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UPPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 143 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

143
Questions
6
Subjects
2
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography3323%
  • Polity and Governance3122%
  • Science and Technology3021%
  • History2215%
  • Economy1913%
  • Art and Culture86%
1Economy
The newly appointed Managing Director of I.M.F. is
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Answer: (A) Kristalina Georgieva

Explanation

Kristalina Georgieva, a Bulgarian economist, was appointed as the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on September 25, 2019, and officially assumed her duties on October 1, 2019. She succeeded Christine Lagarde, who resigned to take over the leadership of the European Central Bank. Prior to this role, Georgieva served as the Chief Executive Officer of the World Bank and had also functioned as the Acting President of the World Bank Group earlier in 2019. Her selection marked a historic milestone as she became the first person from an emerging market economy to lead the IMF since its establishment in 1944.

2Polity and Governance
The National Programme launched on October 02, 2019 by the Indian Government to encourage talented children to enrich their skills is
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Answer: (C) DHRUV

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme, titled DHRUV, was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to identify and encourage talented students to enrich their skills and knowledge. Named after the Pole Star, the program focuses on two specific areas: Science and the Performing Arts. It selects gifted students from across the country, primarily from classes 9 to 12, to provide them with specialized mentorship and guidance from experts in their respective fields. The initiative aims to foster a culture of innovation and excellence, allowing young talents to realize their full potential and contribute significantly to the progress of the nation.

3Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Thomas (B) Greta (C) Dr. Usha (D) Carrie Lam List-II: 1. Recipient of Cook Bharat- Bharati Award 2. Hong Kong Thunberg Leader 3. Environ- Kiran mental Activist
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Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2

Explanation

Thomas is linked to Thomas Cook, the historic British travel company that collapsed in September 2019 after 178 years of operation. Greta refers to Greta Thunberg, the Swedish environmental activist who became a global figure for climate action and was named Time Person of the Year in 2019. Dr. Usha refers to Dr. Usha Kiran Khan, a renowned writer who was honored with the Bharat Bharti Award for 2018, the highest literary award given by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan. Carrie Lam served as the Chief Executive of Hong Kong during the significant political unrest and pro-democracy protests that took place in 2019.

4Economy
The 2019 Nobel Prize for Economics was given to a woman for the second time, name the first woman who was earlier awarded this prize.
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Answer: (D) Elinar Ostrom

Explanation

Elinor Ostrom became the first woman to receive the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 2009. She was awarded the prize for her influential analysis of economic governance, specifically regarding the commons. Her research demonstrated how common resources, such as forests, fisheries, or groundwater basins, can be managed successfully by the people who use them rather than by governments or private companies. This work challenged the established economic theory known as the tragedy of the commons, showing that local communities often develop sophisticated mechanisms for decision-making and rule enforcement to maintain resource sustainability.

5Polity and Governance
Rural Sanitation Strategy launched by Ministry of Jal Shakti in September 2019 relates to which of the following periods?
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Answer: (B) 2019-2029

Explanation

The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti launched the 10-Year Rural Sanitation Strategy spanning the period 2019-2029. This strategic framework focuses on sustaining the Open Defecation Free status of villages achieved under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen and ensuring that the sanitation behaviors are permanently adopted. The strategy prioritizes the management of solid and liquid waste in rural areas, aiming for the transition to ODF Plus status. It outlines the roles of various stakeholders, including the central, state, and local governments, to provide technical and financial support for universal access to safe sanitation and the improvement of environmental cleanliness across rural India over the specified decade.

6Science and Technology
Central Institute of Indian Languages is located at which of the following places?
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Answer: (B) Mysore

Explanation

The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) was established on July 17, 1969, and is headquartered in Mysore, Karnataka. It operates as a subordinate office of the Ministry of Education, Government of India. The institute was founded with the objective of protecting and documenting minor, minority, and tribal languages, while also promoting the development of the 22 scheduled languages of India. It serves as a premier center for research in linguistics and language pedagogy, assisting the government in formulating and implementing language policies and providing specialized training for school teachers under the Three-Language Formula.

7Economy
India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year
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Answer: (B) 2030

Explanation

India committed to achieving Land Degradation Neutrality by 2030 in accordance with the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification and Sustainable Development Goal 15.3. During the 14th Conference of Parties to the UNCCD hosted in New Delhi in 2019, the Indian government increased its target for restoring degraded land from 21 million hectares to 26 million hectares by the year 2030. This goal focuses on reversing land degradation through sustainable land management, afforestation, and the reclamation of fallow lands to ensure ecosystem services and food security are maintained.

8Science and Technology
Which Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle was used by ISRO to launch Chandrayaan-2 space craft?
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Answer: (A) GSLV-MK III-MI

Explanation

ISRO launched the Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft on July 22, 2019, using the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III-M1 (GSLV Mk III-M1). The GSLV Mk III is India's most powerful three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle, designed to carry heavy satellites into Geostationary Transfer Orbit. The M1 designation indicates that this was the first operational flight of the GSLV Mk III launcher. This specific vehicle was required to lift the nearly 3.8-tonne integrated module, which included the orbiter, the Vikram lander, and the Pragyan rover. The mission was successfully executed from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, placing the spacecraft into an initial Earth parking orbit before its journey to the Moon.

9Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statements about India's largest Charkha is/ are true? 1. It was inaugurated in Noida. 2. It is made of used plastic waste. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

In October 2019, the world's largest spinning wheel or Charkha was inaugurated at Sector 94 in Noida to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. This massive structure, measuring 14 feet by 20 feet by 8 feet, was constructed using approximately 1,250 kg of used plastic waste. The project was a joint initiative by the Noida Authority and the Confederation of Indian Industry to promote environmental sustainability and the Swachh Bharat Mission. By utilizing non-biodegradable waste to create a symbol of self-reliance, the installation serves as a tribute to Gandhi's philosophy while highlighting the importance of plastic waste management and recycling in urban development.

10Science and Technology
Which of the following organisms has white blood?
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Answer: (B) Cockroach

Explanation

Cockroaches possess an open circulatory system in which the circulating fluid, known as hemolymph, flows freely through the body cavity to bathe internal organs. Unlike vertebrates, cockroaches do not utilize their blood to transport oxygen; instead, they rely on a complex network of tracheal tubes that deliver air directly to their tissues. Because the blood is not involved in gas exchange, it lacks respiratory pigments such as hemoglobin, which contains iron and imparts a red color to blood. In the absence of these pigments, the hemolymph of a cockroach remains colorless or appears white. Its primary functions are the transport of nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes throughout the body.

11Science and Technology
Nitrogen fixing bacteria make combination with cells of the roots of
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Answer: (A) Pulses

Explanation

Pulses belong to the Leguminosae family and are characterized by their symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, most notably Rhizobium. These bacteria enter the root hairs and stimulate the formation of root nodules, which serve as specialized organs for nitrogen fixation. Inside these nodules, the bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃) using the enzyme nitrogenase. This process provides the plant with a vital source of nitrogen for synthesizing proteins and nucleic acids, while the plant supplies the bacteria with carbohydrates derived from photosynthesis. This mutualistic interaction allows pulse crops to thrive in nitrogen-poor soils and naturally enriches the soil's nitrogen content.

12Science and Technology
What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?
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Answer: (A) Its radius increases

Explanation

When a soap bubble is charged, the charges spread uniformly over its surface due to mutual repulsion between like charges. This distribution occurs regardless of whether the charge is positive or negative. This repulsion creates an outward electrostatic pressure acting on the surface of the bubble, which can be expressed as Pₑ = σ²/2ε₀, where σ is the surface charge density and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.

In a neutral soap bubble, the inward pressure due to surface tension is balanced by the excess pressure of the air inside. When the additional outward electrostatic pressure is introduced, the net outward force increases. To restore equilibrium between the internal pressure, external atmospheric pressure, and the force of surface tension, the bubble expands. This expansion continues until the internal pressure decreases sufficiently to balance the forces, resulting in an overall increase in the radius of the bubble.

13Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Rayon - Modified starch

Explanation

Rayon is a semi-synthetic fiber produced from regenerated cellulose, which is typically sourced from wood pulp or cotton linters. The manufacturing process involves dissolving the cellulose in a chemical solvent to form a viscous solution that is subsequently extruded through a spinneret to create solid filaments. While both cellulose and starch are polysaccharides composed of glucose units, they serve different biological functions and have distinct chemical structures. Rayon is exclusively derived from the structural cellulose of plants.

14Science and Technology
Which of the following substances is NOT a protein?
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Answer: (A) Cotton

Explanation

Cotton is a natural vegetable fiber composed primarily of cellulose, which is a complex carbohydrate known as a polysaccharide. Cellulose consists of a linear chain of several hundred to many thousands of β(1 → 4) linked D-glucose units. It serves as the main structural component of the cell walls in plants. Because it is a carbohydrate made of sugar monomers, it lacks the amino acid sequences and peptide bonds that define proteins. In its raw form, a cotton fiber is nearly pure cellulose, typically containing about 90 percent of this organic polymer.

15Science and Technology
A liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in thermos flask because there is no loss or gain of heat by
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Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

A thermos flask is designed with a double-walled glass or metal container with a vacuum created between the two walls. This vacuum effectively eliminates heat transfer through conduction and convection, as both processes require a material medium to move thermal energy. To minimize heat transfer via radiation, the inner surfaces of the walls are silvered or polished. The reflective surface ensures that infrared radiation is reflected back into the flask if the liquid is hot, or prevented from entering if the liquid is cold. Additionally, the use of an insulating stopper or cap further reduces heat loss by conduction and convection through the opening. By addressing all three modes of heat transfer—conduction, convection, and radiation—the flask maintains the temperature of its contents for an extended period.

16Science and Technology
Which of the following glands in human body act as an endocrine gland as well as an exocrine gland?
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Answer: (C) Pancreas

Explanation

The pancreas is classified as a heterocrine or dual-purpose gland because it performs both endocrine and exocrine functions. Its exocrine component consists of acinar cells that produce pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes such as amylase, lipase, and trypsin. These secretions are released through the pancreatic duct into the duodenum of the small intestine to aid in digestion. Simultaneously, its endocrine component consists of specialized clusters of cells known as the Islets of Langerhans. These cells secrete hormones, primarily insulin and glucagon, directly into the bloodstream to maintain glucose homeostasis. This dual capability allows the pancreas to regulate both metabolism and digestion.

17Science and Technology
Which one of the following materials contains calcium?
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Answer: (C) Gypsum

Explanation

Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate, which is chemically represented by the formula CaSO₄ ⋅ 2H₂O. This molecular structure demonstrates that calcium is a primary constituent of the material. Gypsum is a common evaporite mineral typically found in sedimentary deposits. It is widely utilized in industrial applications, particularly in the production of plaster of Paris, wallboard, and cement, and it serves as a significant source of calcium and sulfur in agricultural soil conditioners.

18Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Substance) (Use)
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Answer: (A) Silver - artificial bromide photosynthesis

Explanation

Silver bromide (AgBr) is a soft, pale-yellow, water-insoluble salt that is highly sensitive to light. This specific property allows it to serve as the primary light-sensitive component in photographic films and papers, where it facilitates the recording of images upon exposure to light. Artificial photosynthesis is a chemical process that replicates the natural process of photosynthesis to convert solar energy into chemical energy, typically using complex catalysts such as ruthenium or cobalt-based systems to split water or reduce carbon dioxide. Silver bromide plays no role in the mechanisms of artificial photosynthesis, making this pair incorrectly matched.

19Science and Technology
Tulsi plant has medicinal values due to the presence of the following
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Answer: (C) Phenols and Flavonoids

Explanation

Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum), often referred to as the Queen of Herbs, possesses significant medicinal properties primarily due to its rich content of bioactive phytochemicals. The most prominent among these are phenolic compounds and flavonoids. Phenols, such as eugenol (which makes up a large portion of its essential oil), provide strong antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic effects. The plant also contains a variety of antioxidant flavonoids, including orientin, vicenin, apigenin, and luteolin. These compounds help in neutralizing free radicals, reducing oxidative stress, and protecting cellular structures, which accounts for the adaptogenic and immune-boosting characteristics of the plant in traditional medicine.

20Geography
What is true about ecosystem?
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Answer: (C) Producers are more than primary consumers

Explanation

In an ecosystem, the relationship between different trophic levels is characterized by the flow of energy and the distribution of biomass, often represented by ecological pyramids. According to the pyramid of numbers in most stable terrestrial ecosystems, the population of producers is greater than the population of primary consumers. This arrangement is necessitated by the 10% Law of energy transfer, which states that only about 10% of the energy captured at one trophic level is available to the next. Because of this significant energy loss at each step, a much larger base of autotrophs is required to provide sufficient caloric intake and biomass to support the herbivore population above them. This numerical superiority of producers ensures the long-term sustainability and thermodynamic stability of the food web.

21Geography
With reference to Eutrophication, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body. 2. It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Eutrophication is a biological process characterized by the enrichment of a water body with chemical nutrients, typically compounds containing nitrogen or phosphorus. This excessive nutrient loading triggers the rapid proliferation of phytoplankton and algae, creating dense blooms on the water surface. Upon the death of these primary producers, microbial decomposition occurs on a large scale. Aerobic bacteria utilize the dissolved oxygen present in the water column to break down the organic matter. This biological oxygen demand significantly exceeds the rate of oxygen replenishment, leading to the depletion of dissolved oxygen levels and creating anoxic conditions that are detrimental to aquatic life.

22Geography
The environment modified by human activities is called
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Answer: (B) Anthropogenic environment

Explanation

The term anthropogenic is derived from the Greek words anthropos, meaning human, and genesis, meaning origin. An anthropogenic environment refers to any physical, chemical, or biological setting that has been significantly modified or influenced by human activity. This includes large-scale land transformations such as agriculture and industrialization, as well as the alteration of natural cycles and ecosystems through the introduction of synthetic substances and infrastructure. In environmental studies, this term is used to distinguish human-induced changes from those occurring through purely natural or spontaneous ecological processes.

23Geography
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
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Answer: (A) Species diversity increases from equator towards poles.

Explanation

Species diversity follows a latitudinal gradient where it is highest at the equator and decreases significantly as one moves towards the poles. This pattern exists because tropical regions near the equator receive more solar energy, consistent rainfall, and maintain a stable climate, all of which support higher primary productivity and a wider variety of ecological niches. Unlike temperate and polar regions that have faced repeated glaciations and extreme seasonal fluctuations, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, allowing for more evolutionary time and species diversification. Consequently, the claim that diversity increases from the equator towards the poles is geographically and biologically inaccurate.

24Geography
Which one of the following is the well known example of bioindicator of air pollution?
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Answer: (A) Lichens

Explanation

Lichens are symbiotic associations between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium that serve as highly sensitive biological indicators of air quality. Unlike vascular plants, lichens lack a protective waxy cuticle and stomata, meaning they absorb water, nutrients, and gases directly from the atmosphere across their entire surface. This physiological structure makes them exceptionally vulnerable to airborne pollutants such as sulfur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides, and heavy metals. Their growth rate, health, and species diversity decline significantly in areas with high atmospheric contamination. Consequently, the presence or absence of specific lichen species provides a reliable long-term record of the pollution levels in a particular environment.

25Science and Technology
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Pasteurisation - Tea

Explanation

Pasteurisation is a heat-treatment process developed by Louis Pasteur intended to kill harmful microorganisms in food and beverages without significantly changing their chemical composition. It is standardly applied to milk, dairy products, canned foods, and certain beverages like beer or fruit juice to ensure safety and increase shelf life. Tea processing involves distinct stages such as withering, bruising, oxidation, and firing to achieve specific flavor profiles and dryness. Pasteurisation is not a standard or recognized step in the production or processing of tea.

26Science and Technology
Which of the following is an example of herbicide?
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Answer: (A) Sodium chlorate

Explanation

Sodium chlorate (NaClO₃) is a non-selective inorganic herbicide used primarily for the total destruction of vegetation. It is highly effective in clearing plants from non-agricultural land such as railway tracks, roadsides, and industrial areas. When applied, it is absorbed through the roots and foliage, acting as a systemic toxin that interferes with the plant's metabolism and leads to rapid wilting and death. Due to its oxidizing properties, it effectively kills a wide spectrum of annual and perennial weeds, making it a standard chemical agent in vegetation management programs.

27Geography
The gas, which is emitted in the paddy fields and increases the earth's temperature is
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Answer: (D) Methane

Explanation

Paddy fields are a significant anthropogenic source of methane (CH₄) emissions due to the anaerobic conditions created by waterlogged soil. In these flooded environments, oxygen is depleted, and specialized microorganisms known as methanogens decompose organic matter through a process called methanogenesis. This process releases methane gas into the atmosphere via the rice plants' aerenchyma tissue and through bubbling from the soil surface. As a potent greenhouse gas, methane has a global warming potential many times higher than carbon dioxide, contributing directly to the greenhouse effect and the subsequent rise in the Earth's average temperature.

28Polity and Governance
At which of the following places is the Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (I.S.A.) located at present?
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Answer: (C) Gurugram

Explanation

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a treaty-based intergovernmental organization launched jointly by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on November 30, 2015, during the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) in Paris. The alliance was conceived as a coalition of solar-resource-rich countries to address their special energy needs and reduce dependence on fossil fuels. The Government of India hosts the Secretariat of the ISA, which is established at the campus of the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) located in Gwal Pahari, Gurugram. The foundation stone for the headquarters was laid in January 2016, making it the first international intergovernmental organization to have its headquarters in India.

29Science and Technology
The First Union Territory of India to run 100 percent on solar energy is
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Answer: (C) Diu

Explanation

Diu became the first Union Territory in India to run 100 percent on solar energy during daylight hours in early 2018. Despite its small geographical area of about 42 square kilometers, the administration developed a solar capacity of approximately 13 MW, which surpassed the local peak daytime power demand of around 7 MW. This was accomplished through the establishment of a 9 MW solar park at Fudam and the installation of solar panels on over 70 government buildings and numerous residential rooftops. This initiative allowed Diu to transition from total dependency on the electricity grid of Gujarat to being a self-sufficient, green energy producer, significantly reducing carbon emissions and lowering power tariffs for its residents.

30Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): There is a positive relation between Human Development Index HDI and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) ranking of Indian State. Reason (R): The underlying dimension of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspect. Select the connect answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) index exhibit a strong positive correlation because they share common foundational objectives. HDI measures development through three key dimensions: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. Similarly, the 17 SDGs include specific goals such as SDG 3 for Good Health and Well-being and SDG 4 for Quality Education, which are direct components of human development. Indian states that invest heavily in social sectors like healthcare and schooling naturally see improvements in their HDI scores while simultaneously meeting multiple SDG targets. Because these core dimensions of human development are central to the multi-dimensional targets of the SDGs, progress in health and education serves as a primary driver for a state performance in both indices, making the reason a valid explanation for the assertion.

31Economy
Multidimensional poverty index includes: i. Health ii. Education iii. Living Standard Select correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) i, ii and iii are correct

Explanation

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure acute poverty. It evaluates poverty across three equally weighted dimensions: Health, Education, and Living Standards. These three dimensions are further broken down into ten indicators. Health is measured by nutrition and child mortality; Education is assessed through years of schooling and school attendance; and Living Standards are determined by access to cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets. A household is identified as multidimensionally poor if it is deprived in one-third or more of these weighted indicators. By including all three dimensions, the MPI captures the multiple deprivations that people face simultaneously, providing a more comprehensive understanding of poverty than income-based measures alone.

32Geography
Arrange the following events in chronological order of their commencement and select correct answer from the codes given below: I. Wild Life (Protection) Act II. Biological Diversity Act III. Project Tiger IV. Project Elephant
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Answer: (B) I, III, IV, II

Explanation

The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in 1972 to provide a legal framework for the protection of various species of wild animals and plants and the management of their habitats. Project Tiger followed shortly after, being launched in April 1973 to specifically address the declining population of Bengal tigers in India. Project Elephant was initiated much later in 1992 to ensure the long-term survival of elephants in their natural habitats and to address human-elephant conflict. Finally, the Biological Diversity Act was passed in 2002 to meet India's obligations under the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity, focusing on the conservation of biological resources and the fair sharing of benefits arising from their use.

33Polity and Governance
Under the Civil Registration System (CRS), it is legally mandatory to register birth and death events within how many days in India?
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Answer: (B) 21 days

Explanation

The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, provides the legal framework for the compulsory registration of births and deaths in India. Under the rules framed by the Central Government and adopted by the states to ensure uniformity in the Civil Registration System (CRS), the statutory time limit for reporting these events to the designated local Registrar is 21 days. This 21-day period applies uniformly to births, deaths, and stillbirths. Registration within this timeframe is free of charge, whereas any reporting beyond this period attracts late fees and requires additional documentation or police verification under the delayed registration provisions of the Act.

34Polity and Governance
National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-5 does not include
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Answer: (C) HIV Test

Explanation

The National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), initiated in 2019, discontinued the HIV testing component that was previously included in NFHS-3 and NFHS-4. The decision to exclude HIV testing was made to reduce the survey's complexity and the burden on respondents, particularly as data on HIV prevalence is now extensively managed by the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) through other surveillance systems.

In contrast, NFHS-5 expanded its scope by adding several new dimensions to the household and individual questionnaires. These additions include the registration of deaths (asking households if deaths in the preceding three years were registered with civil authorities), pre-school education, and expanded questions on menstrual hygiene and disability. The survey continues to measure key non-communicable disease (NCD) indicators, such as high blood pressure and blood glucose levels for diabetes screening, across all states and union territories.

35Economy
The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) shows the relationship between per capita GDP and environmental loss. What is the shape of Environmental Kuznets Curve?
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Answer: (A) Inverted 'U' shaped

Explanation

The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) represents a hypothesized relationship between various indicators of environmental degradation and income per capita. According to this concept, in the early stages of economic development, pollution levels and environmental pressure increase as a country undergoes industrialization and intensifies its use of natural resources. However, as the economy matures and reaches a certain threshold of per capita GDP, the trend reverses. Beyond this turning point, further economic growth leads to a decline in environmental degradation due to factors such as structural shifts toward service-oriented industries, the adoption of cleaner technologies, and increased public demand for stricter environmental regulations. When plotted on a graph with environmental loss on the vertical axis and per capita income on the horizontal axis, this relationship results in a curve that is inverted U-shaped.

36Polity and Governance
Which of the following Direct Benefit Scheme (DBS) has been recognized by the 'Guinness Book of World Record' as the world's largest Direct Benefit Scheme?
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Answer: (B) PAHAL

Explanation

The PAHAL (Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh) scheme, which is the Direct Benefit Transfer for LPG (DBTL) program in India, was officially recognized by the Guinness Book of World Records in 2015 as the world's largest cash transfer program. Launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, the scheme ensures that the subsidy on LPG cylinders is credited directly into the bank accounts of the consumers. This system was implemented to reduce leakages, eliminate ghost connections, and improve the efficiency of subsidy delivery. By early 2015, the scheme had covered more than 12 crore households, surpassing all other global direct benefit programs in terms of its scale and the number of active beneficiaries.

37Polity and Governance
With reference to the National Food Security Act, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It will cover upto 75 percent rural and 50 percent urban population. II. Special focus on nutritional support to women and children. III. Eldest woman of above 18 years age will be head of household. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) I, II and III are correct

Explanation

The National Food Security Act, 2013, aims to provide food and nutritional security by ensuring access to quality food at affordable prices. Statement I is accurate as Section 3(2) of the Act defines the coverage at up to 75 percent for the rural population and 50 percent for the urban population. Statement II is correct because the Act contains specific provisions for nutritional support to pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children up to 14 years of age through free meals and maternity benefits. Statement III is correct under Section 13, which mandates that the eldest woman of 18 years or older in an eligible household be recognized as the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards, thereby promoting gender empowerment within the public distribution system.

38Polity and Governance
With reference to the measures of Tenancy Reform in India, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Regulation of rent 2. Security of tenure 3. Conferment of ownership on tenants Select the correct answer using codes given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Tenancy reforms in India were introduced post-independence as a critical component of land reforms to protect the interests of cultivators and achieve the goal of land to the tiller. Regulation of rent was the first step, aimed at capping the exorbitant rates charged by landlords, which often reached half or more of the gross produce; legislation across various states eventually fixed fair rents at levels typically ranging from one-fourth to one-fifth of the total produce. Security of tenure was implemented to prevent the arbitrary eviction of tenants by landlords, ensuring that cultivators could only be dispossessed under specific legal conditions and usually providing them with a permanent right to stay on the land. Finally, the conferment of ownership rights allowed long-term tenants to become owners of the land they tilled, often through the payment of a regulated compensation price to the landlord, thereby eliminating the intermediary layers and directly linking the cultivator with the state.

39Economy
With reference to the functions of Public Sector in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. To provide public utility resources II. To build social and economic overhead capital III. To ensure balanced regional and sectoral growth IV. To pursue egalitarian goals Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) I, II, III and IV are correct

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The public sector in India was designed to command the strategic heights of the economy to achieve socio-economic development. It provides essential public utility resources like water and electricity to ensure universal access at affordable prices. It is instrumental in building economic overhead capital through infrastructure like railways and power, as well as social overhead capital via investments in health and education. To address regional disparities, the government strategically locates public enterprises in backward areas, ensuring balanced regional and sectoral growth. Furthermore, it pursues egalitarian goals by generating employment, preventing the concentration of private wealth, and providing subsidized services to the marginalized sections of society, aligning with the constitutional mandate of a socialistic pattern of development.

40Geography
In the Suez canal region, the correct order of lakes lying from North to South direction is a
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Answer: (D) Lake Manzala - Lake Timsah - Great Bitter Lake - Little Bitter Lake

Explanation

The Suez Canal is a sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea in the north to the Red Sea in the south. When traversing the canal from north to south, the first major body of water encountered is Lake Manzala, which is located adjacent to the Mediterranean entrance at Port Said. Proceeding further south, the canal passes through Lake Timsah, situated near the city of Ismailia. Continuing the southward journey, the canal enters the Great Bitter Lake, which is the largest of the lakes along the route. Immediately south of the Great Bitter Lake is the Little Bitter Lake, which leads toward the final stretch of the canal ending at the Gulf of Suez. This sequence reflects the natural geographical progression along the 193 kilometer length of the canal.

41Geography
Telegraphic Plateau is a part of
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Answer: (A) North Atlantic Ridge

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The Telegraphic Plateau is a vast, relatively level region of the seafloor located in the North Atlantic Ocean, stretching between Newfoundland and Ireland. It forms a broad, submarine extension of the North Atlantic Ridge. This region gained its name in the mid-19th century when surveys revealed it to be a shallow and stable plateau, which proved ideal for the laying of the first transatlantic telegraph cables. Geologically, it represents a wider portion of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge system where the ocean floor is less rugged compared to other sections of the mountain range.

42Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Different names of tropical cyclone): (A) Willy-Willies (B) Taifu (C) Baguio (D) Hurricanes List-II (Country): 1. Philippines 2. Australia 3. Japan 4. U.S.A.
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Answer: (D) 2 3 1 4

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Willy-Willies is the traditional regional term for tropical cyclones in Australia, particularly those occurring in the northwestern parts of the continent.

Taifu is the Japanese name for a typhoon, which is a mature tropical cyclone that develops in the western part of the North Pacific Ocean and affects the Japanese archipelago.

Baguio is the local term used in the Philippines to describe tropical cyclones, named after the city of Baguio which is known for experiencing heavy rainfall during such storms.

Hurricanes is the specific designation for intense tropical cyclones that form over the North Atlantic Ocean and the Northeast Pacific Ocean, frequently impacting the United States of America.

43Geography
Which one of the following cities is NOT located on the TransSiberian rail route?
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Answer: (C) Sochi

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Sochi is located in the Krasnodar Krai region of southwestern Russia, situated along the shores of the Black Sea and at the foot of the Caucasus Mountains. This geographic position places it thousands of kilometers south of the Trans-Siberian Railway corridor, which follows a west-to-east trajectory across the central and northern latitudes of Russia to connect Moscow with Vladivostok. Sochi is instead a primary destination on the North Caucasus Railway line, which serves the southern resort regions and is entirely distinct from the transcontinental Siberian rail network that traverses the Ural Mountains and the Siberian plains.

44Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Located): (A) Talchir (B) Karanpura (C) Singroli (D) Singreni List-II (Coal Fields): 1. Damodar Valley 2. Son Valley 3. Godavari Valley 4. Mahanadi Valley
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3

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Talchir is located in the state of Odisha within the Mahanadi Valley basin. Karanpura is a significant coalfield in Jharkhand situated in the Damodar Valley region. Singroli coalfield lies in the Son Valley across the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Singreni coalfield is found in the Godavari Valley in the state of Telangana. These locations correspond to the Gondwana coal distribution in India where major deposits are found along the river valleys.

45Geography
Which one of the following peaks is NOT located in India?
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Answer: (A) Gurla Mandhata

Explanation

Gurla Mandhata, also referred to as Naimona'nyi, is a mountain peak situated in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. It serves as the highest summit of the Nalakankar Himal, which is a subrange of the Himalayas, and stands at an elevation of approximately 7,694 metres (25,243 feet). The peak is located in the Burang County of the Ngari Prefecture, positioned on the Tibetan Plateau near the southern border of China with India and Nepal. It is situated across from Mount Kailash and is in close proximity to the sacred lakes of Manasarovar and Rakshastal. The entire mountain massif is located within Chinese territory.

46Geography
The winter rains caused by Western disturbance in North Western Plain of India gradually decreases from
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Answer: (B) West to East

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Western disturbances are extratropical cyclonic storms that originate in the Mediterranean region and are brought into the Indian subcontinent by the subtropical westerly jet stream. These systems enter India from the west and northwest, providing critical winter rainfall to the North-Western Plain. As these moisture-laden winds travel eastward across the Indo-Gangetic plains, they gradually lose their moisture through precipitation. Consequently, the amount of rainfall is highest in the western states like Punjab and Haryana and progressively diminishes as the disturbance moves further inland toward the east, resulting in less rainfall in regions such as eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

47Geography
In which of the following rivers, the upper course contains fresh water but saline water flowing at the lower part?
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Answer: (B) Luni river

Explanation

The Luni river originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range near Ajmer in Rajasthan. In its initial course, the river is fed by rainwater and surface runoff, which ensures that the water remains fresh. However, as the river flows through the arid and semi-arid regions of the Thar Desert, it encounters soil with very high salt content. By the time the river reaches Balotra in the Barmer district, the accumulation of dissolved salts from the surrounding saline terrain and high evaporation rates transform the water from fresh to saline. This salinity persists as the river continues its course toward the Rann of Kutch.

48Geography
Moribund Delta is a subdivision of which of the following Delta?
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Answer: (C) Bengal Delta

Explanation

The Bengal Delta is physiographically subdivided into three distinct zones: the Moribund, Mature, and Active deltas. The Moribund Delta represents the western section of the deltaic plain, primarily located in the state of West Bengal. This area is characterized by distributary rivers that have been cut off from the main flow of the Ganges due to the river's gradual eastward migration over centuries. Because these channels are heavily silted and no longer receive regular upland discharge or sediment, the land-building process has ceased. The region is marked by stagnant water bodies and decaying riverbeds, indicating the final stage of deltaic evolution where the delta is no longer advancing into the sea.

49EconomyUttar Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Sugarcane and sugar production in U.P. is more than Maharashtra but productivity is less. Reason (R): Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in cooperative sector.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh leads India in total sugarcane acreage and sugar production volume, particularly since the introduction of high-yielding varieties like CO-0238. However, Maharashtra maintains higher productivity, measured both in terms of sugarcane yield per hectare and the sugar recovery rate from the cane. This difference is largely explained by the organizational structure of the industry. The cooperative sector in Maharashtra is highly integrated, where the farmers are the owners of the mills. This model ensures a synchronized harvest and transport system, meaning the sugarcane is crushed immediately after being cut, which prevents the loss of sucrose. Additionally, these cooperatives provide farmers with superior extension services, high-quality inputs, and advanced irrigation techniques, leading to higher efficiency and productivity compared to the private and state-owned mill systems prevalent in Uttar Pradesh.

50Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I: (A) Mulla Daud (B) Damodar- (C) Somnath (D) Amir Khusro 4. Rag Vibodh List-II: 1. Chandayan 2. Ashiqa Kavi 3. Padmavati Katha
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Answer: (B) 1 3 4 2

Explanation

Mulla Daud was a 14th-century Sufi poet who authored Chandayan, which is considered one of the earliest works of Hindi Sufi literature in the Awadhi dialect. Damodar Kavi was the author of Padmavati Katha, a narrative poem written around 1459 AD that details the legendary story of Padmini and predates later famous versions. Somnath was a prominent musicologist who composed Rag Vibodh in 1609, a significant Sanskrit treatise that classifies various ragas and discusses the placement of musical notes. Amir Khusro, the celebrated Sufi musician and poet, wrote Ashiqa, a historical masnavi depicting the tragic love story between Khizr Khan and Dewal Rani.

51History
Who among the following kings had given patronage to Tansen before Akbar?
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Answer: (A) Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata

Explanation

Tansen, the legendary musician and one of the Navratnas of the Mughal court, served as the court musician for Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata (Rewa) before joining Akbar. Raja Ramchandra was a noted patron of music and held Tansen in such high regard that he is said to have gifted him vast sums of gold for his performances. Akbar, upon hearing of Tansen's extraordinary talent, sent his general Jalaluddin Qurchi to request the musician's presence at the imperial court. In 1562, Raja Ramchandra sent Tansen to Akbar with heavy gifts, where he was subsequently conferred the title of Mian by the Emperor.

52History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I (Capitals): (A) Pallava (B) Pandya (C) Yadava (D) Kaktiya List-II (Ruling Dynasties): 1. Warangal 2. Kanchi 3. Madura 4. Devagiri
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1

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The Pallava dynasty established its capital at Kanchi, also known as Kanchipuram, which served as a major center for South Indian art, architecture, and Brahmanical learning. The Pandyas, one of the ancient Tamil lineages, ruled from Madura (Madurai), a city famously associated with the Tamil Sangams and the Meenakshi Temple. The Yadavas of Devagiri, also known as the Seuna dynasty, governed their kingdom from the hill fort of Devagiri in the Deccan region. The Kakatiya dynasty rose to power in the eastern Deccan and administered their territory from their capital at Warangal.

53History
Arrange the following monuments in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Rabia Daurani's Tomb, Aurangabad II. Shershah Suri's Tomb, Sasa-ram III. Humayun's Tomb, Delhi IV. Atala Mosque, Jaunpur
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Answer: (B) IV, II, III, I

Explanation

The Atala Mosque in Jaunpur was built by Sultan Ibrahim Shah Sharqi in 1408, showcasing the early 15th-century regional architectural style of the Sharqi Sultanate. Shershah Suri's Tomb at Sasaram was completed in 1545, serving as a transitional masterpiece between the Sultanate and Mughal styles shortly before the restoration of the Mughal Empire. Humayun's Tomb in Delhi was commissioned by Bega Begum and constructed between 1565 and 1572 during the reign of Akbar, marking the first major example of a garden-tomb in the Indian subcontinent. Finally, Rabia Daurani's Tomb, popularly known as Bibi Ka Maqbara, was built in Aurangabad between 1660 and 1678 during the reign of Aurangzeb by Prince Azam Shah. This chronological progression spans from the early 15th century through the mid-16th century to the late 17th century.

54History
With reference to Mansabdari system, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Mansabdari system was the official nobility of the state, started by Akbar. 2. A Mansabdari was hereditary.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Mansabdari system was a unique administrative and military grading system initiated by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to organize the nobility and the army. Every civil and military officer was given a mansab (rank) which determined their status in the official hierarchy, their salary, and the number of armed retainers (sawar) they were required to maintain. This system effectively formed the official nobility of the Mughal state.

A critical feature of this system was that it was not hereditary. Mansabs were granted based on merit and the personal discretion of the Emperor. Upon the death of a Mansabdar, their rank and estates did not automatically pass to their descendants; instead, the state followed the Law of Escheat, whereby the properties of the deceased noble were often reclaimed by the crown, and the heirs had to earn their own ranks through fresh service and loyalty to the throne.

55History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. List-I: (A) Treaty of Allahabad (B) Treaty of Manglore (C) Treaty of Salbai (D) Treaty of Madras List-II: 1. 1782 2. 1784 3. 1769 4. 1765
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Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3

Explanation

The Treaty of Allahabad (A) corresponds to 1765 (4) as it was signed following the Battle of Buxar between Shah Alam II and Robert Clive, granting the British Diwani rights over Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha. The Treaty of Mangalore (B) matches 1784 (2) because it was a peace agreement between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company that ended the Second Anglo-Mysore War. The Treaty of Salbai (C) aligns with 1782 (1), which concluded the First Anglo-Maratha War between the Marathas and the British. The Treaty of Madras (D) relates to 1769 (3), marking the end of the First Anglo-Mysore War between Hyder Ali and the British.

56History
Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select correct answer from the codes given below: I. Poona Pact II. Gandhi-Irvin Agreement III. Cripps Mission IV. Civil Disobedience Movement.
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Answer: (B) IV, II, I, III

Explanation

The correct chronological order is: (IV) Civil Disobedience Movement, launched March 1930 by Gandhi with the Dandi March; (II) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed March 1931, temporarily suspending CDM; (I) Poona Pact, September 1932, between Gandhi and Ambedkar on reserved seats; (III) Cripps Mission, March 1942, a British attempt to secure Indian cooperation in WWII. Sequence IV, II, I, III = Option B.

57History
With reference to the Civil Administration in 1905, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries. 2. A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam.
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Lord Curzon, serving as the Viceroy of India, implemented the Partition of Bengal in 1905 under the premise of improving administrative efficiency. The existing Bengal Presidency was considered too large and populous to be governed by a single Lieutenant-Governor. Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries, which resulted in the creation of a new province officially designated as Eastern Bengal and Assam. This new province combined the eastern districts of Bengal, including the divisions of Dhaka, Chittagong, and Rajshahi, with the existing province of Assam. The reorganization established Dhaka as the capital of Eastern Bengal and Assam, while the western part of Bengal remained joined with Bihar and Odisha.

58History
Who prepared C.R. Formula to remove the political deadlock between Muslim League and Indian National Congress?
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Answer: (B) Rajagopalachari

Explanation

Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, a veteran Congress leader, prepared the C.R. Formula in 1944 as a strategic proposal to resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. The formula was designed to find common ground regarding the League's demand for a separate Pakistan and the Congress's demand for immediate independence. It proposed that the Muslim League support the Congress's demand for independence and cooperate in forming a provisional interim government. The plan stipulated that after the Second World War, a commission would demarcate contiguous Muslim-majority districts in North-West and East India, and a plebiscite of all inhabitants in those areas would decide the issue of separation. If partition occurred, mutual agreements would be signed for essential matters like defense and commerce. Mahatma Gandhi supported this formula and used it as the basis for his talks with Muhammad Ali Jinnah in September 1944.

59History
The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India was written by
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Answer: (D) Bipin Chandra

Explanation

Bipin Chandra was a distinguished historian of modern India and a pioneer in the study of the economic aspects of the Indian national movement. His influential work, The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India: Economic Policies of Indian National Leadership, 1880-1905, published in 1966, examines the intellectual development of early nationalist leaders. He documented how figures like Dadabhai Naoroji and Mahadev Govind Ranade formulated a sophisticated critique of British colonial economic policies. Chandra argued that by identifying colonial exploitation and the drain of wealth, these early nationalists provided the ideological framework that transitioned the Indian resistance into a structured political struggle for economic and political autonomy.

60Polity and Governance
In which of the following 'the provisions for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife' are found in the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

The provisions for the protection and improvement of the environment and the safeguarding of forests and wildlife were incorporated into the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This amendment introduced these environmental safeguards in two distinct sections. Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 48A mandates that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Additionally, under the Fundamental Duties, Article 51A(g) specifies that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. This dual placement reflects the constitutional intent to make environmental protection both a responsibility of the government and a duty of the citizenry.

61Polity and Governance
With reference to Panchayats which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories. 2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village. 3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level.
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Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation

Article 243B of the Constitution of India, introduced through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, mandates a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state. This structure consists of Panchayats at the village level, the intermediate level, and the district level. The intermediate level, commonly referred to as the Panchayat Samiti or Block Panchayat, acts as a functional link between the village-level Gram Panchayats and the district-level Zila Parishads. Although the Constitution provides an exemption for states with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs, where the intermediate level may not be constituted, the standard constitutional framework establishes it as a fundamental tier of local self-government in India.

62Polity and Governance
Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS), a Social Movement has been associated with which of the following in India?
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Answer: (B) RTI Act

Explanation

The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) is a grassroots social movement founded in 1990 in Rajasthan by activists Aruna Roy, Shankar Singh, and Nikhil Dey. It is widely credited with pioneering the struggle that led to the enactment of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The movement originated from the demand for minimum wages for workers, where the organization realized that transparency in government records was essential to verify wage payments and project expenditures. Through the use of Jan Sunwais or public hearings, the MKSS exposed local-level corruption and successfully campaigned for the legal right of citizens to access official documents. This local agitation created a national template for transparency, eventually forcing the central government to pass the Right to Information Act, 2005.

63Polity and Governance
National Social Assistance include the following scheme for 'Below Poverty Line' households
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Answer: (A) National Family Benefit Scheme

Explanation

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Government of India on 15 August 1995 to provide social security to households living Below the Poverty Line (BPL). The National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) is a primary component of this program. It provides a one-time lump sum grant of ₹20,000 to a BPL household in the event of the death of the primary breadwinner, whether natural or accidental. For the purpose of the scheme, the primary breadwinner is defined as the member of the family whose earnings contribute the maximum to the household income and who is between 18 and 59 years of age. This financial assistance acts as a critical safety net to help the family cope with the immediate economic shock caused by the loss of their main source of livelihood.

64Polity and Governance
Who said India is a Quasi- Federal State ?
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Answer: (D) K.C. Wheare

Explanation

Professor K.C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal because it establishes a system of government that is unitary in spirit but federal in structure. According to his analysis, a strictly federal system requires the central and regional governments to be coordinate and independent within their own spheres. Since the Indian Constitution grants the Union government significant overriding powers—such as the ability to alter state boundaries, the appointment of Governors by the President, and the various emergency provisions—Wheare concluded that India is a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.

65History
Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession II. Constitution of India was enforced. III. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir. IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.
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Answer: (C) I, II, III, IV

Explanation

The chronological sequence begins with Maharaja Hari Singh signing the Instrument of Accession on October 26, 1947, amidst the invasion by Pakistani tribal militias. This was followed by the enforcement of the Constitution of India on January 26, 1950. Subsequently, the Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir, which had been elected to determine the state's future and draft its constitution, formally ratified the state's accession to India on February 6, 1954. The process concluded when the separate Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir officially came into force on January 26, 1957, marking the formal integration process under the then-existing legal framework.

66Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central laws. Reason (R): The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India does not possess exclusive jurisdiction over the constitutional validity of Central laws. Under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution, High Courts have the power of judicial review and can declare a Central law unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution. While the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 briefly granted the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction in this matter by inserting Article 131A, this provision was subsequently repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1977, restoring the concurrent jurisdiction of the High Courts.

The Supreme Court is recognized as the Guardian of the Constitution because it is the final authority to interpret constitutional provisions and is mandated to protect the fundamental rights of citizens. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of these rights, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution remains intact against any legislative or executive overreach.

67Polity and Governance
National Panchayati Raj Day in India is celebrated on
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Answer: (D) 24 April

Explanation

National Panchayati Raj Day is observed annually on April 24 to commemorate the formal institutionalization of the Panchayati Raj system in India. This specific date marks the day the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992, officially came into effect in 1993. By providing constitutional status to local self-government institutions, the Act aimed to decentralize power and empower grassroots democracy across rural India. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj inaugurated the first celebration of this day in 2010 to highlight the importance of the three-tier governance structure consisting of Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zila Parishads in achieving social justice and local economic development.

68Polity and Governance
Which of the following Articles was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for participation of workers in management?
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Answer: (D) Article 43A

Explanation

Article 43A was inserted into the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This Article mandates that the State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organizations engaged in any industry. The provision was introduced to promote industrial democracy and ensure that workers have a say in the decision-making processes of the industries where they work, thereby fostering a more collaborative and equitable industrial environment.

69Polity and Governance
What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution?
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Answer: (B) It is not enforceable

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The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is non-justiciable in nature, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in a court of law. While it serves as an introductory statement that outlines the objectives and guiding principles of the Constitution, it does not grant any substantive power to the branches of government nor does it impose any legal limitations on them. The Supreme Court has consistently maintained that although the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be used as an interpretative tool to resolve ambiguities in other articles, its contents cannot be used as a basis for litigation to compel the state to act or to strike down laws.

70Polity and Governance
Which of the following is correct about the heading of the Article 162 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (D) Extension of Executive Power of State

Explanation

Article 162 of the Constitution of India defines the scope and reach of the executive authority held by the states. The official marginal heading of this article is Extent of executive power of State, which is frequently rendered as Extension of executive power of State in various legal translations and examination contexts. This article stipulates that the executive power of a State shall extend to all matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has the power to make laws. This ensures that the executive jurisdiction of a state is generally co-extensive with its legislative jurisdiction. However, this power is subject to the specific provisions of the Constitution. For example, in matters where both the Parliament and the State Legislature have the power to make laws, such as those listed in the Concurrent List, the executive power of the State is limited by and subject to the executive power expressly conferred by the Constitution or by any law made by Parliament upon the Union or its authorities.

71Art and Culture
Which of the following temples is also known as Khajuraho of Vidarbha?
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Answer: (A) Markandeshwar

Explanation

The Markandeshwar Temple, located in the Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra on the banks of the Wainganga River, is widely known as the Khajuraho of Vidarbha. This epithet is attributed to its architectural style and the presence of intricate, detailed stone carvings that resemble the famous Khajuraho temples of Madhya Pradesh. Built between the 9th and 12th centuries, the temple complex belongs to the Nagara style of architecture, specifically the Hemadpanti group. The structures are dedicated to Lord Shiva and feature elaborate sculptures of deities, celestial dancers, and various mythological themes. Due to its historical significance and the artistic excellence of its masonry, it serves as a prominent cultural and religious landmark in the Vidarbha region.

72Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Dorian (B) Hagibis (C) Lekima (D) Mitag List-II (Typhoon/ (Most affected Hurricane country): 1. Bahamas 2. China 3. Jeju, South Korea 4. Japan
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Answer: (B) 1 4 2 3

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Hurricane Dorian struck the Bahamas in September 2019 as a Category 5 storm, becoming the most intense tropical cyclone on record to hit the islands. Typhoon Hagibis was a powerful tropical cyclone that caused widespread damage across Japan in October 2019, particularly through extreme rainfall and flooding. Typhoon Lekima made landfall in Chinas Zhejiang province in August 2019, causing massive displacement and infrastructure damage as one of the strongest typhoons in the region. Typhoon Mitag impacted South Korea in October 2019, bringing heavy rains and flooding specifically to Jeju Island and the southern coastal areas.

73Polity and Governance
In October, 2019 India announced to establish a High Commission in which African country?
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Answer: (D) Sierra Leone

Explanation

During the official visit of Vice President M. Venkaiah Naidu to Sierra Leone from October 12 to 14, 2019, India announced its decision to establish a resident High Commission in Freetown. This visit marked the first-ever high-level diplomatic mission from India to the West African nation. The decision to open a resident High Commission was aimed at deepening bilateral relations, facilitating easier consular services, and overseeing developmental projects funded by Indian lines of credit. During this visit, India also committed to supporting Sierra Leone in sectors like agriculture, water resources, and digital technology, further reinforcing its commitment to the India-Africa partnership.

74Economy
According to NITI Aayog which of the following states is at the top in the India Innovation Index 2019?
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Answer: (D) Karnataka

Explanation

The India Innovation Index 2019 was the first edition of the index released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness. In this index, Karnataka emerged as the top-performing state in the Major States category with a score of 35.65. The rankings were based on two dimensions: Enablers, which measure factors that drive innovation, and Performance, which measures the actual outputs of innovation. Karnataka's leadership was attributed to its strong performance in human capital, investment, and knowledge workers. The state benefits from a high density of premier research institutions, a robust startup ecosystem centered in Bengaluru, and significant foreign direct investment inflows, all of which contribute to a high intensity of patent filings and knowledge-intensive activities.

75Art and Culture
The author of the Booker Prize Winner 2019 book's Girl, Women, Other is
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Answer: (D) Bernadine Evaristo

Explanation

Bernardine Evaristo is the author of the experimental novel Girl, Woman, Other, which was published in 2019. The book utilizes a unique style of prose poetry to chronicle the interconnected lives of twelve characters, mostly black women, living in the United Kingdom. For this work, Evaristo was named a joint winner of the 2019 Booker Prize, sharing the honor with Margaret Atwood. This historic win marked the first time a black woman or a black British author received the award since its inception. The novel is highly regarded for its insightful examination of intersectionality, British history, and the diverse experiences of femininity.

76Art and Culture
Whom did P.V. Sindhu beat to win the first ever Gold Medal for India in Women's Single Badminton Championship in the final match?
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Answer: (C) Nozomi Okuhara

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P.V. Sindhu created history at the 2019 BWF World Championships held in Basel, Switzerland, by becoming the first Indian to clinch a gold medal at the tournament. In the final match of the women's singles category, she secured a commanding victory over Nozomi Okuhara of Japan. Sindhu dominated the encounter from the start, winning in straight sets with a scoreline of 21-7, 21-7 in just 38 minutes. This triumph was a significant milestone in Indian sports, as it marked the first time an Indian shuttler stood on the top of the podium at the World Championships. The win followed her previous successes at the event, where she had already accumulated two silver and two bronze medals, further cementing her legacy as one of the most successful players in the history of the competition.

77Economy
Which hydropower plant in Bhutan was inaugurated recently by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
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Answer: (D) Mangdechhu Power Plant

Explanation

During his two-day state visit to Bhutan in August 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydropower Project. Located on the Mangdechhu River in the Trongsa Dzongkhag district of central Bhutan, this run-of-the-river plant was developed with significant financial and technical assistance from the Government of India. The project was funded through a combination of a 70 percent loan and a 30 percent grant provided by India. As a major milestone in bilateral energy cooperation, the facility is designed to generate approximately 3 billion units of electricity annually, with the surplus power being exported to India to enhance Bhutan's revenue and meet regional energy requirements.

78Art and Culture
The book 'Venushilpa' by Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi relates to which of the following form of arts?
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Answer: (C) Bamboo art

Explanation

The book Venushilpa was authored by the renowned artist Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi, who was a pivotal figure in the revival of traditional arts and crafts in Bihar. The term Venu translates to bamboo in Sanskrit, and the book serves as a definitive treatise on the techniques, aesthetics, and structural possibilities of bamboo craft. Maharathi conducted extensive research into the traditional methods used by artisans and sought to elevate bamboo from a rural utility material to a sophisticated form of art. His work in Venushilpa documentation provided a bridge between ancient craftsmanship and modern design, focusing on the versatility and sustainable nature of bamboo as an artistic medium.

79Economy
Which among the following was the first 100 percent organic state in the world?
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Answer: (C) Sikkim (India)

Explanation

Sikkim was officially declared the world's first 100 percent organic state in January 2016. The journey toward this status began in 2003 when the state government passed a resolution to transform Sikkim into a total organic state. Over the following thirteen years, the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides was systematically phased out and eventually banned, with the state providing subsidies for organic manure and training for farmers. By 2016, approximately 75,000 hectares of agricultural land were certified as organic. In recognition of its pioneering organic farming policies, Sikkim won the Future Policy Gold Award from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations in 2018.

80Polity and Governance
Para athlete Deepa Malik, who has been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019, belongs to the sport
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Answer: (C) Shot put

Explanation

Deepa Malik is a distinguished Indian para-athlete who made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Paralympic Games. She secured a silver medal in the shot put F53 category at the 2016 Rio Summer Paralympics with a throw of 4.61 meters. In recognition of her outstanding achievements in para-sports, particularly her success in the shot put discipline at international forums like the IPC World Athletics Championships and the Asian Para Games, she was honored with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2019. She competes in the F53 category, which is designated for athletes who have full use of their arms but no trunk or leg function, necessitating specialized seated positions for throwing events.

81Geography
United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019 was held at which of the following cities?
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Answer: (D) New York

Explanation

The United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019 was convened by UN Secretary-General António Guterres at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City on September 23, 2019. Held during the high-level week of the 74th session of the UN General Assembly, the summit was designed to accelerate global efforts to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement. It focused on mobilizing political and economic energy at the highest levels to advance climate action across various sectors, including energy transition, climate finance, and nature-based solutions. The event is particularly remembered for the "Youth Climate Summit" held just prior and for Greta Thunberg's influential speech to world leaders.

82Science and Technology
Use of polished rice in human diet causes the following disease
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Answer: (A) Beriberi

Explanation

Polishing rice involves the removal of the bran and germ layers to produce white rice. These layers contain the vast majority of the grain's Thiamine (Vitamin B1) content. Thiamine is a water-soluble vitamin required for the metabolism of glucose and the maintenance of healthy nerve and heart functions. Diets dominated by polished rice lack sufficient Thiamine, leading to the development of Beriberi. This condition causes symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, and edema. The historical prevalence of Beriberi in several regions coincided with the widespread adoption of steam-powered rice mills that removed the nutrient-rich husk more efficiently than traditional methods.

83Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (Vitamin) (Rich Source)
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Answer: (B) Vitamin B2 - Cod-liver oil

Explanation

Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, is a water-soluble vitamin that is primarily found in animal products like milk, eggs, and organ meats, as well as in green leafy vegetables and enriched grains. Cod-liver oil is a nutrient-dense oil derived from fish liver that is specifically recognized for its high concentrations of fat-soluble vitamins, most notably Vitamin A and Vitamin D. Because Vitamin B2 is water-soluble, it is not found in significant quantities in concentrated fish oils like cod-liver oil.

84Science and Technology
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Most of the vitamins are not synthesized in human body. Reason (R): Human organs synthesize only essential micronutrients. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation

Assertion (A) is correct because vitamins are organic compounds required by the body in trace amounts for various metabolic processes, yet the human body lacks the biochemical pathways to produce most of them. While the body can synthesize Vitamin D through skin exposure to sunlight and gut bacteria can produce Vitamin K and certain B vitamins, the vast majority must be obtained through food. Reason (R) is false because essential micronutrients, by definition, are nutrients that the body cannot synthesize on its own or cannot synthesize in adequate amounts to maintain health, necessitating their intake from external dietary sources. Additionally, micronutrients include minerals, which are inorganic elements that the human body cannot synthesize under any circumstances.

85Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Kevlar (B) Taxol (C) Zinc (D) Nitrocellulose 4. Rodenticide List-II: 1. Explosive 2. Synthetic fibre 3. Anticancer Phosphide drug
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1

Explanation

Kevlar is a high-strength para-aramid synthetic fiber known for its exceptional heat resistance and tensile strength, commonly used in body armor and aerospace components. Taxol, also known as paclitaxel, is a natural diterpenoid derived from the Pacific yew tree that functions as a potent anticancer drug by interfering with cell division. Zinc Phosphide (Zn₃P₂) is an inorganic compound utilized primarily as a rodenticide, as it reacts with stomach acids to release toxic phosphine gas. Nitrocellulose, or guncotton, is a highly flammable material produced by the nitration of cellulose and is extensively used as an explosive or propellant. Correspondingly, Kevlar matches with synthetic fibre (2), Taxol with anticancer drug (3), Zinc Phosphide with rodenticide (4), and Nitrocellulose with explosive (1).

86Science and Technology
A sample of any of the following substances disappears after some time when exposed to air like camphor, naphthalene or dry ice. This phenomenon is called
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Answer: (A) Sublimation

Explanation

Sublimation is the phase transition in which a substance changes directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the intermediate liquid state. This occurs when the kinetic energy of the molecules in the solid overcomes the intermolecular forces at temperatures and pressures below the substance's triple point. Substances like camphor, naphthalene, and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) have high vapor pressures at room temperature, allowing their molecules to escape directly into the atmosphere. Because these materials bypass the liquid phase entirely under standard atmospheric conditions, they gradually decrease in mass and eventually disappear when exposed to open air.

87Science and Technology
The phenomenon used in optical fibre for transmission of light energy is
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Answer: (A) Total internal reflection

Explanation

Optical fibers function based on the principle of total internal reflection to transmit light signals over long distances. The fiber consists of a central core with a high refractive index n₁ and an outer cladding with a lower refractive index n₂. When light enters the core and strikes the interface between the core and the cladding at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle θ꜀, it is reflected entirely back into the core rather than passing into the cladding. The critical angle is defined by the relation sin θ꜀ = n₂ / n₁. This continuous reflection allows the light wave to be guided through the fiber even if it is bent or curved, ensuring that the signal energy remains confined within the core with minimal loss.

88Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about enzymes is/are correct? 1. They are biocatalysts. 2. They perform their action on the site where they are produced.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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Enzymes are specialized protein molecules that function as biocatalysts by significantly increasing the rate of biochemical reactions within living organisms without being consumed. They lower the activation energy required for a reaction to occur, making metabolic processes efficient at body temperature.

Enzymes are classified based on their site of action into endoenzymes and exoenzymes. While endoenzymes function within the cell that synthesized them, exoenzymes are secreted and perform their catalytic activities outside the cell or at a distant site. For example, digestive enzymes like salivary amylase are produced in the salivary glands but act in the oral cavity, and pancreatic enzymes are produced in the pancreas but function in the duodenum of the small intestine. This capacity to act extracellularly or in different anatomical locations indicates that enzymes are not restricted to performing their action only at the site of production.

89Science and Technology
Mother's milk provides almost complete diet to the new-born, but it lacks the following
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Answer: (A) Iron

Explanation

While breast milk is considered the gold standard for infant nutrition, providing essential antibodies, proteins, and fats, it is naturally very low in iron. Infants are typically born with sufficient iron stores, primarily accumulated during the final trimester of pregnancy, which last for the first four to six months of life. However, because the concentration of iron in mother's milk is approximately 0.3 to 0.5 mg/L, it cannot meet the increasing nutritional demands of the infant as these internal stores deplete. This deficiency is the primary reason why pediatric guidelines recommend the introduction of iron-rich complementary foods or weaning around the age of six months to prevent the development of iron-deficiency anemia. Although the small amount of iron present in breast milk has a high bioavailability compared to other sources, the total quantity is insufficient for long-term growth.

90Science and Technology
Arrange the following substances in chronological order of their first synthesis in lab: 1. Black gold 2. Fullerene 3. Graphene 4. Kevlar
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Answer: (B) 4 2 3 1

Explanation

Kevlar was first synthesized in 1965 by Stephanie Kwolek at DuPont, making it the earliest material in this sequence. Fullerene, specifically the C₆₀ buckyball, was synthesized and identified in 1985 by Harold Kroto, Robert Curl, and Richard Smalley. Graphene, which consists of a single layer of carbon atoms, was first isolated in a laboratory setting in 2004 by Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov at the University of Manchester. Black gold, a plasmonic nanomaterial created by restructuring the size and gaps between gold nanoparticles to absorb the entire visible and near-infrared solar spectrum, was synthesized by researchers at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) in 2019.

91Science and Technology
Bibliography is
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Answer: (C) Information Management Tool

Explanation

Bibliography is a systematic list of books, articles, and other published materials organized by specific criteria such as author, subject, or time period. It serves as an Information Management Tool because it provides the essential framework for bibliographic control, which is the process of identifying, naming, and organizing records of human knowledge. By categorizing and indexing information sources, a bibliography enables researchers and librarians to efficiently track, retrieve, and manage intellectual output. In the context of information science, it is considered a fundamental instrument used to organize document-based information, making it accessible for future use and ensuring that the body of literature in any given field remains manageable and searchable.

92Science and Technology
Which one of the following is associated with 'Albedo'?
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Answer: (D) Reflecting power

Explanation

Albedo is defined as the measure of the diffuse reflection of solar radiation out of the total solar radiation received by a body or a surface. It represents the reflecting power of a surface, calculated as the ratio between the reflected radiation and the incident radiation. This ratio is typically expressed as a dimensionless fraction or a percentage, ranging from 0 for a perfectly absorbing black surface to 1 for a perfectly reflecting white surface. In the context of Earth's climate, albedo is a critical factor in the global energy budget, as surfaces with high reflecting power, such as ice sheets, snow, and certain cloud types, reflect a large portion of incoming solar energy back into space, thereby influencing the temperature of the planet.

93Science and Technology
With reference to the Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is Global Research Programme to outreach role of carbon on earth. 2. It conducts field observations of deep microbial ecosystem.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) is a decade-long international research program, launched in 2009, dedicated to uncovering the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon within Earth. It functions as a global collaborative network of scientists exploring the physical, chemical, and biological roles of carbon in the deep earth. A significant component of the DCO is the Deep Life community, which focuses on identifying and characterizing the deep microbial ecosystem. This involves extensive field observations and subsurface sampling to understand life in extreme environments, such as deep-sea hydrothermal vents and deep terrestrial crustal rocks, revealing a vast biosphere of microorganisms existing far beneath the Earth's surface.

94Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Maximum number of the species of butterflies are found in tropical countries. Reason (R): Butterflies cannot tolerate low temperatures.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Butterflies are ectothermic (cold-blooded) insects, meaning their body temperature is regulated by the external environment. They require warmth to maintain the metabolic rates necessary for flight, feeding, and reproduction. Most butterfly species cannot function effectively or survive when ambient temperatures drop below certain thresholds, typically around 10°C to 15°C. Tropical countries provide the consistent warmth and high humidity necessary for their year-round activity and survival. This physiological intolerance to low temperatures is the primary reason why butterfly biodiversity is most concentrated in the tropics and diminishes significantly toward colder temperate and polar latitudes.

95Geography
The amount of energy during transfer from one topic level to another in an ecosystem
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Answer: (B) Decreases

Explanation

The flow of energy through an ecosystem is governed by the Second Law of Thermodynamics and Lindeman's 10 percent law. This ecological principle states that during the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher level, only approximately 10 percent of the energy is stored as biomass and made available to the succeeding level. The remaining 90 percent of energy is lost to the environment, primarily as heat generated during metabolic processes like respiration, movement, and growth, or remains in unconsumed and undigested matter. Because energy is dissipated at every stage of the food chain, the total amount of available energy progressively diminishes as it moves from primary producers to top consumers, resulting in an energy pyramid that is always upright.

96Science and Technology
Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?
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Answer: (D) Blue-green algae

Explanation

Blue-green algae, scientifically known as Cyanobacteria, are a group of prokaryotic organisms that play a vital role in biological nitrogen fixation. They possess the enzyme nitrogenase, which enables them to convert atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃), a form that can be readily absorbed by plants. Many species, such as Nostoc and Anabaena, develop specialized, thick-walled cells called heterocysts. These cells provide the anaerobic environment necessary for the oxygen-sensitive nitrogenase enzyme to function effectively. Because of this capability, blue-green algae are frequently used as biofertilizers to enhance soil fertility, particularly in rice cultivation and aquatic ecosystems.

97Geography
Smog is essentially caused by the atmospheric presence of
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Answer: (D) Oxide of nitrogen and sulphur

Explanation

Smog is a complex mixture of air pollutants that results in a thick, hazy atmosphere and reduced visibility. It is primarily classified into two types based on its chemical composition: classical smog and photochemical smog. Classical smog is characterized by high levels of sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and smoke, typically occurring in cool, damp climates. Photochemical smog is produced by the reaction of sunlight with oxides of nitrogen (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds, which is common in sunny, urban environments. These oxides of nitrogen and sulfur are predominantly emitted from the combustion of fossil fuels in industrial processes and automobile exhaust. The atmospheric presence of these specific oxides provides the essential precursors for the chemical reactions that generate the various harmful components of smog.

98Geography
The 'Global-500' Award is given for rare achievement in which of the following fields?
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Answer: (B) Environment Conservation

Explanation

The Global 500 Roll of Honour was an award established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 1987. It was created to recognize and honor the environmental achievements of individuals and organizations around the world who have made outstanding contributions to the protection and improvement of the environment. The award aimed to encourage global action and highlight success stories in environmental conservation and sustainable development. In 2005, the Global 500 Roll of Honour was succeeded by the Champions of the Earth award, which continues the mission of recognizing significant environmental leadership. Notable recipients of the Global 500 Award include Wangari Maathai, Anil Agarwal, and Salim Ali.

99Science and Technology
Black-hole is
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Answer: (D) a collapsed star

Explanation

A black hole is an astronomical object formed by the gravitational collapse of a massive star at the end of its life cycle. When a star with a core mass significantly greater than the Sun exhausts its nuclear fuel, it can no longer generate the outward pressure necessary to counteract its own gravity. This leads to a catastrophic inward collapse, compressing the stellar matter into a region of space where the density is near-infinite and the gravitational pull is so strong that nothing, including light, can escape. The boundary surrounding this collapsed mass is known as the event horizon.

100Geography
The most biodiversity rich area in India is
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Answer: (C) Western Ghats

Explanation

The Western Ghats is recognized as one of the world's eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity and is a UNESCO World Heritage site. Stretching approximately 1,600 kilometers along the western coast of India, this mountain range intercepts the moisture-laden monsoon winds, resulting in high rainfall and the development of diverse ecosystems ranging from tropical evergreen forests to montane grasslands. The region exhibits an extraordinary degree of endemism, meaning many species of flora and fauna found here are unique to this landscape and not found anywhere else in the world. It houses a vast majority of India's endemic amphibian and reptile species, along with significant populations of flagship species like the Lion-tailed Macaque and the Nilgiri Tahr.

101Polity and Governance
Which of the following is a Nodal Institution for implementation of Sustainable Development Goals in India?
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Answer: (C) NITI Aayog

Explanation

NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India. It is mandated with the task of coordinating between various central ministries, state governments, and union territories to ensure the integrated achievement of the 169 targets under the 2030 Agenda. To streamline this process, NITI Aayog has mapped each of the 17 global goals to specific nodal ministries and flagship government schemes. Furthermore, it monitors national progress through the SDG India Index, a comprehensive tool that ranks states and union territories on their performance across various social, economic, and environmental parameters, thereby fostering cooperative and competitive federalism in sustainable development.

102Economy
Arrange the following Committees formed for small scale sector in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Nayak Committee II. Abid Hussain Committee III. S.S. Kohli Committee IV. Karve Committee
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Answer: (C) IV, II, I, III

Explanation

The committees for the small-scale sector were formed in the following chronological order based on their years of constitution:

The Karve Committee, also known as the Village and Small Scale Industries Committee, was established in 1955. It was the first significant committee to emphasize the role of small-scale industries in promoting rural development and decentralizing economic power.

The Abid Hussain Committee on Trade Policy was constituted in 1984. While he later chaired a dedicated Expert Committee on Small Enterprises in 1995, his 1984 committee is often the chronological marker used in industrial policy assessments for its recommendations on modernizing the small-scale sector and trade reforms.

The Nayak Committee, formally known as the Committee to Examine the Adequacy of Institutional Credit to the SSI Sector and Related Aspects, was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India in December 1991. Its primary focus was to improve the flow of credit to small-scale units.

The S.S. Kohli Committee, or the Committee on Rehabilitation of Sick SSI Units, was formed in 2000. It was tasked with identifying the causes of industrial sickness in the small-scale sector and suggesting measures for their recovery and rehabilitation.

This timeline establishes the sequence as IV (1955), II (1984), I (1991), and III (2000).

103Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Launch Year): (A) National (B) Integrated Child (C) National Leprosy 3. 2005 Eradication Programme (D) National Rural Health Mission List-II (Programme): 1. 1975 Programme for Control of Blindness 2. 1976 Development Scheme 4. 1983
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

National Programme for Control of Blindness (A) was launched in 1976 (2) as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme to reduce the prevalence of blindness and provide comprehensive eye care services.

Integrated Child Development Services (B) was launched on 2 October 1975 (1) to provide nutritional and health support, including immunization and preschool education, to children under six years and their mothers.

National Leprosy Eradication Programme (C) was launched in 1983 (4) with the aim to eliminate leprosy as a public health problem, succeeding the National Leprosy Control Programme of 1955.

National Rural Health Mission (D) was launched on 12 April 2005 (3) to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, especially vulnerable groups.

104Economy
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The labour force participation rate falling sharply in the recent years for females in India. Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to the improved family income and increase in education. Select the correct answer from codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

According to various rounds of the National Sample Survey (NSSO) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data available up to 2019, India witnessed a significant decline in the female labour force participation rate, particularly in rural areas. This trend is largely attributed to the increase in female enrollment in secondary and higher education, which delays their entry into the workforce as more young women choose to stay in school. Additionally, the rise in household income levels has triggered an income effect where women in improving economic conditions withdraw from low-paid, arduous manual labour, often referred to as the U-shaped relationship between education/income and female labour supply. As family incomes stabilize, there is a tendency to prioritize domestic responsibilities or social status over subsistence work, making both increased educational attainment and improved household prosperity valid explanatory factors for the observed sharp decline in participation.

105Economy
The Dependency Ratio in India is declining because
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Answer: (C) Population of 15-59 years is relatively high

Explanation

The Dependency Ratio is a demographic indicator that measures the pressure on the productive part of the population. It is calculated as the ratio of the number of dependents, which includes children aged 0-14 and the elderly aged 60 and above, to the working-age population, typically defined as those between 15 and 59 years. The formula is expressed as DR = (Population (0-14) + Population (60+))/(Population (15-59)) × 100. India is currently in a phase of demographic dividend where the share of the working-age population is increasing while the share of the child population is declining due to falling fertility rates. When the population in the 15-59 years age group is relatively high compared to the dependent age groups, the denominator in the ratio increases, resulting in a decline in the overall dependency ratio.

106Polity and Governance
Which of the following Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) will target to water availability for all and its permanent management upto 2030 in India?
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Answer: (A) SDG-6

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Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG-6) is titled Clean Water and Sanitation and aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by the year 2030. This goal addresses the quality and sustainability of water resources through targets such as achieving universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking water, improving water quality by reducing pollution, and increasing water-use efficiency across all sectors. It also emphasizes the implementation of integrated water resources management at all levels and the protection of water-related ecosystems. In India, these objectives are pursued through major national initiatives like the Jal Jeevan Mission, which focuses on providing functional household tap connections to ensure water availability and security.

107Economy
Who has propounded the concept of 'limit to Growth?
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Answer: (A) Club of Rome

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The concept of Limits to Growth was introduced in a 1972 report commissioned by the Club of Rome, an international think tank founded in 1968. The report was authored by a team of researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, led by Donella Meadows and Dennis Meadows. It utilized a computer simulation known as the World3 model to examine the long-term consequences of exponential growth in population, industrialization, pollution, food production, and resource depletion within a finite planetary system. The study concluded that without significant changes to resource consumption and growth patterns, the Earth would reach its carrying capacity within a century, leading to a decline in industrial output and population. This report was a seminal work that brought global attention to the physical constraints of the planet and the necessity of achieving a state of global equilibrium.

108Economy
The number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year is called
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Answer: (A) Usual status unemployment

Explanation

The Usual Status approach to measuring unemployment, as formulated by the National Sample Survey Office, adopts a reference period of 365 days preceding the date of the survey. A person is categorized as unemployed under this status if they were available for work but did not find employment for the major part of the year. In technical terms, the major part refers to a period of 183 days or more during the reference year. This metric is primarily used to identify chronic or structural unemployment within the labor force, as it ignores short-term or seasonal changes in employment and focuses on the long-term activity status of individuals. It provides a stable measure of the number of persons who are habitually unemployed.

109Polity and Governance
With reference to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Companies Act 2014, introduces mandatory CSR. 2. Companies covered under this will have to spend atleast one percent of their annual net-profit in the activities under CSR. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 Only

Explanation

The mandate for Corporate Social Responsibility in India was established under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, with the specific Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Rules coming into force on April 1, 2014. This framework made India the first country to legally mandate CSR for companies exceeding specific financial thresholds regarding net worth, turnover, or net profit. The legislation requires these eligible companies to spend at least 2% of their average net profits calculated over the three immediately preceding financial years on activities listed in Schedule VII of the Act. As the legal requirement is a 2% expenditure based on a three-year average rather than 1% of annual profit, the first statement correctly identifies the implementation of mandatory CSR while the second statement provides an incorrect percentage.

110Economy
Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is developed by
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Answer: (A) Morris D. Morris

Explanation

The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was developed by Morris David Morris in the mid-1970s while he was working for the Overseas Development Council. It was created as a response to the limitations of using Gross National Product (GNP) as the sole measure of a country's development. The PQLI is a composite indicator that calculates the average of three key social variables: basic literacy rate, infant mortality rate, and life expectancy at age one. Each of these components is measured on a scale from 1 to 100. This index was pioneering in shifting the focus of international development assessments from purely economic growth to the actual well-being and physical quality of life experienced by the population.

111Economy
What is the India's rank in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) in 2017?
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Answer: (A) 100th

Explanation

In the 2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, which was jointly published by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Concern Worldwide, and Welthungerhilfe, India was ranked 100th among 119 qualifying countries. India received a score of 31.4, categorizing its hunger level as serious. The GHI score is calculated using four key indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality. During this period, India’s ranking was significantly impacted by high rates of child wasting and stunting, highlighting persistent challenges in nutrition and public health despite economic growth. The 2017 report indicated that India had one of the highest child wasting rates in the world, which dragged down its overall performance on the index.

112Geography
Match List-I (Vegetation Type): (A) Maquis (B) Fynbos (C) Chaparral (D) Matorral List-II (Region): 1. California 2. Mediterranean Sea Coastal Region 3. South Africa 4. Chile
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Answer: (A) 2 3 1 4

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Maquis is the dense, evergreen scrub vegetation characteristic of the Mediterranean Sea coastal regions, often consisting of shrubs like myrtle and laurel. Fynbos is a exceptionally diverse belt of natural shrubland or heathland vegetation located in the Western Cape province of South Africa. Chaparral refers to the drought-resistant, sclerophyllous shrubland biome found in the Mediterranean climate region of California. Matorral is the specific term for the Mediterranean-type shrubland and thicket ecosystems found in central Chile.

113Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Capital): (A) Uzbekistan (B) Tajikistan (C) Kyrgyzstan (D) Turkmenistan List-II (Country): 1. Tashkent 2. Dushanbe 3. Bishkek 4. Ashgabat
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4

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Uzbekistan is matched with Tashkent, which serves as its capital and is the most populous city in Central Asia. Tajikistan is paired with Dushanbe, its capital city whose name translates to Monday in Tajik, reflecting its history as a marketplace town. Kyrgyzstan corresponds to Bishkek, its capital located in the Chuy Valley near the border with Kazakhstan. Turkmenistan is matched with Ashgabat, its capital known for being situated between the Kopet Dag mountains and the Karakum Desert.

114Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I: (A) Epiphytes (B) Acacia (C) Baobab (D) Cedars List-II (Natural Region): 1. Mediterranean 2. Equatorial 3. Sahara 4. Savanna
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Answer: (A) 2 3 4 1

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Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants for physical support without being parasitic, and they are most abundant in the humid Equatorial rainforests where competition for sunlight is intense. Acacia trees are xerophytic plants with deep roots and thorns, perfectly adapted to the extremely arid environment of the Sahara desert. Baobab trees, characterized by their massive water-storing trunks, are a signature species of the Savanna regions, enabling them to survive prolonged dry seasons. Cedars are evergreen coniferous trees commonly found in the Mediterranean climate zone, particularly in mountainous areas such as the Atlas and Lebanon ranges.

115Geography
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Tribe) (Place)
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Answer: (D) Khirghiz Sudan

Explanation

The Khirghiz (or Kyrgyz) are a Turkic ethnic group native to the mountainous regions of Central Asia, primarily inhabiting the Kyrgyz Republic (Kyrgyzstan) and the surrounding areas of the Pamir and Tien Shan mountains. They are traditionally nomadic pastoralists known for their yurt dwellings and horse-riding culture. Sudan, located in Northeast Africa, is home to diverse ethnic groups such as the Dinka, Nuer, and Beja, but has no indigenous Khirghiz population. This makes the pairing of Khirghiz with Sudan geographically and ethnographically incorrect.

116Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Indian Ocean has become the Military bases of many big powers. Reason (R): There is strong geopolitical benefits in Indian Ocean and adjacent countries. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Indian Ocean serves as a vital maritime highway, carrying more than one-third of the world’s bulk cargo and two-thirds of world oil shipments. This strategic significance has led major global powers to establish a military presence in the region to secure Sea Lines of Communication and protect their energy interests. The United States maintains a major military base at Diego Garcia, while other powers like China, France, and the United Kingdom have developed or sought access to naval facilities in Djibouti and other littoral states. The presence of critical maritime choke points such as the Strait of Hormuz, Bab-el-Mandeb, and the Strait of Malacca provides immense geopolitical leverage to any nation capable of projecting power in the area. Therefore, the pursuit of these geopolitical advantages and the need to monitor trade routes directly explain why the Indian Ocean has become a hub for the military bases of major global powers.

117Geography
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the hills of Central India located from West to East?
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Answer: (B) Satpura, Mahadeo, Maikal and Chhotanagpur

Explanation

The sequence of these geographical features follows the structural alignment of the Satpura mountain system and its extension toward the eastern plateau region. The Satpura Range begins in the west, stretching from the borders of Gujarat and Maharashtra through Madhya Pradesh. The central portion of this range is comprised of the Mahadeo Hills, where the highest peak, Dhupgarh, is located. Continuing eastward, the range culminates in the Maikal Range, which forms the eastern base of the Satpura system in Chhattisgarh. Beyond the Maikal Range lies the Chhotanagpur Plateau, a distinct geological entity that covers much of Jharkhand and parts of Odisha and West Bengal. This progression from the western Satpura through the central Mahadeo and eastern Maikal hills to the eastern Chhotanagpur Plateau defines the West to East corridor of Central India.

118Geography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The highest concentration of Seismic zones lies in Himalayan region in India. Reason (R): There are many longitudinal thrust zones in Himalayas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Himalayan region experiences the highest concentration of seismic activity in India because it is located at the convergent plate boundary where the Indian Plate is continuously colliding with and subducting under the Eurasian Plate. This ongoing tectonic collision has resulted in the formation of several major longitudinal thrust faults that run across the entire length of the mountain range, including the Main Central Thrust (MCT), the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT), and the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT). These thrust zones are areas of intense crustal deformation where tectonic stress accumulates over time. When this accumulated energy is suddenly released through slip along these fault planes, it results in high-magnitude earthquakes. The presence and active nature of these longitudinal thrust zones are the fundamental geological reasons for the high seismicity and the classification of the Himalayan belt into the highest seismic risk zones (Zone IV and Zone V).

119Geography
Imphal Basin surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of
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Answer: (A) Lacustrine plain

Explanation

The Imphal Basin in Manipur is a classic example of a lacustrine plain, which is a plain formed by the deposition of sediments in a lake. Geologically, the central highland of Manipur was once occupied by a massive ancient lake during the Pleistocene epoch. Over time, continuous sedimentation from the surrounding Manipur Hills filled the lake bed, and subsequent tectonic activities or changes in drainage patterns led to the recession of water, exposing the flat fertile floor. The present-day Loktak Lake is considered a prominent remnant of this prehistoric lake system, and the surrounding flat land of the Imphal Valley consists of thick lacustrine deposits of clay, silt, and sand.

120Geography
Which of the following rivers is famous for its fault valley drainage?
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Answer: (B) Damodar

Explanation

The Damodar River flows through a structural trough or rift valley formed by down-faulting in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region of eastern India. This fault valley is part of the larger Gondwana graben system, which is geologically famous for hosting extensive coal measures. The river follows this tectonic depression, moving eastward through the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. Unlike many other Himalayan or peninsular rivers that follow the general slope of the land, the Damodar's course is strictly governed by this ancient faulted structure, making it a primary example of fault valley drainage alongside the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

121Geography
Which one of the following natural regions is known as 'Land of Big Games'?
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Answer: (D) Tropical Savanna Region

Explanation

The Tropical Savanna Region, also known as the Sudan type of climate, is famously described as the Land of Big Games because it supports an unparalleled diversity and density of large wild animals. This natural region is characterized by a landscape of tall grasses and scattered trees, providing an ideal ecosystem for both massive herbivores and their predators. Millions of large mammals, including elephants, giraffes, zebras, rhinoceroses, and buffaloes, inhabit these plains alongside carnivores such as lions, leopards, and cheetahs. Historically, the region was a major destination for big-game hunting, which gave rise to this designation.

122Geography
With reference to the Himalayan Range, which of the statements are correct? 1. The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were fossilless. 2. Marine livings fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of lesser Himalayas. 3. Remains of human civilization are found in outer or Shivalik Himalayas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Lesser Himalayas, often referred to as the Himachal range, contain sedimentary sequences like the Krol and Tal formations that preserve marine fossils, including brachiopods and various microfossils from the Paleozoic era. The Shivalik or Outer Himalayas consist of younger sedimentary deposits that have yielded significant evidence of vertebrate evolution and early human activity. Archaeological sites belonging to the Soanian culture, a Lower Paleolithic tradition, are found within the Shivalik region, providing clear evidence of human civilization's remains in this zone. Statement 1 is incorrect because the sedimentary cover of the Greater Himalayas, specifically within the Tethyan Himalayan zone, is well-known for being rich in marine fossils such as ammonites and trilobites, rather than being fossilless.

123History
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Akbar, like Shershah, tried to regulate the currency of the state. Reason (R): As in Shershah's currency, the chief copper coin of Akbar's time was the Dam. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Akbar sought to establish a uniform and stable monetary system for the Mughal Empire by building upon the reforms initiated by Sher Shah Suri. Sher Shah had replaced the debased coins of the Sultanate era with the silver Rupiya and the copper Dam, setting a high standard of purity and weight. Akbar adopted this system and further regulated it by setting up a centralized network of mints and defining the exchange ratio between different metals. The copper Dam, weighing approximately 323 grains, became the primary coin for administrative and commercial transactions, with 40 dams typically equaling one silver Rupiya. By standardizing the Dam as the principal copper unit and maintaining its consistency in weight and value, Akbar effectively implemented his policy of regulating the state currency to facilitate revenue collection and trade.

124History
Arrange the following battles in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Battle of Sarnal II. Battle of Bilgram III. Battle of Dharmat IV. Battle of Jajau
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Answer: (B) II, I, III, IV

Explanation

The chronological sequence of these historical conflicts begins with the Battle of Bilgram in 1540, also known as the Battle of Kanauj, where Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun. This was followed by the Battle of Sarnal in 1572, which took place during Emperor Akbar's campaign to conquer Gujarat. The third event is the Battle of Dharmat in 1658, a decisive conflict in the Mughal war of succession where Aurangzeb defeated the imperial army of Shah Jahan. The final event is the Battle of Jajau in 1707, occurring after Aurangzeb's death, where Bahadur Shah I defeated Muhammad Azam Shah to claim the throne. This sequence follows the progression of the Mughal Empire from its mid-16th-century expansion to its 17th-century internal conflicts and early 18th-century succession crises.

125Art and Culture
With reference to Hath Yog, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Hath Yog was practiced by Nathpanthis. 2. Hath Yog technique was also adopted by the Sufis. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Hath Yog was a central practice for the Nathpanthis, a medieval monastic group led by figures like Matsyendranath and Gorakhnath. They advocated for the liberation of the soul through intense physical discipline, including asanas, regulated breathing or pranayama, and meditation. Their teachings challenged conventional ritualism and became highly popular among lower castes in Northern India.

The techniques of Hath Yog were also adopted by various Sufi orders in the Indian subcontinent. Through interactions with yogis, Sufi saints integrated yogic practices into their spiritual exercises to enhance concentration and physical endurance. A notable example is the Persian translation of the Sanskrit yogic text Amrit Kunda, which influenced the meditative practices of the Chishtiya and Shattariya Sufi orders, particularly regarding breath control and specific seated postures.

126History
Which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of Iqta System?
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Answer: (C) Revenue from Iqta was directly deposited in Sultan's account

Explanation

The revenue generated from Iqta lands was not directly deposited into the Sultan's account. Instead, the Iqta system functioned as a method of land revenue assignment where the Sultan granted the right to collect revenue from specific territories to officers known as Muqtis or Iqtadars. These officials used the collected revenue to meet their personal salaries and the costs of maintaining a prescribed number of troops for the Sultan's service. The Muqti was only responsible for remitting the surplus revenue, known as fawazil, to the central treasury after deducting these sanctioned expenses. In contrast, it was the revenue from Khalisa lands that was managed directly by the central government and deposited into the Sultan's treasury for his personal use and the expenses of the central army.

127History
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Books) (Writers)
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Answer: (C) Tughlaqnama Ibn Battuta

Explanation

Tughlaqnama was authored by the renowned Persian poet Amir Khusrau. This historical poem describes the rise of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty, and his victory over Khusrau Khan in 1320. Ibn Battuta, the Moroccan traveler who visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq, is known for his famous travelogue titled Kitab-ul-Rihla, which provides a detailed account of the administrative and social conditions of the Delhi Sultanate during the 14th century.

128History
In which year was the 'Native Marriage Act' passed?
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Answer: (B) 1872

Explanation

The Native Marriage Act, formally known as Act III of 1872, was enacted in 1872 during the administration of Viceroy Lord Northbrook. This landmark legislation was passed primarily due to the persistent advocacy of Keshab Chandra Sen and the Brahmo Samaj. The Act provided a legal basis for civil marriages, specifically for those who did not wish to perform marriages according to traditional religious rites. It was a pioneering social reform that prohibited polygamy and established the minimum age for marriage at 14 years for girls and 18 years for boys. It also facilitated inter-caste and inter-religious marriages by requiring the parties involved to declare that they did not profess any of the recognized religions of the time.

129History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Year): (A) Pabna (B) Eka (C) Santhal (D) Tana Bhagat 4. 1914 List-II (Movement): 1. 1855-56 2. 1873-85 3. 1922
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Answer: (B) 2 3 1 4

Explanation

The Pabna Peasant Movement (1873-85) originated in the Yusufshahi Pargana of Bengal as a resistance against the illegal demands and arbitrary rent hikes by zamindars. The Eka Movement (1922), also known as the Unity Movement, was a peasant struggle in the United Provinces led by Madari Pasi to protest against excessive rents and the extraction of cesses. The Santhal Rebellion (1855-56) was a major tribal uprising led by brothers Sidhu and Kanhu against the oppressive British revenue system and moneylenders in the Rajmahal hills. The Tana Bhagat Movement (1914) began as a sub-sect of the Oraon tribe in Chhotanagpur, focusing on monotheism and social reform before evolving into a political struggle against British rule.

130History
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Event) (Year)
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Answer: (D) The Communal 1933 Award

Explanation

The Communal Award, also known as the MacDonald Award, was announced by the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald on August 16, 1932. It was introduced following the Second Round Table Conference to provide separate electorates for various minority communities, including the Depressed Classes, Muslims, Europeans, and Sikhs. This announcement led to Mahatma Gandhi undertaking a fast unto death in Yerwada Jail, which eventually resulted in the Poona Pact between B.R. Ambedkar and Gandhi in September 1932. Because the award was issued and the subsequent resolution occurred in 1932, the pairing with 1933 is incorrect.

131History
Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Appointment of Simon Commission II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre III. Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March IV. Death of Ferozshah Mehta
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Answer: (A) IV, II, I, III

Explanation

Ferozshah Mehta, a founding member of the Indian National Congress and a towering figure in the moderate faction, passed away on November 5, 1915. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, following the arrest of Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal under the Rowlatt Act. The British government announced the appointment of the Simon Commission in November 1927 to report on the functioning of the constitutional system in India. Mahatma Gandhi began his historic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930, reaching the coastal village of Dandi on April 6, 1930, to challenge the British salt tax.

132History
The trial of the Officers of the I.N.A. was held in
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Answer: (A) Red Fort, Delhi

Explanation

The historic trial of the Indian National Army (INA) officers, commonly referred to as the Red Fort trials, was held at the Red Fort in Delhi between November 1945 and May 1946. The British colonial government conducted these public courts-martial to prosecute officers of the Azad Hind Fauj who had been captured during the Second World War. The first and most famous trial involved Colonel Prem Sahgal, Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Major General Shah Nawaz Khan. The British chose the Red Fort as the venue to symbolize the re-establishment of their authority, but the proceedings instead galvanized Indian nationalist sentiment and led to massive public demonstrations in support of the INA soldiers.

133History
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of Warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of Presidentship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones. Reason (R): Warren Hastings was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalist who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit, Persian and Arabic. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded in Calcutta on January 15, 1784, by Sir William Jones during the Governor-Generalship of Warren Hastings. Although Hastings was the patron of the society and was invited to be its first president, he declined the position because he believed Sir William Jones, as the primary initiator and a distinguished linguist, was better suited for the role. This confirms that Assertion (A) is true. Warren Hastings was indeed a scholar and a dedicated Orientalist who promoted the study of Indian classical languages to better understand Indian laws and customs. He supported the translation of the Bhagavad Gita into English by Charles Wilkins and founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781. Thus, Reason (R) is also true. However, Hastings' personal scholarship and his role as a promoter of Oriental studies do not serve as the causal explanation for his decision to decline the presidency; his refusal was specifically a gesture of respect toward the specialized expertise and leadership of Sir William Jones in founding the institution.

134History
With reference to the National Calendar, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. The National Calendar of India is based on Vikram Era. 2. The National Calendar is adopted from January 26, 1950. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The National Calendar of India is based on the Saka Era, which began in 78 AD, rather than the Vikram Era. It was officially adopted by the Government of India on March 22, 1957 (corresponding to 1 Chaitra 1879 Saka era), for use in the Gazette of India, news broadcasts by All India Radio, and official government communications. The calendar consists of twelve months, with Chaitra being the first month of the year. Its dates have a fixed correspondence with the Gregorian calendar, where 1 Chaitra normally falls on March 22, or March 21 during a leap year.

135Polity and Governance
In which year was accounting separated from auditing and Comptroller and Auditor General's task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts?
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Answer: (C) 1976

Explanation

The separation of accounting from auditing for the Central Government was implemented in 1976 through the Comptroller and Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Amendment Act, 1976. This reform relieved the CAG of the responsibility for compiling and maintaining the accounts of the Union Government, leading to the departmentalization of accounts where individual ministries and departments took over their own accounting functions. This change was aimed at improving administrative efficiency and ensuring that the CAG could focus exclusively on the independent audit of government expenditures. While this separation applies to the Union level, the CAG continues to perform both accounting and auditing functions for most State Governments in India.

136Economy
Who opposed Planned Development in India?
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Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi was a staunch critic of the centralized, heavy industrialization-led model of planned development that became the hallmark of India's post-independence economic policy. He advocated for Gram Swaraj, or village self-rule, envisioning a decentralized economy where development was rooted in rural self-sufficiency and the promotion of cottage industries. Gandhi believed that top-down planning and large-scale mechanization would lead to the exploitation of the poor, mass unemployment, and the destruction of traditional rural life. His philosophy emphasized labor-intensive methods and local production to ensure that growth remained human-centric and accessible to the grassroots population.

137Polity and Governance
With reference to the federal system in India, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India. 2. Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Article 1 of the Constitution defines India as a Union of States, implying that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states and, consequently, no state has the right to secede from it. As emphasized by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Union is permanent and indestructible. While Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the freedom of speech and expression, this right is not absolute. The 16th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1963 modified Article 19(2) to allow the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India. Therefore, the advocacy of secession or any speech that questions the territorial integrity of the country is not protected under the right to freedom of expression and can be restricted or penalized by law.

138Polity and Governance
How many items are there in the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) 29

Explanation

The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India was added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. It contains 29 functional items placed within the purview of Panchayats under Article 243-G. These items cover various subjects such as agriculture, land improvement, minor irrigation, animal husbandry, fisheries, social forestry, small-scale industries, and rural housing, enabling Panchayati Raj Institutions to function as units of self-government.

139Polity and Governance
With reference to Prime Minister's Office (PMO) which one of the statements is/are correct? 1. It came into existence in 1977. 2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) was originally established as the Prime Minister's Secretariat in 1947. It was renamed as the Prime Minister's Office in June 1977 during the Morarji Desai administration. Since the office has existed since independence, the assertion that it came into existence in 1977 is incorrect as that date only marks a change in nomenclature. Administratively, the PMO is headed by the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister. The Cabinet Secretary, while being the senior-most civil servant in India, heads the Cabinet Secretariat, which is a distinct entity from the PMO. Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.

140Polity and Governance
The provisions of the sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution are applicable in which of the following states?
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Answer: (A) Tripura

Explanation

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, formulated under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1), provides for the administration of tribal areas in the four North-Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. These provisions allow for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) that possess significant legislative, executive, and judicial autonomy to protect the social, cultural, and land rights of tribal communities. Tripura is specifically included in this constitutional framework, where the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) operates to ensure self-governance and the preservation of tribal traditions within the state.

141Polity and Governance
The Money Bill is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Article 110

Explanation

Article 110 of the Constitution of India provides the definitive criteria for a Money Bill. A bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the matters specifically listed in this Article, such as the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax; the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union Government; the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India; and the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Under Article 110(3), if any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. This certification by the Speaker is essential before the bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent.

142Science and Technology
Cross border oil pipeline inaugurated by P.M. Modi in September 2019 connects which of the following cities?
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Answer: (A) Motihari and Amlekhganj

Explanation

The Motihari-Amlekhganj petroleum pipeline is a 69-km long cross-border project inaugurated in September 2019 to transport fuel from India to Nepal. It starts at Motihari in the East Champaran district of Bihar and terminates at the Amlekhganj fuel depot in Nepal. This project represents the first transnational petroleum pipeline in the South Asian region and aims to ensure a stable and cost-effective supply of petroleum products to Nepal. It was constructed by Indian Oil Corporation in collaboration with Nepal Oil Corporation to replace the expensive and inefficient transport of fuel via tankers across the border.

143History
Jaipur was listed as 'World Heritage Site' by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee in its 43rd Session held in the city
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Answer: (A) Baku (Azerbaizan)

Explanation

The 43rd session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee was held in Baku, Azerbaijan, from 30 June to 10 July 2019. During this session, the committee inscribed the Walled City of Jaipur, Rajasthan, on the UNESCO World Heritage List. Jaipur was recognized for its exceptional urban planning and architecture, which reflects an intersection of ideas from late medieval India, the Mughal era, and Western influences. The city was founded in 1727 by Sawai Jai Singh II and is celebrated for its grid-based town planning and iconic rose-colored buildings.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2C
  3. 3D
  4. 4D
  5. 5B
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9C
  10. 10B
  11. 11A
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14A
  15. 15C
  16. 16C
  17. 17C
  18. 18A
  19. 19C
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22B
  23. 23A
  24. 24A
  25. 25D
  26. 26A
  27. 27D
  28. 28C
  29. 29C
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32B
  33. 33B
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36B
  37. 37C
  38. 38D
  39. 39C
  40. 40D
  41. 41A
  42. 42D
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49A
  50. 50B
  51. 51A
  52. 52B
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55C
  56. 56B
  57. 57B
  58. 58B
  59. 59D
  60. 60C
  61. 61D
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67D
  68. 68D
  69. 69B
  70. 70D
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73D
  74. 74D
  75. 75D
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78C
  79. 79C
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82A
  83. 83B
  84. 84C
  85. 85B
  86. 86A
  87. 87A
  88. 88A
  89. 89A
  90. 90B
  91. 91C
  92. 92D
  93. 93C
  94. 94A
  95. 95B
  96. 96D
  97. 97D
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100C
  101. 101C
  102. 102C
  103. 103C
  104. 104A
  105. 105C
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109A
  110. 110A
  111. 111A
  112. 112A
  113. 113A
  114. 114A
  115. 115D
  116. 116A
  117. 117B
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120B
  121. 121D
  122. 122B
  123. 123A
  124. 124B
  125. 125C
  126. 126C
  127. 127C
  128. 128B
  129. 129B
  130. 130D
  131. 131A
  132. 132A
  133. 133B
  134. 134D
  135. 135C
  136. 136A
  137. 137A
  138. 138C
  139. 139D
  140. 140A
  141. 141B
  142. 142A
  143. 143A

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