Among the BIMARU states of India, the most densely populated state is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Bihar
Explanation
Based on the 1991 Census data, which was the primary demographic reference available in the year 2000, Bihar had a population density of 497 persons per square kilometer. This density was the highest among the states comprising the BIMARU group, which includes Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. While Uttar Pradesh possessed the largest total population, Bihar's relatively smaller land area resulted in a higher concentration of people per unit of land. This high population density is attributed to the fertile Gangetic plains which support intensive agriculture and large human settlements. The trend continued into the 2001 Census, where Bihar's density rose to 880 persons per square kilometer, further solidifying its status as the most densely populated state within the BIMARU category and one of the highest in the entire country.
2Geography
The three most urbanised states of India in correct descending sequence are:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka
Explanation
Based on the 1991 Census data, which was the relevant statistical record for the year 2000, Maharashtra was the most urbanized major state in India with 38.69 percent of its population residing in urban areas. Gujarat followed with an urbanization rate of 34.49 percent. Karnataka recorded an urbanization level of 30.92 percent. This sequence represents a correct descending order of urbanization levels among the states listed, reflecting the proportion of the urban population relative to the total population of each state during that period.
3Geography
What is the correct sequence of the descending order of the following states in respect of density of population as per the 1991 Census?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
Explanation
According to the official data from the 1991 Census of India, West Bengal had the highest population density among the listed states with 767 persons per km². Tamil Nadu followed with a density of 429 persons per km². Maharashtra recorded a density of 257 persons per km², while Andhra Pradesh had a density of 242 persons per km². Arranging these states in descending order based on their 1991 population density results in the sequence of West Bengal (4), Tamil Nadu (3), Maharashtra (2), and Andhra Pradesh (1).
4Polity and Governance
Assertion (A): The size of population and its composition are responsible for the social change. Reason (R): The fertility of occupational groups in which the wives engage more generally in gainful occupations, is lower than that of other groups in the same economic category.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The demographic perspective on social change emphasizes that shifts in population size, density, and composition act as powerful catalysts for transforming social structures and institutions. Changes in the number of people or the distribution of age, sex, and occupation groups necessitate adjustments in housing, education, healthcare, and the labor market, thereby driving social evolution.
The Reason (R) illustrates a specific mechanism within this process by highlighting the relationship between female labor force participation and fertility rates. In groups where women are engaged in gainful employment, the fertility rate is generally lower due to the increased opportunity cost of childbearing and the transition of women's roles from purely domestic to economic. This reduction in fertility directly alters the population composition and growth rate, which in turn triggers broader social changes in family patterns and economic dependencies. Thus, the specific demographic behavior described in the reason explains how changes in population dynamics lead to the social transformations mentioned in the assertion.
5Geography
Assertion (A): The urban population of India is more than that of the U.S.A. Reason (R): The level of urbanisation in the U.S.A. is higher than that in India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, the urban population was approximately 286 million, representing 27.8 percent of the total population. In contrast, the 2000 United States Census recorded a total population of approximately 281 million, with an urban population of about 222 million (79 percent). This confirms that India's absolute urban population was indeed larger than that of the U.S.A. The level of urbanization refers to the percentage of the total population living in urban centers. In 2000, the level of urbanization in the U.S.A. was nearly 79 percent, whereas India's level was significantly lower at roughly 28 percent. While both statements are factually accurate, the high level of urbanization in the U.S.A. is not the cause of India's larger urban population. India's higher absolute number is a result of its massive total population base rather than its degree of urbanization.
6Geography
Assertion (A): The Green Belt represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities. Reason (R): It is an integral component of a city.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The Green Belt is a fundamental tool in regional planning designed to prevent the unchecked sprawl of large urban centers into the surrounding countryside. By designating a ring of open space where development is strictly prohibited or limited, planners can force more compact growth and protect the rural fringe. This concept is an integral component of a city's comprehensive development plan because it functions as the city's outer boundary, defining its physical limits and structural form. Because it is treated as a necessary, functional part of the urban system rather than an external obstacle, it effectively serves as the primary mechanism for regulating the city's outward expansion and maintaining a clear distinction between urban and rural environments.
7Economy
Assertion (A): India has experienced a phenomenal growth of Population since 1951. Reason (R): 1951 is called the demographic divide in India's demographic history.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The assertion is correct because India experienced a phase of population explosion following 1951, with the total population rising from approximately 361 million in 1951 to 846 million by 1991. This period was characterized by a sharp decline in the death rate due to better healthcare, control of epidemics, and improved food security, while the birth rate remained high. The reason is also correct as 1951 is recognized as a demographic divide in India's census history. It serves as the transition point between the period of steady growth (1921–1951) and the period of rapid high growth or population explosion (post-1951). Since 1951 marks the specific temporal boundary where the growth dynamics changed from moderate to phenomenal, the reason provides a valid explanation for the assertion.
8Economy
Assertion (A): Urbanisation follows industrialisation. Reason (R): In developing countries, urbanisation is a movement in itself.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true because, in the classical model of economic development, industrialization serves as the primary driver of urbanization. The establishment of factories and manufacturing hubs creates a concentrated demand for labor, which pulls the population from rural areas to cities in search of employment and higher wages. Reason (R) is also true as it highlights that in many developing nations, urbanization often precedes or outpaces industrial growth. This phenomenon, sometimes called pseudo-urbanization, occurs due to rural push factors like land scarcity and poverty, making the movement to cities an independent demographic shift. While both statements are factually correct, the reason focuses on the independent nature of urban growth in specific contexts, which does not explain the general causal relationship where urbanization follows industrialization.
9Polity and Governance
A, B, C, D are in ascending order, D, B, E are in descending order. Which of the following does not have either ascending or descending order?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) D, B, C
Explanation
The given conditions establish the following inequalities:
From the ascending order of A, B, C, D, it follows that A < B < C < D.
From the descending order of D, B, E, it follows that D > B > E.
To evaluate the sequence D, B, C, we examine the relations between consecutive terms. Between the first two terms D and B, the relation is D > B based on the second condition. Between the second and third terms B and C, the relation is B < C based on the first condition. Because the sequence involves a decrease (D to B) followed by an increase (B to C), it does not maintain a consistent direction. A sequence that is not consistently increasing or consistently decreasing is neither in ascending nor descending order.
10Economy
If the difference between 3/8th and 2/7th of a number is 25, then the number is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 280
Explanation
Let the required number be represented by x. According to the problem statement, the difference between three-eighths and two-sevenths of this number is equal to 25. This can be expressed as a linear algebraic equation:
3/8x - 2/7x = 25
To simplify the left side of the equation, find the common denominator for the fractions. Since 8 and 7 are coprime, their least common multiple is 8 × 7 = 56. Convert the fractions to have this common denominator:
(3 × 7)/56x - (2 × 8)/56x = 25
21/56x - 16/56x = 25
Subtract the numerators while keeping the common denominator:
5/56x = 25
To find the value of x, multiply both sides of the equation by the reciprocal of the fraction 5/56:
x = 25 × 56/5
x = 5 × 56
x = 280
11Economy
The average monthly income of a person in certain family of 5 in ₹ 1000. If the annual income of one member of that family increases by ₹ 12,000 the average monthly income per person is now:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1200
Explanation
The increase in the monthly income of the family is derived from the annual increase of one member. Since the annual income increases by ₹ 12,000, the monthly increase for that member is 12000/12 = ₹ 1,000. This amount represents the total increase in the monthly income for the entire family of 5 members. To find the change in the average monthly income per person, the total monthly increase is distributed across all members, resulting in an average increase of 1000/5 = ₹ 200. Therefore, the new average monthly income is the sum of the original average and the increase, calculated as 1000 + 200 = ₹ 1,200.
12Science and Technology
From a cube of side 10cm, how many cubes of side 2cm can be prepared?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 125
Explanation
The number of smaller cubes that can be prepared from a larger cube is calculated by dividing the volume of the larger cube by the volume of the smaller cube. The volume of a cube is given by the formula V = a³, where a represents the length of its side.
For the larger cube, the side length is 10 cm, so its volume is 10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm = 1000 cm³. For the smaller cubes, the side length is 2 cm, making the volume of each small cube 2 cm × 2 cm × 2 cm = 8 cm³. By dividing the total volume by the volume of one small cube, we get 1000 / 8 = 125.
Alternatively, this can be solved by finding the ratio of the sides. Since the side of the larger cube is 10 cm and the side of the smaller cube is 2 cm, the number of smaller cubes that fit along one edge of the larger cube is 10 / 2 = 5. Because a cube is a three-dimensional object, the total number of small cubes is the cube of this ratio, which is 5³ = 125.
13Economy
The ratio of monthly incomes of Ram and Rahim is 7:4, but the ratio of their expenditures is 5:2, If each of them saves ₹900 per month, which one of the following gives the income of Ram?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) ₹3150
Explanation
Let Ram's income = 7x and Rahim's income = 4x; their expenditures = 5y and 2y respectively. Each saves Rs. 900: equations are 7x - 5y = 900 and 4x - 2y = 900. From the second equation: y = 2x - 450. Substituting: 7x - 5(2x - 450) = 900, giving 7x - 10x + 2250 = 900, so -3x = -1350, x = 450. Ram's monthly income = 7 x 450 = Rs. 3150.
14Economy
A person decides to save ₹40 more every month. If he save ₹40 in the first month, when will his saving cross the limit of ₹2,000:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) tenth month
Explanation
The monthly savings follow an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where the first term a = 40 and the common difference d = 40. The total savings Sₙ after n months is calculated using the sum formula:
Sₙ = n/2 [2a + (n - 1)d]
Substituting the values a = 40 and d = 40 into the formula:
To determine when the savings cross the ₹2,000 limit, we solve for n in the inequality 20n(n + 1) > 2000, which simplifies to n(n + 1) > 100.
By testing the values:
For n = 9, S₉ = 20 × 9 × 10 = 1800.
For n = 10, S₁₀ = 20 × 10 × 11 = 2200.
Since the cumulative savings reach ₹2,200 at the end of the tenth month, the ₹2,000 limit is crossed during this month.
15Polity and Governance
If A is longer then C, B is shorter than D and C is longer than D, which one is the shortest of all?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) B
Explanation
The relative lengths can be determined by combining the given inequalities into a single sequence. From the statement that A is longer than C (A > C) and C is longer than D (C > D), we establish the order A > C > D. Additionally, the problem states that B is shorter than D, which can be written as D > B. By integrating this into the previous sequence, we get the complete order A > C > D > B. Comparing these values directly shows that B is the shortest among the four.
16Science and Technology
1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 26. The next number in the given series is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 37
Explanation
The series follows a pattern where each term is generated by adding consecutive odd numbers to the preceding term. Calculating the differences between consecutive terms reveals the sequence: 2 - 1 = 1, 5 - 2 = 3, 10 - 5 = 5, 17 - 10 = 7, and 26 - 17 = 9. These differences (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) are successive odd integers. To find the next number in the series, the next odd integer in the sequence, which is 11, must be added to the last term: 26 + 11 = 37. Alternatively, the series follows the general mathematical rule n² + 1 for n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. Following this logic, the next term corresponds to n = 6, resulting in 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37.
17Science and Technology
In the following number series, a wrong number is given: 3, 8, 20, 46, 100, 208, 432 The Wrong number is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 208
Explanation
The number series follows a pattern where each term is generated by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding an increasing even number, starting from 2.
Following this logic, the sixth term in the series should be 210. The given value in the series is 208, which deviates from the established pattern. The accuracy of the pattern is confirmed by the final term, as 210 × 2 + 12 equals 432. Therefore, 208 is the wrong number in the sequence.
18Science and Technology
If TEACHING is written as CHEATING in code language, what will be written for GRADIENT?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) DIRAGENT
Explanation
The coding pattern is determined by rearranging the positions of the letters in the original word. By numbering the letters in TEACHING from 1 to 8, the resulting word CHEATING follows the sequence 4, 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 7, 8. Specifically, the letters at the 4th and 5th positions (CH) are placed first, followed by the letters at the 2nd and 3rd positions (EA), then the 1st letter (T), while the letters at the 6th, 7th, and 8th positions (ING) remain in their original order. Applying this identical positional transformation to the word GRADIENT (where 1:G, 2:R, 3:A, 4:D, 5:I, 6:E, 7:N, 8:T) yields the sequence D-I-R-A-G-E-N-T, resulting in the word DIRAGENT.
19Science and Technology
The missing fraction in the series given below is: 4/9, 9/20, 39/86
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 19/42
Explanation
The series follows a recursive pattern for both the numerator and the denominator. Let the k-th fraction be Nₖ/Dₖ.
For the numerators Nₖ, the rule is Nₖ₊₁ = 2Nₖ + 1. Starting with N₁ = 4, we have N₂ = 2(4) + 1 = 9. Applying the rule to find the third term, N₃ = 2(9) + 1 = 19. To verify, N₄ = 2(19) + 1 = 39, which matches the given series.
For the denominators Dₖ, the rule is Dₖ₊₁ = 2Dₖ + 2. Starting with D₁ = 9, we have D₂ = 2(9) + 2 = 20. Applying the rule to find the third term, D₃ = 2(20) + 2 = 42. To verify, D₄ = 2(42) + 2 = 86, which also matches the given series.
Combining these results, the missing third fraction in the sequence is 19/42.
20Economy
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of their gross electricity generated:
1. Gujarat
2. Maharashtra
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Uttar Pradesh
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
Maharashtra was the leading state in electricity generation in India at the turn of the millennium, supported by a diverse energy mix including the country first nuclear power station at Tarapur and large-scale thermal projects. Gujarat followed as the second-largest producer, leveraging its strategic access to natural gas and extensive thermal capacity to support its industrial corridor. Uttar Pradesh held the third spot, utilizing its massive coal-fired thermal plants such as those in the Singrauli region to meet the high demand of its large population and agricultural sector. Tamil Nadu ranked fourth among this group, with its generation profile primarily dominated by thermal and hydel sources, as its significant wind energy potential was still in the earlier stages of large-scale integration compared to the total gross output of the top-tier thermal-heavy states.
21Geography
Which one of the following states has the largest kilometer of National Highways in India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh possessed the largest network of National Highways in India based on the records available during the year 2000. The state's geographical position as a central corridor in the Indo-Gangetic plain led to the development of a dense network of primary roads to facilitate connectivity between the national capital and the eastern regions. According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the total length of National Highways in Uttar Pradesh was approximately 3,828 kilometers as of March 31, 1999, which represented the most current data at the time of the examination. This extensive network included key segments of major highways like the Grand Trunk Road, reflecting the state's significant role in the country's internal trade and passenger transportation.
22Geography
Tulbul project is associated with the river:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jhelum
Explanation
The Tulbul project, often referred to as the Wular Barrage, is a navigation lock-cum-control structure located at the mouth of Wular Lake in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir. Wular Lake is an integral part of the Jhelum River system. The primary objective of the project is to regulate the flow of water from the lake into the river to maintain a minimum depth of water required for navigation between the towns of Sopore and Baramulla during the lean winter months. Work on the project was initiated in 1984 but became a subject of bilateral dispute under the Indus Waters Treaty.
23Geography
Which one of the following salts contributes maximum to the salinity of sea water?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Sodium chloride
Explanation
Sodium chloride (NaCl), commonly known as common salt, is the most abundant dissolved mineral in seawater. On average, it accounts for approximately 77.7 percent of the total dissolved salts found in the oceans. The high concentration of sodium and chloride ions is a result of millions of years of continental weathering, where rivers carry dissolved minerals into the sea, as well as volcanic activity on the ocean floor. Because it constitutes more than three-quarters of the total salinity, it is the primary factor determining the chemical composition and density of marine environments. In a standard sample of seawater with a salinity of 35 parts per thousand, sodium chloride alone contributes about 27.2 grams per kilogram of water.
24Geography
The most flood-prone state of India is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Assam
Explanation
Assam is considered the most chronically flood-prone state in India due to the unique geographical and hydrological features of the Brahmaputra and Barak valleys. The Brahmaputra river, one of the largest in the world, flows through a narrow valley in Assam that is only about 80 to 100 kilometers wide. The region receives exceptionally high annual rainfall, often ranging from 2500 mm to over 6000 mm, which is concentrated during the monsoon season. This heavy precipitation, combined with the steep gradients of the Himalayan tributaries, results in massive discharge and heavy siltation that raises the riverbeds. Additionally, the state lies in a highly seismic zone where frequent earthquakes and landslides further obstruct river channels and alter their courses, leading to devastating and recurring annual floods that affect a significant portion of the state's land area.
25Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement are true about Punjab? I. It is the richest state of India. II. It has the highest proportion of S.C. in its total population. III. It has reached the replacement level of population.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) I and II
Explanation
Punjab was the leading state in India regarding per capita income during the late 20th century, primarily due to the massive agricultural growth triggered by the Green Revolution. This economic standing made it the wealthiest state among the major geographical units of the country at that time. Additionally, Punjab maintained the highest proportion of Scheduled Castes relative to its total population according to the 1991 Census, with the Scheduled Caste community comprising approximately 28.3 percent of the state. This demographic density of Scheduled Castes remained the highest in India, fulfilling the criteria for the economic and social characteristics identifying Punjab in that period.
26Geography
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh - Malnad
Explanation
The Malnad region is a distinct geographical area located in the state of Karnataka, rather than Andhra Pradesh. The term is derived from the Kannada words male, meaning hill, and nadu, meaning land, together signifying a land of hills. This region covers the western slopes and eastern foothills of the Western Ghats and is characterized by high rainfall and dense evergreen forests. It primarily encompasses parts of districts such as Shivamogga, Chikkamagaluru, Hassan, and Kodagu. Andhra Pradesh is geographically defined by the Eastern Ghats, the Deccan Plateau, and its extensive coastal plains, but it does not share the specific topographically and climatically distinct Malnad tract found in the western part of the South Indian peninsula.
27Geography
Laterite soils are predominant in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Malabar Coastal Region
Explanation
Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods. This climate leads to intense leaching, where lime and silica are washed away, leaving the soil rich in oxides of iron and aluminium. The Malabar Coastal Region, situated on the windward side of the Western Ghats, experiences some of the highest rainfall in India during the monsoon season. This creates the perfect environment for the lateralization process. These soils are generally acidic and low in fertility for traditional agriculture but are highly suitable for plantation crops such as cashew, rubber, tea, and coffee when treated with fertilizers. In India, the largest stretches of laterite soil are found along the Western Ghats, specifically in the coastal stretches of Kerala and Karnataka.
28Geography
Which one of the following currents does not contribute to form a complete circle of currents in the South Atlantic Ocean?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Canaries
Explanation
The Canary Current is a cold ocean current located in the North Atlantic Ocean, where it flows southward along the western coast of North Africa from Madeira to Senegal. It forms the eastern boundary of the North Atlantic subtropical gyre, connecting the North Atlantic Drift with the North Equatorial Current. The circular current system in the South Atlantic Ocean, known as the South Atlantic Gyre, is composed of the Brazil Current, the West Wind Drift, the Benguela Current, and the South Equatorial Current. Since the Canary Current is situated entirely within the Northern Hemisphere, it does not participate in the South Atlantic circulation.
29Geography
Which one of the following longitudes along with the Prime Meridian forms a great circle on the globe?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 180°
Explanation
A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on a sphere, created by a plane passing through the center of the Earth. Every meridian (longitude) is a semi-circle, and it requires its opposite meridian to complete a full great circle. The Prime Meridian is designated as 0° longitude. To form a continuous circle that passes through both poles and the center of the Earth, it must be paired with the meridian exactly 180° away on the opposite side of the globe. Therefore, the 0° and 180° longitudes together form a great circle that divides the Earth into the Eastern and Western Hemispheres.
30Economy
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. China is the largest producer of Tobacco in the world
2. India is the largest producer of Jawar in the world
3. Brazil is the largest producer of Soyabean in the world
4. Italy is the largest producer of raw silk in the world
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
China has been the world's leading producer of tobacco since the 1980s, producing significantly more than any other nation due to its vast cultivation area and high domestic consumption. By the year 2000, it accounted for approximately one-third of global tobacco output. India was recognized as the largest producer of Jowar (Sorghum) in the world during this period, especially when considering the scale of land dedicated to the crop. As a critical drought-resistant cereal for India's semi-arid regions, the country's production levels remained among the highest globally throughout the late 20th century.
31Geography
Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Suez Canal
Explanation
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez. It is considered the biggest shipping canal in the world due to its immense length of approximately 193 kilometers and its vital role in global trade. By providing a direct route between the North Atlantic and northern Indian Oceans, it avoids the lengthy circumnavigation of the African continent. This significantly reduces travel distance and time for vessels moving between Europe and Asia, making it the most heavily used shipping lane for international maritime commerce. The absence of locks allows for a continuous flow of traffic, accommodating a high volume of global shipping tonnage.
32Geography
Captain of a ship moving westward record the local time of 10-00 hrs Monday at 90°W. If the speed of the ship is the same as the speed of the rotation of the earth, which of the following local Time and day would be formed by the captain at International date line?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 10-00 Monday
Explanation
The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, resulting in an angular rotation speed of 15° per hour (360/24). The ship is moving westward from 90°W to the International Date Line (180°), covering a longitude difference of 90° (180° - 90°). At a speed equal to the Earth's rotation (15° per hour), the travel time is:
Travel Time = 90° / (15°/hour) = 6 hours
While the ship travels for 6 hours, the local time at the starting point (90°W) advances from 10:00 Monday to 16:00 Monday. The International Date Line is 90° west of the starting point, meaning its local time is 6 hours behind the time at 90°W.
Local Time at IDL = 16:00 Monday - 6 hours = 10:00 Monday
Alternatively, because the ship moves westward at the same speed as the Sun's apparent motion, the Sun's position in the sky remains constant for the captain. Consequently, the local time remains 10:00 throughout the journey. Since the captain is at the date line and has not crossed into the Eastern Hemisphere, the day remains Monday.
33Economy
Match
List-I (Leading producer Country):
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Thailand
List-II (Commodity):
1. Natural Rubber
2. Milk
3. Iron-Ore
4. Petroleum
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 3, 2, 4
Explanation
China is the leading producer of Iron-Ore (3) to support its massive domestic steel manufacturing sector. India is the world's top producer of Milk (2), having overtaken the USA in 1998 due to the achievements of the White Revolution. Saudi Arabia is the primary producer of Petroleum (4), acting as a leading global exporter with the world's largest crude oil reserves at that time. Thailand is the foremost producer of Natural Rubber (1), consistently leading global production and exports since the 1990s.
34Geography
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. The northern end of the earth's axis is callect North Pole.
2. 45^ degrees parallel is half of the length of the equator.
3. There is parallelism of the earth's axis.
4. The earth's speed of revolution is faster in aphelion position.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Earth rotates around an imaginary line known as its axis, which passes through its center. The two points where this axis meets the Earth surface are defined as the geographic poles, with the northernmost point being the North Pole. Furthermore, the Earth exhibits axial parallelism, which means that as it revolves around the Sun, its axis remains tilted at a constant angle of approximately 23.5° relative to a line perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic. Throughout this revolution, the axis consistently points toward the same direction in space, specifically toward the North Star, Polaris. This ensures that the Earth axis at any given point in its orbit is parallel to the axis at every other point in the orbit.
35Geography
Match
List-I (Country):
(A) Australia
(B) Denmark
(C) France
(D) Spain
List-II (Dependent Territory):
1. Martinique
2. Santa Cruz
3. Greenland
4. Christmas Island
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 4, 3, 2
Explanation
Australia matches with Christmas Island, which is an external territory of Australia situated in the Indian Ocean. Denmark matches with Greenland, as it is an autonomous territory that remains part of the Kingdom of Denmark. France matches with Martinique, which serves as an overseas department and region of France in the Caribbean. Spain matches with Santa Cruz, specifically Santa Cruz de Tenerife, which is a major city and capital within the Spanish Canary Islands.
36Science and Technology
Which one of the following may have alien life because of a very conducive environment to life?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Europa-The Jupiter's Moon
Explanation
Europa, one of Jupiter's Galilean moons, is considered a primary candidate for extraterrestrial life due to evidence gathered by the Galileo spacecraft in the late 1990s. Detailed imagery of its surface reveals a relatively young, smooth, and heavily fractured ice shell, indicating geological activity. This, combined with magnetic field measurements, points to the existence of a global subsurface ocean of liquid water. Tidal heating, generated by the gravitational interaction between Europa, Jupiter, and other moons, provides the thermal energy necessary to keep the water from freezing solid. The presence of liquid water, chemical nutrients, and a source of energy creates a habitat that scientists believe could support alien life.
37Polity and Governance
The recent Central Government Notification of the rules for the manufacture and use of virgin or recycled plastic carry bags or containers was made in exercise of power of conferred under:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation
The Central Government notified the Recycled Plastics Manufacture and Usage Rules, 1999, in exercise of the powers conferred by Sections 3, 6, and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This landmark Act serves as an umbrella legislation that empowers the Ministry of Environment and Forests to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities, as well as to issue notifications and regulations for the prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution. The 1999 rules specifically aimed to regulate the thickness of carry bags, setting a minimum limit of 20 microns at the time, and prohibited the use of recycled plastics for packaging food items to ensure public health and environmental safety. Through this delegated legislation, the government established a legal framework for the manufacture and use of virgin and recycled plastic containers within the broader mandate of environmental conservation.
38Science and Technology
At which temperature super conductivity can be of tremendous economic interest saving billions of rupees?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) At room temperature
Explanation
Superconductivity is a physical property where a material exhibits zero electrical resistance and the expulsion of magnetic fields. In typical conductors, a significant portion of electrical energy is lost as heat due to resistance during transmission. While superconductivity is a known phenomenon, it traditionally occurs only at cryogenic temperatures near absolute zero, requiring expensive cooling systems using liquid helium or liquid nitrogen. Achieving superconductivity at room temperature would eliminate the need for these costly cooling infrastructures. This would allow for the development of lossless power grids, ultra-efficient electric motors, and affordable maglev transportation. The ability to transmit electricity across continents without any energy loss would save billions of rupees in energy production and infrastructure maintenance, making it a discovery of immense economic significance.
39Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not achieved by transgenics?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Production of cloned animals
Explanation
Production of cloned animals is achieved through Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT), a process where the nucleus of a somatic cell is transferred into an enucleated egg cell to create a genetically identical copy of the donor organism. Transgenics, by contrast, involves the use of recombinant DNA technology to insert specific foreign DNA sequences into an organism's genome to confer new traits or properties. While these two technologies can be combined to create a transgenic clone, cloning itself is a reproductive technique focused on the replication of an existing nuclear genome rather than the modification or addition of specific genes that defines the transgenic process.
40Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Golden rice is biotechnological achievement to the benefit of consumers as much as the farmers. Reason (R): The yellow colour of this rice reflects high level of betacarotene, a compound that is converted to vitamin A is the body.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice developed to biosynthesize beta-carotene, which is a precursor of vitamin A. This achievement is considered a landmark in biotechnology because it was one of the first crops engineered for biofortification, specifically targeting public health issues like Vitamin A deficiency. The incorporation of three specific genes into the rice endosperm allows the plant to produce carotenoids, which give the grains a distinct yellow-golden color. When ingested, beta-carotene is converted by the human body into retinol, or Vitamin A, which is crucial for maintaining eyesight and immune system health. This development was intended to provide a direct nutritional benefit to consumers in regions where rice is a staple food, while also being integrated into standard agricultural practices, thus benefiting both the farmers who grow it and the populations that consume it.
41Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Some bacteria can synthesis their own food. Reason (R): These bacteria have green matter called chloroplasts.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation
Autotrophic bacteria are capable of synthesizing their own food using energy from sunlight or chemical reactions. Photoautotrophic bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, use solar energy to produce organic compounds, while chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain energy through the oxidation of inorganic substances like hydrogen sulfide or ammonia. Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, which are defined by the absence of membrane-bound organelles. Consequently, they do not contain chloroplasts, which are complex organelles found only in eukaryotic plant and algal cells. In photosynthetic bacteria, the necessary pigments for capturing light energy are instead embedded within the plasma membrane or in specialized internal membrane structures called thylakoids. Since the ability to synthesize food exists in certain bacteria but is not mediated by chloroplasts, the assertion is accurate while the reason is scientifically incorrect.
42Economy
A train is going at a speed of 50 km per hour. If it is 100 metre long, it will cross a 150 metre long railway platform in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 18 seconds
Explanation
To calculate the time taken by a train to cross a platform, the total distance to be covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the platform. Using the formula Distance = Speed × Time:
Total Distance D = 100 m + 150 m = 250 m
The speed of the train is given in km/hr, which must be converted to m/s by multiplying by 5/18:
The first sunrise of the millennium - 2000 was observed in India at:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Katchal
Explanation
Katchal is a small island in the Nicobar group within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Scientific calculations provided by the Royal Greenwich Observatory and other astronomical bodies determined that Katchal would be the first place in India to witness the first sunrise of the year 2000. This determination was based on the island's specific geographic coordinates and the tilt of the Earth's axis during the winter season. Although parts of Northeast India are further east in terms of longitude, the southern latitude of Katchal during the winter solstice period caused it to intersect the sunrise line earlier than mainland locations, making it a focal point for millennium celebrations in India.
44Science and Technology
The drug obtained from the bark of cinchona, was used for treating malaria. The synthetic drug which replaced the natural product is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Chloroquine
Explanation
Chloroquine is a synthetic 4-aminoquinoline derivative that largely replaced quinine, the natural alkaloid obtained from Cinchona bark, as the primary treatment for malaria. Developed in the 1930s and widely used from the 1940s onwards, chloroquine offered a more effective and less toxic alternative for the clinical management of malaria. It works by inhibiting the biocrystallization of hemozoin in the malaria parasite, causing toxic heme to accumulate and kill the organism. Until the widespread emergence of resistance, it remained the most common antimalarial drug worldwide.
45Economy
Three communicable diseases prevalent in developing countries caused by unsafe drinking water and bad sanitation are:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) malaria, acute diarrhoea and schistosomiasis
Explanation
Acute diarrhoea, malaria, and schistosomiasis are major public health challenges in developing nations that are intrinsically linked to the water environment and poor hygiene. Acute diarrhoea is a water-borne disease primarily transmitted through the ingestion of water contaminated by pathogens from human or animal feces. Malaria is categorized as a water-related insect vector disease because the Anopheles mosquito requires stagnant water to breed; such breeding sites are frequently created by poor drainage systems and inadequate sanitation infrastructure. Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a water-based parasitic disease caused by trematode worms. It spreads when people come into contact with freshwater contaminated by larval forms released from snails. This contamination occurs when human excreta containing parasite eggs reach water bodies due to the absence of proper latrines and sanitation facilities.
46Science and Technology
When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood, the rate of breathing:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) increases
Explanation
The regulation of respiration is primarily governed by the respiratory center in the medulla oblongata. While the central chemoreceptors are highly sensitive to changes in CO₂ and hydrogen ion concentration, peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid and aortic bodies specifically monitor the partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood. When the concentration of oxygen decreases, these peripheral chemoreceptors detect the change and transmit nerve impulses to the respiratory center. This stimulation triggers a compensatory increase in the rate and depth of ventilation to facilitate greater oxygen intake and maintain homeostasis within the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
47Science and Technology
Which of the following would be the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Quantum computer
Explanation
Quantum computers leverage the principles of quantum mechanics, such as superposition and entanglement, to perform calculations. While classical computers use bits that are either 0 or 1, quantum computers use qubits which can exist in multiple states simultaneously. This allows for massive parallel processing that mimics the complex, non-linear way the human brain processes information. By utilizing individual atoms, ions, or photons as processing units, quantum computers represent the ultimate limit of miniaturization and speed, offering the potential to solve specific problems exponentially faster than any silicon-based supercomputer. In the context of computational evolution, they were identified as the most likely successors to traditional architecture for imitating neural efficiency at an atomic scale.
48Science and Technology
These days yellow lamps are frequently used as street light. Which one of the following is used in these lamps?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sodium
Explanation
Sodium lamps, particularly low-pressure sodium vapor lamps, are commonly used in street lighting because they emit a characteristic monochromatic yellow light. This light is produced by an electric discharge through ionized sodium vapor, which primarily radiates at the sodium D-line wavelengths of approximately 589.0 nm and 589.6 nm. These wavelengths are near the peak sensitivity of the human eye, making the lamps highly energy-efficient for outdoor illumination. Furthermore, yellow light has a longer wavelength compared to blue or white light, which allows it to penetrate fog, mist, and dust more effectively, ensuring better visibility and safety on roads during poor weather conditions.
49Science and Technology
The age of tree, in years, can be ascertained by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) the number of its annular rings
Explanation
The age of a tree is determined through the science of dendrochronology, which involves counting the number of annual or annular rings present in a cross-section of the trunk. These rings are formed by the activity of the vascular cambium, a layer of meristematic tissue. In many climates, particularly in temperate regions, trees produce one distinct growth ring each year. A single annual ring typically consists of a layer of earlywood, which is light-colored and formed during the rapid growth of spring, followed by a layer of latewood, which is darker and denser, formed during the slower growth of summer and autumn. By counting these individual rings from the center pith to the outer bark, the age of the tree in years can be accurately estimated.
50Science and Technology
The atomic power plant which became active recently, is located at:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Kaiga
Explanation
The Kaiga Atomic Power Station is located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka on the banks of the Kali River. Unit 2 of this facility achieved its first criticality on September 30, 1999, and commenced commercial operations on March 16, 2000. Unit 1 followed shortly after, achieving criticality in late 2000. These units utilize indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology, each with a generating capacity of 220 MWe. Given the timeline of the 2000 examination, the commissioning and synchronization of the Kaiga units represented the most recent addition to India's nuclear power grid.
51Science and Technology
The newly discovered high temperature superconductors are?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) ceramic oxides
Explanation
High-temperature superconductors (HTS), first discovered in 1986 by Johannes Georg Bednorz and Karl Alexander Müller, are primarily ceramic oxides based on layers of copper and oxygen, often referred to as cuprates. Unlike conventional superconductors that are typically metallic and function only near absolute zero, these ceramic materials exhibit superconductivity at much higher temperatures, including those above the boiling point of liquid nitrogen (77 K). A well-known example is Yttrium Barium Copper Oxide (YBa₂Cu₃O₇), which possesses a complex perovskite-related crystalline structure. These materials are characterized by their brittle, non-metallic physical properties and the role of charge carriers moving within their copper-oxide planes.
52Science and Technology
On which planet was the space craft 'Magellan' sent?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Venus
Explanation
The Magellan spacecraft, also known as the Venus Radar Mapper, was launched by NASA on May 4, 1989, specifically to study the surface of Venus. Since Venus is covered by a dense and opaque atmosphere, the probe utilized synthetic aperture radar to penetrate the clouds and image the planetary surface in high resolution. Entering orbit in August 1990, the mission mapped approximately 98 percent of the Venusian surface, providing the first clear and detailed global view of the planet's topography, including its vast volcanic plains, mountain ranges, and impact craters. The mission concluded in October 1994 when the spacecraft was intentionally crashed into the planet to gather final data on atmospheric density.
53Science and Technology
Stars obtain their energy from:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Stars primarily derive their energy through nuclear fusion and gravitational contraction. In the stellar core, nuclear fusion occurs when light atomic nuclei, typically hydrogen, fuse to form heavier nuclei like helium under extreme thermal conditions. This process releases vast amounts of energy as mass is converted into energy according to the formula E = Δm c², where Δm represents the mass defect and c is the speed of light. Gravitational contraction, also referred to as the Kelvin-Helmholtz mechanism, is another significant energy source. It involves the conversion of gravitational potential energy into thermal energy as the star contracts under its own gravity. This mechanism is the primary source of energy during the formation of a protostar and remains active during various evolutionary phases when the core contracts to reach the threshold temperatures required to initiate the fusion of heavier elements.
54Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Molecule):
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Chlorophyll
(D) Brass
List-II (Element present):
1. Magnesium
2. Cobalt
3. Copper
4. Iron
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Vitamin B12, also known as cyanocobalamin, is a coordination compound that contains a cobalt atom at the center of a corrin ring. Haemoglobin is the oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells that contains iron atoms within its heme groups. Chlorophyll is the primary pigment for photosynthesis in plants and contains a magnesium atom coordinated at the center of a chlorin ring. Brass is a common substitution alloy consisting primarily of copper and zinc. These pairings match the sequence 2, 4, 1, and 3 for the respective molecules.
55Science and Technology
What is the source of electric energy in an artificial satellite?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Solar cells
Explanation
Artificial satellites primarily utilize solar cells, also known as photovoltaic cells, to generate the electrical power required for their instruments, communication systems, and internal electronics. These cells are typically made of semiconductor materials like silicon or gallium arsenide that convert sunlight directly into electricity through the photoelectric effect. This method is the most practical for long-duration space missions because solar radiation is an inexhaustible and readily available resource in the vacuum of space, where there is no atmospheric interference. The energy generated by the solar panels is also used to charge on-board rechargeable batteries, ensuring that the satellite continues to function during the eclipse phase of its orbit when it passes through the Earth's shadow.
56History
First Buddhist Conference after the death of Buddha was presided over by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Mahakashyapa
Explanation
The First Buddhist Council was held in Rajgriha at the Sattapanni Cave in 483 BCE, immediately following the Mahaparinirvana of the Buddha. Mahakashyapa, a senior and highly respected disciple of the Buddha, was chosen to preside over the assembly. His leadership was crucial in organizing the five hundred Arhats who gathered to codify the Buddha's teachings into the Sutta Pitaka and the Vinaya Pitaka to ensure their preservation for future generations. While the council was held under the royal patronage of King Ajatashatru of the Haryanka dynasty, the spiritual and administrative authority of the proceedings was exercised by Mahakashyapa in his capacity as the president of the council.
57History
The first census of India during the British period was held during the tenure of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Lord Mayo
Explanation
The first census of India was conducted in 1872 during the tenure of Lord Mayo, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1869 to 1872. This census was a non-synchronous exercise, meaning it was not carried out simultaneously across the entire country, but it represented the first systematic attempt by the British administration to collect comprehensive demographic data. Lord Mayo initiated this process to improve administrative efficiency and to gain a better understanding of the population for the purposes of governance, taxation, and planning. This landmark event established the framework for modern statistical collection in India, paving the way for the subsequent tradition of decennial censuses.
58HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following places was known as the 'Shiraz of the East' during the reign of the Sharki Sultans?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jaunpur
Explanation
Jaunpur was established by Firoz Shah Tughlaq in 1359 and later became the capital of the independent Sharqi dynasty. Under the patronage of the Sharqi rulers, particularly Sultan Ibrahim Shah Sharqi, the city developed into a premier seat of Islamic learning, art, and culture in medieval India. It attracted numerous scholars, poets, and architects, leading to a significant flourishing of education and the development of the distinct Sharqi style of architecture. Because of this intellectual and cultural prominence, Jaunpur earned the title Shiraz-i-Hind or Shiraz of the East, drawing a comparison to the famous Iranian city of Shiraz which was then the global benchmark for literary and artistic excellence.
59History
'Depressed Classes League' was established by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Babu Jagjiwan Ram
Explanation
Babu Jagjivan Ram established the All India Depressed Classes League in 1935. As a prominent leader of the Dalit community, he founded this organization to advocate for the socio-political rights of the depressed classes and to work toward the eradication of untouchability. The League served as a platform to mobilize the Scheduled Castes and ensure their representation in the political process, specifically aligning their interests with the broader Indian national movement. Jagjivan Ram served as the president of the league, using the platform to demand social equality and better living conditions for the marginalized sections of society during the pre-independence era.
60History
Sir Thomas Munro is associated with the land revenue settlement:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Ryotwari Settlement
Explanation
Sir Thomas Munro, along with Captain Alexander Read, was the primary architect of the Ryotwari Settlement. Initially trialed in the Baramahal region in 1792, the system was formally implemented across the Madras Presidency during Munro's governorship from 1820 to 1827. Under this arrangement, the British government established a direct relationship with the ryots or individual cultivators, bypassing intermediaries. The cultivators were granted ownership rights of the land as long as they paid the government revenue directly. The assessment was based on the quality of the soil and the nature of the crop, with revenue rates being periodically revised rather than fixed permanently.
61History
Who among the following continued the Rajtarangini of Kalhana?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Jonaraja and Srivara
Explanation
Kalhana's original Rajatarangini, written in the 12th century, concludes its historical account of Kashmir with the reign of King Jayasimha. In the 15th century, the work was continued by the scholar Jonaraja under the patronage of Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin. Jonaraja authored the Dvitiya Rajatarangini, which extended the chronicle to cover the early Sultanate period in Kashmir. Following Jonaraja's death, his pupil Srivara further continued the history in the Jaina-Rajatarangini, also known as the Tritiya Rajatarangini, documenting the events of the region through the remainder of Zain-ul-Abidin's reign and those of his immediate successors until 1486. These two historians are the primary figures recognized for providing the successive continuations of Kalhana's seminal work.
62History
The lady poet who described the victorious expeditions of her husband in her work 'MadhuraVijaya' was:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Gangadevi
Explanation
Gangadevi, the queen of Kumara Kampana and daughter-in-law of the Vijayanagara king Bukka Raya I, authored the Sanskrit epic Madhura Vijayam, also known as Vira Kamparaya Charitham. The poem provides a detailed historical account of her husband's military expeditions and his successful conquest of the Madurai Sultanate in the 14th century. By defeating the Sultan of Madurai, Kumara Kampana brought the Tamil region under the Vijayanagara Empire and restored the religious sanctity of the temples in the south, most notably the Srirangam temple. Gangadevi's work is valued as a rare contemporary historical record written by a female poet of that era.
63History
Who among the following issued silver coins with Sanskrit legend on one side?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Mahmud of Ghazni
Explanation
Mahmud of Ghazni issued silver dirhams that featured a bilingual legend to facilitate administration in his Indian territories. The obverse of these coins contained the standard Arabic script with the Islamic Kalima, while the reverse featured a Sanskrit translation written in the Sharada script. The Sanskrit inscription typically read Avyaktameka Muhammad Avatara Nripati Mahmuda, which translates to The Unmanifest is one, Muhammad is the incarnation, King Mahmud. These coins were minted at Lahore, referred to on the coins as Mahmudpur, around 1028 AD. This numismatic choice was a strategic move to ensure the currency was recognizable and acceptable to the local population in the newly annexed regions of the Punjab.
64History
Which one of the following emperors had the highest number of Hindu Generals in the Mughal army?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Aurangzeb
Explanation
Aurangzeb's reign saw the highest representation of Hindu nobles and generals within the Mughal military and administrative structure. Detailed historical analysis of the Mughal nobility, specifically by scholars like M. Athar Ali, indicates that the proportion of Hindu mansabdars holding the rank of 1000 and above reached approximately 31.6 percent during Aurangzeb's rule. This was significantly higher than the roughly 22 percent maintained during the eras of Akbar and Shah Jahan. This increase was primarily driven by the expansion of the empire into the Deccan, which necessitated the large-scale induction of Maratha and other regional Hindu chieftains into the imperial hierarchy to manage the newly annexed territories and provide military support for the prolonged campaigns in Southern India. Therefore, despite his personal religious outlook, Aurangzeb relied on a larger absolute number and percentage of Hindu military commanders than any of his predecessors.
65History
Which one of the following historian's has said that 'Din I- Ilahi was a religion'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Abdul Qudir Badaoni
Explanation
Abdul Qadir Badaoni, the author of Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh, was a contemporary historian and an orthodox critic of Akbar's religious policies. While Abul Fazl described Akbar's spiritual path as Tauhid-i-Ilahi or Divine Monotheism, viewing it as a system of discipleship, Badaoni interpreted it as a new religion intended to replace Islam. In his writings, Badaoni accused Akbar of apostasy and meticulously documented the various rituals and regulations of the Din-i-Ilahi to argue that the Emperor had strayed from traditional Islamic tenets to found a syncretic faith. His critical perspective provided the basis for the historical interpretation of Din-i-Ilahi as a formal religion rather than just a spiritual order.
66History
For the first time the Department of public Works was established by?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Explanation
Firoz Shah Tughlaq is recognized as one of the most prolific builders among the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate. He established a formal department for public works to manage and execute large-scale infrastructure projects across his empire. His reign was characterized by the construction of over 300 cities, including prominent ones like Firozabad, Fatehabad, Jaunpur, and Hissar. Beyond urban planning, he focused heavily on public utility and agricultural enhancement, commissioning an extensive network of canals for irrigation, most notably the canal connecting the Yamuna and the Sutlej. He also built numerous mosques, bridges, rest houses (sarais), and specialized hospitals known as Dar-ul-Shifa, effectively institutionalizing the role of the state in public welfare and civil engineering.
67History
Persian Weekly 'Miratul Akhbar' was Published by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Explanation
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, widely regarded as the Father of the Indian Renaissance, founded the Persian weekly Mirat-ul-Akhbar (Mirror of News) in 1822 in Calcutta. This was the first Persian language journal published in India and served as a platform for Roy to propagate his reformist ideas, social critiques, and political opinions. He utilized the publication to address a variety of international and national issues, reflecting his deep interest in global affairs. In 1823, Roy ceased the publication of Mirat-ul-Akhbar as a mark of protest against the repressive Licensing Regulations, also known as the Adam’s Press Ordinance, which severely restricted the freedom of the press in colonial India.
68HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who had led a deputation of Banaras Pandits before the Mughal emperor to seek the abolition of pilgrim tax on Banaras and Allahabad?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Kavindracharya
Explanation
Kavindracharya Saraswati was a prominent Sanskrit scholar and the leader of the Brahmin community in Banaras during the 17th century. During the reign of Shah Jahan, the Mughal administration imposed a pilgrim tax on Hindus visiting the holy sites of Banaras and Allahabad. Kavindracharya led a delegation of learned Pandits to the Mughal court in Agra to plead for the removal of this financial burden on pilgrims. His eloquence and mastery over the shastras deeply impressed Shah Jahan, who subsequently issued an order to abolish the pilgrim tax for these two cities. For his successful advocacy and immense learning, he was honored with the title of Kavindracharya and Sarvavidyanidhana.
69History
The Upanishads were translated into Persian by Dara Shikoh under the title:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Sirr-i-Akbar
Explanation
Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan, was a profound scholar of both Islamic Sufism and Hindu Vedanta who sought to establish a common spiritual ground between the two traditions. In 1657, he completed the translation of fifty Upanishads from Sanskrit into Persian with the assistance of several learned pundits from Benares. He titled this monumental work Sirr-i-Akbar, meaning The Greatest Secret or The Great Mystery. Dara Shikoh believed that the Upanishads represented the hidden book (Kitab al-Maknun) mentioned in the Quran and that they contained the fundamental truths of monotheism. This Persian version later served as the primary source for the first European translations of the Upanishads, significantly influencing Western philosophy.
70Polity and Governance
The Civil Marriage Act of 1872 had sought to curb the practice of Child marriage by placing the minimum age of girls at:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 14 years
Explanation
The Civil Marriage Act of 1872, also known as the Native Marriage Act, was enacted during the governor-generalship of Lord Northbrook. The legislation was largely the result of the advocacy of Keshab Chandra Sen and the Brahmo Samaj, who sought to reform traditional marriage practices and provide a legal basis for inter-caste and inter-religious marriages. One of the primary social objectives of the Act was to curb the practice of child marriage. To achieve this, the Act explicitly prohibited polygamy and established the minimum legal age for marriage at 14 years for girls and 18 years for boys for those choosing to marry under its provisions. This marked one of the first legislative attempts in colonial India to set a specific age floor for marriage.
71History
Which of the following occurred last?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Partition of Bengal
Explanation
The Partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905 and came into effect on 16 October 1905. This event occurred much later than the other administrative and political policies mentioned. The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 to fix land revenue in Bengal. The Subsidiary Alliance system was extensively used by Lord Wellesley between 1798 and 1805 to bring Indian states under British control. The Annexation Policy, most notably the Doctrine of Lapse, was vigorously implemented by Lord Dalhousie during his tenure from 1848 to 1856. Chronologically, the 1905 partition is the final event in this sequence.
72Art and Culture
Teratali is the folk dance of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Rajasthan
Explanation
Teratali is a ritualistic folk dance performed by the women of the Kamada tribe in Rajasthan. The name of the dance is derived from the thirteen cymbals, known as manjiras, which the performers tie to various parts of their bodies, including their legs, wrists, and elbows. During the performance, the dancers remain in a seated position and strike these cymbals in a rhythmic fashion with a cymbal held in each hand, creating complex and synchronized patterns while often balancing a pot on their head or holding a sword in their mouth. This dance is primarily performed as a devotional act in honor of the local folk deity Baba Ramdevji. Male members of the community typically provide the musical accompaniment using instruments like the ektara and manjira while singing bhajans.
73Art and Culture
'Karagam', a religious folk dance is Associated with:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu
Explanation
Karagam is a traditional folk dance that originated in Tamil Nadu. It is performed primarily to praise Mariamman, the Hindu goddess of rain and manifestations of Mother Nature. The dance is characterized by performers balancing a decorated pot, known as a Karagam, on their heads while performing intricate movements and acrobatic feats. There are two distinct forms of this dance: Sakthi Karagam, which is performed strictly within temple premises for religious purposes, and Atta Karagam, which is performed for public entertainment. The dancers often use props like a manual parrot made of paper or wood fixed on top of the pot to enhance the visual appeal while demonstrating exceptional balance and coordination.
74History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I (Kings):
(A) Pradyota
(B) Udayan
(C) Prasenjit
(D) Ajatashatru
List-II (Kingdoms):
1. Magadha
2. Vatsa
3. Avanti
4. Kosala
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
Pradyota was the ruler of the Avanti kingdom, one of the most powerful states in North India during the time of the Buddha. Udayan was the king of Vatsa, based in Kaushambi, and is a famous figure in ancient Indian literature. Prasenjit was the monarch of the Kosala kingdom and was a contemporary and patron of Gautama Buddha. Ajatashatru belonged to the Haryanka dynasty and was the king of Magadha, known for his role in the expansion of the Magadhan empire.
75Art and Culture
Which Indian born film producer has won the Golden Camera Award in 1999 Cannes Film Festival:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Murali Nayar
Explanation
Murali Nayar won the prestigious Caméra d'Or (Golden Camera) award at the 1999 Cannes Film Festival for his debut feature film titled Marana Simhasanam (Throne of Death). The film is a Malayalam-language political satire that critiques the socio-political climate of Kerala through the story of a poor laborer caught in a web of technological and political exploitation. The Golden Camera award is specifically reserved for the best first-time director across the various sections of the festival, including the official selection and the Directors Fortnight. Nayar's achievement marked a significant milestone for Indian independent cinema on the global stage, as he was the first Indian filmmaker to receive this specific honor for a debut work.
76Art and Culture
Dada Saheb Phalke Award 1999 has been given to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) B.R. Chopra
Explanation
B.R. Chopra was conferred with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1999 for his monumental contribution to Indian cinema. As a legendary filmmaker and producer, he founded B.R. Films and was instrumental in producing cinema that combined commercial success with meaningful social messages. His repertoire includes cinematic landmarks such as Naya Daur, Kanoon, and Waqt, along with the landmark television series Mahabharat. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is presented annually by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to cinema, and Chopra was selected as the 46th recipient of this honor for the year 1998, with the announcement and presentation occurring in 1999.
77Art and Culture
Musical instrument sitar is the combination of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Veena and Tambura
Explanation
The Sitar is a versatile stringed instrument that emerged as a fusion of the Indian Veena and the Persian Tanbur, which is linguistically and structurally linked to the Tambura. Developed during the medieval period, the Sitar integrated the deep, resonant qualities and the fretwork of the indigenous Veena with the long-necked, plucked design of the Persian lute family. This synthesis is traditionally attributed to the 13th-century Sufi musician Amir Khusrau, who is said to have modified the Tritantri Veena or adapted the Persian Sehtar to align with Indian musical scales. By combining the structural elements of the Veena and the Tambura, the Sitar became capable of producing the complex glides and rhythmic patterns essential to Hindustani classical music.
78Art and Culture
Which one of the following tombs is called the 'Second Taj Mahal'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Tomb of Rabia-ud-daurani
Explanation
The Tomb of Rabia-ud-Daurani, commonly known as the Bibi Ka Maqbara, is situated in Aurangabad, Maharashtra. It was commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb in 1660 to commemorate his first wife, Dilras Banu Begum, who was posthumously known as Rabia-ud-Daurani. The structure is famously referred to as the Second Taj Mahal or the Taj of the Deccan because its design was directly inspired by the original Taj Mahal in Agra. It features a similar architectural layout, including a central bulbous dome, four prominent minarets at the corners, and a formal charbagh garden, though it utilizes a combination of marble and polished plaster.
79History
'The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions, while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.' Who made this statement?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Curzon
Explanation
Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, was a staunch imperialist who viewed the Indian National Congress as an ineffective and dying body. He made this specific statement in a letter to the Secretary of State, Lord George Hamilton, in November 1900. Curzon believed that the Congress represented only a small elite and lacked genuine support among the Indian masses. Throughout his tenure, he adopted a policy of ignoring and undermining the organization, hoping that by denying it official recognition or concessions, he could facilitate its eventual disappearance from the political landscape. This stance was a central feature of his administrative philosophy, which focused on strengthening British bureaucratic control while curbing nationalist aspirations.
80History
Mahatma Gandhi left Bombay for London to participate in the Second Round Table Conference as a Congress representative in the ship known as:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) S.S. Rajputana
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi sailed from Bombay on August 29, 1931, to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress. This participation was a direct result of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed earlier that year, which led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The vessel he traveled on was the S.S. Rajputana, a British Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Company liner. He was accompanied on this journey by several associates, including Mahadev Desai, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Devdas Gandhi, and Sarojini Naidu.
81History
Who has moved a resolution for the creation of Pakistan in the Muslim League Session of 1940?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) M.A. Jinnah
Explanation
PROPOSED: D
Choudhury Khaliquzzaman seconded the Lahore Resolution, which is popularly known as the Pakistan Resolution, during the 27th annual session of the All-India Muslim League held in March 1940. While the resolution was formally moved by A.K. Fazlul Huq, the Premier of Bengal, Khaliquzzaman was the principal leader who seconded the motion, representing the Muslim interests from the United Provinces. The resolution was drafted by the Working Committee of the Muslim League and was formally adopted on March 24, 1940, calling for the creation of independent states in the Muslim-majority areas of the northwestern and eastern zones of British India. Khaliquzzaman's seconding of the resolution was a pivotal moment in the session presided over by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
82History
An anti British outfit 'Abhinava bharat' was founded by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) V.D. Savarkar
Explanation
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar founded the Abhinav Bharat Society, a secret revolutionary organization, in 1904 alongside his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar. The outfit originated from the Mitra Mela, a group established in Nasik in 1899 with the objective of achieving Indian independence. Inspired by Giuseppe Mazzini's Young Italy, Abhinav Bharat was organized as a network of secret societies that advocated for armed rebellion against British colonial rule. The organization played a significant role in the revolutionary movement in Maharashtra and established links with Indian revolutionaries abroad, focusing on the procurement of weapons and the spread of nationalist ideology until it was suppressed by the British authorities following the Nasik Conspiracy Case.
83History
Who of the following attacked Dr. B.R. Ambedkar by saying: 'Ambedkar has had his leadership thrust upon him by a benign British Government because his services were necessary to embarrass the Nationalist leaders.'
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation
Subhash Chandra Bose made this critical observation in his book The Indian Struggle 1920-1942. Bose argued that the British government intentionally promoted and supported Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to serve as a counter-weight to the Indian National Congress and the mainstream nationalist movement. From Bose perspective, the colonial authorities utilized Ambedkar leadership to highlight internal divisions within Indian society, specifically concerning the caste system and the Depressed Classes, thereby undermining the Congress claim to represent all Indians and complicating the path toward independence.
84History
Who of the following represented the Indian Christians in the First Round Table Conference held at London?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) K.T. Paul
Explanation
K.T. Paul, also known as Kanakarayan Tiruselvam Paul, was a prominent leader of the Indian Christian community and the first Indian National General Secretary of the YMCA in India. He was chosen to represent the Indian Christians at the First Round Table Conference held in London in 1930. As a nationalist leader, he advocated for the rights of the Christian minority within the framework of a united India. During the deliberations, he notably favored joint electorates with reserved seats over separate communal electorates, emphasizing that the Christian community should play a constructive role in the national movement and the future democratic structure of the country.
85History
Which one of the following was the author of 'Gulamgiri'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule
Explanation
Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri, which translates to Slavery, in 1873. The book is written in the form of a dialogue and serves as a scathing critique of the caste system and the social hierarchies prevalent in 19th-century India. Phule dedicated this work to the American movement to free slaves, linking the struggles of the Shudras and Ati-shudras in India with those of the Black slaves in the United States. Through Gulamgiri, Phule sought to challenge the mythological and religious justifications used to maintain the dominance of the priestly classes and emphasized the importance of education and social reform for the emancipation of the oppressed classes.
86History
Arrange the following movements in correct chronological order by using the codes given below:
1. Civil Disobedience
2. Khilafat
3. Non-cooperation
4. Quit India
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation
The Khilafat Movement was launched in 1919 by the Ali brothers and Maulana Azad to pressure the British government to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Sultan as the Caliph of Islam. The Non-cooperation Movement followed in 1920, aiming for Swaraj through the surrender of titles and the boycott of British institutions. The Civil Disobedience Movement was initiated in 1930 with the Dandi March to break the salt law, marking a new phase of mass defiance against colonial rule. Finally, the Quit India Movement was the major mass mobilization started in August 1942 during World War II with the slogan Do or Die to demand an immediate end to British rule in India.
87History
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Tahzib-ul-Akhlaq-Sir Syed Ahmad
Explanation
Tahzib-ul-Akhlaq was an influential journal published by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, first appearing in 1870. The title translates to Refinement of Morals or Social Reform. Sir Syed established this publication after his return from England with the objective of modernizing the social and religious outlook of the Muslim community in India. The journal played a pivotal role in promoting rationalism, advocating for Western education, and criticizing social dogmas that hindered progress. It was instrumental in creating the intellectual framework for the Aligarh Movement and the eventual establishment of the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.
88History
'Young India' was started as a weekly by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The Home Rule Party
Explanation
Young India was an English weekly journal established in 1916 by members of the Home Rule League in Bombay. Prominent leaders associated with its inception included Jamnadas Dwarkadas, Shankarlal Banker, and Indulal Yagnik, who utilized the publication to advocate for self-government and the objectives of the Home Rule movement. The journal served as a significant political mouthpiece before its editorship was taken over by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919, who then shifted its operations to Ahmedabad and used it to propagate his philosophy of non-violence and the Satyagraha movement throughout India.
89History
'Haripura' Where annual session of Indian National congress was held under the Presidentship of Subhash Chandra Bose in 1938 is situated in the state of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Gujarat
Explanation
Haripura is situated in the Surat district of Gujarat. It gained historical prominence when it served as the venue for the 51st annual session of the Indian National Congress in February 1938. Subhash Chandra Bose presided over this session after being elected unanimously. The Haripura session was significant for the adoption of a resolution on fundamental rights and the formation of the National Planning Committee under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru to draft a plan for the economic development of India. The venue was also notable for its aesthetic arrangement, as the famous artist Nandalal Bose was commissioned to decorate the site with panels depicting rural Indian life.
90History
Who of the following did express that Mohammad Ali Jinnah was the 'Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim unity'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sarojini Naidu
Explanation
Sarojini Naidu conferred the title of Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity upon Mohammad Ali Jinnah during the early phase of his political career. This recognition was primarily due to Jinnah's instrumental role in orchestrating the Lucknow Pact of 1916, which established a joint platform for the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League to demand self-government from the British. Naidu, who was a close associate and admirer of Jinnah's nationalist stance at the time, further solidified this sentiment by publishing a biographical sketch and a collection of his speeches in 1917 titled Mohammad Ali Jinnah: An Ambassador of Unity. Her description reflected Jinnah's status as a bridge between the two major communities in India before his later shift toward the Pakistan movement.
91History
The book entitled 'Indian Struggle' on Indian National Movement was written by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation
The Indian Struggle, 1920–1942 was written by Subhash Chandra Bose. He authored the first part of this work while in exile in Europe during the mid-1930s to provide a comprehensive account of the Indian nationalist movement for a global audience. The book offers a detailed analysis of the political developments in India from the start of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 through the various phases of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Bose used this platform to present his perspective on the strategies of the Indian National Congress and his assessments of Mahatma Gandhi's leadership. Although the British colonial government initially banned the book in India, it remains a vital historical record of the internal dynamics and ideological shifts within the freedom struggle during that period.
92History
The Congress supported the Khilafat Movement mainly for: 1. reinstatement of Caliph 2. removal of Caliph 3. getting the sympathy of the Muslims 4. marginalising Jinnah in the Congress
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Indian National Congress, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, supported the Khilafat Movement to foster Hindu-Muslim unity in the struggle against British colonial rule. The movement was launched by Indian Muslims to protest against the dismantling of the Ottoman Empire and to demand the reinstatement of the Caliph (Khalifa) as the spiritual and temporal head of Islam. Gandhi viewed the Khilafat issue as a unique opportunity to bring the Muslim community into the mainstream nationalist fold, believing that supporting a cause deeply important to Muslims would help gain their sympathy and active participation in the broader Non-Cooperation Movement. This strategic alliance was intended to present a united Indian front, thereby putting greater pressure on the British government to grant Swaraj.
93Polity and Governance
The sitting of the House of the People may be terminated by
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
The termination of a sitting of the House of the People occurs through three distinct constitutional and procedural methods. Adjournment is a power exercised by the Speaker to suspend the business of a sitting for a specific duration, ranging from hours to weeks. Prorogation is an executive power exercised by the President of India under Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution, which terminates an entire session of the House and consequently ends any ongoing sitting. Dissolution, authorized under Article 85(2)(b), brings the legal existence of the Lok Sabha to an end, which permanently terminates all current and future sittings of that particular House. Because each of these actions results in the cessation of a sitting, they are all valid mechanisms for termination.
94Polity and Governance
Adhoc judges are appointed on the Supreme Court when:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) There is no quorum of the Judges available to hold any session of the Court
Explanation
Article 127 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court. It states that if at any time there is a lack of quorum of the judges of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue any session of the court, the Chief Justice of India may appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge for a specified period. This appointment requires the previous consent of the President of India and consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The judge so appointed must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the designated judge to give priority to the sittings of the Supreme Court over their other judicial duties. While attending such sittings, they have all the jurisdiction, powers, and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court.
95Polity and Governance
Assertion (A): There is no stable party system in India. Reason (R): There are too many political parties.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The Indian party system during the late 20th century was characterized by a transition from the one-party dominance of the Congress to a highly fragmented era of coalition politics. The assertion is true because the period between 1989 and 2000 saw frequent changes in government and three general elections in quick succession (1996, 1998, and 1999), indicating a lack of systemic stability. The reason is also true, as India's vast socio-cultural and regional diversity has naturally led to the creation of a very high number of national and regional political parties. However, the sheer number of parties is not the direct cause of instability. Instability in the party system arises more from the fluid nature of political alliances, the absence of a dominant core party with a clear majority, and the tendency of smaller regional players to shift loyalties based on local interests. A multi-party system can achieve stability through institutionalized coalitions, meaning the existence of many parties is a structural feature that does not automatically explain the functional instability of the era.
96Polity and Governance
Given below is a list of political parties along with seats won by them in election to thirteenth Lok Sabha. Which one of these is not correctly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) TDP-30
Explanation
In the 13th Lok Sabha elections held in 1999, the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) won 29 seats. Led by N. Chandrababu Naidu, the party contested 34 seats in Andhra Pradesh as a key ally of the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) and secured 29 of them, along with a national vote share of approximately 3.65 percent. Because the actual number of seats won was 29, the pairing of the party with 30 seats is not correctly matched.
97Polity and Governance
Any political party in India can be recognised as National Party if it has state party status in at least:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) four states
Explanation
According to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India recognizes a political party as a National Party if it fulfills specific electoral performance criteria. One of the primary conditions for this recognition is that the party must be recognized as a State Party in at least four states. To be recognized as a State Party, an organization must meet defined thresholds of valid votes polled or seats won in a general election to the Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha within that state. By achieving this status in four different states, a party demonstrates a sufficiently broad geographical presence and electoral support across the country, which qualifies it for national status and the entitlement to a reserved election symbol that is exclusive to it throughout India.
98Polity and Governance
Which one of the following articles of the Indian Constitution belongs to a different category?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Art. 19
Explanation
Article 19 belongs to a different category of Fundamental Rights than the others. Under Part III of the Indian Constitution, Articles 14, 15, and 16 are grouped together under the Right to Equality, which covers Articles 14 to 18. Article 19, however, marks the beginning of the Right to Freedom category, which spans Articles 19 to 22. This article specifically guarantees six fundamental freedoms to the citizens of India, including the rights to freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. Because it serves to protect individual liberties rather than ensuring non-discrimination and legal equality, it is classified separately from the equality-based provisions.
99Polity and Governance
Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make law for giving effect to international agreements?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Art. 253
Explanation
Article 253 of the Constitution of India grants Parliament the exclusive power to legislate for the entire territory of India or any part thereof to give effect to international treaties, agreements, and conventions. This article overrides the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States, allowing Parliament to enact laws on subjects normally reserved for the State List if such legislation is necessary to implement an international obligation. This provision ensures that the Union government can effectively discharge its responsibilities in the field of foreign affairs and international law without being hindered by the constitutional division of powers. It covers treaties with other nations as well as decisions made at international conferences or by international bodies.
100Economy
Who has control over the 'issue of money' from the Consolidated Fund of India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Under Article 266(3) of the Constitution of India, no money out of the Consolidated Fund of India shall be appropriated except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in the Constitution. The ultimate control over the issue and withdrawal of money from this fund rests with the Parliament of India. This legislative control is exercised through the passage of an Appropriation Bill under Article 114, which must be passed by the Parliament and receive the assent of the President before any funds can be legally withdrawn for government expenditure. The executive branch lacks the independent authority to issue money from the Consolidated Fund without this specific parliamentary authorization.
101Polity and Governance
Acting Chief Justice of India is appointed by the:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) President
Explanation
Article 126 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice. According to this article, when the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform the duties of the office due to absence or any other reason, the duties of the office shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Supreme Court as the President may appoint for the purpose. This constitutional mandate grants the President the specific power to ensure the continuity of the judicial head's functions without the requirement of a formal consultation process for this temporary appointment.
102Polity and Governance
Seats allocated to Bihar in the House of People is the sum total of seats allocated to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Assam and Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
In 2000, prior to the implementation of the Bihar Reorganisation Act and the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, the undivided state of Bihar was allocated 54 seats in the Lok Sabha. During this same period, Assam was allocated 14 seats and the undivided state of Madhya Pradesh was allocated 40 seats. The sum total of the seats allocated to Assam (14) and Madhya Pradesh (40) equals 54, matching the total representation of Bihar in the House of the People at that time.
103Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Seats allocated to Uttar Pradesh in the Council of States are the sum total of seats allocated to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
In early 2000, prior to the reorganization of several large states, the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) was defined by the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India. At that time, Uttar Pradesh was allocated 34 seats. Andhra Pradesh held 18 seats, while Madhya Pradesh was allocated 16 seats. The mathematical sum of the representation for Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh is 18 + 16 = 34, which exactly equals the total seats then assigned to Uttar Pradesh. This calculation reflects the administrative status before the creation of Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand shifted these seat distributions later in the same year.
104Polity and Governance
The term 'office of profit' has been defined by the:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Supreme Court
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India has defined the term office of profit through various judicial pronouncements and interpretations. In the case of Shivamurthy Swami v. Agadi Sanganna Andanappa (1971), the Court established specific criteria to determine if a post constitutes an office of profit. These tests include whether the government is the appointing and removing authority, whether the government provides remuneration or pecuniary gain, and the degree of control the government exercises over the performance of the functions of the office. These judicial guidelines provide the operative definition and legal framework for the term in Indian law.
105Polity and Governance
The first Speaker against whom a motion of no confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) G.V. Mavlankar
Explanation
Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, was the first presiding officer against whom a resolution for removal from office was moved. On December 18, 1954, several members of the opposition, including J.B. Kripalani, Sarangadhar Das, and others, moved a motion under Article 94 of the Constitution expressing a lack of confidence in his leadership. The motion was brought forward based on grievances regarding his conduct in the chair and allegations of partiality toward the treasury benches. After a debate in the House, the motion was put to a vote and subsequently negatived by the Lok Sabha on the same day.
106Polity and Governance
Money Bill has been defined by the Constitution under Article:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 110
Explanation
Article 110 of the Constitution of India provides the specific definition of a Money Bill. According to this article, a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with matters such as the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax; the regulation of borrowing of money by the Union Government; the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India; and the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Under this article, if any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
107Polity and Governance
Zonal Councils have been created by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Act of Parliament
Explanation
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. These councils were created by an Act of Parliament to promote interstate cooperation and coordination on matters of common interest. The 1956 Act originally divided the country into five specific zones—Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern—setting up a council for each to facilitate a forum for the states to resolve disputes and discuss socio-economic planning. Since they are products of parliamentary legislation rather than direct constitutional provisions, they are defined as statutory entities.
108Polity and Governance
There is no reservation for SC and ST for Lok Sabha in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Jammu | Kashmir
Explanation
The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha is mandated by Article 330 of the Indian Constitution. However, in the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the application of this Article was governed by the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954. This presidential order modified Article 330 for the state, specifically omitting references to Scheduled Tribes, which meant no seats were reserved for STs in the Lok Sabha from Jammu and Kashmir. Additionally, no parliamentary constituencies in the state were reserved for Scheduled Castes during the delimitation processes prior to the state's reorganization in 2019. Therefore, all six Lok Sabha seats allocated to Jammu and Kashmir remained unreserved or General seats.
109Polity and Governance
Inter-State Councils owe their existence to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Provision in the Constitution
Explanation
Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination between the States and the Union. This article empowers the President of India to establish such a council if at any time it appears that the public interest would be served by its creation. The President is also authorized to define the nature of the duties to be performed by the council, along with its organization and procedure. The Inter-State Council is thus a constitutional body, although it was formally constituted for the first time in 1990 through a Presidential Order following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. Its primary role involves investigating and discussing subjects of common interest and making recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action.
110Polity and Governance
According to the law enacted by Parliament in December 1999, the legal age for a citizen to become major is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 18 years
Explanation
The Indian Majority (Amendment) Act, 1999, which was enacted by Parliament and received the President's assent in December 1999, simplified the legal definition of adulthood in India. This amendment modified Section 3 of the Indian Majority Act, 1875, to establish that every person domiciled in India attains the age of majority upon completing 18 years. By removing previous legal provisions that extended the age of majority to 21 years under specific conditions, such as when a guardian was appointed by a court, the 1999 law created a uniform age of 18 for all citizens to be legally recognized as majors. This change ensured consistency in the legal capacity of individuals to enter into contracts and manage their own affairs.
111Economy
Hydrocarbon Vision 2025 is associated with:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The India Hydrocarbon Vision-2025 is a strategic roadmap formulated by the Government of India in February 2000 to provide a long-term policy framework for the petroleum and natural gas sector. It focuses on ensuring national energy security by accelerating domestic exploration and production, enhancing refining capacity to achieve self-sufficiency, and establishing a competitive market structure. The policy emphasizes the development of essential infrastructure, such as pipelines and liquefied natural gas terminals, while streamlining the distribution and marketing of oil products. Its overarching goal is to meet the increasing energy requirements of the Indian economy over a twenty-five-year horizon through sustainable growth, technological advancement, and a stable regulatory environment for the entire hydrocarbon value chain.
112Polity and Governance
Sathyam Committee deals with:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Textile policy
Explanation
The Sathyam Committee was an expert committee constituted by the Government of India in 1998 under the chairmanship of S.R. Sathyam to formulate a new textile policy. The committee was tasked with reviewing the 1985 Textile Policy and proposing measures to make the Indian textile industry globally competitive in anticipation of the phasing out of the Multi-Fibre Arrangement under the World Trade Organization regime. Based on the recommendations submitted by the committee, the government announced the National Textile Policy 2000. The committee specifically focused on technological upgradation, increasing exports, and dereserving the garment sector from the small-scale industry category to encourage large-scale investments and modernization.
113Economy
Economic Survey 1999-2000 has predicted the growth rate of the Indian economy as:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 5.9%
Explanation
The Economic Survey 1999-2000, presented in February 2000, utilized the Advance Estimates released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) to project the performance of the Indian economy. According to these estimates, the real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth at factor cost for the fiscal year 1999-2000 was placed at 5.9 per cent. This growth rate was achieved despite a slowdown in the agricultural sector, as the economy benefited from a significant recovery in industrial production and continued strong momentum in the services sector. The survey highlighted that the resilience of the manufacturing and service industries helped maintain an overall growth trajectory close to 6 per cent during a period of fluctuating climatic conditions affecting primary production.
114Economy
In the Union Budget 2000-2001 the fiscal deficit has been pegged at:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 5.1 percent
Explanation
In the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2000-2001, presented by Finance Minister Yashwant Sinha, the fiscal deficit was projected at 5.1 percent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This target was established as part of a medium-term fiscal consolidation strategy aimed at curbing the rising deficit levels seen in the late 1990s. The government intended to achieve this figure through a combination of expenditure management, subsidy restructuring, and initiatives to improve tax collection efficiency.
115EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
The Annual Plan of Uttar Pradesh for the Year 2000-2001 has been fixed at:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 11,400 crore
Explanation
The Annual Plan for Uttar Pradesh for the financial year 2000-2001 was approved by the Planning Commission of India at an outlay of 11,400 crore. This allocation was part of the Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002) framework and was finalized during discussions between the then Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission and the State Chief Minister. The plan focused on prioritizing sectors such as rural development, irrigation, energy, and social services to stimulate the state's economic growth. This budgetary provision also accounted for the regions that were part of Uttar Pradesh before the creation of the separate state of Uttaranchal (now Uttarakhand) in November 2000.
116Economy
The present fiscal deficit of states has touched a record of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 75,000 crore
Explanation
During the late 1990s, the fiscal health of Indian states deteriorated sharply, primarily due to the implementation of the Fifth Pay Commission recommendations and rising interest payments. According to the Reserve Bank of India reports on State Finances published around 2000, the combined gross fiscal deficit of all states surged to approximately 74,254 crore in the 1998-1999 financial year (Actuals). This represented a massive jump from 44,200 crore in 1997-1998. By the 1999-2000 period, revised estimates indicated the deficit had climbed even higher, but the 75,000 crore figure stood as the immediate record level of actual expenditure imbalance recognized during the turn of the decade.
117Economy
Infant mortality rate in India at present is nearly:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 70 per thousand
Explanation
The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) measures the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a specific year. Based on the data from the Sample Registration System (SRS) published by the Office of the Registrar General of India, the national IMR was recorded at 70 per 1,000 live births in 1999. By the year 2000, this figure had marginally declined to approximately 68 per 1,000 live births. This statistic was a key indicator of the prevailing healthcare standards and socioeconomic conditions in India during that period. Consequently, at the time of the exam in 2000, 70 per thousand was the most accurate representation of the country's infant mortality status.
118EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which among the following taxes is not shared by the Central Government with U.P. Government under the Finance Commission award?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Custom duty
Explanation
Customs duties are levied and collected by the Central Government under Entry 83 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule. Under the constitutional framework and the Finance Commission recommendations applicable until the 80th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000, the divisible pool of taxes shared between the Centre and the States was restricted. During the tenure of the Tenth Finance Commission, which governed the period up to 2000, the shared taxes primarily consisted of taxes on income (other than agricultural income) and Union excise duties. Customs duties were explicitly excluded from this distribution mechanism and were retained entirely by the Central Government to fund its own expenditures, making them a non-sharable source of revenue under the Finance Commission awards of that era.
119EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Credit Deposit Ratio of Commercial Banks in UP has since 1971:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) first increased till 1990 and then declined
Explanation
The Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio represents the proportion of loan assets created by banks from the deposits they mobilize, calculated as CD Ratio = (Total Credit)/(Total Deposits) × 100. In Uttar Pradesh, the period following the nationalization of banks in 1969 was characterized by rapid branch expansion and a mandate for social banking. From 1971 through the late 1980s, the state witnessed an increase in the CD ratio as banks targeted rural development and priority sector lending in agriculture and small-scale industries. By 1990, this trend shifted as the Indian economy underwent structural reforms. The introduction of stricter prudential norms and capital adequacy requirements made banks more risk-averse. While deposit growth in Uttar Pradesh remained strong due to high savings and remittances, credit absorption in the state failed to keep pace due to a lack of industrial demand and infrastructure bottlenecks, resulting in a steady decline in the ratio during the 1990s.
120Economy
Assertion (A): The Government is resorting to disinvestment of some of the public sector units (PSU's). Reason (R): PSU's have not generated enough employment opportunities. # Codes:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
The Indian government initiated disinvestment in 1991 as part of the New Economic Policy to reduce the fiscal deficit, mobilize resources for social sectors, and improve the efficiency of Public Sector Undertakings through competition and professional management. By 2000, this policy was actively pursued to modernize the industrial structure. While PSUs were historically large employers, they had reached a point of saturation and were often burdened by overstaffing and low productivity, which hindered their capacity to generate new employment opportunities at a rate consistent with the growing labor force. Although both statements accurately reflect the economic conditions of the time, the lack of employment generation was not the primary driver of the disinvestment policy. The government sought disinvestment mainly for fiscal consolidation and to transition toward a more market-oriented economy.
121History
Which Indian won the highest number of Gold Medals in the 8th SAF games?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Jaspal Rana
Explanation
Jaspal Rana dominated the shooting events at the 8th South Asian Federation (SAF) Games held in Kathmandu, Nepal, in 1999. He won a total of 8 gold medals, which was the highest individual gold medal tally achieved by any Indian athlete during that edition of the games. His success spanned various 25-meter pistol categories, including both individual performances and team events. This feat underscored his status as one of India's most prolific marksmen during the late 1990s and significantly boosted India's overall standing in the regional multi-sport competition.
122Polity and Governance
Helen Clark is the second woman Prime Minister of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) New Zealand
Explanation
Helen Clark took office as the Prime Minister of New Zealand in 1999, becoming the second woman to hold the position in the country's history. She followed Jenny Shipley, who had become the first female Prime Minister in 1997. Leading the Labour Party, Clark served three consecutive terms until 2008, making her one of New Zealand's longest-serving heads of government. Her tenure was marked by significant social policy reforms and a strong emphasis on New Zealand's independent foreign policy.
123History
The correct chronological sequence of the landings of the hijacked Indian Airlines plane IC 814 in December, 1999 was:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Amritsar, Lahore, Dubai, Kandhar
Explanation
Indian Airlines Flight IC 814 was hijacked on December 24, 1999, shortly after taking off from Kathmandu, Nepal, en route to Delhi. The aircraft first landed at Amritsar, India, where it remained for a brief period while the hijackers demanded refueling. It then flew to Lahore, Pakistan, where it landed after initial resistance from Pakistani authorities. From Lahore, the plane proceeded to the Al Minhad Air Base in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, where 27 passengers were released. Finally, the aircraft was flown to Kandahar, Afghanistan, which was under Taliban control at the time. The hostage crisis eventually concluded in Kandahar on December 31, 1999, following the release of three militants by the Indian government.
124History
Davis Cup Championship 1999 was won by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Australia
Explanation
Australia secured the 1999 Davis Cup title by defeating France 3-2 in the final held at the Palais des Sports Acropolis in Nice, France. Captained by John Newcombe, the Australian squad featured Mark Philippoussis, Lleyton Hewitt, and the celebrated doubles pair of Todd Woodbridge and Mark Woodforde. Mark Philippoussis played a pivotal role in the victory by winning both of his singles matches. The doubles team of Woodbridge and Woodforde also contributed a crucial point to ensure the win. This victory represented Australia's 27th Davis Cup championship and their first title in the competition since 1986.
125Art and Culture
The winner of 1999 Nobel prize for literature is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Novelist
Explanation
The 1999 Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to the German writer Günter Grass. He is primarily recognized as a novelist who played a crucial role in the literary reconstruction of Germany following World War II. His international reputation was established with the publication of the Danzig Trilogy, which includes his most famous novel, The Tin Drum (1959), as well as Cat and Mouse and Dog Years. The Swedish Academy cited him for his ability to portray the forgotten face of history through his narrative style, which often utilized magical realism and black comedy to examine the complexities of the German past.
126History
International Gandhi Peace Prize 1999 was awarded to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Murlidhar Devidas Amte
Explanation
Murlidhar Devidas Amte, widely known as Baba Amte, was honored with the International Gandhi Peace Prize in 1999 for his lifelong dedication to the rehabilitation and empowerment of people suffering from leprosy. He founded Anandwan, a community project in Maharashtra, which transformed the lives of thousands by providing them with medical care, vocational training, and a sense of dignity. His social activism extended to environmental conservation and justice for displaced tribal communities, reflecting the Gandhian philosophy of Sarvodaya and non-violent social transformation. The award acknowledged his extraordinary contribution to humanity through selfless service and constructive social work.
127History
Match the following: #
List-I (Books):
(A) Price of Partition
(B) Ulysses
(C) Indian 2020
(D) Pathology of Corruption
List-II (Authors):
1. Abdul Kalam
2. S.S. Gill
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 4, 2, 5
Explanation
Ulysses is a celebrated modernist novel by the Irish author James Joyce (4), first published in its entirety in 1922 and known for its stream-of-consciousness technique. The Pathology of Corruption was written by S.S. Gill (2), a veteran Indian bureaucrat who served as the Secretary in the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and as the CEO of Prasar Bharati. Indian 2020 (India 2020: A Vision for the New Millennium) was co-authored by the scientist Y.S. Rajan (5) along with A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, providing a strategic blueprint for India to become a developed nation by the year 2020. These authors correspond to the books (B), (D), and (C) respectively.
128Polity and Governance
Who among the following Indians was appointed as the U.N. Human Rights Commissioner for East Timor?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Soliji Sorabji
Explanation
Soli Sorabjee was a distinguished Indian jurist and former Attorney General of India who was appointed by the United Nations Commission on Human Rights as its Special Representative (Expert) for East Timor in late 1999. In this capacity, he was tasked with investigating and reporting on the human rights situation in the region during its critical transition period, following the widespread violence and humanitarian crisis that occurred after the 1999 independence referendum. His appointment by the UN Secretary-General and the Commission highlighted his global reputation as a defender of civil liberties and his extensive expertise in international human rights law.
129Art and Culture
Who has won the prestigious ATP Rotterdam Open - 2000?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Cedric Pioline
Explanation
Cedric Pioline secured the ATP Rotterdam Open title in 2000 by defeating Tim Henman in a closely contested final. The match lasted three sets, with Pioline emerging victorious with a score of 6-7, 6-4, 7-6. This tournament, known officially as the ABN AMRO World Tennis Tournament, was part of the ATP International Series Gold. Pioline's victory in Rotterdam was a significant achievement in his career, as he overcame a high-quality field on the indoor hard courts of the Ahoy arena to claim the championship trophy.
130Art and Culture
'Vyas Samman' has been awarded to Sridas Shukla for the Book in 1999:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Bisrampur Ka Sant
Explanation
Shrilal Shukla was honored with the Vyas Samman in 1999 for his satirical novel Bisrampur Ka Sant. This prestigious literary award was established in 1991 by the K.K. Birla Foundation to recognize outstanding Hindi works published during the previous ten years. Bisrampur Ka Sant, published in 1998, depicts the experiences of a retired governor who returns to a rural setting, providing a sharp critique of the post-independence political landscape and the decay of institutional values. The work is noted for its sophisticated use of irony and its realistic portrayal of social and political complexities in India.
131Polity and Governance
Which National Political Party has won the largest number of seats in the last assembly election in Bihar?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) RJD
Explanation
In the Bihar Legislative Assembly elections held in February 2000, the Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) emerged as the single largest party by winning 124 seats in the then 324-member house (prior to the formation of Jharkhand). At the time of this election, the RJD was recognized as a National Political Party by the Election Commission of India. This victory enabled the RJD to form a coalition government with the support of the Congress and other smaller parties, leading to Rabri Devi being sworn in as the Chief Minister.
132Art and Culture
UNESCO has declared Feb. 21 as the International Mother Language Day in recognition of the struggle and sacrifice of the:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Bangladesh
Explanation
UNESCO announced the establishment of International Mother Language Day on November 17, 1999, to be observed annually on February 21. This date was chosen to honor the Language Movement in East Pakistan, which is present-day Bangladesh. On February 21, 1952, students and activists in Dhaka launched a massive protest demanding that Bengali be recognized as one of the official languages of Pakistan. During these demonstrations, several protestors were killed by police fire. This sacrifice became a symbol of the struggle for linguistic rights and cultural identity, eventually playing a pivotal role in the nationalist movement that led to the independence of Bangladesh in 1971. The day is now observed globally to promote linguistic diversity and the preservation of mother tongues.
133Science and Technology
Which one of the following instruments is used for locating submerged objects in an ocean?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) SONAR
Explanation
SONAR, which stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging, is the primary technology used to detect and locate submerged objects in the ocean. It operates by emitting ultrasonic sound waves from a transducer into the water. These high-frequency waves travel through the medium until they strike an underwater object, such as a submarine, shipwreck, or the seabed, and are reflected back to the source as echoes. By measuring the exact time interval between the emission of the pulse and the reception of the echo, the distance to the object can be calculated using the formula d = (v × t)/2, where v is the speed of sound in seawater and t is the total travel time.
134Science and Technology
Y2K problem relates to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) To find out a suitable replacement when the last two digits of the year become zero
Explanation
The Y2K problem, commonly referred to as the Millennium Bug, was a computing issue caused by the practice of using only the last two digits of a year to represent dates in software and hardware. In the late 20th century, programmers used this format (e.g., 99 for 1999) to save precious and expensive computer memory. There was widespread concern that when the calendar turned to 2000, the last two digits would become 00, causing computers to interpret the year as 1900. This logical error threatened to trigger systemic failures in date-based operations within critical sectors such as global finance, power grids, and transportation. Remedying the problem required finding and implementing suitable code replacements or patches to ensure systems could correctly identify the 21st century.
135Art and Culture
The following players whose names are given in List-I have won Tennis Grand Slam 1999 in Men's Singles in the events given List-II. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Yevgeny Kafelnikov
(B) Andre Agassi
(C) Pete Sampras
(D) Andre Agassi
List-II:
1. Australian Open
2. French Open
3. Wimbledon
4. American Open
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
In the 1999 tennis season, the Men's Singles Grand Slam titles were captured by three different players. Yevgeny Kafelnikov secured the Australian Open title after defeating Thomas Enqvist in the final. Andre Agassi won the French Open by defeating Andrei Medvedev, a victory that made him one of the few players to achieve a career Grand Slam. Pete Sampras maintained his grass-court supremacy by winning Wimbledon, where he defeated Andre Agassi in the final match. Andre Agassi finished the Grand Slam year by winning the American Open, also known as the US Open, after a five-set match against Todd Martin in the final.
136Art and Culture
Karmapa Lama comes from the Tibetan Buddhist order of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Kagyu pa
Explanation
The Karmapa is the spiritual head of the Karma Kagyu lineage, which is the largest sub-school within the Kagyupa order of Tibetan Buddhism. Established in the 12th century by Düsum Khyenpa, the first Karmapa, this lineage is recognized as the oldest tulku (reincarnate lama) institution in Tibet. The Kagyu tradition is often referred to as the oral or whispered lineage because it emphasizes the direct transmission of teachings and meditation practices from master to disciple, particularly focusing on the Mahamudra and the Six Yogas of Naropa. The current 17th Karmapa, Ogyen Trinley Dorje, fled Tibet for India in early 2000, bringing significant international attention to this specific order around the time of the exam.
137Polity and Governance
The persons whose names find place in List-I below are the President of his country given in List-II. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Recardo Logos
(B) Thabo Mbeiki
(C) Abdurrahman Wahid
(D) Vladimir Putin
List-II:
1. USSR
2. Indonesia
3. South Africa
4. Chile
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Ricardo Lagos served as the President of Chile from 2000 to 2006. Thabo Mbeki held the office of the President of South Africa from 1999 to 2008, having succeeded Nelson Mandela. Abdurrahman Wahid was the President of Indonesia between 1999 and 2001. Vladimir Putin assumed the presidency of the Russian Federation in 2000, which is the primary successor state to the USSR mentioned in the list. These political leaders were all heads of their respective states during the year 2000.
138Polity and Governance
The persons whose names find place in List-I below are the President of his country given in List-II. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I:
(A) Recardo Logos
(B) Thabo Mbeiki
(C) Abdurrahman Wahid
(D) Vladimir Putin List-II
List-II:
1. USSR
2. Indonesia
3. South Africa
4. Chile
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Ricardo Lagos (A) was the President of Chile (4), elected in 2000. Thabo Mbeki (B) was the President of South Africa (3), serving from 1999 to 2008. Abdurrahman Wahid (C) was the President of Indonesia (2), serving 1999-2001. Vladimir Putin (D) became acting President of Russia (List-II item 1, listed as USSR/Russia) on 31 December 1999. The correct matching sequence is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
139Economy
The lowest fertility rate in the world is that of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Italy
Explanation
By the year 2000, Italy recorded one of the world's lowest Total Fertility Rates (TFR), falling to approximately 1.2 children per woman. This demographic trend, often categorized as lowest-low fertility, was the result of various socio-economic factors such as the delay of marriage and childbearing, high youth unemployment, and limited institutional support for balancing work and family life. At the turn of the millennium, Italy's fertility levels were significantly below the replacement level of 2.1, distinguishing it as having the most suppressed birth rate among major nations during that period.
140Science and Technology
Which of the following is not correctly matched:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) herbivore-secondary consumer
Explanation
In an ecological food chain, herbivores are organisms that feed exclusively on autotrophs or producers. Since they occupy the second trophic level by consuming the first trophic level directly, they are classified as primary consumers. Secondary consumers are typically carnivores or omnivores that feed on primary consumers. Consequently, the pairing of herbivore with secondary consumer is inaccurate within the standard hierarchy of energy flow in an ecosystem.
141Geography
Which one of the following countries receive the most acid rain?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) China
Explanation
China emerged as the country most affected by acid rain in the late 20th century due to its rapid industrial expansion and overwhelming reliance on coal for energy. By the year 2000, China was the world largest consumer of coal and the largest emitter of sulfur dioxide (SO₂). The high sulfur content in Chinese coal, combined with a lack of advanced emission control technologies in many power plants and factories at the time, led to significant atmospheric pollution. This resulted in severe acid deposition across approximately one-third of the country's landmass, particularly impacting the industrial hubs in the south and east. The scale and intensity of acid rain in China exceeded that of other industrial nations during this period.
142Geography
Which one of the following environments gives the least biomass production per year?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Deep Sea
Explanation
The deep sea environment exhibits the lowest net primary productivity per unit area of all the listed ecosystems. Biomass production in the open ocean and deep-sea regions is severely restricted by the lack of sunlight, which is essential for photosynthesis and only penetrates the uppermost layer of the water column. Additionally, these regions suffer from extreme nutrient limitations, as vital minerals and organic matter tend to sink to the dark ocean floor and are not easily returned to the sunlit surface layers except in specific upwelling zones. Consequently, the rate at which new organic matter is created per square meter per year in the deep sea is significantly lower than in terrestrial biomes where plants have direct access to atmospheric carbon dioxide and solar energy.
143Geography
The World Habitat Day is observed on:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) October 5
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly established World Habitat Day in 1985 through Resolution 40/202. It is officially observed on the first Monday of October every year to focus global attention on the state of human settlements and the basic right to adequate shelter. The day reminds the international community of its collective responsibility for the future of the human habitat. Since the observance is determined by the first Monday of the month, the specific calendar date shifts each year. October 5 is the date for years when the first Monday of the month falls on that day, as occurred in 1992 and 1998.
144Geography
The solar energy plays the most important role in the:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Water cycle
Explanation
Solar energy serves as the primary engine for the water cycle by providing the thermal energy required for phase changes and atmospheric movement. The Sun heats the Earth surface, causing liquid water from oceans, rivers, and soil to evaporate into water vapor. Additionally, it drives transpiration from vegetation. This input of heat energy is essential for lifting moisture into the atmosphere, where it eventually cools and condenses to form clouds. Furthermore, the uneven heating of the Earth surface by solar radiation creates wind and pressure gradients that transport this moisture across the globe. Solar radiation is the fundamental force that sustains the continuous circulation of water through the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.
145Geography
The highest decadal growth rate of population as per the 1991 Census goes to:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Nagaland
Explanation
As per the 1991 Census of India, Nagaland recorded the highest decadal population growth rate in the country for the period 1981-1991. The state registered a growth rate of 56.08 percent, which was more than double the national average growth rate of 23.87 percent for that decade. This high demographic expansion was a consistent feature of Nagaland's population statistics during the late 20th century, setting it apart from other states in terms of the pace of population increase.
146Geography
In India, the growth rate of population is the Highest in?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) class I towns
Explanation
According to the 1991 Census data, which was the primary reference for urban statistics in 2000, Class I towns (cities with a population of 100,000 and above) recorded the highest population growth rate. This trend was driven by the concentration of industrial, commercial, and administrative activities in large urban centers, which acted as pull factors for significant rural-to-urban migration. Additionally, the growth rate in this category was bolstered by the reclassification of several Class II towns into Class I as their populations crossed the 100,000 threshold during the decade. These large cities offered superior infrastructure and economic opportunities, leading to a disproportionate increase in their population compared to smaller town classifications.