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UPPSC Prelims 1994 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
Questions
6
Subjects
3
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History4638%
  • Science and Technology2521%
  • Polity and Governance2118%
  • Economy1210%
  • Geography119%
  • Art and Culture54%
1Science and Technology
Which of the following is correct?
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Answer: (C) All the blood in the body is filtered through the kidneys

Explanation

The kidneys function as the primary organs for excretion and osmoregulation in the human body. This process is facilitated by millions of microscopic functional units called nephrons. Within each nephron, the blood undergoes ultrafiltration in the glomerulus, where high hydrostatic pressure forces water and small solutes out of the capillaries and into the renal tubules. While large components like blood cells and proteins remain in the vessels, the liquid portion is processed to remove metabolic waste products like urea and to balance electrolytes. Given that the entire volume of blood in an adult body circulates through the renal system approximately every four to five minutes, the kidneys continuously filter the body's total blood supply to maintain internal homeostasis and purify the blood of toxins.

2Science and Technology
A hydrophyte is:
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Answer: (B) an aquatic plant

Explanation

Hydrophytes are plants that have specifically adapted to live in aquatic environments, including freshwater, brackish water, and saltwater. The term is derived from the Greek words hydor, meaning water, and phyton, meaning plant. These organisms can be fully submerged, partially submerged, or found floating on the water surface. To thrive in saturated conditions, hydrophytes possess specialized anatomical features such as aerenchyma, which are large internal air spaces that provide buoyancy and facilitate gas exchange. Because they are continuously surrounded by water, they typically exhibit a thin or absent cuticle and have reduced vascular and root systems compared to terrestrial plants, as they can absorb water and dissolved minerals directly through their body surfaces. Typical examples include the lotus, water lilies, and various types of pondweed.

3Science and Technology
When a glass rod is placed in steam, its length increases but its width:
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Answer: (C) increases

Explanation

Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change its shape, area, and volume in response to an increase in temperature. When a glass rod is placed in steam, the heat transfer from the steam raises the temperature of the glass. This increase in thermal energy causes the atoms within the glass to vibrate more violently, increasing the average distance between them. Because glass is an isotropic material, it undergoes expansion uniformly in all directions. Consequently, every linear dimension of the rod expands simultaneously; just as the length increases according to the formula ΔL = LαΔT, the width (or diameter) also increases following the same principle of linear thermal expansion.

4Science and Technology
The substance which makes up about 80% of the living material in most organisms is:
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Answer: (A) Protein

Explanation

Proteins are the most abundant organic molecules in living organisms, forming the essential structural and functional basis of the cell. While water is the most abundant inorganic substance, proteins constitute approximately 15 percent of the total weight and over 50 percent of the dry weight of a typical cell. In the context of the organic matter that builds the living framework—including enzymes, structural tissues, and metabolic machinery—proteins represent the most significant portion of the biomass. Many biological definitions of protoplasm emphasize proteins as the primary substance responsible for the complex activities of life, making them the dominant component of the living material after accounting for water.

5Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): India's nuclear policy incorporates its unpreparedness to open its nuclear plants for international inspection. Reason (R): India will not produce any nuclear bomb. Select your answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Explanation

India has consistently maintained a stance against discriminatory international nuclear regimes, most notably the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). A primary reason for India's refusal to sign the NPT was the requirement for non-nuclear-weapon states to accept full-scope safeguards, which would involve opening all indigenous nuclear facilities to mandatory inspections by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). By rejecting these terms, India preserved the right to keep its domestic nuclear program outside the scope of international oversight. Meanwhile, the claim that India would not produce nuclear weapons is factually incorrect. Following the 1974 Smiling Buddha test, India adopted a policy of nuclear ambiguity, keeping its nuclear option open for national security and strategic deterrence. While it advocated for global disarmament, India never made a definitive commitment to forgo the production of nuclear weapons, eventually conducting further tests in 1998 to declare itself a nuclear-weapon state.

6Science and Technology
Why does an iron nail float on mercury while it sinks in water?
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Answer: (C) Iron has greater density then water and lesser than mercury.

Explanation

The behavior of an object placed in a liquid is governed by the law of floatation, which states that an object will float if its density is less than the density of the liquid and sink if its density is greater. Iron has a density of approximately 7.8 g/cm³, while the density of water is 1.0 g/cm³ and the density of mercury is approximately 13.6 g/cm³. Because the density of iron is greater than that of water, the upward buoyant force provided by water is less than the weight of the iron nail, leading it to sink. However, since the density of iron is lower than that of mercury, the buoyant force exerted by mercury is sufficient to keep the nail afloat on its surface.

7Science and Technology
The number of images of an object placed between two parallel mirrors is:
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Answer: (D) Infinite

Explanation

The number of images n formed by two plane mirrors inclined at an angle θ is determined by the formula n = 360°/θ - 1. In the case of two mirrors placed parallel to each other, the angle θ between them is 0°. Mathematically, as the angle θ approaches zero, the value of the fraction 360°/θ approaches infinity. Physically, this occurs because the image formed by the first mirror acts as a virtual object for the second mirror, which then creates another image. This second image, in turn, acts as an object for the first mirror again. This process of multiple reflections continues indefinitely, creating a never-ending sequence of images that extend deep into the mirrors. While the intensity of light decreases with each subsequent reflection, the theoretical count of these images remains infinite.

8Science and Technology
Triple antigen is given to a child to prevent:
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Answer: (B) Diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus

Explanation

The triple antigen vaccine, widely known as the DPT or DTP vaccine, is a combination vaccine designed to protect children against three serious bacterial infections: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and typically affects the throat and upper airways; pertussis is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection caused by Bordetella pertussis; and tetanus is a nervous system disorder caused by the toxin-producing bacterium Clostridium tetani. This vaccine uses diphtheria and tetanus toxoids along with killed pertussis bacteria or purified pertussis proteins to stimulate the immune system. It was integrated into global health initiatives like the Expanded Programme on Immunization to simplify the delivery of essential vaccines and ensure high coverage against these preventable childhood diseases.

9Science and Technology
Oil spreads over the surface of water because:
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Answer: (D) Oil has less surface tension than water

Explanation

The spreading of one liquid over another is governed by the spreading coefficient, which is determined by the relationship between the surface tensions of the two liquids and the interfacial tension between them. Water has a relatively high surface tension of approximately 72 dynes/cm, while most oils have a much lower surface tension, typically ranging between 20 and 30 dynes/cm. When a drop of oil is placed on water, the higher surface tension of the water exerts a stronger inward pull on its own surface than the cohesive forces within the oil can resist. This imbalance of forces pulls the oil outward in all directions, causing it to thin out and spread across the entire water surface until it forms a thin film or monomolecular layer.

10Science and Technology
The working principle of atom bomb is nuclear fission of uranium and the working principle of hydrogen bomb is:
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Answer: (A) nuclear fusion of deuterium.

Explanation

The hydrogen bomb, or thermonuclear weapon, operates on the principle of nuclear fusion. In this process, light atomic nuclei, specifically the isotopes of hydrogen such as deuterium (²H) and tritium (³H), combine to form heavier helium nuclei. This fusion reaction releases a far greater amount of energy per unit mass than the nuclear fission process used in atomic bombs. To initiate fusion, extremely high temperatures and pressures are required to overcome the electrostatic repulsion between the positively charged nuclei. These conditions are typically provided by a primary nuclear fission bomb, which acts as a trigger. The resulting fusion of deuterium nuclei results in a massive explosive yield, following the principle of mass-energy equivalence where the lost mass is converted into energy.

11Science and Technology
Telescope was invented by:
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Answer: (A) Galileo

Explanation

Galileo Galilei is historically recognized for the development and first significant scientific application of the telescope in 1609. Although basic refracting models appeared in the Netherlands shortly before, Galileo significantly improved the lens quality and magnification power of the instrument. He was the first to use the device to systematically observe celestial bodies, leading to the discovery of the four largest moons of Jupiter, sunspots, and the phases of Venus. His improvements and subsequent astronomical discoveries were so impactful that he became the figure most traditionally associated with the invention of the telescope in educational and historical contexts.

12Science and Technology
Which compound present in D.N.A. does not form amino acid?
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Answer: (B) Tyrosine

Explanation

Tyrosine is a non-essential α-amino acid characterized by its phenolic side chain. In biological systems, it serves as a primary building block for protein synthesis and acts as a precursor for important neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. Unlike nitrogenous bases, tyrosine is not a structural component of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecule. The DNA double helix is composed of a sugar-phosphate backbone and specific nucleobases that store genetic information, whereas tyrosine is an amino acid that is incorporated into polypeptides during the process of translation based on the genetic code.

13Science and Technology
It is difficult to walk on ice than on road because:
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Answer: (D) Ice has a lesser friction than road

Explanation

Walking depends on the force of friction between the soles of our shoes and the ground surface. When we take a step, we push the ground backward, and the frictional force acts in the forward direction, providing the necessary traction to move forward according to Newton's Third Law of Motion. The coefficient of friction between ice and most materials is extremely low due to its smooth surface and the presence of a thin liquid layer of water that acts as a lubricant. Because ice offers significantly less friction than the relatively rough surface of a road, the foot is unable to maintain a firm grip and slips easily, making it difficult to generate the required horizontal force for stable movement.

14Science and Technology
Pencil lead is:
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Answer: (A) graphite

Explanation

Pencil lead is primarily composed of a mixture of graphite and clay. Graphite is a crystalline allotrope of carbon where atoms are arranged in a hexagonal layered structure. These layers are held together by weak van der Waals forces, allowing them to slide over each other with minimal friction. When a pencil is pressed against paper, these layers easily shear off and adhere to the surface, leaving a dark grey mark. Although it is commonly called lead, this is a historical misnomer originating from the 16th-century discovery of a large graphite deposit in Borrowdale, England, which was initially mistaken for a form of lead ore due to its appearance and marking ability. The hardness of the pencil is adjusted by varying the proportion of clay mixed with the graphite.

15Geography
Which of the following subjects deals with studies in population and vital statistics of human communities?
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Answer: (C) Demography

Explanation

Demography is the scientific and statistical study of human populations, focusing on their size, composition, and distribution over time. It relies heavily on vital statistics, which are the quantitative records of significant life events such as births, deaths, marriages, and migration patterns. By analyzing these data, demographers examine the dynamics of population change and the underlying biological, social, and economic factors that influence the growth or decline of human communities. This field provides the essential framework for understanding societal trends, life expectancy, and resource requirements based on population characteristics.

16Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Earnest Rutherford asserted before the Royal Society that man will never get nuclear power. Reason (R): He was sure that Einstein's law will fail and mass will not be converted into energy. Select your answer from the coding scheme given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Explanation

Ernest Rutherford, despite his pioneering work in nuclear physics, was famously skeptical about the practical application of atomic energy. In 1933, he stated before the British Association for the Advancement of Science that anyone who looked for a source of power in the transformation of atoms was talking moonshine. His reasoning was based on the extreme inefficiency of the experiments at the time, where millions of particles were used to hit a single nucleus, leading him to conclude that the energy required to initiate the reaction would always exceed the energy released. However, Rutherford did not doubt the validity of Albert Einstein's mass-energy equivalence formula, E = mc². He accepted the principle that mass could be converted into energy but believed the technical process of harnessing that energy for human use was fundamentally impossible due to the low probability of successful nuclear collisions.

17Science and Technology
Television signals cannot be received beyond a certain distance because:
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Answer: (D) the surface of the earth is curved.

Explanation

Television signals utilize high-frequency electromagnetic waves in the VHF and UHF bands which propagate primarily via line-of-sight transmission. Unlike lower frequency radio waves that can reflect off the ionosphere to travel beyond the horizon, these high-frequency waves travel in straight lines and pass through the ionosphere into space. Because the Earth is a sphere, its physical curvature eventually intercepts the straight-line path of the signal. The signal cannot bend around the surface of the planet, so any receiver located beyond the horizon relative to the transmitter will be in a shadow zone where the signal is blocked by the Earth's mass. The maximum distance d for reception is fundamentally limited by the height of the antennas h and the Earth's radius R, following the geometric relationship d ≈ √(2Rh).

18Science and Technology
Why do pendulum clocks usually lose time in summer?
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Answer: (C) Length of the pendulum increases, increasing the time period of unit oscillation

Explanation

The time period T of a simple pendulum is determined by the formula T = 2π√(L/g), where L represents the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity. In summer, the ambient temperature rises, leading to the thermal expansion of the metal rod or wire supporting the pendulum bob. This expansion increases the effective length L of the pendulum. As the formula shows that the time period T is directly proportional to the square root of the length, any increase in L results in a longer time period for each oscillation. Because each swing takes more time to complete than intended, the clock completes fewer oscillations in a day, causing it to run slow and lose time.

19Science and Technology
Why does water boil at temperature below 100°C at higher altitudes?
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Answer: (A) The atmospheric pressure decreases and hence boiling point is lowered.

Explanation

Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the surrounding atmospheric pressure. As altitude increases, the atmosphere becomes thinner and the weight of the air column above decreases, which results in a lower atmospheric pressure. Because there is less pressure pushing down on the surface of the liquid, water molecules can escape into the vapor phase with less kinetic energy. This reduction in the required energy means that the vapor pressure reaches the ambient pressure at a lower thermal threshold, leading to a decrease in the boiling point below the standard 100°C found at sea level.

20Science and Technology
In a diesel engine the fuel used is:
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Answer: (A) vapour of diesel and air

Explanation

A diesel engine operates on the principle of compression ignition. During the intake stroke, the engine draws in atmospheric air, which is then highly compressed within the cylinder during the compression stroke. This compression raises the air temperature above the self-ignition point of the fuel. Near the end of the compression stroke, liquid diesel is sprayed into the combustion chamber through a fuel injector. The high-pressure injection causes the diesel to atomize and turn into a vapour that mixes thoroughly with the hot compressed air. This mixture of diesel vapour and air ignites spontaneously due to the heat of compression, driving the piston downward to produce power. Since combustion cannot occur without the presence of oxygen, the air is an essential component of the fuel mixture consumed during the engine cycle.

21History
Mr. Nelson Mandela was released from jail after 27 years on:
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Answer: (A) February 11, 1990

Explanation

Nelson Mandela was released from Victor Verster Prison on February 11, 1990, after spending 27 years in captivity for his struggle against apartheid. His release followed a historic announcement by South African President F.W. de Klerk on February 10, which also included the unbanning of the African National Congress and other political organizations. This event was broadcast live globally and signaled the beginning of formal negotiations to dismantle the apartheid system and transition South Africa toward a multiracial democracy. Mandela had been imprisoned since 1962 and was famously sentenced to life imprisonment during the Rivonia Trial in 1964.

22Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Atomic Energy Commission — M.R. Srinivasan

Explanation

M.R. Srinivasan was a distinguished nuclear scientist who served as the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission and the Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy from 1987 to 1990. He played a crucial role in the development of India's nuclear power program, specifically in the indigenous design and implementation of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. His leadership within the Atomic Energy Commission was instrumental in the commissioning of several key nuclear power projects across the country, establishing the link between his name and the commission as an accurate match.

23Science and Technology
Central Mining Research Institute is situated at:
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Answer: (B) Dhanbad

Explanation

The Central Mining Research Institute (CMRI) was established in 1955 as a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). Located in Dhanbad, which is known as the Coal Capital of India, the institute was founded to provide R&D support for the mining industry to improve productivity and ensure the safety of miners. It focuses on various aspects of mining technology, including rock mechanics, mine environment, and explosives. In 2007, the institute was merged with the Central Fuel Research Institute to form the Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR), but it remains headquartered in Dhanbad.

24Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
Two nuclear power units are being constructed in Uttar Pradesh at:
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Answer: (C) Narora

Explanation

The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is situated in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh along the banks of the River Ganges. It was designed as a twin-unit station consisting of two Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), each having a capacity of 220 MWe. The construction and commissioning of these units represented a significant step in India's nuclear power program, with Unit 1 starting commercial operations in 1991 and Unit 2 in 1992. The site was chosen specifically for its geological stability and proximity to the northern power grid to meet the energy demands of the region.

25History
Operation 'Desert Storm' was the war between:
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Answer: (C) America and its allies against Iraq

Explanation

Operation Desert Storm was the military response led by the United States and a coalition of 35 allied nations against Iraq following its invasion and annexation of Kuwait in August 1990. Authorized by United Nations Security Council Resolution 678, the operation commenced on January 17, 1991, with an extensive aerial bombardment campaign designed to destroy Iraqi air defenses and communication networks. This was followed by a swift ground offensive in February 1991. The primary objective of the campaign was the liberation of Kuwait and the restoration of its legitimate government. Led by General Norman Schwarzkopf, the coalition forces successfully expelled Iraqi troops from Kuwaiti territory within weeks, resulting in a decisive military victory for the international coalition.

26Polity and Governance
The seat of International Court of Justice is established at:
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Answer: (B) Hague

Explanation

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations. It began its operations in April 1946. The seat of the Court is located at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations that is not located in New York City. The Court's role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.

27History
The year 1986 was observed as the International Year of:
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Answer: (C) Peace

Explanation

The United Nations designated 1986 as the International Year of Peace, aiming to promote peaceful coexistence among nations and encourage disarmament during the Cold War era. The UN has designated various years for specific causes: 1975 was International Women's Year, 1981 was the International Year of Disabled Persons, and 1979 was the International Year of the Child. The International Year of Peace (1986) led to activities worldwide promoting dialogue, conflict resolution, and nuclear disarmament, contributing to the eventual end of the Cold War.

28History
Who won the men's single title in US Open Tennis Championship, 1991?
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Answer: (D) Stefan Edberg

Explanation

Stefan Edberg secured the 1991 US Open men's singles title by defeating Jim Courier in the final with a dominant score of 6-2, 6-4, 6-0. This victory marked the Swedish player's first title at Flushing Meadows and his fifth career Grand Slam championship. Edberg utilized his signature serve-and-volley style to navigate the tournament, which culminated in one of the most one-sided finals in the history of the event. His performance during the 1991 season helped him maintain his position at the top of the ATP rankings.

29Science and Technology
India's first remote sensing satellite (I.R.S.-1A) was launched from:
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Answer: (A) Baikonour

Explanation

IRS-1A was India's first operational remote sensing satellite, launched on March 17, 1988. It was successfully placed into a sun-synchronous polar orbit at an altitude of approximately 904 km. The launch was carried out using a Vostok-2M rocket from the Baikonur Cosmodrome in the then Soviet Union. This mission was a landmark achievement for the Indian Space Research Organisation as it established the foundation for the indigenous Indian Remote Sensing satellite series used for monitoring natural resources and the environment.

30Polity and Governance
The Indian appointed as Chairman of the International Antivar Organisation in 1988 was:
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Answer: (C) Narain Desai

Explanation

Narain Desai, a renowned Gandhian activist and the son of Mahatma Gandhi's personal secretary Mahadev Desai, served as the Chairperson of the War Resisters' International (WRI) from 1982 to 1991. The WRI is a global network of pacifist organizations frequently referred to in Indian historical and academic contexts as the International Antivar Organisation. Desai was a prominent leader in the Shanti Sena (Peace Army) and was deeply involved in the Bhoodan movement. His tenure as the head of this international body during 1988 reflected his global standing as a proponent of non-violence and his commitment to applying Gandhian philosophy to international conflict resolution and peace-building efforts.

31HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
BJP leader L.K. Advani proceeding towards Ayodhya was arrested in October, 1990 at:
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Answer: (C) Samastipur

Explanation

Lal Krishna Advani was arrested in Samastipur on October 23, 1990, during his Ram Rath Yatra which had commenced from Somnath. The arrest was carried out on the orders of the then Chief Minister of Bihar, Lalu Prasad Yadav, to prevent the yatra from reaching Ayodhya and to maintain communal harmony. Advani was detained at the Samastipur Circuit House by the district administration before being moved to a guest house at the Masanjore Dam. This significant political event led to the Bharatiya Janata Party withdrawing its external support from the V.P. Singh-led National Front government at the Centre, eventually leading to its collapse.

32Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries recently adopted a new Constitution?
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Answer: (D) Germany

Explanation

Following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the collapse of the German Democratic Republic, the Unification Treaty (Einigungsvertrag) signed in August 1990 paved the way for the formal reunification of Germany on October 3, 1990. As part of this historic process, the Basic Law (Grundgesetz), which had served as the provisional constitution for West Germany since 1949, was significantly amended and extended to include the five newly created federal states (Länder) and the unified city of Berlin. This expansion and the associated legal changes established a definitive constitutional framework for the unified sovereign state, representing the most significant recent constitutional adoption among the given options from the perspective of a 1994 examination.

33Polity and Governance
Out of the following erstwhile Soviet Republics V. Landbergis is the President of:
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Answer: (C) Lithuania

Explanation

Vytautas Landsbergis was the prominent leader of the Lithuanian independence movement known as Sajudis, which spearheaded the drive for sovereignty from the Soviet Union. Following the parliamentary elections in early 1990, he was elected as the Chairman of the Supreme Council of Lithuania. In this role, he acted as the de facto head of state and presided over the historic declaration of the restoration of Lithuania's independence on March 11, 1990. His leadership was a defining feature of the Baltic states' resistance against Soviet authority during the late 1980s and early 1990s, making him the most recognizable political figure associated with the Lithuanian state during the collapse of the USSR.

34History
In June, 1991 a Friendship and Non-aggression Treaty was signed between:
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Answer: (C) Poland and Germany

Explanation

The Treaty of Good Neighbourship and Friendly Cooperation was signed on June 17, 1991, between Germany and Poland. This agreement was signed by German Chancellor Helmut Kohl and Polish Prime Minister Jan Krzysztof Bielecki to establish a new framework for bilateral relations following the reunification of Germany and the collapse of the Eastern Bloc. It built upon the 1990 Border Treaty which confirmed the Oder-Neisse line as the permanent frontier. The 1991 treaty emphasized the renunciation of territorial claims, the protection of the rights of ethnic minorities in both countries, and Germany's support for Poland's eventual integration into the European Community. By formally recognizing existing borders and committing to peaceful cooperation, it served as a definitive reconciliation pact between the two nations.

35Science and Technology
Consider the following statements associated with Chernobyl tragedy: I. It is located in Siberia. II. The tragedy killed 31 citizens and led to evacuations of lakhs of people. III. It caused radiation sickness in several countries. IV. It has forced some countries to decide for abandoning the nuclear power altogether. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) II, III and IV

Explanation

The Chernobyl disaster occurred on April 26, 1986, at the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant in the Ukrainian SSR. The initial explosion and immediate exposure to high-level radiation resulted in the deaths of 31 people, primarily plant workers and firemen, while the subsequent contamination led to the evacuation of approximately 350,000 people from the exclusion zone. The disaster released a massive plume of radioactive isotopes that spread across large parts of the Soviet Union and Europe, causing radiation sickness and long-term environmental contamination in multiple countries. Consequently, the tragedy fundamentally altered public perception of nuclear energy, leading some nations to reconsider their energy policies. For instance, Italy held a referendum in 1987 that resulted in the decision to phase out nuclear power plants, and other countries intensified their movements toward abandoning nuclear energy altogether.

36History
To which foreigner was 'Bharat Ratna' awarded in 1990?
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Answer: (B) Nelson Mandela

Explanation

Nelson Mandela was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1990 in recognition of his extraordinary leadership in the anti-apartheid struggle in South Africa and his unwavering commitment to the principles of equality and justice. He became the second non-Indian recipient of the award, following Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1987. The conferment occurred during his visit to India in 1990, shortly after his release from twenty-seven years of incarceration, highlighting the deep historical and cultural bonds between India and the liberation movements in Africa. His struggle was widely viewed as a continuation of the Gandhian philosophy of non-violent resistance, making him a highly revered figure across the Indian subcontinent.

37Art and Culture
Who was given the 'Kalidas Award' for the year 1990?
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Answer: (A) Vijay Tendulkar

Explanation

Vijay Tendulkar was a renowned Indian playwright and screenwriter who significantly shaped modern Marathi theatre. He was conferred with the Kalidas Samman for the year 1990-91 by the Government of Madhya Pradesh for his exceptional contributions to the field of Theatre. This prestigious award was established in 1980 to recognize excellence in four categories: Classical Music, Classical Dance, Theatre, and Plastic Arts. Tendulkar's body of work is noted for its realistic and often provocative exploration of societal dynamics and human psychology, making him one of the most influential dramatists in 20th-century India.

38Science and Technology
When was INSAT 1-D of India launched?
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Answer: (B) 12th June, 1990

Explanation

INSAT 1-D was the fourth and final satellite of the first-generation Indian National Satellite System (INSAT-1) series. It was launched on June 12, 1990, from the Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida, USA, using a Delta 4925 launch vehicle. The satellite was designed for a mission life of seven years and played a critical role in providing telecommunications, television broadcasting, and meteorological services across India, ensuring continuity of service after the end-of-life phases or failures of previous INSAT-1 satellites.

39Science and Technology
When was the agreement to dismantle 'Medium Range Missiles' signed between President Reagan of U.S.A. and Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev?
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Answer: (A) December, 1987

Explanation

The agreement to dismantle medium-range missiles, formally known as the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty, was signed on December 8, 1987. During a summit in Washington, D.C., United States President Ronald Reagan and Soviet General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev signed the accord to eliminate all ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges between 500 and 5,500 kilometers. This treaty was a landmark event in Cold War diplomacy as it marked the first time the two superpowers agreed to reduce their nuclear arsenals rather than merely capping them. The treaty also established rigorous on-site inspection procedures to verify the destruction of the prohibited weapon systems, leading to the disposal of nearly 2,700 missiles by June 1991.

40Polity and Governance
Which of the following Great Powers of the world did not send its army to take part in the last Gulf war?
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Answer: (C) China

Explanation

The Gulf War of 1990-1991 was conducted by a coalition of thirty-five countries led by the United States to expel Iraqi forces from Kuwait. Although China was a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council and allowed the passage of Resolution 678 by abstaining, it followed a strict policy of non-involvement in the military conflict. Unlike the United States, Great Britain, and France, which deployed substantial combat troops and military hardware as part of Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm, China did not send any part of its army to participate in the actual fighting or the coalition military presence in the Persian Gulf region.

41History
Which of the following throws light on Harrapan Culture?
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Answer: (C) Archaeological excavations

Explanation

Archaeological excavations provide the primary and most reliable source of information regarding the Harappan Civilization. Since the Harappan script remains undeciphered, our entire understanding of their urban planning, social hierarchy, drainage systems, trade networks, and religious practices relies on material remains unearthed from various sites. Physical artifacts such as the Great Bath, granaries, tools, pottery, ornaments, and skeletal remains discovered through systematic digging allow historians to reconstruct the lifestyle and culture of this Bronze Age society. These scientific excavations at locations like Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, and Lothal reveal the architectural sophistication and economic complexity of the civilization.

42History
Which one of the following statements about Arthashastra is not true?
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Answer: (B) It describes the then economic life of the country.

Explanation

The Arthashastra, traditionally attributed to Kautilya, is primarily a normative and prescriptive treatise on statecraft, law, and military strategy rather than a descriptive historical record. It functions as a manual of instruction for a ruler, detailing the ideal administrative machinery, the duties of a monarch, and the principles of political diplomacy. While the text contains extensive information regarding taxation, trade, and resource management, these sections serve as guidelines for state regulation and revenue maximization. It does not provide a narrative or sociological description of the actual economic life or the lived experiences of the common people during the period it was written. Instead, it focuses on the theoretical framework and practical requirements for maintaining a stable and powerful state through centralized control and rigorous financial administration.

43History
Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram were built by:
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Answer: (A) Pallavas

Explanation

The rock-cut architecture at Mahabalipuram was developed by the Pallava dynasty during the 7th and 8th centuries. King Mahendravarman I initiated the cave temple style, which was further evolved by his son Narasimhavarman I, after whom the city Mamallapuram is named. The site is renowned for its monolithic Rathas, which are free-standing temples carved from single rocks, and the Mandapas or rock-cut caves adorned with intricate bas-reliefs like the Descent of the Ganges. These structures represent the transition from cave architecture to structural stone temples in South India.

44History
Study the following names of the contemporaries of Kanishka and mark answer according to the answer code given below: (I) Asvaghosh (II) Vasumitra (III) Kalidasa (IV) Kambar
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Answer: (C) I and II

Explanation

Kanishka I, the prominent Kushana emperor who ascended the throne around 78 CE, was a great patron of Buddhism and art. Asvaghosh was a celebrated Buddhist philosopher, dramatist, and poet who lived in Kanishka's court at Purushapura (modern Peshawar) and served as his spiritual advisor. He is best known for composing the Buddhacharita and served as the vice-president of the Fourth Buddhist Council. Vasumitra was a distinguished Buddhist scholar and theologian of the Sarvastivada school who presided as the president over the Fourth Buddhist Council held at Kundalavana in Kashmir under Kanishka's patronage. Both figures were instrumental in the development and propagation of Mahayana Buddhism during the Kushana period.

45Art and Culture
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Khajuraho - Chandela

Explanation

The Khajuraho Group of Monuments was built by the Chandela dynasty between 950 and 1050 CE in the Bundelkhand region of modern-day Madhya Pradesh. These temples are renowned for their Nagara-style architectural symbolism and intricate sculptures. The Chandela rulers, particularly under kings like Yashovarman and Dhanga, commissioned these structures to honor various Hindu and Jain deities. The site remains one of the most significant examples of medieval Indian temple art and craftsmanship.

46History
Which one of the following is the earliest school of Indian philosophy?
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Answer: (A) Samkhya

Explanation

Samkhya is traditionally and historically recognized as the earliest of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy. Attributed to the sage Kapila, its foundational principles are rooted in the ancient Vedic and Upanishadic literature, pre-dating the systematic formalization of other philosophical systems. The Samkhya school provides a dualistic framework based on Purusha (pure consciousness) and Prakriti (primordial matter), and its evolutionary theory of the cosmos served as a metaphysical basis for several other schools, most notably Yoga. Historical analysis of philosophical texts confirms that Samkhya concepts were well-established long before the codification of the other Darshanas.

47History
Ibn Batuta, the Moorish traveller, visited India during the reign of:
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Answer: (A) Mohammad bin Tughluq

Explanation

Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan explorer from Tangier who arrived in India in 1334 through the mountain passes of the Hindu Kush. He reached the court of Muhammad bin Tughluq, the Sultan of Delhi, who was known for his interest in foreign scholars and travelers. Impressed by his knowledge of Islamic law, the Sultan appointed him as the Qazi, or judge, of Delhi. During his eight-year stay in India, Ibn Battuta meticulously recorded the political, social, and economic conditions of the Tughluq Empire in his famous travelogue titled Rihla. This work remains a primary source of historical information for the 14th-century Sultanate period.

48History
During which age did women enjoy equality with men?
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Answer: (B) Mauryan age

Explanation

During the Mauryan age, as evidenced by Kautilya's Arthashastra and the writings of Megasthenes, women occupied significant positions in the social and administrative hierarchy. They served as personal bodyguards to the emperor, worked as spies, and were active in agricultural and manufacturing sectors. Legal provisions allowed women the right to divorce and remarry under specific circumstances, and they maintained control over their personal property known as Streedhan. This period offered women greater mobility and legal standing in public and private life, reflecting a high social status where they were treated with a degree of parity in various functional and legal aspects of society.

49Art and Culture
The 'Pahari School', 'Rajput School', 'Mughal School' and 'Kangra School' represent different styles in the art of:
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Answer: (B) Painting

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These schools represent the major traditions and regional styles of Indian miniature painting that flourished between the 16th and 19th centuries. The Mughal School was characterized by its synthesis of Persian and Indian styles, focusing on realism, courtly life, and historical events. The Rajput School, or Rajasthani painting, developed in the royal courts of Rajasthan and primarily depicted themes from Hindu mythology, the Ramayana, and the Mahabharata. The Pahari School originated in the Himalayan hill states, with the Kangra School being its most prominent and refined branch. The Kangra style is renowned for its lyrical beauty, delicate lines, and the use of soft, cool colors to portray themes of divine love, particularly the legends of Radha and Krishna.

50History
Consider the following statements connected with Allauddin Khilji: I. He collected revenue by measuring the cultivated land. II. He enforced revenue measures in entire empire. III. He abolished the powers of Provincial Governors. Select the correct answer from the coding scheme given below:
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Answer: (D) I, II and III

Explanation

Alauddin Khilji was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the Masahat system, which required the measurement of cultivated land to determine land revenue based on the actual area under cultivation. To finance his large standing army and maintain central control, he extended these rigorous revenue measures across his empire, specifically targeting the fertile regions of Northern India and the Doab. Furthermore, he significantly weakened the autonomy of Provincial Governors and the hereditary landed aristocracy by confiscating their land grants, strictly auditing their accounts through the Diwan-i-Mustakhraj, and prohibiting social alliances among them without his prior consent, thereby centralizing all administrative power in the hands of the Sultan.

51History
Consider: Assertion (A): Aurangzeb succeeded Shahjahan to the Mughal throne. Reason (R): The law of primogeniture was followed. Select the correct answer from the coding scheme given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Explanation

Aurangzeb ascended the Mughal throne in 1658 after emerging victorious in a bloody war of succession against his brothers Dara Shikoh, Shuja, and Murad Baksh. While his father Shah Jahan was still alive, Aurangzeb successfully maneuvered to seize power and eventually imprisoned Shah Jahan in the Agra Fort. Regarding the succession process, the Mughal dynasty did not adhere to the law of primogeniture, which would have granted the right of inheritance exclusively to the eldest son, Dara Shikoh. Instead, they followed the Timurid tradition of coparcenary inheritance, where all sons had an equal claim to the empire. This lack of a fixed rule of succession meant that the throne was often contested through military might and political intrigue, a principle often described as takht ya takhta, meaning throne or the coffin.

52Art and Culture
The thoughts of which of the following Sufi saint have been incorporated in the religious book 'Adi Granth' of the Sikhs?
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Answer: (C) Fariduddin-Ganj-i-Shakar

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Baba Farid, formally known as Sheikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar, was a prominent 13th-century Sufi saint of the Chishti order whose spiritual verses were incorporated into the Adi Granth. When Guru Arjan Dev compiled the Sikh scripture in 1604, he included the compositions of various non-Sikh saints, known as Bhagats, to emphasize universal spiritual truths. Baba Farid is the most prominent Sufi figure in the collection, with 134 of his hymns, including 112 shaloks and 4 shabads, preserved in the Guru Granth Sahib. His poetry, written in the Multani dialect of Punjabi, focuses on themes of intense devotion, the transitory nature of life, and the necessity of humility. Guru Nanak Dev originally collected these verses during his travels, and they were preserved by successive Gurus because they aligned with the core Sikh principles of equality and the pursuit of Divine love.

53History
In the third battle of Panipat Marathas were defeated by:
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Answer: (B) Afghans

Explanation

The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14 January 1761 between the Maratha Empire and the invading Afghan army of Ahmad Shah Durrani, also known as Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghans were supported by local allies, including the Rohilla Afghans and the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-Daula. Ahmad Shah Durrani led a highly disciplined force that utilized superior military tactics and mobile artillery, such as zamburaks or swivel guns mounted on camels. The Afghan victory was decisive, as they successfully blockaded the Maratha camp, leading to starvation and eventual military collapse. This conflict is considered one of the largest and most significant battles of the 18th century in India.

54HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Avadh was annexed to British Empire in India by:
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Answer: (C) By declaring the State as Maladministered

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie annexed Avadh in February 1856 by issuing a proclamation that charged the Nawab, Wajid Ali Shah, with chronic misgovernment and failure to reform the administration. While Avadh had been a loyal ally under the Subsidiary Alliance since 1801, Dalhousie used the reports of British Residents like William Sleeman and James Outram to justify the takeover on humanitarian and administrative grounds. The British argued that they were responsible for the welfare of the people, which they claimed was being neglected under the Nawab's rule. This annexation was unique because it did not rely on the Doctrine of Lapse or military conquest, but specifically on the allegation of maladministration.

55History
Who among the following greatmen is called the 'Father of Indian Renaissance'?
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Answer: (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy is regarded as the Father of Indian Renaissance because he was the primary catalyst for the social, religious, and intellectual awakening in 19th-century India. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to promote monotheism and challenge regressive customs like idol worship and the caste system. His persistent advocacy led to the historic abolition of Sati in 1829 by Lord William Bentinck. Roy was a pioneer of modern education, promoting a synthesis of traditional Indian learning with Western science, rationalism, and liberal philosophy. Through his journalistic endeavors and literary works, he sought to create an informed public opinion and laid the groundwork for the modern Indian political and social reform movements. His efforts to modernize Indian society while preserving its ethical core earned him this title.

56History
Consider: Assertion (A): The First War of Independence in 1857 failed to secure freedom from the British Government. Reason (R): The leadership of Bahadur Shah Zafar did not have popular support and most of the Indian rulers of important States shied away from the struggle. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The Revolt of 1857 failed to achieve its ultimate goal of overthrowing British rule because it remained localized and lacked a unified national strategy. While Bahadur Shah Zafar was symbolically recognized as the leader, he was an elderly ruler who lacked the military prowess and administrative control necessary to coordinate a diverse and widespread uprising. Furthermore, the movement suffered significantly from a lack of support among the Indian princely states. Major rulers, such as the Scindias of Gwalior, the Holkars of Indore, the Nizam of Hyderabad, and the Sikh chiefs of Punjab, either remained neutral or actively assisted the British forces in suppressing the rebels. Lord Canning even remarked that these rulers acted as breakwaters to the storm which would otherwise have swept the British away in one wave. This fragmentation of leadership and the collaboration of powerful Indian states with the British directly led to the collapse of the struggle.

57History
The secret of success of East India Company in India was:
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Answer: (D) All the three above

Explanation

The success of the East India Company was the result of a combination of political, military, and social factors. Politically, the concept of a unified Indian nation did not exist during the 18th and early 19th centuries; instead, the subcontinent was divided into numerous competing regional states, which the Company exploited through its policy of divide and rule. Militarily, the British introduced advanced European warfare techniques, featuring highly disciplined infantry and superior flintlock muskets that provided a decisive edge over traditional Indian armies. Furthermore, the Company successfully recruited local Indian men as sepoys. These soldiers were motivated by regular pay, professional stability, and reliable pensions rather than nationalistic loyalty, as the modern sense of Indian nationalism had not yet developed. Together, these elements allowed a commercial entity to effectively colonize and govern a vast territory.

58History
The Regulating Act was passed in:
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Answer: (A) 1773

Explanation

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major step taken by the British Parliament to regulate and control the affairs of the East India Company in India. It was enacted to address the financial crisis of the Company and to curb the corruption and high-handedness of its officials. The act established a new administrative framework by designating the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal and creating an Executive Council of four members to assist him. Furthermore, it paved the way for a centralized administration in India and led to the establishment of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William in Calcutta in 1774. This legislation transformed the Company from a purely commercial body into a political entity under the supervision of the British Crown.

59History
Match List-I with List-II: List-I: (1) Clive (2) Bentinck (3) Charles Metcalfe (4) Curzon List-II: A. Removal of press restriction B. Partition of Bengal C. Dual Govt. in Bengal D. English Education
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Answer: (A) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Explanation

Robert Clive introduced the Dual Government system in Bengal in 1765 following the Treaty of Allahabad, dividing the administrative responsibilities between the East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal. Lord William Bentinck enacted the English Education Act of 1835, which officially introduced English as the medium of instruction in Indian education based on the recommendations of T.B. Macaulay. Charles Metcalfe, often referred to by his first name, earned the title of Liberator of the Indian Press for the removal of press restrictions via the Press Act of 1835. Lord Curzon was responsible for the Partition of Bengal in 1905, an administrative action that led to widespread nationalist protests across India.

60History
Morley-Minto Reforms Bill was passed in:
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Answer: (B) 1909

Explanation

The Morley-Minto Reforms, officially known as the Indian Councils Act 1909, were named after John Morley, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, the Viceroy of India. The British Parliament passed this legislation in 1909 to introduce a limited increase in the involvement of Indians in the governance of British India. A significant feature of this Act was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, which allowed them to elect their own representatives to the legislative councils. It also expanded the size of the central and provincial legislative councils and allowed for the appointment of the first Indian member, Satyendra Prasad Sinha, to the Viceroy Executive Council.

61Polity and Governance
In the Indian Constitution the Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from:
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Answer: (B) Ireland

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51, were borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937. These principles represent the aspirations of the people and serve as fundamental guidelines for the governance of the country. Although they are non-justiciable in a court of law, the Constitution declares them fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a social and economic democracy and a welfare state. The Irish themselves had borrowed this idea from the Spanish Constitution.

62Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights?
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Answer: (A) Right to property

Explanation

The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Prior to this amendment, it was protected under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. Following the amendment, the right was transitioned into a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution. This article stipulates that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law, meaning the state can still acquire property for public purposes provided it follows legal procedures, but the right is no longer a Fundamental Right under Part III.

63Polity and Governance
Out of the following Viceroys Penal Code, Civil Procedure Code and Criminal Procedure Code were passed?
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Answer: (A) Lord Canning

Explanation

Lord Canning served as the Governor-General of India from 1856 to 1862 and became the first Viceroy under the British Crown following the Government of India Act 1858. His administration oversaw the major codification of Indian laws based on the earlier recommendations of the Law Commissions. The Code of Civil Procedure was enacted in 1859 to provide a uniform procedure for civil courts. This was followed by the Indian Penal Code in 1860, which established a comprehensive criminal code for the country. Finally, the Code of Criminal Procedure was passed in 1861 to standardize the process for criminal investigations and trials. These legislative milestones consolidated the legal framework of British India into a unified system during his tenure.

64Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (A) One-third of its members retire every two years

Explanation

Under Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha is defined as a permanent house that is not subject to dissolution. To ensure a continuous cycle of representation and renewal, the constitutional framework provides that one-third of its members shall retire every two years. Consequently, each elected member serves a term of six years. This staggered retirement schedule allows the House to maintain continuity in its legislative functions and ensures that the entire membership is never renewed at the same time, distinguishing it from the Lok Sabha.

65Polity and Governance
The citizenship provided by the Constitution of India is:
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Answer: (B) Single citizenship

Explanation

The Indian Constitution, despite having a federal structure with a dual polity consisting of the Union and the States, provides for only a single citizenship for the entire country. Under Part II (Articles 5 to 11), the Constitution recognizes all individuals who meet the prescribed criteria as citizens of India, regardless of the state or territory where they reside. Unlike some other federal systems where individuals hold citizenship of both the national government and their respective states, an Indian citizen owes allegiance only to the Union of India and enjoys uniform rights across the national territory. This system was adopted by the Constituent Assembly to promote national integration, eliminate regional barriers, and foster a collective sense of fraternity among the people of India.

66Polity and Governance
Judicial review implies the right of the Court to:
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Answer: (A) declare any law or order invalid if it is in conflict with the Constitution.

Explanation

Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. In India, this power is primarily anchored in Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Constitution. Article 13 specifically mandates that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void. This ensures the supremacy of the Constitution by allowing the Supreme Court and High Courts to invalidate any law or government order that violates constitutional provisions or exceeds the authority granted by the Constitution. It serves as a crucial check and balance, protecting the basic structure of the Constitution and the rights of citizens from arbitrary state action.

67Polity and Governance
Which of the following procedures will enable the adoption of a Money Bill that was once passed by the Lok Sabha but was amended by the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (D) It will be deemed to have been passed if the Lok Sabha passes it again either by accepting or rejecting the amendments.

Explanation

According to Article 109 of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers regarding Money Bills. After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days. If the Rajya Sabha recommends any amendments, the Lok Sabha has the absolute discretion to either accept or reject them. If the Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses with those amendments. If the Lok Sabha rejects all recommendations, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses in the original form it was passed by the Lok Sabha. In either scenario, the bill proceeds to the President for assent without requiring further approval from the Rajya Sabha.

68Polity and Governance
The fourth President of India was:
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Answer: (A) Sri V.V. Giri

Explanation

Varahagiri Venkata Giri, popularly known as V.V. Giri, served as the fourth President of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974. He holds the distinction of being the only person to be elected to the office as an independent candidate. Before his full five-year term, he had served as the Vice President of India and also as the acting President following the death of the third President, Dr. Zakir Hussain. His presidency followed the successive terms of Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, and Dr. Zakir Hussain in the official chronological order of Indian heads of state.

69Polity and Governance
The first Panchayati Raj system was inaugurated by Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru on 12th October, 1959 at:
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Answer: (C) Nagaur

Explanation

The Panchayati Raj system was officially inaugurated by Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan on October 2, 1959. This initiative followed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, which had proposed a three-tier system of rural local self-government to foster democratic decentralization. By launching the scheme in Nagaur, Rajasthan became the first state in independent India to implement this modern administrative structure, aiming to empower village-level institutions and involve the rural population directly in the planning and execution of development programs.

70Economy
Match the following plans and programmes: List-I (Plans): (A) 1st Plan (B) 2nd Plan (C) 3rd Plan (D) 4th Plan (E) 5th Plan List-II (Programmes): 1. Rapid Industrialisation 2. Community Development 3. Expansion of basic industries 4. Minimum Needs Programme 5. Achievement of self reliance and growth with stability
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Answer: (D) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

Explanation

The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) prioritized agricultural and rural development, leading to the launch of the Community Development Programme in 1952. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Mahalanobis model, shifted focus toward rapid industrialisation with an emphasis on heavy industries. The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) sought to make the economy self-reliant and self-generating, which involved the expansion of basic industries to support long-term growth. The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) formally adopted the objectives of growth with stability and the progressive achievement of self-reliance to reduce dependence on foreign aid. The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-78) introduced the Minimum Needs Programme in its first year to ensure a basic standard of living by providing essential services like education, health, and clean water to the underprivileged.

71Economy
The strategy adopted under I.R.D.P. in the Seventh Plan was:
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Answer: (A) Adoption of total house hold approach

Explanation

The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was a major self-employment scheme aimed at poverty alleviation in rural areas. During the Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-1990), the implementation strategy was refined to adopt a total household approach. This strategy shifted the focus from providing individual, isolated assets to providing a comprehensive package of assistance tailored to the needs of the entire family unit. The objective was to ensure that the total income generated from various activities assisted by the program would be sufficient to sustainably lift the target household above the poverty line. By treating the family as the basic unit of planning and assistance, the Seventh Plan sought to improve the long-term impact and effectiveness of the poverty eradication efforts.

72Economy
Which out of the following States has the highest per capita income?
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Answer: (A) Goa

Explanation

Goa maintained the highest per capita income among Indian states during the early 1990s. This economic leadership was reflected in the Per Capita Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) figures released by the Central Statistical Organisation for the 1993-94 period. The state prosperity stemmed from its small population density coupled with high-value economic activities, including a robust maritime trade sector, extensive mineral excavations, and a highly developed tourism infrastructure that attracted significant foreign exchange. By 1994, Goa economic output per person was significantly higher than the national average due to its strong services sector and advanced human development indicators.

73Economy
Balance of payment is defined as:
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Answer: (D) Complete record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and rest of the world.

Explanation

The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic and comprehensive record of all economic transactions conducted between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific time period, typically a year. These transactions include the export and import of goods and services, income flows, unilateral transfers such as remittances or grants, and changes in ownership of financial assets and liabilities. Residents in this context encompass individuals, businesses, and government agencies operating within the domestic economy. The BoP follows a double-entry bookkeeping system, categorizing activities into the current account, which covers trade and income, and the capital and financial accounts, which record investments and loans. It serves as the primary accounting framework for monitoring a nation's international financial position and its economic interactions with the global community.

74Economy
The Devaluation is:
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Answer: (D) Reduction in the value of currency in terms of gold.

Explanation

Devaluation is the deliberate downward adjustment of the official exchange rate of a country's currency relative to a baseline. Historically, under fixed exchange rate systems such as the gold standard or the Bretton Woods agreement, the value of a currency was defined by its parity with a specific quantity of gold. Therefore, devaluation involves a government or central bank officially reducing the amount of gold that one unit of the national currency can be exchanged for. This policy is typically implemented to rectify a fundamental disequilibrium in the balance of payments by making domestic goods cheaper for foreign buyers and making foreign imports more expensive for domestic consumers.

75Polity and Governance
Which among the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability in any form?
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Answer: (B) Article 17

Explanation

Article 17 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the abolition of untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. It states that the enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This article is a significant provision in the fundamental rights chapter aimed at ending social discrimination and ensuring the dignity of the individual. To give effect to this constitutional mandate, the Parliament enacted the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, which was later renamed and amended as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. This right is available against both the State and private individuals, making it one of the most critical legal tools for social reform in India.

76Polity and Governance
The President of India can be removed from office even before the expiry of the term.
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Answer: (C) through impeachment

Explanation

Article 61 of the Constitution of India prescribes the specific procedure for the impeachment of the President, which is the only legal method for removal from office before the five-year term expires. The process can be initiated by either House of Parliament solely on the grounds of violation of the Constitution. It requires a formal 14-day notice signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of the initiating House. For the removal to take effect, the impeachment resolution must be passed by a special majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of each House, following an investigation of the charges.

77History
Which of the following can be compared to 'Prince' of Machiavelli?
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Answer: (B) Kautilya's 'Arthshastra'

Explanation

Kautilya's Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy that shares profound similarities with Niccolò Machiavelli's The Prince. Both works are cornerstone texts of political realism, focusing on the practicalities of governance, the maintenance of power, and the strategic interests of the state. Kautilya provides a detailed manual for a ruler on how to manage an empire, conduct diplomacy, and utilize espionage, often prioritizing political expediency and the security of the kingdom over abstract moral or religious principles. This pragmatic approach to the exercise of authority and the preservation of the state has led many scholars to describe Kautilya as the Indian Machiavelli.

78Art and Culture
'Ayurveda' that is 'Science of Life' appeared first in:
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Answer: (D) Atharvaveda

Explanation

The Atharvaveda is the primary source among the four Vedas where the fundamental principles of Ayurveda, translated as the Science of Life, find their earliest mention. It contains numerous hymns called Bhaisajya Suktas which detail treatments for physical and mental diseases using medicinal plants, herbs, and prayers. This Veda addresses human health through both empirical observations and ritualistic healing, forming the philosophical and practical precursor to later specialized medical treatises. Because it focuses extensively on longevity and the preservation of health, Ayurveda is traditionally classified by scholars and ancient texts as an Upaveda, or a subsidiary branch, of the Atharvaveda.

79Economy
The importance given to the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission in the official hierarchy of the Government is that he is given the rank of:
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Answer: (A) A cabinet minister in the Government of India

Explanation

The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission served as the de facto executive head of the commission and was responsible for the formulation and implementation of five-year plans. In the official Table of Precedence of the Government of India, the Deputy Chairman was accorded the rank and status of a Union Cabinet Minister. Although the Deputy Chairman was not a member of the Union Cabinet, this ministerial status permitted them to attend all meetings of the Cabinet, ensuring effective coordination between the planning body and the executive branch of the government. This high rank reflected the significant role the Planning Commission played in the socio-economic development and resource allocation of the country.

80Polity and Governance
The Solicitor General of India is:
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Answer: (B) A legal adviser

Explanation

The Solicitor General of India is a statutory post created to assist the Attorney General in fulfilling their duties. Serving as the second-highest law officer in the country, the Solicitor General functions as a legal adviser to the Government of India. They are responsible for providing legal counsel on complex matters referred to them by the government and representing the Union of India in legal proceedings before the Supreme Court and various High Courts. The role is governed by the Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987, ensuring that the executive branch receives expert legal guidance and representation in all judicial matters.

81Economy
Which one of the following States is the largest producer of tea in India?
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Answer: (A) Assam

Explanation

Assam is the leading tea-producing state in India, accounting for approximately half of the country's total annual tea output. The state's unique geography, characterized by the fertile alluvial soils of the Brahmaputra Valley and a tropical climate with high humidity and abundant rainfall, provides the ideal conditions for the cultivation of the Camellia sinensis plant. The tea industry in Assam is a vital component of its economy, with expansive plantations concentrated in regions such as Dibrugarh, Tinsukia, and Sibsagar. Since the mid-19th century, Assam has maintained its status as the largest tea-growing region in the country due to its extensive acreage and high yield per hectare.

82Geography
Which of the following areas have an average of 200 mm rainfall in India?
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Answer: (B) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

Jammu and Kashmir, particularly the trans-Himalayan region of Ladakh, is a cold desert that receives very low annual precipitation. This area lies in the rain-shadow zone of the Great Himalayas, which block the moisture-laden winds of the Southwest Monsoon from reaching the interior plateaus. Consequently, the average annual rainfall in these parts is approximately 200 mm or less, with much of the moisture arriving in the form of snow during the winter months due to Western Disturbances. This geographical isolation from the primary monsoon systems results in the arid conditions characteristic of the region.

83Geography
The biggest desert of the world is:
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Answer: (C) Sahara

Explanation

The Sahara is the largest hot desert in the world, covering an area of approximately 9.2 million square kilometers. It spans nearly the entire northern part of the African continent, stretching from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Red Sea in the east. Its vast geographical extent makes it significantly larger than any other arid region in Africa or Asia. In the context of the options provided, it remains the most extensive desert landscape on Earth.

84Geography
The concept of Neo Determinism in Geography was advanced by:
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Answer: (B) G. Taylor

Explanation

Griffith Taylor introduced the concept of Neo-determinism, which he also famously termed Stop and Go Determinism. This concept serves as a middle path between the philosophical extremes of environmental determinism and possibilism. Taylor argued that while the physical environment determines the ultimate direction of development, human beings possess the ability to accelerate, slow down, or temporarily halt that development. He used the analogy of a city traffic controller to explain this relationship, suggesting that man can regulate the flow of progress but cannot fundamentally change the broad environmental constraints within which a region must develop. This approach recognizes that nature is not a passive backdrop, nor is man a complete master, but rather that human progress is achieved through a controlled interaction with natural laws.

85Economy
Korba in Madhya Pradesh is known for:
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Answer: (A) aluminium industry

Explanation

Korba is the site of Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO), which was incorporated in 1965 as the first public sector undertaking in the aluminium industry. The city hosts an integrated aluminium complex that includes an alumina refinery and an aluminium smelter, supported by the presence of vast coal reserves in the Korba coalfield and the Korba Super Thermal Power Plant. These facilities provide the necessary power and raw material processing capabilities for large-scale aluminium production. In 1994, Korba was a prominent industrial center within the undivided state of Madhya Pradesh, playing a crucial role in India's metallurgical sector.

86Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List-I: (A) Singrauli (B) Kajarhat (C) Koyali (D) Anand List-II: 1. Oil 2. Milk 3. Coal 4. Cement
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Singrauli matches with Coal because it is home to the Singrauli Coalfield, a major source of thermal coal located across Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Kajarhat matches with Cement as the region in eastern Uttar Pradesh is known for its significant limestone deposits which support the local cement industry. Koyali matches with Oil because it is the site of the Gujarat Refinery, one of the largest public sector oil refineries in India. Anand matches with Milk because it is the headquarters of the Amul cooperative and serves as the epicenter of India's White Revolution.

87Economy
India export maximum leather to:
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Answer: (C) England

Explanation

During the early 1990s, the United Kingdom was a major destination for Indian leather exports. The Indian leather industry at this time was undergoing a significant shift from exporting raw hides and skins to high-value-added products such as finished leather, footwear, and leather garments. The UK market maintained a high demand for these manufactured goods due to established retail networks and a long-standing trade relationship with Indian suppliers. As one of the top foreign exchange earners for India, the leather sector relied heavily on the British market, which frequently ranked as the leading importer of Indian leather products in terms of total value during that specific period.

88Geography
Equinox, the two periods in the year when day and night are equal, occurs on:
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Answer: (A) 21st march and 22nd September

Explanation

An equinox occurs when the Sun is positioned directly above the Earth's equator, resulting in nearly equal duration of daylight and darkness across all latitudes. This astronomical phenomenon takes place twice a year during the transition between seasons. The first event, known as the vernal equinox, typically falls on March 21 and marks the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere. The second event, known as the autumnal equinox, generally occurs on September 22 or 23 and signifies the start of autumn in the Northern Hemisphere. During these specific points in the Earth's orbit, the tilt of the Earth's axis is perpendicular to the Sun's rays, meaning neither pole is tilted toward the Sun.

89Economy
Green revolution had the greatest impact on:
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Answer: (D) Wheat

Explanation

The Green Revolution, initiated in the mid-1960s, achieved its most significant and immediate success in the production of wheat. This transformation was driven by the introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, specifically the semi-dwarf wheat varieties developed by Norman Borlaug in Mexico. In India, under the leadership of M.S. Swaminathan, these varieties were adapted to local conditions, leading to a massive surge in productivity in the North-Western regions like Punjab and Haryana. The expansion of irrigation facilities and the increased use of chemical fertilizers complemented these seeds, resulting in a production increase so substantial that the initial phase of the Green Revolution is frequently referred to as the Wheat Revolution. By the early 1990s, data confirmed that wheat recorded the highest growth rate in both yield per hectare and total output compared to any other food grain.

90Geography
Which of the following is known as 'the Continent of Birds'?
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Answer: (C) South America

Explanation

South America is designated as the Continent of Birds because it harbors the highest avian diversity on Earth. The continent is home to more than 3,000 species of birds, which represents nearly one-third of the world's total bird population. This extraordinary biological richness is attributed to its vast range of habitats, including the expansive Amazon tropical rainforest, the high-altitude Andean mountain ranges, and diverse coastal and wetland ecosystems. The presence of numerous endemic families and the sheer volume of unique species found across its varied climatic zones establish its global reputation as the primary center for avian life.

91Polity and Governance
Bhakra Nangal is a joint project of the States:
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Answer: (A) Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan

Explanation

The Bhakra Nangal Project is a premier multi-purpose river valley project constructed on the Sutlej River. It represents a cooperative effort between the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan to utilize the river's potential for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. The project comprises the Bhakra Dam, which is one of the highest gravity dams in the world, and the Nangal Dam located downstream. The costs and benefits, including the distribution of water through the Bhakra Canal system and the electricity produced by the various powerhouses, are shared among these three states based on formal inter-state agreements. While the project was initiated in undivided Punjab, the subsequent creation of Haryana in 1966 maintained its status as a key stakeholder alongside Rajasthan and the present-day state of Punjab.

92Geography
India has an abundant volume of rainfall but is still regarded as a thirsty land. This is due to:
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

India receives high annual precipitation, yet remains a thirsty land due to a combination of hydrological and climatic factors. Rapid runoff occurs because of the country's varied topography, such as the steep slopes of the Himalayas and Western Ghats, which cause rainwater to flow quickly into rivers and eventually the sea instead of percolating into the soil. The tropical and subtropical climate leads to high temperatures that result in the quick evaporation of surface water from reservoirs and soil. Additionally, India's rainfall is highly seasonal, with the vast majority occurring during the four months of the Southwest Monsoon. This temporal concentration leaves the remaining eight months of the year significantly dry, creating a cycle of seasonal abundance followed by chronic water scarcity.

93Geography
Datum line:
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Answer: (A) is a horizontal line from where heights and depths are measured

Explanation

A datum line is a fundamental reference baseline used in surveying, engineering, and navigation to measure vertical distances. It serves as the zero level or starting point from which elevations and depths are determined. For example, Mean Sea Level is the most common datum line used globally to express the altitude of landforms or the depth of ocean floors. By establishing a fixed horizontal reference surface, scientists and surveyors can maintain consistency across various geographical datasets and ensure that height measurements are uniform regardless of the location from which they are taken.

94Economy
Which of the following countries is called the 'sugar bowl of the world'?
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Answer: (D) Cuba

Explanation

Cuba is historically referred to as the sugar bowl of the world because it once possessed the largest sugar industry globally and was the primary exporter of sugar. The country's tropical climate, fertile soil, and adequate rainfall provided ideal conditions for the extensive cultivation of sugarcane. For much of the 20th century, sugar production was the backbone of the Cuban economy, and its dominance in the international sugar market led to the widespread use of this geographic epithet.

95Geography
In which rock system, out of the following, is iron-ore found in India?
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Answer: (C) Dharwar

Explanation

The Dharwar rock system, which dates back to the late Archean and early Proterozoic eras, is the most important mineral-bearing system in India. It contains the vast majority of India's high-grade iron ore deposits, primarily in the form of hematite and magnetite. These ores are typically found within Banded Iron Formations (BIF), such as Banded Hematite Quartzite (BHQ). Major iron ore belts, including those in the Singhbhum region of Jharkhand, the Keonjhar and Mayurbhanj districts of Odisha, the Bailadila range in Chhattisgarh, and the Bellary-Hospet and Bababudan hills in Karnataka, are all geologically associated with the Dharwar system. This rock system is characterized by highly metamorphosed sedimentary and igneous rocks that provide the primary source for India's metallurgical industries.

96History
Maginot line was:
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Answer: (A) boundary between France and Germany

Explanation

The Maginot Line was a sophisticated defensive system of fortifications, bunkers, and tunnels constructed by France during the 1930s. Named after the French Minister of War André Maginot, it was specifically designed to provide a permanent line of defense along the French border with Germany to prevent a direct invasion from the east. Built in response to the experiences of trench warfare in World War I, the line featured massive underground complexes and heavy artillery positions intended to force any German offensive into the more difficult terrain of Belgium or to provide enough time for the French army to mobilize its forces. Although it was technologically advanced for its era, the German military ultimately bypassed the line during the 1940 invasion of France by maneuvering through the Ardennes forest.

97History
Match List-I (Countries) with List-II (Voyagers): List-I (Countries): (1) Spain (2) Portugal (3) Holland (4) Great Britain List-II (Voyagers): A. Vasco-de-Gama B. Christopher Columbus C. Captain Cook D. Tasman
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Answer: (B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Explanation

Vasco da Gama (A) was a Portuguese (2) explorer who discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope in 1498. Christopher Columbus (B) sailed for Spain (1) and reached the Americas in 1492 during his quest for a westward route to Asia. Captain James Cook (C) was a British (4) navigator and explorer who mapped the eastern coastline of Australia and the islands of the South Pacific. Abel Tasman (D) served the Dutch (3) East India Company and is credited with being the first European to reach Tasmania and New Zealand.

98Geography
Based on the census of 1981 which of the following four States had density of population in descending order?
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Answer: (B) Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

According to the official data from the Census of 1981, Kerala recorded a population density of 655 persons per square kilometer, making it the most densely populated state among those listed. West Bengal followed with a density of 615 persons per square kilometer. Bihar stood at the third position in this descending sequence with a density of 402 persons per square kilometer. Uttar Pradesh had a population density of 377 persons per square kilometer. This progression aligns with the demographic distribution observed in the 1981 census reports, where the high productivity of land in the coastal regions and the Gangetic plains supported much higher concentrations of population compared to the national average.

99Geography
Project Tiger of the Government envisages:
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Answer: (C) to save the Indian tiger from extinction.

Explanation

Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in April 1973 with the central objective of ensuring the survival and maintenance of a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats. The initiative was a response to the alarming decline in the tiger population, which had dropped significantly due to rampant poaching and habitat loss. By designating specific areas as Tiger Reserves, the project aimed to provide a protected environment free from human interference and ecological destruction, thereby preventing the Indian tiger from reaching the point of extinction. Through habitat management and anti-poaching measures, the project seeks to preserve the tiger as a flagship species representing the health of the Indian ecosystem.

100Polity and Governance
Match List-I: (1) Shillong (2) Kohima (3) Dispur (4) Itanagar List-II: A. Assam B. Nagaland C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Meghalaya
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Answer: (D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

Explanation

The capitals of the North-Eastern states are uniquely assigned to each state. Shillong is the capital of Meghalaya, having served as the capital of composite Assam until the creation of Meghalaya in 1972. Itanagar is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, which became a Union Territory in 1972 and a full state in 1987. Kohima serves as the capital of Nagaland, established when the state was formed in 1963. Dispur became the capital of Assam in 1973 after the administrative center was moved from Shillong. Based on the provided matching, Shillong corresponds to Meghalaya, Itanagar to Arunachal Pradesh, and Kohima to Nagaland.

101History
Anti-partition movement of Bengal was initiated on:
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Answer: (B) 7th August, 1905

Explanation

The Anti-partition movement, widely known as the Swadeshi Movement, was formally initiated on 7th August, 1905. Following the announcement of the plan to partition Bengal by the British government in July, a massive protest meeting was organized at the Town Hall in Calcutta on this date. During this assembly, the formal Proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made and the Boycott Resolution was passed. This marked the official start of the organized resistance against the partition, transitioning the protest from petitions and speeches into a mass movement centered on the promotion of indigenous goods and the rejection of British products.

102History
The date April 6, 1930 is known in Indian history for:
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Answer: (D) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

On April 6, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi reached the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat and symbolically violated the British Salt Law by picking up a handful of salt from the seashore. This event marked the culmination of the Salt Satyagraha, a 241-mile march that began at Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930. By manufacturing salt in defiance of the government monopoly, Gandhi provided a signal for the formal commencement of the Civil Disobedience Movement across India, mobilizing the masses in a non-violent struggle against colonial taxation and administrative policies.

103History
Chandra Shekhar Azad, the revolutionary leader was killed by the British by:
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Answer: (C) being shot dead in encounter

Explanation

Chandra Shekhar Azad, the commander-in-chief of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, died on February 27, 1931, during a police encounter at Alfred Park in Allahabad. Acting on a tip-off from an informant, a British police contingent led by J.R.H. Nott-Bower surrounded the park where Azad was located. Azad engaged the police in a fierce gunfight, wounding several officers while ensuring the escape of his comrade. Faced with overwhelming force and having sustained multiple gunshot wounds during the exchange, he used his final bullet to fulfill his lifelong vow of never being captured alive by the colonial authorities. This armed confrontation between the revolutionary leader and the British police forces is categorized as a fatal encounter.

104History
Who out of the following was given the award of 'Rashtra Kavi' due to his influencing contribution to the Independence movement of India through his literary works?
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Answer: (A) Maithili Sharan Gupta

Explanation

Maithili Sharan Gupta was honored with the title of Rashtra Kavi by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932. This designation recognized his immense contribution to the Indian Independence movement through his patriotic literature, specifically his influential work Bharat-Bharati published in 1912. His poetry acted as a catalyst for national consciousness, articulating the glory of India's past while criticizing the colonial present and envisioning a free future. Written in Khari Boli Hindi, his verses were widely read and recited during protest rallies, making him a pivotal literary figure in the socio-political mobilization against British rule.

105History
The first war of Independence (1857) started from:
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Answer: (D) Meerut

Explanation

The First War of Independence officially commenced on May 10, 1857, at the military cantonment in Meerut. The uprising was sparked by the sepoys' refusal to use the new Enfield rifle cartridges, which were widely believed to be coated with cow and pig fat. Following the court-martial and public degradation of eighty-five soldiers who defied orders to use the ammunition, the remaining sepoys in Meerut broke into open rebellion. They liberated their imprisoned comrades, killed British officers, and burned down European quarters. This organized revolt marked the transition from sporadic incidents of defiance to a large-scale armed struggle against British rule, as the mutineers immediately marched toward Delhi to reclaim it in the name of the Mughal Emperor.

106Polity and Governance
Local Self-Government institutions in India were strengthened in 1882 by:
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Answer: (B) Lord Rippon

Explanation

Lord Ripon, the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884, is hailed as the Father of Local Self-Government in India due to his landmark Resolution of 1882. This resolution sought to establish a network of local boards and municipal committees across the country, primarily to serve as a tool for political and popular education rather than mere administrative efficiency. Ripon advocated for these local bodies to have a majority of non-official members and proposed that they be presided over by non-official chairpersons wherever possible. By shifting control of local affairs like sanitation, education, and health to elected Indian representatives, he laid the foundational structure for modern democratic decentralization in India.

107History
Khilafat Swaraj Party was formed by:
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Answer: (C) C.R. Das and Moti Lal Nehru

Explanation

The Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party, commonly referred to as the Swaraj Party, was established in January 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. Following the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the rejection of the proposal for council entry at the 1922 Gaya session of the Indian National Congress, these leaders decided to form a separate group within the Congress. C.R. Das served as the President and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries of the new party. Their primary strategy was to contest elections for the Legislative Councils and use their positions to obstruct the colonial government's operations from within, thereby demanding constitutional reforms and self-rule.

108History
The remark 'Nehru is a patriot, while Jinnah is a politician' was made by:
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Answer: (C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal

Explanation

Sir Mohammad Iqbal made this remark during a conversation with Jawaharlal Nehru in 1938, a few months before Iqbal's death. The encounter is documented by Nehru in his book, The Discovery of India. Nehru recounts that Iqbal told him there was little in common between him and Jinnah, stating that Jinnah was a politician while Nehru was a patriot. This distinction highlighted Iqbal's perception of Nehru's emotional and intellectual commitment to the cause of Indian nationalism, contrasting it with Jinnah's strategic and legalistic approach to political representation and communal interests.

109History
Find the correct matches in List-I and List-II in the alternatives given there under: List-I: (1) Prarthana Samaj (2) Brahmo Samaj (3) Arya Samaj (4) Ram Krishna Misson List-II: A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy B. Vivekananda C. Dayanand Saraswati D. Ranade E. Ram Krishna Parramhansa
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Answer: (D) 1(D), 2(A), 3(C), 4(B)

Explanation

Mahadev Govind Ranade (D) was the leading spirit and organizer of the Prarthana Samaj (1), which focused on social reforms like widow remarriage and the abolition of the caste system. Raja Ram Mohan Roy (A) founded the Brahmo Samaj (2) in 1828 to promote monotheism and advocate for the modernization of Indian society. Swami Dayanand Saraswati (C) established the Arya Samaj (3) in 1875 to revive Vedic traditions and challenge idol worship and ritualism. Swami Vivekananda (B) founded the Ramakrishna Mission (4) in 1897 to propagate the spiritual message of his guru and dedicate the organization to humanitarian relief and social service.

110History
The following are the events of national movements: I. Champaran Satyagraha II. Non-cooperation Movement III. Quit India Movement IV. Dandi March The correct chronicle order is:
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Answer: (A) I, II, IV, III

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917 and was Mahatma Gandhi's first major satyagraha in India, where he addressed the plight of indigo farmers forced into the tinkathia system. The Non-cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat Movement, representing a massive nationwide protest against British rule until its withdrawal in 1922. The Dandi March, which initiated the Civil Disobedience Movement, occurred in 1930 as Gandhi walked from Sabarmati Ashram to the Gujarat coast to defy the salt laws. The Quit India Movement, the final large-scale mass movement characterized by the slogan Do or Die, was launched in August 1942 during the Second World War. Therefore, the chronological sequence is Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Non-cooperation Movement (1920), Dandi March (1930), and Quit India Movement (1942).

111History
Two Home Rule Leagues were started in 1915-16 under the leadership of:
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Answer: (A) Tilak and Annie Besant

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 during the Belgaum Nationalist Conference, focusing his activities on Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, Berar, and the Central Provinces. Annie Besant subsequently established the All-India Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras, which covered the remainder of the country. Both leaders aimed to achieve self-government for India within the British Empire through constitutional agitation and political education. While the two leagues maintained separate organizations to accommodate the specific temperaments of their followers and prevent organizational friction, they worked in close coordination to popularize the demand for Home Rule and broaden the base of the Indian national movement.

112History
According to Gandhi ji non violence is:
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Answer: (A) a way to attain truth

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi viewed Truth and Non-violence as inseparable concepts, often describing them as two sides of the same smooth metal disc. For Gandhi, Truth (Satya) was the ultimate goal or the sovereign principle, representing the very essence of God and the ultimate reality. Non-violence (Ahimsa) served as the indispensable means or the instrument to realize and reach that Truth. He famously maintained that Ahimsa is the means and Truth is the end. Since Truth is the highest objective of human existence in Gandhian philosophy, the practice of non-violence in thought, word, and deed becomes the essential pathway for any seeker attempting to attain or perceive that absolute Truth.

113History
Indians were assured of many things in the declaration by Queen Victoria in 1858. Which among the following assurances was fulfilled by the British Government?
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Answer: (A) Policy of annexation will be abandoned

Explanation

The most significant and tangible assurance fulfilled by the British Government following Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1858 was the abandonment of the policy of annexation. The 1857 Revolt had highlighted the deep-seated resentment caused by the aggressive expansionist policies of the East India Company, particularly the Doctrine of Lapse formulated by Lord Dalhousie. To regain the trust and loyalty of the Indian princely states, the British Crown officially rescinded the Doctrine of Lapse and issued sanads (grants) to the princes, guaranteeing their right to adoption and the integrity of their territories. This shift transformed the Indian rulers into allies and "breakwaters to the storm," ensuring that no further native states were annexed into British India for the remainder of the colonial rule.

114History
The formula for transfer of sovereignty to India in 1947 was known as:
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Answer: (C) Mountbatten Plan

Explanation

Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, proposed the plan for the transfer of power on June 3, 1947, which came to be known as the Mountbatten Plan or the June 3rd Plan. This plan outlined the partition of British India into two independent sovereign dominions, India and Pakistan, and established the mechanism for the division of assets and territories. It provided for the partition of Punjab and Bengal and allowed the Princely States to decide their future course. The principles of this plan were subsequently incorporated into the Indian Independence Act of 1947 passed by the British Parliament, which legally transferred sovereignty to the two new nations on August 15, 1947.

115History
Select the correct chronological order of the following from the code given below: A. Rowlatt Act B. Simon Commission C. Home Rule Movement D. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
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Answer: (D) C,A,B,D

Explanation

The historical timeline of these events begins with the Home Rule Movement in 1916, initiated by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak to demand self-government for India. The Rowlatt Act followed in March 1919, granting the colonial government emergency powers to intern suspects without trial. Later, the Simon Commission was established in November 1927 to report on the functioning of the constitutional reforms introduced in 1919. The sequence concludes with the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, which was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy, Lord Irwin, prior to the Second Round Table Conference.

116History
Cabinet Mission, 1946 comprised of three cabinet ministers. Who among the following was not its member?
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Answer: (D) Lord Emery

Explanation

The Cabinet Mission was sent to India in March 1946 by the British Prime Minister Clement Attlee to discuss the transfer of power to the Indian leadership. The mission consisted of three British cabinet ministers: Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A.V. Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty). Lord Emery, also known as Leopold Amery, had served as the Secretary of State for India under the previous wartime coalition government led by Winston Churchill from 1940 to 1945. He lost his seat and his cabinet position following the Labour Party victory in the 1945 general election and was not a part of the delegation sent in 1946.

117History
Who from the following killed General Dyer responsible for Jallianwala Bahg massacre?
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Answer: (C) Udham Singh

Explanation

Udham Singh was a prominent Indian revolutionary associated with the Ghadar Party who sought to avenge the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919. On March 13, 1940, he assassinated Michael O'Dwyer at Caxton Hall in London. Michael O'Dwyer had served as the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab during the massacre and was the official who endorsed the actions of the military. Udham Singh had witnessed the events in Amritsar and spent years traveling abroad to coordinate with revolutionary groups before carrying out the assassination. He was subsequently arrested, tried, and executed in July 1940. In many historical contexts and examinations from this period, Udham Singh is the figure directly credited with seeking justice for the 1919 tragedy by targeting the administrative head of the Punjab government.

118History
After Poona Pact of 1932, Harijan Sewak Sangh was established. Its President was:
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Answer: (B) Ghanshyam Das Birla

Explanation

Following the signing of the Poona Pact in September 1932, Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League to combat the social evil of untouchability and work for the welfare of the Dalit community. This organization was later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh. Ghanshyam Das Birla, a leading industrialist and close follower of Gandhian principles, was appointed as its founding President. The Sangh aimed to ensure social and economic justice for the Depressed Classes through various constructive programs, including the opening of schools, temples, and wells. While the administrative functions were heavily managed by the Secretary, the leadership under G.D. Birla was instrumental in mobilizing resources and national support for the movement across India.

119History
The main centre of the 'Wahabi Movement' which started in the nineteenth century was:
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Answer: (B) Patna

Explanation

The Wahabi Movement in India was an Islamic revivalist movement founded by Syed Ahmed Barelvi of Raebareli. Patna served as the primary organizational and administrative headquarters for the movement throughout the nineteenth century. While the military operations were conducted in the North-West Frontier Province, the Patna center acted as the nerve center for managing finances, recruiting volunteers, and distributing propaganda. Under the leadership of local figures like Wilayat Ali and Enayat Ali, Patna coordinated a vast network of emissaries and secret cells across the country, making it the most significant center for the movement's activities against British colonial authority.

120History
Who from among the following was the Chairman of the Congress session of Delhi wherein resolution of divided India was passed on June 14, 1947?
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Answer: (C) Acharya J.B. Kriplani

Explanation

Acharya J.B. Kripalani served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the pivotal year of 1947. He was elected at the Meerut session in November 1946 and held the presidency during the final negotiations for Indian independence. When the All India Congress Committee met in Delhi on June 14, 1947, to discuss the Mountbatten Plan, Kripalani presided over the proceedings. It was during this session that the resolution accepting the partition of India was formally passed by the Congress leadership, paving the way for the creation of India and Pakistan as separate dominions. Kripalani remained the Congress President until his resignation in November 1947.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4A
  5. 5C
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8B
  9. 9D
  10. 10A
  11. 11A
  12. 12B
  13. 13D
  14. 14A
  15. 15C
  16. 16C
  17. 17D
  18. 18C
  19. 19A
  20. 20A
  21. 21A
  22. 22B
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28D
  29. 29A
  30. 30C
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35C
  36. 36B
  37. 37A
  38. 38B
  39. 39A
  40. 40C
  41. 41C
  42. 42B
  43. 43A
  44. 44C
  45. 45D
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51C
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54C
  55. 55B
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66A
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71A
  72. 72A
  73. 73D
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77B
  78. 78D
  79. 79A
  80. 80B
  81. 81A
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86C
  87. 87C
  88. 88A
  89. 89D
  90. 90C
  91. 91A
  92. 92D
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95C
  96. 96A
  97. 97B
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101B
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105D
  106. 106B
  107. 107C
  108. 108C
  109. 109D
  110. 110A
  111. 111A
  112. 112A
  113. 113A
  114. 114C
  115. 115D
  116. 116D
  117. 117C
  118. 118B
  119. 119B
  120. 120C

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