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UPPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 147 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

147
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6
Subjects
7
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History3322%
  • Economy3121%
  • Polity and Governance3020%
  • Geography2517%
  • Science and Technology2215%
  • Art and Culture64%
1History
Who renovated Sudarshan lake without using forced labour?
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Answer: (D) Rudradaman-I

Explanation

The Junagadh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman I, dating to approximately 150 AD, provides a detailed historical account of the renovation of Sudarshan Lake in the Saurashtra region. The inscription records that a massive storm caused the lake's embankment to breach, leading to the loss of its waters and causing significant distress to the local population. Rudradaman I commissioned the repair and strengthening of the dam, making it significantly larger and more durable than the original structure. Crucially, the text explicitly mentions that the King funded this extensive public work entirely from his own private resources. He specifically avoided the use of forced labour, traditionally called Vishti, and did not impose any additional taxes or benevolent contributions on the people to pay for the reconstruction. This act was overseen by his provincial governor, Suvisakha, and is highlighted in the inscription as a testament to the King's concern for his subjects' welfare.

2History
Who were called Dastar-Bandan?
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Answer: (D) Ulema

Explanation

The Ulema, who were the religious and legal scholars of the Delhi Sultanate, were collectively known as the Dastar-Bandan. This Persian term literally signifies those who wear a turban, specifically the formal dastar that served as a symbol of their judicial and religious authority. This class included officials such as the Qazis, Muftis, and other ecclesiastical leaders who were responsible for the interpretation and implementation of Islamic law. Their distinctive headgear distinguished them as a formal intellectual and administrative elite within the medieval Indian state, representing their status as the guardians of religious orthodoxy and the legal framework.

3History
To whom Aurangzeb bestowed upon the title of 'Sahibat-uz-Zamani'?
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Answer: (C) Jahanara

Explanation

Aurangzeb bestowed the title of Sahibat-uz-Zamani, which means Mistress of the Age, upon his elder sister Jahanara Begum. Although Jahanara had supported her brother Dara Shikoh during the war of succession, she eventually reconciled with Aurangzeb after the death of their father, Shah Jahan, in 1666. Recognizing her influence and seniority within the royal family, Aurangzeb reinstated her as the Padshah Begum or the First Lady of the Mughal Empire and honored her with this prestigious title.

4History
What was the natural boundary between the Delhi Sultanate and Mongols during the period of Alauddin Khilji after 1306 A.D.?
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Answer: (C) Indus

Explanation

During the reign of Alauddin Khilji, the Mongol threat from the Chagatai Khanate was a persistent challenge. Following the decisive defeat of the Mongol invasions led by Ali Beg, Tartaq, and Kubak in 1305 and 1306 A.D., the Delhi Sultanate transitioned from a defensive posture to an offensive frontier policy. Alauddin Khilji appointed Ghazi Malik (the future Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq) as the Governor of Dipalpur and Lahore to safeguard the northwestern marches.

Under this new strategic arrangement, the Sultanate's defensive line was pushed forward from the River Ravi to the River Indus. The victory in 1306 A.D. effectively neutralized the Mongol threat for several years, and the River Indus became the recognized natural boundary between the two powers. Ghazi Malik conducted annual retaliatory raids into Mongol territories across the Indus, ensuring that the Sultanate maintained firm control over the Punjab region up to the river's banks.

5Art and Culture
Which Sufi Saint was called 'Mahbub-i-Ilahi'?
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Answer: (D) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya

Explanation

Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was a renowned Sufi saint of the Chisti order who lived during the Delhi Sultanate period. He was popularly known by the title Mahbub-i-Ilahi, which translates to Beloved of God, signifying his profound spiritual connection and devotion. He emphasized the importance of love as a means of realizing God and was known for his humanitarian approach, often stating that service to humanity was the highest form of worship. As a spiritual successor to Baba Farid, he settled in Delhi and established a khanqah that attracted thousands of followers from all social strata. His teachings focused on renunciation of worldly greed and the cultivation of an internal spiritual life, making him one of the most influential figures in the history of Sufism in the Indian subcontinent.

6History
Whose disciple was khwaja Moinuddin Chisti?
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Answer: (D) Khwaja Usman Haruni

Explanation

Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti, the founder of the Chisti Silsila in India, was the disciple of Khwaja Usman Haruni. He met his spiritual master in Harun, a small town in Nishapur, and spent approximately twenty years under his guidance. During this period, he accompanied Khwaja Usman Haruni on extensive travels across the Islamic world, including visits to Mecca and Medina, while receiving training in the mystical path of Sufism. Upon completion of his spiritual education, Khwaja Usman Haruni appointed him as his successor and directed him to settle in India. This master-disciple relationship is a foundational element of the Chisti lineage, ensuring the transmission of spiritual authority through the Pir-Murid tradition.

7History
The Lieutenant Governor of Bengal at the time of Partition of Bengal was
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Answer: (A) Sir Andrews Fraser

Explanation

Sir Andrew Henderson Leith Fraser was a British officer of the Indian Civil Service who served as the Lieutenant Governor of Bengal between 1903 and 1908. He was a key figure in the planning and execution of the Partition of Bengal in 1905. Fraser worked closely with the Viceroy, Lord Curzon, and provided the administrative rationale that the province had become too large and populous to be governed effectively by a single head. His proposals formed the basis of the final partition plan, which divided the province into Bengal and Eastern Bengal and Assam, triggering the Swadeshi movement and significant political unrest across India.

8History
The British journalist H.W. Nevinson was associated with
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Answer: (C) Swadeshi Movement

Explanation

Henry Woodd Nevinson was a prominent British journalist and correspondent who visited India during the peak of the Swadeshi Movement following the partition of Bengal in 1905. Representing newspapers such as the Manchester Guardian and the Daily Chronicle, he provided detailed accounts of the political unrest and the emergence of nationalist fervor in India. His observations and experiences during this period were compiled in his influential book, The New Spirit in India, published in 1908. In this work, he chronicled the rise of the extremist faction within the Indian National Congress and documented the boycott of British goods and the promotion of indigenous industries, having conducted interviews with key leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Aurobindo Ghosh.

9History
Akbarnama was completed by Abul Fazl in
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Answer: (A) Seven years

Explanation

Abul Fazl began working on the Akbarnama in 1589, during the 34th regnal year of Emperor Akbar. According to his own account in the manuscript and standard historical texts like the NCERT, he spent seven years researching, drafting, and revising the work. The project involved the systematic collection of official records (waqai), royal mandates, and oral reports from witnesses of historical events.

The Akbarnama is divided into three volumes: the first two provide a chronological history of Akbar's ancestors and his reign, while the third volume, the Ain-i-Akbari, details the administrative and statistical aspects of the Mughal Empire. The primary composition and the finalization of the main narrative were concluded by the 40th regnal year (approximately 1596), fulfilling the seven-year timeline dedicated to the compilation of this official history.

10History
The last session of Indian National Congress attended by Bal Gangadhar Tilak was
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Answer: (D) Amritsar Session, 1919

Explanation

The Amritsar Session of the Indian National Congress, held in December 1919, was the final session attended by Bal Gangadhar Tilak before his death on August 1, 1920. Presided over by Motilal Nehru, this session was conducted in the shadow of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. During the deliberations, Tilak expressed his views on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, advocating for a policy of Responsive Cooperation. He passed away just as the Non-Cooperation Movement was being launched, which meant he could not participate in the special session of 1920 or any subsequent gatherings.

11History
In which of his following books did Mahatma Gandhi call British Parliament as sterile and prostitute?
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Answer: (C) Hind Swaraj

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in 1909 during his return voyage from London to South Africa aboard the SS Kildonan Castle. In the fifth chapter of this seminal work, titled The Condition of England, Gandhi provides a sharp critique of the British parliamentary system. He characterizes the Parliament as sterile because he believed it was unable to produce any meaningful results on its own initiative without the pressure of outside forces. He further used the term prostitute to describe it because the institution functioned under the shifting control of different ministers and political parties rather than remaining constant to its own principles. This critique was part of Gandhi's broader argument that true Swaraj or self-rule was not merely about replacing British rulers with Indian ones but about rejecting the underlying structure of modern Western civilization and its political institutions.

12History
The task of drafting Congress Inquiry Committee report on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was entrusted to
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

Following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, the Indian National Congress appointed a non-official committee to conduct its own inquiry into the events in Punjab. This committee was known as the Punjab Subcommittee and consisted of prominent leaders including Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, Abbas Tyabji, M.R. Jayakar, and Mahatma Gandhi. The task of drafting the final report was specifically entrusted to Mahatma Gandhi due to his meticulous approach and insistence on strictly adhering to verified facts. Gandhi personally interviewed hundreds of witnesses and collected extensive evidence to document the atrocities committed by the British administration. The report prepared by him was published in 1920 and provided a comprehensive account of the state of Martial Law in Punjab, serving as a significant moral and political indictment of British rule and setting the stage for the Non-Cooperation Movement.

13History
Along with Mahatama Gandhi who amongst the following Muslims did lift the bier of Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
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Answer: (A) Shaukar Ali

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak passed away on August 1, 1920, in Bombay, on the very day the Non-Cooperation Movement was scheduled to begin. His funeral procession was a massive event that served as a symbol of national unity against British rule. To demonstrate the growing solidarity between Hindus and Muslims during the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation era, Mahatma Gandhi personally lifted Tilak's bier. He was joined by Shaukat Ali, a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement, and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew. Shaukat Ali's participation as a pallbearer for the Lokmanya was a significant historical gesture intended to cement the bond of Hindu-Muslim unity that Gandhi was championing at the time.

14History
The first editor of the journal 'Indian Opinion' was
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Answer: (D) Mansukhhal Nazar

Explanation

Mansukhlal Hiralal Nazar served as the first editor of the weekly journal Indian Opinion, which was established by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in 1903. A trained journalist and a key member of the Natal Indian Congress, Nazar managed the editorial duties from the publication's inception until his passing in 1906. While the journal served as a primary organ for Gandhi's political activities and the struggle for Indian rights in South Africa, Nazar provided the necessary professional editorial expertise during its formative years.

15History
Which one of the following statements is not correct about Dadabhai Naoroji?
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Answer: (D) For four times he had presided over the Indian National Congress.

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress a total of three times, not four. He first served as the President during the second session of the Congress held at Calcutta in 1886. His second term as President was at the Lahore session in 1893, and his third and final term was at the Calcutta session in 1906. During the 1906 session, he prominently highlighted the goal of Swaraj or self-government for India.

16History
After the sentence of B.G. Tilak, who among the following had pleaded for mercy and said: 'My interest in Tilak is that of a Sanskrit scholar.'?
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Answer: (B) Max Muller

Explanation

Max Muller was a renowned German philologist and Orientalist who deeply admired Bal Gangadhar Tilak for his profound scholarship in Vedic literature and Indian antiquity. Following Tilak's conviction and sentencing to eighteen months of rigorous imprisonment for sedition in 1897, Max Muller expressed significant concern for his well-being. He spearheaded a petition to the British government for Tilak's early release, emphasizing that Tilak was a scholar of international repute. In his advocacy, Max Muller famously stated that his interest in Tilak was that of a Sanskrit scholar, focusing on Tilak's academic contributions such as his work Orion, rather than his political activities. This intervention by Max Muller and other British scholars eventually contributed to the reduction of Tilak's sentence and his release in 1898.

17History
In which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress, the word 'Swaraj' was uttered from the Congress platform for the first time?
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Answer: (B) Calcutta Session, 1906

Explanation

The word Swaraj was first used from the Indian National Congress platform during the Calcutta Session of 1906. Presiding over this session, Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the political goal of the Indian people was Swaraj or self-government, similar to the model existing in the United Kingdom or other British colonies. This session was significant as it sought to bridge the growing divide between the Moderate and Extremist factions of the Congress by adopting four crucial resolutions: Swaraj, Swadeshi, Boycott, and National Education. By officially articulating Swaraj as the primary objective, the Congress transitioned from a period of prayer and petition to a more assertive demand for autonomy within the British Empire.

18History
Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below: 1. Demise of B.G. Tilak 2. Passing of Rowlatt Bill as an Act 3. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 4. Amritsar Session of Indian National Congress, 1919
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Answer: (A) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation

The chronological sequence of these events during the Indian National Movement is determined by their specific dates in 1919 and 1920. The Rowlatt Bill was passed as an Act in March 1919, which triggered nationwide protests. These protests led to the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, when British troops fired on a peaceful gathering. Later that year, the Indian National Congress held its Amritsar Session in December 1919 to address the Punjab wrongs and the implementation of the Rowlatt Act. The demise of Bal Gangadhar Tilak occurred on August 1, 1920, coinciding with the official launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement. Therefore, the order follows the sequence of March 1919, April 1919, December 1919, and August 1920.

19History
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Frank Moraes: India from Curzon to Nehru and After

Explanation

The book India from Curzon to Nehru and After was authored by Durga Das, a highly influential Indian journalist and the former chief editor of the Hindustan Times. The work is a significant historical account that chronicles the political evolution of India from the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon through the era of Jawaharlal Nehru, based on the author's personal interactions with key political figures. Frank Moraes was also a distinguished journalist and editor, but he is primarily known for works such as his biography of Jawaharlal Nehru and Witness to an Era. Because Durga Das is the actual writer of the title mentioned, this pair is not correctly matched.

20History
Match List-I with List-II and find the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Vinoba (B) B.G. Tilak (C) Aruna Asaf 3. Dharsana Ali Raid (D) Sarojini Naidu Movement List-II: 1. Home Bhave Rule Movement 2. Individual Satyagraha 4. Quit India
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Vinoba Bhave was the first satyagrahi chosen by Mahatma Gandhi for the Individual Satyagraha in 1940. Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the Home Rule League in 1916 to demand self-government for India. Aruna Asaf Ali is famous for hoisting the Indian National Congress flag during the Quit India Movement in 1942. Sarojini Naidu led the non-violent protest and salt satyagraha at the Dharsana Salt Works in 1930.

21History
Under whose chairmanship a committee was formed to defend the accused in Kakori Case?
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Answer: (B) Govind Ballabh Pant

Explanation

The Kakori Conspiracy Case of 1925 involved the looting of a train carrying British government treasury by members of the Hindustan Republican Association. Following the arrests of numerous revolutionaries, a Kakori Defense Committee was organized to provide legal assistance and represent the accused in court. Govind Ballabh Pant, a prominent lawyer and leader of the Indian National Congress in the United Provinces, served as the chairman of this committee. He played a pivotal role in organizing the legal defense and advocating for the revolutionaries during the trial proceedings in Lucknow.

22History
The book 'The Man Who Divided India' was written by
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Answer: (C) Rafiq Zakaria

Explanation

Rafiq Zakaria was a prominent Indian politician, Islamic scholar, and author who wrote The Man Who Divided India, published in 2001. The book provides an analytical study of Muhammad Ali Jinnah and his role in the partition of the Indian subcontinent. Zakaria traces Jinnah's political journey from being an advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity to the architect of the two-nation theory, exploring the motivations and consequences of his demand for a separate state. The work is noted for its critique of Jinnah's impact on the communal landscape and the long-term geopolitical divisions created by the partition.

23History
Who amongst the following revolutionaries refused to drink the given milk on the eve of his execution and said 'Now, I shall take my mother's milk only.'?
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Answer: (C) Ramprasad Bismil

Explanation

Ram Prasad Bismil was a prominent Indian revolutionary and a founding member of the Hindustan Republican Association. He was sentenced to death for his leading role in the Kakori Train Action of 1925. On the eve of his execution at Gorakhpur Jail on December 19, 1927, a jail official offered him a glass of milk. Bismil declined the offer, stating, Now, I shall take my mother's milk only. This statement reflected his spiritual resolve and his deep devotion to Mother India, signifying his belief that he would be reborn to her to continue his struggle for freedom. Bismil is also widely remembered for his patriotic poetry and his sacrifice alongside other revolutionaries like Ashfaqulla Khan and Thakur Roshan Singh.

24History
Who among the following took Mahatam Gandhi's gain in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact as 'Consolation Prizes'?
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Answer: (B) Alan Campbell Johnson

Explanation

Alan Campbell Johnson, the biographer of Lord Irwin, used the term consolation prizes to describe the gains Mahatma Gandhi achieved through the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931. From the British perspective, concessions such as the release of political prisoners not convicted of violence and the permission for coastal villagers to collect salt for personal consumption were viewed as minor symbolic gestures. Johnson argued that these small victories were intended to appease the Indian National Congress and secure Gandhi's participation in the Second Round Table Conference without the British government making any substantial commitments regarding the fundamental demand for Purna Swaraj or immediate constitutional change.

25History
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Bhagat Singh: The Indian Sociologist

Explanation

The Indian Sociologist was an influential revolutionary journal established in 1905 by Shyamji Krishna Varma in London. It served as the mouthpiece for the India Home Rule Society and the India House, advocating for Indian self-government and nationalist resistance through intellectual discourse. Bhagat Singh, a prominent leader of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, was not associated with this publication. He is instead recognized for his own prolific writings such as Why I am an Atheist and his role in the Indian revolutionary movement during the late 1920s and early 1930s.

26History
Who among the following had seconded the resolution on partition in the meeting of All India Congress Committee held in New Delhi in 1947?
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Answer: (D) Abul Kalam Azad

Explanation

The resolution to accept the Mountbatten Plan, which proposed the partition of India into two independent dominions, was presented at the All India Congress Committee (AICC) meeting held in New Delhi on June 14, 1947. This resolution was formally moved by Govind Ballabh Pant and seconded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Despite his lifelong opposition to the two-nation theory and the idea of partition, Maulana Azad supported the resolution during the meeting. He argued that the prevailing political deadlock and the escalating communal violence across the country made the acceptance of partition a necessary, though painful, decision to ensure a structured transfer of power and to prevent further chaos.

27History
The Indian Independence Bill received the Royal Assent on
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Answer: (A) 18th July, 1947

Explanation

The Indian Independence Act 1947 was an act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The bill was introduced in the House of Commons on July 4, 1947, following the proposals of the Mountbatten Plan. It passed through both the House of Commons and the House of Lords with significant speed and received the Royal Assent from King George VI on July 18, 1947. This legislation provided the legal framework for the end of British rule and established the date for the formal transfer of power as August 15, 1947.

28History
Who of the following had regarded the Karachi Session of Indian National Congress (1931) as the 'pinnacle of Mahatma Gandhi's popularity and prestige'?
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Answer: (A) S.C. Bose

Explanation

Subhas Chandra Bose, in his historical account The Indian Struggle, described the Karachi Session of 1931 as the pinnacle of Mahatma Gandhi's popularity and prestige. This session was held in March 1931, immediately following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and the execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev. Bose observed that despite the intense emotional atmosphere and the black flag demonstrations by youth groups, Gandhi successfully managed to have the Congress ratify the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and adopt significant resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Bose viewed this period as the moment when Gandhi’s influence over both the Indian masses and the British administration reached its highest point.

29History
Who of the following took the passing of resolution on partition on the meeting of the Congress Committee (1947) as a 'Surrender of Nationalism in favour of Communalism'?
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Answer: (A) Dr. Kitchelew

Explanation

Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew, a prominent nationalist leader from Punjab and a hero of the anti-Rowlatt Act protests, was a staunch opponent of the partition of India. During the All India Congress Committee meeting held in New Delhi on June 14-15, 1947, the leadership discussed the resolution to accept the Mountbatten Plan. Dr. Kitchlew viewed the decision to divide the country on communal lines as a fundamental betrayal of the secular and unified vision of the Indian national movement. He explicitly described the passing of this resolution as a surrender of nationalism in favour of communalism, reflecting his belief that the Congress had yielded to the divisive politics of the Muslim League. Despite his long history of sacrifice for the cause of independence, he remained deeply disillusioned by the acceptance of the two-nation theory by the Congress high command.

30Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I (Region): (A) Birhor (B) Bhutiya (C) Toda (D) Sentinelese 4. Jharkhand List-II (Tribe): 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Sikkim
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Birhor is a nomadic hunter-gatherer tribe primarily inhabiting the Chota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand. Bhutiya are an ethnic group of Tibetan ancestry who are predominantly found in the Himalayan state of Sikkim. The Toda people are a small pastoral tribal community residing in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, distinguished by their unique culture and traditional barrel-vaulted architecture. Sentinelese are a hunter-gatherer society living on North Sentinel Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and are recognized as one of the most isolated tribal groups globally.

31Science and Technology
The International Crop Research Institute for Semi Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is located at
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Answer: (D) Hyderabad

Explanation

The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is an international non-profit organization that conducts agricultural research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Established in 1972, its global headquarters is located in Patancheru, Hyderabad. The institute was founded by a consortium of organizations convened by the Ford and Rockefeller Foundations and operates under the aegis of the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR). ICRISAT focuses on improving the productivity and resilience of crops such as sorghum, pearl millet, finger millet, chickpea, pigeonpea, and groundnut. Its primary mission is to reduce poverty, hunger, and environmental degradation in the semi-arid tropics by helping smallholder farmers adopt sustainable and climate-smart agricultural practices.

32Geography
Assertion (A): The rivers of West Coast of India do not form delta. Reason (R): They flow through short courses on relatively harder rocks. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The rivers of the West Coast of India, such as the Narmada, Tapi, and numerous smaller streams originating in the Western Ghats, flow through a high-gradient terrain over the hard, crystalline rocks of the Deccan Plateau. Because these rivers have a very short distance to travel before reaching the Arabian Sea, they maintain a high velocity that prevents the deposition of sediment at their mouths. Furthermore, the resistance of the basaltic and metamorphic rocks to erosion results in a significantly lower silt load compared to the long, east-flowing rivers. Instead of forming deltas, the high kinetic energy and the lack of accumulated alluvium cause these rivers to form estuaries, where the river water meets the sea in a narrow, submerged channel. The combined factors of a short course, steep slope, and hard geological substrate directly explain the absence of deltaic formations on the western coast.

33Polity and Governance
The Parliament in India consists of (i) President (ii) Rajya Sabha (iii) Lok Sabha (iv) Vice President
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Explanation

Article 79 of the Constitution of India defines the composition of the Parliament of the Union. It specifies that the Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses, known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Although the President is not a member of either House and does not participate in parliamentary debates, the President is an integral part of the legislative structure. This is primarily because a bill passed by both Houses cannot become law without receiving the President's assent. Furthermore, the President possesses significant constitutional powers related to the legislature, such as summoning and proroguing the sessions of both Houses, dissolving the Lok Sabha, and addressing the joint sitting of Parliament. This tripartite structure ensures a system of checks and balances within the Indian parliamentary democracy.

34Polity and Governance
Which one of the following articles directs State Government to organize Village Panchayats?
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Answer: (B) Article 40

Explanation

Article 40 of the Indian Constitution is a Directive Principle of State Policy that instructs the State to organize village panchayats and provide them with the necessary powers and authority to function as effective units of local self-government. It embodies the Gandhian vision of Gram Swaraj, emphasizing rural autonomy and democratic decentralization. While the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and provided the constitutional basis for the 73rd Amendment Act, which eventually institutionalized the three-tier Panchayati Raj system across India.

35Polity and Governance
Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament?
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Answer: (A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is vested with the power to appoint the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee from amongst its members. Although the committee is a joint committee comprising 22 members, with 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, the Chairman is invariably chosen from the members representing the Lok Sabha. Since the year 1967, a consistent parliamentary convention has evolved whereby the Speaker nominates a member from the Opposition to lead the committee. This practice ensures that the executive's financial accounts and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General are scrutinized with a high degree of independence and impartiality.

36Polity and Governance
The financial relations between the Union Government and States have been discussed under.
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Answer: (B) Article 268 to 281

Explanation

Part XII of the Constitution of India contains the legal framework governing the financial relations between the Union and the States. Chapter I of this Part, spanning Articles 268 to 281, specifically details the distribution of revenues and the allocation of taxing powers. These articles outline the mechanisms for levying and collecting various taxes, the sharing of proceeds between the central and state governments, and the provision of grants-in-aid under Article 275. This range also includes Article 280, which provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission every five years to recommend the principles for distributing financial resources and balancing the fiscal requirements of both the Union and the States.

37Polity and Governance
The Constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly was
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Answer: (C) B.N. Rao

Explanation

Sir B.N. Rau (Benegal Narsing Rau) was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in 1946. A distinguished jurist and civil servant, he was responsible for preparing the initial draft of the Indian Constitution, which formed the basic structure for the subsequent deliberations of the Drafting Committee. To facilitate this work, he conducted extensive research into the constitutional frameworks of various countries, including the United Kingdom, United States, Canada, and Ireland. His expertise and background papers provided the legal and conceptual framework necessary for the assembly members to debate and refine the articles of the Constitution. Although he served in an honorary capacity and was not a member of the Assembly himself, his legal scholarship was highly regarded by national leaders and he eventually became the first Indian judge at the International Court of Justice.

38Polity and Governance
Who among the following were the members of the drafting committee of the Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

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Drafting Committee members: B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman), Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, K.M. Munshi, Syed Saadullah, B.L. Mitter, D.P. Khaitan. Both A and C are members; Nehru and Patel were not. Official key gives C (Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar).

39Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?
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Answer: (B) Planning Commission

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The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 through an executive resolution of the Government of India. It was an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it was neither created by the Constitution of India nor by an Act of Parliament. It functioned as an advisory body to the government for formulating Five-Year Plans and assessing the country's resources. Because its existence was based on a cabinet decision rather than a specific constitutional article, it lacked constitutional status. In 2015, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog, which also carries the same non-constitutional and executive status.

40Polity and Governance
Atleast how many days of prior notice is required for the impeachment of the President of India?
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Answer: (B) 14 days

Explanation

Article 61 of the Constitution of India prescribes the procedure for the impeachment of the President for the violation of the Constitution. According to this article, the process can be initiated in either House of Parliament, but the resolution to prefer such a charge cannot be moved unless a notice in writing has been given at least 14 days in advance. This notice must be signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House in which the resolution is intended to be moved. This mandatory notice period ensures that the President is informed of the charges and provides sufficient time for the House to consider the gravity of the proceedings before the resolution is formally introduced for discussion and voting.

41Polity and Governance
How many members may be nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian community, if he is of opinion that the community is not adequately represented in the House of the People?
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Answer: (D) 2

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Article 331 of the Constitution of India grants the President the authority to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha, the House of the People. This discretionary power is utilized if the President perceives that the community is not sufficiently represented through the standard electoral process. Historically, this provision was included to protect the interests of the Anglo-Indian minority post-Independence. As of 2014, this constitutional mandate allowed for exactly two nominations, a limit maintained through various constitutional amendments that extended the reservation period over several decades.

42Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Committees is not related with Panchayati Raj Institution?
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Answer: (A) P.V.N. Rao Committee

Explanation

The P.V.N. Rao Committee is not associated with recommendations or structural reforms for the Panchayati Raj Institutions. P.V. Narasimha Rao served as the Prime Minister of India during the period when the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts were passed in 1992, which provided constitutional status to rural and urban local bodies. While his government was responsible for the legislative enactment of these reforms, he did not head a specific committee to study the Panchayati Raj system. Most prominent committees in this field, such as those led by Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, G.V.K. Rao, and L.M. Singhvi, provided the foundational reports that eventually led to the legislation passed under the Narasimha Rao administration.

43Polity and Governance
Who among the following shall preside over a joint sitting of two houses of Parliament?
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Answer: (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

According to Article 118(4) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. A joint sitting is summoned by the President under Article 108 to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of a bill. In the event that the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The constitutional framework ensures that the presiding officer of the House of the People leads these combined legislative sessions.

44Polity and Governance
The largest Union Territory of India is
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Answer: (A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

As of 2014, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is the largest Union Territory of India by area, covering approximately 8,249 square kilometres in the Bay of Bengal. It comprises 572 islands of which only about 38 are permanently inhabited. Delhi (~1,484 km²) is the second largest UT by area. Puducherry (~479 km²) and Chandigarh (~114 km²) are much smaller. Lakshadweep, though the smallest UT, is not among the given options.

45Polity and Governance
Which one of the following cases propounded the concept of 'Basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The concept of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark judgment of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). In this case, a thirteen-judge bench ruled by a thin majority that while Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot use this power to alter or destroy its basic structure or essential features. This doctrine serves as a judicial tool to ensure that the foundational principles of the Constitution, such as democracy, secularism, federalism, and judicial review, remain beyond the reach of parliamentary majorities. Since the Kesavananda Bharati case is not listed among the specific options provided, the correct selection is the one denoting that the origin of the doctrine lies elsewhere.

46Polity and Governance
A political party is recognized as a regional party, if
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Answer: (C) It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election.

Explanation

In 2011, the Election Commission of India amended the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, to introduce a new criterion for the recognition of political parties. Under this updated regulation, a political party is recognized as a state or regional party if it secures at least 8% of the total valid votes polled in the state during a general election to the Lok Sabha from that state or to the Legislative Assembly of the state. Unlike other criteria that require a combination of vote percentage and a minimum number of seats, this specific provision allows a party to gain recognition based purely on its total vote share, ensuring that parties with significant and widespread public support are recognized even if they fail to win a specific seat in the legislature.

47Polity and Governance
Identify the correct chronological order in which the following States were created in India from the code given below 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Haryana 4. Sikkim
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Answer: (B) 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation

The formation of Indian states followed distinct legislative and political milestones after independence. Andhra Pradesh was established as the first linguistic state on October 1, 1953, following the partition of the Madras State. Haryana was created on November 1, 1966, through the Punjab Reorganisation Act, which separated the Hindi-speaking areas from Punjab. Himachal Pradesh, which had been a Union Territory, was granted full statehood on January 25, 1971. Finally, Sikkim joined the Indian Union as a full state on May 16, 1975, following the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. This timeline places the states in the order of Andhra Pradesh (1953), Haryana (1966), Himachal Pradesh (1971), and Sikkim (1975).

48Polity and Governance
By which one of the following Acts was created the Federal Court in India?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The Federal Court of India was established on October 1, 1937, under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935. This Act provided for a federal judicial system to adjudicate disputes between provinces and the federal government and to interpret the constitutional framework of the time. Sir Maurice Gwyer was appointed as the first Chief Justice of the court, which operated until the Supreme Court of India was established in 1950. The specific legislation responsible for the creation of the Federal Court is the Government of India Act, 1935, which is not included among the other legislative choices provided.

49Economy
In February, 2014 the Indo-Pakistan International Trade Fair was organized at
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Answer: (B) Jalandhar

Explanation

The Indo-Pakistan International Trade Expo (IPEX-2014) was organized in Jalandhar, Punjab, from February 6 to February 10, 2014. This was the third edition of the event, hosted by the PHD Chamber of Commerce and Industry in association with the Government of Punjab. The trade fair aimed to boost bilateral trade and strengthen economic ties between the two neighboring countries. It provided a common platform for hundreds of exhibitors from both India and Pakistan to display various products, including textiles, handicrafts, leather goods, and food items, thereby promoting people-to-people contact and regional commercial growth.

50Economy
According to HDR 2013, the percentage of population suffering from multidimensional Poverty in India is
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Answer: (B) 53.7%

Explanation

The Human Development Report (HDR) 2013, published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), calculated the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) for various countries to capture overlapping deprivations that people face in their daily lives. For India, using data from the 2005-06 National Family Health Survey (NFHS-3), the report determined that 53.7% of the population lived in multidimensional poverty. This measure accounts for ten indicators across three key dimensions: health, education, and standard of living. Individuals are identified as multidimensionally poor if they are deprived in at least one-third of the weighted indicators. The 2013 report highlighted that while India had made progress in reducing income poverty, more than half of its population still suffered from these combined deprivations.

51Economy
The Bimal Jalan Panel was set up by Reserve Bank of India to
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Answer: (B) Scrutinize application for new bank licences

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established a High-Level Advisory Committee (HLAC) in 2013 under the chairmanship of Bimal Jalan, a former RBI Governor. This committee was tasked with the comprehensive scrutiny and evaluation of applications submitted for new bank licenses in the private sector. The panel reviewed the credentials, financial integrity, and business models of twenty-five applicants, including major corporate houses and microfinance institutions. Based on the rigorous screening process and the recommendations provided by the Bimal Jalan panel, the RBI eventually granted in-principle approval to IDFC and Bandhan Financial Services in early 2014 to transition into full-fledged commercial banks.

52Economy
The theme of 'World Development Report, 2010' was
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Answer: (D) Development and Climate Change

Explanation

The World Development Report 2010, published by the World Bank, was themed "Development and Climate Change." It highlighted that climate change threatens to undo decades of development progress, particularly for the world's poorest people, and called for urgent action on adaptation and mitigation. The report emphasised that a 4°C warmer world could severely impact agriculture, water resources, and human health. The WDR 2007 theme was "Development and the Next Generation," and the WDR 2006 theme was "Equity and Development."

53Science and Technology
The 'Nalanda Project' is a programme of which of the following Ministries?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Minority Affairs

Explanation

The Nalanda Project is a specialized faculty development programme launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in March 2014. Inaugurated at Aligarh Muslim University, it was designed as an academic outreach initiative to enhance the teaching and research capacities of faculty members working in Minority Managed Degree Colleges and Universities across India.

The programme focuses on capacity building and training in modern pedagogical techniques, academic administration, and research methodology. By empowering educators in these institutions, the project aims to improve the overall quality of instruction and educational outcomes for minority students, helping to bridge the educational gap in the higher education sector.

54Economy
Green Index has been developed by
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Answer: (C) World Bank

Explanation

The World Bank developed the Green Index to measure the sustainable wealth of nations by looking beyond traditional indicators like Gross Domestic Product. This index quantifies a country's wealth by aggregating produced assets, natural capital, and human resources. By including natural capital—which encompasses elements such as forests, minerals, and agricultural land—the World Bank provides a framework to account for the depletion of natural resources and environmental degradation. This comprehensive approach allows for a more accurate assessment of whether a nation's economic growth is sustainable in the long term, ensuring that environmental health is integrated into the evaluation of national prosperity.

55Economy
As President of World Trade Organization Pascal Lamy was replaced by
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Answer: (C) Roberto Azevedo

Explanation

Roberto Azevedo, a veteran Brazilian diplomat, was appointed as the Director-General of the World Trade Organization (WTO) in May 2013 and officially took office on September 1, 2013. He succeeded Pascal Lamy, who had served two consecutive four-year terms as the head of the organization. Before his appointment, Azevedo served as Brazil's Permanent Representative to the WTO in Geneva, where he gained a reputation as a skilled negotiator in global trade disputes. His selection was particularly significant as he became the first leader of the WTO from an emerging economy among the BRICS nations.

56Economy
The first Indian appointed as the chief economist of the World Bank in September, 2012 is
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Answer: (C) Kaushik Basu

Explanation

Kaushik Basu was appointed as the Senior Vice President and Chief Economist of the World Bank in September 2012, assuming his duties on October 1, 2012. Before this appointment, he had served as the Chief Economic Adviser to the Government of India. This appointment made him the first Indian to hold the position of Chief Economist at the World Bank. During his tenure, he was instrumental in shaping the bank research agenda and policy directions, particularly regarding global poverty and shared prosperity goals.

57Economy
Which one of the following States has been declared the best State in the implementation of rural tourism projects?
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Answer: (A) Sikkim

Explanation

Sikkim was conferred the National Tourism Award for the Best State in the implementation of Rural Tourism projects by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, for the year 2012-13. This recognition, presented in early 2014, highlighted the state's success in developing community-based tourism models that integrated local traditions, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable livelihoods. The state government focused heavily on rural homestays and eco-friendly infrastructure, ensuring that the economic benefits of tourism reached remote villages. Sikkim's proactive stance on organic farming and its commitment to maintaining an ecological balance while promoting village-centric travel made it a benchmark for rural tourism development in India during this period.

58Economy
During the 12th Five Year Plan, the growth rate of agriculture, forestry and fish farming has been estimated to be
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Answer: (B) 4.0%

Explanation

The 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) set a target average annual growth rate of 4.0% for the agriculture and allied sectors, which encompasses forestry and fishing. This specific growth target was formulated by the Planning Commission to ensure that the overall national GDP growth target of 8.0% could be achieved in a sustainable and inclusive manner. Given that a significant majority of the Indian population depends on agriculture for their livelihood, the 4.0% growth rate was deemed necessary to reduce rural poverty, ensure food security, and stimulate demand for industrial goods and services. The plan emphasized increasing public investment in irrigation, improving credit flow to farmers, and enhancing agricultural research and extension services to meet this objective.

59Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I: (A) Growth in Food Production (B) Milk Production (C) Fisheries (D) Fertilizers List-II: 1. Green Revolution 2. Blue Revolution 3. White Revolution 4. Grey Revolution
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Answer: (B) 3, 1, 4

Explanation

Food Production = Green Revolution (1), Milk Production = White Revolution (3), Fisheries = Blue Revolution (2), Fertilizers = Grey Revolution (4). The 3-item code in option B matches the standard UPPSC answer key for this question.

60Economy
TRYSEM is a programme of
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Answer: (A) Rural Development

Explanation

The Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment (TRYSEM) was launched by the Government of India on August 15, 1979, as a centrally sponsored scheme. It functioned as a sub-component of the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP). The primary objective of the scheme was to provide technical and vocational skills to rural youth between the ages of 18 and 35 who belonged to families living below the poverty line. By imparting these skills, the programme aimed to enable rural youth to take up self-employment or wage employment in various sectors such as agriculture, services, and small-scale industries. In April 1999, TRYSEM was merged into the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), which sought to provide a more holistic approach to rural self-employment and poverty alleviation.

61Art and Culture
In which of the following State 'Bahnini Darbar' a monthly newspaper, by the women and for the women is published?
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Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Bahnini Darbar is a monthly community newspaper published in the Rewa district of Madhya Pradesh. This grassroots journalism initiative is unique because it is produced entirely by and for women, primarily from Dalit and tribal backgrounds. The publication focuses on highlighting local socio-political issues, gender-based violence, rural governance, and the specific challenges faced by women in the region. By providing a platform for marginalized voices in their own dialect, Bahnini Darbar serves as a significant tool for female empowerment and social change in the rural landscape of Madhya Pradesh.

62Economy
According to the government estimates during 12th Five Year Plan, the infrastructure sector will require an investment of
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Answer: (D) 1000 billion

Explanation

The Planning Commission of India, in the official document for the 12th Five Year Plan (2012–2017), projected that the infrastructure sector would require a total investment of US $1 trillion, which is equivalent to 1,000 billion. This target was established to bridge the infrastructure deficit and support a high sustainable growth rate for the Indian economy. To meet this massive funding requirement, the government designed a strategy where approximately 48 percent of the total investment was expected to come from the private sector through Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models, while the remaining portion was to be funded by public sector outlays.

63Economy
'Vision 2020 for India' document is related to
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Answer: (C) Economic Development

Explanation

The Vision 2020 for India document was prepared by the Planning Commission of India under the chairmanship of Dr. S.P. Gupta and was released in 2003. It provides a comprehensive roadmap for transforming India into a developed nation by the year 2020 through sustained economic development. The document outlines a target annual GDP growth rate of 9 percent and focuses on achieving full employment, the eradication of poverty, and universal literacy. By emphasizing integrated development across various sectors including agriculture, industry, and services, the vision aimed to elevate India's global economic status and ensure a high standard of living for its citizens. This strategic framework aligns with the broader goal of socio-economic transformation through technological advancement and human resource development.

64Economy
The concept of 'Vicious Circle of Poverty' is related to
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Answer: (B) Nurkse

Explanation

Ragnar Nurkse developed the concept of the Vicious Circle of Poverty in his 1953 work Problems of Capital Formation in Underdeveloped Countries. He famously summarized the situation by stating that a country is poor because it is poor, describing a circular constellation of forces that tend to act and react upon one another in such a way as to keep a poor country in a state of poverty. Nurkse explained this phenomenon through two interrelated cycles involving both supply and demand factors. On the supply side, low real income leads to a low capacity to save; the lack of savings results in a low rate of capital formation, which causes low productivity, leading back to low income. On the demand side, low real income implies a small market with low purchasing power, providing little incentive for investment. This lack of investment leads to low productivity and keeps income levels stagnant.

65Economy
As per the estimates of Planning Commission, which State had the highest number of poor people living below the poverty line in 2011-12?
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

According to the Planning Commission's 2011-12 poverty estimates, which were based on the methodology recommended by the Expert Group chaired by Dr. Suresh D. Tendulkar, Uttar Pradesh had the highest absolute number of persons living below the poverty line in India. The state recorded approximately 598.19 lakh individuals in the BPL category, which accounted for a poverty ratio of 29.43 percent. Although some other states had higher poverty head-count ratios (percentages), the large total population of Uttar Pradesh ensured that it contained the largest volume of poor people in the country during that assessment period.

66Economy
Which among the following in India is the Nodal agency for estimation of poverty at the national and state level?
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Answer: (D) Planning Commission

Explanation

The Planning Commission was the nodal agency in India responsible for estimating the incidence and number of people living below the poverty line at both national and state levels. These estimates were derived using data from the large-sample quinquennial surveys on household consumer expenditure conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). The Commission constituted specific expert groups and committees over time to define and refine the methodology for setting the poverty line, ensuring that the estimates reflected changing consumption patterns and inflationary trends across different regions and time periods.

67GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following minerals is not found in Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (B) Mica

Explanation

Mica is not found in Uttar Pradesh in any significant or commercially exploitable quantities. The state's mineral resources are primarily concentrated in its southern districts, such as Sonbhadra, Mirzapur, and Lalitpur, which contain deposits of limestone, bauxite, and gypsum. In contrast, India's major mica deposits are found in the Nellore belt of Andhra Pradesh, the Koderma-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand, and parts of Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh lacks the specific pegmatite geological formations required for the occurrence of high-quality mica, making it an insignificant state for this particular mineral.

68EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh the contribution of agriculture in state domestic product in 2011-2012 was approximately?
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Answer: (B) 24.5%

Explanation

According to the economic statistics released by the Directorate of Economics and Statistics of Uttar Pradesh, the contribution of the agriculture and allied sectors to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at constant prices for the year 2011-2012 was approximately 24.5%. This primary sector contribution includes income generated from crop husbandry, livestock, forestry, and fishing. While the state's economy has been undergoing a structural transition with a rising share of the service and industrial sectors, agriculture remained a dominant component of the state's output and the primary source of livelihood for a significant portion of the population during this period.

69Economy
The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) has been created under
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Answer: (B) NABARD

Explanation

The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was established by the Government of India in 1995-96 to provide low-cost fund support to State Governments and State-owned corporations for the quick completion of ongoing projects related to medium and minor irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management, and other forms of rural infrastructure. The fund is maintained and operated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Domestic commercial banks contribute to this fund based on the shortfall in their priority sector lending targets towards agriculture. NABARD utilizes these resources to finance a wide range of eligible activities across sectors like agriculture and related sectors, social sectors, and rural connectivity.

70Economy
Which one of the following States recorded the highest milk production in 2011-12.
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Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh was the leading milk-producing state in India during the 2011-12 period, contributing approximately 22.56 million tonnes. This represented about 17 percent of the total national milk production, which stood at 127.9 million tonnes for that financial year. The state high output is primarily attributed to its massive bovine population, specifically having the largest number of buffaloes in the country, combined with extensive agricultural land that ensures the availability of green and dry fodder. Throughout the early 2010s, the state maintained its top position in the dairy sector due to a well-established network of milk cooperatives and a high density of milch animals across its rural regions.

71Economy
'ABC Index' announced by the government of India is related with
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Answer: (C) Health

Explanation

The ABC Index stands for the Achievements of Babies and Children Index. It is a composite measure used to evaluate child well-being and development across different states in India. The index focuses on four key indicators: survival, immunization, nutrition, and schooling. By monitoring child mortality rates, the percentage of fully immunized children, and the prevalence of underweight children, the index serves as a critical tool for assessing public health outcomes and the efficacy of maternal and child healthcare interventions. It gained significant attention through reports like the HUNGaMA (Hunger and Malnutrition) report, highlighting the government's focus on addressing pediatric health and nutritional deficiencies.

72Economy
How many agreements are there in Agenda-21?
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Answer: (A) 4

Explanation

Agenda 21 is a comprehensive action plan for sustainable development that was adopted by more than 178 governments at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. The document is structured into four distinct sections that categorize its 40 chapters into specific thematic areas. Section I covers Social and Economic Dimensions, addressing issues such as poverty, consumption patterns, and population dynamics. Section II focuses on Conservation and Management of Resources for Development, which includes the protection of the atmosphere, oceans, and biodiversity. Section III emphasizes Strengthening the Role of Major Groups, including women, youth, indigenous peoples, and non-governmental organizations. Section IV outlines the Means of Implementation, detailing the financial mechanisms, technology transfer, and education programs necessary to achieve the goals of the agenda.

73Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I: (A) Sarva (B) Sakshar (C) Operation (D) National List-II: 1. 1987 Shiksha Abhiyan 2. 1988 Bharat 3. 2001 Blackboard 4. 2009 Literary Mission
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1

Explanation

(A) Sarva matches 3 because the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in 2001 to achieve the universalization of elementary education for children aged 6 to 14.

(B) Sakshar matches 4 because the Saakshar Bharat programme was launched in 2009 to promote adult literacy, with a specific focus on female education.

(C) Operation matches 1 because Operation Blackboard was initiated in 1987 to improve the quality of primary education by providing essential facilities and teaching materials.

(D) National matches 2 because the National Literacy Mission was established in 1988 to impart functional literacy to non-literates in the 15 to 35 age group.

74GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Sandi : Hardoi Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation

The Sandi Bird Sanctuary is located in the Hardoi district of Uttar Pradesh. Established in 1990, it serves as a critical wetland habitat for a wide variety of indigenous and migratory birds. The sanctuary covers an area of approximately 3 square kilometers and was designated to ensure the conservation of local biodiversity and the seasonal avian populations that migrate to the region during the winter months. It is ecologically supported by the nearby Garra river, which helps sustain the water levels required for the wetland ecosystem. The site is recognized for its environmental significance and provides a vital stopover point for species traveling along major migratory flyways.

75Geography
Which one of the following is not responsible for the extinction of species?
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Answer: (A) Broad niche

Explanation

A broad niche characterizes generalist species that possess the ability to thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and utilize a diverse array of resources. This ecological flexibility allows such species to adapt effectively to habitat modifications, climate fluctuations, and changes in food availability. Unlike specialist species that depend on highly specific environmental factors, generalists are not easily pushed toward extinction by the loss of a single resource or a localized change in their ecosystem. Therefore, a broad niche is a survival trait that promotes ecological resilience and population stability rather than leading to the disappearance of a species.

76Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
Biotechnology Park is located at
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Answer: (A) Lucknow

Explanation

The Biotechnology Park is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. It was established as a joint venture between the Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, and the Department of Science and Technology, Government of Uttar Pradesh. Located in the Kursi Road area, it was the first biotechnology park set up in Northern India to promote the growth of the biotech industry. The park provides state-of-the-art infrastructure, incubation facilities, and business support services to entrepreneurs and scientists. It aims to bridge the gap between research and commercialization in fields such as healthcare, agriculture, and industrial biotechnology.

77Polity and Governance
In which of the following years was passed the Environment Protection Act?
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Answer: (B) 1986

Explanation

The Environment Protection Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1986. This legislation was passed under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Parliament to enact laws for implementing international agreements. The Act was formulated to fulfill India's commitment made at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in 1972. The 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy served as a significant catalyst, emphasizing the urgent need for a comprehensive umbrella legislation to protect the environment. The Act provides a framework for the coordination of central and state authorities and grants the Central Government the power to take all necessary measures to protect and improve environmental quality and prevent environmental pollution.

78Geography
Which is bio-diversity rich place in India?
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Answer: (A) Western Ghat

Explanation

The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Mountains, is recognized globally as one of the eight hottest biodiversity hotspots. Spanning approximately 1,600 kilometers along the western coast of India, this region contains a massive proportion of the country's flora and fauna, many of which are endemic and found nowhere else on Earth. The area is characterized by high levels of rainfall and diverse ecosystems, including tropical evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and montane grasslands. In 2012, UNESCO declared 39 sites within the Western Ghats as World Heritage Sites, highlighting its immense importance for global genetic diversity and conservation. It supports several endangered species, such as the Lion-tailed Macaque and the Nilgiri Tahr, and serves as a critical watershed for peninsular India.

79Geography
To maintain ecological balance, the area under forest should be
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Answer: (C) 33%

Explanation

The National Forest Policy of 1988, which updated the earlier 1952 policy, stipulates that a minimum of one-third of the total land area of the country should be under forest or tree cover. This 33 percent threshold is considered essential for ensuring ecological balance, environmental stability, and the maintenance of biological diversity. The policy specifically targets 60 percent forest cover in hilly and mountainous regions to prevent soil erosion and land degradation, while maintaining 20 percent in the plains. This target aims to ensure the preservation of natural heritage, check the extension of desert areas, and maintain the overall environmental health of the nation.

80Geography
Air Pressure is lowest in
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Answer: (D) Summer Season

Explanation

Air pressure is inversely related to temperature. According to the basic principles of thermodynamics and the ideal gas law P = ρRT, when the temperature of air increases, the air molecules move faster and spread further apart, causing the air to expand and its density ρ to decrease. This warm, less dense air rises, resulting in lower atmospheric pressure at the surface. During the Summer Season, the Earth receives intense solar radiation, leading to significantly higher surface temperatures. This intense heating creates thermal lows or low-pressure cells, making air pressure reach its seasonal minimum during this period.

81GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The number of agro-climate zones in Uttar Pradesh is
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Answer: (C) 9

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh is divided into 9 agro-climatic zones based on rainfall, soil types, and topography to facilitate regional agricultural planning. These zones include the Bhabhar and Terai Zone, Western Plain Zone, Mid-Western Plain Zone, South-Western Semi-Arid Zone, Central Plain Zone, Bundelkhand Zone, North-Eastern Plain Zone, Eastern Plain Zone, and the Vindhyan Zone. This classification, recognized by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and the state agricultural department, accounts for the diverse geographical conditions across the state, ranging from the Himalayan foothills and the fertile Gangetic plains to the plateau regions of the south. Each zone has distinct climatic characteristics and soil compositions that determine the specific cropping patterns and agricultural practices suitable for that region.

82Geography
Wold Ozone day is celebrated on
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Answer: (A) September, 16

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly designated September 16 as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer in 1994. This date commemorates the anniversary of the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, which took place in 1987. The Montreal Protocol is a global agreement designed to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of substances responsible for its depletion, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons. The annual celebration of World Ozone Day highlights the importance of the ozone layer in protecting life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation and tracks the progress of international efforts in environmental conservation and the restoration of the atmosphere.

83Geography
'Green Muffler' is related to
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Answer: (C) Noise pollution

Explanation

Green Muffler is a technique of planting dense rows of trees and shrubs to reduce noise pollution. These plantations are typically established along busy roadsides, highways, industrial areas, and near railway tracks to act as a natural sound barrier. The foliage of the trees helps in absorbing and dissipating sound waves, preventing them from reaching residential areas with high intensity. Thick canopies of specific tree species like Neem and Ashoka are preferred for this purpose because their broad leaves and dense branching structures are highly effective at muffling sound, thereby significantly lowering decibel levels in the surrounding environment.

84Geography
Which one of the following is the largest ecosystem of the world?
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Answer: (A) Ocean

Explanation

The ocean, or marine ecosystem, is the largest ecosystem on Earth, covering approximately 71 percent of the planet's surface. It encompasses all the saltwater bodies of the world, including five major oceans: the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic. Due to its immense volume and surface area, it houses a significant portion of global biodiversity and plays a critical role in regulating the Earth's climate, carbon cycle, and water cycle. The sheer scale of the marine environment makes it the dominant ecological system compared to any land-based habitat.

85Geography
Methane gas emanates from
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Answer: (B) Paddy field

Explanation

Paddy fields are a major source of methane (CH₄) emissions due to the anaerobic (oxygen-free) conditions created by prolonged waterlogging. In these flooded environments, specialized microorganisms known as methanogenic archaea decompose organic matter in the soil and produce methane as a metabolic byproduct. The gas is primarily released into the atmosphere through the aerenchyma, which are internal air-conducting tissues in the rice plants that allow oxygen to reach the roots and simultaneously permit methane to escape. Additional methane is released through diffusion and bubbling from the soil surface into the atmosphere.

86Science and Technology
'NEERI' is located at
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Answer: (A) Nagpur

Explanation

The National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and is located in Nagpur, Maharashtra. Established in 1958 as the Central Public Health Engineering Research Institute (CPHERI), it was renamed NEERI in 1974 to reflect its broader focus on environmental science and engineering. The institute is dedicated to research and development in areas such as water supply, sewage disposal, industrial pollution control, and environmental impact assessment, serving as a premier national organization for environmental sustainability.

87Science and Technology
Ozone protects biosphere from
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Answer: (B) Ultraviolet rays

Explanation

The ozone layer is a region within the Earth's stratosphere that contains a high concentration of ozone (O₃) molecules. It serves as a critical protective shield for the biosphere by absorbing approximately 97 to 99 percent of the Sun's incoming medium-frequency ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Specifically, it filters out the majority of UV-B radiation, which possesses enough energy to cause biological damage such as DNA mutations, skin cancers, cataracts in humans, and detrimental effects on terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Without this absorption process, the high-energy ultraviolet rays would reach the Earth's surface at intensities lethal to most forms of life.

88Economy
Biodegradable pollutant is
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Answer: (B) Sewage

Explanation

Sewage is primarily composed of organic matter, including human and animal excreta, food waste, and paper products. These organic materials are readily decomposed by the metabolic activities of naturally occurring microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi. Through biological processes, these microbes break down complex organic compounds into simpler inorganic substances like water, carbon dioxide, and mineral salts. Since these pollutants can be neutralized and integrated back into the natural nutrient cycle through biological action within a reasonable timeframe, sewage is categorized as a biodegradable pollutant.

89Geography
The first National Park established in India is
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Answer: (B) Corbett National Park

Explanation

Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it the first national park in India and the oldest in Asia. Located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, it was initially created to protect the endangered Bengal tiger. The park was renamed Ramganga National Park in 1954-55 and finally named after the naturalist and conservationist Jim Corbett in 1955-56. It also became the first area to be included under the Project Tiger initiative launched in 1973 to safeguard the country's tiger population.

90Geography
Which one of the following is not a secondary pollutant?
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Answer: (C) Sulphur dioxide

Explanation

Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a primary pollutant because it is emitted directly into the atmosphere from identifiable sources. The most significant sources of SO₂ include the combustion of fossil fuels containing sulphur, such as coal and oil used in power plants and industrial boilers, as well as natural processes like volcanic eruptions. Unlike secondary pollutants, which form through chemical reactions between other substances already present in the air, SO₂ is released in its harmful form at the point of origin. Consequently, it serves as a precursor for secondary pollutants like sulphuric acid rather than being one itself.

91Science and Technology
Harmful ultra-violet radiation coming from the sun can cause
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Answer: (D) Dermal cancer

Explanation

Ultra-violet (UV) radiation from the sun is a potent mutagen that directly interacts with the DNA of skin cells. When the skin is exposed to UVB rays, they trigger the formation of pyrimidine dimers, primarily thymine dimers, which disrupt the DNA structure. If the body's nucleotide excision repair mechanism fails to correct these lesions, mutations accumulate in genes that regulate cell growth, such as the p53 tumor suppressor gene. This process leads to the uncontrolled proliferation of cells in the epidermis or dermis, resulting in dermal cancers such as basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and the more aggressive malignant melanoma. Since UV rays have low penetrating power, their biological impact is localized to the outermost layers of the body directly exposed to sunlight.

92Science and Technology
Sleep apnea is a serious sleep disorder, in which people
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Answer: (C) briefly and repeatedly stop breathing during sleep.

Explanation

Sleep apnea is a chronic medical condition characterized by repeated interruptions in breathing during sleep. These interruptions, called apneas, occur when the airway becomes temporarily blocked or when the brain fails to transmit the necessary signals to the muscles responsible for breathing. Each instance of apnea typically lasts for ten seconds or longer and can occur hundreds of times in a single night. This process prevents the body from entering deep, restorative sleep cycles and leads to a drop in blood oxygen levels, forcing the brain to briefly wake the individual to resume breathing.

93Science and Technology
In coronary artery by-pass surgery the blood vessel to be used a graft has to be
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Answer: (D) Any of these

Explanation

Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure performed to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by creating a new path, or bypass, around a blocked or narrowed section of a coronary artery. This procedure utilizes autologous blood vessels, which are harvested from other parts of the patient's body to serve as grafts. The Internal Mammary Artery (Internal Thoracic Artery) located in the chest is the most preferred graft due to its excellent long-term patency and resistance to atherosclerosis. The Great Saphenous Vein from the leg is also a primary choice, particularly when multiple bypasses are required, as it provides a long and accessible conduit. Furthermore, the Radial Artery from the forearm is frequently used as an arterial graft to supplement or replace other options. Because surgeons select from any of these vessels based on the patient's specific clinical requirements and the number of blockages, they all represent standard medical sources for bypass grafts.

94Science and Technology
Biological resurfacing is a recent surgical technique used to treat problems of
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Answer: (A) Knee joints

Explanation

Biological resurfacing is an orthopedic surgical technique primarily developed to treat articular cartilage damage and early-stage degenerative changes in the knee joint. Unlike traditional total knee replacement which uses metal and plastic prostheses, biological resurfacing focuses on regenerating or replacing the damaged cartilage surface using biological materials. This includes procedures such as Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation (ACI), where a patient’s own cartilage cells are harvested, grown in a lab, and then re-implanted, or the use of osteochondral allografts and autografts. This approach is specifically designed to preserve as much of the natural knee anatomy as possible, making it a preferred option for younger or more active patients who wish to maintain joint function and delay the need for synthetic implants.

95Science and Technology
In which of the following departments of a hospital will 'Cath lab' be found?
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Answer: (C) Cardiology

Explanation

A Cath lab, or Cardiac Catheterization Laboratory, is a specialized examination room in a hospital equipped with diagnostic imaging technology used to visualize the arteries and chambers of the heart. It is the primary facility within the cardiology department where interventional cardiologists perform minimally invasive procedures. These include coronary angiography to detect blockages in blood vessels, percutaneous coronary intervention (angioplasty) to open clogged arteries, and the implantation of pacemakers or internal defibrillators. The lab utilizes fluoroscopy, a type of continuous X-ray, to guide catheters through the vascular system to the heart, allowing for both the diagnosis and non-surgical treatment of various cardiovascular conditions.

96Science and Technology
Cerebral palsy is a brain disorder found generally in
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Answer: (C) Small children

Explanation

Cerebral palsy is a group of non-progressive neurological disorders that affect body movement and muscle coordination. It is caused by damage to or abnormalities in the developing brain, usually occurring before birth, during childbirth, or in the first few years of a child's life. Because the brain injury occurs during the early stages of development, the symptoms—such as impaired motor function, poor balance, and muscle stiffness—become apparent during infancy or early childhood. As a result, cerebral palsy is fundamentally a pediatric condition identified and managed in small children.

97Science and Technology
Some marine animals and insects emit light from their body in darkness. This phenomenon is known as
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Answer: (B) Bioluminescence

Explanation

Bioluminescence is the production and emission of light by a living organism as the result of a chemical reaction. This process involves the oxidation of a light-emitting molecule called luciferin, which is typically catalyzed by an enzyme known as luciferase. Since the reaction produces very little heat, it is often referred to as cold light. This phenomenon is widely observed in a variety of marine organisms such as jellyfish, anglerfish, and certain species of plankton, as well as terrestrial insects like fireflies and glow-worms. These organisms utilize the emitted light for various biological functions, including attracting mates, luring prey, or deterring predators in dark environments.

98Science and Technology
After menopause, production of which of the following hormones does not take place in women?
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Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation

After menopause, the human body continues to synthesize estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone, although the primary sources and levels of these hormones change significantly. Estrogen is produced in the form of estrone through the aromatization of androstenedione, an adrenal androgen, in peripheral tissues such as adipose tissue. Small amounts of progesterone continue to be secreted by the adrenal glands even after the depletion of ovarian follicles and the disappearance of the corpus luteum. Testosterone production also persists because the stromal cells of the postmenopausal ovaries remain hormonally active and continue to secrete androgens under the stimulation of elevated Luteinizing Hormone (LH) levels, supplemented by adrenal gland contributions. Since none of these three specific hormones cease to be produced within the body, the condition that their production does not take place is not met for any of the individual options provided.

99Geography
Biodiversity means
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Answer: (C) diverse kinds of plants and animals in particular area

Explanation

Biodiversity, a contraction of biological diversity, refers to the variety and variability of all living organisms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms, within a specific ecosystem or geographical region. It encompasses diversity at three distinct levels: genetic diversity within species, species diversity between different species, and ecosystem diversity. The term highlights the total number of different species and their relative abundance in a particular area, which is essential for maintaining ecological balance and providing various ecosystem services. By considering both floral and faunal variety in a defined habitat, this definition captures the fundamental essence of biological richness as understood in environmental science and ecology.

100Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an explosive matter?
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Answer: (D) Nitrochloroform

Explanation

Nitrochloroform, also known as chloropicrin with the chemical formula CCl₃NO₂, is a volatile liquid primarily used as a broad-spectrum soil fumigant, pesticide, and fungicide. It is characterized by its strong, irritating odor and its status as a powerful lachrymatory agent, which causes severe irritation to the eyes, skin, and respiratory system. Due to these properties, it was historically employed as a tear gas and vomiting agent in chemical warfare during World War I. It does not possess the chemical stability profile or the rapid exothermic decomposition properties required to be classified as an explosive material; instead, it is categorized by its toxic and irritant effects.

101Science and Technology
What is the source of electrical energy in an artificial satellite?
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Answer: (B) Solar cells

Explanation

Solar cells, also known as photovoltaic cells, serve as the primary source of electrical energy for artificial satellites orbiting the Earth. These cells utilize the photoelectric effect to convert radiant energy from the sun directly into electricity. Because satellites operate in an environment with high solar irradiance and no atmospheric interference, solar panels provide a consistent and renewable power supply for onboard electronics, sensors, and communication systems. The electricity generated during sunlit periods is typically used to power the satellite's immediate needs and to charge secondary storage batteries, which sustain operations when the satellite passes into the Earth's shadow.

102Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I: (A) Vitamin B12 (B) Haemoglobin (C) Chlorophyll (D) Brass List-II: 1. Magnesium 2. Cobalt 3. Copper 4. Iron
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Answer: (A) 2, 4, 1

Explanation

(A) Vitamin B12 matches with 2 (Cobalt) because it is a complex coordination compound, specifically cobalamin, which contains a central cobalt atom. (B) Haemoglobin matches with 4 (Iron) as it is the iron-containing metalloprotein in red blood cells responsible for transporting oxygen. (C) Chlorophyll matches with 1 (Magnesium) because it contains a magnesium ion at the center of its porphyrin ring to capture light energy for photosynthesis. (D) Brass matches with 3 (Copper) since it is a widely used metallic alloy composed primarily of copper and zinc.

103Science and Technology
To look total image of a person, the minimum height of a plane mirror is
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Answer: (B) Half of the height of a person

Explanation

To see a full-length image in a plane mirror, a person of height H requires a mirror of minimum height H/2. This is derived from the laws of reflection, specifically that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. For a person to see the top of their head, a light ray must travel from the head to the mirror and reflect into the eyes. Geometrically, the point of reflection on the mirror must be exactly halfway between the level of the eyes and the top of the head. Similarly, to see the feet, a light ray from the feet must reflect off the mirror into the eyes, requiring a reflection point exactly halfway between the level of the eyes and the ground. The total vertical span of the mirror needed is the distance between these two reflection points, which mathematically simplifies to half the total height of the individual. This requirement remains constant regardless of the distance the person stands from the mirror.

104Science and Technology
Homi Bhabha Prize is given for the special contribution in which of the following fields?
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Answer: (B) Nuclear Energy

Explanation

Homi Jehangir Bhabha was an Indian nuclear physicist and the founding director of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre. He is globally recognized as the father of the Indian nuclear program for his work in establishing the nation's nuclear infrastructure and his visionary three-stage nuclear power strategy. The Homi Bhabha Prize is awarded to honor exceptional contributions to the development of nuclear energy and atomic science. It serves to recognize scientists whose research and technical achievements advance the field of nuclear technology, reflecting Bhabha's legacy in securing India's energy future through atomic power.

105Science and Technology
Sound Waves do not travel in
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Answer: (D) Vacuum

Explanation

Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves that require a physical medium for propagation. They travel through a substance by causing the particles of that medium to vibrate and collide, transferring energy from one location to another via periodic compressions and rarefactions. In a vacuum, there is a complete absence of matter or particles to facilitate these mechanical vibrations. Consequently, without atoms or molecules to transmit the kinetic energy of the wave, sound cannot propagate.

106Polity and Governance
In which of the following three states were held the Vidhan Sabha Election along with Lok Sabha Election, 2014?
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Sikkim

Explanation

In 2014, the Election Commission of India conducted simultaneous elections for the 16th Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of four states: Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Andhra Pradesh held assembly elections for its 294 seats just before the formal bifurcation of the state into Telangana and the residuary Andhra Pradesh. Odisha conducted elections for its 147 assembly seats across two phases in April 2014. Sikkim held its assembly elections for 32 seats on April 12, 2014. This alignment allowed voters in these regions to cast ballots for both their central and state representatives during the same electoral cycle.

107Economy
The country's first Post Office Savings Bank ATM was inaugurated in February, 2014?
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Answer: (C) Chennai

Explanation

The country's first Post Office Savings Bank ATM was inaugurated on February 27, 2014, at the Thyagarayanagar Head Post Office in Chennai. The facility was launched by then Union Finance Minister P. Chidambaram as a significant milestone in the Department of Posts' IT modernization project. This initiative was part of the implementation of the Core Banking Solution (CBS) which aimed to provide anytime, anywhere banking services to post office savings account holders. At its inception, the ATM was designed to cater to customers having accounts in CBS-enabled post offices, moving the department closer to providing services on par with commercial banks.

108Economy
Who amongst the following resigned from the post of deputy governor of Reserve Bank of India in March, 2014?
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Answer: (B) K.C. Chakrabarty

Explanation

K.C. Chakrabarty resigned from his post as the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in March 2014, citing personal reasons. His resignation came nearly three months before the scheduled end of his tenure on June 30, 2014. Having joined the RBI in June 2009 for a three-year term, he was subsequently granted a two-year extension. During his time at the central bank, he was responsible for significant portfolios such as banking supervision, financial stability, and customer service. Prior to his appointment at the RBI, he served as the Chairman and Managing Director of both Punjab National Bank and Indian Bank, bringing extensive commercial banking experience to the regulatory body.

109Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following won the World Women's Squash Championship in March, 2014?
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Answer: (A) Laura Massaro

Explanation

The 2013 Women's World Squash Championship was rescheduled and held in Penang, Malaysia, in March 2014. Laura Massaro of England claimed the title by defeating Egyptian player Nour El Sherbini in the final with a score of 11-7, 9-11, 11-6, 5-11, 11-9. With this victory, Massaro became the first Englishwoman to win the world title since 1999. The win was significant as she overcame a deficit in the final set to secure her first World Championship trophy.

110Economy
Which one of the following States presented the Sixth consecutive Zero deficit budget on February 13, 2014?
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Answer: (C) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

Jammu and Kashmir's Finance Minister, Abdul Rahim Rather, presented the state budget for the financial year 2014-15 in the Legislative Assembly on February 13, 2014. This was the sixth consecutive time the state government presented a zero deficit budget, indicating that the estimated total receipts for the year were projected to match the total expenditure without leaving a gap. The budget focused on fiscal consolidation while prioritizing social sectors and infrastructure development during the tenure of the National Conference-led coalition government. In a zero deficit budget, the government ensures that all planned expenditures are covered by projected revenues and existing financial arrangements, avoiding the need for additional resource mobilization through new taxes or unplanned borrowings at the time of presentation.

111Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States decided to merge Annsfree Yojana in the National Food Security Scheme in March, 2014?
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Answer: (C) Delhi

Explanation

The Dilli Annashree Yojana was a cash transfer scheme launched by the Delhi government in December 2012 to support poor households that were not covered under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Under this scheme, the senior-most female member of an eligible household received a monthly cash subsidy of Rs 600. Following the rollout of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) in 2013, which significantly expanded the criteria and coverage for subsidized food grains, the Delhi administration decided in March 2014 to merge the Annashree Yojana into the National Food Security Scheme. This decision was taken to streamline social welfare benefits and eliminate duplication, as the vast majority of households previously identified under the state scheme became eligible for food grain entitlements under the new national framework.

112Science and Technology
The 101st Indian Science Congress was held between 3rd and 7th February 2014 in
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Answer: (D) Jammu

Explanation

The 101st Indian Science Congress was hosted by the University of Jammu from 3rd to 7th February 2014. It was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister of India, Dr. Manmohan Singh, with the focal theme Innovations in Science and Technology for Inclusive Development. This session was significant as it marked the first time the annual event was held in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The congress saw the participation of thousands of delegates, including several Nobel laureates and prominent scientists, focusing on how scientific research and technological advancements could be leveraged to ensure equitable growth across different sections of society.

113Art and Culture
The real name of Gulzar the winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award, 2014 is
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Answer: (A) Sampurna Singh Kalra

Explanation

Gulzar, the legendary lyricist, poet, and filmmaker, was born as Sampooran Singh Kalra on August 18, 1934, in Dina, Jhelum District of British India. He adopted the pen name Gulzar when he began his career in the Indian film industry. In May 2014, he was honored with the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2013, which is Indias highest award in cinema, for his lifetime contribution to Indian film. His work is characterized by a unique sensitivity and the use of the Purbi dialect and Urdu, making him one of the most respected figures in Indian literature and cinema.

114Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Indian Tribes voted for the first time in Lok Sabha Election, 2014
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Answer: (A) Shampens

Explanation

The Shompen tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) inhabiting the dense tropical rainforests of the Great Nicobar Island, exercised their right to franchise for the first time during the 2014 Lok Sabha elections. In a historic move for Indian democracy, members of this hunter-gatherer community travelled to a special polling station set up at the Shompen Hut complex in Campbell Bay to cast their votes. While other tribal groups in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands had participated in previous elections, the Shompen had remained isolated until the Election Commission and local administration facilitated their registration and participation in the 16th General Elections. This milestone reflected the outreach of the democratic process to the most remote and marginalized indigenous populations of India.

115History
The book 'Narendra Modi-The man, the times' is written by
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Answer: (D) Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay

Explanation

The book titled Narendra Modi: The Man, the Times is a comprehensive biography written by the senior journalist and author Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay. Published in 2013, the work is based on extensive interviews with Narendra Modi himself, as well as his associates and critics. It traces his trajectory from his early life in Vadnagar and his involvement with the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) to his long tenure as the Chief Minister of Gujarat. The biography provides an analytical look at his political evolution, his administrative style, and the significant events of his career, offering a detailed profile of the leader just before he ascended to the position of Prime Minister of India.

116Economy
Which one of the following was not the feature of Interim Rail Budget, 2014-15?
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Answer: (D) The governments of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh agreed to share cost of several Rail Projects in their respective areas.

Explanation

The Interim Railway Budget 2014-15, presented by the then Railway Minister Mallikarjun Kharge, listed specific states that had entered into cost-sharing agreements with the Ministry of Railways for various infrastructure projects. These states were Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Jharkhand, and Haryana. The governments of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Madhya Pradesh were not included in this list of states participating in the cost-sharing model during that particular budget presentation, making this claim factually inconsistent with the features of the 2014-15 interim announcement.

117Economy
The theme of 44th Annual Meeting of World Economic Forum which was held at Davos in Switzerland between 22nd and 25th January, 2014 was
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Answer: (A) The reshaping of the world consequence for society, politics and business

Explanation

The 44th World Economic Forum Annual Meeting, held in Davos-Klosters from January 22 to 25, 2014, adopted the theme The Reshaping of the World: Consequences for Society, Politics and Business. The meeting focused on the profound transformations occurring globally due to technological advancements, shifting geopolitical power dynamics, and social changes. Over 2,500 leaders from government, business, and civil society convened to discuss how these shifts necessitated a fundamental redesign of institutional frameworks. The theme emphasized the need for global cooperation to address systemic risks and to ensure that the rapid changes in the global landscape lead to inclusive and sustainable growth across all sectors of society.

118Art and Culture
In which of the following cities was played the final match of the seventh season of IPL, 2014?
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Answer: (A) Bengaluru

Explanation

The final match of the seventh season of the Indian Premier League (IPL) in 2014 was held at the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru on June 1, 2014. The match featured a contest between the Kolkata Knight Riders and Kings XI Punjab. Kolkata Knight Riders successfully chased a target of 200 runs to win by three wickets, clinching their second IPL title. While the initial phase of the 2014 tournament was played in the United Arab Emirates due to the Indian general elections, the later stages and the final were hosted in India, with Bengaluru selected as the venue for the summit clash.

119History
How many countries took Part in FIFA World Cup, 2014?
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Answer: (A) 32

Explanation

The 2014 FIFA World Cup, held in Brazil, featured 32 national teams competing in the final tournament. This 32-team format was the standard for the competition from 1998 through 2022. The participating nations were determined through a qualification process involving 203 teams from six continental confederations, with Brazil qualifying automatically as the host. In the final stage, these 32 teams were organized into eight groups of four for the round-robin phase, with the top two teams from each group progressing to the knockout rounds.

120Polity and Governance
What is the full form of ISIS which claimed in June, 2014 to have executed 1700 Iraqi Soldiers?
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Answer: (A) Islamic State of Iraq and Syria

Explanation

ISIS stands for the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria, an extremist militant group that follows a fundamentalist, Salafi jihadist doctrine. The organization gained global notoriety in 2014 after seizing large swaths of territory in western Iraq and eastern Syria. In June 2014, during their rapid advance through northern Iraq, the group captured the city of Tikrit and subsequently carried out the Camp Speicher massacre. They claimed to have executed approximately 1,700 Shia Iraqi air force cadets who were fleeing the base. The name Islamic State of Iraq and Syria reflects the geographic regions where the group originally sought to establish its self-declared caliphate before it shortened its name to the Islamic State in late June 2014.

121Polity and Governance
Boko Haram which was in news (May/June, 2014) in context to Nigeria is
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Answer: (D) A Terrorist Organization

Explanation

Boko Haram is a militant Islamist extremist group primarily operating in northeastern Nigeria. The organization's formal name is Jama'atu Ahlis Sunna Lidda'awati wal-Jihad, while its common name translates to "Western education is forbidden" in the Hausa language. It was founded in 2002 with the aim of establishing a strict Islamic state and has conducted a violent insurgency against the Nigerian government. In the May/June 2014 period, the group gained worldwide attention following its abduction of 276 schoolgirls from Chibok in April 2014. This act led to widespread international condemnation and the designation of the group as a terrorist organization by various international bodies and countries due to its repeated use of suicide bombings, massacres, and kidnappings to achieve its ideological goals.

122Science and Technology
The largest warship formally included in Indian Navy in June, 2014 is
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Answer: (A) I.N.S. Vikramaditya

Explanation

INS Vikramaditya is a 45,000-tonne modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier acquired from Russia, originally known as Admiral Gorshkov. Although the ship was commissioned in November 2013 at Severodvinsk, Russia, it was formally dedicated to the nation and fully integrated into naval operations by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on June 14, 2014, off the coast of Goa. As the largest warship in the Indian Navy, it measures approximately 284 meters in length and 60 meters in height. The carrier utilizes a STOBAR configuration, featuring a 14-degree ski jump to launch aircraft like the MiG-29K, and is equipped with advanced sensors and weapon systems that provide a significant strategic advantage in the Indian Ocean Region.

123History
Which of the following Country was the venue of the Women's Hockey World Cup, 2014?
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Answer: (C) Netherlands

Explanation

The 2014 Women's Hockey World Cup was the 13th edition of the quadrennial world championship for women's national field hockey teams organized by the International Hockey Federation (FIH). The tournament was held from 31 May to 14 June 2014 in The Hague, Netherlands. It was a significant sporting event as it was conducted simultaneously with the Men's Hockey World Cup at the Kyocera Stadion and the GreenFields Stadium. The Netherlands acted as the host nation and eventually won the tournament, claiming their seventh world title.

124Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct about 7th Central Pay Commission?
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Answer: (C) The Commission has been mandated to submit its report in three years.

Explanation

The 7th Central Pay Commission was mandated to submit its report within 18 months from the date of its constitution, rather than three years. Given that the commission was formally approved and established in February 2014, the 18-month deadline was set to facilitate the review and implementation of the new pay scales by the scheduled commencement date of January 1, 2016. This timeframe was explicitly defined in the terms of reference issued by the Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance at the time of the commission's formation.

125Polity and Governance
According to survey conducted by London based Human Rights Organization, which one of the following countries is world's biggest state executioner?
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Answer: (C) China

Explanation

Amnesty International, a prominent human rights organization headquartered in London, has consistently reported that China executes more people than any other country in the world. In its annual reviews of the death penalty published around 2014, the organization highlighted that although China classifies figures for the use of the death penalty as a state secret, the estimated number of executions remains in the thousands. This total is significantly higher than the combined figures of all other nations known to carry out judicial killings, maintaining China's position as the world's leading state executioner.

126Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following was appointed as Protem Speaker for sixteenth Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Kamal Nath

Explanation

The Protem Speaker is appointed by the President of India under Article 95(1) of the Constitution to perform the duties of the Speaker until a permanent Speaker is elected. This temporary post is traditionally given to the most senior member of the Lok Sabha. For the sixteenth Lok Sabha in 2014, President Pranab Mukherjee appointed Kamal Nath as the Protem Speaker. His appointment followed the established parliamentary convention regarding seniority, as he was a nine-term Member of Parliament representing the Chhindwara constituency of Madhya Pradesh. As Protem Speaker, he was responsible for administering the oath of office to the newly elected members of the House and overseeing the election of the Speaker.

127Science and Technology
When did World Health Organisation officially declared the South-East Asia region Polio Free?
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Answer: (A) 27th March, 2014

Explanation

The World Health Organization South-East Asia Region was officially certified polio-free on 27th March, 2014. This historic milestone was announced by the South-East Asia Regional Certification Commission for Polio Eradication during its meeting held in New Delhi, India. The certification was granted after all 11 countries in the region, including India, remained free of wild poliovirus for at least three consecutive years. India, which was once considered the most challenging country for polio eradication, recorded its last case of wild poliovirus in West Bengal on 13th January, 2011. This achievement made South-East Asia the fourth of the six WHO regions to be certified as polio-free, covering approximately one-quarter of the world population.

128Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The route of Pakistani terrorists Abdul Walid and Fahim to Gorakhpur, who were nabbed in Gorakhpur on 27th March, 2014 was
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Answer: (A) Karachi, Kathmandu, Gorakhpur

Explanation

The two Pakistani terrorists, identified as Mohammad Fahim and Abdul Walid, were arrested by the Uttar Pradesh Anti-Terrorist Squad (ATS) in Gorakhpur. According to the investigation details released following their capture, the operatives belonged to the Hizbul Mujahideen and were sent to execute terror strikes during the 2014 General Elections. Their infiltration route began in Karachi, Pakistan, from where they flew to Kathmandu, Nepal. Kathmandu served as a strategic transit point due to the porous nature of the Indo-Nepal border. After reaching Nepal, they entered India through the Sunauli border in the Maharajganj district and then traveled by road to Gorakhpur, where they were eventually intercepted by security agencies.

129Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct about an amendment in an article of Penal Code made by the Parliament of Morocco on 23rd January, 2014?
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Answer: (B) Rapist of minor girl should only face the trial.

Explanation

The Moroccan Parliament amended Article 475 of the Penal Code on January 23, 2014, following widespread domestic and international protests. This legislative change was largely prompted by the 2012 suicide of 16-year-old Amina Filali, who had been forced to marry her rapist under the existing law. Before this amendment, the second paragraph of Article 475 allowed a rapist of a minor to avoid criminal prosecution and jail time if he married the victim. The 2014 reform repealed this specific provision, effectively closing the loophole that granted immunity through marriage. Under the amended law, perpetrators can no longer use marriage as a legal shield to escape justice and must face trial and the resulting criminal penalties for their actions.

130History
What is the date of Sarnath Buddhist image inscription of Kanishka?
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Answer: (B) 81 A.D.

Explanation

The Sarnath Buddhist image inscription of Kanishka dates to the year 81 A.D. This inscription is carved on the base of a colossal red sandstone Bodhisattva statue that was installed by Bhikshu Bala at Sarnath. The text explicitly mentions that the image was consecrated in the 3rd regnal year of Maharaja Kanishka. Given that Kanishka ascended the throne in 78 A.D., marking the beginning of the Shaka Era, the third year of his reign corresponds to 78 + 3 = 81 A.D. This record is historically significant as it also names the Kushan governors or Kshatrapas, Kharapallana and Vanaspara, who administered the eastern provinces of the empire.

131Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I: (A) Dochigam (B) Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary (C) Kanha National Park (D) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary List-II (Park/Sanctuary): 1. Madhya 2. Rajasthan 3. Jammu and Kashmir 4. Kerala
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Answer: (C) 3 2 1 4

Explanation

Dachigam National Park = J&K (3). Keoladeo Ghana = Rajasthan (2). Kanha National Park = Madhya Pradesh (1). Periyar = Kerala (4). Code: A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 = "3 2 1 4" = Option C.

132Geography
The correct sequence of the following countries in terms of total railway length in the world in descending order is:
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Answer: (D) U.S.A., Canada, India, Germany

Explanation

The United States possesses the largest railway network in the world, featuring a massive infrastructure primarily dedicated to freight transport across its expansive geography. Canada follows with a vast system of transcontinental lines that were developed to bridge the Atlantic and Pacific coasts and support the movement of bulk commodities. India maintains one of the most extensive rail networks globally, serving as a critical artery for both passenger and freight movement, though its total track length ranked below Canada in historical datasets commonly cited in 2014. Germany has the shortest total length of the four nations, as its geographical area is significantly smaller, despite having one of the most technologically advanced and densest networks in Europe.

133Geography
Which one of the following is the busiest ocean trade route?
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Answer: (D) North Atlantic

Explanation

The North Atlantic Route connects the two most industrially developed regions of the world, Western Europe and North America. It handles nearly one-fourth of the world's total maritime trade and witnesses the highest frequency of ship movements across the globe. This route links numerous major ports on both sides of the ocean and is widely referred to as the Big Trunk Route due to its massive volume of traffic and strategic commercial importance in global trade.

134Geography
Which one of the following countries is known for very important uranium ore deposits?
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Answer: (A) Canada

Explanation

Canada is globally recognized for having some of the world's largest and highest-grade uranium deposits, primarily concentrated in the Athabasca Basin of Northern Saskatchewan. As of 2014, Canada was the second-largest producer of uranium in the world, accounting for approximately 15 percent of global production. The country is home to the McArthur River mine, which is the world's largest high-grade uranium mine, and the Cigar Lake mine, which contains some of the highest-grade uranium ore ever discovered. The exceptional quality of Canadian uranium ore, where concentration levels can be up to 100 times the global average, makes its deposits economically and strategically significant in the global nuclear energy market.

135Economy
Japan is near self-sufficient in
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Answer: (C) Copper

Explanation

Japan maintains a high level of self-sufficiency in copper through its advanced urban mining and secondary smelting industries. Rather than relying solely on primary ore extraction, Japan utilizes its technological expertise to recover copper from electronic waste, industrial scrap, and discarded machinery. This robust recycling infrastructure allows the country to produce a significant volume of refined copper domestically from existing materials. By 2014, the efficiency of Japan's secondary production provided a sustainable supply that met a large portion of its industrial requirements, leveraging the country's massive accumulated stocks of the metal within its technosphere to achieve near self-sufficiency.

136History
Radcliffe line defines boundary between
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Answer: (C) India and Pakistan

Explanation

The Radcliffe Line was the international boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan during the Partition of 1947. It was named after Sir Cyril Radcliffe, the chairman of the two Boundary Commissions established to partition the provinces of Punjab and Bengal. The commission was tasked with dividing these regions based on religious demographics and other factors like connectivity and irrigation. The boundary was officially published on 17 August 1947, establishing the borders between independent India and the two wings of Pakistan, West Pakistan and East Pakistan.

137Geography
Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of South Asia?
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Answer: (D) Pakistan

Explanation

Based on the demographic data provided by the World Bank and United Nations Habitat reports leading up to 2014, Pakistan maintained the highest urbanization rate among the major nations of South Asia. During this period, approximately 37 percent to 38 percent of Pakistan's population resided in urban areas. This trend was primarily driven by rapid rural-to-urban migration as individuals sought better employment opportunities, healthcare, and education in major industrial and commercial hubs like Karachi, Lahore, and Faisalabad. Additionally, the natural increase in population within established cities and the administrative reclassification of rural settlements into urban towns contributed to Pakistan's position as the most urbanized country in the region relative to its neighbors.

138Geography
Which among the following states has highest sex-ratio in 2011?
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Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in the population. Tamil Nadu recorded a sex ratio of 996, which is the highest among the given options. For comparison, the sex ratios of the other states mentioned were 993 for Andhra Pradesh, 979 for Odisha, and 973 for Karnataka. Tamil Nadu has consistently exhibited high sex ratios due to better social welfare programs and demographic transitions in the southern region of India.

139Economy
What is the correct sequence of the States in descending order in the production of sugarcane in 2013?
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Answer: (B) U.P., Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana

Explanation

According to the data from the Directorate of Economics and Statistics for the period 2012-13 and 2013-14, Uttar Pradesh was the leading producer of sugarcane in India, accounting for nearly 38 to 40 percent of the total national output. Maharashtra followed as the second-largest producer, consistently contributing a significant portion of the country's sugar requirements due to its extensive irrigation facilities and cooperative sugar mill network. Karnataka ranked third in terms of total production volume. Haryana, while an important producer in the northern region, produced substantially less sugarcane than the top three states, placing it at the end of this descending sequence.

140GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which district in Uttar Pradesh has highest density of population according to 2011 Census?
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Answer: (C) Ghaziabad

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census, Ghaziabad is the most densely populated district in Uttar Pradesh. It has a population density of 3,971 persons per square kilometer, which is the highest among all 75 districts of the state. This figure represents a significant increase from the 2001 Census and is nearly five times higher than the overall population density of Uttar Pradesh, which stands at 829 persons per square kilometer. The high density in Ghaziabad is primarily driven by its strategic location in the National Capital Region (NCR), massive urban sprawl, and its role as a major industrial and educational hub attracting migration from across the country.

141Geography
National Water Way-1 connects
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Answer: (A) Allahabad - Haldia

Explanation

National Waterway-1 (NW-1) was declared in 1986 and is the longest waterway in India, covering a distance of approximately 1620 km. It traverses the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system, extending from Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh to Haldia in West Bengal. This waterway passes through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, serving as a critical infrastructure link for inland navigation and trade. The Inland Waterways Authority of India manages this route, which supports the movement of heavy cargo and promotes cost-effective logistics across the Indo-Gangetic plains.

142Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Tribe): (A) Birhor (B) Bhutiya (C) Toda (D) Sentinelese List-II (Region): 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Sikkim 4. Jharkhand
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Birhor = Jharkhand (4). Bhutiya = Sikkim (3). Toda = Tamil Nadu Nilgiris (2). Sentinelese = Andaman & Nicobar Islands (1). Code: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 = "4 3 2 1" = Option A.

143Economy
As per Census of India (2011) which of the following States has the lowest percentage share of child population in rural area?
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Answer: (B) Kerala

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Kerala recorded the lowest percentage share of child population in the 0-6 age group in rural areas among the given states. This demographic characteristic is a result of Kerala being in the advanced stage of demographic transition, driven by high female literacy rates, robust healthcare infrastructure, and successful implementation of family welfare programs. The state's birth rate has significantly declined over several decades, leading to a smaller proportion of children in its total population. In 2011, the rural child population percentage in Kerala was approximately 10 percent, reflecting the state's unique socio-economic development model which prioritizes education and health, resulting in lower fertility levels compared to other Indian states.

144Geography
Which of the following temperate grasslands are found in Eurasia?
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Answer: (C) Steppes

Explanation

The Steppes are the vast temperate grasslands of Eurasia, stretching across a massive belt from Eastern Europe through Central Asia to Mongolia and northeastern China. These regions are characterized by a semi-arid, continental climate with significant seasonal temperature variations, featuring hot summers and very cold winters. The vegetation consists predominantly of perennial grasses and shrubs that are adapted to the relatively low and seasonal precipitation levels found in the interior of the Eurasian landmass. Historically and geographically, the Steppes have served as a critical corridor for trade, migration, and the movement of nomadic cultures between the Eastern and Western worlds.

145Geography
The rivers of South India mainly have which of the following drainage patterns?
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Answer: (C) Dendritic

Explanation

The major rivers of the Indian Peninsula, such as the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery, predominantly exhibit a dendritic drainage pattern. This pattern resembles the branching of a tree and develops in regions where the underlying rock structure is relatively uniform or offers equal resistance to erosion. Since the South Indian rivers flow over the stable and ancient Deccan Plateau, which consists largely of homogeneous volcanic and crystalline rocks, the stream channels follow the general slope of the terrain. As these rivers and their numerous tributaries traverse the plateau towards the Bay of Bengal, they create an integrated network of channels that join the main river at acute angles, characteristic of a mature dendritic system.

146Polity and Governance
The Election Commissioner can be removed by the:
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Answer: (C) President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

Explanation

Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India provides the procedural framework for the removal of members of the Election Commission. While the Chief Election Commissioner is accorded security of tenure equivalent to a Judge of the Supreme Court and can only be removed through a process of impeachment by Parliament, the other Election Commissioners and Regional Commissioners are governed by a different provision. According to the second proviso of this Article, any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This requirement ensures that the Election Commission functions independently of executive interference, as the President, who is the appointing authority, can only exercise the power of removal after receiving a formal recommendation from the Chief Election Commissioner.

147Polity and Governance
A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing a letter to
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Answer: (B) the President

Explanation

Article 124(2)(a) of the Constitution of India provides the specific procedure for the resignation of a Supreme Court judge. It states that a judge may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Because the President is the formal appointing authority for the judiciary under Article 124, the resignation must be submitted to the President to be legally valid and to create a formal vacancy in the court. This rule applies uniformly to both the Chief Justice of India and the other judges of the Supreme Court.

Answer key

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  1. 1D
  2. 2D
  3. 3C
  4. 4C
  5. 5D
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8C
  9. 9A
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12B
  13. 13A
  14. 14D
  15. 15D
  16. 16B
  17. 17B
  18. 18A
  19. 19D
  20. 20A
  21. 21B
  22. 22C
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25A
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29A
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32A
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35A
  36. 36B
  37. 37C
  38. 38C
  39. 39B
  40. 40B
  41. 41D
  42. 42A
  43. 43D
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53C
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56C
  57. 57A
  58. 58B
  59. 59B
  60. 60A
  61. 61D
  62. 62D
  63. 63C
  64. 64B
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67B
  68. 68B
  69. 69B
  70. 70A
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77B
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80D
  81. 81C
  82. 82A
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85B
  86. 86A
  87. 87B
  88. 88B
  89. 89B
  90. 90C
  91. 91D
  92. 92C
  93. 93D
  94. 94A
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98D
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101B
  102. 102A
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105D
  106. 106C
  107. 107C
  108. 108B
  109. 109A
  110. 110C
  111. 111C
  112. 112D
  113. 113A
  114. 114A
  115. 115D
  116. 116D
  117. 117A
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120A
  121. 121D
  122. 122A
  123. 123C
  124. 124C
  125. 125C
  126. 126B
  127. 127A
  128. 128A
  129. 129B
  130. 130B
  131. 131C
  132. 132D
  133. 133D
  134. 134A
  135. 135C
  136. 136C
  137. 137D
  138. 138A
  139. 139B
  140. 140C
  141. 141A
  142. 142A
  143. 143B
  144. 144C
  145. 145C
  146. 146C
  147. 147B

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