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UPPSC Prelims 2005 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 147 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

147
Questions
6
Subjects
12
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography3524%
  • Economy3020%
  • Science and Technology2718%
  • History2316%
  • Polity and Governance1913%
  • Art and Culture139%
1Polity and Governance
As per 2001 census three major States of India in respect of population are
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Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar.

Explanation

The 2001 Census of India recorded the total population of the country at approximately 1.028 billion. According to the final data, Uttar Pradesh was the most populous state with 166,197,921 people. Maharashtra ranked second with a population of 96,878,627. Bihar held the third position with 82,998,509 people. These figures represent the state boundaries following the reorganization in 2000, which saw the creation of Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh. The demographic data from this census confirms that these three states together accounted for more than one-third of India's total population at that time.

2Geography
In India the highest decadal growth rate of population during 1991-2001 was recorded in:
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Answer: (B) Nagaland

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Nagaland recorded a decadal population growth rate of 64.53 percent during the 1991-2001 period. This figure was the highest among all Indian states and Union Territories during that decade. The state experienced an unprecedented surge in its population count from approximately 1.2 million in 1991 to nearly 2 million in 2001. This exceptional growth rate was nearly three times the national average decadal growth rate of 21.54 percent for the same period, establishing Nagaland as the state with the most rapid demographic expansion in the country during that timeframe.

3GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh the largest concentration of population is found in
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Answer: (B) Allahabad district

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Allahabad (now known as Prayagraj) was the most populous district in Uttar Pradesh. It recorded a total population of approximately 4.94 million people, making it the district with the largest concentration of residents in the state at that time. The district's high population is a result of its vast geographical area situated in the fertile Ganga-Yamuna Doab, which supports intensive agriculture and sustains a high density of rural and urban inhabitants. Furthermore, its status as a major administrative, educational, and religious hub has historically contributed to significant demographic growth and concentration.

4Geography
The highest decadal growth rate in sex ratio during 1991-2001 has been recorded by
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Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2001, Arunachal Pradesh recorded the highest decadal growth in its sex ratio among the states. The sex ratio in Arunachal Pradesh increased from 859 females per 1,000 males in 1991 to 893 in 2001, representing an absolute gain of 34 points. This increase reflects a significant positive shift in the demographic composition of the state during that decade. The growth rate observed in Arunachal Pradesh surpassed the improvements seen in other states, making it the leader in sex ratio recovery during the 1991-2001 period.

5Geography
As per the 2001 census the most urbanised State of India is
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

According to the 2001 Census of India, Tamil Nadu recorded an urbanization level of 44.04 percent, making it the most urbanized major state in the country. This high percentage was the result of a significant demographic shift where a large portion of the population moved into non-agricultural sectors, particularly manufacturing and services. The state's urban growth was characterized by a well-distributed pattern of industrial clusters and the expansion of statutory towns across multiple districts, rather than being limited to a single metropolitan area. This structural transformation of the economy and the presence of numerous urban agglomerations like Chennai, Coimbatore, and Madurai contributed to the state leading the urbanization rankings for large states during that decade.

6GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following statements is not true?
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Answer: (D) There are only 5 million cities in Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2001, the state of Uttar Pradesh contained six million-plus cities, which are urban areas with a population of one million or more. These six metropolitan centers were Kanpur, Lucknow, Varanasi, Agra, Meerut, and Allahabad. Since there were six such cities identified in the census data available by 2005, the statement claiming that there were only five million-plus cities in the state is factually incorrect.

7Economy
As per the Planning Commission Report of 1999-2000 the highest percentage of people living below the poverty line is in
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Answer: (C) Orissa

Explanation

According to the Planning Commission's poverty estimates for 1999-2000, which were derived from the 55th Round of the National Sample Survey (NSS) using the Lakdawala methodology, Orissa recorded the highest poverty ratio in India. The report indicated that 47.15 percent of the population in Orissa was living below the poverty line, with a particularly high concentration of poverty in its rural areas. This statistic placed Orissa at the top of the list regarding the percentage of the population unable to meet the defined minimum consumption expenditure, surpassing the poverty levels recorded in other states such as Bihar and Madhya Pradesh during the same period.

8Economy
The lowest infant mortality in urban areas of India is found in
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Answer: (A) Kerala

Explanation

Kerala has consistently recorded the lowest Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India across both rural and urban regions due to its exceptional performance in social indicators. This achievement is a result of high female literacy, widespread health awareness, and a dense network of primary health centers that facilitate near-universal institutional deliveries. By 2005, Kerala's urban IMR was notably lower than the national average and that of other industrialised states, reflecting the effectiveness of its long-standing investments in public health, nutrition, and maternal care services.

9Geography
The arsenic contamination of drinking water is highest in
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Answer: (C) Kolkata

Explanation

Kolkata is situated in the Bengal Delta region, which is geologically predisposed to high levels of arsenic in its groundwater. This contamination is geogenic, occurring naturally due to the weathering of arsenic-rich sediments transported from the Himalayas by the Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems. These minerals settle in the deltaic aquifers, where arsenic is released into the water under reducing (anaerobic) conditions. By 2005, extensive research conducted by institutions like Jadavpur University and various international health organizations had documented that West Bengal, and specifically the area surrounding Kolkata, faced the most acute arsenic crisis in India, with concentration levels frequently exceeding the World Health Organization's permissible limit of 0.01 mg/L and the then-Indian standard of 0.05 mg/L.

10Science and Technology
Which one of the following Noble Gases is not present in air?
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Answer: (C) Radon

Explanation

Radon is a radioactive noble gas that is produced by the natural decay of uranium and radium found in the Earth's crust. Unlike the stable noble gases that make up the chemical composition of the atmosphere, radon has a very short half-life, with its most stable isotope, Rn-222, lasting only about 3.8 days. Because it decays rapidly and is primarily released from soil and rocks, it is not considered a permanent or standard constituent of the Earth's air. While it can be found in trace amounts in confined spaces like basements, it dissipates quickly in the open atmosphere and does not exist as a consistent atmospheric component.

11Geography
Assertion (A): The Ganga is a highly polluted river. Reason (R): The holier the river, the more polluted it is. Select the correct answer from the following code:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation

The Ganga is documented as one of the most polluted rivers in the world due to the massive discharge of untreated domestic sewage, toxic industrial effluents from tanneries and chemical plants, and agricultural runoff containing pesticides. By 2005, numerous reports from the Central Pollution Control Board highlighted that the water quality in several stretches of the river was unfit for even bathing. However, the sanctity or holiness of a river is a matter of religious belief and cultural tradition, which does not have a scientific or causal relationship with environmental pollution levels. Many rivers considered holy remain clean in their upper reaches, while others with no specific religious status may be highly polluted due to industrialization. Consequently, while the assertion regarding the Ganga's pollution is an established fact, the reason attempting to link pollution directly to holiness is logically and factually incorrect.

12Geography
The country most ravaged by the Tsunami fury was:
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Answer: (C) Indonesia

Explanation

The Indian Ocean tsunami of December 26, 2004, was triggered by a massive undersea earthquake with a magnitude of 9.1 to 9.3, centered off the west coast of northern Sumatra, Indonesia. Due to its immediate proximity to the epicenter, Indonesia experienced the most catastrophic impact of both the seismic activity and the subsequent waves. The province of Aceh was particularly devastated, with entire coastal towns being leveled. By 2005, official estimates indicated that Indonesia suffered the highest death toll by a significant margin, with approximately 130,000 confirmed dead and over 37,000 missing. The scale of humanitarian crisis, displacement, and infrastructural destruction in Indonesia far exceeded that of any other country affected by the event.

13Economy
The highest chemical pollution is caused by the industrial effluents of
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Answer: (A) Leather industry

Explanation

The leather industry is widely considered one of the most chemically intensive industrial sectors because it consumes a vast array of hazardous chemicals during the conversion of raw hides into finished leather. The tanning process utilizes large quantities of water mixed with chromium salts, sulfuric acid, sodium sulfide, and various dyes. Chromium, particularly in its hexavalent form, is a major component of tannery effluent and is highly toxic, persistent, and carcinogenic. Leather industrial waste is characterized by exceptionally high values of Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), along with high concentrations of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) and heavy metals. These effluents cause significant degradation of aquatic ecosystems and lead to the long-term contamination of groundwater and soil.

14Economy
The largest Commercial Bank of India is
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Answer: (B) State Bank of India

Explanation

The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest commercial bank in the country in terms of assets, deposits, profits, branches, and employees. It was established on July 1, 1955, following the nationalization of the Imperial Bank of India under the State Bank of India Act. As a public sector giant, it holds the most extensive domestic network and a significant market share in the Indian banking industry. By 2005, it remained the undisputed leader in the financial sector, serving as the primary banker for the Government of India and maintaining thousands of branches across both urban and rural landscapes to provide comprehensive retail and corporate banking services.

15EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
As per 2001 census the female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh is
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Answer: (B) 42.98%

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2001, the female literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh was recorded at 42.98 percent. This figure represented a significant increase from the 1991 census, during which the female literacy rate in the state was approximately 24.37 percent. In the 2001 census, the overall literacy rate for Uttar Pradesh was 56.27 percent, while the male literacy rate stood at 68.82 percent. These statistics were crucial for evaluating the effectiveness of various state and central educational programs aimed at reducing gender disparity and improving human development indicators within the region.

16Economy
As per the Union Budget 2005-2006, the senior citizens have not to pay income tax upto an income of
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Answer: (C) 1.85 lakh

Explanation

The Union Budget 2005-2006, presented by Finance Minister P. Chidambaram, significantly restructured personal income tax by removing the standard deduction and replacing the tax rebate system with higher basic exemption limits. For senior citizens, defined as resident individuals aged 65 years or more, the threshold income for tax exemption was increased to Rs 1.85 lakh. This change ensured that senior citizens with a total annual income up to this amount were not required to pay any income tax, providing a higher and more simplified tax-free limit compared to previous years.

17Economy
India's share in the World Trade is:
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Answer: (A) 0.75%

Explanation

India's share in world merchandise trade remained below one percent for several decades following independence. According to the Economic Survey 2004-05 and data provided by the World Trade Organization (WTO), India's share in world exports was approximately 0.7 percent in 2001 and increased to about 0.8 percent by 2003. During the early 2000s, although India's export growth rate often outperformed the global average, its total volume relative to global trade was still maturing. The figure of 0.75 percent accurately reflects the statistical standing of India's contribution to global merchandise exports during the period immediately preceding the 2005 assessment, before the country achieved the one percent milestone in later years.

18Geography
India's share in the World Green Houses gases is
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Answer: (D) 5%

Explanation

By 2005, India had emerged as the world's fourth-largest emitter of greenhouse gases, following the United States, China, and the European Union. Data compiled by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and international climate monitoring agencies for the period around 2000 to 2005 indicated that India's contribution to global greenhouse gas emissions was approximately 5 percent. These emissions were largely driven by India's heavy reliance on coal for power generation, as well as significant contributions from the agricultural sector and industrial expansion. While India's per capita emissions remained well below the global average during this time, its large population and growing economy resulted in a substantial total volume of emissions on the global stage.

19Economy
Which of the following States have not introduced VAT system? Select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Maharashtra 4. Uttar Pradesh
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Answer: (D) 2 and 4

Explanation

The Value Added Tax (VAT) system was officially introduced in India on April 1, 2005, as a replacement for the multi-point sales tax. While a majority of Indian states adopted the new taxation regime on this date, Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh were among the states that did not implement it initially. Chhattisgarh transitioned to the VAT system on April 1, 2006, and Uttar Pradesh was one of the last major states to adopt it, finally implementing VAT on January 1, 2008. During the period corresponding to the 2005 examination, these two states had not yet replaced their existing sales tax structures with VAT.

20Economy
The New Package for Agriculture announced by the UPA Government does not provide
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Answer: (A) Landless agriculturists will get loan from banks.

Explanation

The Comprehensive Credit Package for Agriculture announced by the UPA government in June 2004 focused on doubling the flow of institutional credit to agriculture within three years and increasing it by 30 percent in its first year. Key provisions included a target to bring 50 lakh new farmers into the institutional credit system annually and offering debt relief measures such as the rescheduling of loans and one-time settlement schemes for farmers in distress. Regarding landless agriculturists, the package did not provide immediate or direct bank loans. Instead, it recognized the credit gap for those without land titles and formally directed NABARD to work out a specialized proposal and mechanism, such as through Joint Liability Groups, to facilitate credit for tenant farmers and oral lessees. This administrative directive meant that the actual provision of loans from banks to landless agriculturists was a future objective to be developed rather than a direct provision of the package itself.

21Economy
As per the Union Budget 2005-06 the GDP growth rate has been stipulated as
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Answer: (B) 6.9%

Explanation

In the Union Budget 2005-06, the Finance Minister highlighted that the Indian economy was poised for significant expansion, noting that the advance estimates for the financial year 2004-05 had placed the real GDP growth at 6.9 percent. This estimate was a central figure in the budget documents and the Economic Survey 2004-05, serving as the benchmark for the economy's performance leading into the new fiscal year. The 6.9 percent growth rate was considered a resilient performance because it was achieved despite a deficient monsoon that negatively impacted the agricultural sector, being instead supported by high growth rates in the manufacturing and services sectors.

22Economy
The leading producer of soybean in India is
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Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of soybean in India and has historically accounted for more than 50 percent of the total national production. During the early 2000s, the state maintained its dominance in the sector due to the favorable agro-climatic conditions and the prevalence of black cotton soil in the Malwa plateau region, which is ideal for soybean cultivation. Because of its massive contribution to the oilseed industry, Madhya Pradesh is frequently referred to as the Soya Bowl of India.

23Geography
The Topic of Cancer does not pass through
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Answer: (C) Iran

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at approximately 23.5° North of the Equator. While it passes through several countries in North Africa and Asia, it does not cross the territory of Iran. Iran is situated further north, with its southernmost geographical point near the Gwatar Bay in the Sistan and Baluchestan province lying at a latitude of roughly 25° N. Since the entirety of Iran's landmass is located north of the 23.5° N parallel, the Sun never reaches the zenith directly over any part of the country. In the Asian continent, the line instead traverses through countries such as Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, Oman, India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, and Taiwan.

24History
Ganpati Festival in Maharashtra was started by
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Answer: (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak transformed the traditional household celebration of Ganesh Chaturthi into a grand public event in 1893. His primary objective was to create a platform for nationalistic expression and to bridge the social divide between various communities. By organizing large-scale public festivals, Tilak aimed to circumvent the British colonial government's restrictions on political gatherings, using religious symbols to mobilize the masses and foster a sense of cultural and political unity against foreign rule. This move played a significant role in the early Indian independence movement in Maharashtra.

25Polity and Governance
The Committee which recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj System in India was
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Answer: (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service. In its report submitted in November 1957, the committee recommended the establishment of a scheme of democratic decentralization, which eventually became known as Panchayati Raj. The cornerstone of its recommendations was the implementation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. This structure comprised the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zilla Parishad at the district level. The committee proposed that these bodies be vested with genuine powers and resources to ensure effective local self-government. The National Development Council accepted these recommendations in 1958, leading to the foundation of the modern Panchayati Raj system in India.

26Art and Culture
One of the tribes which celebrates 'Sarhul' festival is
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Answer: (B) Munda

Explanation

The Sarhul festival is the most prominent tribal festival celebrated in the Chotanagpur plateau region of Jharkhand, primarily by the Munda, Oraon, and Ho tribes. It marks the tribal New Year and is celebrated during the spring season in the Hindu month of Chaitra when the Sal trees (Shorea robusta) get new flowers on their branches. The festival is a worship of nature where the Munda tribe pays homage to their ancestors and the village deity, seeking protection and a good harvest. The blossoming of the Sal tree is considered a sacred event, symbolizing the union between the Earth and the Sun.

27Art and Culture
Diwali is a festival of mourning among the
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Answer: (D) Tharus

Explanation

The Tharu tribe, an ethnic group indigenous to the Terai region of Nepal and the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, traditionally observes Diwali as a day of mourning known as Shok Parv. Instead of celebrating with lights and festivities, they use the occasion to remember and pay homage to their deceased ancestors. This practice involves performing specific rituals, such as offering food and clothes to the spirits of the departed, based on the belief that the souls of their ancestors visit their homes during this time. While cultural integration has led some members of the community to adopt mainstream celebration styles, the historical and traditional identity of the Tharus includes this unique practice of ancestral commemoration during the festival.

28Polity and Governance
The vacancy of the Office of the President must be filled up within
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Answer: (B) six months

Explanation

Article 62 of the Constitution of India stipulates the time frame for holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President. According to Article 62(2), an election to fill a vacancy occurring by reason of the President's death, resignation, removal, or otherwise must be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of the occurrence of the vacancy. This mandatory period ensures the continuity of the head of state. During this intervening period, the Vice-President acts as the President or discharges the functions of the President as per Article 65 of the Constitution.

29Polity and Governance
Which Provision of the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?
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Answer: (D) Art. 24

Explanation

Article 24 of the Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in any factory, mine, or any other hazardous employment. This fundamental right serves as a primary constitutional safeguard against the exploitation of children, ensuring their protection from labor practices that could be detrimental to their physical health, safety, or overall development. It forms a critical part of the Right against Exploitation and is specifically designed to prevent the commercial use of child labor in dangerous industrial environments, thereby upholding the welfare and rights of minors.

30Polity and Governance
The First Speaker against whom a vote of no-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was
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Answer: (B) G.V. Mavlankar

Explanation

G.V. Mavlankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, holds the distinction of being the first presiding officer against whom a motion for removal was moved. On December 18, 1954, members of the opposition, including J.B. Kripalani, moved a resolution for his removal from office. The motion was admitted and discussed in the House according to the provisions of Article 94 of the Constitution and the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha. After a debate on the merits of the motion, it was put to a vote and subsequently rejected by the House, allowing Mavlankar to continue his term until his death in 1956.

31History
Who among the following is not the recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?
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Answer: (C) Raj Kapoor

Explanation

Raj Kapoor was a preeminent figure in Indian cinema, serving as an actor, director, and producer whose influence extended across Asia and the Middle East. Although he received the Padma Bhushan in 1971 and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1987 for his immense contributions to the arts, he was never conferred with the Bharat Ratna. As of 2005, he had not been selected for India's highest civilian honor, either during his lifetime or posthumously, despite his status as one of the most influential filmmakers in the country's history.

32History
The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was
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Answer: (D) Badruddin Tyabji

Explanation

Badruddin Tyabji served as the President of the Indian National Congress during its third session held in Madras in 1887, making him the first Muslim to hold this prestigious position. A prominent lawyer and a leader of the Bombay Bar, Tyabji played a crucial role in the early phase of the Indian national movement. In his presidential address, he famously emphasized that the Congress represented all the diverse communities of India and urged Muslims to join the mainstream political struggle for self-governance. His leadership helped establish the inclusive and secular character of the Congress in its foundational years. Beyond his political contributions, Tyabji was also a distinguished jurist who became the first Indian to be appointed as the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court.

33Polity and Governance
In a Presidential of Government all executive powers are rested in
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Answer: (A) President

Explanation

In a presidential system of government, the executive branch is characterized by the concentration of power in a single individual who serves as both the head of state and the head of government. This system is founded on the strict principle of separation of powers, where the executive is independent of the legislature. Under this constitutional framework, all executive authority is vested in the President. The President is directly or indirectly elected by the people for a fixed term and is not responsible to the legislature for his or her policies or administrative actions. Although the President may be assisted by a cabinet or advisors, these individuals are subordinates who serve at the President's discretion, as the final decision-making authority and responsibility for the executive branch reside solely with the President.

34Economy
Which one of the following irrelevant?
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Answer: (D) SAPS

Explanation

SAPS stands for Structural Adjustment Programs, which are economic policy changes and requirements implemented by countries as a condition for receiving loans from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) or the World Bank. These programs typically focus on fiscal austerity, privatization, and trade liberalization to reduce economic imbalances. In contrast, Sensex, BSE, and Nifty are all core components of the Indian equity markets, representing either a stock exchange or a major stock market index. Since SAPS is a tool of international macroeconomic policy rather than a stock market indicator or platform, it is the irrelevant term in this group.

35Economy
In the Union Budget the largest item of revenue expenditure is
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Answer: (C) Interest Payments

Explanation

Interest payments represent the cost of servicing the government's accumulated internal and external debt. In the Union Budget context around 2005, this component consistently stood as the single largest item of revenue expenditure, often accounting for nearly one-fourth to one-third of the total revenue spending. This high allocation was primarily driven by the accumulation of public debt from persistent fiscal deficits in previous years. Because interest payments are a contractual obligation and a non-discretionary component of non-plan revenue expenditure, they commanded a higher share of the budget compared to other major heads such as defence, subsidies, or grants provided to state governments.

36Polity and Governance
The Supreme Court has recently held unconstitutional Illegal Migrants Determination Act, 1983 on the ground of violation of moral obligation of Centre under
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Answer: (A) Art. 355

Explanation

In the landmark case of Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005), the Supreme Court struck down the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983, as unconstitutional. The Court ruled that the influx of a large number of illegal migrants into Assam constituted external aggression and internal disturbance. Under Article 355 of the Constitution, it is the fundamental duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance. The Court found that the IMDT Act acted as a barrier to the identification and deportation of illegal migrants, thereby preventing the Central Government from fulfilling its constitutional obligation to protect the state of Assam as mandated by Article 355.

37Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (D) India is a Parliamentary democracy.

Explanation

The Constitution of India establishes a parliamentary system of government at both the Central and State levels. This system is characterized by the presence of a nominal executive, the President, and a real executive, the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. A defining feature of this democracy is the principle of collective responsibility, where the executive is directly accountable to the legislature, specifically the Lok Sabha. This ensures that the government remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the popularly elected house. India's democratic nature is further reinforced by universal adult franchise and periodic elections, which empower citizens to choose their representatives.

38Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs of States has equal seats in Lok Sabha ?
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal both hold 42 seats in the Lok Sabha. The distribution of seats in the lower house of Parliament is determined by the population of the states based on the 1971 Census, as mandated by the 84th Amendment Act to the Constitution of India which froze this allocation until 2026. In 2005, the undivided state of Andhra Pradesh was represented by 42 members, which is the exact same number of representatives assigned to West Bengal, establishing equality in their legislative strength in the Lok Sabha.

39Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Onam - Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Onam is the preeminent harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated to commemorate the homecoming of the legendary King Mahabali. The festivities typically last for ten days and are marked by the creation of floral carpets called Pookalam, traditional boat races known as Vallam Kali, and the grand feast called Sadhya. In Andhra Pradesh, the primary harvest festival celebrated during this period is Sankranti. Because Onam is native to the cultural traditions of Kerala, its association with Andhra Pradesh is incorrect.

40History
The First University Chair in Sanskrit was founded in Europe in
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Answer: (B) France

Explanation

The first University Chair in Sanskrit in Europe was established in France at the Collège de France in 1814. This academic position was specifically created for Antoine-Léonard de Chézy, who became the first professor of Sanskrit in the Western world. Chézy was a pioneer in the field of Indology and is well known for his French translation of Kalidasa's Shakuntala. The institutionalization of Sanskrit at the Collège de France predates the establishment of similar chairs in other European countries, marking France as the early center for the formal academic study of ancient Indian languages and literature in Europe.

41History
Which one of the following statements is not true for Shankaracharya, Saint of the 8th century?
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Answer: (C) He named Prayag as Teerth raj.

Explanation

The designation of Prayag as Teerth raj, or the King of Pilgrimages, is rooted in ancient Puranic texts rather than being a title established by Adi Shankaracharya. Descriptions of Prayag's supremacy as a holy site are found in the Matsya Purana and the Padma Purana, which celebrate the spiritual significance of the Triveni Sangam, the confluence of the Ganga, Yamuna, and the mythical Saraswati rivers. While Shankaracharya played a transformative role in the 8th century through the propagation of Advaita Vedanta and the organization of monastic centers, the religious identity of Prayag as the preeminent pilgrimage destination was already a well-established tradition in Indian spirituality long before his period of influence.

42Art and Culture
Among the following who had constructed as astronomical observatory popularly known as Jantar Mantar at Delhi?
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Answer: (D) Jaisingh II

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Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber, a prominent Rajput ruler and scholar of astronomy, constructed the Jantar Mantar in Delhi around 1724. He was commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah to rectify the existing astronomical tables and calendars. Jai Singh II built a total of five such observatories across northern India, located in Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi. The Delhi observatory was the first to be completed and features massive masonry instruments designed to track celestial bodies, predict eclipses, and measure time with high precision. These structures, including the Samrat Yantra and Jayaprakash Yantra, were preferred over smaller brass instruments to minimize errors caused by wear and tear or thermal expansion.

43Art and Culture
In U.S. Open 2005 Sania Mirza was defeated in pre-quarter final by
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Answer: (B) Maria Sharapova

Explanation

At the 2005 US Open, Sania Mirza made history by becoming the first Indian woman to reach the fourth round, or pre-quarter finals, of a Grand Slam singles event. In this milestone match, she faced the top-seeded Russian player Maria Sharapova on the Arthur Ashe Stadium. Sharapova, who was the world number one at the time, defeated Mirza in straight sets with a score of 6-2, 6-1. Mirza's run to the pre-quarter finals included victories over Mashona Washington, Maria Elena Camerin, and Marion Bartoli, and her performance in this tournament helped her break into the top 40 of the WTA rankings for the first time in her career.

44Economy
The port which does not have LNG terminals is
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Answer: (D) Kandla

Explanation

Kandla Port, situated in the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, is one of India's major ports primarily specialized in handling crude oil imports, chemicals, and dry bulk cargo. As of 2005, it did not possess the specialized cryogenic storage and regasification infrastructure required to function as a Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) terminal. While the port served as a crucial hub for the country's energy security regarding petroleum and liquid fuels, it lacked the dedicated berths and technical facilities necessary for the unloading and processing of chilled liquefied natural gas. No LNG terminal project was operational or under active development at Kandla during that period.

45Geography
Ten Degree channel separates
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Answer: (A) Andaman from Nicobar Islands

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime passage that lies on the 10° N latitude line, which gives the channel its name. It separates the Andaman archipelago in the north from the Nicobar archipelago in the south within the Bay of Bengal. More precisely, it is located between the island of Little Andaman and Car Nicobar. This channel is approximately 150 kilometers wide and roughly 400 meters deep, acting as a natural boundary between these two groups of islands that together form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

46Geography
Which one of the following countries is not a land locked country?
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Answer: (B) Liberia

Explanation

Liberia is situated on the West African coast, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean to its southwest. With a coastline stretching approximately 580 kilometers, it maintains direct maritime access through major ports such as the Free Port of Monrovia. This geographical positioning provides the country with a direct outlet to the high seas for international trade and maritime activities.

47Science and Technology
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Stormy Explanation: A sudden fall in barometer reading indicates that the weather will be stormy and slowly fall down of barometer indicate rain. Generally cold fronts move faster than warm fronts and the clouds are forced up at a steeper gradient and you get more often cloudbursts of rain and thunderheads. ## 51.

Explanation

A barometer measures atmospheric pressure, and the rate of change in these readings is a primary indicator for short-term weather forecasting. A sudden and sharp fall in barometric pressure signifies the rapid approach of a low-pressure system or a cyclonic disturbance. As the pressure drops quickly, it creates a steep pressure gradient, causing air to rush in from surrounding high-pressure areas at high velocities, leading to the high winds and unstable conditions typical of a storm. This specific barometric tendency is a reliable precursor to stormy weather, whereas a gradual decline usually suggests steady rain and a rising barometer indicates the arrival of fair and stable weather conditions.

48Geography
Which one of the following is a cold current of the South Pacific Ocean?
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Answer: (B) Peru (Humboldt) current

Explanation

The Peru Current (Humboldt Current) is the major cold ocean current of the South Pacific, flowing northward along western South America. Canary is North Atlantic cold, Benguela is South Atlantic cold, Agulhas is Indian Ocean warm, Brazil is South Atlantic warm.

49Geography
Assertion (A): Orissa is the most cyclone-prone coastal region in India. Reason (R): There has been maximum deforestation of mangroves in the Mahanadi delta region. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Odisha is geographically situated in a region of the Bay of Bengal that is highly susceptible to tropical cyclones due to factors like high sea surface temperatures, the presence of low-pressure systems, and the concave shape of the coastline which funnels storms toward the state. This makes the assertion regarding its status as the most cyclone-prone coastal region in India true. Simultaneously, the Mahanadi delta has witnessed extensive mangrove deforestation due to human activities such as shrimp farming and agricultural expansion. While mangroves serve as a vital bio-shield that mitigates the impact of storm surges and winds, their removal does not cause cyclones to occur. The frequency and intensity of cyclones are governed by meteorological and atmospheric conditions, meaning that while the reason is a true statement regarding environmental degradation, it does not serve as the causal explanation for the region's inherent cyclonic activity.

50Geography
The wide treeless grassy plain in South America are called
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Answer: (B) Pampas

Explanation

The Pampas are expansive, fertile lowland plains situated in South America, spanning across central Argentina, Uruguay, and parts of Brazil. These temperate grasslands are defined by their wide, treeless landscape and relatively flat topography. The region's deep, nutrient-rich soil and favorable climatic conditions make it one of the most productive agricultural areas in the world, specifically famous for its massive cattle industry and cereal production.

51Geography
The first woman to reach North Pole was
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Answer: (A) Ann Boncraft

Explanation

Ann Bancroft reached the North Pole on May 1, 1986, as a member of the Will Steger International Polar Expedition. Traveling from Ellesmere Island by dog sled and on foot, she became the first woman in history to successfully reach the North Pole across the ice. Her journey lasted 56 days and covered nearly 1,000 miles. Following this achievement, she also became the first woman to reach both the North and South Poles, cementing her legacy as one of the preeminent polar explorers of the twentieth century.

52Geography
Mauna Loa is an active volcano of
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Answer: (B) Hawaii

Explanation

Mauna Loa is one of the five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii. It is an active shield volcano and is considered the largest subaerial volcano in the world by both mass and volume. Its name means Long Mountain in Hawaiian, reflecting its massive size and the broad, gentle slopes created by repeated basaltic lava flows over hundreds of thousands of years. Mauna Loa has a history of frequent eruptions, with significant activity recorded throughout the 19th and 20th centuries, making it a critical site for volcanological research and monitoring within the Hawaii Volcanoes National Park.

53Geography
Which one of the following regions of the U.S.A. is known as Tornado Alley ?
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Answer: (C) Mississippi Plains

Explanation

Tornado Alley is a colloquial term for the broad region in the central United States that experiences the highest frequency of tornadoes in the world. This area primarily encompasses the Mississippi Plains and the Great Plains. The high incidence of tornadoes in this region is the result of unique geographical features that allow for the collision of contrasting air masses. Warm, moist maritime tropical air from the Gulf of Mexico travels northward across the flat plains and encounters cold, dry continental polar air moving south from Canada, as well as warm, dry air from the Rocky Mountains. The interaction of these air masses over the flat terrain of the Mississippi basin creates intense atmospheric instability and strong vertical wind shear, providing the ideal conditions for the formation of severe supercell thunderstorms and tornadoes.

54Geography
Death Valley is known for its
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Answer: (A) excessive heat

Explanation

Death Valley, situated in the Mojave Desert of California, is primarily famous for its extreme temperatures. It consistently records some of the highest temperatures on the planet due to its unique low-elevation basin geography. In July 1913, Furnace Creek in Death Valley recorded a temperature of 134°F (56.7°C), which remains the highest ambient air temperature ever recorded on Earth. The valley's depth, reaching 282 feet below sea level at Badwater Basin, combined with its surrounding steep mountain ranges, traps receding hot air. This air then sinks and undergoes further heating through atmospheric compression. This continuous cycle of solar radiation and trapped air masses results in the intense and persistent heat that defines the region's climate.

55Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
'Sulakhul Festival' of Hinduism Unity is organised at
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Answer: (A) Agra

Explanation

The Sulakhul (Sulh-i-kul) Festival is celebrated annually in Agra as a symbol of communal harmony and peace between different religions. The concept of Sulh-i-kul, meaning universal peace or absolute peace, was propounded by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to promote integration and tolerance among his diverse subjects. To commemorate this legacy of religious unity, particularly Hindu-Muslim unity, the Uttar Pradesh Tourism Department organizes this festival in Agra. The event serves as a platform to showcase the composite culture of India and reinforces the message of brotherhood and mutual respect that Akbar sought to establish during his reign.

56GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
The district having the small area in Uttar Pradesh is:
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Answer: (B) Gautam Budh Nagar

Explanation

In 2005, Gautam Budh Nagar was the district with the smallest geographical area among the provided selections. Established in 1997, it was formed by consolidating specific territories from neighboring regions to create a focused industrial hub within the National Capital Region. According to the 2001 Census and administrative records available in 2005, its total area was approximately 1,442 square kilometers. This specific geographical delimitation resulted in a land extent that was the most limited in comparison to the other districts specified in the question.

57Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Kisan Mitra Yojana was started in U.P. on
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Answer: (D) June 18, 2001

Explanation

The Kisan Mitra Yojana was launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh on June 18, 2001. The scheme was specifically designed to provide essential agricultural information and technical guidance to farmers at the grassroots level. Under this initiative, the state government appointed a Kisan Mitra in each Gram Panchayat to act as a bridge between the agricultural department and the farming community. These individuals were responsible for educating farmers about modern farming techniques, high-yield variety seeds, fertilizers, and various government welfare schemes aimed at increasing agricultural productivity and rural income.

58EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
In the total tax revenue of Uttar Pradesh in the year 2004-05, the share of indirect taxes is estimated is about
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Answer: (B) 76%

Explanation

According to the budgetary estimates and economic review of Uttar Pradesh for the fiscal year 2004-05, indirect taxes constituted the dominant portion of the state tax revenue. The primary contributors to this category included Trade Tax (Sales Tax), State Excise, Stamps and Registration fees, and Taxes on Vehicles. Trade Tax served as the single largest source of revenue for the state. When aggregating these various consumption and transaction-based levies, the total share of indirect taxes in the state tax revenue for that period was estimated to be approximately 76 percent, reflecting a high reliance on indirect instruments for resource mobilization.

59Polity and Governance
The National Rural Health Mission was launched on
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Answer: (D) April 12, 2005

Explanation

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was officially launched by the Government of India on April 12, 2005. Inaugurated by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, the mission was established to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, especially vulnerable groups. It initially focused on 18 states that had poor public health indicators and weak infrastructure. The mission introduced key institutional reforms, such as the Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) program, and sought to decentralize health management to the district level through the Rogi Kalyan Samitis. The primary objectives included reducing the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) while ensuring universal access to public health services.

60Polity and Governance
The proposed Janani Suraksha Scheme will replace
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Answer: (B) National Maternity Benefit Scheme

Explanation

The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) was launched in April 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) as a safe motherhood intervention. It was created by restructuring and replacing the National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS), which had been operational since August 1995. While the NMBS provided a uniform financial assistance of 500 rupees to pregnant women from below poverty line households for the first two live births, JSY shifted the focus toward incentivizing institutional deliveries to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates. The scheme transferred the administration of maternity benefits from the Ministry of Rural Development to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, significantly increasing the cash incentives and linking them to the use of health facilities and the involvement of accredited social health activists.

61EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
During the last three years the share of direct taxes in the total tax revenue of the Government of Uttar Pradesh has
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Answer: (B) increased

Explanation

During the fiscal period leading up to 2005, the Government of Uttar Pradesh implemented various fiscal reforms aimed at enhancing internal resource mobilization and improving tax administration. Direct taxes at the state level, which predominantly comprise land revenue and taxes on property and capital transactions, saw a consistent rise in their contribution to the state's own tax revenue. This growth was driven by improved collection mechanisms, updating of land records, and a rise in property-related transactions due to increasing urbanization. Consequently, the relative share of direct taxes within the total tax revenue of the state exhibited an increasing trend during those three years.

62History
The Common-wealth Games-2010 will be held at
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Answer: (B) Delhi

Explanation

The host city for the 2010 Commonwealth Games was selected during the Commonwealth Games Federation General Assembly held in Montego Bay, Jamaica, in November 2003. Delhi secured the hosting rights after winning the bid against Hamilton, Canada, with a final vote of 46 to 22. This selection designated Delhi as the venue for the nineteenth edition of the games, marking the first time India would host the event and the second time the competition would be held within the Asian continent.

63Polity and Governance
Nobel Prize for Peace-2004 was awarded to
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Answer: (A) Wengari Mathai

Explanation

Wangari Maathai was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2004 for her contribution to sustainable development, democracy, and peace. As the founder of the Green Belt Movement in Kenya, she championed a grassroots approach to environmental conservation that focused on planting trees to combat deforestation and soil erosion while simultaneously empowering women. Her work established a critical link between ecological management, social equity, and the preservation of peace, making her the first African woman and the first environmentalist to receive the prize.

64Science and Technology
The author of the book The Road Ahead is
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Answer: (B) Bill Gates

Explanation

The Road Ahead is a non-fiction book written by Microsoft co-founder Bill Gates, published in 1995. Co-authored with Microsoft executive Nathan Myhrvold and journalist Peter Rinearson, the book describes the transition into the information age and the development of the information superhighway. It provides insights into how the digital revolution would change human interaction and global commerce, reflecting Gates's perspective on the evolution of technology and its role in the future.

65History
Pope Benedict XVI hails from
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Answer: (A) Germany

Explanation

Pope Benedict XVI was born Joseph Aloisius Ratzinger on April 16, 1927, in Marktl am Inn, Bavaria, Germany. Prior to his election as the 265th Pope in April 2005, he was a well-known German theologian and served as the Archbishop of Munich and Freising. His election to the papacy made him the first German pope in centuries, succeeding the Polish Pope John Paul II. He had previously spent many years in the Vatican serving as the Prefect of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith while maintaining his German citizenship and heritage.

66Art and Culture
Durand Cup is associated with the sport of
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Answer: (A) Football

Explanation

The Durand Cup is the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest in the world, having been established in 1888. It was founded by Sir Mortimer Durand, who served as the Foreign Secretary of British India at the time. The competition was originally started as a recreational activity for British troops stationed in India and held its inaugural edition in Simla. Over the decades, it evolved into one of the most prestigious football competitions in the Indian domestic circuit, managed by the Durand Football Tournament Society and the Indian Armed Forces.

67Economy
The headquarters of WTO are located at
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Answer: (B) Geneva

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) was officially established on January 1, 1995, following the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of negotiations and the signing of the Marrakesh Agreement. It succeeded the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which had regulated international trade since 1948. The headquarters of the WTO are located at the Centre William Rappard in Geneva, Switzerland. This location was chosen as Geneva has historically been a major center for international diplomacy and was already the seat of the GATT secretariat. The site houses the various councils and committees that manage the organization's trade agreements and dispute settlement mechanisms.

68Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The largest Scheduled Tribe of Uttaranchal is
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Answer: (D) Tharu

Explanation

Based on the 2001 Census data, which was the primary demographic reference in 2005, the Tharu community represents the largest Scheduled Tribe population in Uttaranchal. They primarily reside in the Terai lowlands, particularly in the Udham Singh Nagar district. The Tharus are traditionally an agricultural community and have historically been the most numerous tribal group in the region, with their population figures in 2001 recorded at approximately 83,544. This demographic majority within the tribal category established them as the largest Scheduled Tribe in the state following its formation.

69Geography
Which of the following is not pastoral nomads?
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Answer: (A) Pygmies

Explanation

Pygmies are categorized as hunter-gatherers rather than pastoral nomads. They traditionally inhabit the dense tropical rainforests of the Congo Basin in Central Africa. Their subsistence strategy relies on hunting wild animals and foraging for forest products like honey, wild yams, and fruits. Unlike pastoralists who depend on the domestication and seasonal movement of livestock for their livelihood, Pygmies do not raise or herd animals. Their nomadic patterns are determined by the ecological cycles of the forest and the availability of game, placing them firmly in the category of nomadic foragers.

70Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List-I (Industry): (A) Pittsburg (B) Shanghai (C) Dundee (D) Leningrad List-II (Centre): 1. Shipbuilding 2. Iron & Steel 3. Cotton Textile 4. Jute Textile
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Answer: (C) 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Pittsburg is matched with Iron and Steel because it was the most prominent center for steel manufacturing in the United States. Shanghai is matched with Cotton Textile as it has historically served as the largest textile production hub in China. Dundee is matched with Jute Textile because it was the global center for processing raw jute during the Industrial Revolution. Leningrad is matched with Shipbuilding as it remains a vital port and maritime construction center for Russia.

71EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
During 1991-2001 the percentage increase in literate persons in Uttar Pradesh was
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Answer: (B) 16.7

Explanation

The literacy rate in Uttar Pradesh experienced a significant rise during the decade between 1991 and 2001. According to the 1991 Census, the literacy rate in the state was 40.71 percent. By the time of the 2001 Census, the literacy rate had improved to 57.36 percent. To find the percentage point increase in literate persons relative to the total population, the calculation is 57.36 - 40.71 = 16.65. Rounding this figure to one decimal place results in 16.7 percent. This growth reflects the expansion of educational infrastructure and literacy missions implemented in the state during that period.

72GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In the recent epidemics of the Japanese Encephalitis the most afflicted district in Uttar Pradesh was:
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Answer: (C) Gorakhpur

Explanation

Gorakhpur district is historically the epicenter of Japanese Encephalitis (JE) in the Purvanchal region of Uttar Pradesh. The geographical conditions of the district, characterized by a high water table, frequent flooding, and extensive paddy cultivation, create an ideal environment for the breeding of Culex mosquitoes, which are the primary vectors for the JE virus. During the major epidemic of 2005, which was one of the most severe in Indian history, Gorakhpur recorded the highest concentration of cases and deaths in the state. The Baba Raghav Das (BRD) Medical College in Gorakhpur served as the primary tertiary care center for patients from throughout eastern Uttar Pradesh and neighboring regions, reflecting the district's status as the most heavily afflicted area during these outbreaks.

73GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In Uttar Pradesh Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary is located in the district:
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Answer: (D) Unnao

Explanation

Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary is located in the Unnao district of Uttar Pradesh, situated along the Lucknow-Kanpur highway. Established in 1984, this sanctuary encompasses a shallow lake and surrounding wetlands that provide a vital habitat for both resident and migratory birds. During the winter months, the sanctuary hosts a diverse range of avian species migrating from regions such as Siberia and Central Asia. It is managed by the Uttar Pradesh Forest Department and remains one of the prominent bird-watching destinations in the state due to its ecological significance and accessibility.

74Geography
Today the most urbanised country of the world is
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Answer: (C) Singapore

Explanation

Singapore is a sovereign city-state and island country that maintains a 100 percent urbanization rate. Because the entire territory of the nation consists of a single metropolitan area, there is no rural population or agricultural hinterland. Statistics from the World Bank and the United Nations around 2005 consistently identified Singapore as one of the few nations in the world where the entire population resides in an urban environment. Its limited land area and specialized economic structure necessitated high-density urban development across the whole island.

75Geography
The highest peak in South India is
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Answer: (A) Anaimudi

Explanation

Anaimudi is the highest peak in South India and the Western Ghats, standing at an elevation of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above sea level. It is located in the Idukki district of Kerala within the Eravikulam National Park. Geographically, it sits at the junction of the Anaimalai Hills, the Palani Hills, and the Cardamom Hills. The name Anaimudi signifies Elephant Head, which describes the physical shape of the peak. This peak makes the Anaimalai hill range the highest point in India south of the Himalayas.

76Geography
The most mineralised rock system of India is
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Answer: (A) Dharwar system

Explanation

The Dharwar system represents the oldest metamorphosed sedimentary rocks in India, belonging to the late Archean Eon. It is recognized as the most mineralized rock system because it serves as the primary repository for almost all major metallic minerals found in the country. These rocks host significant deposits of gold, iron ore, manganese, copper, chromium, and lead-zinc. The system is extensively developed in the Dharwar and Shimoga districts of Karnataka, but also appears in the Aravallis and the Chotanagpur plateau. The high level of mineralization is a result of complex geological processes, including multiple cycles of folding, faulting, and igneous intrusions, which concentrated metallic elements into economically viable ore bodies.

77Economy
The Stockholm Water Prize 2005 has been awarded to
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Answer: (B) Sunita Narain

Explanation

Sunita Narain, the Director General of the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) in India, was awarded the Stockholm Water Prize in 2005. She was recognized for her significant contributions to the field of decentralized water management and for her advocacy of traditional rainwater harvesting techniques. Her work emphasized the importance of community-based management of natural resources and highlighted the link between water security and social justice. By promoting sustainable water practices at the grassroots level, she influenced environmental policy and raised global awareness about practical solutions to water scarcity.

78Geography
The concept of ecological niche was enunciated by
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Answer: (A) Greenels

Explanation

Joseph Grinnell enunciated the concept of the ecological niche in 1917. He defined the niche as the specific habitat and environmental conditions required for a species to survive and reproduce. His approach, known as the Grinnellian niche, focuses primarily on the spatial and distributional aspects of an organism, emphasizing the physical and biological requirements of a species within its environment. Grinnell formulation suggested that the niche is essentially a set of characteristics belonging to the habitat that a specific organism fills. This established the foundational understanding of how species are restricted to certain geographic and environmental ranges.

79Geography
Jhuming is practised mostly in
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Answer: (C) Nagaland

Explanation

Jhuming, commonly known as shifting cultivation, is a traditional agricultural practice most extensively found in the hilly regions of Northeast India. Nagaland is the primary state associated with this method, where it serves as the mainstay of the rural economy and tribal culture. The process involves clearing a patch of forest land by cutting and burning the vegetation to create a fertile layer of ash. Farmers cultivate the land for a few seasons before abandoning it to fallow for several years, allowing the soil to naturally regenerate its nutrients while they move on to a new plot. In Nagaland, the rugged mountainous terrain and the socio-economic structure of indigenous communities have historically made Jhuming the most predominant form of subsistence farming.

80Geography
The International Acid Rain Information Centre has been set up at
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Answer: (D) Manchester

Explanation

The International Acid Rain Information Centre (IARIC), often referred to as the Acid Rain Information Centre (ARIC), was established in Manchester, United Kingdom, specifically at the Manchester Metropolitan University (then Manchester Polytechnic). Founded in 1984, the center was established to act as a major hub for research and the dissemination of information regarding the causes, effects, and management of acid deposition.

During the 1980s and 1990s, when acid rain was a critical transboundary environmental issue in Europe, the center played a pivotal role in public education and provided technical support to schools, industry, and government bodies. It served as an international repository for scientific data and produced extensive literature to raise awareness about the impact of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide emissions on forests, lakes, and buildings across the continent.

81Polity and Governance
Who was the 12th Prime Minister of India?
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Answer: (B) Deve Gowda

Explanation

H.D. Deve Gowda served as the Prime Minister of India from June 1, 1996, to April 21, 1997. In the chronological sequence of individuals holding the office (counting Gulzarilal Nanda as the second person to hold the post), Deve Gowda is the 12th Prime Minister. He led the United Front coalition government, which was supported from the outside by the Indian National Congress, taking office after the resignation of the short-lived first ministry of Atal Bihari Vajpayee following the 1996 general elections.

82History
Who had made Allahabad the emergency headquarters in 1857?
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Answer: (A) Lord Canning

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Lord Canning served as the Governor-General of India during the 1857 Revolt. As the rebellion spread rapidly across Northern India, he recognized the strategic necessity of being closer to the theater of conflict than the capital at Calcutta allowed. Consequently, Canning moved his administrative and military base to Allahabad, establishing it as the emergency headquarters to better coordinate the British response, manage logistics, and oversee the suppression of the uprising in the North-Western Provinces. Allahabad's location at the confluence of the Ganga and Yamuna rivers made it a vital communication and transport hub during the crisis.

83Science and Technology
Consider the following statement about haemoglobin and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. It contains iron. 2. It imparts red colour to the blood. 3. It provides immunity against certain diseases. 4. It is a carrier of oxygen in the blood. Code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Haemoglobin is a complex metalloprotein found in red blood cells that contains iron in the form of heme groups. This iron-containing pigment is responsible for imparting the characteristic red colour to blood when it binds with oxygen. The primary physiological function of haemoglobin is to act as a carrier of oxygen, transporting it from the lungs to the various tissues and organs of the body. Additionally, haemoglobin contributes to the body's immune response. It has the ability to release reactive oxygen species and antimicrobial peptides that help in neutralizing pathogens. Furthermore, certain genetic variations of haemoglobin provide innate immunity or protection against specific diseases, such as the resistance to malaria observed in individuals with the sickle cell trait. Thus, it performs roles in oxygen transport, pigmentation, and immunological defense.

84History
The last Mughal Emperor was Bahadur Shah. His father's name was
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Answer: (B) Akbar Shah II

Explanation

Bahadur Shah II, popularly known as Bahadur Shah Zafar, was the last Mughal emperor who reigned from 1837 to 1857. He was the son of Emperor Akbar Shah II and his Hindu wife Lal Bai. Akbar Shah II ruled the Mughal Empire from 1806 to 1837 during a period when the empire's authority was largely confined to the Red Fort in Delhi and the British East India Company held the actual political and military power. Bahadur Shah Zafar succeeded his father to the throne and eventually became the symbolic head of the Indian Rebellion of 1857 against British rule.

85History
Swaraj is my Birth right. The above assertion is attributed to
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Answer: (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

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Bal Gangadhar Tilak, also known as Lokmanya Tilak, was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and a key figure in the extremist wing of the Indian National Congress. He famously proclaimed Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it in 1916 during the Home Rule Movement. This slogan served as a powerful catalyst for nationalist sentiment, shifting the focus of the struggle from moderate constitutional reforms to a demand for complete self-rule. Tilak used this assertion to mobilize the masses and emphasize that political freedom was a fundamental right that the Indian people should actively claim rather than seek through petitions.

86Art and Culture
The Nyaya Philosophical System was propagated by:
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Answer: (B) Gautama

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The Nyaya philosophical system, one of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy, was founded by the sage Gautama, who is also referred to as Akshapada Gautama. He is credited with authoring the Nyaya Sutras, the foundational text of this school, likely composed between the 6th century BCE and the 2nd century CE. The Nyaya system is primarily concerned with logic, methodology, and epistemology. It asserts that obtaining valid knowledge is the essential means to achieve liberation (Moksha) from suffering. This school established a systematic framework for reasoning and identified four independent sources of valid knowledge: perception (Pratyaksha), inference (Anumana), comparison (Upamana), and testimony (Shabda). Its logical techniques were so influential that they were eventually adopted by almost all other Indian philosophical schools.

87History
The largest number of copper coins in northern and north western India were issued by
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Answer: (B) Kushans

Explanation

The Kushans issued the largest number of copper coins in northern and north-western India to meet the demands of a highly monetized economy and widespread local trade. While they were the first to issue gold coins on a large scale in India, their copper coinage was produced in significantly greater volume to facilitate everyday transactions for the general population. Emperors such as Vima Kadphises and Kanishka I standardized these issues, which were distributed extensively from the Oxus to the Ganges. The abundance of these copper coins in archaeological finds throughout the region confirms their dominant role in the monetary system of the early centuries CE.

88History
'Nishaka' in ancient India was known as
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Answer: (A) Gold ornament

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In ancient India, particularly during the Vedic period, the term Nishaka (or Nishka) primarily referred to a gold ornament, often described as a necklace or necklet. The Rigveda mentions it as a piece of jewelry worn by both men and women. Because these ornaments were made of gold and maintained a relatively standardized weight, they gradually began to serve as a medium of exchange and a unit of value. This transitioned the Nishaka from a purely decorative item into a primitive form of currency that preceded the formal introduction of minted coins in the later historical periods. It was frequently used for making donations and as a measure of wealth in various rituals and social transactions.

89Art and Culture
The first disciple of Lord Mahavir was
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Answer: (A) Jamali

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Jamali was the son-in-law of Lord Mahavira, having married his daughter Priyadarshana. Upon Mahavira attaining Kevala Jnana and establishing the Jain order, Jamali became his first formal disciple. He is a prominent figure in Jain history, known for being the first to accept the Tirthankara's teachings and later for leading the first internal dissent, or Ninhava, within the faith concerning the timing of the completion of an action.

90History
The main outcome of 1921-22 non-cooperation movement was
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Answer: (A) Hindu-Muslim unity

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Movement achieved a significant level of communal harmony because it was launched in conjunction with the Khilafat Movement. Mahatma Gandhi saw the Khilafat issue as a unique opportunity to bring Hindus and Muslims together on a single platform to fight against British rule. During the 1921-22 period, leaders from both communities shared the same stages and the masses participated collectively in demonstrations, strikes, and the boycott of British institutions. This period is often cited as the peak of Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the Indian independence struggle, as the joint grievances against the Rowlatt Act, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and the Khilafat wrongs created a powerful unified front.

91History
The Brahma Samaj is based on the principle of
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Answer: (A) Monotheism

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The Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828, was primarily based on the principle of monotheism. It emphasized the worship of one single, formless God and rejected the use of idols, images, or sacrifices in religious practice. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply influenced by the monotheistic teachings of the Upanishads and sought to purge Hinduism of what he considered superstitious elements. The Samaj promoted a rational and ethical approach to religion, focusing on the universal brotherhood of man and the spiritual unity of the Divine, as articulated in his work Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin, which translates to A Gift to Monotheists.

92History
Assertion (A): The Quit India Movement marked the culmination of Indian National Movement. Reason (R): After the Quit India Movement it was a matter of time to find a suitable mechanism for transfer of power. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

The Quit India Movement of 1942 represented the final major mass uprising of the Indian National Movement, marking its culmination by shifting the focus from incremental reforms to the immediate and total withdrawal of British authority. It was a decisive turning point where the mass consciousness reached a level that made continued colonial administration unsustainable. Following the suppression of the movement and the conclusion of World War II, the British government recognized that holding India by force was no longer viable. The political landscape shifted from active mass struggle to institutional negotiations, such as the Simla Conference, the Cabinet Mission, and finally the Mountbatten Plan. These initiatives were essentially administrative and constitutional efforts to find a viable mechanism for the transfer of power. Since the movement fundamentally broke the back of British colonial prestige and control, it made the subsequent independence of India an inevitable outcome, with the remaining years spent primarily on determining the logistics of decolonization.

93Science and Technology
The rain-drops are spherical because
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Answer: (C) the water has surface tension

Explanation

Surface tension is a property of liquids arising from the cohesive forces between molecules, which causes the surface layer to behave like a stretched elastic membrane. This phenomenon results in a tendency for the liquid surface to contract and occupy the minimum possible surface area for a given volume. In geometry, a sphere is the shape that possesses the smallest surface area per unit of volume. According to the principle of minimum potential energy, the surface energy U is given by the relation U = γA, where γ represents the surface tension and A is the surface area. To minimize this energy, the water molecules pull inward, forcing the falling raindrop into a spherical shape.

94Art and Culture
Which among the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Zakir Hussain-Harmonium

Explanation

Zakir Hussain is a world-renowned Indian percussionist and a legendary master of the tabla. He is the son of the famous tabla player Ustad Alla Rakha and is a key figure in the Punjab gharana of Hindustani classical music. Throughout his career, he has been recognized globally for his virtuosity on the tabla, earning prestigious honors such as the Padma Shri in 1988 and the Padma Bhushan in 2002. He is not associated with the harmonium, which is a keyboard-based bellows instrument used primarily for melodic accompaniment in Indian music.

95Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding Dr. B.R. Ambedkar are correct? 1. He founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936. 2. He founded the People's Education Society in 1945. 3. He was appointed Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly. 4. He founded the Republican Party of India. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936 to provide a political platform for the working classes and to challenge the socio-economic inequalities inherent in the caste system. In 1945, he established the People's Education Society with the aim of promoting higher education and social equity among the depressed classes. He was also appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly on August 29, 1947, playing the pivotal role in framing the Indian Constitution. Although he had planned the formation of the Republican Party of India to replace the Scheduled Castes Federation, the party was formally established in 1957 by his followers after his demise in December 1956.

96Art and Culture
Sonagiri, the abode of 108 Jain temples, lies in the close proximity of
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Answer: (A) Datia

Explanation

Sonagiri is a sacred pilgrimage site for Digambara Jains located in the Datia district of Madhya Pradesh. The site is renowned for its collection of 108 temples, with 77 located on the hill and the remainder in the village below. It is considered a Siddha Kshetra, a place where many saints are believed to have attained salvation. The main temple is dedicated to Lord Chandraprabhu, the eighth Tirthankara of Jainism. Geographically, Sonagiri is situated approximately 15 kilometers from the city of Datia, which serves as the nearest major town and administrative center for the temple complex.

97Art and Culture
Govind Palace, an excellent specimen of Hindu architecture is located at
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Answer: (A) Datia

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Govind Palace, also known as the Satkhanda Palace or the Bir Singh Deo Palace, is a seven-story structural marvel located in Datia, Madhya Pradesh. Built in 1614 by the Bundela ruler Maharaja Bir Singh Deo, it is widely regarded as one of the finest examples of domestic Hindu architecture in India. The palace is unique for being constructed entirely of stone and brick without the use of iron or wood. It features a symmetrical square layout with a central courtyard and is adorned with intricate stone carvings, delicate lattices, and grand domes that represent a sophisticated fusion of Rajput and regional Bundela styles. The structure was commissioned to welcome the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, highlighting the political and cultural alliances of the Bundela dynasty during that era.

98History
The Swadeshbhimani was edited by
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Answer: (C) K. Ram Krishna Pillai

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K. Ramakrishna Pillai, widely known as Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai, was a formidable journalist and social reformer in the princely state of Travancore. He took over the editorship of the newspaper Swadeshabhimani in 1906, which had been founded by Vakkom Moulavi. Pillai utilized the publication to fearlessly criticize the autocratic administration of the then Diwan, P. Rajagopalachari, and the corruption within the royal government. His radical writings and advocacy for democratic rights led to the confiscation of the newspaper's press and his subsequent arrest and deportation from Travancore in 1910. He is remembered as a martyr for the cause of freedom of the press and political rights in modern Kerala.

99History
Which one of the following is not true about the Cripps Mission?
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Answer: (C) The formation of new Executive Council with equal representation for both Hindus | Muslims.

Explanation

The formation of a new Executive Council with equal representation for Hindus and Muslims was a central feature of the Wavell Plan and the Simla Conference of 1945, not the Cripps Mission of 1942. The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, was primarily concerned with securing Indian support for the British war effort by promising Dominion status and a constitution-making body after World War II. It also introduced the concept of provincial autonomy regarding the new constitution, but it did not propose specific communal ratios or parity for the Executive Council in its set of proposals.

100History
Who among the following presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress held in March 1931. This session was particularly significant as it was held in the aftermath of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and the execution of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru. Under Patel's presidency, the Congress adopted two landmark resolutions: the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the Resolution on the National Economic Programme. These resolutions formed the bedrock of the socio-economic vision for independent India, advocating for civil liberties, equality before the law, and state control of key industries and services. The session also ratified the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, enabling the Congress to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

101History
The first Indian Prime Minister who visited Afghanistan is
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Answer: (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India to undertake an official visit to Afghanistan, traveling to Kabul in September 1959. During this historic four-day visit, he held high-level discussions with King Mohammed Zahir Shah and Prime Minister Mohammed Daoud Khan. The visit was instrumental in strengthening the ancient cultural and civilizational ties between the two nations while aligning their foreign policy objectives through the Non-Aligned Movement. This engagement established a foundation for bilateral cooperation in trade, education, and regional security, marking the beginning of significant Indian diplomatic presence and developmental assistance in post-independence Afghanistan.

102Polity and Governance
Who, among the following, presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (B) Speaker

Explanation

Under Article 118(4) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. A joint sitting is summoned by the President under Article 108 to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of a bill. The Speaker is the constitutional head of the Lok Sabha and represents the collective voice of the lower house, which is why the rules of procedure for joint sittings are also derived from the rules of the Lok Sabha. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the session.

103Polity and Governance
The importance of Kesavanand Bharti Case lies in the fact that
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Answer: (B) the Supreme Court enunciated the doctrine of basic features of the Constitution

Explanation

In the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India propounded the Doctrine of Basic Structure. This judicial principle holds that while the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot exercise this power to alter, damage, or destroy the fundamental features or the essential identity of the Constitution. The ruling established that constitutional supremacy prevails over parliamentary sovereignty, ensuring that the core values such as democracy, secularism, federalism, and judicial review remain inviolable. This doctrine acts as a permanent check on the amending power of the legislature, protecting the Constitution from being subverted by a temporary majority in Parliament.

104Science and Technology
When the moon size is half of the full moon, the angle between the Sun, the Earth and the Moon is
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Answer: (B) 90°

Explanation

The half-moon appearance occurs when the Moon is at quadrature, which is the point in its orbit where its angular distance from the Sun is 90° as measured from Earth. This occurs during the first quarter and third quarter phases. In this configuration, the lines connecting the Earth to the Sun and the Earth to the Moon form a right angle. Because the observer on Earth is looking at the Moon from a direction perpendicular to the sunlight hitting it, exactly half of the Moon's illuminated hemisphere and half of its shadowed hemisphere are visible. This geometric alignment results in the Moon appearing as a semi-circle in the sky. While the physical dichotomy (the moment of exact half-illumination) occurs when the Sun-Moon-Earth angle is exactly 90°, for general astronomical purposes and standard orbital geometry, the Sun-Earth-Moon angle is considered to be 90° at these quarter phases.

105Economy
A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son. The age of the son is
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Answer: (B) 15 years

Explanation

Let the current age of the son be x years. Since the father is currently three times as old as his son, the father's age is 3x years. Five years ago, the son was (x - 5) years old and the father was (3x - 5) years old. According to the condition that the father was four times as old as the son five years back:

3x - 5 = 4(x - 5)

Expanding and solving the equation: 3x - 5 = 4x - 20 4x - 3x = 20 - 5 x = 15

The current age of the son is 15 years.

106Economy
If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width is decreased by 20%, the area will
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Answer: (B) decrease by 4%

Explanation

The area of a rectangle is the product of its length and width, A = L × W. When the length and width undergo successive percentage changes, the net percentage change in the area is given by the formula x + y + xy/100, where x is the percentage change in length and y is the percentage change in width.

Given a 20% increase in length (x = +20) and a 20% decrease in width (y = -20), we substitute these values into the formula:

Net Change = 20 - 20 + (20 × (-20))/100 Net Change = 0 - 400/100 Net Change = -4%

A negative result indicates a decrease. Thus, the total area decreases by 4%. This can also be verified by considering the scaling factors: the new area is 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96 of the original area, representing a 4% reduction.

107Economy
A man sold two scooters each at the same price; on one he gained 25% and on the other he lost 25%. In the transaction he did
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Answer: (A) lose

Explanation

When two items are sold at the same price, with one yielding a gain of x% and the other a loss of x%, the transaction always results in an overall net loss. This loss percentage is calculated using the standard formula Loss% = (x/10)². In this specific case, the man sells two scooters at the same price, gaining 25% on one and losing 25% on the other. Substituting x = 25 into the formula, we get Loss% = (25/10)² = 2.5² = 6.25%. Since the overall result is a net loss of 6.25%, the transaction leads to a loss.

108Economy
A sum of ₹1000 is divided between A, B and C and that A gets one-fourth of what B and C get together and B gets the same as C, then C gets
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Answer: (D) ₹400

Explanation

Let the shares of A, B, and C be A, B, and C respectively. The total sum is given as A + B + C = 1000. From the given conditions, we have B = C and A = 1/4(B + C). Substituting B = C into the second condition gives A = 1/4(C + C) = 1/4(2C) = C/2.

Substituting A = C/2 and B = C into the total sum equation:

C/2 + C + C = 1000

(C + 2C + 2C)/2 = 1000

5C/2 = 1000

5C = 2000

C = 400

Therefore, the share of C is ₹400.

109Economy
Out of 150 patients visiting a hospital 60 are suffering from high blood-pressure, 40 are suffering from heart problems and 20 are suffering from both. The number of patients who suffer from none of these two problems is:
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Answer: (C) 70

Explanation

The number of patients suffering from at least one of the two problems is calculated using the principle of inclusion-exclusion. Let n(A) be the number of patients with high blood pressure and n(B) be the number of patients with heart problems. We are given n(A) = 60, n(B) = 40, and the number of patients suffering from both as n(A ∩ B) = 20.

The number of patients suffering from at least one ailment is: n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B) n(A ∪ B) = 60 + 40 - 20 = 80

The total number of patients visiting the hospital is 150. The number of patients suffering from none of the problems is found by subtracting those suffering from at least one problem from the total number of patients: None = Total - n(A ∪ B) None = 150 - 80 = 70

110Science and Technology
If 2^(2x + 4) = 16^x, then 2^x is equal to
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Answer: (B) 4

Explanation

To find the value of 2ˣ, we first rewrite the given equation 2²ˣ⁺⁴ = 16ˣ using a common base. Since 16 = 2⁴, the equation can be expressed as:

2²ˣ⁺⁴ = (2⁴)ˣ 2²ˣ⁺⁴ = 2⁴ˣ

Since the bases are the same, we can equate the exponents:

2x + 4 = 4x 4 = 4x - 2x 4 = 2x x = 2

Substituting the value of x into the required expression 2ˣ:

2ˣ = 2² = 4

111Economy
If the radius of a circle is increased 100%, the area of the circle will increase by
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Answer: (C) 300%

Explanation

The area A of a circle is determined by the formula A = πr², where r represents the radius. If the radius is increased by 100%, the new radius R becomes r + 1.00r = 2r. Substituting this into the area formula, the new area A' is π(2r)² = 4πr². The increase in area is the difference between the new area and the original area, which is 4πr² - πr² = 3πr². To find the percentage increase, we divide this change by the original area and multiply by 100: (3πr² / πr²) × 100 = 300%.

This can also be solved using the successive percentage increase formula x + y + (xy/100). Since the area depends on r² (or r × r), and each r increases by 100%, the total increase is 100 + 100 + (100 × 100 / 100) = 300%.

112Science and Technology
If code for ABSENT is ZYHVMG, the code for PRESENT will be
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Answer: (B) KIVHVMG

Explanation

The coding pattern follows the rule of opposite pairs in the alphabet, where the sum of the numerical positions of the letter and its code is exactly 27. In the word ABSENT, A is the 1st letter and is replaced by Z (26th), B is the 2nd and replaced by Y (25th), S is the 19th and replaced by H (8th), E is the 5th and replaced by V (22nd), N is the 14th and replaced by M (13th), and T is the 20th and replaced by G (7th).

Applying this logic to PRESENT: P (16) becomes 27 - 16 = 11 (K) R (18) becomes 27 - 18 = 9 (I) E (5) becomes 27 - 5 = 22 (V) S (19) becomes 27 - 19 = 8 (H) E (5) becomes 27 - 5 = 22 (V) N (14) becomes 27 - 14 = 13 (M) T (20) becomes 27 - 20 = 7 (G)

Following this sequence, the code for PRESENT is KIVHVMG.

113Economy
Correct arrangement of 1/2, 2/5, 3/8, 7/13 in ascending order is
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Answer: (B) 3/8, 2/5, 1/2, 7/13

Explanation

To compare the fractions 1/2, 2/5, 3/8, and 7/13, we can convert them into their decimal equivalents. Dividing the numerators by the denominators, we obtain 3/8 = 0.375, 2/5 = 0.4, 1/2 = 0.5, and 7/13 ≈ 0.538. By comparing these decimal values, we observe that 0.375 < 0.4 < 0.5 < 0.538, which establishes the increasing order of the fractions.

Alternatively, the fractions can be compared using the cross-multiplication method. Comparing 3/8 and 2/5 by multiplying 3 × 5 = 15 and 8 × 2 = 16 shows that 15 < 16, so 3/8 < 2/5. Comparing 2/5 and 1/2 by multiplying 2 × 2 = 4 and 5 × 1 = 5 shows that 4 < 5, so 2/5 < 1/2. Finally, comparing 1/2 and 7/13 by multiplying 1 × 13 = 13 and 2 × 7 = 14 shows that 13 < 14, so 1/2 < 7/13. These steps confirm that the fractions arranged from smallest to largest are 3/8, then 2/5, then 1/2, and finally 7/13.

114Science and Technology
The missing terms in the sequence 1, 3, 7, ....., 31 ...... are
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Answer: (D) 15 and 63

Explanation

The terms in the sequence follow the general formula aₙ = 2ⁿ - 1, where n is the position of the term. For the first three terms, the values are 2¹ - 1 = 1, 2² - 1 = 3, and 2³ - 1 = 7. To find the first missing term (the fourth term), we calculate 2⁴ - 1 = 15. The next given term confirms the pattern as 2⁵ - 1 = 31. For the second missing term (the sixth term), the calculation is 2⁶ - 1 = 63.

Alternatively, the difference between consecutive terms follows the sequence of powers of 2. The differences are 3 - 1 = 2 (2¹) and 7 - 3 = 4 (2²). Following this geometric progression of differences, the next difference must be 2³ = 8, giving the fourth term as 7 + 8 = 15. The next difference is 2⁴ = 16, which yields 15 + 16 = 31, and the subsequent difference is 2⁵ = 32, resulting in the sixth term as 31 + 32 = 63.

115Economy
If the average of a number, its 50% and its 25% is 210, the number is
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Answer: (C) 360

Explanation

Let the required number be x. According to the question, the other two numbers are 50% of x (which is 0.5x) and 25% of x (which is 0.25x). The average of these three values is stated to be 210.

Using the standard formula for average, we set up the equation: (x + 0.5x + 0.25x)/3 = 210

Combining the terms in the numerator gives: 1.75x/3 = 210 1.75x = 630

To solve for x, we can convert the decimal 1.75 to the fraction 7/4: 7/4x = 630 x = (630 × 4)/7 x = 90 × 4 x = 360

This result is verified by taking 360, its half (180), and its quarter (90); their sum is 630, which when divided by 3 results in the given average of 210.

116Art and Culture
'Mohini Attam' is the folk dance of
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

Mohiniyattam, which translates to the dance of the enchantress, is a classical dance form that originated in Kerala. It is characterized by its graceful, swaying body movements and delicate facial expressions, traditionally performed as a solo recital by women. The name is derived from Mohini, the feminine avatar of Lord Vishnu, who used her allure to assist the devas in reclaiming the nectar of immortality. The dance style is known for its lasya element, emphasizing beauty and femininity, and follows the principles laid down in the Natya Shastra. Historically, it was nurtured in the temples of Kerala and received significant royal patronage during the nineteenth century under the reign of Maharaja Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma.

117Economy
The most critical stage of irrigation in wheat is
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Answer: (A) C.R.I, state

Explanation

The Crown Root Initiation (CRI) stage is the most critical physiological period for irrigation in wheat cultivation, typically occurring about 21 days after sowing. During this phase, the plant begins to develop its permanent root system from the crown, which replaces the temporary seminal roots. Adequate soil moisture is vital at this specific time to ensure proper root anchorage and the initiation of tillers. Any water stress experienced during the CRI stage leads to poor root development and a significant reduction in the number of productive tillers, which ultimately results in a substantial decrease in grain yield.

118Economy
The Apex Body to finance agriculture in India is
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Answer: (B) NABARD

Explanation

NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee to function as the apex development bank for agriculture and rural development in India. It was created by an Act of Parliament to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. NABARD took over the agricultural credit functions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the refinancing functions of the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). As the lead institution for rural credit, it provides refinance facilities to various financial institutions, including State Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks, ensuring the flow of credit to the grassroots level for the promotion of agriculture, small-scale industries, and other rural economic activities.

119Science and Technology
The number of players in water polo is
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Answer: (C) 7

Explanation

Water polo is a competitive team sport played in water between two teams of seven players each. The standard lineup consists of six field players and one goalkeeper. The game is played in a pool where players must swim and tread water without touching the bottom or sides. International regulations established by FINA define this team size for standard match play to ensure a balance between offensive maneuvering and defensive coverage within the field of play.

120Economy
Which of the following statements are true about the 10th Five Year Plan? Select the correct answer from the code given below the statements. # Code: 1. 8% increase in GDP during the plan period. 2. Poverty ratio to be reduced and brought to 20% by 2007. 3. Literacy to be increased to 73% by 2007.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Tenth Five Year Plan (2002-2007) was the first plan to specify monitorable targets for social and economic development beyond just economic growth. The plan set a headline target of achieving an average GDP growth rate of 8% per annum throughout the period. To address social inequalities, it aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 20% by the year 2007, which constituted a 5 percentage point reduction from the 1999-2000 levels. Additionally, the plan targeted significant improvements in human development indicators, including a goal to increase the national literacy rate to 73% (often cited as 75% in final documents) by the end of the plan period in 2007. These targets were part of a broader strategy to ensure that high economic growth was inclusive and led to substantial improvements in the quality of life.

121Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about F-18 Super Hornet is not correct?
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Answer: (D) HAL is manufacturing it with the assistance of Boeing Company.

Explanation

The F/A-18E/F Super Hornet is a twin-engine, carrier-capable multirole fighter aircraft manufactured exclusively by the American aerospace company Boeing at its production facility in St. Louis, Missouri. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), India's state-owned aerospace and defense company, has never been involved in the manufacturing or licensed production of the Super Hornet. While Boeing has proposed industrial partnerships and technology transfers to India during various defense procurement competitions, such as the Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft (MMRCA) program, no manufacturing agreement or production line for this aircraft was ever established with HAL.

122History
Which one of the following Satyagrahas was not lead by Mahatma Gandhi?
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Answer: (C) Bardoli

Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was a major movement in the Indian independence struggle that was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The satyagraha was organized in the Bardoli taluka of Gujarat to protest against the unjust 30 percent increase in land revenue imposed by the Bombay Presidency government during a time of agricultural distress and famine. Patel organized the local farmers and maintained a strictly non-violent resistance despite the seizure of property and livestock by the authorities. The movement was ultimately successful, leading the British government to appoint a committee that reduced the tax hike significantly. It was during this specific struggle that Vallabhbhai Patel was given the title of Sardar by the women of Bardoli in recognition of his leadership and determination.

123History
Which one of the following was not the language in which 'The Indian Opinion' paper was published?
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Answer: (D) Urdu

Explanation

The Indian Opinion was a weekly newspaper established by Mahatma Gandhi in 1903 during his time in South Africa. The publication served as a critical platform for the Indian community to protest against racial discrimination and legislative injustice. To ensure broad reach among the diverse Indian population, the paper was published in four languages: English, Gujarati, Hindi, and Tamil. While these languages represented the majority of the readers Gandhi aimed to mobilize, Urdu was never a language in which the newspaper was printed.

124History
Who accused Indian National Congress of practising politics of 'Pray, petition and protest'?
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Answer: (A) B.G. Tilak

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent leader of the Extremist faction of the Indian National Congress, was a fierce critic of the methods adopted by the Moderate leadership during the early years of the nationalist movement. He described the Moderates' reliance on constitutional agitations, such as sending memorandums, passing resolutions, and sending delegations to the British authorities, as political mendicancy. Tilak used the phrase pray, petition, and protest to characterize what he viewed as an ineffective and submissive approach toward colonial rule. He argued that the British would not grant political rights out of generosity and instead advocated for more assertive methods like Swadeshi, boycott, and national education to achieve Swaraj.

125History
Vande Mataram became the theme song of the Indian National Movement during
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Answer: (D) Swadesh Movement

Explanation

Vande Mataram, a poem from Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's 1882 novel Anandamath, emerged as the primary anthem of the Indian national struggle during the Swadeshi Movement of 1905. The movement was launched to protest the Partition of Bengal proposed by Lord Curzon. During the mass demonstrations and protest marches, particularly on the day the partition took effect, people in Bengal and across India sang the song as a symbol of unity and defiance against colonial rule. The British administration’s subsequent attempts to ban the public chanting of Vande Mataram solidified its status as a powerful political tool and the defining theme song of the nationalist agitation.

126Science and Technology
The smallest unit of length is
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Answer: (D) fermimetre

Explanation

The fermimetre, also known as the femtometre (fm), is an SI unit of length equivalent to 10⁻¹⁵ metres. This scale is primarily used in nuclear physics to measure the diameters of atomic nuclei and subatomic particles. To determine the smallest unit, the physical lengths are compared: the micrometre or micron is 10⁻⁶ m, the nanometre is 10⁻⁹ m, and the angstrom is 10⁻¹⁰ m. Since 10⁻¹⁵ is a smaller numerical value than 10⁻¹⁰, 10⁻⁹, or 10⁻⁶, the fermimetre represents the shortest distance. The unit is five orders of magnitude smaller than the angstrom, providing the resolution necessary to describe the structure of the nucleus, which typically ranges from 1 to 10 fm in diameter.

127Science and Technology
The filament of an electric bulb is made of
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Answer: (D) Tungsten

Explanation

Tungsten is the preferred material for the filament of incandescent light bulbs primarily due to its exceptionally high melting point of approximately 3422°C. This characteristic allows the filament to be heated to the high temperatures required for incandescence—the emission of visible light—without melting or losing its structural integrity. Furthermore, tungsten exhibits a very low vapor pressure at these elevated temperatures, which significantly reduces the rate of evaporation of the metal. This ensures that the filament does not thin out too quickly and minimizes the deposition of tungsten atoms on the inner surface of the glass bulb, which would otherwise darken the bulb and reduce light output. Its high tensile strength and ability to be drawn into very fine wires also make it ideal for the coiled-coil configurations used to improve luminous efficiency.

128Science and Technology
Wilhelm Roentgen invented
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Answer: (B) X-Ray Machine

Explanation

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen was a German physicist who discovered electromagnetic radiation in a wavelength range known as X-rays on November 8, 1895. While experimenting with cathode rays in a vacuum tube, he noticed that a fluorescent screen in his laboratory began to glow, even though the tube was shielded. This led to the realization that a highly penetrating form of radiation was being emitted. He subsequently produced the first medical X-ray image, which demonstrated the ability of these rays to pass through soft tissue but not bone. This discovery earned him the inaugural Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901 and led to the development of the X-ray machine for medical diagnostics.

129Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists: List-I: (A) Acceleration (B) Force (C) Work done (D) Impulse List-II (Physical (Units): 1. Joule 2. Newton second 3. Newton 4. Metre/ second2
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Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time, which corresponds to the unit metre/second². Force, according to Newton's second law, is the product of mass and acceleration, measured in Newtons. Work done is calculated as the product of force and displacement in the direction of the force, with the Joule being its SI unit. Impulse is defined as the change in momentum or the product of force and the time interval during which it acts, resulting in the unit Newton second.

130Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not true about cosmic rays?
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Answer: (A) They are electromagnetic waves.

Explanation

Cosmic rays are not electromagnetic waves because they are composed of high-energy charged particles, primarily protons and alpha particles, rather than photons. Unlike electromagnetic radiation such as X-rays or gamma rays, which consists of massless and chargeless oscillations of electric and magnetic fields, cosmic rays possess mass and electric charge. This physical composition causes them to be deflected by magnetic fields in space and within the Earth's magnetosphere, a property that electromagnetic waves do not exhibit. Although they move at speeds approaching the velocity of light, their identity as subatomic matter distinguishes them fundamentally from the electromagnetic spectrum.

131Science and Technology
Solder is an alloy of
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Answer: (A) tin and lead

Explanation

Soft solder is a fusible metal alloy primarily composed of tin (Sn) and lead (Pb). This combination creates a material with a melting point significantly lower than that of the individual metals, which allows it to melt and flow into joints to bond metal workpieces. Traditionally, a common ratio for soldering in electronics and plumbing is approximately 60 percent tin and 40 percent lead. This specific alloy provides excellent wetting properties and electrical conductivity, making it ideal for creating reliable mechanical and electrical connections. The lead component is used to lower the melting temperature and improve the flow characteristics of the tin, facilitating ease of use in various industrial applications.

132Science and Technology
The colour of the Star is an indication of its
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Answer: (B) temperature

Explanation

The color of a star is determined by its surface temperature according to Wien's Displacement Law. This physical principle states that the wavelength λₘₐₓ at which the power of radiation emitted by a blackbody is maximum is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature T. The relationship is expressed by the formula λₘₐₓ = b/T, where b is Wien's displacement constant. Because stars approximate blackbody radiators, hotter stars emit most of their energy at shorter wavelengths, appearing blue or white, while cooler stars emit more energy at longer wavelengths, appearing red or orange. This correlation forms the basis of the spectral classification system used in stellar astrophysics.

133Science and Technology
CNG used in automobiles to check pollution, mainly consists of
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Answer: (A) CH_4

Explanation

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is primarily composed of methane (CH₄), which typically constitutes about 80% to 90% of its volume. It is used in automobiles as a cleaner alternative to petrol and diesel because methane undergoes more complete combustion due to its simple molecular structure and high hydrogen-to-carbon ratio. This leads to a significant reduction in the emission of harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter. CNG is produced by compressing natural gas to less than 1% of the volume it occupies at standard atmospheric pressure, making it a viable and environmentally friendly fuel for internal combustion engines.

134Science and Technology
Pyrethrin used in mosquito coil is obtained from
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Answer: (A) a seed plant

Explanation

Pyrethrins are a class of natural organic compounds with potent insecticidal properties. They are primarily extracted from the dried flower heads of certain species in the genus Chrysanthemum, such as Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium and Chrysanthemum coccineum. These species are members of the Asteraceae family and are classified as angiosperms, which are flowering plants that produce seeds. The chemicals act by targeting the nervous systems of insects, making them highly effective active ingredients in mosquito coils and domestic insect sprays. Since the source is a flowering botanical organism that reproduces via seeds, pyrethrin is derived from a seed plant.

135Science and Technology
Which one of the following chemicals helps in fruit ripening?
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Answer: (A) Ethaphon

Explanation

Ethephon is a synthetic plant growth regulator used extensively in agriculture to accelerate the ripening of fruits. It acts as a source of ethylene, which is a naturally occurring gaseous hormone in plants that regulates physiological processes such as fruit ripening, flower induction, and leaf abscission. When Ethephon is applied to a plant, it is absorbed and subsequently undergoes a chemical breakdown to release ethylene gas directly into the plant cells. This release of ethylene triggers the enzymatic pathways responsible for the transformation of various fruit characteristics, including the softening of the pulp, the development of pigments, and the conversion of complex carbohydrates into simple sugars, thereby ensuring uniform and timely ripening.

136Science and Technology
Heroin is obtained from
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Answer: (B) Opium poppy

Explanation

Heroin, chemically known as diacetylmorphine, is a semi-synthetic opioid derived from the morphine found in the opium poppy plant, Papaver somniferum. The process begins with the collection of opium, which is the dried latex obtained by incising the unripe seed pods of the poppy. This latex contains several alkaloids, including morphine, which is then chemically processed through acetylation to produce heroin. This modification enhances the lipid solubility of the compound, allowing it to reach the brain more quickly than morphine itself.

137Science and Technology
Which one of the following liquids is very good conductor of heat?
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Answer: (A) Mercury

Explanation

Mercury is a liquid metal, and like all metals, it possesses a high density of free electrons. These delocalized electrons facilitate the rapid transfer of kinetic energy through the substance, resulting in a thermal conductivity that is significantly higher than that of non-metallic liquids. While most liquids are poor conductors and primarily transfer heat through convection, mercury utilizes electronic conduction, which is a far more efficient mechanism for heat transport. Its high thermal conductivity, combined with a low specific heat capacity, allows it to respond quickly to temperature changes, a property that historically made it the standard fluid for use in thermometers and various heat exchange systems.

138Science and Technology
Aretether, a drug to cure malaria is obtained from a
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Answer: (A) seed plant

Explanation

Arteether and Artemether are potent antimalarial drugs derived from artemisinin, a compound originally isolated from the plant Artemisia annua, commonly known as sweet wormwood. This plant is a member of the Asteraceae family and is classified as an angiosperm, which is a group of plants that produce seeds within an enclosure. As a flowering annual herb, Artemisia annua is a seed plant. The extraction of artemisinin from its aerial parts and the subsequent semi-synthetic production of its derivatives have provided essential treatments for multi-drug resistant strains of Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

139Geography
In cold weather, aquatic animals survive when water at the top layer of the lake freezes into ice because
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Answer: (D) water has highest density at 4^ degreesC so underneath the top layer of ice there is layer of water.

Explanation

Water exhibits a property known as anomalous expansion, where it reaches its maximum density at 4°C rather than at its freezing point. As the temperature of a lake drops in winter, the surface water cools, becomes denser, and sinks toward the bottom. This circulation continues until the entire column of water reaches 4°C. If the surface water cools further toward 0°C, it becomes less dense than the 4°C water below and remains at the surface until it freezes into ice. Because ice is less dense than liquid water, it floats and acts as a thermal insulator, significantly slowing the loss of heat from the water below to the cold atmosphere. This stratification ensures that while the top layer is frozen, the water underneath remains in a liquid state at approximately 4°C, providing a viable habitat for aquatic life to survive.

140Science and Technology
The Mutation Theory of Evolution was enunciated by
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Answer: (D) Hugode Vries

Explanation

Hugo de Vries, a Dutch botanist, proposed the Mutation Theory of Evolution in 1901 based on his observations of the evening primrose, Oenothera lamarckiana. He argued that new species originate from the sudden, large, and heritable changes in the characteristics of an organism, which he termed mutations. Unlike the theory of gradual change, de Vries suggested that evolution is a discontinuous process where speciation occurs through single-step large mutations, a phenomenon known as saltation. According to this theory, these random and directionless mutations provide the primary raw material for evolutionary change, independently of the environmental factors that influence natural selection.

141Geography
Which one of the following is not related with ecological balance?
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Answer: (C) Industrial Management

Explanation

Industrial management is a field primarily focused on the administrative, economic, and technical aspects of running an industrial organization. Its core objectives involve optimizing production processes, managing human resources, increasing efficiency, and maximizing financial returns. Unlike disciplines that focus on the preservation and restoration of natural ecosystems, industrial management is centered on anthropogenic systems and commercial output. While industrial processes can influence the environment, the primary framework of industrial management does not aim to maintain the dynamic equilibrium of biotic and abiotic components in nature, making it the outlier among activities directed toward ecological stability.

142Geography
Which one of the following trees is considered to be an environmental hazard?
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Answer: (D) Eucalyptus

Explanation

Eucalyptus is widely regarded as an environmental hazard in many regions due to its extremely high rate of transpiration and deep root systems that aggressively deplete groundwater reserves. Introduced for commercial timber and social forestry, it often causes the lowering of the water table, affecting nearby agricultural lands and drying up local wells. The tree also exhibits allelopathy, a process where it releases chemical toxins into the soil that inhibit the growth of surrounding vegetation, leading to a significant loss of local biodiversity. Because it supports very little undergrowth and provides minimal food or habitat for native wildlife, it is often referred to as an ecological terrorist in the context of non-native environments.

143Science and Technology
A species is considered to be extinct if it has been seen in its natural
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Answer: (D) 50 years

Explanation

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) maintains the Red List of Threatened Species, which provides the global standard for assessing extinction risk. According to these established conservation guidelines, a species is officially categorized as extinct if it has not been observed in its natural habitat for a period of 50 years. This 50-year criterion serves as a definitive timeframe for researchers and ecologists to confirm that the last individual of a taxon has died, following exhaustive surveys conducted across the species entire historical range and known ecological niches. This duration is used to ensure that the lack of sightings is not simply due to seasonal cycles, population fluctuations, or the difficulties of monitoring species in remote or inaccessible terrains.

144Geography
Man-made pollutants are called a
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Answer: (A) Xenobiotics

Explanation

Xenobiotics are chemical substances found within an organism or environment that are not naturally produced or expected to be present. The term is derived from the Greek words xenos, meaning stranger, and bios, meaning life. In environmental science, it specifically refers to synthetic, man-made compounds such as pesticides, plastics, and industrial solvents that are introduced into nature through human activity. Because these substances are foreign to natural biological systems, ecosystems often lack the specific enzymes or microbial pathways necessary to degrade them, leading to environmental persistence and potential bioaccumulation. This makes xenobiotics a primary classification for anthropogenic pollutants.

145Science and Technology
Cholesterol is
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Answer: (C) a steroid

Explanation

Cholesterol is a sterol, which is a type of lipid molecule categorized as a steroid. Chemically, it is characterized by its tetracyclic structure consisting of four fused carbon rings, which is the hallmark of all steroid compounds. In animal biology, cholesterol is an essential structural component of cell membranes, where it regulates fluidity and permeability. Beyond its structural role, it serves as the fundamental metabolic precursor for the biosynthesis of all steroid hormones, including cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, and testosterone, as well as bile acids and vitamin D.

146Polity and Governance
Which among the following factors are responsible for sex-ratio in India? 1. High maternity death rate 2. High female child death rate 3. Female foeticide 4. Birth of more male children than female children Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All four factors are responsible for India's sex ratio. A high maternity death rate removes women from the population during their reproductive years, directly reducing the number of females. A high female child death rate reflects the discrimination girl children face in nutrition, immunisation, and access to healthcare, so more girls than boys die in infancy and early childhood. Female foeticide, driven by a deep-rooted preference for male children and the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technology, reduces the number of female births at source. Finally, the birth of more male children than female children is itself a determinant: the natural sex ratio at birth already favours males (roughly 105 boys per 100 girls), and sex-selective practices push this imbalance well beyond the biological norm. Collectively, these factors contributed to the skewed demographic profile of India as observed in the 2001 Census and the years leading up to 2005, making option (d) — 1, 2, 3 and 4 — correct.

147Geography
The decadal growth of population in India highest during
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Answer: (B) 1961-1971

Explanation

India experienced its peak decadal population growth rate during the 1961-1971 census period, recording an increase of 24.80 percent. This era marked a transition in the demographic cycle where the mortality rate declined significantly due to advancements in medical science, mass vaccination programs, and improved food distribution, while the fertility rate did not see a corresponding decline. Consequently, the population grew at its fastest rate in Indian history during this specific decade.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2B
  3. 3B
  4. 4A
  5. 5D
  6. 6D
  7. 7C
  8. 8A
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11C
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14B
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19D
  20. 20A
  21. 21B
  22. 22B
  23. 23C
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26B
  27. 27D
  28. 28B
  29. 29D
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34D
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37D
  38. 38D
  39. 39B
  40. 40B
  41. 41C
  42. 42D
  43. 43B
  44. 44D
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47D
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51A
  52. 52B
  53. 53C
  54. 54A
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57D
  58. 58B
  59. 59D
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65A
  66. 66A
  67. 67B
  68. 68D
  69. 69A
  70. 70C
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77B
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80D
  81. 81B
  82. 82A
  83. 83D
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86B
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89A
  90. 90A
  91. 91A
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96A
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101A
  102. 102B
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105B
  106. 106B
  107. 107A
  108. 108D
  109. 109C
  110. 110B
  111. 111C
  112. 112B
  113. 113B
  114. 114D
  115. 115C
  116. 116C
  117. 117A
  118. 118B
  119. 119C
  120. 120D
  121. 121D
  122. 122C
  123. 123D
  124. 124A
  125. 125D
  126. 126D
  127. 127D
  128. 128B
  129. 129C
  130. 130A
  131. 131A
  132. 132B
  133. 133A
  134. 134A
  135. 135A
  136. 136B
  137. 137A
  138. 138A
  139. 139D
  140. 140D
  141. 141C
  142. 142D
  143. 143D
  144. 144A
  145. 145C
  146. 146D
  147. 147B

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