at a lower rate for them.
38History
Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
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Answer: (D) Tipu Sultan
Explanation
Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore, was a pioneer in recognizing the significance of international diplomacy to counter British expansion in India. He established embassies in various foreign countries on modern lines, sending diplomatic missions to the Ottoman Empire (Istanbul) in 1787 and to France (Versailles) in 1788. These missions sought military and commercial alliances, with the embassy to France specifically aiming for a treaty with Louis XVI. He also maintained diplomatic correspondence with Napoleon Bonaparte, the Sultan of Oman, and the Zamaun Shah of Afghanistan. By adopting formal diplomatic protocols, including the exchange of credentials and specific negotiating mandates, Tipu Sultan attempted to internationalize the conflict against the British East India Company and modernize Mysore's external relations.
39History
During the 13th and 14th Centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate
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Answer: (D) Maize
Explanation
Maize is a New World crop native to Central America and was introduced to the Indian subcontinent by the Portuguese explorers and traders. This introduction occurred only after the end of the 15th century, following Vasco da Gama's arrival in Calicut in 1498. Since the 13th and 14th centuries fall within the Delhi Sultanate period and predate European maritime contact with the Americas, maize was not available for cultivation by Indian peasants during that time. It became a significant part of Indian agriculture only during the Mughal period in the 16th and 17th centuries.
40HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who among the following was the founder of Agra?
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Answer: (C) Sikandar Lodhi
Explanation
Sikandar Lodhi founded the city of Agra in 1504. He established the settlement to serve as a strategic military base and administrative center, allowing him to exercise better control over the rebellious chiefs of the Doab region and to monitor the routes leading to Gwalior and Malwa. In 1506, he officially shifted the capital of the Delhi Sultanate from Delhi to Agra. Under his patronage, the city began its transformation into a significant political and cultural center, a status that was further elevated later during the Mughal era.
41History
With which Mughal General did Shivaji sign the famous Treaty of Purandhar in 1665 A.D.?
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Answer: (B) Jai Singh
Explanation
Raja Jai Singh I of Amber was a high-ranking Mughal general appointed by Emperor Aurangzeb to lead a massive campaign against Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in the Deccan. After Jai Singh successfully besieged the strategic fort of Purandhar and applied intense military pressure, Shivaji realized the necessity of a diplomatic settlement to prevent further destruction. The Treaty of Purandhar was signed on June 11, 1665, between Jai Singh, representing the Mughal Empire, and Shivaji. According to the terms, Shivaji ceded twenty-three forts to the Mughals while retaining twelve for himself, agreed to provide military support for the Mughal invasion of Bijapur, and consented to send his son Sambhaji to the Mughal court as a mansabdar. Jai Singh's strategic victory and subsequent negotiations were pivotal in briefly bringing the Maratha ruler into the Mughal administrative fold.
42History
Who among the following had started 'Mitra Mela' Association?
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Answer: (B) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Explanation
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, along with his brother Ganesh Savarkar, started the Mitra Mela in 1899 at Nashik. It was a secret revolutionary organization founded to advocate for the absolute political independence of India from British rule. The association focused on physical training, the promotion of Swadeshi goods, and the dissemination of nationalistic ideas through literature and patriotic songs. In 1904, during a gathering of several hundred revolutionaries, the Mitra Mela was expanded and renamed the Abhinav Bharat Society, taking inspiration from Giuseppe Mazzini's Young Italy. This organization became one of the most influential secret societies in Western India, coordinating various revolutionary activities against the colonial administration.
43History
Who among the following had moved the Non co-operation resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920?
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Answer: (A) C.R. Das
Explanation
At the annual session of the Indian National Congress held in Nagpur in December 1920, Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) moved the main resolution on the Non-Cooperation Movement. Although he had initially opposed certain aspects of the program during the special Calcutta session in September 1920, he reached a compromise with Mahatma Gandhi before the Nagpur meet. The session, presided over by C. Vijayaraghavachariar, ratified the Non-Cooperation program and marked a pivotal shift in the Congress's creed toward the attainment of Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means. C.R. Das's role in moving the resolution signaled the unification of the Congress leadership behind Gandhi's mass movement strategy.
44History
The statement I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer in Kings and Princes is associated with
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Answer: (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru made this famous declaration during his presidential address at the Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress in April 1936. In this landmark speech, Nehru explicitly identified himself as a socialist and a republican, emphasizing that the only key to the solution of India's problems lay in socialism. His statement reflected a clear ideological stance against the feudal nature of the Princely States and the institution of monarchy, advocating for a democratic and egalitarian future for independent India. Under his influence during this period, the Congress party began to integrate more socialist principles into its national agenda.
45History
Arrange the following in the Chronological order, and Select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. The August Offer
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan
3. The Cripps Mission Plan
4. The Wavell Plan
Code:
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Answer: (B) 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation
The correct chronological order is: (1) August Offer, 1940 by Viceroy Linlithgow offering dominion status post-war; (3) Cripps Mission, 1942 to secure Indian cooperation during WWII; (4) Wavell Plan/Shimla Conference, 1945 to form an executive council; (2) Cabinet Mission, 1946 to plan transfer of power. The sequence 1, 3, 4, 2 corresponds to Option B.
46History
Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi?
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Answer: (D) Syed Haider Raza
Explanation
Syed Haider Raza was a prominent nationalist leader who organized and spearheaded the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi. After the partition of Bengal in 1905, the movement transitioned from a regional protest to a national struggle. Raza was instrumental in mobilizing public opinion in the Delhi region by organizing meetings and promoting the boycott of foreign goods while encouraging the use of indigenous products. His leadership ensured that the anti-partition agitation gained significant momentum in the capital, aligning with the efforts of other extremist leaders who sought to spread the movement across India.
47History
Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the 'Quit India Movement'?
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Answer: (D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Explanation
Jai Prakash Narayan was a prominent socialist leader who played a pivotal role in the underground phase of the Quit India Movement. Following the mass arrests of the Congress leadership in August 1942, he was imprisoned in the Hazaribagh Central Jail in Bihar. On the night of Diwali in November 1942, he made a daring escape from the prison along with five other inmates. After his escape, he crossed over into the Terai region of Nepal, where he organized the Azad Dasta, an underground guerilla force. This organization was designed to train volunteers in sabotage techniques, such as disrupting railway lines and telegraph wires, to paralyze the British administration. His efforts were instrumental in sustaining the momentum of the movement through secret channels when open protests were being suppressed by the colonial authorities.
48History
Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang?
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Answer: (C) Tatya Tope
Explanation
Tatya Tope was one of the most prominent military leaders of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. Born in 1814 in Yeola, Maharashtra, his birth name was Ram Chandra Pandurang Yawalkar. He was a close associate and loyal commander of Nana Saheb. He played a significant role in the siege of Kanpur and later led the rebel forces in Gwalior alongside Rani Lakshmibai. Tatya Tope is specifically remembered for his mastery of guerrilla warfare, which allowed him to evade and harass British forces across Central India for a prolonged period. He was eventually captured due to the betrayal of a local chieftain and was executed by the British at Shivpuri in April 1859.
49History
The only session of the Indian National Congress which was addressed by Mahatma Gandhi was held at
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Answer: (B) Belgaum
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi presided over the Indian National Congress session only once in his life, which was the 39th annual session held at Belgaum in December 1924. This session is historically significant as it marked Gandhi's return to active politics after his release from prison earlier that year. During this session, he worked to bridge the rift between the Swarajists and the No-changers, ultimately reaching a compromise that allowed the Swaraj Party to work within the legislative councils while remaining part of the Congress. Gandhi used his presidency to emphasize his constructive program, focusing on the promotion of Khadi, the removal of untouchability, and the necessity of Hindu-Muslim unity as essential requirements for achieving Swaraj. This remains the only instance where he served as the formal president of the organization.
50History
Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
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Answer: (B) B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was one of the few Indian leaders who participated in all three Round Table Conferences held in London between 1930 and 1932. Representing the Depressed Classes, he utilized these forums to demand political safeguards and separate electorates for the marginalized sections of Indian society. His involvement in the first session in 1930, the second session in 1931, and the third session in 1932 focused on securing legal and constitutional rights to ensure social and political equality in a future independent India. His persistent advocacy during these conferences played a crucial role in the announcement of the Communal Award and the negotiations that led to the Poona Pact. Alongside Ambedkar, Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was another prominent figure who attended all three sessions.
51History
Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
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Answer: (A) Surendranath Banerjee
Explanation
Surendranath Banerjee was the primary leader of the agitation against the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in 1905. Known as the Indian Burke, he spearheaded the Swadeshi and Boycott movements through the Indian Association and his newspaper, The Bengalee. He presided over the historic meeting at the Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905, where the Boycott resolution was formally adopted to protest the division of the province. His role in mobilizing public opinion and organizing mass protests across Bengal was instrumental in the early phase of the anti-partition struggle, which eventually led to the annulment of the partition in 1911.
52History
After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in?
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Answer: (A) Champaran
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in January 1915 and initially spent time traveling across the country to understand its social and political landscape. In 1917, at the request of Rajkumar Shukla, he visited the Champaran district in Bihar to address the plight of peasants forced by European planters to cultivate indigo under the oppressive Tinkathia system. This system required farmers to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land, often at a loss. Gandhi utilized the principles of Satyagraha for the first time in India to protest this exploitation. The movement forced the government to appoint an inquiry committee, which included Gandhi as a member, leading to the abolition of the Tinkathia system and a partial refund of illegally collected dues to the peasants.
53History
Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the 'Kakori Conspiracy Case'?
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Answer: (D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Explanation
Chandra Shekhar Azad was a key member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) and a central figure in the Kakori train robbery of 1925. Following the event, while the British authorities conducted widespread raids and arrested most of the participants, Azad managed to escape the police dragnet and remained a fugitive. He was declared an absconder in the subsequent Kakori Conspiracy Case trial. While several of his fellow revolutionaries were captured, sentenced to death, and executed in 1927, Azad continued his underground activities and reorganized the HRA into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He was never apprehended or hanged by the British judicial system, eventually dying in a self-inflicted gunshot during a police encounter at Alfred Park, Allahabad, in February 1931.
54Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following State has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second official language of the State?
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Answer: (D) Uttarakhand
Explanation
Uttarakhand became the first state in India to grant Sanskrit the status of its second official language in January 2010. This was achieved through the Uttarakhand Official Language (Amendment) Bill, which was passed under the administration of Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank. The decision was motivated by the state's deep cultural and religious roots, often referred to as Devbhoomi or the Land of the Gods, and aimed to promote the study and use of the ancient language in official capacities and educational institutions. This status allows for the use of Sanskrit in signboards, official ceremonies, and certain administrative documentations alongside Hindi, which is the primary official language.
55Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council?
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Answer: (B) 169
Explanation
Article 169 of the Constitution of India provides the legal mechanism for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in the states. Under this provision, the Parliament of India has the authority to create or abolish the upper house of a state legislature if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution requesting such a change. This resolution must be passed by a special majority, which is defined as a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. Following the state's resolution, the Parliament may then enact a law to give effect to the creation or abolition of the Council. Crucially, any such law passed by Parliament for this purpose is not considered an amendment to the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
56Polity and Governance
Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
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Answer: (A) Attorney General of India
Explanation
Under Article 88 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India has the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. As the highest law officer in the country appointed under Article 76, the Attorney General is granted this special privilege to provide legal counsel and represent the executive's perspective during legislative deliberations. While the Attorney General enjoys all the privileges and immunities available to a Member of Parliament, this right to participate in proceedings specifically excludes the right to vote.
57Polity and Governance
Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of
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Answer: (C) 1989
Explanation
The voting age in India was lowered from 21 years to 18 years through the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988, which amended Article 326 of the Constitution. This legislative change received presidential assent and came into force on March 28, 1989. As a result, the 1989 General Elections for the 9th Lok Sabha became the first national elections in which the newly eligible youth population aged 18 to 20 could exercise their right to vote. The amendment aimed to increase the involvement of the younger generation in the country's political process.
58Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
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Answer: (C) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.
Explanation
According to Article 75 and Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, Ministers can be members of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. There is no constitutional requirement or restriction that limits membership of the Cabinet specifically to the Lower House. A Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House or any committee of Parliament of which they may be named a member, regardless of which House they belong to. Furthermore, Article 75(5) allows a person who is not a member of either House to be appointed as a Minister for a maximum period of six months, after which they must be elected to either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha to continue in office. Numerous Prime Ministers and Cabinet Ministers in India have historically been members of the Upper House.
59Economy
Assertion (A): Kerala stands first in terms of human development index.
Reason (R): Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
According to the India Human Development Report 2011, Kerala ranked first among Indian states with a Human Development Index value of 0.790, driven by its high literacy rates, low infant mortality, and high life expectancy. At the same time, data from the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) 66th round and the Labour Bureau's 2010-11 report showed that Kerala had the highest unemployment rate in the country, largely due to a mismatch between the high educational attainment of its workforce and the availability of suitable local jobs. While both statements are factually accurate, the high unemployment rate does not explain or cause the high human development index; rather, the high HDI is a result of long-term investments in social sectors like education and health.
60Economy
Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership?
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Answer: (A) LIC Policy
Explanation
An LIC policy is unique because it is a participating instrument that allows the holder to share in the profits of the institution. Under the Life Insurance Corporation Act of 1956, the corporation is legally required to distribute 95% of its surplus (profit) to its policyholders in the form of bonuses. This profit-sharing mechanism grants the policyholder a quasi-ownership interest in the financial surplus of the corporation. In contrast, bank deposits, government savings certificates like Kisan Vikas Patra, and debentures are debt instruments where the investor acts strictly as a creditor. In those cases, the investor is entitled only to a fixed or predetermined interest payment and has no legal claim on the underlying profits or ownership of the issuing entity.
61Economy
The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is
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Answer: (A) Cess
Explanation
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) derives its primary funding from the Central Road Fund (CRF), which was established by the Central Road Fund Act, 2000. This fund is sustained through a dedicated cess levied on the sale of petrol and high-speed diesel across the country. The revenue generated from this cess is specifically earmarked for the development and maintenance of the national highway network. This reliable and consistent flow of capital serves as the backbone for the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), allowing NHAI to execute large-scale infrastructure projects and leverage these funds to secure additional financing from other sources.
62Economy
Which organisation promotes the foreign trade?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
ECGC (Export Credit Guarantee Corporation) promotes foreign trade by providing export credit insurance to Indian exporters against the risk of non-payment by foreign buyers, which encourages banks to provide more liberal credit facilities for international transactions. MMTC (Metals and Minerals Trading Corporation) is a premier international trading house that handles the export and import of high-volume commodities such as minerals, metals, and fertilizers, playing a central role in India's bulk trade operations. STC (State Trading Corporation) was established to manage and stimulate trade, particularly with state-trading nations, and deals in a diverse range of agricultural and industrial products to expand India's presence in global markets. These organizations collectively provide the financial security, logistical framework, and marketing expertise necessary to facilitate and grow the nation's external commerce.
63Economy
A letter of credit has to be produced by
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Answer: (B) an importer
Explanation
A Letter of Credit is a financial instrument used in international trade that acts as a guarantee from a bank that a seller will receive a buyer's payment in full and on time. The process is initiated by the importer, who requests their bank to issue the letter in favor of the exporter. By producing this document, the importer provides the exporter with security, as the bank assumes the obligation to pay once the terms of the credit, such as the shipment of goods and presentation of required documents, are met. This mechanism effectively transfers the credit risk from the importer to the issuing bank.
64Economy
Import procedure begins with
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Answer: (A) Indent
Explanation
The import procedure formally commences with the placement of an Indent. An indent is a comprehensive purchase order sent by an importer to an overseas supplier or an agent, detailing the specific requirements of the goods to be purchased. It includes essential information such as the description, quality, quantity, and price of the goods, as well as instructions regarding packing, shipping, and insurance. By issuing this document, the importer officially initiates the transaction, providing the exporter with the necessary authorization and specifications to prepare the shipment. This step typically occurs after the importer has obtained the necessary import licenses and secured a line of credit or foreign exchange.
65Economy
Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for import of goods?
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Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the statutory body and the central authority responsible for the management of foreign exchange in India under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. As the custodian of the country's foreign exchange reserves, the RBI regulates all transactions involving foreign currency to maintain the stability of the Indian Rupee and ensure the smooth flow of external trade. The RBI issues licenses to Authorised Dealers, such as commercial banks, to carry out foreign exchange transactions, but these entities must operate within the framework and limits prescribed by the central bank. Consequently, the RBI holds the ultimate power to sanction and control the allocation of foreign exchange for the purpose of importing goods into the country.
66Economy
Private Sector Mutual Funds in India were permitted in
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Answer: (B) 1993
Explanation
The Indian mutual fund industry was opened to the private sector in 1993, marking a significant shift from the previous era dominated by public sector entities. This change was formalized with the introduction of the SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1993, which provided a comprehensive regulatory framework for the operation of these funds. Kothari Pioneer, which later merged with Franklin Templeton, became the first private sector mutual fund to be registered in India in July 1993. This policy reform aimed to foster competition, enhance transparency, and provide a wider range of investment products to the public by allowing private asset management companies to operate in the domestic market.
67Economy
In the Union Budget 2011-2012, the effective rate of interest for farmers on timely repayment of Bank loan is
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Answer: (C) 4 percent
Explanation
In the Union Budget 2011-2012, the Government of India provided short-term crop loans to farmers at an interest rate of 7 percent per annum through the Interest Subvention Scheme. To incentivize disciplined borrowing and timely repayment, the Finance Minister increased the additional interest subvention for farmers who repay their loans on or before the due date from 2 percent to 3 percent. Subtracting this 3 percent prompt repayment incentive from the base interest rate of 7 percent results in an effective interest rate of 4 percent for such farmers.
68Economy
MODVAT is related to
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Answer: (B) Value Added Tax (VAT)
Explanation
MODVAT, which stands for Modified Value Added Tax, was introduced in the 1986-87 Union Budget to implement the principles of Value Added Tax within the existing central excise structure. It is a system that allows manufacturers to claim credit for the taxes paid on inputs and raw materials used in the production of goods. This mechanism ensures that the tax is ultimately levied only on the value added at each stage of the manufacturing process, effectively eliminating the cascading effect where tax is calculated on the tax already paid at earlier stages. By shifting the tax base to value addition, MODVAT streamlined the indirect tax system and served as the precursor to the CENVAT and the later Goods and Services Tax regimes.
69Science and Technology
Which among the following is the largest software company in India?
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Answer: (B) TCS
Explanation
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) was the largest Indian software company in 2011 based on total revenue, profitability, and market capitalization. During the fiscal year 2010-11, TCS achieved a significant milestone by becoming the first Indian IT services company to exceed 8 billion dollars in annual revenue. The company consistently held the top position in the annual industry rankings released by NASSCOM, which evaluated firms based on their export and domestic turnover. By March 2011, TCS had expanded its global workforce to over 200,000 employees, reinforcing its scale and dominant market share within the global information technology and consulting landscape. This period marked a phase of high growth where TCS maintained a substantial lead in financial performance and valuation over its domestic competitors.
70Economy
The largest producer of Sugar in India is
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
Maharashtra was the leading producer of sugar in India during the 2010-11 crushing season. The state dominance in the sugar industry is primarily due to the high concentration of cooperative sugar mills and the favorable agro-climatic conditions of the Deccan plateau. The tropical climate in Maharashtra allows for a longer crushing period and yields sugarcane with a higher sucrose content compared to the subtropical regions of North India. During the 2010-11 period, Maharashtra sugar output exceeded other states by producing approximately 9.05 million tonnes of sugar, which accounted for a substantial portion of the national total. The efficient cooperative model and better recovery rates from the cane varieties grown in the peninsular region were key factors in maintaining this top position.
71Economy
Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid?
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Answer: (B) Moong and Urad
Explanation
The Zaid season is a short cropping season that occurs between the harvesting of Rabi crops and the sowing of Kharif crops, typically from March to June. During this period, farmers in regions with reliable irrigation facilities utilize the summer heat to grow quick-maturing crops. Moong and Urad are short-duration pulses that fit perfectly into this window, often requiring only 60 to 70 days to reach maturity. These crops are particularly valued during Zaid because they are drought-tolerant but thrive with controlled irrigation, and their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen helps in maintaining soil health for the subsequent Kharif season. In the irrigated tracts of the Indo-Gangetic plains, these pulses provide an essential supplementary income and protein source during the summer months.
72Geography
Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia?
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Answer: (B) Kuwait
Explanation
Kuwait is recognized as one of the most urbanized countries globally and the most urbanized in West Asia, with an urban population rate reaching approximately 98 percent by 2011. The nation operates largely as a city-state where the population is concentrated within the Kuwait City metropolitan area. This extreme level of urbanization is a result of its geographic constraints, such as its small land area and harsh desert environment, coupled with a high-income economy focused on petroleum and trade that centralizes labor and infrastructure in urban centers.
73Geography
Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census of India 2011?
Use the code given below to select the correct answer:
1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep.
2. Chandigarh has the highest population density.
3. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the highest decadal growth of population
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
According to the provisional figures of the 2011 Census, Lakshadweep is the least populated administrative unit in India, with a total population of approximately 64,473. In terms of population density, Arunachal Pradesh recorded the lowest figure in the country, with only 17 persons per square kilometer. Regarding population growth, Dadra and Nagar Haveli registered the highest decadal growth rate of 55.88 percent between 2001 and 2011. These demographic indicators confirm the validity of statements 1, 3, and 4.
74Geography
Arrange the following State of India in descending order of their Forest-area and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Orissa
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Answer: (A) 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2011, the term Forest Area refers to the Recorded Forest Area (RFA), which represents land legally classified as forest in government records. The RFA values for the given states as per the 2011 report (which used data from ISFR 2009 and 2011) are as follows:
Andhra Pradesh: 63,814 km²
Maharashtra: 61,939 km²
Orissa: 58,136 km²
Arunachal Pradesh: 51,540 km²
Arranging these states in descending order of their Recorded Forest Area yields the sequence Andhra Pradesh (1) > Maharashtra (3) > Orissa (4) > Arunachal Pradesh (2). This corresponds to the code 1, 3, 4, 2. Unlike Forest Cover, which measures actual tree canopy, Recorded Forest Area is based on administrative and legal boundaries where Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra had larger designated tracts than Arunachal Pradesh during this period.
75Geography
In India the State with the largest area under very dense forests is
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Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has the largest area under the very dense forest category in India. The Forest Survey of India defines very dense forest as all lands with a tree canopy density of 70 percent and above. In the 2011 assessment, Arunachal Pradesh reported approximately 20,868 square kilometers of very dense forest, a figure that far exceeds the coverage in other states. This vast expanse of high-density canopy is largely due to the state's location in the Eastern Himalayas, characterized by high rainfall and a topography that limits human interference in primary forest zones.
76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States of India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate during 2001-2011?
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Answer: (A) Bihar
Explanation
Bihar registered the highest percentage point increase in literacy rate during the 2001-2011 decade according to the Census 2011 data. The state literacy rate jumped from 47.00 percent in 2001 to 61.80 percent in 2011, indicating an absolute increase of 14.80 percentage points. This growth was the most significant improvement recorded by any state in India during this period, driven largely by a substantial rise in female literacy which increased from 33.12 percent in 2001 to 51.50 percent in 2011.
77Economy
Which one of the following cities has the largest slump population?
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Answer: (C) Delhi
Explanation
Based on the demographic data from the Census of India 2001 and the provisional figures available around 2011, Delhi reported the largest absolute slum population among the given cities. According to the 2001 Census, Delhi's slum population was approximately 1.85 million people. The city serves as a major destination for interstate migration, which led to the expansion of numerous notified and non-notified slum clusters. While Mumbai holds the highest slum population in India, Delhi consistently maintained a higher volume of slum dwellers compared to other metropolitan centers like Chennai, Bangalore, and Surat, reflecting the intense urban density and housing challenges in the national capital region.
78GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Allahabad
2. Azamgarh
3. Ghaziabad
4. Lucknow
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Answer: (A) 1, 3, 2, 4
Explanation
Based on the provisional data of the 2011 Census, Allahabad (now Prayagraj) was the most populous district in Uttar Pradesh with a population of approximately 59.54 lakh. Ghaziabad followed as the next most populous among the given districts with about 46.81 lakh people. Azamgarh recorded a population of roughly 46.13 lakh, while Lucknow, the state capital, had a population of approximately 45.89 lakh. Consequently, the descending order of these districts by population size is Allahabad (1), Ghaziabad (3), Azamgarh (2), and Lucknow (4).
79Geography
According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ratio in India is found in
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Answer: (B) Daman and Diu
Explanation
The 2011 Census provisional figures identified Daman and Diu as having the lowest sex ratio in the country at 618 females per 1000 males. This demographic indicator highlights a stark gender imbalance in the Union Territory, primarily attributed to the high influx of male migrants working in the local industrial sectors. The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population, and the figure of 618 was the minimum value recorded among all administrative divisions in India during the 2011 enumeration.
80Geography
As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
According to the provisional figures released for the 2011 Census of India, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in the country. The state recorded a total population of approximately 11,23,74,333, which accounts for about 9.28 percent of India total population. While Uttar Pradesh holds the first rank in terms of population, Maharashtra follows as the second, maintaining its significant demographic position. The 2011 data indicated a decadal growth rate of approximately 15.99 percent for the state compared to the 2001 census findings.
81GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census?
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Answer: (A) Gautam Buddhi Nagar
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census data, Gautam Buddha Nagar district recorded the highest literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh at 80.12 percent. The district also ranks first in male literacy within the state, reaching approximately 88.06 percent. This high literacy level is driven by the district's extensive urbanization, its status as a major industrial and economic hub, and the presence of numerous technical and educational institutions that attract a highly educated workforce and resident population.
82Geography
Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of
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Answer: (D) Western Australia
Explanation
Coolgardie is a historic town located in the Eastern Goldfields region of Western Australia. It rose to prominence in 1892 following the discovery of gold by Arthur Bayley and William Ford, which initiated a major gold rush. During the late 19th century, it was known as the Mother of the Goldfields and grew rapidly to become the third-largest town in the state, after Perth and Fremantle. Situated approximately 560 kilometers east of Perth, Coolgardie remains a significant site in Western Australian history, representing the economic and migratory impact of the mining industry on the development of the province.
83Geography
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I (Lake):
(A) Erie
(B) Michigan
(C) Ontario
(D) Superior
List-II (City):
1. Duluth
2. Detroit
3. Chicago
4. Hamilton
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Answer: (D) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Lake Erie is associated with Detroit, which is situated on the Detroit River connecting Lake St. Clair and Lake Erie, serving as a pivotal center for the Great Lakes industrial region. Lake Michigan is home to Chicago, the most significant urban and economic hub on its shores. Lake Ontario is bordered by the city of Hamilton, located at its western tip, which serves as a major Canadian industrial port. Lake Superior features Duluth at its westernmost point, acting as a critical inland port for the transport of iron ore and grain.
84Economy
More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
China has been the leading producer of crude steel in the world since the mid-1990s, driven by rapid industrialization and urbanization. By 2010, the global production of crude steel was approximately 1,414 million tonnes, while China alone produced about 627 million tonnes. This output accounted for nearly 44 percent of the total global production, easily surpassing the one-third mark. The massive scale of China's steel industry is supported by its extensive domestic iron ore and coal resources, alongside significant state investment in infrastructure and heavy manufacturing sectors. As of the early 2010s, its production volume was several times larger than that of any other individual country.
85Economy
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I (Iron Steel Centre):
(A) Hamilton
(B) Birmingham
(C) Essen
(D) Anshan
List-II (Country):
1. China
2. Canada
3. U.K.
4. Germany
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Answer: (C) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Hamilton is located in the province of Ontario, Canada, and has historically been known as the Steel Capital of Canada because it hosts the country's largest iron and steel manufacturing plants. Birmingham is a prominent industrial city in the West Midlands of the United Kingdom that served as a powerhouse of the Industrial Revolution, particularly famous for its metalworking and steel industries. Essen is a central city in the Ruhr industrial region of Germany and was the historical headquarters of the Krupp industrial empire, making it a primary hub for German coal and steel production. Anshan is known as the Iron Capital of China and is home to the Anshan Iron and Steel Group, which was the first large-scale iron and steel complex established in the People's Republic of China.
86Economy
The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is:
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Answer: (B) India, U.S.A., China, Russia
Explanation
India has maintained its position as the largest milk producer in the world since 1998, a result of the systematic development of the dairy sector through initiatives like Operation Flood. By 2011, India was producing over 115 million tonnes of milk annually, combining output from both cows and buffaloes. The United States followed as the second-largest producer, with its production primarily concentrated in highly industrialized cow milk farming. China witnessed a massive expansion in its dairy industry during the 2000s, elevating it to the third position globally to meet rising domestic demand. Russia held the fourth position, supported by a large agricultural base and traditional dairy consumption patterns. This descending order reflects the global production statistics provided by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for the late 2000s and early 2010s.
87Geography
The Sun City is located in
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Answer: (D) South Africa
Explanation
Sun City is a premier luxury resort and casino complex situated in the North West Province of South Africa. Developed by the hotel magnate Sol Kerzner and officially opened in 1979, it is located between the Elands River and the Pilanesberg, approximately two hours from Johannesburg. The resort gained international fame for its extensive entertainment facilities, including the Palace of the Lost City, the Valley of Waves, and world-class golf courses. During the apartheid era, Sun City was notable for being located within the bantustan of Bophuthatswana, which allowed it to offer entertainment options like gambling that were legally restricted in other parts of South Africa at the time.
88Geography
The State known as 'Garden of Spices' is
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Answer: (B) Kerala
Explanation
Kerala is famously known as the Garden of Spices due to its ancient history and global reputation in the cultivation and trade of various high-quality spices. The state's tropical climate and the fertile hilly terrain of the Western Ghats provide the perfect conditions for growing spices such as black pepper, cardamom, cinnamon, cloves, and nutmeg. Historically, Kerala's Malabar Coast served as a primary destination for international spice traders from Rome, Arabia, and Europe, which earned the region its distinctive moniker. Among these spices, black pepper was so significant to the global economy that it was frequently referred to as Black Gold. Even today, Kerala remains a major producer and exporter of these aromatic commodities, maintaining its traditional status in the agricultural landscape of India.
89Polity and Governance
Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region?
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Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The National Capital Region (NCR) is a unique multi-state planning region in India, established under the National Capital Region Planning Board Act of 1985 to promote balanced growth and decentralize the population from Delhi. It encompasses the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi and several districts from the neighboring states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Khurja, located in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh, is a prominent town included within the NCR boundaries. Similarly, Rewari and Rohtak are districts in Haryana that are integral constituent parts of the region. These areas are included in the NCR to ensure coordinated infrastructure development, such as transport and housing, under the regional plan developed by the National Capital Region Planning Board.
90Economy
In India two largest producers of coal (2008-09) are:
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Answer: (C) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
Explanation
During the financial year 2008-09, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand were the top two coal-producing states in India. Chhattisgarh recorded the highest production with approximately 101.94 million tonnes, representing about 20.6 percent of the national output. Jharkhand ranked second during this period, producing approximately 96.27 million tonnes. These states are part of the major Gondwana coal fields, which contain the bulk of India coal reserves, specifically within the Damodar and Son-Mahanadi river valley systems.
91Geography
The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by
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Answer: (D) Wild Elephants
Explanation
Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, situated in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala, is widely recognized for its significant population of wild Asian elephants. The sanctuary was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1934 and is centered around the Periyar Lake, an artificial reservoir formed by the Mullaperiyar Dam. This lake serves as a vital water source for the park's inhabitants. The sighting of herds of wild elephants along the banks of the lake while cruising in motorboats is the hallmark of the Periyar wildlife experience, making it one of the most prominent locations for observing elephant behavior in their natural habitat within the Western Ghats.
92Geography
Which one of the following does NOT lie in Maharashtra?
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Answer: (C) Mandav Hills
Explanation
The Mandav Hills are located in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, forming part of the Vindhya Range on the Malwa Plateau. They are geographically situated north of the Narmada River. This distinguishes them from the Balaghat, Harish Chandra, and Satmala ranges, all of which are prominent hill systems or offshoots of the Western Ghats situated within the state of Maharashtra.
93Geography
Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat?
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Answer: (A) Jamnagar
Explanation
Jamnagar is located inland, approximately 7 to 10 kilometers away from the coastline of the Gulf of Kutch. While the Jamnagar district contains major port facilities and industrial terminals such as Sikka and Rozi, the city of Jamnagar itself is an administrative and industrial hub situated away from the water. A port town is defined as a settlement located directly on the coast that serves as a primary point for maritime trade, docking, and fishing activities. Jamnagar does not meet this geographical criterion as it lacks a direct seafront within the city limits.
94Economy
According to the World Bank's Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct descending order of the world's five most indebted countries is
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Answer: (B) Russia, China, Turkey, Brazil, India
Explanation
The World Bank's Global Development Finance 2010 report, which analyzed the external debt of developing countries based on data available through the end of 2008, identified the Russian Federation as the largest debtor with a total external debt stock of approximately $406.1 billion. China ranked second with $378.2 billion, followed by Turkey at $277.6 billion. Brazil held the fourth position with an external debt of $262.9 billion, while India stood fifth among these nations with a total debt stock of $224.5 billion. These rankings reflect the total external debt, which includes public and publicly guaranteed long-term debt, private non-guaranteed long-term debt, short-term debt, and use of IMF credit.
95Economy
Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $220 million agreement with the World Bank?
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Answer: (A) Bihar
Explanation
In September 2010, the World Bank signed a $220 million agreement with the Government of India and the Government of Bihar for the Bihar Kosi Flood Recovery Project. This project was specifically aimed at assisting the state of Bihar in rebuilding infrastructure and restoring livelihoods in the aftermath of the catastrophic 2008 Kosi River floods. The funding, provided through the International Development Association (IDA), targeted the construction of flood-resistant houses, the repair of rural roads and bridges, and the enhancement of technical capacity for flood risk management in the Kosi basin.
96Science and Technology
The author of the book The Emperor of Maladies: A Biography of Cancer , for which 2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded is:
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Answer: (D) Siddhartha Mukherjee
Explanation
Siddhartha Mukherjee, an Indian-American oncologist and physician, is the author of the critically acclaimed book The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer. Published in 2010, the work provides a comprehensive history of the disease, tracing its origins from ancient civilizations to the modern era of molecular biology and targeted therapy. In 2011, the book was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for General Nonfiction for its profound exploration of the science and history of cancer, blending clinical expertise with a narrative accounts of medical progress and human struggle.
97Art and Culture
In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in
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Answer: (D) New Delhi
Explanation
The India International Youth Film Festival (IIYFF) was organized by the Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), which is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The February 2011 edition of the festival was held in New Delhi, specifically centered at the Siri Fort Auditorium. This event was conceptualized to provide a platform for young filmmakers to showcase their creativity and to promote the appreciation of meaningful cinema among the youth. The festival featured a diverse range of films, including short films, documentaries, and animation from both Indian and international participants, supplemented by workshops and seminars led by industry professionals to foster technical and artistic growth in the field of filmmaking.
98Economy
India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement with:
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Answer: (B) Malaysia
Explanation
India and Malaysia signed the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) on February 18, 2011, during the official visit of the Malaysian Prime Minister to New Delhi. This bilateral agreement came into effect on July 1, 2011. It is a comprehensive framework that covers trade in goods, services, and investments, going beyond the existing India-ASEAN Trade in Goods Agreement. The CECA provides for more liberalized trade protocols, deeper tariff concessions, and improved market access for service providers and investors, aimed at strengthening the strategic economic partnership between the two nations.
99Economy
India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with
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Answer: (C) Japan
Explanation
India and Japan signed the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) on February 16, 2011, in Tokyo. This agreement serves as a comprehensive free trade pact that covers trade in goods, services, investment, and intellectual property rights. It was designed to eliminate tariffs on approximately 94 percent of the bilateral trade between the two nations over a ten-year period. The agreement aimed to significantly enhance market access for Indian exports such as pharmaceuticals and textiles while encouraging Japanese investment in India's manufacturing and infrastructure sectors.
100Polity and Governance
The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from
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Answer: (C) Maldives
Explanation
Fathimath Dhiyana Saeed, a prominent Maldivian diplomat and lawyer, was appointed as the tenth Secretary-General of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) in early 2011. She assumed office on March 1, 2011, succeeding Sheel Kant Sharma of India. Her appointment was a landmark event for the regional body as she became the first woman to hold the post of Secretary-General since the organization was established in 1985. Prior to this international appointment, she had served as the Attorney General of the Maldives and as the Maldivian Government's envoy for South Asia.
101Geography
The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at
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Answer: (D) Petersburg
Explanation
The International Tiger Forum, commonly known as the World Tiger Summit, was held in St. Petersburg, Russia, from November 21 to 24, 2010. Hosted by the Russian government and the World Bank, the summit brought together leaders from the thirteen tiger range countries to address the critical decline of wild tiger populations. During this historic meeting, participants adopted the St. Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation and endorsed the Global Tiger Recovery Program, which aimed to double the number of wild tigers globally by the year 2022, an initiative known as the TX2 goal.
102Economy
Sonu bought a watch with 30 per cent discount on the labelled price. He sold it with 20 percent profit on the labelled. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price he bought?
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Answer: (C) 70
Explanation
Let the labelled price of the watch be 100. Since Sonu bought the watch at a 30 percent discount on the labelled price, his cost price is 100 - 30 = 70. He then sold the watch at a 20 percent profit on the labelled price, making his selling price 100 + 20 = 120. The actual profit earned by Sonu is the difference between his selling price and his cost price, which is 120 - 70 = 50.
To find the percentage of profit relative to the price he paid, we use the profit percentage formula:
Given the options provided, the approximate profit percentage is 70.
103Science and Technology
The missing number in the following series: 0,4,18,48,7,180 is
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Answer: (D) 100
Explanation
The given series follows a specific mathematical pattern where each term Tₙ is calculated using the formula Tₙ = n³ - n² or Tₙ = n²(n - 1), where n is the position of the term in the sequence.
By applying the formula to each position:
For n = 1: 1³ - 1² = 1 - 1 = 0
For n = 2: 2³ - 2² = 8 - 4 = 4
For n = 3: 3³ - 3² = 27 - 9 = 18
For n = 4: 4³ - 4² = 64 - 16 = 48
The missing number is the fifth term in the series (n = 5). Calculating for n = 5:
T₅ = 5³ - 5² = 125 - 25 = 100
To verify the pattern, the sixth term (n = 6) is:
T₆ = 6³ - 6² = 216 - 36 = 180
The calculation aligns perfectly with the provided sequence, confirming the missing value.
104Science and Technology
Which one of the following will come next in the series given below? LxF MTJ NPN OLR
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Answer: (A) Plague
Explanation
The series follows an alphabetical progression for each character position in the triplets. The first letters follow the sequence L → M → N → O, which is a constant increment of one position in the alphabet (+1). The next letter in this sequence is P.
The second letters follow the sequence x (24), T (20), P (16), and L (12), representing a constant decrement of four positions (-4). The next letter in this sequence is H (8). The third letters follow the sequence F (6), J (10), N (14), and R (18), representing a constant increment of four positions (+4). The next letter in this sequence is V (22).
Combining these gives the next term as PHV. The term Plague is the only option that begins with the letter P, matching the first letter of the next term in the sequence.
105Science and Technology
If COMPUTER is coded as RFUVQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be
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Answer: (D) EOJDEJFM
Explanation
The coding logic follows a three-step pattern:
Swap the first and last letters of the word.
Reverse the order of the intermediate (middle) letters.
Increment each of those intermediate letters by one position in the alphabet (+1).
Applying this to COMPUTER:
First and last letters (C, R) are swapped to become R and C.
The intermediate letters are O, M, P, U, T, E. Reversing them gives E, T, U, P, M, O.
Incrementing each reversed letter by +1: E→F, T→U, U→V, P→Q, M→N, O→P.
Combining these gives RFUVQNPC.
Applying this to MEDICINE:
The first and last letters (M, E) are swapped, so the code must start with E and end with M.
The intermediate letters are E, D, I, C, I, N. Reversing them gives N, I, C, I, D, E.
Incrementing each reversed letter by +1: N→O, I→J, C→D, I→J, D→E, E→F.
Combining these gives the result EOJDJEFM.
Comparing this result to the given options, only option d) correctly starts with E and ends with M. Thus, based on the positions of the first and last letters, d) is the correct code.
106Economy
Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4 th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of ₹ 180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month?
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Answer: (A) ₹ 1,200
Explanation
Let Avinash's total monthly income be x. He spends 2/5 of his income on rent, which leaves a remainder of 1 - 2/5 = 3/5 of his income. He then spends 3/4 of this remainder on other expenses, which means the final balance represents 1 - 3/4 = 1/4 of that remainder.
The savings can be expressed by the following equation:
1/4 × (3/5x) = 180
Simplifying the fraction:
3/20x = 180
To find the total income x, multiply both sides by the reciprocal of the fraction:
x = (180 × 20)/3
x = 60 × 20 = 1200
Thus, the total monthly income is ₹ 1,200.
107Science and Technology
The surface area of a cube is 384 m² , its volume is
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Answer: (A) 512m³
Explanation
The surface area S of a cube with side length a is determined by the formula S = 6a². Given that the surface area is 384 m², we can find the side length by solving the equation 6a² = 384. Dividing both sides by 6 yields a² = 64, and taking the square root of both sides gives a side length of a = 8 m. The volume V of a cube is calculated using the formula V = a³. By substituting the side length into this formula, we get V = 8³, which equals 512 m³.
108Economy
Manas started a business investing ₹ 42,000 after 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of ₹ 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was ₹ 30,160. What is Kamal's share in the profit?
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Answer: (A) ₹ 10,000
Explanation
In a partnership business, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of the capital invested and the time period for which it is invested.
Investment of Manas (Iₘ) = ₹ 42,000
Time period for Manas (Tₘ) = 12 months
Investment of Kamal (Iₖ) = ₹ 50,000
Time period for Kamal (Tₖ) = 12 - 7 = 5 months
The total parts of the profit are 252 + 125 = 377. Given the total profit is ₹ 30,160, Kamal's share is determined by:
Kamal's Share = 125/377 × 30160
Kamal's Share = 125 × 80 = 10000
Thus, Kamal's share in the profit is ₹ 10,000.
109Polity and Governance
Introducing a girl Mohan said. 'Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.' How is Mohan related to that girl?
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Answer: (B) Father
Explanation
The relation can be deciphered by breaking down the statement from the perspective of Mohan. Mohan refers to the only daughter of his mother-in-law. Since a mother-in-law is the mother of one's spouse, her only daughter must be Mohan's wife. The statement identifies this woman as the mother of the girl being introduced. If the girl's mother is Mohan's wife, then Mohan is the girl's father.
110Science and Technology
The following series has a wrong number: 112, 65, 264, 795, 1590, 1593. The wrong number is
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Answer: (D) 1590
Explanation
The series follows the mathematical pattern xₙ₊₁ = (xₙ × k) + k, where k is a decreasing integer. Applying this logic to the terms in the sequence:
Following this progression, the next term (where k = 2) should be:
795 × 2 + 2 = 1590 + 2 = 1592
To verify the pattern, we apply the next step (where k = 1) to this value:
1592 × 1 + 1 = 1592 + 1 = 1593
Since the calculated value 1592 correctly yields the subsequent term 1593, the number 1590 in the original series is incorrect.
111Economy
Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyama and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyama?
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Answer: (D) 45 years
Explanation
Raghu's present age is calculated by subtracting the 3 years from his future age, resulting in 15 - 3 = 12 years. Since Govind is four times as old as Raghu, Govind's current age is 4 × 12 = 48 years. Shyama's age is determined by the fact that Govind is 3 years older than her, meaning she is 3 years younger than him. Therefore, Shyama's present age is 48 - 3 = 45 years.
112Economy
If the number 1×5×01 is divisible by 11, then X is equal to
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Answer: (C) 8
Explanation
According to the divisibility rule for 11, a number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of its digits at odd positions and the sum of its digits at even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.
For the number 1X5X01, let us calculate these sums starting from the rightmost digit:
Sum of digits at odd positions = 1 + X + X = 1 + 2X
Sum of digits at even positions = 0 + 5 + 1 = 6
The difference is (1 + 2X) - 6 = 2X - 5. For the number to be divisible by 11, this difference must be a multiple of 11. Setting the difference equal to the first positive multiple:
2X - 5 = 11
2X = 16
X = 8
Since 8 is a single-digit integer, it satisfies the condition for the digit X.
113Economy
Ten years ago Ram's age was half of Moti's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what is the total of their present ages?
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Answer: (D) 35
Explanation
Let the present ages of Ram and Moti be 3x and 4x respectively, following the given ratio 3:4. Ten years ago, their ages were 3x - 10 and 4x - 10. The problem states that ten years ago, Ram's age was half of Moti's age, which is expressed by the equation 3x - 10 = 1/2(4x - 10). Multiplying the entire equation by 2 gives 6x - 20 = 4x - 10. Solving for x involves moving like terms to one side: 6x - 4x = 20 - 10, which simplifies to 2x = 10, and thus x = 5. The present age of Ram is 3 × 5 = 15 and the present age of Moti is 4 × 5 = 20. The total of their present ages is 15 + 20 = 35. A faster verification is to note that the sum of the ages must be a multiple of 3 + 4 = 7, and only 35 satisfies the condition that subtracting 10 from each component age (15-10=5 and 20-10=10) results in a 1:2 ratio.
114Economy
There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively:
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Answer: (B) 5, 13
Explanation
Let the four prime numbers be represented as a, b, c, and d. The problem states that the product of the first three numbers is a × b × c = 385 and the product of the last three numbers is b × c × d = 1001.
To isolate the first and last numbers, we divide the product of the last three by the product of the first three:
(b × c × d)/(a × b × c) = 1001/385
By canceling the common prime factors b and c from the numerator and denominator, we get:
d/a = 1001/385
To simplify the fraction 1001/385, we find the common divisors. Dividing both numerator and denominator by 7 gives 143/55. Further dividing both by 11 gives 13/5.
d/a = 13/5
Since a and d are prime numbers, it follows that the first number a = 5 and the last number d = 13. This is consistent with the prime factorization of the given products, where 385 = 5 × 7 × 11 and 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13.
115Science and Technology
The author of 'Nuclear Reactor time Bomb' is:
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Answer: (D) Takashi Hirose
Explanation
Takashi Hirose is a prominent Japanese journalist and anti-nuclear activist who has authored numerous books critiquing the nuclear power industry. In his work Nuclear Reactor Time Bomb, he highlighted the extreme risks associated with the operation of nuclear reactors, particularly those situated in seismically active regions. Hirose argued that the structural vulnerabilities of these plants, combined with the unpredictable nature of geological activity, created a scenario equivalent to a ticking time bomb. His investigative reporting focused on the technical flaws in reactor design and the systemic failures of regulatory oversight, warning of potential catastrophic meltdowns long before the major nuclear accidents of the 21st century brought these issues to global attention.
116Economy
The author of 'Green Development' is
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Answer: (D) W.M. Adams
Explanation
W.M. Adams, or William Mark Adams, is a distinguished geographer and professor who authored the seminal book Green Development: Environment and Sustainability in a Developing World. First published in 1990, the book offers a critical academic examination of the history and theory of sustainable development. It focuses on the political and social dimensions of environmental management in the Global South, challenging the idea that technical or market-based fixes alone can solve ecological crises. The text is widely used in geography and development studies and had seen its third edition published in 2008, solidifying its status as a foundational resource on the subject before 2011.
117Geography
The World Water Conservation Day is observed on:
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Answer: (B) 22 March
Explanation
World Water Day is celebrated annually on 22 March to highlight the importance of freshwater and advocate for the sustainable management of water resources. This international observance was recommended during the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro. In response, the United Nations General Assembly adopted resolution A/RES/47/193, officially designating 22 March 1993 as the first World Water Day. Each year, the day focuses on a specific theme related to water conservation, sanitation, and the global water crisis to raise public awareness and inspire action towards achieving sustainable development goals related to water.
118Science and Technology
Tejaswini Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned World Champion in
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Answer: (C) Shooting
Explanation
Tejaswini Sawant became the first Indian woman shooter to win a gold medal at the World Championships when she clinched the top spot in the 50m Rifle Prone event on August 8, 2010. During the 50th ISSF World Shooting Championships held in Munich, Germany, she recorded a score of 597 out of 600, which equaled the world record at that time. Her achievement was a landmark moment for Indian sports, making her the first female athlete from the country to be crowned a World Champion in the field of shooting.
119Science and Technology
Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011?
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Answer: (C) John Willard Milnor
Explanation
The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters awarded the 2011 Abel Prize to John Willard Milnor for his profound contributions to topology, geometry, and algebra. Milnor is most famous for his 1956 discovery of exotic spheres, demonstrating that a 7-dimensional sphere can have several distinct differentiable structures, a result that was entirely unexpected and laid the foundation for the field of differential topology. His work also includes significant developments in algebraic K-theory, Hamiltonian dynamics, and the introduction of the Milnor invariants in link theory. His elegant mathematical writing and influential books have served as essential resources for researchers and students across the global mathematical community.
120Art and Culture
'Stanley Cup' is associated with
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Answer: (D) Ice Hockey
Explanation
The Stanley Cup is the championship trophy awarded annually to the winner of the National Hockey League (NHL) playoffs, representing the highest achievement in professional ice hockey. Originally commissioned in 1892 as the Dominion Hockey Challenge Cup, it was donated by Lord Stanley of Preston, the Governor General of Canada, to be awarded to the top-ranking amateur ice hockey club in Canada. By the early 20th century, it became the exclusive prize of professional hockey. It is renowned for its unique tradition where the names of all winning players, coaches, and management are engraved onto the silver rings of the trophy's base.
121History
The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was
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Answer: (A) Arjun Halappa
Explanation
Arjun Halappa was appointed the captain of the Indian national hockey team for the 2011 Sultan Azlan Shah Cup. For this tournament, which took place in Ipoh, Malaysia, in May 2011, the selection committee opted for the veteran midfielder Halappa to lead the squad. He took over the captaincy duties for this event from Rajpal Singh, who had led the team in earlier competitions. India finished in sixth position during this edition of the tournament.
122History
The Winner of Australia Open 2011, Men's Singles was
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Answer: (C) Novak Djokovic
Explanation
Novak Djokovic won the 2011 Australian Open Men's Singles title by defeating Andy Murray in the final with a straight-sets victory of 6-4, 6-2, 6-3. This triumph marked his second career Grand Slam title and his second victory at Melbourne Park, following his maiden title in 2008. His dominant performance throughout the two-week tournament, during which he dropped only one set, signaled the beginning of a historic season in which he would eventually reach the world number one ranking.
123Art and Culture
Smash is associated with which of the following sports?
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Answer: (D) Volleyball
Explanation
In volleyball, a smash, often referred to as a spike, is a powerful offensive strike where a player jumps and hits the ball forcefully with one hand from above the height of the net. The goal is to drive the ball downwards at a steep angle and high speed into the opponent's court, making it extremely difficult to defend or return. It is usually the final action in a three-hit sequence (bump-set-spike) and requires significant vertical leap, timing, and arm strength. While the term is also prevalent in racket sports like badminton and tennis, it is the primary term for this specific scoring move in the game of volleyball.
124Polity and Governance
The 'Laureus World Sports man of the Year' award for 2010 was given to
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Answer: (B) Rafael Nadal
Explanation
Rafael Nadal was honored with the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award at the ceremony held in February 2011, which recognized his extraordinary achievements throughout the 2010 calendar year. During 2010, Nadal delivered one of the most dominant seasons in tennis history by winning three consecutive Grand Slam titles at the French Open, Wimbledon, and the US Open. By winning the US Open, he became the youngest man in the Open Era to complete a Career Grand Slam. These accomplishments, along with reclaiming the world number one ranking, led to his selection for this prestigious global honor.
125Art and Culture
Bula Chaudhary is well known in which of the following sport disciplines?
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Answer: (A) Swimming
Explanation
Bula Chaudhary is a legendary Indian long-distance swimmer who achieved global recognition for her remarkable aquatic feats. She is the first woman in the world to swim across the seven seas in five continents, including the English Channel which she crossed twice, first in 1989 and again in 1999. In addition to her international channel swimming successes, she has won several national championships and represented India in various international competitions. For her extraordinary contributions to sports, she was honored with the Arjuna Award in 1990 and the Padma Shri in 2009. Her career established her as one of India's most iconic figures in the field of competitive and long-distance swimming.
126History
In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the 'man of the tournament' was
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Answer: (D) Yuvraj Singh
Explanation
Yuvraj Singh was named the Player of the Tournament for his exceptional all-round performance throughout the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup. He played a pivotal role in India's second World Cup triumph by scoring 362 runs at an average of 90.50 and claiming 15 wickets with his left-arm orthodox spin. His campaign included one century against the West Indies and four half-centuries, along with a significant five-wicket haul against Ireland. Over the course of the nine matches played, he earned four Man of the Match awards, highlighting his consistent impact with both bat and ball in critical situations.
127Polity and Governance
The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to
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Answer: (B) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan
Explanation
Maulana Wahiduddin Khan was honored with the 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award in 2010 for his significant contributions to the promotion of communal harmony, peace, and goodwill. A world-renowned Islamic scholar and peace activist, he founded the Centre for Peace and Spirituality and authored over 200 books focused on interfaith dialogue and coexistence. The award was instituted by the All India Congress Committee in 1992 to commemorate the legacy of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, specifically recognizing individuals who work toward national integration and social solidarity.
128Polity and Governance
The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is
The 34th National Games were held in Ranchi, Jharkhand, in February 2011. The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) dominated the event and secured the top position by winning 70 gold medals. Manipur followed in the second position with 48 gold medals, driven largely by their strong performance in disciplines like fencing and weightlifting. Haryana took the third spot with 42 gold medals, while Maharashtra finished fourth in the gold medal tally with 41 gold medals. This sequence of 70, 48, 42, and 41 gold medals respectively confirms the descending order of the top four teams in the final standings.
129Science and Technology
The winner of All England Badminton Championship, 2011, Men's Singles Title, was
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Answer: (B) Lee Chong Wei
Explanation
Lee Chong Wei, the top-seeded Malaysian shuttler, secured the 2011 All England Open Badminton Championships Men's Singles title by defeating the world champion Lin Dan of China. In a high-profile final held at the National Indoor Arena in Birmingham, Lee Chong Wei won in straight sets with a scoreline of 21–17, 21–17. This victory was particularly significant as it marked his second consecutive All England title, having also won the tournament in 2010. His performance during the 2011 season further cemented his position as the world number one in the BWF rankings.
130Art and Culture
At the 83rd Oscar Awards the best film award was won by
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Answer: (C) The King's Speech
Explanation
The 83rd Academy Awards, held on February 27, 2011, at the Kodak Theatre in Hollywood, recognized the best films released in 2010. The King's Speech, directed by Tom Hooper, won the award for Best Picture. The film portrays the true story of King George VI and his quest to overcome a debilitating stammer with the help of an unorthodox speech therapist, Lionel Logue. Beyond the top prize of Best Picture, the film was the most successful production of the evening, also securing Academy Awards for Best Actor for Colin Firth, Best Director for Tom Hooper, and Best Original Screenplay for David Seidler.
131Art and Culture
Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011?
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Answer: (A) Prem Chopra
Explanation
Prem Chopra was honored with the Mother Teresa Award in March 2011 at a ceremony held in Kolkata. The award was presented by the Mother Teresa International and Millennium Awards Committee in recognition of his extensive and distinguished contribution to the Indian film industry. Having performed in hundreds of films over a career spanning several decades, his professional dedication and impact on Hindi cinema were the primary factors for this prestigious recognition.
132Polity and Governance
In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State won the team title in Badminton in Men's Section?
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Answer: (B) Kerala
Explanation
The 34th National Games were organized in Jharkhand in 2011. During this multi-sport event, the Kerala men's badminton team secured the gold medal in the team championship. The matches were conducted at the Thakur Vishwanath Shahdeo Indoor Stadium in Ranchi. Kerala's victory was facilitated by a squad of seasoned players, including Sanave Thomas and Alwin Francis, who led the state to the title by winning the decisive final encounter. This performance established Kerala as the premier team in the men's section for badminton at the 2011 games.
133GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Jalaun
(B) Kanpur
(C) Sant Ravidas 3. Padrauna Nagar
(D) Kushinagar
List-II (District):
1. Akbarpur
2. Local Self Dehat
4. Orai
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Several districts in Uttar Pradesh have administrative headquarters located in towns that do not share the name of the district. The district headquarters for Jalaun is Orai. Kanpur Dehat has its headquarters in Akbarpur (distinct from Ambedkar Nagar's Akbarpur). Sant Ravidas Nagar, which was the official name for the Bhadohi district during this period, is headquartered in Gyanpur. Kushinagar district has its administrative center in Padrauna. Matching these pairs results in the sequence 4, 1, 2, and 3.
134GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
List-II:
1. Babatpur
2. Kheria
3. Amausi
4. Chakeri
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Answer: (D) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Lucknow is served by the Amausi Airport, which was renamed Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport in 2008 and serves as the primary gateway to the state capital. Varanasi is served by the Babatpur Airport, officially known as Lal Bahadur Shastri International Airport since 2005, located northwest of the city. Kanpur is served by the Chakeri Airport, which operates as a domestic terminal alongside its role as a major base for the Indian Air Force. Agra is served by the Kheria Airport, a seasonal commercial airport and a vital air force station located close to the city's historical monuments. Matching these cities with their respective airports yields the sequence 3, 1, 4, 2.
135Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Its decadal growth rate is 18.4%.
Explanation
The decadal population growth rate of Uttar Pradesh according to the provisional figures of the 2011 Census was 20.09 percent for the period 2001-2011. While this was a decrease from the 25.85 percent growth rate recorded in the previous decade, it remained significantly higher than the 18.4 percent figure. The final census data later updated this specific decadal growth rate to 20.23 percent, confirming that the provisional estimate was well above 20 percent.
136Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Farrukhabad is known for
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Answer: (D) Hand printing
Explanation
Farrukhabad is a prominent center for the traditional textile industry in Uttar Pradesh, specifically celebrated for its hand printing techniques. The district specializes in both hand block printing and screen printing on fabrics such as cotton, silk, and khadi. Skilled artisans use meticulously carved wooden blocks to create intricate floral, geometric, and traditional motifs, including the famous Paisley patterns. This heritage craft has been the mainstay of the local economy for generations, establishing Farrukhabad as a significant hub for the production and export of printed textiles and garments across India and international markets.
137Science and Technology
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at:
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Answer: (B) Meerut
Explanation
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology is a professional agricultural university situated in Modipuram, Meerut. It was established under the Uttar Pradesh Agriculture University Act (revised) in 2000 and was formally inaugurated in March 2002. The university is primarily responsible for agricultural education, research, and extension activities across the western districts of Uttar Pradesh. It functions as a state-funded institution recognized by the University Grants Commission and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, playing a vital role in the agricultural development of the National Capital Region and surrounding areas.
138Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Famous Charkula dance is associated with
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Answer: (C) Brij Bhumi
Explanation
The Charkula dance is a traditional folk performance native to the Brij Bhumi region of Uttar Pradesh, primarily centered around Mathura and Vrindavan. In this dance, women cover their faces with veils and balance a large, multi-tiered circular wooden pyramid known as a charkula on their heads. This wooden structure typically carries 108 lighted oil lamps arranged in several layers. The performance is traditionally held on the third day after Holi, which marks the birth anniversary of Radha. Local legend suggests that Radha's grandmother performed this act out of joy to announce her birth. The dancers move with graceful steps to the rhythmic beats of Rasiya songs, which are devotional folk songs celebrating the divine love of Radha and Krishna.
139Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is
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Answer: (B) Saras
Explanation
The Sarus Crane (Grus antigone), commonly known as Saras in Hindi, is the official state bird of Uttar Pradesh. It is recognized as the world's tallest flying bird and is native to the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia. In Uttar Pradesh, the bird is predominantly found in the wetlands and marshy areas of the Indo-Gangetic plains, particularly in districts such as Mainpuri and Etawah. It holds significant cultural importance in the region and is often viewed as a symbol of marital fidelity. The Sarus Crane was designated as the state bird to emphasize the need for the protection of its natural habitat and to promote the conservation of this vulnerable species.
140EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India?
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Answer: (B) Rice
Explanation
West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India. As per the agricultural production data available up to 2011, West Bengal consistently held the top position in rice output due to its favorable alluvial soil and high rainfall in the Gangetic plains. While Uttar Pradesh is a major contributor to India's food basket and lead the production in wheat, sugarcane, and potatoes during this period, it ranked second to West Bengal in total rice production.
141Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Thumri singer Girija Devi belongs to
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Answer: (A) Banaras Gharana
Explanation
Girija Devi was an eminent Indian classical singer often referred to as the Queen of Thumri for her mastery and contribution to the genre. She was a leading representative of the Banaras Gharana, having been trained in the traditional style of Varanasi under the guidance of gurus like Sarju Prasad Misra and Srichand Misra. Her performances were characterized by the purab ang style, which is a hallmark of the Banaras tradition. Beyond Thumri, she was renowned for her renditions of other semi-classical forms native to the region, such as Dadra, Kajari, Chaiti, and Tappa, successfully bridging the gap between folk traditions and classical music.
142Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
The most popular religious magazine 'Kalyan' is published from
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Answer: (C) Gorakhpur
Explanation
The religious magazine Kalyan is published by Gita Press, which is located in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. First published in 1927, Kalyan is one of the most widely circulated Hindu religious periodicals in India. It was founded and edited for many years by Hanuman Prasad Poddar, also known as Bhaiji. Gita Press itself was established in 1923 with the objective of promoting the principles of Sanatana Dharma through the publication of the Bhagavad Gita and other ancient scriptures at affordable prices. Since its start, the editorial and printing operations for Kalyan have remained centered at the Gita Press estate in Gorakhpur.
143Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Artist):
(A) Pandit Durgalal
(B) Lalgudi Jayaraman
(C) Bala Murali Krishna
(D) Amrita Shergil
List-II (Art Form):
1. Instrumental Music
2. Dance
3. Painting
4. Vocal Music
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Answer: (A) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
Pandit Durgalal was an eminent Kathak dancer of the Jaipur Gharana, celebrated for his rhythmic mastery and grace. Lalgudi Jayaraman was a legendary violinist who played a pivotal role in popularizing instrumental Carnatic music. M. Balamuralikrishna was a versatile Carnatic vocalist and composer who dominated the field of Indian vocal music for decades. Amrita Shergil was a pioneering painter whose unique style merged European and Indian aesthetics to redefine modern Indian art.
144Art and Culture
'Athapoo' is associated with which of the following festivals?
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Answer: (B) Onam
Explanation
Athapoo, also commonly known as Onapookkalam, refers to the traditional floral carpets or arrangements created during the ten-day harvest festival of Onam in Kerala. The term is derived from Atham, which marks the first day of the festival, and Poo, meaning flower. These intricate designs are laid at the entrances of homes to welcome the spirit of the legendary King Mahabali, whose homecoming the festival celebrates. The size and complexity of the floral arrangement increase progressively each day, culminating in large, elaborate patterns on the final day of Thiruonam.
145Art and Culture
South Indian festival of 'Onam' is associated with which of the following?
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Answer: (D) Mahabali
Explanation
Onam is the most significant harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated annually during the month of Chingam in the Malayalam calendar. The festival commemorates the homecoming of the legendary King Mahabali, a benevolent and righteous Asura ruler who is believed to have governed the region during a golden age of prosperity and equality. According to Hindu mythology, Lord Vishnu took the Vamana avatar to test Mahabali's humility and eventually pushed him into the netherworld. However, pleased by the king's devotion, Vishnu granted him a boon allowing him to visit his subjects once every year. The ten-day celebration involves vibrant traditions such as Pookalam floral carpets, Vallam Kali boat races, and the grand Onasadya feast, all performed to welcome the spirit of Mahabali and celebrate the successful harvest season.