Diamond (A) is a crystalline allotrope of carbon (4) where the atoms are arranged in a rigid cubic structure, making it the hardest known natural substance. Marble (B) is a metamorphic rock that forms when limestone is subjected to heat and pressure, consisting primarily of the mineral calcite, which is chemically calcium (1) carbonate (CaCO₃). Sand (C) is a granular material composed of finely divided rock and mineral particles, the most common constituent of which is silica or silicon (2) dioxide (SiO₂), usually in the form of quartz. Ruby (D) is a precious gemstone and a variety of the mineral corundum, which is scientifically classified as aluminium (3) oxide (Al₂O₃) with chromium traces providing its characteristic red color.
2Science and Technology
The hypo solution used in photography is the aqueous solution of
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Answer: (A) sodium thiosulphate
Explanation
Sodium thiosulphate, chemically represented as Na₂S₂O₃ · 5H₂O, is commonly known as hypo in the field of photography. It serves as a photographic fixer during the film development process. Its primary function is to remove unexposed silver halide grains from the photographic emulsion after the image has been developed. When the film is immersed in a hypo solution, sodium thiosulphate reacts with the remaining silver bromide (AgBr) to form a stable, water-soluble complex known as sodium dithiosulphatoargentate(I), according to the reaction: AgBr + 2Na₂S₂O₃ → Na₃[Ag(S₂O₃)₂] + NaBr. This process prevents the remaining silver salts from darkening when exposed to light, thereby fixing the image and making it permanent.
3Science and Technology
If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship, it will
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Answer: (C) move along with the spaceship at the same speed
Explanation
An object in orbit around the Earth, such as a spaceship, is in a state of continuous free fall where its tangential velocity and the gravitational pull of the Earth are balanced to maintain a stable path. According to the principles of orbital mechanics, the orbital velocity v required to maintain a circular orbit at a distance r from the center of the Earth is given by the formula v = √(GM/r), where G is the gravitational constant and M is the mass of the Earth. Since the apple is initially inside the spaceship, it possesses the same orbital velocity and is at the same distance from the Earth's center. When released, the apple retains its tangential velocity due to inertia and remains subject to the same gravitational acceleration as the spaceship. Consequently, it continues to move along the same orbital trajectory at the same speed as the spaceship.
4Science and Technology
The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. But, we do not feel it because
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Answer: (A) our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that of the atmosphere.
Explanation
The human body is primarily composed of fluids and gases that maintain an internal pressure to counteract external forces. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is approximately 101.3 kPa, and the fluids inside our bodies, including blood and interstitial fluids, exert an outward pressure that balances this inward force. Because blood pressure is typically measured as a gauge pressure—meaning it is the pressure in excess of the ambient atmospheric pressure—the absolute pressure within the circulatory system is slightly higher than that of the atmosphere. This equilibrium ensures that the net force acting on the body's tissues and cell walls is negligible, which is why we do not feel the crushing weight of the air above us.
5Science and Technology
Computer virus is a
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Answer: (D) software program
Explanation
A computer virus is a type of malicious software program specifically designed to replicate itself and spread to other computers. It consists of a sequence of code that attaches to existing programs or files and executes its instructions when the host file is opened or run. By definition, software is a collection of instructions that tells a computer how to work, and a virus functions as a parasitic program that alters the way a computer operates without the user's permission. It can perform various harmful tasks, such as damaging the system's data, consuming memory, or crashing the device, all through the execution of its programmed logic.
6Economy
In which of the following industries is mica used as a raw material?
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Answer: (D) Electrical
Explanation
Mica is a naturally occurring mineral that is indispensable to the electrical and electronics industries due to its unique combination of physical, chemical, and thermal properties. It possesses high dielectric strength, which allows it to withstand high voltages without breaking down, and a very low power loss factor. Furthermore, mica is an excellent insulator that remains stable at high temperatures and can be easily split into extremely thin, flexible sheets. These characteristics make it the preferred material for manufacturing capacitors, commutators, and insulation for high-voltage equipment, as well as heating elements in domestic appliances like electric irons and toasters.
7Science and Technology
Which of the following leguminous plant is also a petroplant?
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Answer: (D) Pongam
Explanation
Pongamia pinnata, commonly known as Pongam or Karanja, is a nitrogen-fixing tree belonging to the leguminous family Fabaceae. It is recognized as a petroplant because its seeds contain a high percentage of non-edible oil, typically ranging from 30% to 40% by weight. This oil can be processed through transesterification to produce biodiesel, which serves as a renewable alternative to fossil fuels. The plant is particularly valued in bioenergy programs because it can grow on marginal or degraded lands, thrives in various agro-climatic conditions, and simultaneously improves soil fertility through nitrogen fixation.
8Science and Technology
The micro-organism which is associated with the production of Bt cotton is a
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Answer: (B) Bacterium
Explanation
Bt cotton is a genetically modified crop engineered to provide resistance against specific insect pests, primarily the bollworm. The abbreviation Bt stands for Bacillus thuringiensis, which is a gram-positive, soil-dwelling bacterium. This micro-organism naturally synthesizes protein crystals known as Cry toxins that possess insecticidal properties. By transferring the specific genes responsible for these toxins from the bacterium into the cotton plant DNA, scientists created a variety that produces its own biopesticide, significantly improving crop yield and reducing chemical dependence.
9Science and Technology
In countries where polished rice is the main cereal in their diet, people suffer from
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Answer: (B) beriberi
Explanation
Polished rice is produced by removing the outer bran and germ layers of the grain to improve its shelf life and appearance. These discarded layers contain the highest concentration of Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1. When polished rice serves as the primary caloric source in a diet lacking variety, the body does not receive adequate amounts of this essential micronutrient. A chronic deficiency of Thiamine leads directly to beriberi, a disease that manifests in two main forms: dry beriberi, which affects the nervous system and leads to muscle wasting, and wet beriberi, which affects the cardiovascular system and can result in heart failure. Historical outbreaks of beriberi were common in East and Southeast Asian countries following the introduction of industrial rice milling in the late 19th century.
10Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not properly matched?
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Answer: (D) An inbuilt time keeping system in all organisms
Explanation
Biological clocks are endogenous systems that regulate the timing of physiological processes and behavior, most notably circadian rhythms. While these mechanisms are prevalent in eukaryotes and certain photosynthetic prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, they are not a universal feature of all life. Many species of bacteria and archaea do not possess an internal circadian oscillator and instead respond directly to external environmental changes. Consequently, describing the biological clock as an inbuilt time-keeping system present in all organisms is scientifically inaccurate.
11Science and Technology
Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles leads to fatigue?
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Answer: (A) Lactic Acid
Explanation
During high-intensity physical activity, the body's demand for energy often exceeds the oxygen supply required for aerobic respiration. To meet this energy demand, muscles switch to anaerobic metabolism, where glucose is broken down into pyruvate and then converted into lactic acid (C₃H₆O₃) by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. The accumulation of lactic acid in muscle tissues leads to an increase in hydrogen ion concentration, which lowers the pH level and creates an acidic environment. This drop in pH interferes with the muscle's ability to contract by inhibiting key enzymes and disrupting the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This biochemical shift manifests as the sensation of muscle fatigue and temporary soreness during and after strenuous exercise.
12Science and Technology
Which of the following is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease?
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Answer: (D) Iodine
Explanation
Iodine is a chemical element that is found in high concentrations in the marine environment, particularly in seawater, seaweed, and various forms of seafood. It enters the food chain through the soil and water, but coastal areas and oceans remain the most abundant natural sources. In the human body, iodine is a critical component for the production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland, which are essential for regulating metabolism, growth, and neurological development. A lack of sufficient iodine in the diet results in Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD), the most common of which is goitre, a condition where the thyroid gland enlarges to compensate for the deficiency. It is administered through iodized salt and dietary supplements to prevent these health issues.
13Science and Technology
Salk's vaccine is connected with which one of the following diseases?
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Answer: (D) Polio
Explanation
The Salk vaccine, formally known as the Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine (IPV), was developed by Jonas Salk in 1955. It contains killed or inactivated poliovirus strains of all three types. When injected, the vaccine stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies in the bloodstream. This immune response prevents the virus from spreading to the central nervous system, thereby protecting the individual from paralytic poliomyelitis. The development of this vaccine was a landmark achievement in medical history, providing the first effective means to control the spread of polio, a highly contagious viral disease that caused widespread paralysis and death during the mid-20th century.
14Science and Technology
Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?
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Answer: (A) Potassium bromide
Explanation
Potassium bromide (KBr) is a salt that was extensively utilized as a sedative and anticonvulsant in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Its therapeutic effect is derived from the bromide ion (Br⁻), which acts as a central nervous system depressant. When ingested, bromide ions compete with chloride ions for transport across neuronal membranes, leading to hyperpolarization of the neurons. This reduces the excitability of the nervous system, producing a calming or sedative effect on the patient. Although it has largely been replaced in human medicine by more modern pharmaceuticals with fewer side effects, it remains a classic example of an early inorganic sedative used to treat conditions such as epilepsy and nervous agitation.
15Science and Technology
Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
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Answer: (B) uncontrolled fusion reaction
Explanation
The hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear weapon, operates on the principle of nuclear fusion. In this process, the nuclei of light elements, typically isotopes of hydrogen such as deuterium (²₁H) and tritium (³₁H), combine to form heavier helium nuclei. This fusion process releases a far greater amount of energy per unit mass than nuclear fission. Because a bomb is designed to release its total energy almost instantaneously to create a massive explosion, the reaction is not regulated or slowed down by any external mechanism, characterizing it as an uncontrolled reaction. To achieve the extremely high temperatures and pressures necessary to overcome the electrostatic repulsion between nuclei and initiate fusion, a hydrogen bomb uses a primary fission-based atomic bomb as a detonator.
16Science and Technology
Endoscope used by Doctors for examining the inside of the patient's stomach, works on the principle of
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Answer: (C) total internal reflection of light
Explanation
An endoscope is a medical instrument that utilizes a bundle of optical fibers to transmit light into a patient's internal organs and relay images back to the physician. The operation of these optical fibers is based on the principle of total internal reflection. This phenomenon occurs when light travels through a medium with a higher refractive index and strikes the boundary of a medium with a lower refractive index at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle. In an endoscope, the light is trapped within the core of the fiber by reflecting off the internal surfaces repeatedly. This allows the light to travel long distances and navigate around curves within the body with minimal loss of signal or intensity, providing a clear view of the stomach or other internal cavities.
17Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): if Ice collects on the freezer the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely.
Reason (R): Ice is a poor conductor.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
In a refrigerator, the cooling process relies on the efficient transfer of heat from the interior compartment to the refrigerant flowing through the evaporator coils. Ice has a relatively low thermal conductivity, making it an effective thermal insulator. When a layer of frost or ice accumulates over the freezer walls or the evaporator coils, it creates a physical barrier that restricts heat exchange. Because ice is a poor conductor of heat, it prevents the warm air inside the refrigerator from being cooled quickly by the refrigerant, leading to decreased cooling efficiency and forcing the compressor to work longer to maintain the desired temperature.
18Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hyper metropia?
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Answer: (D) A concave lens is used to correct this defect.
Explanation
Hypermetropia, or far-sightedness, is a vision defect where the eye cannot focus on nearby objects because the light rays converge at a point behind the retina. This occurs either because the eyeball is too short or the focal length of the eye lens is too long. To correct this condition, a convex lens is required. A convex lens acts as a converging lens, providing the additional refractive power necessary to bring the focal point forward so that the image is formed precisely on the retina. In contrast, a concave lens is a diverging lens used to correct myopia, where the image forms in front of the retina. Therefore, the statement claiming that a concave lens is used for hypermetropia is factually incorrect.
19Science and Technology
An enzyme which helps in the digestion of protein is
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Answer: (C) trypsin
Explanation
Trypsin is a vital proteolytic enzyme produced by the pancreas as the inactive precursor trypsinogen. Upon entering the small intestine, specifically the duodenum, it is converted into its active form by the enzyme enterokinase. Trypsin functions as an endopeptidase that hydrolyzes proteins into smaller peptides by breaking peptide bonds at the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids lysine and arginine. This biochemical process is a critical step in the digestion and absorption of dietary proteins in the human body. Additionally, trypsin serves as a trigger to activate several other digestive enzymes, such as chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase, facilitating the complete breakdown of complex protein molecules into absorbable amino acids.
20Science and Technology
What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in the remote control of a television?
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Answer: (A) Infrared
Explanation
Television remote controls operate using pulses of infrared radiation to send binary data to the television set. A small light-emitting diode (LED) at the front of the remote emits infrared light, which carries a specific frequency or pattern corresponding to commands like volume adjustment or channel changing. Infrared is chosen for this purpose because it is invisible to the human eye, ensuring the signal does not distract the viewer, and it can be generated using inexpensive, low-power electronic components. The receiver on the television contains a photodetector that converts these infrared light pulses back into electrical signals to execute the desired command. Infrared radiation occupies the spectrum between visible light and microwaves, generally within the wavelength range of 700 nm to 1 mm.
21History
Panini and Patanjali are the renowned names in the library history of ancient India. Under, which dynasty did they flourish?
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Answer: (C) Shungas
Explanation
Patanjali, the celebrated author of the Mahabhashya, was a contemporary of Pushyamitra Shunga, the founder of the Shunga dynasty in the 2nd century BCE. In his grammatical treatise, Patanjali explicitly mentions the performance of the Ashvamedha sacrifice by Pushyamitra Shunga, providing a definitive historical link to this period. The Mahabhashya is a comprehensive commentary on the Ashtadhyayi, the foundational Sanskrit grammar work by Panini. The Shunga era is widely recognized for the resurgence of Brahmanical traditions and the patronage of Sanskrit scholarship, during which these grammatical works became central to the intellectual and literary repositories of ancient India. This period played a crucial role in the preservation and formalization of linguistic science, linking the legacy of Panini with the contemporary scholarly advancements of Patanjali.
22History
The city plan of ancient Shravasti is in the shape
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Answer: (B) crescentic
Explanation
Shravasti, the capital of the ancient kingdom of Kosala, is identified with the modern site of Sahet-Mahet on the banks of the Rapti River in Uttar Pradesh. Archaeological excavations and topographical surveys conducted at the site revealed that the city's layout is crescentic or semi-circular in shape. This specific configuration was determined by the city's fortifications, which were built to follow the natural curve and flow of the Rapti River. The mud ramparts and ruins of the city walls, which are still visible today, clearly delineate this distinct half-moon perimeter that characterized the urban planning of this major center during the 6th century BCE.
23History
Mention of which of the following rivers in the Rigveda suggests the Aryan's connection with Afghanistan?
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Answer: (C) Kubha, Kramu
Explanation
The Rigveda mentions several rivers that flow through modern-day Afghanistan, indicating that the early Vedic Aryans inhabited or were well-acquainted with this region. The river Kubha is identified with the modern Kabul river, which flows through the capital of Afghanistan. The Kramu is identified with the modern Kurram river, which is a right-bank tributary of the Indus. The inclusion of these geographical landmarks in the Rigvedic hymns confirms that the geographical horizon of the Aryans extended to the western side of the Indus river into the territories of present-day Afghanistan.
24History
The entry of woman as a bhikshuni into the Buddhist Sangha was allowed by Gautam Buddha at
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Answer: (B) Vaishali
Explanation
Gautam Buddha allowed the entry of women into the Buddhist Sangha at Vaishali. This significant decision was made following the persistent requests of Mahapajapati Gotami, the Buddha's foster mother and aunt. Although the Buddha was initially hesitant to admit women into the monastic order, his disciple Ananda intervened and pleaded on their behalf. Ananda argued that women were equally capable of achieving the stages of enlightenment. Consequently, the Buddha granted permission for women to be ordained as bhikshunis, provided they followed eight strict rules known as the Garudhammas. Mahapajapati Gotami became the first woman to be admitted, marking the formal establishment of the Bhikshuni Sangha at the Kutagarasala Vihara in Vaishali.
25History
Buddha is depicted on the coins of
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Answer: (B) Kanishka
Explanation
Kanishka I, the most prominent ruler of the Kushan Dynasty, was a significant patron of Buddhism and is credited with convening the Fourth Buddhist Council. His reign marked a pivotal era where the Buddha began to be represented in anthropomorphic form rather than through symbols. Kanishka issued a series of gold and copper coins that featured the image of the Buddha on the reverse. These coins are historically significant as they bear labels in Greek script such as BODDO for the Buddha, SAKAMANO BODDO for Shakyamuni Buddha, and METRAGO BODDO for Maitreya. This practice reflects the flourishing of the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art and the royal endorsement of Buddhist iconography during his rule.
26Art and Culture
Jain temple of Abu is made of
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Answer: (D) marble
Explanation
The Dilwara Jain Temples, situated on Mount Abu in Rajasthan, are world-renowned for their extensive use of high-quality white marble. Built between the 11th and 13th centuries AD during the reign of the Solanki dynasty, these temples, particularly the Vimal Vasahi and the Luna Vasahi, represent the pinnacle of Maru-Gurjara architecture. The marble was sourced from the Arasuri hills of Ambaji and transported up the mountain to be carved into incredibly intricate patterns. The use of this specific stone allowed craftsmen to achieve a level of detail in the ceilings, pillars, and doorways that resembles fine lace or ivory rather than stone.
27History
The great Jain Scholar Hemachandra adorned the court of
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Answer: (B) Kumarapala
Explanation
Hemachandra was a renowned Jain scholar, polymath, and monk who flourished during the reign of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty in Gujarat. He is most significantly associated with King Kumarapala, who ruled from approximately 1143 to 1172 CE. Hemachandra served as the king's spiritual mentor and advisor, playing a decisive role in converting Kumarapala to Jainism. Following his guidance, Kumarapala transformed Gujarat into a model Jain state by enforcing laws against animal slaughter and promoting the principle of ahimsa. Hemachandra's prolific literary contributions during this time include the Trishashti-shalaka-purusha-charita and the Kumarapala-charita, which is a hagiographic work dedicated to the king's life and reign.
28History
Who among the following rulers is famous as Prithvi Raj Chauhan ?
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Answer: (C) Prithvi Raj III
Explanation
Prithviraj III, popularly known as Prithviraj Chauhan or Rai Pithora, was the most celebrated ruler of the Chahamana dynasty. Ruling from his capitals at Ajmer and Delhi during the late 12th century, he is best remembered for his military conflicts with the Ghurid Sultan, Muhammad Ghori. He achieved a significant victory against the Ghurid forces at the First Battle of Tarain in 1191. His life, valor, and the events leading to the Second Battle of Tarain in 1192 are central themes in the epic poem Prithviraj Raso, composed by his court poet Chand Bardai, which established him as a legendary figure in Indian history.
29History
The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by
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Answer: (B) Rana Kumbha
Explanation
Rana Kumbha, the ruler of Mewar, commissioned the construction of the tower at Chittorgarh Fort to celebrate his victory over the joint forces of Malwa and Gujarat, led by Mahmud Khilji, in the Battle of Sarangpur in 1437. Built between 1440 and 1448, the monument is a nine-story structure that stands as a symbol of Mewar military prowess and architectural heritage. Although widely known as the Vijay Stambha or Tower of Victory, it is also historically identified as a Kirtistambha or Tower of Fame dedicated to Lord Vishnu. The tower is adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures representing various Hindu deities and mythological scenes, showcasing the refined craftsmanship of the 15th century. Rana Kumbha was a significant patron of art and literature, and this monument remains one of his most important architectural legacies.
30History
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Delhi - Tomb of Abdur-Rahim Khan-i-khanan
Explanation
The Tomb of Abdur-Rahim Khan-i-khanan is situated in the Nizamuddin area of Delhi. Abdur-Rahim was a prominent military commander and one of the Navratnas (nine gems) in the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar, known for his prowess in both warfare and poetry. He constructed this tomb in 1598 for his wife, Mah Banu, and was later interred there himself following his death in 1627. The structure is architecturally significant as it was the first Mughal tomb built for a woman and served as a major stylistic precursor to the Taj Mahal, specifically in its use of a double dome and marble facing on its central facade.
31Art and Culture
Choose the correct pair
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Answer: (D) Khajuraho - Chandelas
Explanation
The Khajuraho group of temples in Madhya Pradesh was commissioned and built by the rulers of the Chandela dynasty between 950 and 1050 AD. These monuments represent the peak of the Nagara style of temple architecture in Central India and are famous for their intricate sculptures and architectural grandeur. The Chandelas, who ruled over the region then known as Jejakabhukti (modern-day Bundelkhand), constructed these shrines dedicated to both Hindu and Jain traditions. Prominent kings like Yashovarman and Dhanga played major roles in the creation of these structures, including the famous Lakshmana and Kandariya Mahadeva temples.
32History
The three age system - Stone, Bronze and Iron from the collection of Copenhagen museum was coined by
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Answer: (A) Thomson
Explanation
Christian Jurgensen Thomsen, a Danish antiquarian, developed the Three-Age System in the early 19th century while organizing the archaeological collections at the Royal Museum of Northern Antiquities in Copenhagen. In 1836, he published his chronological classification in a guidebook titled Ledetraad til Nordisk Oldkyndighed, where he proposed that human prehistory could be divided into successive stages based on the primary materials used for tools and weapons: the Stone Age, the Bronze Age, and the Iron Age. His method utilized the principle of seriation and technological progression, providing a foundational framework for modern archaeology and the systematic study of prehistoric periods.
33History
The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of Param Bhagawata was
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Answer: (C) Chandragupta II
Explanation
Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, was the first Gupta monarch to officially adopt the title of Param Bhagawata, signifying a supreme devotee of Lord Vishnu. This title marks the definitive shift of the Gupta dynasty towards Vaishnavism as their primary religious identity. Evidence for this title is found extensively in his gold coinage and various inscriptions, such as those found on the Mehrauli Iron Pillar. During his reign, the royal seal of the Guptas prominently featured the Garuda, the mythical bird and vehicle of Vishnu, further cementing the association between the imperial authority and the Bhagawata sect of Hinduism.
34Art and Culture
Payaniya was a school of
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Answer: (B) Jainism
Explanation
The Yapaniya (also referred to as Payaniya or Japaniya) was a significant school of Jainism that flourished in South India, particularly in the Karnataka region, from the early medieval period until the 14th century. This sect is noted for its syncretic nature, incorporating elements from both the Digambara and Svetambara traditions. For instance, like the Digambaras, Yapaniya monks practiced ritual nudity and used the peacock-feather whisk. Conversely, they aligned with Svetambara doctrines by accepting their canonical scriptures and affirming that women are capable of attaining spiritual liberation in the same lifetime. The school received substantial royal patronage from dynasties such as the Kadambas and the Western Gangas before eventually being absorbed into the larger Digambara community.
35Art and Culture
Who had composed the 'Gita Govinda'?
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Answer: (C) Jayadeva
Explanation
Jayadeva was a celebrated 12th-century Sanskrit poet who composed the Gita Govinda, a foundational work of the Bhakti movement. The poem vividly describes the relationship and divine love between Lord Krishna and Radha, structured into twelve chapters and twenty-four songs known as Ashtapadis. Jayadeva served as one of the five gems (Pancha Ratnas) in the court of King Lakshmana Sena of the Sena dynasty in Bengal. His work had a profound influence on Indian classical music, dance traditions like Odissi, and the development of the Radha-Krishna cult in Vaishnavism.
36Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Builders):
(A) Alai Darwaja
(B) Buland
(C) Moti Masjid
(D) Moti Masjid
List-II (Monuments):
1. Alauddin Delhi khalji
2. Akbar Darwaja Fatehpur Sikri
3. Shahjahan Agra
4. Aurangzeb Delhi
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3
Explanation
The Alai Darwaja matches with Alauddin Khalji as it is the southern gateway to the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque built by him in Delhi in 1311. The Buland Darwaja matches with Akbar because he constructed this massive gateway at Fatehpur Sikri to celebrate his victory in Gujarat. The Moti Masjid in Agra matches with Shah Jahan who built it inside the Agra Fort for the members of the royal court. The Moti Masjid in Delhi matches with Aurangzeb as he built this private mosque inside the Red Fort for his personal use.
37History
Which medieval King of India introduced the Iqkta system ?
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Answer: (A) Ilutumish
Explanation
Shamsuddin Iltutmish institutionalized the Iqta system to provide a stable administrative and military foundation for the Delhi Sultanate. By dividing the empire into territorial units called Iqtas, he assigned these lands to his officers and nobles in lieu of cash salaries. The holders of these grants, known as Iqtadars or Muqtis, were responsible for collecting revenue from the peasants, maintaining law and order, and providing a specified number of troops to the Sultan during times of war. This arrangement allowed Iltutmish to centralize authority and manage the vast territories of northern India effectively, as it linked the military hierarchy directly to the agrarian economy and ensured a steady supply of soldiers for the state without draining the central treasury.
38Art and Culture
Which musical instrument was played by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb?
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Answer: (C) Veena
Explanation
Historical chronicles from the Mughal period, such as the Muntakhab-al-Lubab, record that Emperor Aurangzeb was a highly skilled player of the Veena. Although he is frequently associated with the prohibition of music in the imperial court due to his increasing religious orthodoxy, this ban primarily targeted public performances and the official state sponsorship of musicians. In his personal life, Aurangzeb maintained a significant interest in the technical aspects of Indian classical music and was recognized by contemporary historians as an expert in playing the Veena, an instrument that held a prestigious place in the musical traditions of the Mughal elite.
39History
The author of the book India Divided was
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Answer: (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of Independent India, wrote India Divided in 1946. The book provides a detailed analysis of the communal problem in India and serves as a direct critique of the two-nation theory and the proposal for the partition of the country. Writing during the period of intense political negotiations leading up to independence, Prasad utilized historical evidence and statistical data to argue that Hindus and Muslims shared a common heritage and that their economic and political interests were inextricably linked. The work systematically examines the arguments for the creation of Pakistan and suggests that a unified India would be more stable and prosperous for all its citizens.
40Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Works):
(A) Bankim
(B) Michael
(C) Ravindra
(D) Sarojini
List-II (Authors):
1. Anand Math Chandra Chatterji
2. Captive Lady Madhusudan Das
3. Gora Nath Tagore
4. The Broken Naidu Wing
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3
Explanation
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay authored the celebrated political novel Anand Math in 1882, which became a vital inspiration for the Indian independence movement. Michael Madhusudan Dutt, a significant figure in the Bengal Renaissance, wrote the English narrative poem The Captive Lady based on the story of Prithviraj Chauhan and Sanyogita. Rabindranath Tagore, the Nobel laureate, wrote Gora, a complex novel exploring religious identity and nationalism in late 19th-century Bengal. Sarojini Naidu, the prolific poet and political leader, published the collection of poems titled The Broken Wing: Songs of Love, Death and the Spring in 1917. These works represent key literary contributions from the colonial era, reflecting both vernacular and English literary traditions in India.
41History
Which among the following organisations supported the Suddhi movement?
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Answer: (A) Arya Samaj
Explanation
The Suddhi movement was a socio-political initiative launched by the Arya Samaj and its founder, Swami Dayananda Saraswati, in the late 19th century. Its primary objective was the reconversion of Hindus who had previously converted to other religions, such as Islam or Christianity, back into the Hindu fold. By performing purification rituals based on Vedic principles, the Arya Samaj sought to provide a structured mechanism for returning to Hinduism, which was traditionally a non-proselytizing religion. This movement was part of a larger effort by the Arya Samaj to promote social reform, emphasize the supreme authority of the Vedas, and foster a sense of religious and national unity among Hindus in colonial India.
42History
With which Uprising is Mangal Pandey associated?
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Answer: (A) Barrackpur
Explanation
Mangal Pandey was a sepoy in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry stationed at the Barrackpur cantonment near Calcutta. On March 29, 1857, he initiated an open act of rebellion against the British East India Company by attacking his superior officers, Lieutenant Baugh and Sergeant-Major Hewson. This defiance was sparked by the introduction of the new Enfield rifle cartridges, which were rumored to be greased with animal fats that violated the religious beliefs of the Indian soldiers. His actions at Barrackpur served as a critical precursor to the wider Indian Rebellion of 1857. Following his arrest and a subsequent court-martial, he was executed at the Barrackpur parade ground on April 8, 1857, forever linking his name to the uprising at this specific location.
43Polity and Governance
The institution of local self government got a fillip during the Viceroyalty of
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Answer: (B) Lord Ripon
Explanation
Lord Ripon is widely regarded as the Father of Local Self-Government in India due to his landmark Resolution of 1882. He viewed the development of local self-government primarily as an instrument of political and popular education rather than a mere tool for administrative efficiency. His reforms aimed to establish a network of local boards in both urban and rural areas, such as district boards and taluka boards, which were to have a majority of non-official members. Ripon advocated for these members to be elected wherever possible and proposed that the chairpersons of these bodies should be non-officials. This shift in policy laid the structural foundation for modern municipal governance and rural local bodies in India by decentralizing administrative powers and encouraging public participation in local affairs.
44History
In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger strike as a weapon?
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Answer: (C) Ahmedabad Strike
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi used the hunger strike as a political weapon for the first time during the Ahmedabad Mill Strike in March 1918. The conflict arose over a dispute between cotton mill owners and workers regarding the discontinuation of the plague bonus. Gandhi organized the workers and advised them to strike for a 35 percent wage increase. To strengthen the resolve of the workers when their enthusiasm started to flag and to pressure the mill owners to accept arbitration, Gandhi undertook a fast. This successful intervention resulted in the mill owners agreeing to the workers' demands after three days of his hunger strike.
45History
Put the following events in chronological order and choose your answer with the help of given code:
1. Formation of an interim Government
2. The arrival of the Cabinet Mission
3. Muslim League launches Direct Action
4. Jinnah's wrecking of the Shimla Conference
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Answer: (B) 4 2 3 1
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these events begins with the Shimla Conference in June 1945, which ended in failure because Muhammad Ali Jinnah insisted that the Muslim League should have the exclusive right to nominate Muslim members to the Viceroy Executive Council. The Cabinet Mission arrived in India later on March 24, 1946, to negotiate the transfer of power with Indian leaders. In response to political developments and the Cabinet Mission Plan, the Muslim League launched Direct Action Day on August 16, 1946, to assert its demand for a separate state of Pakistan. Shortly after, the Interim Government of India was officially formed on September 2, 1946, with Jawaharlal Nehru serving as the Vice-President of the Executive Council.
46History
Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot?
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Answer: (A) in Yervada Jail
Explanation
During the Civil Disobedience Movement, Mahatma Gandhi planned a non-violent raid on the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat. However, he was arrested by the British authorities on the night of May 4-5, 1930, at Karadi near Dandi, before the raid could take place. Following his arrest under Regulation XXV of 1827, he was interned in Yerwada Central Jail in Poona without trial. In his absence, the leadership of the Dharasana Satyagraha was initially taken up by Abbas Tyabji and subsequently by Sarojini Naidu, who led the volunteers in the famous protest on May 21, 1930, while Gandhi remained in custody at Yerwada.
47History
Who out of the following had told Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes ?
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi advocated for the boycott and public burning of foreign cloth as a vital component of the Non-Cooperation Movement. He viewed the destruction of foreign garments not as a waste of material, but as a symbolic act of rejection of British economic exploitation and a necessary step toward national self-purification. Gandhi believed that by destroying foreign clothes, Indians could break their psychological and economic dependence on British mills, thereby creating a space for the growth of the indigenous Khadi industry. To him, this method was the most effective way to express the nation's collective will for Swaraj and to foster a sense of dignity and self-reliance among the masses.
48HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Jhansi
(B) Lucknow
(C) Kanpur
(D) Faizabad
List-II:
1. Moulavi Ahmad Shah
2. Azimullah Khan
3. Begum Hazrat Mahal
4. Rani Laxmi Bai
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Answer: (A) 4, 3, 2
Explanation
Jhansi matches with Rani Laxmi Bai (4) because she led the revolt there after the British annexed the state via the Doctrine of Lapse. Lucknow matches with Begum Hazrat Mahal (3) as she headed the uprising on behalf of her young son after the deposition of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah. Kanpur matches with Azimullah Khan (2) because he was the chief advisor and loyal associate of the rebel leader Nana Saheb. Faizabad matches with Moulavi Ahmad Shah (1), who was a prominent leader of the 1857 resistance in that district.
49History
Match the peasant revolts of the 19th century with their respective areas:
List-I (Revolt):
(A) Kuki revolt
(B) Kuka revolt
(C) Pabna Peasant revolt
(D) Birsa Munda
List-II (Area):
1. Punjab
2. Bengal
3. Bihar
4. Tripura
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Answer: (D) 4, 1, 2
Explanation
The Kuki revolt took place in the Manipur and Tripura hills between 1917 and 1919, where tribal groups resisted the British colonial administration's attempts to recruit them for the Labor Corps during the First World War. The Kuka movement was a socio-religious and political uprising in Punjab that began in the mid-19th century under the leadership of Bhagat Jawahar Mal and later Baba Ram Singh, aiming to restore Sikh sovereignty. The Pabna Peasant revolt occurred in the 1870s in the Pabna district of Bengal, where tenant farmers formed an agrarian league to resist the illegal rent hikes and oppressive tactics of the zamindars. Birsa Munda led the Munda Ulgulan in the late 19th century in the Chotanagpur region of Bihar to reclaim tribal land rights and resist the encroachment of non-tribal settlers and British officials.
50History
With which one of the following movements was Aruna Asaf Ali associated?
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Answer: (D) Quit India Movement
Explanation
Aruna Asaf Ali gained significant prominence for her courageous role during the Quit India Movement of 1942. Following the arrest of major Congress leaders on August 9, 1942, she presided over the remainder of the session at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay and unfurled the Indian National Flag, which served as a signal for the commencement of the movement. Throughout the struggle, she remained an active member of the underground resistance, evading police capture while organizing protests and publishing the journal Inquilab to mobilize the masses against British colonial rule. Her leadership during this critical period earned her the title of the Heroine of the 1942 Movement.
51Art and Culture
Which one of the followings is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Sudha Murthy - The Story of My Life
Explanation
The Story of My Life is the title of the famous autobiography of Helen Keller, first published in 1903, which documents her early life and her education under Anne Sullivan. Another notable work with the same title is the autobiography of former Indian Prime Minister Morarji Desai. Sudha Murthy is a prolific Indian author known for her collections of short stories and novels such as Wise and Otherwise, Dollar Bahu, and Gently Falls the Bakula, but she did not write a book titled The Story of My Life.
52History
Assertion (A): The Congress boycotted the Simon Commission. Reason (R): The Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member. In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission, was appointed by the British government in 1927 to report on the functioning of the constitutional reforms established by the Government of India Act 1919. The commission consisted of seven members of the British Parliament, led by Sir John Simon, but it did not include a single Indian member. This exclusion was perceived by Indian political leaders as a deliberate insult and a denial of the right of Indians to participate in the framing of their own constitution. Consequently, the Indian National Congress, at its Madras session in 1927 presided over by Dr. M.A. Ansari, passed a resolution to boycott the commission at every stage and in every form. The absence of Indian representation was the fundamental reason why the Congress and other major political groups organized nationwide protests and hartals under the slogan Simon Go Back.
53History
Who among the following was not associated with the Home Rule Movement?
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Answer: (A) C.R. Das
Explanation
Chittaranjan Das, famously known as Deshbandhu, was a prominent lawyer and nationalist leader whose most significant contributions occurred during the 1920s. He rose to national leadership during the Non-Cooperation Movement and is best remembered for co-founding the Swaraj Party in 1923 alongside Motilal Nehru. His political strategy focused on entering the legislative councils to oppose British policies from within, a phase of nationalist politics that followed the peak of the Home Rule agitation. He did not hold a leadership position or play a major organizational role in the Home Rule Movement that was active between 1916 and 1918.
54History
Read the following events connected with Indian National Movement and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below:
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Amritsar Session of the Indian National Congress
3. Rowlatt Act
4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
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Answer: (A) 1 3 4 2
Explanation
The Home Rule Movement was initiated in 1916 by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak to demand self-rule within the British Empire. Following this, the Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919, providing the colonial government with extraordinary powers to suppress political activities through detention without trial. The widespread protests against this legislation culminated in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, where a peaceful gathering in Amritsar was attacked by British troops. Later, in December 1919, the Amritsar Session of the Indian National Congress was convened under the presidency of Motilal Nehru to formally condemn the massacre and discuss the ongoing political crisis.
55History
The official historian of India's struggle for independence was
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Answer: (D) S.N. Sen
Explanation
Dr. Surendra Nath Sen was appointed by the Government of India to write the official history of the 1857 uprising to mark its centenary. His book, titled Eighteen Fifty-Seven, was published in 1957. Sen was chosen for this task after the government sought a balanced and objective historical account of the rebellion. His work provides a comprehensive narrative of the events and the diverse motivations behind the uprising. The publication included a foreword by the then Education Minister, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, which further established its status as the officially sanctioned historical record of this significant struggle for independence.
56History
Which one of the following had supported the non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots?
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Answer: (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation
Bal Gangadhar Tilak passed away on August 1, 1920, which was the same day the Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi. Although Tilak had expressed his support for the movement and the concept of non-cooperation during the preliminary discussions and meetings of the Indian National Congress, his death occurred at the very start of the agitation. As a result, he could not witness the widespread mass mobilization, the various phases of the struggle, or the eventual results and termination of the movement in 1922.
57Polity and Governance
The Ninth Lok Sabha had been dissolved on
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Answer: (A) March 13, 1991
Explanation
The 9th Lok Sabha (1989-91) was dissolved on March 13, 1991 by President R. Venkataraman. The dissolution came after the minority V.P. Singh government fell in November 1990 following the Mandal Commission controversy and the Ayodhya crisis, and the subsequent Chandra Shekhar government lost confidence. Fresh elections were held in May-June 1991, during which former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated on May 21, 1991, before the 10th Lok Sabha could be constituted.
58Polity and Governance
Provision regarding Panchayats and Municipalities was made in the Indian Constitution in which year?
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Answer: (D) 1993
Explanation
The provisions for Panchayats and Municipalities were incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992. These amendments granted constitutional status to local self-government institutions in India. Although the acts were passed in 1992, they were officially implemented in 1993. The 73rd Amendment Act, which introduced Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule for Panchayati Raj Institutions, came into force on April 24, 1993. Similarly, the 74th Amendment Act, which added Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule for Municipalities, came into effect on June 1, 1993.
59Polity and Governance
The function of the Pro-Tem Speaker is to
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Answer: (B) swear in members.
Explanation
The Pro-Tem Speaker is a temporary Speaker appointed by the President of India under Article 95(1) or the Governor of a State under Article 180(1) to preside over the first meeting of a newly elected House. The primary responsibility of the Pro-Tem Speaker is to administer the oath or affirmation to the newly elected members as required by Article 99 for Parliament or Article 188 for State Legislatures. This enables the members to officially take their seats and participate in the proceedings of the House. Additionally, the Pro-Tem Speaker presides over the sitting in which the House elects its permanent Speaker, after which the office of the Pro-Tem Speaker automatically ceases to exist.
60Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The expenses of Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh are charged upon
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Answer: (B) Consolidated Fund of State
Explanation
According to Article 322 of the Constitution of India, the expenses of a State Public Service Commission, which include the salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to the members and staff of the Commission, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State. The term charged implies that these expenditures are not subject to the annual vote of the State Legislative Assembly, a provision designed to ensure the financial independence and autonomy of the Commission. As the Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh is a state-level constitutional body, its entire administrative expenditure is met directly from the Consolidated Fund of Uttar Pradesh.
61Polity and Governance
The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your answer from the given code.
1. Haryana
2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland
4. Meghalaya
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Nagaland was created on December 1, 1963, becoming the 16th state of the Indian Union. Haryana was formed on November 1, 1966, after being carved out of the state of Punjab following the Punjab Reorganisation Act. Meghalaya, which had previously functioned as an autonomous state within Assam since 1970, attained full statehood on January 21, 1972. Sikkim officially joined as the 22nd state of India on May 16, 1975, following the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. This timeline establishes the ascending chronological sequence of formation as Nagaland (3), Haryana (1), Meghalaya (4), and Sikkim (2).
62Polity and Governance
The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices restricted the scope of which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Adjournment motion
Explanation
The Calling Attention Notice is an Indian parliamentary innovation introduced in 1954 to allow members to bring matters of urgent public importance to the notice of the Minister concerned. Before this procedure was established, members frequently resorted to Adjournment Motions to raise such issues. Since an Adjournment Motion is a specialized device that interrupts the scheduled business of the House and carries an element of censure against the government, its use is generally discouraged for routine matters of urgency. The introduction of the Calling Attention Notice provided a middle-way procedural device that allows for a statement from the Minister and brief clarifications without the need for a vote or the interruption of the day's agenda. Consequently, it restricted the scope of Adjournment Motions by providing a less disruptive alternative for discussing urgent public affairs.
63Polity and Governance
Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court?
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Answer: (C) Prohibition
Explanation
The writ of Prohibition is a preventive judicial remedy issued by a superior court to a lower court or a quasi-judicial body to stop it from continuing proceedings that exceed its jurisdiction or violate the principles of natural justice. This writ is specifically issued during the pendency of proceedings, acting as a stay order to prevent the lower tribunal from exercising authority it does not possess. Because its objective is to forestall an illegal act or an ultra vires decision before it occurs, it can only be applied while the case is still active and before a final judgment has been delivered.
64Polity and Governance
The word 'Secularism' was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
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Answer: (B) 42nd Amendment
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often referred to as the Mini-Constitution, introduced the most comprehensive changes to the Indian Constitution since its inception. This amendment modified the Preamble to include three new words: Secular, Socialist, and Integrity. By adding the term Secular, the amendment explicitly codified the principle that the State protects all religions equally and does not uphold any religion as the state religion. While the Indian Constitution was already secular in character through its Fundamental Rights, specifically Articles 25 to 28, this amendment made that commitment an express part of the basic structure defined in the Preamble.
65Polity and Governance
In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (C) Estimates Committee
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the Indian Parliament, consisting of 30 members who are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. It was first established in the post-independence era in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then Finance Minister. The primary function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest economies in public expenditure, which is why it is often referred to as a continuous economy committee. Because the Constitution grants the Lok Sabha exclusive power over financial matters and the voting of demands for grants, the membership of this particular committee is kept exclusively for the representatives of the Lower House.
66Polity and Governance
In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist Government was established?
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Answer: (C) Kerala
Explanation
The first Communist government in an Indian state was established in Kerala following the 1957 Legislative Assembly elections. The Communist Party of India (CPI) emerged as the single largest party by winning 60 seats and secured the support of five independent candidates to form a majority in the 126-member house. On April 5, 1957, E.M.S. Namboodiripad was sworn in as the Chief Minister, marking the first time a Communist party gained power through democratic parliamentary elections in India. This government is historically significant for initiating major land and educational reforms during its tenure, which lasted until its dismissal in 1959.
67Economy
Which of the following statements is not true the Indian Economy?
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Answer: (B) The share of service sector in India's GDP is only 25%
Explanation
By 2010, the service sector had become the dominant component of the Indian economy, contributing significantly more than a quarter of the national output. According to the Economic Survey data from that period, the share of the service sector in India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost was approximately 57.3% for the fiscal year 2009-10. This sector, which includes sub-sectors such as trade, hotels, transport, communication, financing, insurance, real estate, and business services, had consistently grown faster than the agriculture and industry sectors since the liberalization reforms of the 1990s. Consequently, characterizing its contribution as only 25% is factually inaccurate for the contemporary economic landscape of that time.
68Economy
Which of the following provides the largest credit to agriculture and allied sectors?
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Answer: (C) Commercial Banks
Explanation
Commercial Banks provide the largest volume of credit to the agriculture and allied sectors due to their extensive branch network and significant capital resources. Under the Priority Sector Lending guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial Banks are mandated to direct 18 percent of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit to the agricultural sector. As of 2010, statistical data from NABARD and the RBI indicated that Commercial Banks accounted for approximately 70 percent of the total institutional credit flow to agriculture. This dominance is the result of systematic branch expansion in rural and semi-urban areas following bank nationalization, combined with a larger deposit base that allows for higher lending capacities compared to other institutional agencies. Commercial Banks play a pivotal role in providing both short-term crop loans and long-term investment credit for activities like irrigation, land development, and farm mechanization.
69Economy
Who had suggested an imposition of 'expenditure tax' in India for the first time?
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Answer: (B) Kaldor
Explanation
Nicholas Kaldor, a prominent British economist, first suggested the imposition of an expenditure tax in India. In 1956, the Government of India invited Kaldor to conduct a comprehensive review of the Indian tax system and suggest reforms to mobilize resources for the Second Five-Year Plan. In his report, titled Indian Tax Reform: Report of a Survey, Kaldor argued that an expenditure tax would be more effective than an income tax in discouraging luxury consumption and encouraging savings and investment. Following his recommendations, the Expenditure Tax Act was enacted in 1957, although the tax was later abolished and reintroduced at various intervals in Indian fiscal history.
70Economy
In the 11th Five Year Plan, which of the following sectors accounts for maximum combined Central, State and U.T. expenditure?
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Answer: (D) Social sector
Explanation
The 11th Five Year Plan, spanning from 2007 to 2012, adopted the core theme of Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth. To fulfill this mandate, the plan allocated the largest share of combined resources from the Center, States, and Union Territories to the Social Sector. This broad category includes vital areas such as education, public health, water supply, sanitation, and rural housing. The projected outlay for Social Services amounted to approximately 30.2 percent of the total public sector expenditure, reflecting a strategic shift toward human resource development and poverty alleviation. This prioritisation was evidenced by the massive funding directed toward flagship schemes like the National Rural Health Mission, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, and the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, ensuring that social infrastructure received more investment than physical infrastructure sectors like energy or transport.
71Economy
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act became effective in
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Answer: (C) 2006
Explanation
The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005, received the President's assent in June 2005. The Act and the Special Economic Zones Rules, 2006, were formally notified by the Government of India and came into force on February 10, 2006. This implementation established a comprehensive legal and regulatory framework to facilitate the creation of SEZs as duty-free enclaves for promoting exports and attracting foreign direct investment.
72Economy
National Renewal Fund was constituted for the purpose of
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Answer: (D) restructuring and modernisation of industries.
Explanation
The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established by the Government of India in February 1992 as a safety net for workers during the transition phase of the New Economic Policy. Its primary objective was to provide assistance for the costs of retraining and redeployment of employees resulting from the modernization, technological upgrading, and restructuring of industrial units. It specifically addressed the needs of workers in the public sector who were affected by the closure of sick units or structural changes, financing compensation packages like the Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS) to facilitate the industrial exit policy without causing severe social hardship.
73Economy
An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India results in
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Answer: (B) reduction in liquidity in the economy.
Explanation
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a mandatory percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained as liquid cash with the Reserve Bank of India. When the RBI increases the CRR, commercial banks are required to park a larger portion of their deposits with the central bank. This action directly drains the loanable funds available within the banking system, leaving banks with less capital to extend as credit to consumers and businesses. Consequently, this contraction in the money supply leads to a significant reduction in the overall liquidity within the economy, acting as a tool to curb inflationary pressures by making credit more expensive and less available.
74Economy
If interest payment is added to primary deficit, it is equivalent to
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Fiscal deficit
Explanation
The relationship between the fiscal deficit and the primary deficit is defined by the following formula:
The fiscal deficit indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources to bridge the gap between total expenditure and non-debt receipts. The primary deficit is a sub-component that measures the fiscal deficit excluding the interest liabilities incurred on past borrowings. Therefore, adding interest payments to the primary deficit accounts for the total resource gap, which is represented by the fiscal deficit.
75Economy
The headquarter of R.B.I. is situated at
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Answer: (C) Mumbai
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. While the Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Kolkata, it was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937. This office is where the Governor sits and where the bank's policies are formulated. As the central bank of the country, its Mumbai headquarters serves as the primary administrative and decision-making hub for managing India's monetary policy, foreign exchange reserves, and banking regulations.
76Economy
Consider the following statements and state which is/are correct?
1. The sub-prime crisis which hit the U.S. economy was caused by sudden increase in oil prices.
2. The crisis led to default in home loan repayment.
3. It led to failure of some U.S. banks
4. Sub prime crisis caused crash in Indian Stock Market
Choose your answer from given code.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The sub-prime crisis was primarily driven by the mass default of home loan repayments in the United States as the housing bubble burst and interest rates began to climb. These defaults severely impacted the balance sheets of financial institutions that held mortgage-backed securities, leading to the collapse or federal takeover of several prominent U.S. banks and investment firms. Furthermore, the ensuing global financial instability caused a rapid exit of capital from emerging markets as investors sought safer assets. This capital flight resulted in a dramatic crash of the Indian stock market, with the BSE Sensex losing approximately half its value during the height of the crisis in 2008.
77Economy
Open-market operations of Reserve Bank of India refer to
● Correct
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Answer: (A) trading in securities
Explanation
Open Market Operations (OMO) refer to the conduct of activities by the Reserve Bank of India involving the purchase and sale of government securities in the open market. This is a primary tool used by the central bank to regulate the volume of money and liquidity in the banking system. When the RBI purchases government securities, it injects liquidity into the economy by providing cash to the sellers, thereby increasing the money supply. Conversely, when the RBI sells these securities, it absorbs excess liquidity from the market, reducing the money supply to control inflationary pressures. These operations are conducted through the secondary market and are an essential component of the RBI's monetary policy framework to achieve economic stability and manage interest rates.
78Polity and Governance
Mid-day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by
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Answer: (D) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Explanation
The Mid-day Meal Scheme, officially known as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education, was launched in 1995 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It is managed at the union level by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, specifically through the Department of School Education and Literacy. The ministry provides the primary policy framework and a major share of the financing, including the provision of free food grains and subsidies for cooking costs, transportation, and infrastructure. While State Governments are responsible for the actual execution at the ground level, the central ministry oversees the allocation of funds and monitors the program's impact on improving the nutritional status of children and increasing school enrollment and retention rates nationwide.
79Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Space Based Solar Power (SBSP), it is suggested be made a national goal.
Reason (R): Supply of SBSP is 99% uninterrupted throughout the year, besides the enormity of energy availability.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Space-Based Solar Power (SBSP) involves placing solar energy collectors in Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) to capture solar radiation and transmit it to Earth via microwaves or lasers. This technology has been advocated as a strategic national goal, most notably by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, to address long-term energy security and sustainability. The reason for this priority is the physical advantage of the orbital environment; a satellite in GEO is exposed to the sun's rays for approximately 99% of the year. Unlike Earth-based solar panels, SBSP systems are not restricted by the day-night cycle, seasonal changes, or atmospheric obstructions like cloud cover and rain. The resulting capacity to provide near-continuous, high-intensity baseload power makes the enormous energy potential of space a compelling justification for establishing SBSP as a primary national objective.
80EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements:
1. The crop insurance scheme in India was started in the year 1985.
2. The total number of agro climatic zone in U.P. is 9.
3. Food for work programme was started in the year 1977.
4. Blue revolution is concerned with production of mustard.
Of these statements:
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Answer: (D) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Explanation
The Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS) was institutionalized in India in 1985 to protect farmers against crop loss due to natural calamities, marking the beginning of organized crop insurance in the country. Uttar Pradesh is divided into 9 distinct agro-climatic zones, including the Western Plain, Central Plain, Bundelkhand, and Eastern Plain, based on variations in soil, rainfall, and temperature. The Food for Work Programme was launched in 1977-78 to provide food grains as wages to the rural poor in exchange for labor on public works projects, aimed at poverty alleviation and infrastructure creation. The Blue Revolution specifically targets the growth of the aquaculture and fisheries sector, while the production of mustard and oilseeds is categorized under the Yellow Revolution.
81Economy
Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions ?
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Answer: (A) Oil seeds
Explanation
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007 during the 11th Five Year Plan with the specific objective of increasing the production of three major food crops: rice, wheat, and pulses. The mission aimed to bridge the yield gap through the dissemination of improved technologies and farm management practices. Oilseeds were not included in this mission because they were covered under a separate existing framework known as the Integrated Scheme of Oilseeds, Pulses, Oil Palm and Maize (ISOPOM), which had been operational since 2004 to handle the specific requirements of oilseed production and diversification.
82Economy
The minimum percentage of population below the poverty limit is recorded in
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Answer: (D) Goa
Explanation
According to the official poverty estimates released by the Planning Commission based on the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) 61st round data for 2004-05, Goa recorded the lowest percentage of population below the poverty line in India. Using the Uniform Recall Period (URP) methodology, which was the standard measurement at the time, Goa's poverty ratio was approximately 4.4 percent. This low incidence of poverty is primarily attributed to the state's high per capita income, robust economic performance in the tourism and mining sectors, and superior social infrastructure. During the period leading up to 2010, Goa maintained its status as the state with the highest level of economic prosperity and the minimum proportion of citizens living in absolute poverty.
83Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States of India has the highest rural literacy rate?
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Answer: (C) Goa
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, which was the authoritative source of demographic data available in 2010, Goa recorded a rural literacy rate of approximately 79.7 percent. This figure was the highest among the options provided, surpassing the rural literacy rates of Maharashtra, Manipur, and Gujarat. Goa's high performance in this metric is attributed to its compact geography, well-distributed network of schools, and high investment in social infrastructure, which ensured that educational facilities were accessible to the population residing outside urban centers.
84Geography
Which one of the following is the most important factor responsible for decline of biodiversity?
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Answer: (C) Destruction of habitat
Explanation
Habitat destruction is the primary driver of biodiversity loss globally. As natural landscapes are converted for agriculture, urban development, and industrial use, the essential resources that species require for survival—such as food, shelter, and breeding grounds—are eliminated. This process often leads to habitat fragmentation, where remaining natural areas become small and isolated, preventing the movement of species and reducing their genetic resilience. Because every organism depends on a specific environment to sustain its life cycle, the physical removal or degradation of that environment inevitably leads to population declines and eventual extinction, making it more impactful than other anthropogenic factors.
85Geography
As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India claim a share of the total urban population of
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Answer: (D) 62.32%
Explanation
According to the Census of India 2001, urban settlements are categorized into six classes based on their population size. Class I cities are defined as those urban agglomerations or towns that have a population of 1,00,000 or more.
The total urban population of India in 2001 was approximately 286.12 million. The population residing specifically within the 393 Class I cities and urban agglomerations was approximately 178.32 million. The percentage share of the total urban population residing in Class I cities is calculated as follows:
Share = (Population of Class I Cities)/(Total Urban Population) × 100
Share = 178,321,574/286,119,689 × 100 = 62.32%
This data indicates a high degree of population concentration in large urban centers, reflecting the "top-heavy" nature of India's urban structure during that period. Despite the existence of thousands of smaller towns across the other five categories, more than three-fifths of all urban residents lived in Class I cities.
86Geography
Today the largest contributor to carbon dioxide (CO) emissions is
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
China became the world leading emitter of carbon dioxide in 2006, overtaking the United States due to its rapid industrial growth and heavy reliance on coal-fired power plants. During the decade leading up to 2010, China experienced unprecedented economic expansion, which necessitated a massive increase in energy consumption. Because coal accounts for a significant portion of China's energy mix, the carbon intensity of its economic development remained high. By 2010, China's annual CO₂ emissions had reached nearly 8.3 billion tonnes, solidified by its position as the global hub for manufacturing and heavy industry.
87Geography
Assertion (A): River Damodar was known as River of Sorrow in West Bengal prior to the development of the Damodar Valley Corporation. Reason (R): Damodar in its upper reaches flows rapidly and in its lower reaches it runs too sluggishly. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
The Damodar River earned the epithet River of Sorrow due to the frequent and catastrophic floods it unleashed upon the plains of West Bengal before the implementation of the Damodar Valley Corporation project in 1948. The primary hydrological cause for these floods is the dramatic change in the river's gradient. In its upper reaches within the Chota Nagpur Plateau, the steep terrain ensures a rapid and high-velocity flow during the monsoon. However, upon entering the flat deltaic plains of West Bengal, the gradient becomes extremely gentle, causing the river to become sluggish. This sudden reduction in velocity leads to the deposition of silt and the inability of the river channel to contain the massive volume of water descending from the highlands, resulting in widespread overtopping of banks and flooding.
88Economy
Which megacity of India generates the largest solid waste per capita annually?
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Answer: (C) Delhi
Explanation
Based on environmental reports and surveys conducted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) leading up to 2010, Delhi recorded the highest per capita municipal solid waste generation among Indian megacities. The per capita waste generation in Delhi was estimated to be between 0.5 kg and 0.6 kg per day, a figure that reflected the city's high levels of consumption and economic prosperity. As the national capital and a major commercial hub, Delhi's waste stream contained a higher proportion of paper, plastic, and packaging materials compared to other cities. The intense urbanization and the presence of a large daily floating population further inflated the per capita metrics reported in urban development statistics during this period.
89Geography
In which one of the following States is Suil river project located?
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Answer: (D) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
The Suil river project, primarily known as the Baira-Siul Hydroelectric Power Station, is located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a significant run-of-the-river scheme that utilizes the combined flow of three tributaries of the Ravi River: the Baira, the Siul, and the Bhaledh. Commissioned in 1981, it was the first project to be undertaken and operated by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC). The project infrastructure includes diversion dams on all three streams and a network of tunnels that transport the water to a central powerhouse to generate electricity for the northern grid.
90Geography
Which one of the following lakes has been recently included under National Lake Conservation Project?
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Answer: (A) Bhimtal
Explanation
Bhimtal Lake, situated in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, was included under the National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP) to facilitate its ecological restoration and management. The NLCP is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment and Forests aimed at the conservation of polluted and degraded lakes in urban and semi-urban areas. The conservation program for Bhimtal focused on critical interventions such as the treatment of the catchment area, desilting of the lake bed, and the installation of sewerage systems to prevent the discharge of untreated waste into the water body, thereby improving its water quality and preserving the local ecosystem.
91Geography
Where is the wild ass sanctuary?
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Answer: (C) Gujarat
Explanation
The Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is situated in the Little Rann of Kutch in the state of Gujarat. Established in 1972, it covers an area of nearly 5,000 square kilometers, making it one of the largest wildlife sanctuaries in the country. It is the only place on Earth where the Indian Wild Ass, locally called Khur, can be found in its natural habitat. The sanctuary consists of a vast saline desert landscape interspersed with upland plateaus known as bets, which support the stunted grass and vegetation necessary for the survival of this subspecies of the Asiatic wild ass.
92Geography
Jhooming is practised by
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Answer: (B) The Khasis
Explanation
Jhooming, commonly known as shifting cultivation or slash-and-burn agriculture, is a traditional farming technique predominantly practiced by tribal groups in North-East India. The Khasi tribe, located primarily in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, utilizes this method to sustain their livelihoods. The process involves clearing a patch of forest land, burning the biomass to enrich the soil with nutrients, and cultivating crops for a few seasons. When the soil fertility declines, the plot is abandoned for a fallow period to allow natural vegetation to recover, while the farmers shift to a new area. This agricultural system is a significant part of the Khasi cultural heritage and remains a primary land-use practice in the hilly terrains of the North-Eastern region.
93Geography
Which of the following rivers flows through a 'rift' valley?
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Answer: (C) Narmada
Explanation
The Narmada River flows through a well-defined rift valley, which is a linear structural depression formed by the downward displacement of a block of the Earth's crust between nearly parallel faults. This specific rift valley is situated between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. The formation of this graben is associated with the tectonic movements and the upheaval of the Himalayas, which caused intense faulting in the northern part of the Indian Peninsula. Because the river follows the gradient of this structural trough, it flows westward into the Arabian Sea, contrary to the general eastward slope of the Deccan Plateau.
94Geography
If the Sun rises at TIRAP in Arunachal Pradesh at 5.00 am (IST), then what time (IST) the Sun will rise in Kandla in Gujarat?
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Answer: (C) About 7.00 a.m.
Explanation
The longitudinal extent of India is approximately 30°, ranging from roughly 68° 7' E in Gujarat to 97° 25' E in Arunachal Pradesh. Since the Earth completes one rotation of 360° in 24 hours, each degree of longitude represents a time difference of 4 minutes (1440 minutes/360° = 4 minutes per degree). For a longitudinal difference of about 30°, the total time difference is 30 × 4 = 120 minutes, or 2 hours. As the Sun rises in the east before the west, the sunrise in Gujarat occurs approximately 2 hours after the sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh. Given that the sunrise in Tirap is at 5:00 a.m. IST, the sunrise in Kandla will be at 5:00 + 2 = 7:00 a.m. IST.
95Geography
Which one of the following biosphere reserves is not included in the list of world network of biosphere reserves of UNESCO?
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Answer: (A) Simplipal
Explanation
Nilgiri (1986), Gulf of Mannar (2001), Sundarbans (2001) were UNESCO Biosphere Reserves before 2010. Simlipal was added in May 2009, making it the most recently added at the time of the exam. It was likely not yet widely recognized as listed, making it the intended answer.
96Geography
The UNESCO has given international recognition to
1. Nilgiri Biosphere
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere
3. Manas Biosphere
4. Simplipal Biosphere
Select the correct answer from the following code:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The UNESCO international recognition of biosphere reserves occurs through their inclusion in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) under the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which encompasses parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first site in India to be inducted into this global network in the year 2000. It is celebrated for its diverse ecosystems and high degree of endemism in the Western Ghats. The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, located in the Himalayan region of Uttarakhand, received its international UNESCO recognition in 2004. This designation is based on the site's unique wilderness value, its significance as a habitat for rare species like the snow leopard, and its successful integration of conservation with the needs of local communities.
97Geography
Assertion (A): Madhya Pradesh is called the Ethiopia of India.
Reason (R): Its hallmarks are excessive infantile mortality and malnutrition.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh was historically referred to as the Ethiopia of India because of its chronic levels of malnutrition and exceptionally high infant mortality rates, which were comparable to some of the most impoverished nations in sub-Saharan Africa. According to data from the mid-2000s, such as the National Family Health Survey-3 (NFHS-3), the state had one of the highest percentages of underweight and stunted children in the country, with nearly 60 percent of children under the age of five suffering from malnutrition. Additionally, Madhya Pradesh consistently reported the highest infant mortality rate among Indian states during that period. These severe health and nutritional indicators led social scientists and media to draw parallels with Ethiopia, making the reason a direct and accurate explanation for the assertion.
98Science and Technology
Methane is present in the atmosphere of
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Answer: (D) Mars
Explanation
The detection of methane (CH₄) in the Martian atmosphere was a major scientific milestone confirmed by ground-based spectroscopy and the Mars Express orbiter. Although present in only trace amounts, approximately 10 parts per billion, the discovery was significant because methane is destroyed by solar ultraviolet radiation on a timescale of a few hundred years. Its continued presence implies an active source of replenishment on the planet. Scientists suggest this could be the result of geochemical processes like serpentinization or biological activity from subsurface methanogenic organisms, making it a primary focus of Mars exploration missions during this period.
99Science and Technology
Which one of the following silver salts is used for producing artificial rains?
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Answer: (D) Silver iodide
Explanation
Silver iodide (AgI) is the primary chemical agent used in cloud seeding to induce artificial rain. Its effectiveness stems from its crystalline structure, which is remarkably similar to that of natural ice crystals (hexagonal system). When silver iodide is dispersed into supercooled clouds—clouds containing liquid water droplets at temperatures below freezing—it acts as an artificial ice nucleus. Water vapor and droplets in the cloud freeze onto these nuclei, forming ice crystals that grow in size until they are heavy enough to fall. As these crystals descend into warmer layers of the atmosphere, they melt and reach the ground as raindrops. This technique is widely used to enhance precipitation in drought-prone areas and to manage water resources.
100Science and Technology
Which layer of atmosphere is responsible for Aurora Borealis?
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Answer: (C) Ionosphere
Explanation
The Ionosphere is a region of the upper atmosphere, typically extending from about 80 km to over 600 km, where solar radiation is intense enough to ionize atmospheric atoms and molecules. This layer contains a high density of free electrons and ions. The Aurora Borealis occurs when energetic charged particles from the solar wind are directed by the Earth's magnetic field toward the polar regions. When these particles collide with the ionized gases in the Ionosphere, they transfer energy to oxygen and nitrogen atoms. As these atoms return to their ground state, they release energy in the form of visible light. This specific process of ionization and excitation within this atmospheric layer is what produces the characteristic glow of the Northern Lights.
101Geography
90°E Ridge lies in
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Answer: (B) Indian ocean
Explanation
The Ninety East Ridge is a linear volcanic ridge located on the floor of the Indian Ocean. It is named because it runs nearly parallel to the 90th meridian East, extending for approximately 5,000 kilometres from the Bay of Bengal in the north to the South-East Indian Ridge in the south. This massive submarine feature separates the Indian Ocean into the Central Indian Basin to the west and the Cocos and West Australian Basins to the east. Geologically, it is primarily composed of basaltic rocks and is believed to have been formed by the Kerguelen hotspot as the Indo-Australian plate moved northward during the Late Cretaceous and Cenozoic eras.
102Geography
Which of the following countries are located on the Equator?
1. Brunei
2. Columbia
3. Kenya
4. Venezuela
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Equator is an imaginary line located at 0° latitude that circles the globe, passing through thirteen countries across South America, Africa, and Asia. In South America, the Equator passes through Ecuador, Colombia, and Brazil. In Africa, it traverses Gabon, the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, and Somalia. Colombia is situated in the northwestern part of South America, and the Equator runs through its southern territory. Kenya, located in East Africa, is centrally divided by the Equator. Conversely, Brunei is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere on the island of Borneo, and Venezuela is situated in the northern part of South America, with its entire landmass lying north of the equatorial line.
103Geography
Which one of the following is lands of the East Indies is divided into three countries?
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Answer: (A) Borneo
Explanation
Borneo is unique among the islands of the East Indies for being partitioned between three sovereign states. The largest portion of the island, accounting for nearly three-quarters of the land area, is the Indonesian territory of Kalimantan. The northern region is composed of the Malaysian states of Sabah and Sarawak. The third nation is the sovereign sultanate of Brunei Darussalam, which is located on the northern coast and is entirely surrounded by the Malaysian state of Sarawak and the South China Sea. This political division has been in place since the independence of these respective nations.
104Geography
The Ruhr basin is the famous Industrial region of
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Answer: (B) Germany
Explanation
The Ruhr basin is a polycentric urban area in the state of North Rhine-Westphalia, Germany, and serves as the country's largest industrial heartland. Historically, the region became a global powerhouse for coal mining and steel production during the 19th and 20th centuries due to its extensive high-quality bituminous coal reserves. The presence of the Rhine and Ruhr rivers provided excellent inland waterway connectivity, facilitating the transport of raw materials and finished goods. This geographic advantage made it one of Europe's most significant centers for heavy industry, mechanical engineering, and chemical manufacturing.
105Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Volcano):
(A) Etna
(B) Vesuvius
(C) Erebus
(D) Cotopaxy
List-II (Location):
1. Ross Island
2. Ecuador
3. Italy
4. Sicily
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Answer: (B) 4, 3, 1
Explanation
Etna matches with Sicily because it is a major active stratovolcano located on the eastern coast of the island of Sicily, Italy.
Vesuvius matches with Italy because it is an active volcano situated on the European mainland near the city of Naples and the Gulf of Naples.
Erebus matches with Ross Island because it is the southernmost active volcano on Earth, located on Ross Island in Antarctica.
Cotopaxy matches with Ecuador because it is a prominent and high stratovolcano located in the Andes mountain range within the territory of Ecuador.
106Geography
Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil moisture?
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Answer: (B) Black soil
Explanation
Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is characterized by a high percentage of clay content, which gives it an exceptional capacity to retain moisture. The fine-grained nature of the soil particles allows it to hold water for long durations, even after the surface has dried. This high water-holding capacity ensures that moisture is available to the roots of crops over an extended period. During the dry season, the soil develops deep cracks which help in self-aeration, but the underlying layers maintain significant moisture levels. Consequently, crops grown in black soil require less frequent irrigation compared to those in other soil types, making it highly suitable for dry farming in regions with limited water supply.
107Geography
In an area with annual rain fall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills which crop will be ideal?
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Answer: (C) Tea
Explanation
Tea requires a warm and humid climate with a high annual rainfall of 150 cm to 250 cm to support the frequent growth of new leaves. A critical requirement for tea cultivation is well-drained soil, as the roots of the tea bush cannot survive in waterlogged conditions. Sloping hills provide the necessary topographical advantage by allowing excess rainwater to flow away quickly, preventing stagnation. This makes hilly regions with heavy precipitation the most suitable environment for established tea plantations, ensuring the soil remains moist without becoming saturated. The combination of high moisture levels and natural drainage found on mountain slopes is the defining factor for the success of this crop in such geographic conditions.
108Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Arihant
(B) Awacs
(C) Atlas Centaur
(D) Nag
List-II:
1. American Cryogenic Rocket
2. Anti tank missile
3. Israel developed Falcon for Air Force
4. Atomic submarine
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Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Arihant is India's first indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine, categorizing it as an atomic submarine. AWACS refers to the Airborne Warning and Control System used by the Air Force, specifically the Phalcon radar system developed by Israel. Atlas Centaur represents a series of American space launch vehicles that used the first cryogenic rocket stage powered by liquid hydrogen. Nag is an indigenous third-generation anti-tank guided missile developed by India for the destruction of heavy armor.
109Polity and Governance
The Rangnath Mishra Commission report which was tabled in the Parliament in December 2009, relates to
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Answer: (C) Religious and Linguistic Minorities
Explanation
The National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities, popularly known as the Ranganath Misra Commission, was constituted in 2004 to identify criteria for socially and economically backward sections among religious and linguistic minorities. It was tasked with suggesting measures for their welfare, including reservation in education and government jobs. The commission submitted its report in 2007, which was tabled in Parliament in December 2009. The report highlighted the socio-economic disadvantages faced by minority communities and recommended a 15 percent reservation in government employment and educational institutions, specifically allocating 10 percent for Muslims and 5 percent for other minorities. It also proposed that the Scheduled Caste status should be made religion-neutral to include Dalit converts to Christianity and Islam.
110Art and Culture
The author of the book which recently became the root cause of the controversy regarding the script of the film Three Idiots is
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Answer: (C) Chetan Bhagat
Explanation
Chetan Bhagat is the author of the 2004 novel Five Point Someone, which served as the primary source material for the 2009 film 3 Idiots. The controversy arose following the film's release when Bhagat claimed that the producers and director had not given him adequate credit for the story. He argued that a substantial portion of the film was based directly on his book, whereas the filmmakers maintained that they had fulfilled their legal obligations by placing his name in the closing credits as per their contract. The dispute centered on whether the author deserved more prominent recognition in the opening credits and the extent to which the script deviated from the original novel, making Bhagat the central figure in the script-related controversy of that time.
111Polity and Governance
Sukna scam case was recently (first quarter of 2010) much in the news. With which State is it concerned?
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Answer: (D) West Bengal
Explanation
The Sukna land scam involves a controversial deal concerning a 71-acre plot of land located in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal. The case gained national attention in early 2010 following a high-level military inquiry into the actions of senior Army officers. The scam centered on the issuance of a No Objection Certificate by military authorities to a private realtor, Dilip Agarwal, allowing him to construct an educational institution on land adjacent to the Sukna military base. This move was considered a security risk given the strategic importance of the 33 Corps headquarters located there. The subsequent investigation led to high-profile court-martial proceedings against top-ranking officers, including Lieutenant General Avadesh Prakash and Lieutenant General P.K. Rath, for their roles in the land transfer process in West Bengal.
112Geography
The Anglo-American Culture Realm does not include
1. Canada
2. U.S.A.
3. Mexico
4. Cuba
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Answer: (D) 3 and 4
Explanation
The Anglo-American Culture Realm is defined by the historical dominance of British cultural heritage, specifically the English language, common law systems, and Protestant traditions. Mexico and Cuba are excluded from this realm because they belong to the Latin American Culture Realm. These nations are characterized by their Spanish linguistic roots, Roman Catholic religious foundations, and the historical legacy of Iberian colonial rule. In cultural geography, the boundary between these two distinct realms is typically marked by the border between the United States and Mexico, placing the Spanish-speaking nations of the mainland and the Caribbean firmly within the Latin American sphere rather than the Anglo-American one.
113Economy
Who is the brand ambassador of BSNL?
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Answer: (D) Deepika Padukone
Explanation
Deepika Padukone was appointed as the brand ambassador for Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) in early 2010. The state-run telecommunications company engaged the actress to revitalize its brand identity and appeal to a younger demographic across India. This partnership was intended to help BSNL compete more effectively with private telecom operators by leveraging her popularity and mass appeal during that period to promote its mobile and broadband services.
114Science and Technology
Which country launched the World's first satellite dedicated to monitoring greenhouse gas emissions in 2009?
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Answer: (A) Japan
Explanation
Japan launched the Greenhouse Gases Observing Satellite (GOSAT), also known as Ibuki, on January 23, 2009, from the Tanegashima Space Center. Developed jointly by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the National Institute for Environmental Studies (NIES), it was the world first satellite specifically dedicated to monitoring the concentration levels and global distribution of greenhouse gases. The primary instruments on board measure carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) density by observing the infrared spectrum of sunlight reflected from the Earth's surface. This mission provides high-resolution data that helps scientists understand the mechanisms of climate change and monitor the progress of international environmental agreements.
115Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
How many seats BSP on in the elections to the U.P. Legislative Council held in January 2010?
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Answer: (D) 34
Explanation
The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) secured a landslide victory in the biennial elections for the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Council held in January 2010. Out of the 36 seats contested from the local bodies' constituencies, the BSP won 34 seats. This result was significant as it allowed the ruling party to establish a dominant majority in the upper house of the state legislature, which has a total strength of 100 members. The remaining two seats in that election cycle were won by the Samajwadi Party and an independent candidate.
116Geography
The city which has been selected by a famous International Magazine Travel and Leisure in its survey 2009 as the best city from tourism point of view in the world is
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Answer: (A) Udaipur
Explanation
Udaipur was ranked as the world's best city for tourism in the 14th annual World's Best Awards survey conducted by the prominent international travel magazine Travel + Leisure in 2009. The city received high scores from travelers for its unique blend of heritage architecture, scenic lakes, and hospitality. Udaipur outperformed several major global metropolitan hubs and traditional tourist centers to claim the top position in this influential readers' poll, highlighting its status as a premier global destination during that period.
117Polity and Governance
During Prime Minister Man Mohan Singh's visit to Russia in December 2009, India and Russia signed an agreement mainly relating to
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Answer: (A) Civil nuclear cooperation
Explanation
During Prime Minister Manmohan Singh's summit-level visit to Moscow in December 2009, India and Russia signed a landmark Inter-Governmental Agreement on cooperation in the peaceful uses of atomic energy. This comprehensive civil nuclear deal was significant as it ensured a sovereign guarantee for the uninterrupted supply of nuclear fuel and provided for the transfer of sophisticated nuclear technology, including enrichment and reprocessing capabilities. The agreement paved the way for the construction of several additional Russian-designed nuclear power units at Kudankulam and other identified sites in India, significantly strengthening the strategic partnership between the two nations in the energy sector following India's waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
118Polity and Governance
Project Arrow is concerned with the modernisation of which of the following?
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Answer: (B) Post offices
Explanation
Project Arrow was launched by the Department of Posts in 2008 to transform India Post into a vibrant and citizen-friendly organization. The initiative aims to modernize the postal network by upgrading the infrastructure and improving the quality of core services such as mail delivery, remittances, and savings bank operations. It focuses on enhancing both the look and feel of post office buildings and their internal IT-enabled processes to ensure standardized, efficient service delivery. By revitalizing the brand image and professionalizing the staff, the project seeks to provide a more reliable and technologically advanced experience for customers across both urban and rural areas.
119Polity and Governance
How many nations were members of the BASIC Block at the December 2009 Copenhagen Meet?
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Answer: (B) Four
Explanation
The BASIC group is a geopolitical bloc composed of four major emerging economies: Brazil, South Africa, India, and China. These nations formalized their coalition through an agreement on November 28, 2009, specifically to coordinate their negotiating positions for the 2009 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP15) held in Copenhagen. The member countries acted as a unified front to protect the interests of developing nations, focusing on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and ensuring that climate agreements did not unfairly impede their economic development. Their collective diplomacy was a defining feature of the Copenhagen Meet and led to the drafting of the Copenhagen Accord.
120Geography
The Kalpsar Project for supply of sweet water is located in
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Answer: (A) Gujarat
Explanation
The Kalpsar Project is a large-scale multi-purpose water resource venture located in the state of Gujarat. It involves the construction of a 30-kilometer-long dam across the Gulf of Khambhat, connecting the districts of Bhavnagar and Bharuch. The primary objective is to create a massive freshwater reservoir by capturing the discharge from several major rivers, including the Narmada, Sabarmati, Mahi, and Dhadhar. This reservoir is designed to provide a sustainable supply of sweet water for irrigation, drinking, and industrial requirements in the water-stressed regions of Saurashtra and Kutch. Beyond water supply, the project also incorporates components for tidal power generation, land reclamation, and improved regional connectivity through a road link over the dam.
121History
In 1930 a person's age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938 the father's age becomes 10 times the age of his son's age in 1930. The ages of father and son in 1940 were respectively.
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Answer: (C) 42 | 14 yrs
Explanation
Let the son's age in 1930 be x years. According to the first condition, the father's age in 1930 was 8x years.
By 1938, which is 8 years later, the father's age increased by 8 years, making it 8x + 8. The problem states that this age in 1938 is 10 times the son's age in 1930. This gives the equation:
8x + 8 = 10x
Solving for x:
10x - 8x = 8
2x = 8
x = 4
So, in 1930, the son was 4 years old and the father was 8 × 4 = 32 years old. To find their ages in 1940, we add 10 years to their respective ages in 1930.
Father's age in 1940 = 32 + 10 = 42 years.
Son's age in 1940 = 4 + 10 = 14 years.
122Economy
The marked price of a table is ₹2,000, which is 25% above the cost price. If the shopkeeper sells the table at 8% discount on the marked price, his percentage of profit would be
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Answer: (B) 15%
Explanation
The net profit percentage when an item is marked up by x% and then sold at a discount of y% is given by the formula Profit % = x - y - xy/100. In this case, the markup percentage x is 25% and the discount percentage y is 8%. Substituting these values into the formula:
Profit % = 25 - 8 - (25 × 8)/100
Profit % = 17 - 200/100
Profit % = 17 - 2 = 15%
Alternatively, if we assume the cost price to be 100, a 25% markup makes the marked price 125. An 8% discount on this marked price is calculated as 125 × 0.08 = 10. The selling price is then 125 - 10 = 115. Since the cost price was 100 and the selling price is 115, the profit is 15%. The actual value of the marked price (₹2,000) is not required for calculating the percentage.
123Economy
A can finish a work in 6 days whereas B can finish the work in 9 days. If both of them work together, what is the probability that the work will be finished on third day?
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Answer: (D) 0
Explanation
The efficiency of A is 1/6 of the work per day, and the efficiency of B is 1/9 of the work per day. When they work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies:
Combined Efficiency = 1/6 + 1/9 = (3 + 2)/18 = 5/18 work per day.
The total time required to complete the work is the reciprocal of the combined efficiency:
Time taken = 1/(5/18) = 18/5 = 3.6 days.
In a standard work-rate problem, the completion time is deterministic based on the given rates. Since the calculated time of 3.6 days indicates that the work is completed during the fourth day, it is physically impossible for the work to be finished on the third day. In probability theory, the probability of an impossible event is 0.
124Economy
An ox in a 'Kolhu' is tethered to a rope 3m long. How much distance does the ox cover in 14 rounds?
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Answer: (C) 264m
Explanation
The rope length serves as the radius r of the circular path taken by the ox. The distance covered in a single round is equal to the circumference of this circle, which is calculated using the formula C = 2πr. For a total of n rounds, the total distance D is given by D = n × 2πr. Given r = 3m and n = 14, and using the standard approximation π = 22/7:
D = 14 × 2 × 22/7 × 3
D = 2 × 2 × 22 × 3
D = 4 × 66
D = 264m
By substituting the values into the circumference formula and multiplying by the number of rotations, the total distance covered is determined to be 264 meters.
125Economy
Reema is twice as old as Sumita. Three years ago she was three times as old as Sumita. How old is Reema now?
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Answer: (D) 12 years
Explanation
Let Sumita's current age be x years. According to the problem, Reema's current age is twice that of Sumita, so Reema's age is 2x.
Three years ago, Reema's age was 2x - 3 and Sumita's age was x - 3. The problem states that at that time, Reema was three times as old as Sumita. This gives the equation:
2x - 3 = 3(x - 3)
Expanding the right side:
2x - 3 = 3x - 9
Rearranging the terms to solve for x:
3x - 2x = 9 - 3
x = 6
Sumita's current age is 6 years. Reema's current age is 2x, which is 2 × 6 = 12 years.
126Geography
Football World Cup 2010 will be held in
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Answer: (D) South Africa
Explanation
South Africa was the host nation for the 2010 FIFA World Cup, which took place from June 11 to July 11, 2010. This event was historic as it represented the first time the FIFA World Cup was staged in an African country. South Africa won the hosting rights through a bidding process finalized by FIFA in 2004, intended to promote the development of football within the African continent. The tournament featured 32 national teams and was played across various venues, including the iconic Soccer City stadium in Johannesburg where the opening and final matches were held.
127Polity and Governance
Suresh Kalmadi has been elected Chairman of the 'Asian Athletic Association' on November 9th 2009 for the
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Answer: (B) 3rd term
Explanation
Suresh Kalmadi was elected as the President of the Asian Athletics Association for his third consecutive term on November 9, 2009, during the association's congress in Guangzhou, China. He first took office as the head of the continental governing body in 2000 and won his second term in 2005. His third election in 2009 confirmed his leadership of the organization for another four-year period, intended to last until 2013.
128History
Commonwealth Games are scheduled to take place in New Delhi, India in 2010. Which location has been chosen for the next Commonwealth Games in 2014?
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Answer: (D) Glasgow - Scotland
Explanation
Glasgow, Scotland, was officially selected as the host city for the 2014 Commonwealth Games by the Commonwealth Games Federation during its General Assembly in Colombo, Sri Lanka, on November 9, 2007. Glasgow won the bid by securing 47 votes against 24 votes for the competing city, Abuja, Nigeria. This selection made Glasgow the host of the XX Commonwealth Games, representing the third time Scotland has hosted the event, following the 1970 and 1986 games held in Edinburgh. The preparation for the 2014 games involved significant infrastructure development in Glasgow, including the construction of the Commonwealth Arena and the Sir Chris Hoy Velodrome to accommodate the multi-sport competition.
129Art and Culture
The mascot of the 19th Common Wealth Games to be held in 2010 in New Delhi is
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Answer: (D) Shera
Explanation
Shera was the official mascot of the 19th Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi in 2010. The mascot was an anthropomorphic Royal Bengal Tiger, which is the national animal of India. The name Shera is derived from the Hindi word Sher, meaning tiger. It was created to symbolize courage, power, and grace, while also serving as a welcoming figure to athletes from across the Commonwealth. The mascot played a central role in the branding and promotion of the games, representing the cultural heritage and wildlife of the host nation.
130Geography
2016 Olympic Games will be held at:
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Answer: (C) Rio De Janeiro
Explanation
The International Olympic Committee (IOC) officially announced Rio de Janeiro as the host city for the XXXI Olympiad during the 121st IOC Session held in Copenhagen, Denmark, on October 2, 2009. Rio de Janeiro secured the hosting rights after three rounds of voting, making it the first city in South America to be awarded the Olympic Games. This historic decision followed a rigorous bidding process and emphasized the IOC's goal of bringing the Games to new regions of the world.
131History
The 'Man of the Series' in the triangular series of the Idea Cup 2010 concluded on 13th January, 2010 is
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Answer: (B) Kumar Sangakkara
Explanation
The Idea Cup 2010 was a tri-nation cricket tournament held in Bangladesh featuring the hosts, India, and Sri Lanka. Sri Lanka won the title by defeating India in the final played on January 13, 2010. Kumar Sangakkara, the Sri Lankan captain, was named the Player of the Series for his consistent batting performance and tactical leadership throughout the tournament. He accumulated a total of 274 runs in five matches at an average of 68.50, including three half-centuries, finishing as the second-highest run-scorer of the competition and the leading contributor for the winning side.
132Polity and Governance
The Indian citizen who has been honoured with Ramon Magsaysay award for the year 2009 is
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Answer: (B) Deep Joshi
Explanation
Deep Joshi was the Indian recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2009 in the category of Community Leadership. He was honored for his vision and patience in building professional capacity in the development sector through his non-profit organization, Professional Assistance for Development Action (PRADAN). The award recognized his efforts in bridging the gap between professional management and grassroots development work, particularly in India's rural areas. By recruiting highly educated professionals to work directly with the rural poor, Joshi helped create sustainable livelihood opportunities and improved the socio-economic conditions of thousands of families across the country.
133Art and Culture
At the 56th National Film Awards for 2008 the best feature film award was bagged by
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Answer: (A) Antaheen
Explanation
The 56th National Film Awards, which honored films released in 2008, were announced by the Directorate of Film Festivals in early 2010. The Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) for Best Feature Film was awarded to the Bengali film Antaheen, directed by Aniruddha Roy Chowdhury. The jury cited the film for its lyrical quest for love in a world of shifting values and its sophisticated cinematic language. Along with the top honor, the film also secured awards for Best Cinematography, Best Lyrics, and Best Female Playback Singer.
134History
Who has written the book 'The Rediscovery of India' published around November 2009?
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Answer: (B) Meghnad Desai
Explanation
Lord Meghnad Desai, a prominent economist and member of the British House of Lords, authored the book The Rediscovery of India. Published in late 2009, the work serves as a critical engagement with Jawaharlal Nehru's seminal text, The Discovery of India. Desai's book traces India's history from the eighteenth century to the contemporary era, analyzing the transition from the British Raj to independence and evaluating the country's economic and political trajectory over sixty years of self-rule. It offers a provocative reassessment of Indian national identity and the various social and political forces that have shaped the modern state.
135Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I (Name of Film):
(A) 3 Idiots
(B) Slum dog Millionaire
(C) Junoon
(D) My Fair Lady
List-II (Source Writing):
1. Pygmalion
2. Five Point someone
3. Q and A
4. A Flight of Pigeons
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Answer: (D) 2, 3, 4
Explanation
A-2 is correct because the film 3 Idiots is a cinematic adaptation of the novel Five Point Someone by Chetan Bhagat. B-3 is correct because the movie Slumdog Millionaire is based on the novel Q and A written by Vikas Swarup. C-4 is correct as the 1978 film Junoon is based on Ruskin Bond's novella A Flight of Pigeons, which is set during the Indian Rebellion of 1857. D-1 is correct because the film My Fair Lady is an adaptation of George Bernard Shaw's play Pygmalion.
136Art and Culture
ICC announced a list of 55 Cricket players in 2009 to be included in its inaugural 'Hall of Fame' list. Identify from the following cricketers who was not included in the list
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Answer: (B) Sachin Tendulkar
Explanation
The ICC Cricket Hall of Fame was launched in January 2009 with an inaugural group of 55 players. Sachin Tendulkar was not among the initial inductees because he was still an active international cricketer at that time. The primary eligibility criterion for the ICC Hall of Fame requires a player to have been retired from international cricket for at least five years. Tendulkar continued to represent India in international matches until his retirement in November 2013, making him ineligible for the 2009 list. He eventually met the criteria and was inducted into the Hall of Fame in 2019.
137Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Kissan Bahi Yojana was started in Uttar Pradesh in
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Answer: (D) 1992
Explanation
The Kissan Bahi Yojana was launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh in 1992 to provide farmers with a standardized and authenticated record of their landholdings. This scheme involves the issuance of a Kissan Bahi, which serves as a comprehensive passbook containing detailed information about the farmer's land area, land revenue, and other relevant agricultural data. The primary objective was to eliminate the need for farmers to repeatedly visit administrative offices for land records, thereby facilitating easier access to bank loans and ensuring transparency in land-related transactions.
138Science and TechnologyUttar Pradesh-specific
In U.P. the first 'Biotechnology Park' was established at
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Answer: (A) Lucknow
Explanation
The Biotechnology Park in Lucknow was established as a joint venture between the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and the Department of Science and Technology, Government of Uttar Pradesh. It is the first biotechnology park in the state and the first such facility in North India. Located in the Jankipuram area, the park provides specialized infrastructure, including bio-incubators and pilot plants, to support the growth of the biotechnology industry. It serves as a platform for scientists, researchers, and entrepreneurs to collaborate on the development and commercialization of biotechnology-based products and services in sectors like agriculture and medicine.
139Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
In which year the Government of India included the new tribes of Uttar Pradesh as Scheduled Tribes?
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Answer: (B) 2003
Explanation
The Government of India added ten new tribes to the Scheduled Tribes list of Uttar Pradesh through the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002, which was implemented in 2003. Before this legislative change, the state only recognized the Tharu and Buksa communities as Scheduled Tribes, particularly after the tribal-heavy regions were transferred to the newly formed state of Uttarakhand in 2000. The 2003 notification granted Scheduled Tribe status to several communities including the Gond, Kharwar, Sahariya, Parahiya, Baiga, Pankha, Agariya, Patari, Chero, and Bhuiya. These groups are primarily found in the southern and eastern districts of the state, such as Sonbhadra and Mirzapur.
140GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh, which one of the following districts has the largest population of Scheduled Tribes?
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Answer: (A) Sonebhadra
Explanation
As per the demographic data from the Census 2001, which was the prevailing record in 2010, Sonbhadra district contains the largest population of Scheduled Tribes in Uttar Pradesh. The district is located in the southeastern part of the state and features a geographical terrain dominated by the Vindhyan hill range and dense forests, providing a traditional habitat for numerous tribal communities. Significant tribal groups residing in this region include the Gond, Kharwar, Baiga, Panika, and Chero. Sonbhadra consistently records the highest tribal population in the state in terms of both absolute numbers and percentage share, making it the primary hub for Scheduled Tribe demographics in Uttar Pradesh.
141Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Chaiti - Rohelkhand
Explanation
Chaiti is a seasonal folk song genre traditionally associated with the Purvanchal region of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, particularly the Varanasi and Bhojpuri-speaking belts. It is performed during the Hindu lunar month of Chait (March-April) and is characterized by themes of nature and romance. Rohelkhand, located in the northwestern part of Uttar Pradesh, has a distinct cultural identity and is not the region where Chaiti originated or is traditionally sung. This makes the pairing of Chaiti with Rohelkhand geographically and culturally inaccurate.
142GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following million cities of Uttar Pradesh in ascending order of their population size.
1. Agra
2. Allahabad
3. Meerut
4. Lucknow
Use the code given below to select the correct answer.
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Answer: (D) 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation
Based on the 2001 Census data, which was the relevant source for an exam in 2010, the population sizes of the urban agglomerations for the specified cities in Uttar Pradesh were as follows: Allahabad (now Prayagraj) had a population of approximately 1.05 million, Meerut had approximately 1.16 million, Agra had approximately 1.33 million, and Lucknow had the largest population among them at approximately 2.19 million. Arranging these in ascending order of their population size yields the sequence of Allahabad (2), Meerut (3), Agra (1), and Lucknow (4).
143Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is not a folk dance of Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) Muria
Explanation
Muria is a tribal folk dance associated with the Muria tribe, who predominantly inhabit the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh. This dance is deeply rooted in the unique social structure of the tribe, often performed around the Ghotul, which is a traditional youth dormitory central to their community life. The performance involves rhythmic movements and specific drumming patterns that are characteristic of the tribal heritage of the Bastar plateau in Central India, making it distinct from the regional folk traditions found in the plains or hills of Uttar Pradesh.
144Polity and Governance
Which States has decided to establish a University for the disabled during 2009-10?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
The Government of Uttar Pradesh decided to establish the Dr. Shakuntala Misra Rehabilitation University in Lucknow during the 2009-10 period. This institution was established under the Dr. Shakuntala Misra Rehabilitation University Act, 2009, as the first state-run university in India dedicated specifically to students with disabilities. The university was designed to provide a barrier-free environment and specialized higher education, vocational training, and rehabilitation services to facilitate the integration of differently-abled individuals into the mainstream workforce and society. This initiative represented a significant step in the state's social welfare policy during that fiscal year.
145Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Dhuria is folk dance of
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Answer: (B) Bundelkhand
Explanation
The Dhuria dance is a traditional folk dance intrinsic to the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh. It is specifically performed by the men of the Prajapati community, who are traditionally potters by profession. During the performance, the male dancers dress in female attire and mimic the grace and movements of women. This folk art is a significant cultural expression within the Bundelkhandi society and is usually organized during various festivals and social ceremonies to celebrate the community's heritage and craftsmanship.
146GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The population of U.P. exceeds that of
1. Bangladesh
2. Brazil
3. Pakistan
4. Indonesia
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, the population of Uttar Pradesh was approximately 166.2 million. During the same period, the population of Pakistan was estimated at around 145 million and the population of Bangladesh was approximately 130 million. Consequently, the population of Uttar Pradesh exceeded that of both Bangladesh and Pakistan. In contrast, the populations of Brazil and Indonesia were approximately 170 million and 210 million respectively, both of which were higher than the population of Uttar Pradesh at that time. These 2001 figures remained the official benchmark for demographic comparisons in examinations conducted throughout 2010.
147EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh, recognized Stock Exchange is at
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Answer: (B) Kanpur
Explanation
The Uttar Pradesh Stock Exchange (UPSE) is located in Kanpur, which has historically served as the commercial and industrial capital of Uttar Pradesh. Formally inaugurated in 1982, the exchange was established to provide a regulated platform for stock trading and to encourage investment within the state. It operated as a recognized regional stock exchange under the oversight of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), reflecting Kanpur's significant role in the state's economy and financial infrastructure.
148Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I:
(A) Kishan
(B) Hari Prasad 2. Tabla Chaurasia player
(C) Pt. Gopalji Mishra player
(D) Kudak Singh player
List-II:
1. Sarangi Maharaj player
3. Pakhawaj
4. Bansuri
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Answer: (D) 2, 4, 1
Explanation
Pandit Kishan Maharaj was a legendary tabla player of the Benaras Gharana known for his rhythmic mastery and powerful style.
Hariprasad Chaurasia is a world-renowned flautist credited with establishing the bansuri as a primary instrument in Indian classical music.
Pandit Gopalji Mishra was a prominent maestro of the sarangi, specifically associated with the Benares school of music.
Kudau Singh (Kudak Singh) was a celebrated exponent of the pakhawaj, a traditional barrel-shaped drum essential to the Dhrupad genre.